Evans v Kosmar Villa Holidays plc
[2008] 1 All ER 530
[2007] EWCA Civ 1003
Categories: CONTRACT
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): ARDEN, HOOPER AND RICHARDS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 26 JULY, 23 OCTOBER 2007
Contract – Implied term – Duty of care – Nature of duty – Reasonable care – Holiday contract – Claimant entering into holiday contract with tour operator – Claimant diving into shallow end of swimming pool at holiday complex and sustaining injury – Implied terms of holiday contract – Whether tour operator having duty to protect against obvious risk.
The claimant, then aged just under 18 years old, went on a holiday booked with the defendant tour operator. The apartment complex where he was staying had a small swimming pool. Towards the end of his stay, in the early hours of morning, the claimant dived into the shallow end of the pool and hit his head on the bottom of the pool, sustaining serious injuries which resulted in incomplete tetraplegia. He commenced proceedings against the defendant, claiming damages for personal injury. The basis of his claim included an implied term in the contract between himself and the defendant that reasonable skill and care would be exercised in the provision of facilities and services at the apartment complex, and in particular at the swimming pool and its surrounds. It was common ground that the dimensions of the swimming pool made it unsuitable for diving; the claimant’s case was that the positioning and size of the ‘no diving’ signs were inadequate and that signage relating to closure of the pool at night should have been explicit and enforced. He accepted that he knew that knowingly diving into the shallow end of a swimming pool could be very dangerous, but said that he had not known that it was the shallow end that he was diving into, and that he had seen other people diving in at that end. The defendant contended that there was no duty to guard against an obvious risk that diving into shallow water or into water of an unknown depth could cause injury. The judge distinguished the case from decided cases in tort under the Occupiers’ Liability Acts and found the defendant liable to the claimant for breach of contract with a finding of 50% contributory negligence. The defendant appealed. The Court of Appeal considered whether the judge had been right to distinguish the line of cases under the Occupiers’ Liability Acts and to treat them as having no relevance to the contractual context of the claimant’s case.
Held – The reasoning that people should accept responsibility for the risks they chose to run and that there should be no duty to protect them against obvious risks (unless there was no genuine and informed choice or some lack of capacity) which had been held to apply not only to trespassers and but also to lawful visitors to whom there was owed the common duty of care under the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957, applied also to persons to whom there was owed a duty of care in similar terms under a contract such as that in the instant case. Accordingly, in the instant case, the defendant’s duty of care had not extended to a duty to guard the claimant against the risk of his diving into the pool and injuring himself; that was an obvious risk of which he had been well aware and although the claimant
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had been just under 18 years of age he had been of full capacity and able to make a genuine and informed decision. It followed that the defendant had been under no duty to give the claimant any warning about the risk of diving into the pool. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see [39]–[41], [43], [44], [51]–[53], below)
Tomlinson v Congleton BC [2003] 3 All ER 1122 applied.
Notes
For the common duty of care to visitors and an occupier’s duty of care to persons other than visitors, see 33 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 631–634, 640.
Cases referred to in judgments
Codd v Thomson Tour Operators Ltd [2000] CA Transcript 1470/2000.
Dean v Thomson Tour Operators Ltd (16 June 2000, unreported).
Hone v Going Places Leisure Travel Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 947, [2001] All ER (D) 102 (Jun).
Ratcliff v McConnell [1999] 1 WLR 670, CA.
Tomlinson v Congleton BC [2003] UKHL 47, [2003] 3 All ER 1122, [2004] 1 AC 46, [2003] 3 WLR 705; rvsg [2002] EWCA Civ 309, [2003] 3 All ER 1122, [2004] 1 AC 46, [2003] 2 WLR 1120.
Wilson v Best Travel Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 353.
Appeal
The defendant, Kosmar Villa Holidays plc (Kosmar), appealed from the decision of Judge Thorn QC, sitting as a High Court judge ([2006] EWHC 3417 (QB)), finding Kosmar liable in contract for personal injuries to the claimant, James Evans. The facts are set out in the judgment of Richards LJ.
Graham Eklund QC (instructed by Kennedys) for Kosmar.
Alan Saggerson (instructed by Hugh James, Cardiff) for the claimant.
Judgment was reserved.
23 October 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
RICHARDS LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Arden LJ).
[1] In August 2002, three weeks short of his 18th birthday, James Evans was on holiday with a group of friends at the Marina Beach Apartments in Kavos, Corfu. The holiday had been booked with a tour operator, Kosmar Villa Holidays plc (Kosmar). The apartment complex was under independent Greek ownership and management but was contracted exclusively to Kosmar and was featured in Kosmar’s brochure. It included a small swimming pool. Towards the end of his stay, in the early hours of the morning, Mr Evans dived into the shallow end of the pool and hit his head on the bottom, sustaining serious injuries which resulted in incomplete tetraplegia. He brought a claim for personal injuries against Kosmar. Judge Thorn QC, sitting as a judge of the High Court, found Kosmar liable for the accident, subject to a finding of 50% contributory negligence ([2006] EWHC 3417 (QB)). Kosmar now appeals against that decision.
[2] It is clear that the claimant is a remarkable young man. The judge not only found him and his friends to be completely frank witnesses, unreservedly accepting their evidence as against any conflicting evidence for Kosmar, but also commented on how impressive the claimant had been at making the best of his
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disabilities after the accident and congratulated him on the triumphs he had achieved over his undoubted personal disaster. The warmth of the judge’s remarks is a fine tribute to the claimant. As the judge himself made clear, however, that cannot affect the court’s decision in the case, which must depend on the application of the relevant legal principles to the facts as found.
[3] By contrast, the judge found that Kosmar’s lay witnesses had ‘variously committed themselves to an early and false joint account to save their backs’ and on several issues was driven to the conclusion that ‘not only have they lied, but that they also put their heads together, probably at several stages, and conspired together to deceive’ (at [15]). Such conduct is a deeply troubling feature of the case and reflects very badly not only on the witnesses themselves but also on Kosmar. It will no doubt have added to the sympathy that the judge rightly felt for the claimant. Again, however, none of this can affect the legal analysis.
THE FACTS
[4] The judge described Kavos as the sort of resort that was typically aimed at young single people holidaying without adult supervision, not infrequently in groups of already formed friends, and with ample opportunities to drink substantial quantities of alcohol for very substantial periods, or indeed all of the day and night, and generally for the traditional night to be turned into day. He said that the operation at the Marina Beach Apartments was particularly well set up to provide for the young and lively and to fit in with the commercial opportunities at the resort. It was generally free from any real rules, and relaxed to the point of permitting most things that kept the youngsters happy.
[5] The complex itself was next to the beach and consisted of a number of studios and apartments, a bar and the pool. A path ran from the accommodation block past the pool to the bar. The path was separated by a flowerbed from the paved area around the pool itself. The judge found that the bar might sometimes have closed by midnight, but more frequently it stayed open as long as there were guests wanting to drink. When the bar closed, the lights in the swimming pool and bar area were turned off, but the lights on the path remained lit. The judge rejected a defence contention that the pool was then closed. He found that its use by guests was continued and authorised.
[6] The pool was 11·2 m long and 5·8 m wide. At the deeper end, furthest away from the accommodation block, the maximum depth of the water was almost certainly no more than 1·5 m, though there was a ledge under the water on which people could stand. At the shallow end, the depth of the water was probably only about 0·8 m. There was a small depth marker at each end of the pool, though they were probably not visible at night.
[7] The experts agreed that the pool’s dimensions made it unsuitable for diving. There were two small ‘no diving’ signs in the general area of the pool at the material time. One was on the wall of the toilet block, on the other side of the path running between the accommodation block and the bar, though the judge found that there was shrubbery hanging partly over and adjacent to the sign. The other sign was on a tree on the far side of the pool, close to the bar area. Both signs were among a collection of other notices. Despite the existence of those signs, diving was in practice a regular occurrence. Indeed, the judge found that ‘the defendant knew full well that not only was the pool regularly used when the bar was shut, but also that diving did take place, probably on a regular basis, and without any reproof or reprimand’ (see [19](4)(e)).
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[8] The judge accepted that the claimant had probably used the pool only once before the accident, on the Tuesday morning of his stay. In his witness statement, from which the judge quoted extensively, the claimant said that on that occasion he jumped into the deep end to cool off and stood on the ledge, leaning over the edge and talking to friends. He did not go into the shallow end. A little later he referred to his having seen people diving in from all sides and at all ends. He never thought that people would dive in like that to a shallow pool, and consequently he assumed that the pool was reasonably deep all around. He was not aware of there being a significant change in depth between the end he was using and the opposite end. He did not recall seeing any signs pointing out the depth of the pool or stating that there was to be no diving.
[9] On the Wednesday evening the claimant went out with his friends for a meal and stayed out late. When he returned with one of his room-mates, they stayed in their apartment talking until about 3.30 am. They had also woken up their other room-mate. It was very hot and they had the windows open. There was a lot of noise from the pool. They could not sleep, so they thought ‘if you can’t beat them, join them’ and went out to the pool. The claimant’s witness statement continued:
‘18 . . . There were many other people using our pool and also the pool in the next door hotel. We couldn’t see anyone else we knew there. The bar was shut and the light was poor as we were relying on light from next door and from the apartments. People were diving in all over the place so I had no reason to think there would be a problem if I did the same. I had not seen any depth markings when it was light so none were apparent in the darkness. At the same time I also could not assess the depth of the pool before I entered but no one else was having a problem so I assumed all would be fine if I dived in.’
[10] The claimant went on to explain that he had learned to swim at about the age of eight and had used pools in Turkey and Spain on family holidays as well as in the United Kingdom. He knew that you should not dive into water if you do not know how deep it is. However, he had assumed that this pool was safe. Because he was unaware of the depth of the pool and because he thought that it was perfectly safe to dive in, having seen other people doing it, he walked up and dived in. His was, as he recalled, ‘a very ordinary racing type of dive out into the water’. The dive was in fact into the shallow end, close to the point where there are ladder-type steps into the pool. He hit his head on the bottom and, it seems, was fortunate to be rescued before he drowned.
[11] In cross-examination by Mr Eklund QC, the claimant made a number of further important concessions. The judge summarised the effect of the cross-examination as follows:
‘[29] . . . Jamie was clearly a reasonably experienced swimmer, as his witness statement indicated. He had known that pools were bound to vary in size, in shape, and in depth, and that the shape of the bottom of pools could, and did, vary. He agreed that he knew that most pools have a deep and a shallower end, albeit he commented they are usually marked with such in his experience. He admitted that he knew that knowingly diving into a shallow end could be a very dangerous thing to do, and it could be a
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dangerous thing to dive in if he did not know the depth of the swimming pool. He admitted that he knew that it was dangerous to dive in if he could not see the bottom of the pool, but he added “I saw others diving in”. He admitted that he could have looked for depth markers, but commented that he did not recall seeing any of them; nor had he recalled seeing people swimming in this pool during the holiday, although he supposed he must have done. He had no recollection of people standing in the shallow end and thereby indicating it since probably half of their body would then be out of water.
[30] In cross-examination, the claimant added, “I simply did not know it was the shallow end. I only had got wet in the deep end previously to cool off. I assumed there was no change of depth from there for the length of the pool” . . .
[31] The cross-examination, which was extensive, and running for just short of two hours, continued with the claimant making a number of concessions along the lines that I have already indicated. They included the fact that he did not think he needed supervising, nor to be told not to dive in if he did not know the depth. He even agreed now, in hindsight, that what he had done was a dangerous thing to do, but, again, he added that he was only doing what he saw other people were doing in diving in.’
[12] In his submissions to us, Mr Eklund referred to specific passages in the evidence to bring home the points summarised by the judge. In my view, however, a sufficient flavour is given in the passages from the judgment that I have quoted above.
[13] After dealing with the evidence of the other witnesses called on behalf of the claimant, the judge returned to the claimant’s knowledge of the pool. He found that at the time of his accident the claimant did not know ‘in any meaningful sense’ that the end into which he was to dive was shallower than the end in which he had stood on the Tuesday. He could have done, but he did not. On seeing others diving in, he simply joined them. In the exuberance of youth, and in the spirit of the moment, he simply dived in to join them at the nearest point as he was seeing others do, and had seen others do previously.
[14] That leads on to the judge’s specific findings about the accident itself. He found first (at [41]) that the claimant—
‘should, and could, have known if he had really thought about it that the closest poolside into which he was to dive was the shallow end, and that his assumption that the pool was of the same depth at both ends might at least be inaccurate.’
He then said that this could not be the end of his attempt to understand what happened and why the claimant dived in here having such knowledge that he previously had. The judge said that after careful consideration he made the following ten further findings of fact on the balance of probabilities (at [42]):
‘(1) The claimant was foreseeably tired. He had been living a fairly typical unstructured lifestyle compared with what he had been used to in the United Kingdom, which could only have been expected, and it was inevitable, and even offered as the nature of their holiday operation and the provision of a very late night bar and a swimming pool for which there was always open access.
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(2) The claimant had had some alcoholic drink. It was almost certainly less than the defence might have expected of some of their young guests, especially amongst such a teenaged group as was this one.
(3) He was in a holiday resort and location given to 24-hour hospitality with a purpose-built swimming pool facility that was available for use at all hours.
(4) The claimant not unreasonably thought, as I find, that the pool was available; it was in actual use; and that others were, and had previously been, diving in “all around”.
(5) In so far as the defendant had rules or advice to prevent either, they were inadequate by any objective standard, and for the claimant there was nothing adequate to prevent what I find was then to happen in this accident.
(6) Objectively, he knew that diving in here was unwise and potentially dangerous. In the ordinary event, he would never have done so, and he did not ordinarily need to be told that.
(7) That in the foreseeable exuberance of the youthful use of this pool, especially in the very late heat of the night, he copied what he had seen others doing on this occasion and others, both in deciding to go swimming this night when the bar was shut, and others were “diving in from all sides”. In those circumstances he forgot his own good sense, but against which possibility properly and prominently displayed warning signs were surely designed to prevent, especially given the nature of this sort of holiday facility. I find that, on the balance of probability, such better placed and more prominent signs which were recommended would indeed have brought him to his better sense before he dived in.
(8) In the foreseeable spirit of the moment, lacking more mature years and experience, and lacking such precautions as the defendant could, and should, have taken in reasonable foresight of such an accident, with such potentially disastrous consequences, the claimant walked out of the accommodation block and simply dived in to join his mates and others, including a quite separate group from Liverpool in the pool.
(9) What previous knowledge of the dangers the claimant had had, that deserted him on this occasion. With nothing in particular by way of adequate safeguards and warnings, not even as the defence alleged, to help bring him to his senses at this late hour, any prior and useful knowledge left him. He dived in at the nearest point to him. It happened to be the shallower end. He was thoughtless at the time—foreseeably so, as I find, in the circumstances and nature of this holiday venue run by the defendant. I think they both share some blame here, but that might be another matter as to whether it amounts to legal culpability by the defendant in this litigation, and, if so, how any liability might be apportioned.
(10) Finally, the claimant knew beforehand that he should not have done as he did. He well knows now that he should not have done as he did. But, I find that the only explicable reason for what happened—as, indeed, the claimant told me—was that actually at this particular time he was completely unaware and oblivious to the dangers he was courting. There was nothing then present that might adequately have deterred him from his brief state of inadvertence which the safety standards were designed to prevent, and thus briefly bring him to his senses on this occasion before he
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dived in. But for the simple and inexpensive precautions that have been canvassed here, this foreseeable accident could, and, on the balance of probabilities, would have been prevented in this case.’
OTHER RELEVANT MATTERS
[15] I have already mentioned that the experts agreed that the pool was not safe for diving. The judge said that the significant disagreement between them was as to whether the ‘no diving’ signs and the signage generally were adequate. The claimant’s expert, Mr Boydell, criticised the positioning and size of the ‘no diving’ signs and also said that the signage relating to closure should have been explicit and enforced. The defence expert, Mr Fowler, was less critical of the signage although he made a number of concessions helpful to the claimant’s case. It is clear from the general tenor of his judgment that the judge preferred the evidence of Mr Boydell. In para [42] of his judgment, quoted above, he referred repeatedly to the absence of adequate safeguards and warnings. At [52] he found in relation to each of the ‘no diving’ signs that the ‘the sign was visible, the message was not’. He also found that the signage failed to comply with the guidance issued by the Federation of Tour Operators (FTO), which calls for fuller consideration.
[16] The FTO’s Health and Safety Handbook contains a section headed ‘Suggestions for Swimming Pool Safety’, which also appears to be available as a separate leaflet to be given to hoteliers and others. The judge referred in particular to the following paragraphs:
‘4. Depth markings should be placed at regular intervals. Minimum 2m apart on small pools, 3m apart on large pools . . .
5. Gradual changes in depths should be indicated at these regular intervals as indicated.
6. Sudden changes in depths should be clearly marked . . .
8. No Diving signs should be displayed in a prominent position, especially in areas with depths of less than 1·5m.
9. Opening hours and emergency procedures should be clearly visible.’
The judge observed that in this case there was no depth-marker signage complying with paras 4, 5 or 6; that ‘no diving’ signs were particularly required here but were not displayed in a prominent position in accordance with para 8; and that opening hours and emergency procedures were not clearly visible in accordance with para 9. The handbook also contained an illustration of the layout of the sort of signage referred to, as to which the judge said that ‘[t]he signage here did not begin to compare with what the FTO have suggested’.
[17] The judge did not deal with the status of the FTO guidance, but the issue featured in argument before us and it will be helpful to consider it here. We were informed that only about 30% of tour operators are members of the FTO. The foreword to the handbook states that the handbook ‘has been produced to help anyone who wishes to improve health and safety standards for holiday makers’, and that it is a tribute to the FTO’s health and safety officers and others ‘that significant improvements to safety standards have been achieved especially when, as they often do, these improvements are over and above the local regulations’. The foreword is followed by an ‘important notice’ stating that—
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‘[t]he information and advice contained in this Handbook is designed to assist tour operators and their suppliers to develop their own safety systems. It should, however, be regarded as a starting point, and not as a definitive statement of the law or technical safety standards.’
[18] There was evidence that the FTO guidance formed part of the documents used internally within Kosmar for the training of its representatives. There was, however, no evidence that it was regarded as laying down internationally recognised or uniform standards. Mr Fowler accepted in cross-examination that Mediterranean hotels conventionally have signs designating which end of the pool is the shallow end and which is the deep end, and also conventionally ‘comply with uniform standards about prominent diving prohibition signs’, but did not cover the nature or detailed content of any such standards.
BREACH OF DUTY
[19] The claimant’s case was based on the holiday contract between the claimant and Kosmar, with additional reliance on reg 15 of the Package Travel, Package Holidays and Package Tours Regulations 1992, SI 1992/3288.
[20] The amended particulars of claim pleaded implied terms of the contract that (i) the facilities at the apartments and in particular the swimming pool and its surrounds would comply with local regulations and safety standards applicable in Corfu in 2002, (ii) reasonable skill and care would be exercised in the provision of the facilities and services at the apartments and in particular at the swimming pool and its surrounds, and (iii) the facilities at the apartments would be of a reasonable standard by complying with recommended minimum standards laid down by the FTO. Breaches of each of those implied terms were pleaded.
[21] The amended particulars of claim also pleaded that there had been ‘improper performance’ of the holiday contract within the meaning of reg 15 of the 1992 regulations. Regulation 15 covers the situation where services to which the contract relates are supplied by someone other than the contracting party. It therefore applied to the operation of the apartment complex in this case. Paragraph (1) provides that:
‘The other party to the contract is liable to the consumer for the proper performance of the obligations under the contract, irrespective of whether such obligations are to be performed by that other party or by other suppliers of services . . .’
Paragraph (2) provides that ‘[t]he other party to the contract is liable to the consumer for any damage caused to him by . . . the improper performance of the contract’. But the question whether there has been ‘improper performance’ is to be determined by reference to the terms of the contract, which in this case takes one back to the implied terms as pleaded: Hone v Going Places Leisure Travel Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 947 at [15], [2001] All ER (D) 102 (Jun) at [15].
[22] The first of the implied terms pleaded by the claimant may owe its formulation to Wilson v Best Travel Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 353. In that case the plaintiff, while staying in a hotel in Greece on a holiday booked through the defendant tour operator, sustained serious injuries on tripping and falling through glass patio doors at the hotel. The plaintiff’s claim, which pre-dated the 1992 regulations, was based on an implied warranty that the structure of the
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hotel would be reasonably safe, alternatively a duty of care arising out of the term implied by s 13 of the Supply of Goods and Services Act 1982. The judge, Phillips J (as he then was), found against a warranty but accepted the existence of a duty of care. He held that the service provided by the defendant included the inspection of properties offered in its brochure and that the defendant owed a duty to exercise reasonable care to exclude from the accommodation offered any hotel whose characteristics were such that guests could not spend a holiday there in reasonable safety (see 356). The evidence was that it was the practice in England, but not yet in Greece, to fit safety glass to doors. In those circumstances the judge held that there was no breach of the defendant’s duty, stating (at 358):
‘What is the duty of a tour operator in a situation such as this? Must he refrain from sending holidaymakers to any hotel whose characteristics, in so far as safety is concerned, fail to satisfy the standards which apply in this country? I do not believe that his obligations in respect of the safety of his clients can extend this far. Save where uniform international regulations apply, there are bound to be differences in the safety standards applied in respect of the many hazards of modern life between one country and another. All civilised countries attempt to cater for these hazards by imposing mandatory regulations. The duty of care of a tour operator is likely to extend to checking that local safety regulations are complied with. Provided that they are, I do not consider that the tour operator owes a duty to boycott a hotel because of the absence of some safety feature which would be found in an English hotel unless the absence of such a feature might lead a reasonable holidaymaker to decline to take a holiday at the hotel in question.’
[23] A claim such as that in Wilson’s case would no doubt be put differently under the 1992 regulations: since the tour operator is directly liable under those regulations for improper performance of the contract by the hotel even if the hotel is under independent ownership and management, the focus can be on the exercise of reasonable care in the operation of the hotel itself rather than in the selection of the hotel and the offer of accommodation at it. But I do not think that this affects the principle laid down as to the standard to be applied to a hotel abroad, namely that the hotel is required to comply with local safety regulations rather than with British safety standards. That was the approach in Codd v Thomson Tour Operators Ltd [2000] CA Transcript 1470/2000, in which the claimant had been injured while travelling in a lift at a hotel in which he was staying in Majorca. The tour operator accepted that it would be liable (presumably under the 1992 regulations) if negligence was established against those who were responsible for running and managing the hotel, but the judge found that liability was not established. The Court of Appeal dismissed the claimant’s appeal, citing Wilson’s case for the proposition that there was no requirement for the hotel to comply with British safety standards, and holding that there was no breach of local safety regulations and that there was no negligence by the hotel management either in relation to the maintenance of the lift or in relation to safety procedures.
[24] In the present case, there was no evidence to support the pleaded claim of non-compliance with local safety regulations, and that way of putting the case was not pursued at trial. In my view, however, it was still open to the
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claimant to pursue the claim on the other bases pleaded in the amended particulars of claim. What was said in Wilson’s case did not purport to be an exhaustive statement of the duty of care, and it does not seem to me that compliance with local safety regulations is necessarily sufficient to fulfil that duty. That was evidently also the view taken in Codd’s case, where the court found there to be compliance with local safety regulations but nevertheless went on to consider other possible breaches of the duty of care.
[25] I can deal briefly with the pleaded failure to comply with minimum standards laid down by the FTO. I have already described the FTO’s Health and Safety Handbook and the ‘Suggestions for Swimming Pool Safety’ contained within it. In my view the handbook is referred to correctly as guidance. It is advisory in character and has no legal force. It does not lay down standards with which Kosmar is required to comply. As I understood Mr Saggerson’s submissions to us, he did not contend otherwise but relied on the handbook simply as ‘informing’ the standard of care and as casting light on whether Kosmar had exercised reasonable care in this case.
[26] The case therefore comes down to the most general of the implied terms pleaded, that reasonable skill and care would be exercised in the provision of facilities and services at the apartment complex and in particular at the swimming pool and its surrounds. It is common ground that such a term is to be implied. The dispute relates to the scope of the duty of care and whether there was in the particular circumstances a breach of that duty.
[27] If there was a duty to exercise reasonable care to guard against what the claimant did in this case, then in my view the judge was entitled to find a breach of duty. It was open to him to accept the evidence of the claimant’s expert, Mr Boydell, as to the deficiencies of the signage, and to find non-compliance with the FTO guidance; and his conclusion that there was a failure to exercise reasonable care, in particular as to the prominence of the ‘no diving’ signage around the pool, is not one with which there is any reason to interfere.
[28] But did the duty of care extend that far? The essence of Kosmar’s case is that there is no duty to guard against an obvious risk of the kind that existed here, namely that diving into shallow water (or into water of unknown depth) may cause injury. That risk was obvious to an ordinary able-bodied adult such as the claimant. The evidence shows that he knew of the risk and was able to assess it for himself. He took a deliberate decision to dive in. Kosmar was under no duty to warn him against such a course or to take other measures to prevent it. The fact that he dived in, as the judge found, in a brief state of inadvertence does not affect the position: that could be said of almost all accidents, and again there is no duty to guard against it. Nor is the position affected by the fact that a lot of people were taking the same obvious risk by diving in.
[29] The most important of the cases relied on by Mr Eklund is Tomlinson v Congleton BC [2003] UKHL 47, [2003] 3 All ER 1122, [2004] 1 AC 46. That case concerned a lake in a country park owned and occupied by the first defendant and managed by the second defendant. Swimming in the lake was prohibited and the defendants displayed prominent warning notices. The first defendant, aware that the notices were frequently ignored and that several accidents had resulted from swimming in the lake, intended planting vegetation around the shore to prevent people from going into the water but had not yet done so because of a shortage of financial resources. The claimant,
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aged 18, went into the lake and from a standing position in shallow water dived and struck his head on the sandy bottom, breaking his neck. He claimed damages, alleging that the accident had been caused by the defendants’ breach of the duty of care they owed to him as a trespasser under s 1 of the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1984, by which a duty is owed in respect of risks of injury by reason of any danger due to the state of the premises. His claim failed at first instance, succeeded by a majority in the Court of Appeal (Ward and Sedley LJJ, Longmore LJ dissenting) ([2002] EWCA Civ 309, [2003] 3 All ER 1122, [2004] 1 AC 46), but failed once more on a further appeal to the House of Lords.
[30] In his dissenting judgment in the Court of Appeal, Longmore LJ observed (at [47]):
‘One of the dangers of going for a swim in any stretch of water other than a dedicated swimming pool is that the swimmer may slip and injure himself. He may also quickly find himself out of his depth and be unable to cope; he may get cramp or be assailed by the coldness of the water and be unable to recover. All these are obvious dangers to anyone except a small and unaccompanied child. Another danger is that a swimmer may decide to dive into the water and hit his head on the bottom, if the water is too shallow; in my judgment that is an equally obvious danger and cannot provide a reason for saying that the owner or occupier of the water should be under any duty to take reasonable steps to prevent people swimming or diving in the relevant stretch of water.’
Mr Eklund submitted that that reasoning applies equally to an adult diving into a swimming pool, as occurred in this case. He also relied on para [51] of Longmore LJ’s judgment, in which it was said that a duty could arise only if there was a particular hazard (over and above the ordinary risks of swimming) in the stretch of water concerned. Mr Eklund stressed that in this case the pool was in proper condition and contained no particular hazard.
[31] The leading speech in the House of Lords was given by Lord Hoffmann, with whom Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead and Lord Scott of Foscote agreed. Lord Hoffmann held that the only risk arose out of what the claimant chose to do and not out of the state of the premises, so that there was no risk of a kind which gave rise to a duty under the 1984 Act. But even on the assumption that there was such a risk, he held that there can have been no duty under the Act. An integral part of the reasoning that led to that conclusion was his consideration of what the position would have been if the claimant had been a lawful visitor owed the common duty of care under s 2(2) of the Occupiers’ Liability Act 1957, namely—
‘a duty to take such care as in all the circumstances of the case is reasonable to see that the visitor will be reasonably safe in using the premises for the purposes for which he is invited or permitted by the occupier to be there.’
Lord Hoffmann identified two important considerations. The first was the social value of the activities which would have to be prohibited in order to reduce or eliminate the risk from swimming, namely use of the beaches to sunbathe, paddle and play with children. The second consideration, examined
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under the heading ‘free will’, was whether people should accept responsibility for the risks they choose to run. Lord Hoffmann said this:
‘[44] . . . Mr Tomlinson was freely and voluntarily undertaking an activity which inherently involved some risk . . .
[45] I think it will be extremely rare for an occupier of land to be under a duty to prevent people from taking risks which are inherent in the activities they freely choose to undertake upon the land. If people want to climb mountains, go hang gliding or swim or dive in ponds or lakes, that is their affair . . .
[46] My Lords, as will be clear from what I have just said, I think that there is an important question of freedom at stake. It is unjust that the harmless recreation of responsible parents and children with buckets and spades on the beaches should be prohibited in order to comply with what is thought to be a legal duty to safeguard irresponsible visitors against dangers which are perfectly obvious. The fact that such people take no notice of warnings cannot create a duty to take other steps to protect them. I find it difficult to express with appropriate moderation my disagreement with the proposition of Sedley LJ ([2003] 3 All ER 1122 at [45]) that it is “only where the risk is so obvious that the occupier can safely assume that nobody will take it that there will be no liability”. A duty to protect against obvious risks or self-inflicted harm exists only in cases in which there is no genuine and informed choice, as in the case of employees whose work requires them to take the risk, or some lack of capacity, such as the inability of children to recognise danger . . . or the despair of prisoners which may lead them to inflict injury on themselves . . .
[50] My Lords, for these reasons I consider that even if swimming had not been prohibited and the council had owed a duty under s 2(2) of the 1957 Act, that duty would not have required them to take any steps to prevent Mr Tomlinson from diving or warning him against dangers which were perfectly obvious. If that is the case, then plainly there can have been no duty under the 1984 Act. The risk was not one against which he was entitled under s 1(3)(c) to protection.’
[32] Similar passages are to be found in the speech of Lord Hobhouse of Woodborough, who described the claimant as ‘an 18-year-old youth who ought to be well able to appreciate and cope with the character of an ordinary lake’ (at [71]) and said that all the relevant characteristics of the lake were already obvious to the claimant and that no purpose was in fact served by the defendants’ warning: ‘[74] . . . It told [the claimant] nothing he did not already know.’
[33] In general I think it unnecessary to refer to the earlier authorities cited by Mr Eklund, all of which were considered in Tomlinson’s case. It is, however, worth noting that Tomlinson’s case approved the very similar reasoning in Ratcliff v McConnell [1999] 1 WLR 670 in relation to injury sustained by a trespasser when diving into a closed swimming pool at night. Stuart-Smith LJ, giving the main judgment, stressed the importance of identifying the risk or danger concerned, and continued (at 680–681):
‘36. The relevant danger here was that if someone dived into the pool they might hit their head on the bottom if there was insufficient water to
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accommodate the dive. That is a danger which is common to all swimming pools. There is no uniformity in shape, size or configuration of swimming pools. It seems to me that it is a danger which is obvious to any adult and indeed to most children who were old enough to have learnt to dive.
37 . . . Even if the defendants knew or had reasonable grounds to believe that students might defy the prohibition on use of the pool and climb over the not insignificant barrier of the wall or gate, it does not seem to me that they were under any duty to warn the plaintiff against diving into too shallow water, a risk of which any adult would be aware and which the plaintiff, as one would expect, admitted that he was aware . . . Even in the case of a lawful visitor there is no duty to warn of a danger that is apparent . . .’
[34] Mr Eklund relied on such authorities before the judge as well as before us. At para [59] of his judgment, the judge said that he distinguished the present case on its facts from all of those cited by Mr Eklund. He also distinguished them on the basis that they were cases in tort, under the Occupiers’ Liability Acts, whereas the claimant’s claim was in contract and for breach of statutory duty. At [59](1) he said this:
‘[I]n this case the claimant sues for the defendant’s breach of contract and their statutory liability for improper performance. This case is therefore not about the claimant’s limited rights under the Occupiers’ Liability Acts legislation. Therefore, considerations of a very different nature arise here as compared with the public use of what I shall generally call “the natural environment”. Especially, in my judgment, this case is nothing at all to do with imposing unreasonable obligations upon alleged tortfeasors, the liability of owners of either public or privately owned property to which either visitors or trespasser gain access and then suffer death or personal injury, let alone does the floodgates argument arise in this case of indeterminate liability to an unknown and undiscoverable class of potential litigants in this perceived litigious age.’
[35] At [59](2) he said that ‘the claimant had actually paid this defendant as part of a commercial enterprise for a holiday abroad that would impliedly be reasonably safe for him, and be properly performed as a contract’, and that contractual and statutory duties then arose.
[36] At [59](3) he referred to the ‘free will arguments’ demonstrated in the Occupiers’ Liability Act cases cited by the defence, but expressed the view that ‘this is not a free will case in that context’ for several reasons:
‘(a) This is not so because the defendant undertook to contract personally with this claimant—incidentally, then a minor. If he was such a stranger as those appear to be in the defendant’s cited cases, this defendant was in a commercially dominant position both to require more information about this contracting party with whom in fact they chose to engage, and even to deploy exemption or limitation clauses to protect themselves if they had so wished. They in fact did neither.
(b) The free will argument deployed here by the defence is surely quite misconceived. First, the real free will in any meaningful sense rested primarily with the defendant. They chose to contract with him and accept
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his money. By comparison, this claimant was entitled to presume that his holiday contract fulfilled common sense and the reasonable hope and expectation that he would be kept reasonably safe by the application of the generally recognised standards of the leisure industry, as incidentally admitted in substance by para 2 of their defence. This defendant did not, as I have found.
I have a third comment to make about this free will argument as deployed here by the defendant against this claimant. Implied in this concept if relevant to a claim that any breach of contract or statutory duty is to be defeated, there must surely also be the claimant’s informed consent to a known, or advised, risk at the time of his own apparent, and alleged, folly. In this case, as I have tried to demonstrate, I find on the facts this to be quite to the contrary. It seems to me that this claimant had neither any properly informed consent, and nor was he properly and appropriately advised as his contractual rights and the statutory provisions required, in the proper performance of this contract.’
[37] This was followed by the judge’s conclusion (at [60]) that ‘I necessarily find proved the defendant’s breaches of contract and the breach of their statutory liability as alleged by the claimant’. At [64], in the context of the issue of contributory negligence, he referred to ‘a proven breach of a contract, and blatant breaches as I find of the very legislation that was designed to protect such a vulnerable claimant as this’.
[38] The judge’s reasoning is open to a number of detailed criticisms: in particular, there is no obvious relevance in Kosmar having a dominant position (if it does) or having the power to require more information about the claimant; it would not have been open to Kosmar to exclude or limit liability for this accident; para 2 of the defence did not contain the admission attributed to it; and it is difficult to see what point the judge was making as regards informed consent and the giving of advice. But I would reject a further specific criticism made by Mr Eklund, that the judge was treating the FTO guidance as having statutory force: the judge’s references to statutory liability must have been intended to be references to liability under reg 15 of the 1992 regulations for improper performance of the contract.
[39] The fundamental question, however, is whether the judge was right to distinguish the line of cases under the Occupiers’ Liability Acts as he did and to treat them as having no relevance to the contractual context (and related statutory context) of the present case. There are of course factual differences between the cases. The judge was also right that the extent of the duty owed by occupiers of land to trespassers and even to lawful visitors may be affected by policy considerations that have no parallel in the context of a holiday contract. But the core of the reasoning in Tomlinson’s case, as in earlier cases such as Ratcliff v McConnell, was that people should accept responsibility for the risks they choose to run and that there should be no duty to protect them against obvious risks (subject to Lord Hoffmann’s qualification as to cases where there is no genuine and informed choice or there is some lack of capacity). That reasoning was held to apply in relation not only to trespassers but also to lawful visitors to whom there is owed the common duty of care under s 2(2) of the 1957 Act—a duty which, by s 5 of the 1957 Act, can be owed to contractual as well as to non-contractual visitors. I do not see why the
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reasoning should not also apply to persons to whom there is owed a duty of care in similar terms under a contract of the kind that existed in this case.
[40] Mr Eklund drew our attention to the fact that in Dean v Thomson Tour Operators Ltd (16 June 2000, unreported) it was agreed by the parties that where a tour operator was under a contractual duty to supply facilities to a reasonable standard, the principles to be applied were analogous to those in the 1957 Act. Mr Eklund was able to make forensic play of the fact that Mr Saggerson was on that occasion counsel for the defendant tour operator rather than the claimant, but I do not think that the case itself is of any real assistance, for the very reason that the point went by concession and, although implicitly accepted by the judge, was not the subject of any argument. For the reasons I have given, however, I think that the approach adopted in the case was the correct one.
[41] Applying that approach here, Kosmar’s duty of care did not extend, in my judgment, to a duty to guard the claimant against the risk of his diving into the pool and injuring himself. That was an obvious risk, of which he was well aware. Although just under 18 years of age, he was of full capacity and was able to make a genuine and informed choice. He was not even seriously affected by drink.
[42] Mr Saggerson argued that, on the particular facts as found by the judge, the claimant was not aware of any risk. At the moment when he dived, he assessed it as safe for him to dive, as others were doing. As the judge said, any prior and useful knowledge left him and he acted in a brief state of inadvertence. Mr Saggerson submitted that this case should be about the need for prominent signage to reduce the risk of people in the claimant’s position reaching a wrong conclusion as the claimant did. The point, in effect, was that it is not a matter of guarding against an obvious risk but of guarding against the possibility of a mistaken assessment of the risk. That is a clever way of seeking to meet the argument based on Tomlinson’s case, but I would reject it. The risk in this case remained an obvious one of which the claimant himself was previously aware and should have been aware at the moment he dived. The fact that at that moment he acted thoughtlessly, in a brief state of inadvertence, is not a good reason for holding Kosmar to have been under a duty that it would not otherwise have owed him.
[43] Accordingly I take the view that there was no duty to give the claimant any warning about the risk of diving into the pool, let alone to have better placed or more prominent signs than those actually displayed, or to take any other step to prevent or deter him from using the pool or from diving into it. His dive and its terrible consequences are matters for which he must take full personal responsibility.
[44] It follows that I would allow Kosmar’s appeal against the judge’s finding that Kosmar was in breach of its contractual duty of care and liable under reg 15 of the 1992 regulations for improper performance of the holiday contract.
CAUSATION
[45] I will deal with this issue even though, because of the conclusion I have reached on the first issue, it is not strictly necessary for me to do so.
[46] The judge, having found breaches of contract and breach of statutory duty, continued (at [60]): ‘I find that on the balance of probabilities this accident would not have happened but for them, and that causation is established by the claimant.' More specifically, it seems that causation was established on the
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basis that the claimant acted in a brief state of inadvertence and that better placed and more prominent warning signs would have brought him to his senses before he dived in. It was the claimant’s own belief, stated by him in evidence, that if he had seen signs he would not have dived in.
[47] The judge did not indicate the precise location or nature of the warning signs that in his view were required in order to fulfil the duty of care and have the requisite effect on the claimant’s mind. The judge had before him, however, photographs of signage put up since the accident, which include a new ‘no diving’ sign on the wall of the toilet block and an additional ‘no diving’ sign on a post located on the paved area at the shallow end of the pool (but standing some distance away from the pool itself). He is likely to have had this material in mind when reaching his conclusions.
[48] This court will be slow to interfere with a finding of this kind. I have to say, however, that the finding in this case causes me considerable concern. It is striking that the claimant, on his own evidence, had not previously seen or taken in, even in day time, any of the matters that indicated the existence of a shallow end, and did not see them on the occasion of the accident. He did not even see the ladder-type steps which were close to the point from which he dived in. Moreover the accident occurred in the hours of darkness, with the pool itself unlit, though the path lights were still on and would have cast some light onto the general area of the pool; and the claimant commented in his witness statement that the light was poor. In all the circumstances, if ‘no diving’ signs of the kind that were put up after the accident had been present at the time of the accident, I think it improbable that they would have made any difference: it is unlikely that the claimant would have seen them or taken them in or that they would have operated to bring him to his senses and prevent the accident. Similar considerations apply in relation to any contention that there should have been explicit signage prohibiting use of the pool after the bar had closed and the main lights had been turned off (though, as Mr Saggerson appeared to accept in argument, that was not the basis on which the judge found liability). It is also unlikely that additional signage would have stopped other people from using the pool and diving in, or therefore from setting the example which the claimant said he followed.
[49] In my view we are in as good a position as the judge to evaluate the relevant evidence and reach a conclusion on it; and, for the reasons given, I respectfully differ from the conclusion reached by the judge. In my judgment the claim should fail on causation even if a breach of duty were established. This provides an additional reason for allowing the appeal against the judge’s finding of liability.
CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE
[50] Given the conclusion I have reached on liability, Kosmar’s appeal against the judge’s finding in relation to contributory negligence falls away. I shall do no more than outline the issue and express the conclusion I would have reached on it had it arisen for decision. Mr Eklund submitted that relevant causative responsibility for the accident lay almost wholly with the claimant, whose degree of responsibility was at least 80%, and that the judge’s conclusion defied rational analysis. Mr Saggerson submitted that this case had 50:50 stamped all over it. I would have accepted Mr Saggerson’s submission. In my judgment, if the judge’s approach to liability had been correct, there would
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have been no basis for interfering with his equal apportionment of responsibility.
CONCLUSION
[51] In conclusion, whilst sympathising greatly with the claimant’s plight, I take the view that the judge’s finding of liability was wrong, both as regards breach of duty and as regards causation. I would allow the appeal and dismiss the claimant’s claim.
HOOPER LJ.
[52] I agree.
ARDEN LJ.
[53] I also agree.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Ulcay;
R v Toygun
[2008] 1 All ER 547
[2007] EWCA Crim 2379
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law: PROFESSIONS; Lawyers
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR IGOR JUDGE P, PITCHERS AND OPENSHAW JJ
Hearing Date(s): 26 JULY, 19 OCTOBER 2007
Criminal law – Trial – Counsel – Solicitor – Duties – Defendant changing his instructions at close of prosecution case – Legal representatives withdrawing on grounds of professional embarrassment – Judge refusing new representatives’ application for two-week adjournment – New representatives also withdrawing – Defendant remaining unrepresented during trial – Defendant convicted – Whether conviction safe – Duties of counsel and solicitors.
The trial of a number of defendants, including U, for conspiracy to facilitate the commission of breaches of immigration law began on 5 September. After the close of the prosecution case U completely changed his instructions. Under para 602 of the Code of Conduct of the Bar of England and Wales a self-employed barrister had to ‘comply with the “Cab-rank rule” and accordingly except only as otherwise provided in paragraphs 603 604 605 and 606 he must . . . (a) accept any brief to appear before a Court in which he professes to practise; (b) accept any instructions; (c) act for any person on whose behalf he is instructed . . .’ Paragraph 603 stated: ‘A barrister must not accept any instructions if to do so would cause him to be professionally embarrassed . . .' On 18 October immediately before U’s case was due to be presented to the jury his counsel and solicitors applied to the judge to withdraw from the case on the grounds of professional embarrassment. The judge allowed the application, stating that counsel and solicitors were in ‘an impossible professional situation’. The case was adjourned to enable new counsel to take further instructions. On 20 October new counsel sought a four- to six-week adjournment. The judge was prepared to grant only a short adjournment to allow three days for counsel to read the papers and a day for an additional conference with U. Counsel told the judge that in those circumstances they would be unable to act, having taken advice from the Bar Council. On 24 October two new counsel appeared on U’s behalf. They asked for a seven day adjournment to prepare the case. The judge refused but agreed to adjourn for a further three days. On 26 October counsel reapplied, seeking a two week adjournment. The judge refused. He stated that it was not in the interests of justice for a long trial with more than one defendant to be allowed to be derailed because one of the defendants had changed his instructions. The second new team of lawyers then withdrew from the case. The trial proceeded on 28 October with U unrepresented. He was convicted. He appealed against conviction submitting that the judge had been wrong to allow counsel to withdraw from the case; that he had been wrong not to have allowed new counsel and solicitors more time to read themselves into the case; and that he should have discharged the jury from reaching a verdict in U’s case. The court considered whether, and if so, in what circumstances, counsel and solicitors instructed immediately before the beginning or during the course of a trial could refuse to accept instructions on behalf of a defendant because of the difficulties
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created by judicial case management in particular in relation to adjournments. The court considered para 701(b)(ii) of the Bar Code of Conduct which directed that a barrister should not undertake any task for which he did not have time and opportunity to prepare for and perform and r 2.01(b) of the Solicitors Code of Conduct which required a solicitor to refuse to act for a client ‘where you have insufficient resources or lack the competence to deal with the matter’.
Held – (1) The original counsel and solicitors had been right to withdraw and the judge had been equally correct not to have sought to interfere with their decision. The court could not oblige a lawyer to continue to act when he had made a professional judgment that he was obliged, for compelling reasons, to withdraw from the case (see [28]–[31], [33], [36], below); R v Jones (No 2) [1972] 2 All ER 731 and R v Shaw [1980] 2 All ER 433 considered.
(2) The cab-rank rule and the rationale which supported it applied whenever, and however late, a barrister was instructed. The absence of what he would regard as sufficient time for the purpose of preparation did not constitute an exception; the exceptions to the cab rank rule were expressly identified in para 602 of the Bar Code of Conduct. Paragraph 701(b)(ii) was not an exception to the cab-rank rule but was concerned to prevent a barrister from accepting work over and above his existing commitments which he would not be able adequately to prepare and deal with in a professionally competent manner. A barrister faced with the problem which had faced new counsel in the trial in the instant case was professionally required to do the best she could. That process would normally encompass discussions with former counsel, taking stock generally, analysis of the issues likely to arise thereafter and sensible applications to the trial judge for adjournment as and when the need arose. In such circumstances an order for wasted costs or a successful action for professional negligence against counsel who had taken on that burdensome responsibility in such an awkward situation could not realistically be in contemplation in the absence of some remarkable subsequent developments (see [37]–[41], below); Ridehalgh v Horsefield [1994] 3 All ER 848 applied.
(3) Rule 2.01 of the Solicitors Code of Conduct did not require a solicitor to refuse or cease to act in circumstances such as those of the new lawyers in the instant case. Rule 2.01 was not directed to the situation where an order of the court made it harder for a solicitor to discharge his professional obligations to his client. In the conduct of criminal litigation a solicitor was an officer of the court; he had an obligation to the court to comply with its orders and to do the best for his client in the light of those orders. There was no reason to distinguish the professional position of a barrister and a solicitor. Neither was in breach of the rules of his profession or acting improperly or negligently if the worst that could be said was that he was doing his best to comply with orders of the court which made it impossible or difficult to look after the client’s interests to the standard which, without those difficulties, he would normally be expected to achieve. Accordingly, the decisions of the new counsel and solicitors to withdraw had been wrong and to the extent that they had been acting on the advice of their professional bodies the advice they had received had been wrong. However the conviction had been safe and the appeal would therefore be dismissed (see [43]–[46], below).
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Notes
For barristers: acceptance and refusal of instructions and withdrawal from case and return of instructions, see 3(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2005 reissue) paras 517–539, and for solicitors: practice rules; basic principles, see 44(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 488.
Cases referred to in judgment
Arthur JS Hall & Co (a firm) v Simons, Barratt v Ansell (t/a Woolf Seddon (a firm)), Harris v Scholfield Roberts & Hill (a firm) [2000] 3 All ER 673, [2002] 1 AC 615, [2000] 3 WLR 543, HL.
R v Al Zubeidi [1999] Crim LR 906, CA.
R v G [2004] EWCA Crim 1368, [2004] 1 WLR 2932, CA.
R v Jisl (July 14 2000, unreported), CA.
R v Jones (Anthony) [2005] UKHL 5, [2002] 2 All ER 113, [2003] 1 AC 1, [2002] 2 WLR 524, HL.
R v Jones (No 2) [1972] 2 All ER 731, [1972] 1 WLR 887, CA.
R v Khan (Ashgar) (10 July 2001, unreported), Crown Ct.
R v Shaw [1980] 2 All ER 433, [1980] 1 WLR 1526, CA.
R v Van Binh Le [1999] 1 Cr App Rep (S) 422, CA.
Ridehalgh v Horsefield [1994] 3 All ER 848, [1994] Ch 205, [1994] 3 WLR 462, CA.
Appeal and applications
R v Ulcay
The appellant Erdogan Ulcay (i) appealed against his conviction on 23 November 2005 in the Crown Court at Isleworth after a trial before Judge Testar and a jury of conspiracy to facilitate the commission of breaches of immigration law by individuals who were not citizens of the European Union; and (ii) applied for leave to appeal against his sentence of 12 years’ imprisonment. The General Council of the Bar and the Law Society made submissions relating to the professional responsibilities of the legal professions. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Toygun
Ismail Toygun applied for leave to appeal against his sentence of seven years’ imprisonment following his conviction in the Crown Court at Isleworth after a trial before Judge Testar and a jury of conspiracy to facilitate the commission of breaches of immigration law by individuals who were not citizens of the European Union. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Benjamin Aina (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Charles Garside QC and Roger Smart (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Timothy Cray (instructed by the General Council of the Bar) for the General Council of the Bar.
Bruce Houlder QC (instructed by the Law Society) for the Law Society.
Judgment was reserved.
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19 October 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR IGOR JUDGE P.
[1] This is an appeal by Erdogan Ulcay against his conviction on 23 November 2005 at Isleworth Crown Court, before Judge Testar and a jury, of conspiracy to facilitate the commission of breaches of immigration law by individuals who were not citizens of the European Union. He was sentenced to 12 years’ imprisonment. His co-defendants included Ismail Toygun, who was sentenced to seven years’ imprisonment, Mustaffar Gozcu, sentenced to six years’ imprisonment, Ali Surensoy, sentenced to ten years’ imprisonment, and Muharrem Garip, who pleaded guilty before trial, and was sentenced to three years’ imprisonment.
[2] The only significant ground of appeal arises from events which occurred at the close of the prosecution case. At the outset the appellant was represented by two counsel and solicitors, but they then ceased to represent him. The trial proceeded to a conclusion. The appellant was unrepresented. It is submitted that the judge mishandled the problem which arose when counsel withdrew from the case, and that the effect of his rulings produced an unfair trial.
[3] Some of the issues which arise in the appeal are illustrative of problems which arise unfortunately with increasing frequency and create difficulties for the trial process and disadvantage to the proper administration of justice. As questions of importance to the professional responsibilities of the legal professions also arise, we received very helpful submissions on behalf of the General Council of the Bar (the Bar Council) from Mr Timothy Cray, and from Mr Bruce Houlder QC on behalf of the Law Society. There were some significant differences between their respective submissions, and Mr Benjamin Aina, on behalf of the appellant, took robust issue with some of the underlying submissions made on behalf of the Bar Council.
THE PROSECUTION CASE
[4] The prosecution case was that the defendants were part of a large commercial enterprise engaged in making arrangements for the illegal entry into the United Kingdom of people who live beyond the borders of the European Union. These defendants were based in the United Kingdom, but the conspiracy included others based in Germany, with yet others from elsewhere in Europe. Most of those smuggled into the United Kingdom were, like all the defendants, of Turkish origin. The conspiracy lasted for just over a year, from the beginning of July 2003 until the end of July 2004. Its linked purposes were first, to ensure that the illegal immigrants entered into the United Kingdom undetected, and second, if they were detected, to support them with bogus applications for asylum.
[5] The Crown’s case against the appellant was formidable. Police in Germany lawfully intercepted and recorded a large number of telephone calls which, by themselves, established the existence of the conspiracy, and the prosecution demonstrated that in consequence numerous individuals entered the country using false names. Many of their travel arrangements were paid for by credit card fraud operated by Garip and the travel arrangements were linked to various telephone conversations recorded by the police in Germany. This evidence directly implicated the appellant as the organiser of the operation. He was known as ‘Edi’ or ‘Eddie’. A listening device placed in the appellant’s BMW car produced additional powerful support. The conversations between the appellant and other
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conspirators were preoccupied with the mechanics of illegal immigration. Travel arrangements and arrival details of various different illegal entrants were discussed. The calls also revealed a constant source of money difficulties between the appellant and his contact in Germany. Details of some of the immigrants stopped by the authorities on entry were found in the appellant’s home. Some of them had his telephone numbers with them on arrival, and he was seen to meet others after they entered the country. The prosecution also drew attention to a series of financial transactions by which the appellant transferred money to his associates in Europe and Turkey, which again were referred to in the intercepted telephone conversations.
[6] The appellant was arrested at Heathrow Airport on 9 April 2004. He was present with Surensoy, driving his car, in which nine telephones were being carried. The appellant said that two of the phones in the centre console were his and that the two in his pockets belonged to his son and his brother, as he was using both. Of the remaining phones four were found in the console, and one in the boot. He was interviewed on the following day. In the presence of a solicitor and an interpreter he presented a prepared statement claiming that he was ‘100% innocent’, adding that he had been advised by his solicitor not to answer questions and that the written statement had been prepared for him by his solicitor. He was subsequently interviewed on five occasions. Apart from saying that he was not Turkish, but Kurdish, he made no comment.
THE TRIAL
[7] Before the trial began a number of admissions were made by the appellant. The critical admission was that ‘Erdogan Ulcay’ was known as ‘Eddie’. It was also admitted that the observations set out in the prosecution schedule represented an accurate record of events, that telephone numbers listed in the prosecution schedule were correctly attributed to the individuals who had the use of those numbers, and further that, the words attributed to the appellant by the prosecution in the course of intercepted calls were spoken by him (although some minor relevant corrections were made during the course of the evidence).
[8] The trial began on 5 September 2005. The appellant’s defence throughout was conducted with appropriate professional skill in the light of his then instructions. Just before the close of the prosecution case, the court was unable to sit for something over a day because of jury difficulties. On the afternoon of Thursday 13 October, it was anticipated that the Crown’s case was about to close. At 2 pm, in the absence of the jury, counsel informed the judge that his client intended to give evidence, but that it would be preferable for his evidence not to start immediately. The Crown’s case concluded at 3.35 pm. After its close, in the presence of the jury, counsel told the court that the appellant wanted to give evidence and intended to do so, but would prefer not to start until the following morning. The judge agreed that this was a reasonable proposal and so the case was adjourned until the following morning.
[9] Next morning, again in the absence of the jury, counsel informed the judge that the appellant no longer wished to give evidence. He said that the appellant had made his decision after a great deal of time had been spent in conference both on Thursday afternoon and Friday morning. The judge checked with counsel whether, given that decision, there was any reason why he should not give the appellant the usual warning in the presence of the jury. Counsel confirmed that there was no reason why he should not. The discussion then moved to witnesses to be called on the appellant’s behalf. The judge decided to allow time for this
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purpose, because in view of the appellant’s decision not to give evidence, the witnesses were not immediately available, and could not be brought to court for that day. Accordingly the case was adjourned on Friday, and as the judge put it, ‘very little work was done in front of the jury’. However the judge was determined that the appellant should not be under any pressure, and he made himself available throughout Friday if witness summonses were required. No applications were made.
[10] On Monday 17 October, again in the absence of the jury, the judge was told by counsel that the appellant did not wish to call any of the witnesses he had in mind on Friday, but that he did want to call another witness, who had originally been a prosecution witness, who was neither called nor tendered. The witness was found, but the judge was informed that the witness would not be available to come to court that day. However, if allowed, he would attend first thing on the next day. The judge, showing exemplary patience, agreed. The case was again adjourned. Until this moment the trial had proceeded without undue difficulty. All that now changed, and we must describe subsequent events in greater detail.
THE CRUCIAL DEVELOPMENTS
[11] On the next day, 18 October, immediately before the appellant’s case was due to be presented to the jury, both counsel and solicitors who had represented him to date applied to the judge to withdraw from the case on the grounds of ‘professional embarrassment’. At the same time, fresh counsel applied to the judge for a transfer of the representation order under reg 16(2)(a) of the Criminal Defence Service (General) (No 2) Regulations 2001, SI 2001/1437.
[12] Subject to the limits of legal professional privilege, Judge Testar rightly required the most detailed possible explanation for these developments. Counsel informed him that the basis on which the appellant’s case had been prepared and presented to the jury to date was that the voice on the intercept tapes attributed to ‘Eddi’ was the appellant’s voice, and that the appellant was ‘Eddi’. The appellant’s instructions had changed. He now denied that he was Eddi, or that the words spoken by Eddi on the intercept material were his words, or that the voice originally admitted to be his voice was his voice. Indeed the appellant himself, from the dock, twice asserted that the voice was not his voice. He also added that he ‘definitely’ did not want to be represented by his legal team.
[13] The appellant had somehow procured the attendance of a Mr Khan, who stated that he was a legal executive, and appeared before the judge and asked for permission to act as the appellant’s ‘McKenzie’ friend. However the appellant then asked for fresh legal representation. In order to discover more about the appellant’s position, the judge heard submissions from a new barrister, Miss Tayo, whose attendance had also been arranged, again presumably before the appellant’s decision about his legal team had been communicated to the judge. She informed the judge that she was instructed that the appellant wanted the trial to start again, in front of a fresh jury, with fresh legal representation. She continued that he wished to withdraw the admissions he had made thus far, adding that the defence case statement was not his document and that he had signed it in blank without reading it.
[14] In giving his ruling Judge Testar helpfully recorded his own assessment of the way in which the trial had been conducted to date. He took account of what he had observed in court throughout the trial thus far, and in particular events at the close of the prosecution case, and the way in which they unfolded before him.
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He believed that trial counsel had acted with ‘energy’. He had seen for himself instructions being taken through the course of the prosecution evidence, with many notes passing backwards and forwards between the appellant and his legal team. He expressed concern ‘whether it really was necessary for there to have been an independent interpreter acting on behalf of each defendant’, a concern which was subsequently vindicated when the appellant addressed the jury on his own behalf. The judge satisfied himself that the case had been conducted throughout on the basis of the appellant’s instructions and he rejected any suggestion to the contrary. He did not feel it possible to expect counsel and solicitors to continue to act on the appellant’s behalf. They were in ‘an impossible professional situation’. He believed that the application for fresh representation was motivated by the appellant’s wish to ‘have a separate trial in front of a fresh jury’. The judge added that although he would allow the application by the existing legal team to withdraw, he reminded the appellant that he could reconsider his position, and that if he did so, and his original solicitors and counsel were prepared to consider theirs, it would not be too late.
[15] The judge proposed to adjourn the case until the following Thursday. He believed that two days would be sufficient to enable fresh counsel to prepare the case. The first question to be addressed was whether the defendant wished to withdraw his decision not to give evidence. If so, the judge intimated that an application would probably be granted. If not, it seemed reasonable to anticipate that any evidence the co-defendants might give would be consistent with their interview accounts of events, and counsel could take instructions about the evidence as and when it was given.
[16] The case was then adjourned to enable Miss Tayo, who stated that she was prepared to act for the defendant, to take further instructions. On Thursday 20 October, Mr Aina appeared for the defendant, seeking a four to six week adjournment. The application was refused, the judge indicating that he would be prepared to grant a short adjournment. He said that he would give counsel the opportunity to spend Friday and the weekend reading the papers, and would then allow the further option of Monday being used for an additional conference with the defendant. If asked he would therefore adjourn the trial until Tuesday, which would be long enough in the circumstances. Having thought carefully about the remaining stages of the trial, and how they could be managed in the interests of justice overall, he concluded that the case would have to proceed whether the defendant was represented or not. Counsel told him that in these circumstances they would be unable to act. Mr Aina informed the judge that he had considered his position, and spoken to senior members of the profession and the Bar Council. The judge suggested that he would adjourn briefly for Mr Aina to take further advice from the Bar Council. This offer was declined. Counsel then left the court. Discussion then took place between the judge and the Crown about the directions to be given to the jury if the defendant was unrepresented, and how to be provided with appropriate assistance. On the following day, Mr Aina and Miss Tayo formally withdrew from the case.
[17] On 24 October, two new counsel appeared on behalf of the appellant. They asked for a seven-day adjournment. The judge refused but agreed to adjourn for a further three days. On 26 October counsel reapplied, this time seeking a two-week adjournment. The judge refused. In his ruling, he summarised all the previous events. The time requested by the two new teams of lawyers would effectively derail the trial. He was in no doubt that what had happened was that the appellant’s case had changed. He asked himself whether
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it was in the interests of justice for a long trial with more than one defendant to be allowed to be derailed because one of the defendants changed his instructions. ‘The answer resoundingly . . . is No.' He addressed the time sought by fresh counsel to prepare the case. He explained that the effect of these applications would be—
‘effectively, to derail the trial because it would not be practical in front of this jury and out of justice to all of the parties, which includes the prosecution and the other defendants, to carry on this trial against all four defendants if the adjournment that I was being asked for were granted.’
He carefully examined the stage which the trial had reached, the way in which the defences had been presented and the trial developed, and examined the submission that it would be—
‘unfair to expect Mr Ulcay firstly to say whether he is going to give evidence in response to that charge and secondly, if he is going to, to give evidence without the substantial adjournments that are sought.’
Having done so, he rejected the application for a two-week adjournment, pointing out that on 24 October, counsel had sought a much more modest adjournment, and indeed at one stage had said that the order actually made by the judge was generous. He was wholly unpersuaded that a two-week adjournment was required. If granted, it would mean that four weeks had elapsed since the prosecution closed its case, and just over three weeks since the original lawyers had withdrawn. The second new team of lawyers thereupon withdrew.
[18] The judge explained to the appellant how he intended to proceed. The trial would continue on Friday 28 October. In the presence of the jury he would invite him to come into the witness box with an interpreter (although he underlined that he could see no particular language difficulties) and ask whether he intended to give evidence or not. He expected the answer to be clear, ‘Yes or No’. If the answer was unclear he would work on the basis that the last choice expressed by the appellant represented his position. If witnesses were to be called they had to be available. If he was not giving evidence, they had to be available on Friday.
[19] On 28 October, in the absence of the jury, the court reassembled. The appellant was unrepresented. Counsel for the Crown and the judge prepared a list of questions on broad topics which the defendant might like to consider dealing with in evidence if he changed his mind and decided to give evidence. The appellant and the interpreter were invited to the witness box. The judge explained that if he wished to give evidence the appellant could do so. He could not give evidence in his closing speech. The appellant was asked whether he had changed his mind and wished to give evidence, because if so, he would be allowed to do so. The judge reminded him that the last thing he knew from original trial counsel was that he did not want to give evidence. The appellant said, more than once, that he did not know what to do, and commented that he did not know how to use his legal rights. He did not know, but he ‘didn’t think’ he wanted to call witnesses.
[20] When the jury returned to court, they were given a proper direction about the circumstances in which the appellant was unrepresented, and told that his fresh lawyers had withdrawn from the case because they said that they did not have sufficient time to prepare it. That was not a matter to be held against the
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appellant. The trial would continue. In the presence of the jury the appellant was then asked whether he intended to give evidence, with an appropriate warning about the consequences of failing to do so or failing clearly to state what he wished to do. The appellant said that he did not know. The judge said that he would proceed on the basis of his previous election not to give evidence. Asked whether he understood, the appellant replied that he did and when asked whether he wanted to call evidence, he repeated several times that he did not know, before eventually saying that he did not wish to do so.
[21] The defence cases of the other defendants then proceeded in the usual way. The evidence was concluded. On 9 November counsel and solicitor attended court after some form of contact from the appellant, but no application was made to the judge, and they did not remain.
[22] On 10 November the appellant asked that many documents from the unused material should be put before the jury as evidence. The application was granted. He applied to postpone making his closing speech until the following Monday. Again, the application was granted. On 15 November, at his own request speaking in English, Mr Ulcay began to address the jury shortly before lunch. He put a further 120 documents before the jury. During his speech, from time to time he sought to give evidence, and the judge rightly stopped him from doing so. His speech continued throughout the rest of the day, and was eventually concluded shortly before 4 pm on the following day. Thereafter the case of the remaining defendants was concluded, and the judge summed up the case. Apart from some token point, no substantial criticism is made of the summing up and we can see nothing in the criticism.
THIS APPEAL
[23] On behalf of the appellant, Mr Aina focused attention on the circumstances in which counsel withdrew from the case, and its consequences. He first submitted that the judge was wrong to allow counsel to withdraw from the case. If that submission failed, he was wrong not to allow new counsel and solicitors more time to read themselves into the case, and to allow them the time they said they needed to do so. Unless he was prepared to do so, and in view of his decision not to allow the time, the judge should have discharged the jury from reaching a verdict in the appellant’s case.
[24] Our attention was drawn to the convention rights provided by art 6(3) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) given ‘full effect’ at common law, summarised by Lord Bingham of Cornhill in R v Jones (Anthony) [2005] UKHL 5 at [8], [2002] 2 All ER 113 at [8], [2003] 1 AC 1, that the defendant should have sufficient opportunity to prepare his defence, and thereafter to defend himself or be represented at trial by a competent lawyer. All this is axiomatic and elementary. It is however equally elementary that the processes designed to ensure the fairness of his trial cannot be manipulated or abused by the defendant so as to derail it, and a trial is not to be stigmatised as unfair when the defendant seeking to derail it is prevented from doing so by robust judicial control. Such a defendant must face the self-inflicted consequences of his own actions.
[25] Mr Aina pointed out that in his ruling on 18 October, the judge did not expressly state that the appellant was seeking to manipulate the process of the court. Indeed he never said so. However we have no hesitation in saying that it is perfectly obvious that this is what the appellant was seeking to do, a conclusion
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which we would have reached independently of, but which is powerfully fortified by, the factual observations of trial counsel following the appellant’s waiver of privilege. When he was addressing these problems, it was incumbent on the judge to be more reticent. It does not need much imagination to envisage the likely response if he had suggested that the process was being abused or manipulated. It would have formed the basis for an application for a new and separate trial before a new jury and an ‘unbiased’ judge. We shall focus exclusively on the stark realities.
[26] This appellant was provided with competent lawyers at public expense and given ample opportunity for the preparation of his defence. Before trial the issues were carefully addressed by him, and his lawyers, and he was then properly represented by counsel before the jury. It was a constant theme of the pre-trial preparation, and indeed of the discussions in conference while it was in progress, that counsel could only act on the basis of the appellant’s instructions. For example, counsel made clear that he would not challenge evidence which the defendant accepted was accurate, and the fact that another co-defendant was challenging the same evidence could not justify a challenge on the appellant’s behalf. All this seemed to be clearly understood by the appellant, at any rate until the close of the prosecution case, when his understanding appears to have broken down.
[27] The correct meaning of the phrase ‘acting on instructions’, as it applies to the professional responsibility of the advocate in any criminal court, is sometimes misunderstood, even by counsel. Neither the client, nor if the advocate is a barrister, his instructing solicitor, is entitled to direct counsel how the case should be conducted. The advocate is not a tinkling echo, or mouthpiece, spouting whatever his client ‘instructs’ him to say. In the forensic process the client’s ‘instructions’ encompass whatever the client facing a criminal charge asserts to be the truth about the facts which bring him or her before the court. Those instructions represent the client’s case, and that is the case which the advocate should advance. In practical terms, that will often mean that prosecution witnesses will be cross-examined on the basis that they are lying or mistaken, or have misunderstand or misinterpreted something said or done by the defendant; however there is almost always some evidence advanced by the prosecution which, on the basis of the client’s instructions, is not in truth in issue at all, either directly, or indirectly. Some decisions, of course, must be made not by the advocate, but by the defendant personally, for example, and pre-eminently, the plea itself, and in the course of the trial, the decision whether or not to give evidence. The advocate must give his best professional advice, leaving the ultimate decision to the client. It is however always improper for the advocate to seek to challenge evidence which is accepted to be true on the basis of the facts agreed or described by the client, merely because the lay client, or the professional client, wishes him to do so. He may not accept nor act on such instructions.
[28] By the time the trial starts, there should be no confusion about the defendant’s factual account or explanation of every essential issue. There was none here. At the end of the prosecution case when the defendant completely changed his instructions, counsel was presented with an impossible situation. If he could properly do so, of course he had to continue to represent his client, but there are occasions, and this was one of them, when he could not do so. It is for counsel to decide whether, consistent with his obligations to his client, and the court, and the rules of his profession, he is so professionally embarrassed that he
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cannot continue with the case. If so, again consistent with his duty to the court, but without contravening the legal privilege which underpins his professional relationship with his client, he should inform the court of his situation, providing such explanation as he can, to enable the judge to decide how to proceed. It is difficult to imagine cases in which it would be appropriate for the trial judge to direct counsel that he must continue with a case, or refuse him permission to withdraw on the grounds of professional embarrassment if, having heard counsel explain his position, counsel remains unpersuaded that he may properly continue to act, not least because counsel will almost certainly be better informed than the judge, in particular because there are likely to be considerations which he may be unable to reveal. In essence we agree with the observations of Rose LJ in R v G [2004] EWCA Crim 1368 at [14], [2004] 1 WLR 2932 at [14]:
‘Both in principle and pragmatically . . . whether a solicitor or barrister can properly continue to act is a matter for him or her and not the court, although of course the court can properly make observations on the matter’.
[29] If it needed re-enforcing, this approach is fortified by reference to earlier decisions which examined the responsibilities of counsel where the defendant absconded during the course of the trial. In R v Jones (No 2) [1972] 2 All ER 731, [1972] 1 WLR 887 and R v Shaw [1980] 2 All ER 433, [1980] 1 WLR 1526 it was recognised that it was the responsibility of counsel, not the judge, to decide whether he could continue to represent the defendant. The same principles apply here. In the extremely unlikely event that the judge has grounds for believing that counsel is not acting in good faith, and in accordance with the obligation owed to the court, counsel’s conduct should be referred to the Bar Council. Plainly where the advocate in question is a solicitor, the reference should be to the Law Society.
[30] The overwhelming majority of defendants in the Crown Court are legally represented at public expense. Our approach to the issue of principle is consistent with the provisions of the 2001 regulations, the relevant regulations which apply to the provision of legal representation in criminal cases at public expense. Regulation 16 governs any application for a change of representative. The court may grant or refuse it. The grounds are set out in reg 16(2)(a)(i)–(iv). One of the consistent requirements of the regulation is that the legal representative should provide details of the nature of the duty which he believes requires him to withdraw from the case, or the nature of the breakdown in the relationship between him and his client. Requirements like these cannot impinge on the obligation of confidentiality between lawyer and client. The lawyer will do his best to comply with the requirement within the limits of the rules governing legal professional privilege, with the result that the court may be less well informed of the pressures on the lawyer to withdraw from the defence or explain the nature of the breakdown. The principle nevertheless remains clear. The court cannot oblige the lawyer to continue to act when he has made a professional judgment that he is obliged, for compelling reasons, to withdraw from the case.
[31] The purpose of this part of the regulations is to ensure that the client does not manipulate the system, seeking to change his lawyers for dubious reasons which include, but are not limited to the fact that the lawyer offers sensible, but disagreeable advice to the client. Claims of a breakdown in the professional relationship between lawyer and client are frequently made by defendants, and they are often utterly spurious. If the judge intends to reject an application for a change of legal representative he may well explain to the defendant that the
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consequence may be that the case will continue without him being represented at public expense. The simple principle remains that the defendant is not entitled to manipulate the legal aid system and is no more entitled to abuse the process than the prosecution. If he chooses to terminate his lawyer’s retainer for improper motives, the court is not bound to agree to an application for a change of representation. What we find in practice in most cases is that courts faced with this problem are usually prepared to agree to at least one change of representative, provided they are proposed in reasonable time before the trial, and before substantial costs have already been expended in the preparation of the defence case. In the end, however, the ultimate decision for the court is case and fact specific, and it does not follow from the repeated indication of the mantra ‘loss of confidence’ that an application will be granted.
[32] Our approach is entirely consistent with the judgment of Judge Wakerley QC, then the Recorder of Birmingham, dated 10 July 2001 in R v Khan (Ashgar), addressing the 2001 regulations. Expressing his concern at the increasing number of applications for transfer of representation in the Crown Court, he observed:
‘This court will insist on strict compliance with the provisions of reg 16 . . . The grounds of the application and full particulars need to be specified by the existing representatives. Next, the substantial compelling reason under sub-para 2(a)(iv), if relied on, needs to be specified so that I can identify it. It will not generally be sufficient to allege a lack of care or competence of existing representatives . . . only in extremely rare cases, and where full particulars are given in the application, will a general ground of loss of confidence or incompetence be entertained. It must further be pointed out that it will not be sufficient simply to say that there is a breakdown in the relationship between solicitor and client. Many breakdowns are imagined rather than real or as a result of proper advice.’
We commend these observations by a judge whose lamented early death deprived the criminal justice system of one of its most admired practitioners.
[33] The situation created at this trial involved not only a dramatic change of the appellant’s instructions about critical aspects of the prosecution case when it was coming to its end, but also his publicly expressed assertion that his then trial counsel should cease to act for him. Counsel and solicitors were right to withdraw, and the judge was equally correct not to seek to interfere with their decision.
[34] Mr Aina suggested that the judge could have done more to investigate the defendant’s position directly with him, and in particular whether the defendant ‘really’ wished to change his defence, and whether he ‘really’ wished his counsel and solicitors to withdraw. He relied on R v Al Zubeidi [1999] Crim LR 906 and R v Jisl (July 14 2000, unreported). Naturally, judges should seek to find a commonsense solution to the kind of problems to which the withdrawal of counsel or a change of instructions can give rise, clearing up possible misunderstandings and, as best they can, introducing the calm and balance which sometimes can evaporate in the forensic process. However these decisions do not support, and it would be surprising if they did support, the essential thrust of Mr Aina’s contention.
[35] It would rarely be right for the trial judge, midway through a trial, to be required to engage in a personal discussion with a defendant about his defence, and whether it was changing, or the state of the professional relationship with his
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lawyers, and certainly not if satisfied that the defendant was attempting to manipulate the process. All that can be said is that the judge can be relied on to do his best to resolve any problems in the sensitive and delicate situation which has developed, where the potential for subsequent judicial embarrassment is huge. For example, the evidence of the manipulative defendant, if he gives it at trial, under cross-examination, can be anticipated ‘I only said that because the judge persuaded me to do so’ or ‘The judge would not let me change my mind’, or ‘The judge ordered me to keep my lawyer when I had lost confidence in him’. And if observations like these were not made in evidence, they would certainly, with an accretion of elegance, form part of grounds against conviction. In our judgment, the judicial investigation suggested by Mr Aina would have been wholly inappropriate, and would almost certainly have achieved the derailment of the trial which the judge was trying so desperately hard to avoid. In our view the judge did all that he reasonably could.
[36] In all these circumstances the judge was entitled to exercise his discretion to refuse the lengthy adjournment sought by counsel. In this particular case we cannot detect any injustice suffered by the appellant, and the trial continued with an unrepresented defendant in circumstances which the appellant himself had procured. The judge’s preferred choice would have been for the defendant to continue to be represented. However he was not prepared to allow the trial to be derailed. A lengthy adjournment would have produced either an inordinate delay in the trial of all the defendants, in which case the jury would have been discharged, and a new trial started again at huge public inconvenience and costs, and possibly prejudice to the remaining defendants as well as the prosecution, or alternatively, that which the appellant was seeking, for the trial of the remaining defendants to continue, with the jury discharged from giving a verdict in his case, and the subsequent trial for the appellant on his own. That would have been contrary to the interests of justice overall. The fact that the judge was prepared to transfer the legal aid certificate does not mean that he was saying that, whatever the consequences to the trial, new representation must be obtained, and that thereafter he would conduct the trial in accordance with whatever applications were made by new counsel. The clear implication of what the judge decided was that whilst he was content for new representation to be obtained at public expense and no doubt he hoped that it would, nevertheless, he could not and did not abrogate his responsibilities to the interests of justice in the overall context of the trial and its proper conduct and management.
PROFESSIONAL CONDUCT
[37] We must now address the decisions made by the two sets of new lawyers to withdraw, and whether, and if so in what circumstances, counsel and solicitors instructed immediately before the beginning or during the course of the trial may refuse to accept instructions on behalf of the defendant because of difficulties created by judicial case management, in particular in relation to adjournments. These are questions of some importance to the legal professions.
[38] Before we examine the submissions on behalf of the professions, we should emphasise that we immediately recognise the practical difficulties faced by a barrister or solicitor who is invited to take on a defence case at a very late stage, and even more so, if invited to do so half way through a long trial, and we are not unsympathetic to them. However, stripped to essentials, the starting point in any analysis is that the trial judge must decide whether and if so for how long he is prepared to adjourn a trial to accommodate new counsel. The
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responsibility is vested exclusively in him. We can think of no exceptions. If his decision produces an injustice or deprives the defendant of the fair trial to which he is entitled, the remedy is to be found in this court. The rules of the legal professions must defer to and be consistent with these principles.
[39] Counsel cannot chose his clients, or more accurately, cannot refuse to accept the instructions of a solicitor to act on behalf of an individual because of the nature of the charge he faces, or because of his character and reputation. The ‘cab-rank rule’ is clearly laid down in para 602 of the Code of Conduct, and the self-employed barrister is required in terms to ‘comply’ with it. Specific exceptions are provided. One is professional embarrassment, which may arise if, having regard to his other professional commitments, the barrister will be unable adequately to prepare the case (paras 602 and 603(b)). The existing exceptions are not immutable, and may be extended from time to time. However further exceptions have not yet been admitted, either following the disappearance of the advocate’s immunity from suit, or the publicly ventilated difficulties arising in relation to legal aid, or indeed to what Mr Aina described as the ‘human rights’ of the individual barrister, or the proper operation of art 6 of the convention.
[40] The cab-rank rule is essential to the proper administration of justice. It is not without its critics, although criticism is largely directed at the possible evasion of the principle, rather than the principle itself. For example in Arthur JS Hall & Co (a firm) v Simons, Barratt v Ansell (t/a Woolf Seddon (a firm)), Harris v Scholfield Roberts & Hill (a firm) [2000] 3 All ER 673, [2002] 1 AC 615 Lord Steyn, while doubting whether much weight could be placed on the ‘cab-rank rule’ in support of the immunity of the advocate from suit, nevertheless affirmed that it was a ‘valuable professional rule’ ([2000] 3 All ER 673 at 680, [2002] 1 AC 615 at 678). So did Lord Hoffmann, who underlined that it was a ‘valuable professional ethic of the English Bar’ ([2000] 3 All ER 673 at 687, [2002] 1 AC 615 at 686). In Ridehalgh v Horsefield [1994] 3 All ER 848, [1994] Ch 205, the Court of Appeal quashed the wasted costs order made against counsel in Antonelli v Wade Gery Farr (a firm) just because the judge overlooked the obligations imposed on counsel by the cab-rank rule. The group of cases under consideration all arose from civil proceedings, but Sir Thomas Bingham MR (as he then was) expressed the hope that the judgment would provide general guidance which would be of value in criminal cases as well. We simply emphasise that if the cab-rank rule creates obligations on counsel in civil proceedings, it does so with yet greater emphasis in criminal proceedings, not least because to a far greater extent than civil proceedings, criminal proceedings involve defendants charged with offences which attract strong public aversion, with the possibility of lengthy prison sentences, when more than ever, the administration of justice requires that the defendant should be properly represented, so allowing the proper exercise of his entitlement at common law and his convention rights under art 6, summarised by Lord Bingham in R v Jones (Anthony).
[41] The cab-rank rule, and the rationale which supports it, applies whenever, and however late, the barrister is instructed. The absence of what he would regard as sufficient time for the purpose of preparation does not constitute an exception. Paragraph 701(b)(ii) of the rules directs that a barrister should not undertake any task for which ‘he does not have adequate time and opportunity to prepare for or perform’. It does not constitute an exception to the cab-rank rule. Those exceptions are expressly identified in para 602 where the rule is promulgated. Paragraph 701(b)(ii) is concerned to prevent a barrister from accepting work over and above his existing commitments which he will not be
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able adequately to prepare and deal with in a professionally competent manner. In our judgment, the barrister faced with the problem which faced new counsel in the present trial was professionally required, in the words of Sir Thomas Bingham MR in relation to Antonelli’s case (in Ridehalgh v Horsefield) ‘to soldier on and do the best she could’([1994] 3 All ER 848 at 895, [1994] Ch 205 at 269). That exhortation itself conveys a clear acknowledgement of something of the difficulties which inevitably arise. The process would normally encompass discussions with former counsel, taking stock generally, analysis of the issues likely to arise thereafter, and sensible applications to the trial judge for adjournment as and when the need arose. And, perhaps we should add, in circumstances where counsel is soldiering on, doing his or her best, an order for wasted costs, or a successful action for professional negligence against counsel who has taken on this burdensome responsibility in such an awkward situation could not realistically be in contemplation in the absence of some remarkable subsequent developments.
[42] We must finally address the differences in the position of the Bar Council and the Law Society. Whereas it is accepted by Mr Cray that newly instructed counsel should indeed ‘soldier on’ and do the best he can notwithstanding the judge’s decision that the period of adjournment should be significantly shorter than the time sought by counsel, Mr Houlder submitted that this course was inappropriate for and unavailable to a solicitor who would be at risk of contravening Law Society rules. Mr Houlder pointed out that a solicitor is entitled to decide whether or not to ‘take on’ any particular client. The rules tell him when he must refuse to act or continue to act. They make no reference to an obligation to act in accordance with the cab-rank rule which applies to barristers, at any rate when the solicitor is instructing counsel. Once the client is taken on the solicitor must continue to act for him unless some good reason for ceasing to do so emerges.
[43] Mr Houlder drew attention to r 2.01(b) which requires the solicitor without sufficient resources or lacking the necessary competence to cease to act, and he pointed out that it is an elementary core duty of the profession that a good standard of service should be provided for the client. Breach of r 2 in particular could provide evidence of inadequate professional services, and professional misconduct. The rules do not expressly identify an obligation on the solicitor to continue to instruct counsel who has decided, in accordance with his own professional duties, to soldier on. Mr Houlder suggested that where the judge permitted only an adjournment which the solicitor and counsel believed was too short for the purposes of proper preparation of the case, the solicitor found himself within the ambit of r 2.01(b). He was obliged to refuse to act, or to cease to act. Those were the rules of the profession, and he courteously reminded us that the court had no power to alter its rules.
[44] If Mr Houlder were correct, therefore, the members of one of the two legal professions, the barrister in the Crown Court is obliged to ‘soldier on’, while the solicitor is required not to do so, with the result that the barrister would lack the instructions which would enable him to comply with his professional obligations. A moment’s thought suggests that this cannot be right. In our judgment the answer is that r 2.01 of the Law Society rules is not directed to and the solicitor is not prevented from acting nor required to cease to act where an order of the court creates difficulties and makes it that much harder for him to discharge his professional obligations to his client. These difficulties arise because of the judge’s ruling, not the absence of appropriate resources or necessary
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competence. The ruling, however, is binding on him, as it is on the barrister, and indeed everyone else involved in the conduct of the case. In the situation currently under consideration, the conduct of criminal litigation, the solicitor is an officer of the court. He has an obligation to the court to comply with its orders, and to do his best for his client in the light of those orders. We can see no reason why the professional position of the barrister and solicitor can or should be distinguished. Both owe a duty to the court. Both should comply with it. Both must soldier on. Neither is in breach of the rules of his profession, nor acting improperly or negligently, if the worse that can be said of him is that he was doing his best to comply with orders of the court which made it impossible or difficult for him to look after the client’s interests, to the standard which, without those difficulties, he would normally be expected to achieve.
[45] Accordingly, if it is thought that r 2.01(b) requires the solicitor to refuse or cease to act in circumstances like the present, that perception is wrong. It is not a good reason for ceasing to act for a client that a solicitor disagrees with the decision of the court, even if he believes that the order has caused insuperable difficulties for him, or his client, in the preparation and conduct of the defence. In our judgment the decisions of the new teams of barristers and solicitors were wrong. To the extent that they were acting on the advice of their professional bodies, the advice they received was wrong.
CONCLUSION.
[46] In these circumstances we have re-examined the safety of this conviction. The case against the appellant was overwhelming. The logical explanation for his determination to manipulate the trial process is that he understood perfectly clearly that the prospects of an acquittal were vanishingly slight. So, at the end of the prosecution case, he sought to change his story, to reject the defence case statement, and to withdraw the formal admissions made on his behalf by competent lawyers acting on his instructions. His trial was as fair as he allowed it to be. The conviction is safe. The appeal is dismissed.
LEAVE TO APPEAL AGAINST SENTENCE
[47] There are renewed applications for leave to appeal against sentence by the appellant and Ismail Toygun.
[48] The judge approached his sentencing decision on the basis that the conspirators were involved in a commercial enterprise, operated in a determined and persistent manner. It had nothing to do with assisting friends or relations, the needy or oppressed. Although the number of people actually trafficked was unknown, the number was substantial and significant. The operation was large.
[49] The judge examined a number of decisions of this court, in the context of legislative increases in the maximum penalty of the offences from seven years, to ten years, and then again from 10–14 years. He examined the specific aggravating features identified in R v Van Binh Le [1999] 1 Cr App Rep (S) 422. With those considerations in mind he considered the individual features of each case. He had no doubt that Ulcay was at the very centre of the conspiracy, and that all the aggravating features identified in R v Van Binh Le were present. He regarded Ulcay as a manipulative criminal. He considered whether the maximum sentence would be appropriate in Ulcay’s case, but concluded that there probably would be more serious examples of the offence, adding that if so they would probably not be very much more serious. Accordingly the sentence of 12 years’ imprisonment was imposed.
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[50] In relation to Toygun, the judge concluded that he was an active member of the conspiracy, with full knowledge of its working and organisation, and closely involved in the movement of a large number of individuals. He took account of the applicant’s good character, and the medical evidence, which showed that he had undergone a bypass operation shortly before or immediately after his arrest. That represented a continuing concern, although the applicant himself had said in evidence that his health was good.
[51] The submissions on Ulcay’s behalf were based in part on an alleged disparity between him and Surensoy, who was sentenced to ten years’ imprisonment, together with a contention that there was no evidence of the ill-treatment, suffering, physical and mental abuse to which illegal immigrants are sometimes subjected. The appellant had not given evidence, and so had not lied on oath.
[52] The single judge observed:
‘The applicant was the ring leader in a major people smuggling conspiracy, of a highly sophisticated nature and running for at the very least five months. Bearing in mind the need for deterrence, this sentence albeit severe, cannot be regarded as manifestly excessive.’
[53] These observations exactly reflect our own views. The application is dismissed.
[54] In relation to Toygun the single judge observed that the reasons for a severe sentence were explained by the judge in his sentencing remarks. He continued:
‘Having heard the evidence over a period of months, the judge was in the best possible position to assess the extent of your involvement in this conspiracy, and he was entitled to make the findings that he did. Bearing in mind the necessity to deter others, it cannot be said that this sentence is manifestly excessive.’
[55] Again, we agree. We shall not repeat the same conclusion using different language. This application, too, is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed. Applications dismissed.
Carla Dougan-Bacchus Barrister.
Austin and another v Metropolitan Police Commissioner
[2008] 1 All ER 564
[2007] EWCA Civ 989
Categories: HUMAN RIGHTS; Liberty: CRIMINAL; Police
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR, SIR IGOR JUDGE P AND LLOYD LJ
Hearing Date(s): 27–29 MARCH, 15 OCTOBER 2007
False imprisonment – Necessity – Right to liberty and security – Breach of the peace taking place or reasonably thought to be imminent – Rights of innocent third parties – Police detaining crowd on public highway in order to prevent breach of the peace – Detention amounting to false imprisonment of innocent third parties – Whether imprisonment lawful – Whether breach of right to liberty and security – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 5.
A demonstration took place in London on 1 May 2001. The police had information that a demonstration was planned but the organisers had not co-operated with the police. Their publicity material led the police to expect a gathering in Oxford Circus at 4 pm. Oxford Circus had a diameter of about 50m, all of which was taken up by roads, pavements, and four entrances to the London Underground system. There was no free space for people to congregate. At about 2 pm a crowd of demonstrators marched into Oxford Circus. Later others entered or tried to enter and by the end of the day there were about 3,000 people in Oxford Circus. In addition there were crowds of thousands in adjacent streets. Most of the people who entered Oxford Circus at 2 pm were prevented from leaving by the formation of a police cordon. From about 2.20 pm no one was allowed to leave except with police permission. Many were prevented from leaving for a period of over seven hours. A number of people who were not demonstrators were caught up within the police cordon, although some were allowed through. The first claimant had taken part in the demonstration, making speeches through a megaphone. The second claimant had taken no part in the demonstration, but had been caught up in the events of the day. Both were detained within the cordon for many hours. Each presented himself or herself to a police officer on the cordon and asked to leave but was not permitted to do so for a long period. The first claimant had sought release on the ground that she had an 11-month old baby to collect and the second claimant had sought release on the ground that he was not a protester. They commenced proceedings against the defendant commissioner of police, claiming damages at common law for false imprisonment and under the Human Rights Act 1998 for breach of their right to liberty, guaranteed by art 5a of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act). Their complaint was that they had been unlawfully deprived of their liberty, detained and unlawfully imprisoned by not being released much earlier than they had been. The judge held that the cordon had been lawfully imposed on all those present, including the claimants, because an apprehended breach of the peace was imminent and the police reasonably suspected that everyone,
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including the claimants, had been about to commit a breach of the peace. He concluded that the claimants had been deprived of their liberty within the meaning of art 5 of the convention but that the deprivation fell within the exception provided for lawful detention. The findings of fact by the judge included that if the police were to prevent violence and the risk of injury to persons or property they had had no alternative at 2 pm, when the decision had been made, but to impose an absolute cordon. He therefore dismissed the claims and the claimants appealed.
Held – (1) Where a breach of the peace was taking place, or was reasonably thought to be imminent, before the police could take any steps which interfered with or curtailed in any way the lawful exercise of rights by innocent third parties they had to ensure that they had taken all other possible steps to ensure that the breach, or imminent breach, was obviated and that the rights of innocent third parties were protected. The taking of all other possible steps included (where practicable), but was not limited to, ensuring that proper and advance preparations had been made to deal with such a breach, since failure to take such steps would render interference with the rights of innocent third parties unjustified or unjustifiable, but where, and only where, there was a reasonable belief that there were no other means whatsoever whereby a breach or imminent breach of the peace could be obviated, the lawful exercise by third parties of their rights could be curtailed by the police. The test was one of necessity which it was to be expected could only be justified in truly extreme and exceptional circumstances, and the action taken had to be both reasonably necessary and proportionate. In the instant case the appellants had not appeared to be about to commit a breach of the peace and the judge’s conclusion to the contrary had been wrong. However, their containment, which had amounted to ‘imprisonment’ for the purpose of the tort of false imprisonment, had been lawful because, on the facts found by the judge, the police had had no alternative but to ask all those in Oxford Circus to remain inside the police cordon in order to avoid an imminent breach of the peace by others (see [27]–[35], [60]–[62], [67], [68], [72], [73], [119], below); O’Kelly v Harvey (1883) 14 LR Ir 105 and dicta of Lord Rodger of Earlsferry in R (on the application of Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucestershire Constabulary [2007] 2 All ER 529 at [82]–[85], of Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood in R (on the application of Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucestershire Constabulary [2007] 2 All ER 529 at [119]–[129], and of Lord Mance in R (on the application of Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucestershire Constabulary [2007] 2 All ER 529 at [147]–[149] applied.
(2) The containment of the claimants within the cordon had not amounted to a deprivation of liberty within art 5 of the convention, as opposed to an interference with liberty of movement. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [93]–[107], [119], below); Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333, R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2006] 4 All ER 1041, HM v Switzerland [2002] ECHR 39187/98 and R (on the application of Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucestershire Constabulary [2007] 2 All ER 529 considered.
Notes
For the right to liberty and security of the person, see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 127–133, for the common law power of arrest to deal with or prevent breaches of the peace, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006
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reissue) para 930, and for false imprisonment in general, and for justification, see 45(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 442, 455.
For the Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 5, see 7 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 705.
Cases referred to in judgment
Al Fayed v Metropolitan Police Comr [2004] EWCA Civ 1579, [2004] All ER (D) 391 (Nov).
Albert v Lavin [1981] 3 All ER 878, [1982] AC 546, [1981] 3 WLR 955, HL.
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Beatty v Gillbanks (1882) 9 QBD 308, [1881–5] All ER Rep 559.
Blum v DPP [2006] EWHC 3209 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 303 (Dec).
Brogan v UK (1988) 11 EHRR 117, ECt HR.
Brown v Stott (Procurator Fiscal, Dunfermline) [2001] 2 All ER 97, [2003] 1 AC 681, [2001] 2 WLR 817, PC.
Christians against Racism and Fascism v UK (1980) 21 DR 138, E Com HR.
Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647, ECt HR.
Ezelin v France (1991) 14 EHRR 362, ECt HR.
Guenat v Switzerland (1995) 81-A DR 130, E Com HR.
Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333, ECt HR.
HL v UK (2004) 17 BHRC 418, ECt HR.
HM v Switzerland [2002] ECHR 39187/98, ECt HR.
Ingleton v Dibble [1972] 1 All ER 275, [1972] 1 QB 480, [1972] 2 WLR 163.
Jones v Ministry of the Interior of the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia [2006] UKHL 26, [2007] 1 All ER 113, [2007] 1 AC 270, [2006] 2 WLR 1425.
Lawless v Ireland (No 3) (1961) 1 EHRR 15, ECt HR.
McVeigh v UK (1983) 5 EHRR 71, E Com HR.
Moss v McLachlan [1985] IRLR 76.
O’Kelly v Harvey (1883) 14 LR Ir 105, Ir CA; (1882) 10 LR Ir 285.
Osman v UK (1998) 5 BHRC 293, ECt HR.
R v Bournewood Community and Mental Health NHS Trust, ex p L [1998] 3 All ER 289, [1999] 1 AC 458, [1998] 3 WLR 107, HL.
R v Brown (1841) Car & M 314, 174 ER 522.
R v Spear, R v Boyd, R v Smith [2002] UKHL 31, [2002] 3 All ER 1074, [2003] 1 AC 734, [2002] 3 WLR 437.
R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2006] UKHL 12, [2006] 4 All ER 1041, [2006] 2 AC 307, [2006] 2 WLR 537; affg [2004] EWCA Civ 1067, [2005] 1 All ER 970, [2005] QB 388, [2004] 3 WLR 1144.
R (on the application of Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucestershire Constabulary [2006] UKHL 55, [2007] 2 All ER 529, [2007] 2 AC 105, [2007] 2 WLR 46; rvsg in part [2004] EWCA Civ 1639, [2005] 1 All ER 473, [2005] QB 678, [2005] 2 WLR 789; affg [2004] EWHC 253 (Admin), [2004] 2 All ER 874.
Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439, ECt HR.
Sporrong v Sweden (1982) 5 EHRR 35, ECt HR.
X v Germany (1981) 24 DR 158, E Com HR.
Ziliberberg v Moldova [2005] ECHR 61821/00, ECt HR.
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Appeal
Louis Austin and Geoffrey Saxby appealed with permission of Tugendhat J from his decision on 23 March 2005 dismissing their claim against the Metropolitan Police Commissioner for damages for false imprisonment and under s 7 of the Human Rights Act 1998. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Keir Starmer QC and Phillippa Kaufmann (instructed by Christian Khan) for the appellants.
David Pannick QC, John Beggs, George Thomas and Amy Street (instructed by the Metropolitan Police Service) for the respondent.
Judgment was reserved.
15 October 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR.
This is the judgment of the court to which all its members have contributed.
CONTENTS
Section Paragraphs
I Introduction [1]–[4]
II The judge’s brief summary of events [5]–[8]
III The claims [9]–[11]
IV Common law—false imprisonment [12]
V Breach of the peace [13]–[50]
VI Key findings of fact relied on by the respondent [51]
VII The appellants’ summary [52]–[55]
VIII Did the appellants appear to be about to commit a breach of the peace? [56]–[62]
IX If the appellants did not appear to be about to commit a breach of the peace, was their containment lawful? [63]–[72]
X Conclusion on false imprisonment [73]
XI Public Order Act 1986 [74]–[84]
XII Article 5 of the convention [85]–[86]
XIII Deprivation of liberty under art 5(1) [87]–[107]
XIV Article 5(1)(b) [108]–[110]
XV Article 5(1)(c) [111]–[117]
XVI Damages [118]
XVII CONCLUSIONS [119]–[120]
I INTRODUCTION
[1] This is an appeal from an order made by Tugendhat J on 23 March 2005 dismissing an action brought by the appellants, Ms Austin and Mr Saxby, against the Commissioner of the Metropolitan Police arising out of events in Oxford Circus on May Day 2001 (see [2005] EWHC 480 (QB), [2005] All ER (D) 402 (Mar)). The claims were principally for damages at common law for false imprisonment and under s 7 of the Human Rights Act 1998 for breach of the appellants’ rights to liberty guaranteed by art 5 of the European Convention for
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the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act). The appeal is brought with the permission of the judge.
[2] The trial of the action took place between 17 January and 4 February 2005. The judge heard a considerable amount of oral evidence and examined a large number of documents. The oral evidence took more than nine days and included the evidence of both appellants, of nine senior police officers and of two experts. In addition the judge watched 21 DVDs which showed the events both of May Day 2001 and of similar previous occasions.
[3] The judge’s judgment, which was produced with commendable speed, is a tour de force. It runs to nearly 150 closely typed pages and to 608 paragraphs. It analyses the events of 1 May 2001 in very considerable detail. It would be quite impossible for us to do the same in this judgment. What we say here should therefore be considered in the light of the judge’s judgment as a whole, to which the reader is referred for the details of what occurred.
[4] Between the decision of the judge and the hearing of this appeal the House of Lords delivered its decision in R (on the application of Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucestershire Constabulary [2006] UKHL 55, [2007] 2 All ER 529, [2007] 2 AC 105, which contains important guidance on the common law powers and duties of both the police and members of the public in order to prevent an anticipated breach of the peace.
II THE JUDGE’S BRIEF SUMMARY OF EVENTS
[5] The judgment is divided into a number of sections, from which we extract only those parts necessary for our decision, without in any way intending to distort the overall picture given by the judge or implying that the parties accept all the factual findings which are not expressly addressed. Section 1 contains a summary in [1]–[11]. At about 2 pm on May Day 2001, which was not a Bank Holiday, a crowd of demonstrators marched into Oxford Circus from Regent Street South. Later others entered or tried to enter from all points of the compass so that by the end of the day there were about 3,000 people in Oxford Circus. In addition there were crowds of thousands to the north of Oxford Street and on the west side of Oxford Street itself. The police had information that a demonstration was planned but the organisers had deliberately given no notice of what would happen at 2 pm. They had refused to co-operate with the police at all. Their publicity material led the police to expect a gathering in Oxford Circus at 4 pm. No warning had been given of any march or procession or of the route which demonstrators might take. It was this deliberate lack of co-operation by the organisers, which was unlawful, that led to the police responding as they did, and to everything that happened from 2 pm onwards. The appellants were not organisers but they and many others suffered the consequences.
[6] The crowd who entered the Circus at 2 pm were, for the most part, prevented from leaving. Others entered Oxford Circus during the afternoon. From about 2.20 pm no one was allowed to leave except with the permission of the police. Many were prevented from leaving for a period of over seven hours. A number of people who were not demonstrators were caught up within the police cordon, although some were allowed through.
[7] The disruption to shops, shoppers and traffic by the events on that day was enormous. It was a wet and chilly afternoon. Oxford Circus has a diameter of about 50 metres, all of which is taken up by roads, pavements, and the four entrances to the Underground. There is no free space for people to congregate.
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The physical conditions in Oxford Circus were for a short period quite acceptable but as time passed the conditions became increasingly unacceptable. In particular, in the absence of toilets, people had to relieve themselves in the street in public. This and other problems bore particularly hard on some of the women. Fortunately no one was seriously hurt but some of those attending came very close to sustaining injury and some policemen were injured.
[8] Neither appellant alleged that he or she was injured. Ms Austin had an 11-month old baby whom she needed to collect from the child minder at 4.40 pm. It is likely that in such a large crowd there will have been other women with commitments such as hers. Such a situation is a serious interference with human dignity. As the judge put it (at [7]), the point the appellants made was that the place was so unsuitable for holding a crowd that they should have been released before the problems became intolerable. The judge recognised (at [8]) that the fact that such events should take place in London, involving thousands of people unable to leave the police cordons, was a matter of public concern. The judge described (at [11]) the facts of this case as being quite exceptional. Never before, or since, 1 May 2001 have the police in England formed cordons enclosing a crowd of thousands before a substantial breakdown of law and order has occurred, with the result that the crowd were prevented from leaving for many hours.
III THE CLAIMS
[9] The judge summarised the claims in paras [12]–[17]. The appellants are two of some 150 people who have given notice of or commenced claims arising out of the events on 1 May 2001. The appellants claim damages for distress and also both aggravated and exemplary damages. Ms Austin had come to London to take part in the demonstration. Until about 3.30 pm she made speeches through a megaphone on political topics and thereafter, while she was unable to leave Oxford Circus, she made speeches through her megaphone giving advice and comfort to the crowd around her (see [13]). By contrast, Mr Saxby came to London on his employer’s business, not to demonstrate, and found himself caught up in the events of the day (see [12]). Both were detained within the cordons for many hours. They do not now complain so much about the initial cordon and consequent detention but complain that they were unlawfully deprived of their liberty, detained and unlawfully imprisoned by not being released much earlier than they were. Mr Starmer submits in particular that when each presented himself or herself to a police officer on the cordon and asked to leave, each should have been allowed to do so.
[10] It is important to note that, although the judge did not find either Ms Austin or Mr Saxby to be an entirely satisfactory witness, there is no suggestion that either of them acted other than lawfully throughout. The respondent accepted that neither of them was violent or threatened violence or breached the peace or threatened to do so. Ms Austin was exercising her right to demonstrate peacefully and Mr Saxby was innocently caught up in the events. Each wanted to leave the cordon but was not permitted to do so for a long period. After their requests to leave had been refused by individual police officers, neither made any attempt to break through the police cordon. We should perhaps note in passing that we do not know whether any or all the other people who have made or intimated claims were acting lawfully throughout; they may or may not have been.
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[11] As already indicated, the appellants’ claims are put at common law in the tort of false imprisonment and under s 7 of the 1998 Act for alleged unlawful detention contrary to their rights under art 5 of the convention. The judge rejected their claims under both heads. Mr Starmer QC submits on their behalf that he was wrong to do so. Before considering the facts found by the judge and the extent to which his findings are challenged, it is appropriate to consider the relevant legal principles. We agree with the submission of Mr Pannick QC on behalf of the respondent that it is appropriate to consider first the position at common law, and especially the defences to the tort of false imprisonment and the reasoning of the House of Lords in Laporte’s case. We note in passing that before the judge Ms Austin (but not Mr Saxby) also asserted a breach of her rights under arts 10 and 11 of the convention but that part of her case was rejected by the judge (at [598]–[608]) and there is no appeal in that regard.
IV COMMON LAW—FALSE IMPRISONMENT
[12] It is not, and could not be, in dispute that there was an interference with the liberty of the appellants which amounted to the tort of false imprisonment unless it was lawful. The respondent’s case is that the interference was lawful on one or more of three bases: by reason of what Mr Pannick calls breach of the peace powers, pursuant to powers conferred by the Public Order Act 1986 or pursuant to the doctrine of necessity. It is convenient to consider first breach of the peace and secondly the defence of necessity to the tort of false imprisonment. We will consider the legal principles and then the relevant facts under these heads before turning to the 1986 Act. Although it will be appropriate to touch upon some aspects of the Strasbourg jurisprudence in the context of our discussion of the position at common law, it nevertheless seems to us that the most convenient and appropriate course is to leave a consideration of the position under art 5 of the convention until the final part of the judgment.
V BREACH OF THE PEACE
[13] Before considering the legal principles discussed in Laporte’s case, we should briefly refer to the facts, although what follows is not intended to be a substitute for the more detailed account given by Lord Bingham of Cornhill ([2007] 2 All ER 529 at [2]–[17], [2007] 2 AC 105). The claimant, Jane Laporte, was a peace protester, who was a passenger on a bus going to a demonstration at an RAF base at Fairford in Gloucestershire. She was one of about 120 passengers on three buses travelling together. The police had intelligence that there were likely to be some violent protesters on the buses, including some members of a group called the Wombles. However, it was at no time suggested that the claimant was such a person or that she would or might act in a violent way or otherwise than peacefully. The police were concerned that, if they permitted the bus to reach Fairford, there would be a serious risk of violence. The chief constable had not however exercised his power under s 13 of the 1986 Act to prohibit the ‘procession’ (see [8]).
[14] The police stopped the buses at Lechlade, which was some five kilometres by road and two kilometres across the fields from the air base. The buses were searched and various articles were found and seized (see [11]). Eight members of the Wombles were identified. Chief Superintendent Lambert, who was the officer in charge of the operation, decided that the buses and their passengers (except for three people who were to speak at the demonstration) should not be allowed to proceed to Fairford but should be escorted back
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to London. The passengers were not allowed off the buses before they reached London (see [12]).
[15] The reasons given by Mr Lambert for his decision are set out at [13]. In the light of the intelligence and what was found on the buses, he concluded that a breach of the peace would have occurred at RAF Fairford and arrests made on the basis that a breach of the peace would then have been ‘imminent’. Although he said that he could not discount the potential risk that some peaceful protesters were caught up in the decision not to allow the buses to proceed, it was not possible to be certain who was intent on direct action and who was not.
[16] Both the Divisional Court and this court (of which I was a member) distinguished between arrest and action short of arrest and held that the police acted lawfully in not allowing the protesters to proceed to the demonstration but unlawfully in detaining them by sending them back on the bus to London: see the quotations from the judgments of both courts quoted by Lord Bingham at [15], [16]. Both sides appealed to the House of Lords. The claimant’s appeal succeeded but the chief constable’s cross-appeal failed. The basis upon which the claimant’s appeal was allowed was that no distinction could be drawn between a decision to arrest and a decision short of arrest and that neither arrest nor the action taken in refusing to permit the claimant to proceed to the demonstration could be justified unless a breach of the peace was ‘imminent’, at the time of the refusal, which on Mr Lambert’s own account it was not.
[17] In Laporte’s case Lord Bingham identified (at [29]) three situations of possible relevance as follows:
‘Every constable, and also every citizen, enjoys the power and is subject to a duty to seek to prevent, by arrest or other action short of arrest, any breach of the peace occurring in his presence, or any breach of the peace which (having occurred) is likely to be renewed, or any breach of the peace which is about to occur. This appeal is only concerned with the third of these situations.’
[18] Lord Bingham observed that the relevant principle was that stated in Albert v Lavin [1981] 3 All ER 878, [1982] AC 546, from which the House had not been invited to depart. Lord Bingham noted (at [31]) that Lord Diplock, with whom the other members of the House agreed, stated ([1981] 3 All ER 878 at 880, [1982] AC 546 at 565) the true principle as being:
‘that every citizen in whose presence a breach of the peace is being, or reasonably appears to be about to be, committed has the right to take reasonable steps to make the person who is breaking or threatening to break the peace refrain from doing so; and those reasonable steps in appropriate cases will include detaining him against his will. At common law this is not only the right of every citizen, it is also his duty, although, except in the case of a citizen who is a constable, it is a duty of imperfect obligation.’
[19] The issue before the House in Laporte’s case was what was meant by ‘about to be’. The House held unanimously that the expression ‘about to be’ was to be equated with imminent or on the point of happening: see per Lord Bingham (at [39]–[51]), Lord Rodger of Earlsferry (at [62], [66]), Lord Carswell (at [101]), Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood (at [110], [113]–[115]) and Lord Mance (at [141]). The House rejected the somewhat looser approach of both the Divisional Court and of this court. In doing so, as already stated, it also rejected
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the proposition, which had found favour in the courts below, that action short of arrest may be taken to prevent a breach of the peace which is not sufficiently imminent to justify arrest: see eg per Lord Bingham (at [50]) and Lord Rodger (at [64]–[66]).
[20] In all the circumstances we accept Mr Pannick’s submission that a threshold test of imminence must be passed before action may be taken to prevent a breach of the peace and that once the test of imminence is passed, action which is both reasonably necessary and proportionate to prevent a breach of the peace may be taken: see per Lord Bingham (at [39], [40], [46]–[49]), Lord Rodger (at [62]), Lord Carswell (at [101]), Lord Brown (at [114]) and Lord Mance (at [141]).
[21] The view of imminence taken by the House of Lords was enough to decide the appeal. However, some members of the appellate committee proceeded to consider a question which did not arise for decision in that case. That question was put by Lord Brown in this way (at [119]):
‘This brings me to the other question which, had your Lordships taken a different view of whether the police at Lechlade could reasonably have regarded a breach of the peace as already then imminent, would have needed to be addressed: the question as to the circumstances in which the police may take preventive action against persons other than those committing or reasonably apprehended of being about to commit a breach of the peace. Because it does not arise directly I shall touch on it comparatively briefly . . .’
Lord Mance posed the question (at [143]) whether and to what extent the police may take preventive action against anyone other than persons committing or reasonably apprehended as being about to commit a breach of the peace.
[22] As appears below, the judge in the instant case held that the cordon was lawfully imposed on all those present, including the appellants, because the apprehended breach of the peace was imminent and because the police reasonably suspected that everyone, including the appellants, was about to commit a breach of the peace in the exceptional circumstances of the case. On that basis, the further question considered in Laporte’s case does not arise here. However, the appellants challenge the judge’s conclusions of fact on this point and it seems to us that we should consider the relevant legal principles on the footing that the judge was wrong so to hold.
[23] Mr Pannick submits that in Laporte’s case, although not all of those who considered the question put the principle in quite the same way, it was accepted that in exceptional circumstances, if there is no other way of preventing an imminent breach of the peace, action can be taken against a person who does not himself or herself reasonably appear to threaten an imminent breach of the peace. The judge was therefore wrong to suggest ([2005] All ER (D) 402 at [520]) that the police need to have a reasonable suspicion that each person against whom action is taken poses a threat to the peace. Mr Pannick accepts of course that the judge did not have the benefit of the reasoning of their Lordships because Laporte’s case had not then been decided in the House of Lords.
[24] Mr Pannick relies upon the statements of Lord Rodger ([2007] 2 All ER 529 at [82]–[85]), Lord Brown (at [119], [123], [124], [127], [128]) and Lord Mance (at [147]–[149]). He also submits that Lord Carswell recognised (at [98]–[101]) the legitimacy of taking action against innocent third parties where there is no other way of preventing a breach of the peace. Mr Pannick submits that the
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reasoning of their Lordships is based, in particular, on three matters. They are the reasoning of the Court of Appeal in Ireland in O’Kelly v Harvey (1883) 14 LR Ir 105, the common law offence of refusing to aid a constable and the approach of the European Court of Human Rights (the ECtHR). As we see it, the central reasoning was that in O’Kelly v Harvey.
[25] In short the facts of O’Kelly v Harvey were these. We take them from Lord Rodger’s account of them ([2007] 2 All ER 529 at [79]). The plaintiff, a nationalist member of Parliament, sued the defendant for assault and battery. The incident arose out of a meeting which was to be held on 7 December 1880. The previous day a placard appeared summoning local Orangemen to assemble and oppose the meeting. The defendant, who was a justice of the peace for the district, was present at the meeting. According to his pleadings, which are referred to at (1882) 10 LR Ir 285 at 287–289, he knew of the placard and believed on reasonable and probable grounds that the only way of preventing a breach of the peace when the Orangemen arrived was to order the meeting to separate and disperse. The defendant asked the plaintiff and the other persons who were assembled to disperse and, when they failed to do so, he laid his hand on the plaintiff in order to disperse the meeting. On a demurrer the Court of Appeal in Ireland held that, if made out, these averments would constitute a sufficient defence to the action for assault and battery.
[26] Law C explained the position in this way in a passage quoted by Lord Rodger and reported at (1883) 14 LR Ir 105 at 109–110:
‘The question then seems to be reduced to this:—assuming the Plaintiff and others assembled with him to be doing nothing unlawful, but yet that there were reasonable grounds for the Defendant believing, as he did, that there would be a breach of the peace if they continued so assembled, and that there was no other way in which the breach of the peace could be avoided but by stopping and dispersing the Plaintiff’s meeting—was the Defendant justified in taking the necessary steps to stop and disperse it? In my opinion he was so justified, under the peculiar circumstances stated in the defence, and which for the present must be taken as admitted to be there truly stated. Under such circumstances the Defendant was not to defer action until a breach of the peace had actually been committed. His paramount duty was to preserve the peace unbroken, and that, by whatever means were available for the purpose. Furthermore, the duty of a Justice of the Peace being to preserve the peace unbroken he is, of course, entitled, and in fact bound, to intervene the moment he has reasonable apprehensions of a breach of the peace being imminent; and therefore, he must in such cases necessarily act on his own reasonable and bona fide belief, as to what is likely to occur. Accordingly in the present case, even assuming that the danger to the public peace arose altogether from the threatened attack of another body on the Plaintiff and his friends, still if the Defendant believed and had just grounds for believing that the peace could only be preserved by withdrawing the Plaintiff and his friends from the attack with which they were threatened, it was, I think, the duty of the Defendant to take that course.’
He added (at 112):
‘I assume here that the Plaintiff’s meeting was not unlawful. But the question still remains—was not the Defendant justified in separating and
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dispersing it if he had reasonable ground for his belief that by no other possible means could he perform his duty of preserving the public peace. For the reasons already given, I think he was so justified, and therefore that the defence in question is good . . .’
[27] That analysis played an important part in the reasoning of Lord Rodger, Lord Brown and Lord Mance in Laporte’s case [2007] 2 All ER 529, [2007] 2 AC 105. We take them in turn. Lord Rodger expressed the view that preventive action may be taken against innocent third parties on two bases. First, at [82] he cited O’Kelly v Harvey as authority for the proposition that—
‘. . . where it is necessary in order to prevent a breach of the peace, at common law police officers can take action . . . which affects people who are not themselves going to be actively involved in the breach . . .’
[28] Support for the proposition that it is necessity which forms the basis of the justification to take such steps, and therefore brings those steps within the ambit of what it is reasonable for the police to do in the face of an imminent breach of the peace, can be found in Beatty v Gillbanks (1882) 9 QBD 308, [1881–5] All ER Rep 559, which Lord Rodger cited in these terms ([2007] 2 All ER 529 at [80]), without referring to the case by name:
‘. . . What does need to be stressed, however, is that, as Dicey An Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution (10th edn, 1959) pp 278–279, emphasised, using the familiar example of the Salvationists and the Skeleton Army:
“. . . the only justification for preventing the Salvationists from exercising their legal rights is the necessity of the case. If the peace can be preserved, not by breaking up an otherwise lawful meeting, but by arresting the wrongdoers—in this case the Skeleton Army—the magistrates or constables are bound, it is submitted, to arrest the wrongdoers and to protect the Salvationists in the exercise of their lawful rights.”’
The inference from that passage is that, if the peace cannot be preserved by arresting the wrongdoers (or presumably those imminently about to be wrongdoers), it is or may be the duty of a constable to break up a lawful meeting.
[29] Lord Rodger’s second point, which is again put on the basis that to prevent an imminent breach of the peace is necessary, is put thus (at [82], [83]):
‘Here, of course, the claimant and those like her were not going to take any part in any breach of the peace. Nor was their conduct likely to lead to one. But, as O’Kelly v Harvey shows, where it is necessary in order to prevent a breach of the peace, at common law police officers can take action (in that case dispersing a meeting) which affects people who are not themselves going to be actively involved in the breach . . ..
[83] On the same principle, where they need to do so in order, say, to reach the scene of an imminent breach of the peace, police officers must be able to clear a path through a crowd of innocent bystanders. Indeed, where necessary, a police officer is entitled to go further and call on any able-bodied bystanders for their active assistance in suppressing a breach of the peace. If, without any lawful excuse, they refuse to give it, they are guilty of an offence. See Archbold Criminal Pleading, Evidence and Practice (2006) p 1843
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(para 19-277). The law proceeds on the basis that “[i]t is no unimportant matter that the Queen’s subjects should assist the officers of the law, when duly required to do so, in preserving the public peace” (see R v Brown (1841) Car & M 314 at 318, 174 ER 522 at 524 per Alderson B). In the eyes of the law therefore innocent bystanders caught up in a breach of the peace are to be regarded as potential allies of the police officers who are trying to suppress the violence.’
[30] These considerations led Lord Rodger to the conclusion stated in [84]:
‘In the light of these authorities I would reject [counsel for the claimant’s] submission that there has to be a causal nexus between the persons affected by any measure taken by the police and the potential breach of the peace. In some circumstances a requirement of that kind would make it impossible for police officers to discharge their primary duty to preserve the peace. In a case like the present, therefore, provided that there was no other way of preventing an imminent breach of the peace, under the common law a police officer could stop a coachload of protesters from proceeding further, even although those on board included entirely peaceful protesters. The proviso is, however, vital.’
[31] Lord Brown addressed the issue in some detail at [119]–[129]. His analysis and conclusions can we think be summarised in this way: (i) Only, perhaps, in ‘extreme and exceptional’ circumstances can a police officer require an innocent third party to desist from lawful conduct and, if he refuses to desist, arrest him in the face of a breach or imminent breach of the peace by others. In other circumstances he cannot be required so to desist (see [123]). (ii) It is the primary duty of the police to ensure that innocent parties are able lawfully to exercise their rights. Their first duty ‘is to protect the rights of the innocent rather than to compel the innocent to cease exercising them’ (see [124]). That innocent members of the public are lawfully exercising or seeking lawfully to exercise such rights should make it ‘the more, not the less, important that the police should take all possible steps to advance rather than thwart their rights’ (see [129]). (iii) After considering such assistance as is available in the Strasbourg authorities, Lord Brown answered (at [127]) the question he posed for himself, namely whether the approach in O’Kelly v Harvey would be lawful today, as follows:
‘. . . Ultimately, therefore, I am persuaded that the approach adopted in O’Kelly v Harvey remains valid today but subject always to two provisos: first, that it is not used as an excuse for the police failing to prepare properly for likely confrontations, and, secondly, that there is absolutely no dilution of Law C’s stipulation that the constable has “just grounds for believing that the peace could only be preserved by withdrawing the Plaintiff and his friends from the attack with which they were threatened [and] that by no other possible means could he perform his duty of preserving the public peace” . . .’
(iv) The common law power and duty to require the assistance of innocent third parties to ensure that an imminent breach of the peace is avoided can be taken no further than it was in O’Kelly v Harvey and in Moss v McLachlan [1985] IRLR 76, DC. O’Kelly v Harvey applies only when absolutely ‘no other possible means’ are available to preserve the peace (see [2007] 2 All ER 529 at [128]). Moss v McLachlan is not relevant to the present question but to the test of imminence.
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[32] Lord Mance too considered the question in some detail (at [147]–[151]). We do not read his paras [144]–[146] as considering the question with which we are concerned. He identified our problem (or something close to it) at [147] as follows:
‘. . . Some authorities suggest a principle whereby, if it is the only way to prevent a third party (A) causing a breach of the peace, a police officer (or justice of the peace) may request another person (B) to desist from entirely lawful and innocent conduct, and, if B refuses to desist, may physically restrain B or charge B with wilfully obstructing the police officer (or justice of the peace) in the execution of her or his duty. Obstruction may consist in persisting in conduct of a positive nature which is, taken by itself, entirely lawful: cf eg Ingleton v Dibble [1972] 1 All ER 275, [1972] 1 QB 480. Perhaps the requisite duty may be found in the general duty of the police and justices to prevent a breach of the peace, and, in the consideration that, if the only way that a police officer has of avoiding a breach of the peace by A is to enlist the assistance of B by asking B to desist from otherwise entirely lawful and innocent conduct, then B as a citizen comes under a duty to afford that assistance when sought. There is practical attraction in such a principle.’
[33] Since it was not necessary in Laporte’s case to express a final view on the question whether such a principle exists, either at common law or under the convention, Lord Mance did not do so but in [148] said that, if it does, it must be confined to rare situations where the only way to avoid a reasonably apprehended and imminent breach of the peace being caused by others is to restrict the freedom of assembly and expression of entirely innocent people, which he defined as those not apprehended to be about to start a breach of the peace themselves or to cause one by interfering with the rights or liberties of, or provoking, others. He referred to O’Kelly v Harvey and emphasised, as Lord Rodger and Lord Brown had done, that it was there held that the assault or battery was justified if the justice of the peace ‘had reasonable ground for his belief that by no other possible means could he perform his duty of preserving the public peace’. (Lord Mance’s underlining.)
[34] Lord Carswell referred to O’Kelly v Harvey without disapproval but, as we read his speech, he did not express an opinion on the question identified by Lord Brown and quoted above.
[35] As we read the speeches of Lord Rodger and Lord Brown they give some support for the following propositions: (i) where a breach of the peace is taking place, or is reasonably thought to be imminent, before the police can take any steps which interfere with or curtail in any way the lawful exercise of rights by innocent third parties they must ensure that they have taken all other possible steps to ensure that the breach, or imminent breach, is obviated and that the rights of innocent third parties are protected; (ii) the taking of all other possible steps includes (where practicable), but is not limited to, ensuring that proper and advance preparations have been made to deal with such a breach, since failure to take such steps will render interference with the rights of innocent third parties unjustified or unjustifiable; but (iii) where (and only where) there is a reasonable belief that there are no other means whatsoever whereby a breach or imminent breach of the peace can be obviated, the lawful exercise by third parties of their rights may be curtailed by the police; (iv) this is a test of necessity which it is to be
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expected can only be justified in truly extreme and exceptional circumstances; and (v) the action taken must be both reasonably necessary and proportionate.
[36] While it cannot we think be said that Lord Mance expressly supports those propositions, they seem to us to be consistent with his views. They are not inconsistent with the speech of Lord Carswell and Lord Bingham did not address these questions at all.
[37] Those propositions are principally derived from the approach of their Lordships to O’Kelly v Harvey but we should refer to the other two matters referred to above which played some part in their reasoning. The first is the principle referred to by Lord Rodger at [83], which we have already quoted, that it is in some circumstances an offence at common law to refuse to respond to a request for assistance by the police to suppress a breach (or presumably imminent) breach of the peace. As we see it, essentially the same tests of necessity must be satisfied as in the propositions set out above. This principle is thus consistent with those propositions.
[38] The second is the references made to the convention. In Laporte’s case the focus, at any rate in the case of the claimant’s appeal, was upon arts 10 and 11, which of course confer freedom of expression and freedom of assembly and association respectively. In part of Lord Rodger’s speech at [82] which we omitted from the quotation set out above he referred to the procedure in s 13 of the 1986 Act and added this:
‘. . . A prior authorisation procedure for public meetings is in keeping with the requirements of art 11, if only so that the authorities may be in a position to ensure the peaceful nature of the meetings (see [Ziliberberg v Moldova [2005] ECHR 61821/00]). By contrast, a peaceful protester does not cease to enjoy the right to peaceful assembly as a result of sporadic violence or other punishable acts committed by others in the course of a demonstration (see Ziliberberg v Moldova and Ezelin v France (1991) 14 EHRR 362 at 375 (para 34 of the Commission’s decision)).’
[39] Lord Brown also referred (at [130]) to the 1986 Act and to Ziliberberg v Moldova [2005] ECHR 61821/00, where he noted that the exercise of powers conferred by s 13 would have the effect of thwarting the rights of those intent only on peaceful protest. He added that the police enjoy wide powers under s 12 which he would expect Strasbourg to sanction. Lord Brown also said this about art 11 in the part of para [127] to which we did not refer earlier, immediately after posing the question whether the approach in O’Kelly v Harvey would be lawful today and before expressing the conclusion that it would, subject to his two provisos:
‘. . . I can find little in the Strasbourg jurisprudence—which, as I have explained in [121], above, sanctions the concept of breach of the peace on the express basis that its scope has been clarified by recent decisions—to support it. On the other hand, both art 10 and art 11 provide in terms in sub-cl 2 for interference with the protective rights if this is “necessary” “for the prevention of disorder or crime” . . .’
Thus Lord Brown’s view was that the test of necessity upon which he placed so much emphasis ensured that the principle in O’Kelly v Harvey, which is reflected in the five propositions which we have tried to distil from the reasoning in
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Laporte’s case, was consistent with the freedoms expressed in arts 10 and 11 of the convention. We will return separately below to the principles enshrined in art 5.
[40] Lord Mance too referred to the Strasbourg jurisprudence. Indeed, his analysis of the issues in the appeal began with a consideration of art 11 and the relevant cases (see [135]–[137]). On the existence or otherwise of the principle which, as we said earlier, he identified at [147], after referring in [148] to O’Kelly v Harvey, as described above, he said this with regard to the convention:
‘[149] As to the convention, Mr Pannick QC pointed out that the European Commission and Court have accepted the legitimacy of general statutory restrictions on demonstrations in the form of a public procession, where necessary to avoid a breach of the peace: see Christians against Racism and Fascism v UK (1980) 21 DR 138 and Ziliberberg v Moldova . . . So the general statements in Ezelin v France (1991) 14 EHRR 362 (cf [144], above) may by parity of reasoning be subject to a similar qualification which would permit preventive action against an innocent person where it was reasonably apprehended that there was no other possible means of avoiding an imminent breach of the peace. On that assumption, a principle permitting such action in such a case would also appear to be sufficiently clear and certain to be considered as “prescribed by law”. But the European Court has at all times also stressed the importance of the rights of freedom of assembly and expression and that states have positive obligations to take steps to facilitate their exercise (cf [136], above). So, wherever possible, the focus of preventive action should, on any view, be on those about to act disruptively, not on innocent third parties.’
[41] The reference in [149] to the decision in Ezelin was to a reference in [144] to Ezelin v France (1991) 14 EHRR 362, to which Lord Rodger had referred in [82]. The part of [144] to which Lord Mance referred in [149] was in these terms:
‘As to the first point, preventive action may on any view be taken by a policeman or other citizen against the person reasonably apprehended to be committing or about to commit the breach of peace (See [138], above). As to action against others, in Ezelin v France (1991) 14 EHRR 362 the Commission considered that—
“generally speaking, an individual does not cease to enjoy the right to freedom of peaceful assembly simply because sporadic violence or other punishable acts take place in the course of the assembly, if he himself remains peaceful in his intentions and behaviour.” (See 375 (para 34).)’
The court said (at 389 (para 53)):
‘The Court considers, however, that the freedom to take part in a peaceful assembly—in this instance a demonstration that had not been prohibited—is of such importance that it cannot be restricted in any way, even for an avocat, so long as the person concerned does not himself commit any reprehensible act on such an occasion.’
The ‘first point’ referred to in [144] was whether and to what extent the police may take preventive action against anyone other than persons committing or reasonably apprehended as being about to commit a breach of the peace.
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[42] Reading [144] and [149] together, it seems to us that Lord Mance recognised the general approach of the ECtHR as protecting the rights of peaceful demonstrators described in [144] but subject to permitting preventive action against an innocent person where it was reasonably apprehended that there was no other possible means of avoiding an imminent breach of the peace. We should perhaps add that the decision in Ziliberberg v Moldova was recently followed by the Divisional Court, comprising Waller LJ and Lloyd Jones J, in Blum v DPP [2006] EWHC 3209 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 303 (Dec).
[43] In these circumstances we read Lord Rodger, Lord Brown and Lord Mance as being of the view that the approach identified in the five propositions set out above is not inconsistent with the Strasbourg jurisprudence. They are in our opinion consistent with it. Moreover, provided that it is recognised, as their Lordships each did, that the primary focus should be on the wrongdoers and not innocent demonstrators or those who are not demonstrators but are present by chance, and that, save in a case of absolute necessity, the right of freedom of expression under art 10 and the freedom of assembly and association under art 11 must be protected, the propositions seem to us to represent a fair and reasonable balance between the interests of all those involved.
[44] Mr Starmer submits, however, that the House of Lords was not considering the facts of a case like the instant case at all and is thus of no assistance. In particular, their Lordships did not have in mind the kind of coercive measures that were taken in this case. We accept that the House was not focusing on the application of principles of this kind to facts such as those found by the judge here. The facts were indeed quite different and their Lordships all considered that, on any view of the relevant legal principles, the police were not entitled to curtail the claimant’s rights under art 11. Moreover, in so far as the refusal to allow the bus to continue to Fairford was concerned, Laporte’s case was not treated as a case of false imprisonment. It had been so treated in so far as the bus was sent back to London without anyone being allowed off, but the House of Lords did not consider that part of the case separately because it was accepted that, if the claimant’s appeal succeeded, the cross-appeal was bound to fail. It is therefore fair to say that their Lordships were not specifically considering either the tort of false imprisonment or art 5 of the convention.
[45] Nevertheless, notwithstanding the differences between the facts of Laporte’s case and those of the instant case, we do not accept Mr Starmer’s submission that the speeches are of no assistance here. On the contrary, they seem to us to point the way forward.
[46] Mr Pannick relies upon the principles in Laporte’s case in two ways. First, he submits that the judge concluded at [523], [524] (and was entitled to conclude) that it reasonably appeared to the police that all those within the cordon (including the appellants) were demonstrators who appeared to be about to commit a breach of the peace. He submits that in these circumstances the refusal to allow them to leave the cordon, except in the context of the release of all those within it, was necessary and proportionate and that their detention within it was accordingly necessary and lawful and did not amount to the tort of false imprisonment.
[47] Secondly, and in the alternative, Mr Pannick submits that the actions of the police were a lawful response to a threatened breach of the peace because, even if the appellants did not personally appear to be about to commit a breach
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of the peace, the police were entitled in the exceptional circumstances of the case to take necessary and proportionate action against them by containing them within the cordon because, on the findings of fact made by the judge, that was the only way in which violent disorder, and the substantial risk of death or serious injury could be avoided. In short Mr Pannick submits that the propositions summarised above can be made good on the facts.
[48] Before considering the facts, we should consider Mr Pannick’s submission that, even if what he calls the police’s breach of the peace powers (which we have been considering at some length) do not afford the respondent a defence, necessity is recognised as a defence to the tort of false imprisonment, and on the judge’s findings of fact, it was necessary for the police to take the action they did. He relies upon paras [49]–[55] and [575]–[578].
[49] We accept that necessity can provide a defence to the tort of false imprisonment: see eg R v Bournewood Community and Mental Health NHS Trust, ex p L [1998] 3 All ER 289 at 299, 300–301, [1999] 1 AC 458 at 488, 490, per Lord Goff. The test of necessity is undoubtedly a high one but, as we see it, the problem faced by the respondent here is this. If the police’s breach of the peace powers are sufficient to afford the respondent a defence, he does not need this separate point. Given the part played by necessity in connection with those powers, we cannot at present see how the respondent could fail in the context of those powers but nevertheless succeed on the basis that he has a separate defence of necessity. It seems to us that the respondent can only succeed if he can show that it was necessary to take action to prevent a breach of the peace in the context of his breach of the peace powers. Put another way, as we see it, the relevant tests of necessity in this context are to be found in the five propositions summarised in [35], above.
[50] We therefore turn to the relevant findings of fact and, first to the key findings of fact relied upon by Mr Pannick on behalf of the respondent.
VI KEY FINDINGS OF FACT RELIED UPON BY THE RESPONDENT
[51] Both in the respondent’s revised skeleton argument and in the oral argument on his behalf Mr Pannick stresses these features of the judge’s findings:
(i) The police officers responsible for policing on the day were the most experienced public order officers in England (see [566]). About 6,000 police officers were deployed on the streets, which was about as large a number as had ever been so deployed. To have 6,000 officers policing about the same number of demonstrators was wholly exceptional (see [194]–[196]).
(ii) Demonstrations in London are common and it is the policy of the Metropolitan Police to ensure that people have the opportunity to express their views (see [245]–[246], [457], [603]).
(iii) There was no challenge to, or doubt cast upon, the accuracy and reliability of the intelligence on which the police operations were based. The Special Branch assessed the risks and seriousness of anticipated public disorder as being among the worst ever seen in London (see [565]). The Special Branch intelligence reported that there would be ‘500–1,000 hard core demonstrators looking for confrontation, violence and to cause public disorder’ (see [200]). The assessment that there would be such violence and disorder was supported by the lack of co-operation on the part of the organisers, the wearing of masks by demonstrators, the incitement to looting and violence in the organisers’
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literature and the suggestion of multiple protests to evade the police and the encouragement of secrecy (see [532]–[533], [207]–[214]).
(iv) At previous recent protests on similar themes, both in London and overseas, there had been serious violence, criminal damage and injuries to protesters and the police (see [187]–[192], [194]). There was a real risk, not only of damage to property, but also of serious injury and even death if the police did not effectively control the crowd and those at risk included members of the public, demonstrators and police officers (see [532], [575]).
(v) Few people attending the demonstration can have been unaware of warnings that there was a very substantial risk of serious violence (see [226], [227], which quotes from an article by the Mayor of London, Ken Livingstone, in The Evening Standard telling people not to join the demonstration, and [229]).
(vi) The difficulties on the day were the result of a deliberate and complete failure by the organisers to co-operate with the police (see [2]).
(vii) If the police were to prevent violence and the risk of injury to persons and property, they had no alternative at 2 pm but to impose an absolute cordon (see [548], [549]). The need to impose the cordon did not arise out of any negligence on the part of the police (see [576]). The decision to impose the cordon and the effective imposition of it at about 2.20 pm were proportionate responses by the police to the presence of the crowd in Oxford Circus (see [538]). By the end of the trial it was not contended on behalf of the appellants that a cordon was not needed. Their case was that the cordon was maintained for too long and that they were not permitted to leave when they asked to do so (see [539]).
(viii) The reason for imposing the cordon was to establish control over the crowd prior to and during a planned and controlled dispersal (see [20], [541], [542]).
(ix) It was not possible to impose the cordon without including Ms Austin in it (see [540]). There were operational reasons why Mr Saxby was included in the cordon (see [541], [542]).
(x) It was not practicable for the police to release the crowd collectively earlier than they did (see [543]). The release policy communicated to police officers by Bronze Commander, Chief Superintendent Allison, which was subject to the discretion of individual police officers to release individual demonstrators, was that officers should seek to identify those who obviously and clearly had nothing to do with the demonstration but were caught up in the cordon because of the unlucky chance of being at Oxford Circus. There was no release policy which could and should have been adopted other than just described, especially where, as here, the police had no opportunity to plan for the event (see [552] read with [521]–[528] and [347]–[351]). No alternative release policy was put to the police at the trial (see [344]).
(xi) The police had no intention of holding demonstrators for longer than necessary (see [341]). The object was not to hold the crowd for any reason other than to carry out a controlled release as soon as it was practical and safe to do so (see [22]).
(xii) At 2.25 pm, which was about five minutes after the cordon was imposed, Chief Superintendent Webb started to plan for, and put in place resources to facilitate, a commencement of controlled dispersal (see [359]). At 2.45 pm he expected that the release would have started within about an hour (see [378]).
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(xiii) In fact, nearer 400 than 200 people were released, many of them at about 3 pm. It is likely that a substantial number of those were demonstrators (see [554], [358]).
(xiv) The police did not expect the cordon to last as long as, in the event, it did. It was expected that the dispersal process would take about two to three hours. This was the expectation at 2 pm and at each stage up to about 6 pm, when it was reviewed (see [504]).
(xv) On a number of occasions during the afternoon Mr French, who was Silver Commander, gave the order to commence controlled release, only to find that he could not safely carry it through (see [347]). On three occasions the decision to commence controlled dispersal north had to be reviewed or suspended because of the conduct of protesters either inside or outside the contained area. They were decisions at 5.55 pm reversed at 6.15 pm, at 6.50 pm suspended at 7.20 pm and at 7.30 pm stopped shortly afterwards. The final release phase began at 8.02 pm (see [360], [374], [375]).
(xvi) About 40 per cent of the crowd were actively hostile at any given time, pushing and throwing missiles, and otherwise showing a lack of co-operation. Those not pushing or throwing missiles were not dissociating themselves from those who were (see [546]). Some members of the crowd were very violent. For example protesters broke up paving slabs and threw the debris at the police and an officer was struck by a large piece of concrete (see [366]). When officers entered the cordon to arrest a suspect or to prevent fires from spreading, there was no sign of the crowd attempting to ease the task of the police (see [366], [547]).
(xvii) If the appellants had not been controlled by and within the cordons, they would have found themselves in an increasingly disorderly situation, which most people would have regarded as less preferable (see [504]).
(xviii) The police were in part engaged in an exercise for the benefit of the crowd, to protect members of the crowd from danger from each other and from others who wished to join their number. The risks were from crushing, trampling and missile throwing, which could have been fatal. The crowd of over 1,000 at Oxford Circus needed measures to be taken to control them for their own protection (see [506]).
(xix) This was not simply a static crowd of protesters in Oxford Circus surrounded by police and held in place for seven hours. It was a dynamic, chaotic, and confusing situation in which there were also a large number of other protesters in the immediate vicinity outside the cordon who were threatening serious disorder and posing a threat to the officers both on the cordon and within it (see [2], [548]).
(xx) Although there was some breakdown of public order on May Day 2001, it was on a much smaller scale than in June 1999 or May Day 2000. There has been no similar breakdown in public order on any of the very many political demonstrations which have taken place since May Day 2001 (see [186]).
VII THE APPELLANTS’ SUMMARY
[52] We return below to the key issues between the parties on the facts or the interpretation of the facts but, as we read it, the summary of the facts found by the judge which was produced on behalf of the appellants for the purposes of the appeal is not markedly different from that set out above. The summary does, however, refer to aspects of the findings which are less critical of the
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organisers, as for example that the police assessment was that they were organising a peaceful protest but that there would be several hundred who had no part in the planning who would attend for opportunistic violence (see [199]). Although the police were not aware of a plan to gather in Oxford Circus at 2 pm, they did have a good deal of information including the fact that there was expected to be a final gathering in Oxford Circus, which the police had prepared for by putting a speaker system in place as from noon (see [264]). There was, however, no announcement to the crowd over the public address system before 4 pm (see [388]).
[53] The appellants’ summary also stresses that no directions were given by Silver Commander to implement ss 12–14 of the 1986 Act and that he authorised the use of s 60 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994, which gives officers power to stop and search for offensive weapons or dangerous instruments. Although Silver Commander had not decided in advance that he would contain a crowd at Oxford Circus, he said that he would order containment if there was an anticipated breach of the peace (see [300]). The decision to contain the crowd at Oxford Circus was made at 2 pm by creating impermeable barriers across the four exits. The decision was made on the stated basis that Mr French had grounds to believe that the public would be subjected to violence and that there would be widespread criminality and damage. He relied on intelligence before the event and the behaviour of protesters during the morning, together with previous behaviour and criminality of protesters at similar events and the obvious fear of the public (see [299]). His main reason for taking action was the behaviour of similar crowds on previous occasions, followed by intelligence, including in particular the Special Branch assessment of likely violence and disorder (see [302]).
[54] The summary quotes the definition of containment in the amended defence as being shorthand for the tactic of placing a police cordon around large numbers of protesters in order to prevent the crowd causing serious violence and/or disorder. When the first announcement was made to the public at 4 pm, they were told that they were being contained to prevent a breach of the peace. Bronze Commander accepted that the announcement could have been made sooner, at 3.15 pm (see [372]).
[55] The summary further stresses that officers were instructed to release those who were obviously not protesters (see [521]). It also stresses the requests made by each of the appellants for release, although not before 3 pm, to officers on the cordon. As the respondent’s summary accepts, Ms Austin sought release on the ground that she had a young 11-month old baby to collect and Mr Saxby on the ground that he was not a protester. Both requests were refused, although between 200 and 400 people were released following individual requests (see [356]–[358], [487]–[489], [554]–[561]).
VIII DID THE APPELLANTS APPEAR TO BE ABOUT TO COMMIT A BREACH OF THE PEACE?
[56] The first way in which the respondent’s case is put under this head is to invite the answer ‘Yes’ to this question. It is not we think in dispute that throughout the relevant period the police reasonably thought that a breach of the peace was imminent. In any event, the judge so held and he was plainly right to do so if the question is asked by reference to elements in the crowd.
[57] The question to be asked under this head is not, however, whether a breach of the peace was about to be committed by elements in the crowd but
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whether it was about to be committed by the appellants. There was no evidence as to the state of the mind of the police with regard to the appellants. As the judge said, this is not surprising (see [518]). At [520] he referred to a submission made on behalf of the respondent that, if the police have no way of knowing who in a large group is presenting the threat, then they can detain everyone who happens to be present at the scene. He correctly rejected that submission on the basis that it must be too wide.
[58] Having so held, he expressed the view that, if the question whether it appeared to the officers detaining each appellant that each appellant was about to commit a breach of the peace was not answered in the affirmative in a way that encompassed each appellant, then the case against the appellants based on powers to prevent a breach of the peace must fail (see [520]). The judge then said (at [521]):
‘The nearest Chief Superintendent Allison comes to the point is in his witness statement where he says:
“I spoke to all the Chief Inspectors to ensure, amongst other things, those not involved in the demonstrations were being allowed out of the cordon. The importance of this activity had been recognised throughout the planning process for this operation and built on the lessons learnt when we had used this tactic in the past. The Chief Inspectors indicated that this was being done. I fully accept that this was a very difficult task and required the officers to make on the spot judgments. I was not asking officers to differentiate between violent and non-violent protesters but asking them to identify for release those individuals who obviously and clearly had nothing to do with the demonstration. Such individuals would have been at Oxford Circus by chance when the containment was put in place and so became caught up in it.”’
The judge does not give a time for this but Mr Allison’s witness statement suggests that it was between about 2.30 pm and 3.40 pm. It is clear from that evidence that the police were aware that there were those in the crowd who were not demonstrators.
[59] The judge discussed the evidence of the police witnesses and expressed his conclusions in some detail (see [521]–[530]). It was not their evidence that they suspected every member of the crowd of being someone who would commit the breach of the peace which they thought likely to occur. The judge however accepted the evidence that the police thought that individuals might be peaceful at one time but threaten or provoke violence at another (see [524], [525]). The judge held (at [526]) that the position could be similar to that which applies in cases where only one person is suspected of having committed an offence, but the police suspect that any of a number of persons who had the opportunity to commit it might be the guilty one. The police are not prevented from arresting more than one suspect. They may arrest all the suspects, assuming that other necessary conditions are fulfilled. He said that an alternative way of putting the case for the police might be that Chief Superintendent Allison and others were applying the right test and considered that all those who appeared to be demonstrators satisfied it (see [528]).
[60] He expressed his conclusion thus (at [529]):
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‘In the end, and with considerable hesitation, I infer and find that, subject to personal matters which might have arisen for consideration when each claimant came forward and asked to be released, it did appear to the police (that is the police did suspect) that all those present within the cordon, including each claimant, were demonstrators, and that in the particular circumstances of this case, that meant that they also appeared to the police to be about to commit that breach of the peace.’
[61] Mr Starmer submits that that conclusion was wrong, both on the facts and in law. We agree. First, it is inconsistent with the judge’s account of Mr Allison’s evidence quoted at [521] and set out above because that shows that the police recognised that not everyone in the crowd was a demonstrator. Secondly, it seems to us to be plain that the judge was not holding that the police thought that a breach of the peace on the part of all those present was imminent when they imposed the cordon. The highest it could be put was that the police could not say who was likely to cause a breach of the peace and who was not. The police were aware that there were those in the crowd who would not cause a breach of the peace. Some, like Mr Saxby, were not even there to demonstrate. The problem facing the police was that they did not know who they were. In these circumstances it is in our opinion wrong to say that everyone in the crowd was a suspect. Some were not. In these circumstances we do not think that the police would have been entitled to arrest everyone, whether a suspect or not.
[62] For these reasons we reject Mr Pannick’s submissions under this head and answer the question whether these appellants appeared to be about to commit a breach of the peace in the negative. As we see it, the key to this case lies in the answer to the next question.
IX IF THE APPELLANTS DID NOT APPEAR TO BE ABOUT TO COMMIT A BREACH OF THE PEACE, WAS THEIR CONTAINMENT LAWFUL?
[63] The judge held that the answer to this question was ‘No’. He did so on the basis to which we have already referred, namely that, unless the question whether a particular appellant was about to commit a breach of the peace was answered in the affirmative, the case against that appellant based on powers to prevent a breach of the peace must fail (see [520]).
[64] Mr Pannick nevertheless invites an affirmative answer to this question. He does so on the basis of the obiter reasoning in R (on the application of Laporte) v Chief Constable of Gloucestershire Constabulary [2007] 2 All ER 529, [2007] 2 AC 105 discussed above, which was not of course available to the judge. He submits that on the judge’s findings of fact a breach of the peace was reasonably thought by the police to be imminent, that the police had taken all the steps which they possibly could to avoid a breach of the peace by those likely to cause it by arrest or other action directed at them and that, in all the circumstances, if a breach of the peace was to be avoided, there was no alternative but to contain everyone within a police cordon. As to release, no alternative strategy was possible, or indeed suggested, other than that adopted by the police and, in these circumstances, the containment of some innocent people such as the appellants was inevitable and lawful in accordance with the principles discussed earlier and summarised at [35], above. In short, Mr Pannick submits that, on the findings of fact made by the judge, the situation was wholly exceptional and that the police had no alternative but to
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do what they did in order to avoid the imminent risk of serious violence, with its consequent risk of serious injury and perhaps death, quite apart from damage to property.
[65] Mr Pannick thus submits that on the facts found by the judge this was an example of the kind of case referred to by Law C in O’Kelly v Harvey (1883) 14 LR Ir 105. In order to avoid an imminent breach of the peace by others, the police had no alternative but to ask all those in Oxford Circus to remain inside the police cordon, which they did first by imposing the cordon and then by informing them that that was the position. They had no alternative but to treat all those present in the same way. If anyone had refused to comply with their directions, the police would have been entitled to arrest him or her.
[66] In response Mr Starmer submits that the majority of people were neither committing a breach of the peace nor threatening to do so and were peaceful throughout. He further submits that the length of the containment of over seven hours was excessive and that the appellants could and should have been released much earlier than they were. As we see it, the difficulty with this submission is that the judge held that containment was necessary because there was no means by which the serious risk of serious injury could have been avoided, other than by the imposition of the cordon and the release policy subsequently adopted by the police. As to the latter, the judge found that it was not practicable for the police to release the crowd collectively earlier than they did and there was no release policy which could and should have been adopted other than that described above, especially given the lack of opportunity which the police had had to formulate a plan (see [2005] All ER (D) 402 at [543] and [552], read with [521]–[528] and [347]–[351]). As already stated, none was formulated or put to the officers at the trial (see [344]).
[67] While we see the force of the points made by Mr Starmer, especially his point that the containment of the crowd for hours without any or any sufficient toilet facilities and in many cases without food or drink was intolerable, with consequent risk to the health and safety of innocent members of the public, and we can well understand that being in Oxford Circus for so long without any idea when one would be released would have been very unpleasant, we see no realistic alternative but to accept Mr Pannick’s submission in response. It is that the judge properly held that the police could not reasonably have foreseen what happened or that it would have been necessary to have contained people for so long. The judge held that the police took action to avoid or minimise the risk of crushing (see [371], [376]).
[68] For these reasons, we conclude that in this very exceptional case, on the basis of the judge’s finding that what the police did in containing the crowd was necessary in order to avoid an imminent breach of the peace, the actions of the police were lawful at common law in accordance with the principles discussed above. On that basis, we answer the question whether the containment was lawful in the affirmative, even though the police did not reasonably suspect that the individual appellants were about to commit a breach of the peace. In our judgment that was the case, both when the cordon was imposed at about 2.20 pm and throughout the time the cordon was maintained. On the judge’s findings of fact, the conditions of necessity remained throughout because no one had or has suggested an alternative release policy.
[69] As to the release of individuals, the policy itself, which was to leave it to the discretion of individual police officers to decide whether a particular
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individual (in the words of Chief Superintendent Allison quoted above) obviously and clearly had nothing to do with the demonstration was rational, indeed sensible. On the judge’s findings of fact the police were faced with an unprecedented situation and we accept the submission that it was not practical to give the individual officer a wider discretion (see [348]–[351]). In short, in the particular circumstances of 1 May 2001, it was necessary to adopt the policy in fact adopted.
[70] There was some debate in the course of the argument as to the incidence of the burden of proof. It was in our view for the police to show that it was necessary to adopt the policy which they did but, once that was established (as in our opinion it was), it was for each appellant to show that the individual police officer acted unreasonably in a Wednesbury sense (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223) in refusing to release him or her. That approach seems to be to be consistent with the approach of this court in a similar (but admittedly not identical) context in Al Fayed v Metropolitan Police Comr [2004] EWCA Civ 1579, [2004] All ER (D) 391 (Nov), per Auld LJ, with whom Tuckey LJ and Jackson J agreed (at [42], [83]).
[71] On the facts relating to these appellants there is no reason to think that the individual police officers acted other than in good faith and reasonably in a Wednesbury sense. The judge spelled out the evidence of both Ms Austin and Mr Saxby in some detail (see [424]–[461], [474]–[497]). As those accounts show, although the judge accepted much of their evidence he did not find that either appellant was entirely credible. As to Ms Austin, although there is no evidence that Ms Austin acted violently at any stage, the judge held that she played an active part in the demonstration and that the refusal to release her was not unreasonable or irrational, whether applying an ordinary or heightened Wednesbury test: see the judge’s detailed analysis of her evidence and his conclusions at [424]–[461], [471]–[473] and at [553]–[559] respectively. As to Mr Saxby, there were good reasons to include those in the same position as Mr Saxby in the cordon (see [541], [542]) and there is no basis for concluding that thereafter the police behaved unreasonably or irrationally in refusing to release him on an individual basis.
[72] These were essentially matters for the judge, who had the great advantage of hearing and considering a great volume of evidence, and it would in our opinion be wrong for this court to interfere with his conclusions in this regard. Based on the reasoning in Laporte’s case, we answer the question posed in this section by holding that, on the facts found, although the appellants themselves did not appear to be about to commit a breach of the peace, their containment was lawful because it was necessary to prevent an imminent breach of the peace by others.
X CONCLUSION ON FALSE IMPRISONMENT
[73] It follows that we would dismiss the appeal in so far as it rests on the tort of false imprisonment. It also follows that it is unnecessary to consider the question whether the respondent’s actions were unlawful under the 1986 Act. Those conclusions are, however, subject to the appellants’ case under art 5 of the convention.
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XI THE 1986 ACT
[74] In these circumstances it is unnecessary to say much about the 1986 Act. The judge set out or referred to its relevant provisions, notably ss 11–14, at [86], [87]. Because it is not necessary to resolve any of the issues between the parties under these sections we do not think that it is necessary to set out the statutory provisions in this already lengthy judgment. We only refer to the 1986 Act at all for two reasons. The first is that we are concerned that, if we do not, it may be thought that we would have reached the same conclusion as the judge and the second is to highlight the fact that, at any rate as it seems to us, the exceptional circumstances of this case suggest that ss 12–14 of the 1986 Act require further consideration and perhaps amendment for the future.
[75] The respondent’s reliance upon the 1986 Act had a curious history. The police did not purport to rely upon any of its provisions at the time. Moreover, no reliance was placed upon the 1986 Act in the defence or indeed at the trial until the judge invited submissions to be made on the police powers under ss 11–14. None of the officers present had claimed to be acting under them (see [88]).
[76] The judge nevertheless held that the respondent could rely upon ss 12 and 14 of the 1986 Act, even if they did not have them in mind or purport to be exercising their powers under them (see [98]). He also held that s 12 includes a power to bring a procession to an end (see [91]), that s 14 includes a power to direct an assembly to disperse along a particular route and to stay in a particular place so long as necessary to effect that dispersal (see [95]) and that such conditions can be imposed as a result of the acts of others (see [96]).
[77] On the facts, the judge found that a public procession or assembly was being held at Oxford Circus (see [567]) and that at the relevant time the relevant police officers reasonably believed the facts necessary to fulfil conditions (1)(a) in each of ss 12 and 14 were present (see [568]). He held that the officers gave directions pursuant to the 1986 Act and that it was immaterial that they did not have the provisions of the Act in mind (see [569], [570]). The judge further held that the directions given imposed conditions prohibiting the procession from entering any public place specified in the directions, including conditions as to the route of the procession, and as to the place at which the assembly might continue to be held, its maximum duration, or the maximum number of persons who might constitute it. He did so on the basis that the directions were not to proceed west, east or south from Oxford Circus, but only north, and then only subject to a controlled dispersal, and to remain in Oxford Circus for such period as might be necessary to enable the controlled dispersal to take place safely and consistently with the fulfilment of the purpose for which the direction was given (see [571]).
[78] Mr Starmer submits, among other things, that, assuming that there was ever a procession (which he does not accept), the purpose of the directions was not to control the procession but to bring it to an end by containing those taking part and gradually releasing them. He submits that s 13 is concerned with prohibiting public processions, whereas s 12 is not. He further submits that it is a misnomer to describe those in Oxford Circus, at any rate from the moment of containment, as taking part in a procession. If anything, they were taking part in an assembly.
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[79] As to s 14, which confers powers in the case of an assembly and not a procession, Mr Starmer submits that it does not empower the police to ban an assembly but merely, by s 14(1) to—
‘give directions imposing on the persons . . . taking part in the assembly such conditions as to the place at which the assembly may be (or continue to be) held, its maximum duration, or the maximum number of persons who may constitute it, as appear to him necessary to prevent such disorder, damage, disruption or intimidation.’
He submits that the directions given here, namely to stay in one place and then disperse when instructed to do so, were not directions in relation to the continuing of the assembly but as to its ordered dispersal. He further submits that there is nothing in s 14 which permits a police officer to stop a person ceasing to take part in the assembly, which was the essence of the direction on 1 May 2001.
[80] There appears to us to be at least some force in those submissions. We are also concerned about a further point made by Mr Starmer. As we understand it, the possibility of reliance upon ss 12 and 14 of the 1986 Act was raised by the judge after the end of the evidence; so that it did not form part of the evidence given by any of the police officers, except to the very limited extent set out in paras 172–175 of the appellants’ revised skeleton argument for this court. It is there submitted that the respondent’s case was that the exercise of the senior officer’s powers under ss 12 and 14 was consciously considered but rejected. Instead the police exercised their breach of the peace powers. In his witness statement Mr French said (at para 19) that ‘it was agreed that any implementation of . . . sections 12/14 Public Order Act as a tactical option could only be done on my directions’. No such directions were given.
[81] In these circumstances Mr Starmer submits that it could not fairly be held that the relevant officer exercised his powers under the 1986 Act. That submission too has some force. We do not know why Mr French did not purport to exercise his powers under s 12 or s 14. He may have had a good reason for not doing so.
[82] In all these circumstances, we would be reluctant to embark on a detailed analysis of this part of the case unless it were necessary to do so, which it is not. We will only say that we are not at present persuaded that the judge was correct to hold that the powers exercised by the police were lawful because they were exercised or can be treated as exercised under the 1986 Act.
[83] It does seem to us that, whatever the strict position as a matter of law, the police should consider their statutory powers in a case of this kind and decide whether or not to exercise them. If they decide to exercise them, it is at least desirable to make it clear that they are doing so, especially since (for example) ss 12(4) and (5) and 14(4) and (5) contain penal sanctions for knowing failure to comply with directions given under them.
[84] Finally, we would add that the debate in this case, both of the common law position discussed in Laporte’s case and of the provisions of the 1986 Act has highlighted the desirability of a thorough consideration of this area of the law in order to see whether it would be possible to make clear provisions appropriate to cover a case of this kind in the future.
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XII ARTICLE 5 OF THE CONVENTION
[85] Article 5 of the convention provides, so far as relevant:
‘Article 5_Right to liberty and security
1. Everyone has the right to liberty and security of person. No one shall be deprived of his liberty save in the following cases and in accordance with a procedure prescribed by law:
(a) the lawful detention of a person after conviction by a competent court;
(b) the lawful arrest or detention of a person for non-compliance with the lawful order of a court or in order to secure the fulfilment of any obligation prescribed by law;
(c) the lawful arrest or detention of a person effected for the purpose of bringing him before the competent legal authority on reasonable suspicion of having committed an offence or when it is reasonably considered necessary to prevent his committing an offence or fleeing after having done so;
(d) the detention of a minor by lawful order for the purpose of educational supervision or his lawful detention for the purpose of bringing him before the competent legal authority;
(e) the lawful detention of persons for the prevention of the spreading of infectious diseases, of persons of unsound mind, alcoholics or drug addicts or vagrants;
(f) the lawful arrest or detention of a person to prevent his effecting an unauthorised entry into the country or of a person against whom action is being taken with a view to deportation or extradition . . .
3. Everyone arrested or detained in accordance with the provisions of paragraph 1(c) of this Article shall be brought promptly before a judge or other officer authorised by law to exercise judicial power and shall be entitled to trial within a reasonable time or to release pending trial. Release may be conditioned by guarantees to appear for trial.’
[86] The appellants’ case is that their containment amounted to a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1). The judge held that they were indeed deprived of their liberty under art 5(1) but that the case falls within the exception in art 5(1)(c) so that the deprivation of liberty was not unlawful. The respondent challenges his decision on the first point, whereas the appellants challenge his decision on the second point. The respondent submits in the alternative that the case falls within the exception in art 5(1)(b). Indeed Mr Pannick puts his reliance upon art 5(1)(b) ahead of his reliance upon art 5(1)(c). We will consider each of these points in turn, although we say at once that we have granted the respondent permission to amend his respondent’s notice to rely upon para (b) because the point was argued before us and the appellants have suffered no prejudice by the fact that the point was taken at a late stage.
XIII DEPRIVATION OF LIBERTY UNDER ARTICLE 5(1)
[87] The judge considered the distinction between the meaning of false imprisonment in the tort of that name and the meaning of deprivation of liberty in art 5: see [42], [43], where he noted that, as was pointed out in Ex p L [1998] 3 All ER 289, [1999] 1 AC 458 when the case reached Strasbourg (HL v UK
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(2004) 17 BHRC 418), the two meanings are not the same. He also observed that it is possible for there to be a deprivation of liberty without false imprisonment and vice versa (see [45]. See also [46]–[48]).
[88] The judge discussed the deprivation of liberty in art 5(1) at [56]–[72] and [501]–[512]. He correctly observed that the Strasbourg cases have drawn a distinction between a restriction of liberty of movement on the one hand and a deprivation of liberty on the other: see eg Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333, to which the judge referred in his quotation from HL v UK (see [2005] All ER (D) 402 at [43]). Guzzardi v Italy is an important case because it emphasises (at 362–363 (paras 92, 93)) that mere restrictions on liberty are governed by art 2 of Protocol 4, not by art 5 of the convention, and that the difference between the two is ‘merely one of degree or intensity, and not one of nature or substance’.
[89] It is important to note that the United Kingdom has not ratified art 2 of Protocol 4. Nor are its provisions part of the 1998 Act or any other statute. They are not part of the law of England and Wales. The question for the judge was whether there was a deprivation of the appellants’ liberty, in which case art 5(1) applies (subject to its exceptions), or there was not, in which case the appellants do not have the protection either of the convention or of any statute. They do of course have the protection of the common law but, for the reasons given above, the respondent has a defence because of the judge’s findings that the action taken by the police was necessary.
[90] The judge concluded that, subject to what he called consideration of other factors, there was in principle a deprivation of liberty of each person within the cordon from about 2.20 pm until he or she was permitted to leave because no-one was permitted to leave without permission (see [502]). He considered the other factors in the succeeding paragraphs as follows:
(i) The duration of the detention was never expected to be the seven or so hours it turned out to be. What was expected, both initially and up to about 6 pm, was a detention that was likely to last some two or three hours at most. ‘The expectation became correct at about 6 pm’, by which we think the judge meant that it did then in fact take some three hours or so before everyone was released. In the meantime there was close confinement in Oxford Circus, with minimal liberty. Its effects were severe, as described elsewhere in the judgment (and referred to above). On the other hand, had those confined not been detained as they were, they would probably have found themselves in an increasingly disorderly situation, with one or two thousand other people converging upon them in Oxford Circus over the subsequent two hours. Those considerations (said the judge) pointed towards the detention being a deprivation of liberty, rather than a restriction, albeit a deprivation which most people would regard as preferable to the likely alternative situation (see [504]).
(ii) The police intended, not merely to detain the crowd, but to prevent crime and to ensure the safety of persons, the preservation of property in Oxford Street and the protection of other rights of third parties. They also intended to segregate some members of the crowd from others, if appropriate by asking them questions, or by searching them pursuant to s 60 of the 1994 Act (see [505]).
(iii) The police were also engaged in an exercise for the benefit of those in the crowd, to protect the members of the crowd from danger from each other, and from others who wished to join their number. The main risks were from crushing and trampling, but there were also risks from missile throwing. Missiles
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aimed at the police were likely to miss and to hit other members of the crowd, which could be fatal to an unprotected member of the crowd. This crowd of over 1,000 in the middle of a major London crossroads needed measures to be taken to control them for their own protection (see [506]).
(iv) Any measure of controlled release was bound to have taken a considerable time before all the crowd were released. It was impossible to say how long it would have taken, if there had been no searches or evidence gathering. If a release was to be combined with searches and evidence gathering, it was bound to take as long as this one took from the time it restarted at 7.30 pm, that is about one to two hours at least (see [508]).
(v) If the only reason why the police detained the crowd had been to take such temporary measures for the protection of the members of the crowd themselves, the judge would have concluded that this was not a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1), but that it was a restriction of liberty; the case would be similar to Guenat v Switzerland (1995) 81-A DR 130 (see [510]). He added in this regard, also in [510]:
‘. . . The police owe common law duties of care [to] a crowd for whom they have taken, or should take, control. This is the duty of care to prevent death or physical injury, which was admitted in the Hillsborough litigation. It is also the positive obligation recognised in Osman v UK (1998) 5 BHRC 293. If the police are to fulfil such duties effectively, it must follow that they have the powers necessary to enable them to do so, and that these powers should exist where there can be no question of intending to take the detainees before a judge. Necessary powers must include the power to use reasonable force to ensure that members of a crowd stay where the police reasonably require them to stay for as long as is necessary to allow them to disperse safely.’
(vi) If the police had been intending to question or search members of the crowd, if they thought appropriate, before deciding whether to arrest anyone, it would have been open to the judge to hold that there was no deprivation of liberty, on the basis that the case would then have been similar to X v Germany (1981) 24 DR 158, although he also said that he found the principle in X v Germany difficult to discern (see [511]).
(vii) The judge distinguished R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2006] UKHL 12, [2006] 4 All ER 1041, [2006] 2 AC 307, in which the House of Lords held that a person stopped under police stop and search powers in ss 44–47 of the Terrorism Act 2000 was not deprived of his liberty within art 5(1), principally on the ground that the whole process lasted only a few minutes. He added that the principle of proportionality may allow more latitude in a terrorist case than in a public order case, even as bad a case as this one (see [511]).
[91] In a later section of his judgment, when he was discussing the issue of damages, the judge said this in a passage which seems to us to be of some relevance to the issue whether there was a deprivation of liberty and is to be contrasted with what he said in the paragraphs to which we have just referred:
‘[594] Fortunately the consequences of MD01 [ie 1 May 2001] to the claimants did not include any injury. What happened to these claimants on MD01 is comparable in gravity to what happens to many people when a flight is cancelled at holiday time, by reason of a strike or some other such event. It is also comparable to what happens when there has been an
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accident on the motorway, and the police bring all traffic to a halt to enable the injured to be evacuated and the wrecks to be removed. This can create long jams behind the police barrier. Commander Allison in evidence drew on this as analogy. In that situation also, when the time comes to remove the barrier, the police control the rate at which the traffic starts to move again, in order to avoid the dangers of an uncontrolled release. Those sorts of delay can last as long, or longer, than seven hours. The conditions can be very bad, and may include the need to provide for small children. There would probably be functioning toilets in an airport case, and some food and drink. But the delay in an airport is commonly much longer than seven hours. The similarity is that in each case the victim is in a place he or she has chosen to go, knowing that there can be risks of discomfort involved, if not necessarily the risks that actually occur. Neither claimant here appreciated there was a risk of containment, whether for seven hours or at all. But that there were risks from the violent elements in the crowd was known to Ms Austin, and must have been obvious, even to Mr Saxby, who had not seen anything in the papers or on TV.’
It is also we think important to have in mind when considering this part of the case the judge’s critical finding (at [548], [549]) that, if the police were to prevent violence and the risk of injury to persons and property, they had no alternative at 2 pm (when the decision was made) but to impose an absolute cordon.
[92] Mr Pannick submits that the judge erred in principle in reaching the conclusion that the appellants were deprived of their liberty within the meaning of art 5(1). He submits that, applying the principles in the Strasbourg jurisprudence, he should have held that there was here an interference with their liberty of movement but not a deprivation of their liberty. Mr Starmer, on the other hand supports the decision and reasoning of the judge.
[93] Mr Pannick submits that it would be surprising if the respondent infringed the appellants’ rights under art 5 in a case where the judge has held that it was necessary for the police to take the steps they did. We agree. We accept Mr Pannick’s submission that there are a number of considerations which support this conclusion, as follows: (i) The ECtHR has stressed that one of the purposes of the convention is to secure a ‘fair balance’ between ‘the demands of the general interest of the community and the requirements of the protection of the individual’s fundamental rights’ (see Sporrong v Sweden (1982) 5 EHRR 35 at 52 (para 69), which was cited with approval by Lord Bingham in Brown v Stott (Procurator Fiscal, Dunfermline) [2001] 2 All ER 97 at 115, [2003] 1 AC 681 at 704. See also eg Brogan v UK (1988) 11 EHRR 117 at 129 (para 48). (ii) On the particular facts of this case a fair balance would in our judgment have led to the conclusion that the necessary steps taken by the police were lawful. (iii) The considerations identified by Lord Rodger, Lord Brown and Lord Mance in Laporte’s case, which are referred to at [38]–[43], above, support this approach. In particular Lord Brown expressly noted at [127] of Laporte’s case (see [39], above) that both arts 10(2) and 11(2) provide in terms for interference with the protective rights if this is necessary for the prevention of disorder or crime. Moreover, as we said at [42], above, it seems to us that Lord Mance recognised the general approach of the ECtHR as protecting the rights of peaceful demonstrators described in [144] but subject to permitting preventive action against an innocent person where it is reasonably apprehended that there is no other possible means of avoiding an imminent breach of the peace. (iv) Although the House of Lords was not
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considering art 5 in Laporte’s case, it does seem to us that it would be surprising if the ECtHR did not approach that article with similar principles in mind. This is especially so since, as Mr Pannick submits, its approach to every case is pragmatic and fact-sensitive: see eg Gillan’s case [2006] 4 All ER 1041 at [23], [2006] 2 AC 307 per Lord Bingham, R v Spear, R v Boyd, R v Smith [2002] UKHL 31 at [66], [2002] 3 All ER 1074 at [66], [2003] 1 AC 734 per Lord Rodger and Brown v Stott (Procurator Fiscal, Dunfermline) [2001] 2 All ER 97 at 115, [2003] 1 AC 681 at 704 per Lord Bingham.
[94] It is we think important to note that these considerations do not by themselves necessarily answer the question how each of the provisions of art 5 should be construed. The appropriate balance could be met by concluding that there was here no deprivation of the appellants’ liberty under art 5(1), or by holding that there was a deprivation of their liberty but either that it was lawful in order to secure the fulfilment of an obligation prescribed by law within art 5(1)(b) or was within art 5(1)(c). Because of its general approach, it does seem to us that, if the ECtHR were to hold that there was a deprivation of the appellants’ liberty, it would be inclined to hold that para (b) or (c) applied in order to ensure that the balance enshrined in the purpose of the convention was maintained. We stress that we are here concerned with a most unusual case on the facts, in which the judge has held that the police had no real alternative to doing what they did.
[95] We return to deprivation of the appellants’ liberty. In Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 the ECtHR said (at 362–363 (para 92)):
‘The Court recalls that in proclaiming the “right to liberty”, paragraph 1 of Article 5 is contemplating the physical liberty of the person; its aim is to ensure that no one should be dispossessed of this liberty in an arbitrary fashion. As was pointed out by those appearing before the Court, the paragraph is not concerned with mere restrictions on liberty of movement; such restrictions are governed by Article 2 of Protocol No 4 . . . In order to determine whether someone has been “deprived of his liberty” within the meaning of Article 5, the starting point must be his concrete situation and account must be taken of a whole range of criteria such as the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the measure in question.’
The key point is that art 5(1) was intended to avoid arbitrary detention.
[96] The distinction between deprivation of liberty in art 5(1) of the convention and restriction on movement in art 2 of Protocol 4 is of some importance. In this court in R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2004] EWCA Civ 1067, [2005] 1 All ER 970, [2005] QB 388, Lord Woolf CJ, giving the judgment of the court, which comprised himself and Buxton and Arden LJJ, said (at [43]) that it agreed with the view expressed by Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice in a dissenting opinion in Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 the ECtHR said (at 378–379 (para 6)) that the ambit of art 5 should be construed strictly. After comparing the provisions of the Protocol and the convention he said:
‘. . . The resulting picture is that Article 5 of the Convention guaranteed the individual against illegitimate imprisonment, or confinement so close as to amount to the same thing—in sum against deprivation of liberty
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stricto sensu—but it afforded no guarantee against restrictions . . . falling short of that.’
It must be borne in mind that Sir Gerald was dissenting but so too must the distinction between the two concepts, however difficult the distinction is to make on the facts of a particular case (see Gillan’s case in this court [2005] 1 All ER 970 at [38]).
[97] The duration of the detention is of course an important factor but Guzzardi v Italy and the other cases show that it is only one of a number of factors. In Gillan’s case ([2005] 1 All ER 970 at [41]) this court approved the statement in Lester and Pannick Human Rights Law and Practice (2nd edn, 2004) p 164 (para 4.5.4), that ‘Detention does, however, depend upon the intention of the authorities’. It referred to X v Germany (1981) 24 DR 158, where the Commission held that a ten-year-old girl who was questioned at a police station for two hours without being arrested, locked up in a cell or formally detained was not deprived of her liberty within art 5 in circumstances in which the police action was ‘simply to obtain information from those involved’. That case was, however, much more relevant to the stop and search case being considered in Gillan’s case than to the instant case.
[98] A better example for present purposes is perhaps HM v Switzerland [2002] ECHR 39187/98, which was a decision of the ECtHR made on 26 February 2002. The court held that there was no deprivation of liberty when the applicant was placed in a nursing home, from which she was not allowed to leave, in her own interests because she could not look after herself. The court concluded (at para 48) that—
‘in the circumstances of the present case the applicant’s placement in the foster home did not amount to a deprivation of liberty . . . but was a responsible measure taken by the competent authorities in the applicant’s interests.’
It is fair to say that that was only one of the factors that the court took into account but the case does show the potential importance of such a consideration. We note in passing that, although the decision in HM v Switzerland was distinguished in HL v UK (2004) 17 BHRC 418, the ECtHR did not disagree with the principle.
[99] Each case must of course be decided on its own facts. While it is true that HM v Switzerland is different from the instant case because the nature of the confinement was quite different, it does show that the interests of the alleged detainees are potentially important and one of the factors to be taken into account. Here, as the judge held, one of the purposes of the police was to protect the individuals in the crowd from the consequences of violence (see eg [504]).
[100] We recognise that the exercise of deciding whether on the facts of a particular case a person has been deprived of his or her liberty is essentially a matter for the trial judge, who must weigh a number of different factors in the balance. It follows that an appellate court should not interfere with his or her decision merely because it would have struck the balance differently. It should only interfere if persuaded that the judge erred in principle or reached a decision which was plainly wrong in the sense that it was outside the range of decisions that a reasonable judge could reach.
[101] In the instant case we are persuaded that the judge erred in principle in reaching the conclusion that he did. As we read his judgment, he first concluded
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that, as from 2.20 pm when the cordon was imposed until each appellant was released, the detention was sufficient physically to amount to deprivation of liberty. Since he correctly recognised that on the authorities it was necessary to consider a whole series of factors, he then considered those. He decided that some pointed one way and some another and ultimately concluded that they did not outweigh his conclusion based on the physical conditions. It follows, as we see it, that he held that the appellants were each deprived of their liberty from the time that the cordon was imposed. As we read his judgment, he did not find that the appellants were not deprived of their liberty when the cordon was imposed but that they were deprived of it some time later. He certainly did not find that they were only deprived of their liberty when they sought and were refused permission to leave.
[102] On this basis the first question is whether the appellants were deprived of their liberty from the outset. In our opinion they plainly were not. The position at that time was not markedly different in terms of detention from a number of different types of confinement or detention to which the judge referred which would not be regarded as a deprivation of liberty within art 5(1). A good example is perhaps a football crowd. It is commonplace for such a crowd to be contained for what may turn out to be quite long periods, partly for the protection of individuals in the crowd and partly (in some cases) to avoid crowd violence, perhaps as between groups of opposing supporters (see eg [510]). Other examples would be those envisaged by the judge at [594], as for example where motorists are unable to leave a motorway, perhaps for many hours, because of police action following an accident. In such cases it may be necessary for police to confine individuals in particular areas for what may be much longer than originally intended.
[103] In our opinion this was plainly such a case. On the judge’s findings of fact, the police had no alternative but to impose the cordon which they did. They anticipated orderly release over two or three hours in order to avoid violence. The judge identified their various purposes, which included safety and the prevention of crime by individuals in the crowd many of whom could not be identified. In these circumstances the original imposition of the cordon could not, in our judgment, properly be regarded as the kind of arbitrary detention which the Strasbourg authorities would describe as deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1). For these reasons we hold that the judge erred in principle in concluding that the appellants were unlawfully detained as from 2.20 pm.
[104] On that basis, it is for us to consider afresh the remaining question, namely whether they were unlawfully detained thereafter. In our judgment the answer to that question is ‘No’. So for example, as summarised at [51](xv)–(xix), above, on a number of occasions during the afternoon the police gave the order to commence controlled release, only to find that they could not safely carry it through (see [2005] All ER (D) 402 at [347]). On three occasions the decision to commence controlled dispersal north had to be reviewed or suspended because of the conduct of protesters either inside or outside the contained area, with the result that the final release phase did not begin until 8.02 pm (see [360], [374], [375]). During the whole period there was very considerable violence, although not it must be stressed by the appellants (see [366], [546], [547]). If the appellants had not been controlled by and within the cordons, they would have found themselves in an increasingly disorderly situation, which most people would
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have regarded as less preferable (see [504]). The police were in part engaged in an exercise for the benefit of the crowd, to protect members of the crowd from danger from each other and from others who wished to join their number. The risks were from crushing, trampling and missile throwing, which could have been fatal. The crowd of over 1,000 at Oxford Circus needed measures to be taken to control them for their own protection (see [506]). As the judge concluded (at [2], [548]), this was not simply a static crowd of protesters in Oxford Circus surrounded by police and held in place for seven hours. It was a dynamic, chaotic, and confusing situation in which there were also a large number of other protesters in the immediate vicinity outside the cordon who were threatening serious disorder and posing a threat to the officers both on the cordon and within it.
[105] In these circumstances it could not sensibly be held that there came a time in which what was originally something less than a deprivation of liberty subsequently became a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1) of the convention. We therefore hold, contrary to the conclusion of the judge, that, if all the relevant circumstances are taken into account, there was not here the kind of arbitrary deprivation of liberty contemplated by the convention.
[106] It appears to us that this approach has proper regard to the fair balance to which we referred above and, indeed to the principle that, where the convention imposes an absolute prohibition, the scope of the absolute prohibition should be defined by reference to proportionality: see eg in a different context Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439 at 474 (para 104).
[107] It follows that we conclude that the appellants’ rights under the convention were not infringed and that, given our earlier conclusion that the respondent has a good defence to the appellants’ claim for damages for false imprisonment at common law, we dismiss the appeal. However, we should briefly refer to art 5(1)(b) and (c) of the convention, which were much debated in argument.
XIV ARTICLE 5(1)(b)
[108] Mr Pannick submits that, if the appellants were deprived of their liberty within art 5(1), the respondent has a defence because the detention was lawful ‘in order to secure the fulfilment of any obligation prescribed by law’ within art 5(1)(b). As already explained, this point was not put before the judge. It has arisen because of the principles identified obiter in Laporte’s case, which we have already discussed in some detail. Mr Pannick submits that the ‘obligation prescribed by law’ is the obligation stated in O’Kelly v Harvey (1883) 14 LR Ir 105 and Laporte’s case to assist the police in preventing an imminent breach of the peace.
[109] Mr Starmer submits, to the contrary, that decisions of the ECtHR and of the Commission establish that, for an obligation to be relevant under art 5(1)(b) it must be concrete and specific, and it must be one which the person in question has already failed to fulfil at the time when action is taken which has to be justified under art 5. He suggests that Mr Pannick’s argument is circular, in seeking to justify a deprivation of liberty (if that is what it was) by reference to an obligation to submit to that deprivation. He relies in particular on Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 672–673 (para 69) and Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 367–368 at the end of para 102. He points out the Commission’s comment, in McVeigh v UK (1983) 5 EHRR 71 at 93 (para 176): ‘The obligation in question
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cannot, in particular, consist in substance merely of an obligation to submit to detention.' According to his submission, for the police to be able to justify a cordon such as was used in the present case by reference to an obligation to comply with the request, or direction, to remain within the cordon, would open the way to the sort of conduct, incompatible with the spirit of the convention, against which the court warned in Engel v Netherlands and Guzzardi v Italy.
[110] We see some force in that submission, although Mr Pannick is entitled to make the point that O’Kelly v Harvey and Laporte’s case show that in the circumstances found by the judge, namely that (as explained in detail above) the police had no alternative but to do what they did, it was the legal duty of the appellants to comply with the request to stay within the cordon, and to argue that the police put the physical cordon in place in order to enforce the obligation to stay within it. Since it is not necessary, on the basis of our decision that there was no deprivation of liberty, to decide whether, if there had been, it would have been justified under art 5(1)(b), we prefer not to do so, and to leave that question to another day, and to a case in which it has to be decided.
XV ARTICLE 5(1)(c)
[111] It will be recalled that art 5(1)(c) excludes the following cases:
‘the lawful arrest or detention of a person effected for the purpose of bringing him before the competent legal authority on reasonable suspicion of having committed an offence or when it is reasonably considered necessary to prevent his committing an offence or fleeing after having done so . . .’
[112] The judge concluded that, on the true construction of art 5(1)(c), detention of a person when it was considered necessary to prevent him from committing an offence was only lawful if the detention was for the purpose of bringing him before the competent legal authority. In reaching that conclusion (at [73], [74]), the judge naturally relied upon the decision of the ECtHR in Lawless v Ireland (No 3) (1961) 1 EHRR 15, where the court said (at 27–28 (para 14)) that the phrase ‘for the purpose of bringing him before the competent legal authority’ did not just apply to the phrase ‘on reasonable suspicion of having committed an offence’ but to all parts of art 5(1)(c) including ‘when it is reasonably considered necessary to prevent his committing an offence’.
[113] Mr Pannick submits that that reasoning is wrong and that this court should not follow it. He submits that the reasoning is unsound and that, although the court should ordinarily follow a decision of the ECtHR, in such a case it should not. He refers to Jones v Ministry of the Interior of the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia [2006] UKHL 26, [2007] 1 All ER 113, [2007] 1 AC 270, per Lord Bingham for the appellate committee (at [18]). He also refers to a number of other cases.
[114] In submitting that the reasoning in Lawless v Ireland is wrong he relies, among a number of other considerations, upon the language of the paragraph, upon what he says is the unconvincing nature of the reasoning in the judgment in Lawless v Ireland, upon the view expressed by May LJ in the Divisional Court in Laporte’s case [2004] EWHC 253 (Admin) at [27], [2004] 2 All ER 874 at [27], that the opinion of the ECtHR was ‘[c]ontrary to [his] personal inclination as to the syntax’ and upon what he says are good reasons for construing the paragraph differently.
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[115] There is undoubted force in Mr Pannick’s submissions but there are arguments the other way, quite apart from the decision and reasoning in Lawless v Ireland. For example, there is good reason why detention of a person should only be lawful to ‘prevent his . . . fleeing after having [committed an offence]’ if the detention is ‘for the purpose of bringing him before the legal authority’. Yet the syntax shows that that purpose requirement must either relate to all three parts of the paragraph or only the first. It cannot relate only to the first and third. Further Mr Starmer relies upon a number of later decisions of the ECtHR which he says follow Lawless v Ireland.
[116] It appears to us that this important point should only be decided in a case in which the decision is essential to the determination of an appeal. By then, the ECtHR may itself have had an opportunity to express a view and to decide whether it wishes to depart from its previous decision, as it sometimes does. In all the circumstances we do not think that it is necessary or appropriate for us further to lengthen this already long judgment by analysing the point in detail and expressing a view upon it in a case where it is not necessary to do so.
[117] We should perhaps add this with regard to art 5(1)(c). The basis of the case that the police were entitled to deprive the appellants of their liberty under that paragraph is that, in each case, ‘it was reasonably considered necessary to prevent his committing an offence’. In the light of our conclusion in [56]–[62], above, that the answer to the question whether the appellants appeared to be about to commit a breach of the peace was ‘No’, we do not at present see how the respondent can successfully rely upon art 5(1)(c) in the case of either appellant. However, in the light of our conclusion that there was no deprivation of their liberty under art 5(1), it is not necessary to give further consideration to this question.
XVI DAMAGES
[118] In case his decision on liability was held to be wrong, the judge considered the issue of damages (see [581]–[597]). He held that, if either claimant was entitled to damages for false imprisonment, he would have awarded only compensatory damages and not either aggravated or exemplary damages. He would have awarded nominal damages of £5 to Ms Austin and £100 to Mr Saxby (see [596]). He would have awarded nothing by way of damages for breach of art 5, if those damages fell to be assessed separately (see [597]). The appellants appeal against those awards but, in the light of our conclusion that the appeal on liability fails, we do not think it necessary or appropriate to consider these issues in this judgment.
XVII CONCLUSIONS
[119] For these reasons we dismiss the appeal. Our conclusions may briefly be summarised as follows:
(i) the appellants were ‘imprisoned’ for the purposes of the tort of false imprisonment but their ‘imprisonment’ was lawful because, although the appellants did not themselves appear to be about to commit a breach of the peace, on the judge’s findings of fact the police had no alternative but to ask all those in Oxford Circus to remain inside the police cordon in order to avoid an imminent breach of the peace by others;
(ii) the correct approach is summarised in the propositions set out in [35], above as follows: (a) where a breach of the peace is taking place, or is reasonably thought to be imminent, before the police can take any steps which interfere with
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or curtail in any way the lawful exercise of rights by innocent third parties they must ensure that they have taken all other possible steps to ensure that the breach, or imminent breach, is obviated and that the rights of innocent third parties are protected; (b) the taking of all other possible steps includes (where practicable), but is not limited to, ensuring that proper and advance preparations have been made to deal with such a breach, since failure to take such steps will render interference with the rights of innocent third parties unjustified or unjustifiable; but (c) where (and only where) there is a reasonable belief that there are no other means whatsoever whereby a breach or imminent breach of the peace can be obviated, the lawful exercise by third parties of their rights may be curtailed by the police; (d) this is a test of necessity which it is to be expected can only be justified in truly extreme and exceptional circumstances; and (e) the action taken must be both reasonably necessary and proportionate;
(iii) those tests of necessity and proportionality, which are derived from the Irish case of O’Kelly v Harvey and from statements of principle in the recent House of Lords case of Laporte, were satisfied on the facts found by the judge;
(iv) there is no sensible basis upon which this court could or should interfere with those findings of fact;
(v) it is unnecessary to express a view upon the respondent’s case based on the 1986 Act;
(vi) art 5 of the convention does not apply because the containment of the appellants within the cordon did not amount to a deprivation of liberty within that article, as opposed to an interference with liberty of movement;
(vii) in these circumstances it is not necessary to express a concluded view on the parties’ respective contentions, either under art 5(1)(b) or (c) of the convention, or on the assessment of damages.
[120] Finally we would like to thank counsel for their assistance in this most unusual case and to apologise for the time it has taken to produce this judgment.
Appeal dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Jackson and others v Thakrar and others
[2008] 1 All ER 601
[2007] EWHC 626 (TCC)
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION COURT)
Lord(s): JUDGE PETER COULSON QC
Hearing Date(s): 14, 22 MARCH 2007
Costs – Order for costs – Payment of costs by non-party – Circumstances in which non-party may be ordered to pay costs of proceedings – Causation – Non-party providing funding for party to appear at hearing – Whether non-party could be ordered to pay costs of proceedings where funded party present at hearing only because of funding provided by non-party – Supreme Court Act 1981, s 51.
The parties were engaged in complex litigation. The only one of the defendants with any substantial assets issued an application for a declaration that the litigation had been compromised. Another of the defendants, S, who was a bankrupt, was represented at the hearing and his counsel’s fee was funded in large part by S’s wife, K. The judge found that the litigation had not been compromised and at a costs hearing ruled that the defendants were to pay the claimants’ costs of compromise issue on an indemnity basis. The first claimant, S’s trustee in bankruptcy, applied for an order under s 51 (Section 51, so far as material, is set out at [2], below) of the Supreme Court Act 1981 that K be joined to the proceedings for costs purposes so that she could be made liable for all or some of the first claimant’s costs. That section provided that the costs of and incidental to all proceedings in the High Court were in the discretion of the court. The trustee contended, inter alia, that authority established that if a party were only present in court because of the funds that had been provided by a third party, then the causation required to make a s 51 order had been made out.
Held – The relevant test on causation in an application under s 51 of the 1981 Act was whether the funding that had been provided by the non-party had caused the applicant to incur costs that he would not otherwise have incurred. If the applicant would have incurred the relevant costs in any event, whether the funded party had been funded by the non-party or not, then it would be wrong in principle to make an order under s 51. Although most of the decided cases were concerned with the relationship between the funding party and the funded party, that was entirely a function of the fact that, in those cases, if the funding party had not provided the funded party with the wherewithal to pursue or defend the litigation, there would have been no litigation at all and thus the costs in question would never have been incurred. In the instant case, if S had not been represented at the hearing, the trustee would have incurred precisely the same costs. Accordingly, the third party costs order would be refused (see [14]–[20], [45], below).
Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeria [1986] 2 All ER 409, Hamilton v Al Fayed (No 2) [2002] 3 All ER 641 and Dymocks Franchise Systems (NSW) Pty Ltd v Todd [2005] 4 All ER 195 applied.
Fulton Motors Ltd v Toyota (GB) Ltd [1999] CA Transcript 1670 and Koninklijke Philips Electronics NV v Aventi Ltd [2003] EWHC 2589 (Pat) considered.
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Notes
For costs orders in favour of or against non-parties, see 10 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 202.
For the Supreme Court Act 1981, s 51, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 780.
Cases referred to in judgment
Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeria [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965, [1986] 2 WLR 1051, HL.
Cooper v Maxwell [1992] CA Transcript 273.
Dymocks Franchise Systems (NSW) Pty Ltd v Todd [2004] UKPC 39, [2005] 4 All ER 195, [2004] 1 WLR 2807.
Fulton Motors Ltd v Toyota (GB) Ltd [1999] CA Transcript 1670.
Globe Equities Ltd v Globe Legal Services Ltd [1999] BLR 232, CA.
Hamilton v Al Fayed (No 2) [2002] EWCA Civ 665, [2002] 3 All ER 641, [2003] QB 1175, [2003] 2 WLR 128.
Koninklijke Philips Electronics NV v Aventi Ltd [2003] EWHC 2589 (Pat).
Locabail (UK) Ltd v Bayfield Properties Ltd [1999] 20 LS Gaz R 39; affd [2000] 1 All ER 65, [2000] QB 451, [2000] 2 WLR 870, CA.
Metalloy Supplies Ltd (in liq) v MA (UK) Ltd [1997] 1 All ER 418, [1997] 1 WLR 1613, CA.
Murphy v Young & Co’s Brewery plc and Sun Alliance and London Insurance plc [1997] 1 All ER 518, [1997] 1 WLR 1591, CA.
Symphony Group plc v Hodgson [1993] 4 All ER 143, [1994] QB 179, [1993] 3 WLR 830, CA.
Thistleton v Hendricks (1992) 32 Con LR 123.
Costs application
The claimants, Shirley Jackson, the trustee in bankruptcy of Subhash Kanji Thakrar (the trustee), Suburban Property Co Ltd, Kenneth Hughes-Narborough, Rosemary Campbell, Michael Hughes-Narborough, Barbara Harris, Ramila Suresh-Bhojani and Vijaya Radia brought proceedings against the defendants, Subhash Kanji Thakrar (Subhash), Mukesh Kanji Thakrar, Vijay Kanji Thakrar, Kishan Kanji Thakrar, Sheela Kanji Thakrar, Naina Unalkat, Shantaben Kanji Thakrar, Glen International Ltd (Glen), Teso International Group Ltd, SK Thakrar and Co Ltd, Simply Lettings and Management Ltd, Mahindra Harjivan, Selwyn Michael Langley and Justin Lee Bennett. Following an unsuccessful application by Glen for a declaration that there had been a binding compromise of the proceedings ([2007] EWHC 271 (TCC), [2007] All ER (D) 271 (Feb)) Judge Peter Coulson QC ordered the defendants to pay the claimants’ costs of the compromise issue on an indemnity basis. The trustee sought an order under s 51 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 that Kiran Thakrar (Kiran) be joined into the proceedings for costs purposes. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Jane Giret QC (instructed by Balsara & Co) for the trustee.
Robin Howard (instructed by Jefferies, Westcliff) for Kiran.
Judgment was reserved.
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22 March 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
JUDGE PETER COULSON QC.
INTRODUCTION
[1] On 20 February 2007 I handed down my judgment on the compromise issue1. I concluded that, for a variety of reasons, the defending/applicant parties could not demonstrate that there had been a binding compromise of this complex litigation. I therefore rejected their application for a declaration to that effect. At the subsequent costs hearing I ruled that the defending/applicant parties had to pay the claiming parties’ costs of the compromise issue on an indemnity basis. Party 1, the trustee in bankruptcy of Subhash Thakrar (Subhash), now seeks an order, pursuant to s 51 of the Supreme Court Act 1981, that Mrs Kiran Thakrar (Kiran), Subhash’s wife who provided funds for his representation, be joined into the proceedings for costs purposes, so that she can be made liable for all or some of the trustee’s costs of the compromise issue.
[2] Section 51(1) provides that ‘the costs of and incidental to all proceedings in . . . the High Court . . . shall be in the discretion of the court’. Section 51(3) makes plain that the court ‘shall have full power to determine by whom and to what extent the costs are to be paid’. Ever since the House of Lords decision in Aiden Shipping Co Ltd v Interbulk Ltd, The Vimeria [1986] 2 All ER 409, [1986] AC 965, it has been clear that s 51 permits a court to award costs against a person who was not a party to the proceedings. There have been numerous cases on the extent and limits of this jurisdiction, some of which are analysed below.
[3] There are broadly four issues between the parties. They are: (1) whether there is sufficient causal connection between Kiran’s funding and the costs of the compromise issue and, if not, whether as a matter of principle that is determinative of this application; (2) whether Kiran can be classified as a ‘pure’ funder and, if so, whether on the facts there is any reason why the general presumption that a s 51 order will not be made in such a case has been displaced; (3) whether Kiran’s role as a director and shareholder of SK Thakrar and Co Ltd (party 16) can or should make any difference to the outcome of the s 51 application; (4) whether, in all the circumstances of this case, the court should exercise its discretion in favour of the s 51 application.
[4] I set out at [5]–[7], below the relevant factual background. I then go on to address each of the four issues noted above.
FACTUAL BACKGROUND
[5] Following an exchange of correspondence in late October/early November 2006, the defending parties claimed that they had achieved a binding compromise of the litigation in the sum of £20·1m. When the claiming parties disputed that assertion, Glen International Ltd (party 14), who are the only one of the defending parties with any substantial assets, issued an application for a declaration that the litigation had indeed been compromised. They were joined in that application by Mr Harjivan, party 18, the apparent owner of the shares in Glen. However, in the event, he took no part at all in the preparation for and hearing of the application for a declaration that the litigation had been compromised.
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[6] That hearing took place before me on 22–24 January 2007. Although Subhash was represented at the hearing by Mr Howard, and although Mr Sen acted for a number of the other Thakrar family members, and the limited company (party 16), I have no hesitation in finding that the burden of the application for a declaration fell on Glen. Thus, at the three-day hearing, it was Mr Jones QC, on behalf of Glen, who made the vast majority of the running on behalf of the defending parties. He made most of the oral submissions to me, and undertook most of the cross-examination. Mr Howard and Mr Sen made oral submissions for about 20 minutes each, and their cross-examination was minimal.
[7] Although Mr Howard had been involved for Subhash in the run-up to the hearing, his participation at the hearing itself depended on the payment of a brief fee. It is common ground that that fee was funded, in large part at least, by Kiran. In the week before the hearing, Kiran took £10,000 out of her building society account and sent it to Nathans, Mr Howard’s instructing solicitors. The bulk of that money was then paid to Mr Howard by way of a brief fee. In consequence, Mr Howard attended the three-day hearing before me on 22–24 January.
ISSUE (1): CAUSATION
[8] Mr Howard’s first submission was that causation was a necessary pre-condition of any order under s 51. He submitted that, if I concluded that the hearing in January 2007 would have taken place in any event, with or without the assistance of the funding provided to Subhash by Kiran, the non-party, then there was no room for an order to be made. He said that, in the present case, the three-day hearing on the compromise issue would have taken place anyway, whether or not Subhash was represented at that hearing. He maintained that it was principally Glen who was pursuing the compromise issue (because they had the most to gain from it) and it was Glen, on the defending parties’ side, who constituted the lead party at that hearing. Effectively, he said, the key question was whether the funding of Subhash caused the trustee (party 1) to incur costs which she otherwise would not have done. It was his case that the answer was No, because the trustee would have incurred precisely the same costs anyway.
[9] In response, Mrs Giret QC suggested that this was a novel argument, which relied on the fact that there were other parties in the litigation, not just the s 51 applicant and the funded party, and that such a situation had not been considered by the courts before. She said that the reported cases were solely concerned with the relationship between the funding party and the funder, and that the existence of any other parties was irrelevant to the proper operation of s 51. It was her case that the relevant question was whether, but for the funds provided by the non-party, the funded party would have taken part in the hearing. She said that the answer to this question was No, because Subhash needed Kiran’s £10,000 to pay for his representation at the January hearing.
[10] I was referred to four cases on the question of causation. The first of those was Fulton Motors Ltd v Toyota (GB) Ltd [1999] CA Transcript 1670. In that case, Fulton had gone into administrative receivership. The receiver funded the litigation prior to April 1999, when the directors took over the funding of the appeal. The appeal was dismissed in July 1999. The Court of Appeal concluded that it was not an appeal which, on any realistic objective assessment, could be said to have had good prospects of success. They therefore made a s 51 order against the directors personally, but limited to the period between April and July 1999. I am bound to say that I consider that this case was unremarkable on
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its facts, and was not of any particular assistance on the causation issue with which I have to deal. In Fulton’s case, there plainly would have been no appeal from April 1999 onwards but for the funding provided by the directors.
[11] Of much greater relevance to the causation issue before me were the judgments of the Court of Appeal in Hamilton v Al Fayed (No 2) [2002] EWCA Civ 665, [2002] 3 All ER 641, [2003] QB 1175. There the Court of Appeal reviewed numerous authorities under s 51, and it will be necessary for me to refer later to the judgments of Simon Brown and Hale LJJ on some of the subsequent issues that arise in this case. For present purposes, however, it is necessary to refer only to paras [52]–[57] of the judgment of Simon Brown LJ (as he then was). There he dealt with a causation argument put forward by Lord Portsmouth, one of the funders of the bankrupt former MP, Neil Hamilton, against whom Mohammed Al Fayed was seeking a costs order pursuant to s 51. Lord Portsmouth’s £100,000 contribution was made on 26 October 1999, which was after Mr Hamilton’s solicitors had taken the decision to proceed with the case, irrespective of whether any further donations were made. Simon Brown LJ said:
‘[54] Given that proof of causation is a necessary pre-condition of the making of a s 51 order against a non-party—as to which there is ample authority and, as I understand it, no dispute—Mr Wardell submits that the bare facts just recited demonstrate of themselves that in Lord Portsmouth’s case such proof was wanting—that, indeed, Lord Portsmouth’s contribution plainly did not cause Mr Al Fayed to incur any costs which he would not otherwise have incurred . . .
[56] . . . The mere fact that the later contributors knew nothing of the Rubicon having been crossed [ie the decision to proceed to trial] cannot logically avail Mr Al Fayed. Nor can the fact that the solicitors no doubt hoped for and perhaps even expected further contributions to be made.
[57] The argument, I have to say, appears to me not merely irresistible but also to demonstrate that there would need to be further factual exploration along these lines in all pure funding cases were they not to be subject to a general presumption against s 51 liability in any event . . .’
[12] The third case on causation is the decision of the Privy Council in Dymocks Franchise Systems (NSW) Pty Ltd v Todd [2004] UKPC 39, [2005] 4 All ER 195, [2004] 1 WLR 2807. There, Lord Brown of Eaton-Under-Heywood referred to what he himself had said in Hamilton’s case before going on to say (at [20]):
‘Although the position may well be different when a number of non-parties act in concert, their Lordships are content to assume for the purposes of this application that a non-party could not ordinarily be made liable for costs if those costs would in any event have been incurred even without such non-party’s involvement in the proceedings . . .’
[13] The final case on causation to which I was referred was Koninklijke Philips Electronics NV v Aventi Ltd [2003] EWHC 2589 (Pat). There, Pumfrey J referred to Hamilton’s case as emphasising the need for a casual relationship between the activities of the funded party on the one hand and his receipt of funding on the other. He observed (at [13]) that ‘if the evidence were that the funded party would have gone ahead anyway, the case for an order for costs against the funder is destroyed’. On the facts of that case, the judge made a s 51 order because he was satisfied that Philips incurred costs which, but for the funding of the defendant, Aventi, by the funder, Princo, would not have been incurred
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(see paras [28], [33] and [37] of the judgment). He also found that Princo had a direct interest in the outcome of the litigation.
[14] It seems to me that the present dispute between the parties on the causation issue comes down to one simple point. Mrs Giret submits, by reference to Hamilton’s case, and Pumfrey J’s comment in the Philips case about the relationship between the funded party’s activities and his receipt of funding, that what matters in law is the reason why the funded party is present at the hearing or trial: if the funded party is only present in court because of the funder, then she says that the necessary causation has been made out. Mr Howard submits, by reference to Hamilton’s case and the Dymocks case, that the key issue is what caused the s 51 applicant to incur the costs which are now the subject of the application, and that if those costs would have been incurred in any event, whether the funding was provided or not, the application must fail as a matter of causation. For the reasons set out below, I am in no doubt that Mr Howard’s analysis is correct.
[15] It is right that the majority of the cases under s 51 are concerned with the relationship between the funder and the funded party: see, for example, the decision in Fulton’s case. But that seems to me to be entirely a function of the fact that, in those cases, if the funder had not provided the funded party with the wherewithal to pursue or defend the litigation, there would have been no litigation at all, and therefore the other party’s costs, which were the subject of the subsequent s 51 application, would never have been incurred. Plainly, in a s 51 application, what matters is whether the funding provided by the non-party caused the applicant to incur costs which he would not otherwise have incurred. That must be the relevant test on causation.
[16] Support for the proposition that what matters is whether the costs that are the subject of the s 51 application have been incurred as a result of the funding provided by the non-party can be found in Hamilton’s case, where Simon Brown LJ (at [54]) decided the issue of causation on the basis that Lord Portsmouth’s contribution to Neil Hamilton ‘plainly did not cause Mr Al-Fayed to incur any costs which he would not otherwise have incurred’. Similarly, in the Dymocks case (at [20]), Lord Brown stated that a non-party ‘could not ordinarily be made liable for costs if those costs would in any event have been incurred even without such non-party’s involvement in the proceedings’. It seems to me that those two statements of principle are clear and I am bound by them. Moreover, I respectfully agree with the simple logic that they convey. If the s 51 applicant would have incurred the relevant costs in any event, whether the funded party was funded by the non-party or not, then it would be wrong in principle to make a s 51 order.
[17] I should also add that, notwithstanding Pumfrey J’s general comment in the Philips case about the relationship between the activities of the funded party and his receipt of funding, upon which Mrs Giret relied so heavily, the judge’s decision in that case followed precisely the principle which I have outlined in [15] and [16], above: he was satisfied that Aventi would not have defended the action if it had not been for the funding from Princo, and that therefore Philips incurred costs pursuing Aventi which, but for the funding, they would not have incurred.
[18] In the present case, I find that, if Kiran had chosen not to withdraw the £10,000 from her building society, two things would have happened. First, Mr Howard would not have attended the hearing on 22–24 January 2007 and Subhash would not have been represented before me at the hearing of the compromise issue. Secondly, the compromise hearing would then have unfolded
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precisely as it did, with the only difference being that I would have been deprived of the benefit of Mr Howard’s brief cross-examination of Mr Patel and the 20 minutes of his oral submissions.
[19] I am in no doubt at all that, if Subhash had not been represented at the compromise hearing, the trustee would have incurred precisely the same costs as she in fact incurred. All of the trustee’s costs would have been incurred in any event in order to defeat, as she did, the application made and pursued by Glen. As I am sure he would agree, Mr Howard’s role at the hearing, as a representative of Subhash, amounted to that of a bit-part player, and I find that it was ultimately irrelevant to the costs incurred by the trustee.
[20] Accordingly, I accept Mr Howard’s first proposition. Kiran’s funding of Subhash’s legal team for the January hearing did not cause the trustee to incur costs which she would not otherwise have done. In those circumstances, in accordance with the principle outlined by the Court of Appeal in Hamilton’s case, and by the Privy Council in the Dymocks case, I reject the s 51 application. However, out of deference to the careful submissions of both counsel, it is appropriate for me to go on and consider the other arguments that were raised before me. I do so therefore on the assumption that I am wrong on the causation issue.
ISSUE (2): KIRAN’S STATUS AS A FUNDER
[21] The status issue arises in this way. The authorities (some of which are examined in greater detail below) establish that the court will be much less likely to make a s 51 order against a ‘pure’ funder, and much more likely to make such an order against a professional funder (like an insurer), or one with a financial interest in the outcome of the litigation. Mr Howard submits that Kiran is a pure funder, motivated by love for her bankrupt husband, and should not, in line with the authorities, be made the subject of a s 51 order. Mrs Giret submits that, to the contrary, Kiran had a clear financial interest in the outcome of the compromise issue. Moreover, even if I was against her on that submission and I concluded that Kiran was a pure funder, Mrs Giret also suggests that Subhash’s pursuit of the compromise issue was oppressive and/or triggered by an ulterior motive, which would constitute an exception to the usual presumption that a s 51 order could not be made against a pure funder. I deal with those points below.
[22] The authorities concerned with the status of a private, non-party funder start with Cooper v Maxwell [1992] CA Transcript 273. In that case Kevin Maxwell pursued and lost an appeal against a decision at first instance which rejected his contention that he was entitled to rely on the privilege against self-incrimination as a ground for refusing to answer questions put to him by liquidators. Mr Maxwell’s costs of his unsuccessful appeal were funded by his mother, Mrs Elizabeth Maxwell, the widow of Robert Maxwell. The liquidators sought a s 51 order against Mrs Maxwell. The Court of Appeal refused to make such an order. Dillon LJ said that the appeal had been brought bona fide, and concluded that justice did not require Mrs Maxwell, having elected to provide money for her son’s costs and legal expenses, to pay the costs of the other side which had been successful in the litigation for which the funds were used.
[23] Although Murphy v Young & Co’s Brewery plc and Sun Alliance and London Insurance plc [1997] 1 All ER 518, [1997] 1 WLR 1591 was not a case about a private funder, Phillips LJ (as he then was) commented on the decision in Maxwell’s case:
‘This decision demonstrates a proposition that [counsel] has not sought to challenge. Funding alone will not justify an order against the funder under
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s 51. I do not consider that an order under s 51 will normally be appropriate where a disinterested relative has, out of natural affection, funded costs of a claim or a defence that is reasonably advanced.’ (See [1997] 1 All ER 518 at 529, [1997] 1 WLR 1591 at 1603–1604.)
[24] A similar situation, although a different result, arose in Thistleton v Hendricks (1992) 32 Con LR 123. That was a building case in which the plaintiff builder sued the employer for the balance due, and the defendant successfully obtained judgment on his counterclaim. It then transpired that the plaintiff’s mother had funded her son’s case. Judge John Hicks QC concluded that it was appropriate to make a s 51 order against Mrs Thistleton, particularly as she had funded a positive claim, as opposed to a defence to a claim that had been brought by somebody else. The judge distinguished Maxwell’s case on the ground that Kevin Maxwell’s appeal had concerned an important point of law on which there had been a difference of opinion between judges at first instance. He also concluded that it was reasonable to make the order because Mrs Thistleton had known, when funding her son’s litigation, that he was unlikely to be able to pay Mr Hendricks’ costs if ordered to do so. For the reasons noted below, it is now doubtful as to whether the decision in Thistleton’s case remains good law.
[25] The other relevant private funded case is Locabail (UK) Ltd v Bayfield Properties Ltd [1999] 20 LS Gaz R 39. In that case, Mrs Barbara Emmanuel failed to set aside a possession order arising out of various steps taken by her estranged husband, Mr Ares Emmanuel. Mrs Emmanuel’s application was funded by Mr Peter Tavoulareas, who was Mrs Emmanuel’s first husband. He had given evidence in support of her position and had recommended to her the firm of solicitors who went on to act for her in the litigation. Although he had no financial obligation towards Barbara, he accepted in cross-examination that ‘it really wouldn’t do me well to see the mother of my two children without a home’. The judge referred to both Maxwell’s case and Thistleton’s case and paid particular attention to that latter decision. He made the s 51 order that was sought.
[26] Although all of these cases were cited to the Court of Appeal in Hamilton’s case, the Locabail case was not dealt with in any of the judgments. The other two cases were analysed by Simon Brown LJ as part of his review of the various authorities on s 51. He concluded (at [48]) that, whilst the courts had not clearly laid down a rule that pure funders were generally to be regarded as exempt from s 51 orders, he did not consider that they should ordinarily be held liable. He referred (at [57]) to ‘a general presumption against s 51 liability in any event’ in cases involving pure funders. This was a view with which Hale LJ (as she then was) was ‘reluctantly persuaded to agree’ (at [73]).
[27] I note that Simon Brown LJ considered that it was difficult to reconcile Maxwell’s case with Thistleton’s case and regarded the former as clearly prevailing over the latter. He pointed out (at [40]) that Thistleton’s case was a decision about which Phillips LJ had reservations in Murphy’s case ‘if, indeed, he did not implicitly overrule it—see in particular his reference to a disinterested relative funding “costs of a claim or a defence that is reasonably advanced” (my emphasis)’. In those circumstances, it would not be appropriate for me to reach any conclusion on the basis of the decision of Judge Hicks QC in Thistleton.
[28] If pure funders will not ordinarily be held liable under s 51, then in what circumstances might that general presumption be displaced? The clearest guidance on that topic comes at [86] of the judgment of Hale LJ. There she says:
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‘There must, however, be exceptional cases where it would be quite unjust not to make an order: principally where the litigation was oppressive or malicious or pursued for some other ulterior motive. The fact that it was quite unmeritorious would be powerful evidence of ulterior motive but neither a necessary nor a sufficient criterion in itself.’
[29] Of course, the position in respect of funders who have a financial interest in the outcome of the litigation is very different. As Lord Brown put it at [25](3) of his speech in the Dymocks case:
‘Where, however, the non-party not merely funds the proceedings but substantially also controls or at any rate is to benefit from them, justice will ordinarily require that, if the proceedings fail, he will pay the successful party’s costs . . .’
This principle, of course, explains why the funders were made the subject of s 51 orders in the Fulton case and the Philips case.
[30] Turning now to the facts of the present case, I consider that, on the evidence, the proper starting point is to regard Kiran as a private funder motivated by natural affection for her husband. The trustee, however, relied on two particular matters in support of her contention that that is not, in fact, the true position, and that she had a financial interest in the outcome of the compromise issue. First, it was said that Kiran is a director of SK Thakrar and Co Ltd (party 16), and Mr Howard accepted that she was also a shareholder in that same company. Party 16, represented by Mr Sen, argued that there had been a binding compromise. In addition, the trustee relied on the fact that Kiran, and her children, are the subject of applications in the bankruptcy proceedings in respect of moneys and shares which the trustee claims belong to her, and that therefore Kiran had a direct interest in the argument that a binding compromise had been achieved.
[31] As to Kiran’s role as a director (and shareholder) in party 16, it seems to me that that is irrelevant to the private funding that she provided to her husband. I have already made a costs order against party 16 so, to the extent that Kiran is either a director or a shareholder of that company, she is directly affected by that existing order. I do not consider that it would be appropriate to regard her as having a different status as a funder merely because of her separate role in the running of the limited company. That is a point to which I revert at [37]–[39], below.
[32] As to the position in the bankruptcy, it is clear that Kiran is directly affected by the bankruptcy proceedings. However, even taking full account of the recent information that she has provided as to her assets, I accept that she could not fairly be described as wealthy in her own right. Furthermore, it is apparently common ground that the alleged compromise of the Thakrar litigation at £20·1m would not automatically have resulted in a surplus in the bankruptcy. Thus, whether Kiran had any personal or financial interest in the outcome of the compromise issue is unclear: if the alleged compromise would not necessarily have brought about an end to the difficulties created for Kiran by the bankruptcy (because the bankrupt estate would still have been in deficit), then it is difficult to see how or why the result of the compromise hearing would have made any real difference to her.
[33] It would plainly be idle to suggest that Kiran is in precisely the same position as the pure/private funders referred to in Maxwell’s case and
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Hamilton’s case. She is, after all, directly affected by the bankruptcy proceedings. On the other hand, it seems to me that, in relation specifically to the compromise issue, she is much closer to the position of these pure funders than the interested funders who were the subject of the successful s 51 applications in the Fulton case and the Philips case. It has not been demonstrated that there was a direct financial benefit to her personally if I had concluded that the litigation had been compromised for £20·1m, which was the particular issue in respect of which the relevant costs were incurred. Even if there was a possible financial benefit to her of a successful compromise, I consider that it might well have been modest.
[34] Thus, in relation to the compromise dispute, and the costs that it generated, I consider that it is appropriate to treat Kiran as being in a position at least akin to that of a pure funder. In those circumstances, the usual order would be that the s 51 application against her would fail. Is there any reason to upset that general presumption?
[35] Mrs Giret argued that this case was an exception to the usual rule, because the compromise claim was hopeless, and was thus used oppressively and/or pursued for some other ulterior motive. I do not accept that. I have made the point that the compromise application was opportunistic and, if a full legal analysis had been brought to bear on the correspondence at an earlier stage, the defending parties would or should have realised that the application was going to fail. But Hale LJ was quick to point out in Hamilton’s case that the fact that the litigation is unmeritorious is not a necessary or sufficient criterion in itself to justify a s 51 order. Something else is necessary. On the evidence before me I am quite unable to find that the application for a declaration was oppressive or pursued for some other ulterior motive. I also decline to find that in some way the compromise issue demonstrated a lack of bona fides on the part of the defending parties or, indeed, Kiran herself. When I ordered that the costs of the compromise issue should be paid by the defending parties on an indemnity basis, I made no finding of bad faith, and I expressly referred to the post-CPR authorities which make clear that such a finding is not necessary in order to justify an order for indemnity costs.
[36] For those reasons, therefore, I conclude that Kiran’s status is at least akin to that of a pure funder and that I should decline to make a s 51 order against her in any event. The presumption against such an order has not been displaced.
ISSUE (3): IS THE POSITION ALTERED AS A RESULT OF KIRAN’S ROLE AS A COMPANY DIRECTOR/SHAREHOLDER?
[37] I can deal with this third issue quite shortly. In my judgment, the fact that Kiran is a company director and shareholder in party 16 was irrelevant both to the compromise proceedings and this s 51 application. She provided the money to fund her husband as a private individual: as the wife of Subhash, whose conduct lies at the heart of the labyrinthine litigation being dealt with by Judge Thornton QC. That funding was nothing whatsoever to do with the company, or her position in it. Indeed, it is right to note that the company was separately represented by Mr Sen at the compromise hearing before me. Furthermore, as I have already pointed out, the company is already liable for the costs order that I made against the defending parties. In those circumstances I do not consider that Kiran’s role in the company has any relevance to the s 51 application.
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[38] Support for that proposition, if it were needed, can be found in Metalloy Supplies Ltd (in liq) v MA (UK) Ltd [1997] 1 All ER 418 at 424–425, [1997] 1 WLR 1613 at 1620 in which Millett LJ said:
‘It is not, however, sufficient to render a director liable for costs that he was a director of the company and caused it to bring or defend proceedings which he funded and which ultimately failed. Where such proceedings are brought bona fide and for the benefit of the company, the company is the real plaintiff. If in such a case an order for costs could be made against a director in the absence of some impropriety or bad faith on his part, the doctrine of the separate liability of the company would be eroded and the principle that such orders should be exceptional would be nullified.’
[39] Accordingly, I consider that Kiran’s interest in and obligations owed to party 16 are irrelevant to the s 51 application against her, and do not lead me to alter my view that no such order should be made.
ISSUE (4): DISCRETION
[40] I have referred above to my decision to refuse the s 51 application on the ground that Kiran’s funding of her husband did not cause the trustee to incur any costs that the trustee would not otherwise have incurred but for the funding. In addition I have found that, even if I am wrong as to the causation question, Kiran’s position was at least akin to that of a pure funder and that, on the basis of the authorities, the presumption must be that a s 51 order is not appropriate in her case. On the evidence, there is nothing which would discharge that presumption or lead to the making of a s 51 order.
[41] For completeness, I should say that I would not, in any event, have been minded to exercise my discretion in favour of making the order. Such orders are exceptional: see Symphony Group plc v Hodgson [1993] 4 All ER 143, [1994] QB 179. Of course, that means ‘exceptional . . . by comparison with the ordinary run of cases’: see Millett LJ in Globe Equities Ltd v Globe Legal Services Ltd [1999] BLR 232 at 240. As he himself put it in the Metalloy case [1997] 1 All ER 418 at 424, [1997] 1 WLR 1613 at 1620, the making of a s 51 order can properly be described as exceptional ‘since it is rarely appropriate’.
[42] I do not consider that the present case is one of those rare cases in which it is appropriate to make such an order. As I pointed out in my judgment on the compromise issue, Glen is a substantial company worth in excess of £30m. The trustee has to ensure that the maximum is recovered in the bankruptcy and has obtained freezing orders against Glen in order to advance that process. It was common ground at the compromise hearing that, if there had been a settlement, the £20·1m would have been paid by Glen. Accordingly, Glen is the most important of the defending parties; without Glen’s express agreement, this action cannot be compromised on their behalf.
[43] In those circumstances, it seems to me that it would be wrong to place into the costs spotlight other defending parties who, in all the circumstances of the case, were of considerably lesser importance, particularly in respect of the alleged compromise. Subhash is in that category. Although he commenced one of the two principal elements of this litigation in the first place, and his conduct is at the heart of the fact-finding exercise, he is now bankrupt and is the subject of a number of court orders which he either cannot or will not pay. His wife’s decision to fund representation on his behalf in the compromise issue was quite understandable, but it was something of a sideshow, and I am in no doubt that it
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would be quite unjust to use that funding against Kiran now to justify an order in favour of the trustee under s 51.
[44] There is one final point that I should like to make which is relevant to the exercise of my discretion. In Hamilton’s case, Maxwell’s case and Thistleton’s case, the funders had each provided funds to allow the funded party to go onto the offensive and mount, respectively, a libel case, a potentially important issue about self-incrimination, and a claim for moneys due under a building contract. In other words, in each case, what was being funded was a positive claim that was in the particular interest of the funded party himself. Here, in contrast, it could be said that the compromise issue for which Kiran provided funds on behalf of her husband was a bona fide (albeit misguided) attempt to bring to an end difficult and expensive litigation aimed directly at Subhash and the other defending parties, the continuation of which could not, by any stretch of the imagination, be described as being in the interests of Subhash, or any of the others. Even though this attempt involved an application to the court by Glen, in which they were supported by other defending parties, I consider that, in the context of the Thakrar litigation as a whole, the application was essentially defensive in nature, not offensive; reactive, not proactive. That is a further factor that leads me to conclude that justice does not require the order sought.
CONCLUSION
[45] I conclude that the trustee would have incurred precisely the same costs, whether or not Kiran had funded her husband’s representation at the compromise hearing. There is therefore no causal link between the funding on the one hand, and the costs which are the subject of the s 51 application on the other. On that ground alone, the application must fail.
[46] In any event I consider that Kiran is in a position at least akin to that of the pure funders in the reported cases, where there is a presumption that, unless there is a good reason to do so, no s 51 order will be made. There is no reason here to depart from that presumption.
[47] Further and in any event, in all the circumstances, I would decline to exercise my discretion in favour of making the order sought. The application is therefore refused.
Application dismissed.
Martyn Gurr Barrister.
Secretary of State for the Home Department v JJ and others
[2008] 1 All ER 613
[2007] UKHL 45
Categories: HUMAN RIGHTS; Liberty: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD HOFFMANN, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 5, 9, 10–13 JULY, 31 OCTOBER 2007
Human rights – Right to liberty and security – Prevention of terrorism – Control order – Non-derogating control order – Secretary of State making non-derogating control orders against individuals suspected of involvement in terrorism-related activity – Control orders requiring each individual to remain in specified residence for 18 hours per day, confining each individual to small urban area and prohibiting contact with other persons unless previously authorised – Whether obligations in control orders breaching right to liberty – Whether orders to be modified or quashed – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 5(1) – Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, ss 1(2), 2(1).
Under s 1(2)a of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 the power to make an order against an individual that imposed obligations on him for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism (a control order) was exercisable, except in the case of an order imposing obligations that were incompatible with the individual’s right to liberty under art 5b of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) by the Secretary of State (a non-derogating control order). In the case of an order imposing obligations that were or included derogating obligations, the power to make an order was exercisable by the court on an application by the Secretary of State. Under s 2(1)c the Secretary of State could make a control order if he had reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual was or had been involved in terrorism-related activity and considered that it was necessary, for purposes
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connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, to make a control order. The Secretary of State made non-derogating control orders against six Iraqi or Iranian nationals; three had leave to remain in the United Kingdom and three had temporary admission. The obligations imposed by the control orders were essentially identical. Each controlled person was required to remain within his specified residence, which was in each case a one-bedroom flat, except for the period between 10 am and 4 pm. Visitors had to be authorised by the Home Office, to which name, address, date of birth and photographic identity had to be supplied. The residences were subject to spot searches by the police. During the six hours when they were permitted to leave their residences, the controlled persons were confined to restricted urban areas, which deliberately did not extend, save in one case, to any area in which they had lived before. Each area contained a mosque, a hospital, primary health care facilities, shops and entertainment and sporting facilities. The controlled persons were prohibited from meeting anyone by pre-arrangement who had not been given Home Office clearance. A High Court hearing was held under the 2005 Act to determine whether the decisions of the Secretary of State that the requirements of s 2(1) were satisfied and the decisions of the Secretary of State on the imposition of each of the obligations imposed by the orders were flawed. The judge held, bearing in mind the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the obligations in the control orders, that the cumulative effect of those obligations was to deprive the controlled persons of their liberty in breach of art 5 of the convention. He held that the collective impact of the obligations could not sensibly be described as a mere restriction upon the controlled persons’ liberty of movement. He concluded that in terms of the length of the curfew period, the extent of the obligations, and their intrusive impact on the controlled persons’ ability to lead anything resembling a normal life, whether inside their residences within the curfew period, or for the six-hour period outside it, the control orders went beyond the restrictions in those cases where the European Court of Human Rights had concluded that there had been a restriction upon, but not a deprivation of, liberty. He further held that the control orders should be quashed. The Court of Appeal dismissed the Secretary of State’s appeal, and the Secretary of State appealed against that decision. The Secretary of State contended (i) that the obligations imposed had not deprived the controlled persons of their liberty; but (ii) that, if the obligations had done so, the orders should have been modified and not quashed. It was common ground that the prohibition in art 5 on depriving a person of his liberty had an autonomous meaning for the purposes of the convention, whatever it might or might not be thought to mean in any member state.
Held – (1) (Lord Hoffmann and Lord Carswell dissenting) National courts had to seek to give fair effect, on the facts of each particular case, to the principles which the European Court of Human Rights had laid down in respect of art 5 of the convention, namely that art 5(1) contemplated individual liberty in the sense of the physical liberty of the person, that deprivation of liberty might take forms other than classic detention in prison or strict arrest and that there was a distinction as a question of degree or intensity between deprivation of liberty and restriction of movement and freedom of a person to choose his residence. A court had to assess the impact of the measures in question on a person in the situation of the person subject to them. The Court of Human Rights had insisted that account should be taken of a whole range of factors such as the nature,
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duration, effects and manner of execution or implementation of the penalty or measure in question. In the instant case, there had been no error in the reasoning of the judge or the Court of Appeal (see [12]–[19], [23], [24], [57]–[63], [90], [91], [93]–[95], [102]–[105], [109], below); Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 and Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 adopted.
(2) (Lord Hoffmann dissenting) Section 1(2) of the 2005 Act provided that the court on the application of the Secretary of State had power to make an order imposing obligations that were or included derogating obligations, while the power to make a control order was exercisable by the Secretary of State ‘except in the case of an order imposing obligations that are incompatible with the individual’s right to liberty under article 5’ of the convention. Thus the Secretary of State had no power to make an order that imposed any obligation incompatible with art 5. An administrative order made without power to make it was a nullity. The defects in the orders could not be cured by amending specific obligations, since what the Secretary of State had made was a series of orders, applicable to the individuals named, and those were what he had no power to make. Accordingly there had been no alternative but to quash the orders in their entirety. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see [26], [27], [29], [64], [85], [109], [110], below).
Per Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. Taking account of the conditions and circumstances in the various control order cases, a core element of confinement which does not exceed 16 hours a day is insufficiently stringent as a matter of law to effect a deprivation of liberty (see [105], [108], below).
Notes
For the right to liberty and the security of the person, see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 127, and for the power to make control orders, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 454.
For the Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 5, see 7 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 705.
For the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, ss 1, 2, see 12(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 1852, 1854.
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Appeal
The Secretary of State for the Home Department appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 29 January 2007 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) on 1 August 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 1141, [2007] QB 446) dismissing the Secretary of State’s appeal from the decision of Sullivan J on 28 June 2006 ([2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun)) that
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obligations imposed on JJ, KK, GG, HH, NN and LL (the respondents), in control orders made by the Secretary of State under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 deprived the respondents of their liberty in breach of art 5 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) and that the control orders should be quashed. JUSTICE appeared as an intervener. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bingham of Cornhill.
Ian Burnett QC, Philip Sales QC, Tim Eicke, Cecilia Ivimy and Andrew O’Connor (instructed by Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Manjit Gill QC and Barnabas Lams (instructed by Lawrence & Co) for JJ.
Ben Emmerson QC and Raza Husain (instructed by Gladstone Solicitors, Derby) for GG and KK.
Edward Fitzgerald QC, Keir Starmer QC and Stephanie Harrison (instructed by Tyndallwoods) for HH and NN.
Michael Fordham QC and Tom Hickman (instructed by Clifford Chance) for JUSTICE.
Michael Supperstone QC and Judith Farbey (instructed by the Special Advocates Support Office) as special advocates.
LL did not appear.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
31 October 2007. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1] My Lords, in a judgment given on 28 June 2006 ([2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun)) Sullivan J held that obligations imposed on the respondents in control orders made by the Secretary of State under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 deprived the respondents of their liberty in breach of art 5 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) and that the orders should be quashed. The Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) dismissed the Secretary of State’s appeal against that decision on 1 August 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 1141, [2007] QB 446, [2006] 3 WLR 866). On this appeal to the House the Secretary of State challenges both limbs of the decisions below, contending that the obligations imposed on the respondents did not deprive them of their liberty and that, if they did, the orders should have been modified and not quashed.
[2] This is one of four appeals heard by the House together. The facts of the four appeals are different. Some issues are common to more than one appeal, and some are not. Separate judgments were given below at first instance and (in three of the appeals) by the Court of Appeal. It is convenient to give separate judgments in this appeal, in the appeal involving E (see Secretary of State for the Home Dept v E [2007] UKHL 47, [2008] 1 All ER 699, [2007] 3 WLR 720), and in the appeals involving AF and MB (see Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB, Secretary of State for the Home Dept v AF [2007] UKHL 46, [2008] 1 All ER 657, [2007] 3 WLR 681), making such cross-reference as is necessary to avoid repetition.
[3] There are six respondents, to whom I shall refer as ‘the controlled persons’ save where it is necessary to distinguish between them. Five of the controlled persons are Iraqi nationals. The sixth (LL, who has absconded and is not
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represented in this appeal) is either an Iraqi or an Iranian national. Three have leave to remain in this country and three have temporary admission. All are suspected by the Secretary of State to have been involved in terrorism-related activities and are assessed to pose a threat to the public within the United Kingdom or overseas. None has been charged with or prosecuted for any offence related to terrorism.
[4] The Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 was enacted on 11 March 2005. It repealed Pt 4 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001, including s 23, which the House had found to be incompatible with arts 5 and 14 of the convention in A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56, [2005] 3 All ER 169, [2005] 2 AC 68, [2005] 2 WLR 87. The purpose of the 2005 Act, as expressed in the long title, was—
‘to provide for the making against individuals involved in terrorism-related activity of orders imposing obligations on them for purposes connected with preventing or restricting their further involvement in such activity . . .’
At the forefront of his argument the Secretary of State stresses the grave threat presented to the public by the criminal activity of terrorists; the imperative duty of democratic governments to do what can lawfully be done to protect the public against that threat; and the balance inherent in the convention between the rights of individuals and the rights of the community as a whole. These considerations provide the important backdrop to these appeals, but they need not be elaborated since they are not controversial.
[5] As will be seen at [7], below, the 2005 Act is drafted with express reference to art 5 of the convention. Article 5 provides: ‘Everyone has the right to liberty and security of person.' The article continues: ‘No one shall be deprived of his liberty save in the following cases and in accordance with a procedure prescribed by law’. There follows a list ((a)–(f)) of cases in which a person may be deprived of his liberty in accordance with a procedure prescribed by law. The cases listed are those in which any democratic state is likely to exercise a power to detain: on sentence following conviction, breach of a court order, arrest on suspicion of crime, infectious disease, mental illness, unlawful entry, pending action to deport or extradite, and so on. This list, as the European Court of Human Rights has repeatedly emphasised, is exhaustive and is to be narrowly interpreted (see, for instance, Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669 (para 57); Kurt v Turkey (1998) 5 BHRC 1 at 26–27 (para 122); Mancini v Italy App No 44955/98 (2 August 2001, unreported), para 23. This reflects the importance attached by the convention to the right to liberty and security. Thus a person may not be deprived of his liberty unless his case falls within one of the listed classes of case. That proposition, however, is subject to one qualification. By art 15 of the convention (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmnd 8969), given domestic effect by ss 14 and 16 of the 1998 Act, a state party to the convention may derogate from art 5, subject to certain formalities:
‘(1) In time of war or other public emergency threatening the life of the nation . . . to the extent strictly required by the exigencies of the situation, provided that such measures are not inconsistent with its other obligations under international law’.
It is common ground that none of the cases subject to this appeal fall within any of the categories listed in (a)–(f) of art 5 of the convention, and the United Kingdom has not derogated from its obligation to comply with that article. It
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necessarily follows that if, as the controlled persons (with the support of JUSTICE) contend and the Secretary of State strongly denies, the effect of the obligations imposed on the controlled persons under the control orders is to deprive them of their liberty, such orders are inconsistent with art 5 of the convention.
THE 2005 ACT
[6] The core of the 2005 Act is found in s 1. Subsection (1) defines a control order as meaning ‘an order [made] against an individual that imposes obligations on him for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism’. Subsection (4) specifies the obligations which a control order ‘may include, in particular’. It is not therefore an exclusive list. But it is a detailed list, containing 16 potential obligations running from (a) to (p). It is unnecessary to recite the full list. Among the listed obligations are:
‘(d) a restriction on his association or communications with specified persons or with other persons generally; (e) a restriction in respect of his place of residence or on the persons to whom he gives access to his place of residence; (f) a prohibition on his being at specified places or within a specified area at specified times or on specified days; (g) a prohibition or restriction on his movements to, from or within the United Kingdom, a specified part of the United Kingdom or a specified place or area within the United Kingdom . . . (j) a requirement on him to give access to specified persons to his place of residence or to other premises to which he has power to grant access; (k) a requirement on him to allow specified persons to search that place or any such premises for the purpose of ascertaining whether obligations imposed by or under the order have been, are being or are about to be contravened . . .’
A person who, without reasonable excuse, contravenes an obligation imposed on him by a control order is guilty of an offence punishable, on conviction on indictment to imprisonment for a term of up to five years (see ss 9(1) and (4)(a)).
[7] The Act draws a categorical distinction between what it calls a ‘derogating control order’ and what it calls a ‘non-derogating control order’. The former is defined in s 15(1) to mean ‘a control order imposing obligations that are or include derogating obligations’ and a ‘derogating obligation’ is defined in s 1(10) to mean—
‘an obligation on an individual which—(a) is incompatible with his right to liberty under Article 5 of the Human Rights Convention; but (b) is of a description of obligations which, for the purposes of the designation of a designated derogation, is set out in the designation order . . .’
A ‘non-derogating control order’ is defined in s 15(1) to mean ‘a control order made by the Secretary of State’: it is one that does not consist of or include derogating obligations. Thus the premise of the Act is that control orders made under s 1 of the Act and including obligations within the scope of s 1(4) may, or of course may not, be incompatible with the controlled person’s right to liberty under art 5 of the convention.
[8] The power to make a control order against an individual, in the case of an order imposing obligations that are or include derogating obligations, is exercisable by the court on an application by the Secretary of State (see s 1(2)(b)); save where the order imposes obligations that are incompatible with the
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individual’s right to liberty under art 5, the power is exercisable by the Secretary of State (see s 1(2)(a)), with the permission of the court (see s 3(1)(a)) save where the urgency of the case requires an order to be made without permission (see s 3(1)(b)). In each case there is a preliminary hearing by the court, but the procedure differs (s 4(1) applies to derogating control orders, s 3(1)(a), (2), (3), (5) and (6) to non-derogating control orders). The threshold conditions for making an order are different. At the preliminary hearing, the court may make a derogating control order against the individual in question under s 4(3) if it appears to the court—
‘(a) that there is material which (if not disproved) is capable of being relied on by the court as establishing that the individual is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity; (b) that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the imposition of obligations on that individual is necessary for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism; (c) that the risk arises out of, or is associated with, a public emergency in respect of which there is a designated derogation from the whole or a part of Article 5 of the Human Rights Convention; and (d) that the obligations that there are reasonable grounds for believing should be imposed on the individual are or include derogating obligations of a description set out for the purposes of the designated derogation in the designation order.’
By contrast, under s 2(1) the Secretary of State may make a non-derogating control order against an individual if he—
‘(a) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity; and (b) considers that it is necessary, for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, to make a control order imposing obligations on that individual.’
At the preliminary hearing before such an order is made, or immediately after in case of urgency, the court’s function is to consider whether the Secretary of State’s decision is ‘obviously flawed’ (see s 3(2),(3)).
[9] On the full hearing the function of the court is again different. In the case of a derogating control order the test reflects that set out in s 4(3) quoted above: the court may confirm the order, with or without modifications, only if (s 4(7)):
‘(a) it is satisfied, on the balance of probabilities, that the controlled person is an individual who is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity; (b) it considers that the imposition of obligations on the controlled person is necessary for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism; (c) it appears to the court that the risk is one arising out of, or is associated with, a public emergency in respect of which there is a designated derogation from the whole or a part of Article 5 of the Human Rights Convention; and (d) the obligations to be imposed by the order or (as the case may be) by the order as modified are or include derogating obligations of a description set out for the purposes of the designated derogation in the derogation order.’
In the case of a non-derogating order the function of the court is to decide, applying the principles applicable on an application for judicial review, whether any relevant decision of the Secretary of State was ‘flawed’ (see s 3(10)(11)).
[10] A derogating control order has effect for six months unless revoked or renewed (see s 4(8)), provided the derogation remains in force and the
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designation order was not made more than 12 months earlier (see s 6(1)), and may be revoked or modified by the court (see s 7(5)–(7)). A non-derogating control order has effect for a period of 12 months (see s 2(4)), renewable indefinitely for 12 months at a time if the Secretary of State considers that the conditions for making it continue to obtain (see s 2(6)). It may be revoked or modified by the Secretary of State (see s 7(1), (2), but he may not make any modification which converts a non-derogating control order into a derogating control order (see s 7(3)). A power of arrest exists in relation to derogating but not non-derogating control orders (see s 5).
[11] In some respects the Act does not distinguish between the two types of order. Thus the duty on the Secretary of State and the chief officer of police in relation to prosecution, considered in more detail in E’s case [2008] 1 All ER 699, is the same in the two cases (see s 8), as are the criminal consequences of contravening an obligation (see s 9). The procedural provisions laid down in the Schedule to the Act apply to both types of control order proceedings (see s 11), although the rules made pursuant to the rule-making power conferred by the Act distinguish between derogating control orders (CPR 76, section II) and non-derogating control orders (section III). No appeal lies to the Court of Appeal from any determination of the court in control order proceedings, except on a question of law (see s 11(3)).
DEPRIVATION OF LIBERTY
[12] In ordinary parlance a person is taken to be deprived of his or her liberty when locked up in a prison cell or its equivalent. This common sense approach is, unsurprisingly, reflected in the convention jurisprudence. Thus in Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669 (para 58), the European Court has recognised that ‘In proclaiming the “right to liberty”, paragraph 1 of Article 5 is contemplating individual liberty in its classic sense, that is to say the physical liberty of the person’, a ruling repeated in Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 362–363 (para 92). It has also referred to ‘classic detention in prison or strict arrest’ (at 363 (para 95)). Further, the court has recognised the distinction between deprivation of liberty and restriction of movement and freedom of a person to choose his residence. The latter are the subject of art 2 of the Fourth Protocol to the convention, a provision which the United Kingdom has not ratified but which is accepted as relevant in interpreting the scope of the prohibition in art 5.
[13] It is, however, common ground between the parties that the prohibition in art 5 on depriving a person of his liberty has an autonomous meaning: that is, it has a Council of Europe-wide meaning for purposes of the convention, whatever it might or might not be thought to mean in any member state. For guidance on the autonomous convention meaning to be given to the expression, national courts must look to the jurisprudence of the European Commission and the European Court in Strasbourg, which United Kingdom courts are required by s 2(1) of the 1998 Act to take into account. But that jurisprudence must be used in the same way as other authority is to be used, as laying down principles and not mandating solutions to particular cases. It is, as observed in R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2006] UKHL 12 at [23], [2006] 4 All ER 1041 at [23], [2006] 2 AC 307, perilous to transpose the outcome of one case to another where the facts are different. The case law shows that the prohibition in art 5 has fallen to be considered in a very wide range of factual situations. It is to the principles laid down by the court in Engel v Netherlands and
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Guzzardi v Italy particularly, reiterated by the court on many occasions (see, for instance, Ashingdane v UK (1985) 7 EHRR 528 at 541 (para 41), Amuur v France (1996) 22 EHRR 533 at 556 (para 42)), that national courts must look for guidance.
[14] A series of Strasbourg decisions establishes that 24-hour house arrest has been regarded as tantamount to imprisonment and so as depriving the subject of his or her liberty (see, for example, Mancini v Italy App No 44955/98 (2 August 2001, unreported), para 17; Vachev v Bulgaria [2004] ECHR 42987/98, para 64; NC v Italy [2002] ECHR 24952/94, para 33; Nikolova v Bulgaria (No 2) [2004] ECHR 40896/98, para 60). In Trijonis v Lithuania App No 2333/02 (17 March 2005, unreported) the applicant’s complaint in relation to a period of 24-hour home arrest was held to be admissible. In Pekov v Bulgaria [2006] ECHR 50358/99, para 73, it was argued by the government that the house arrest of the applicant did not deprive him of his liberty since the monitoring authorities were far away, so that he could leave his house with impunity, but this was not an argument which the court accepted. The decision of the High Court of Justiciary in McDonald v Dickson (Procurator Fiscal, Elgin) 2003 SCCR 311 at [17], that the appellant had not been deprived of his liberty during six days of 22-hour house arrest because he had not been subject to any physical confinement or restraint, cannot, in my respectful opinion, be reconciled with this authority.
[15] Continuous house arrest may reasonably be regarded as resembling, save as to the place of confinement, conventional modes of imprisonment or detention. But the court has made clear (Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 363–364 (para 95)) that deprivation of liberty may take numerous forms other than classic detention in prison or strict arrest. The variety of such forms is being increased by developments in legal standards and attitudes, and the convention must be interpreted in the light of notions prevailing in democratic states. What has to be considered is the concrete situation of the particular individual (Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669 (para 59); Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 362–363 (para 92); HL v UK (2004) 81 BMLR 131 at 162 (para 89)). Thus the task of a court is to assess the impact of the measures in question on a person in the situation of the person subject to them. The Strasbourg court has been true to this guiding principle. Thus in Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669 (para 59), the court recognised that—
‘A disciplinary penalty or measure which on analysis would unquestionably be deemed a deprivation of liberty were it to be applied to a civilian may not possess this characteristic when imposed upon a serviceman.’
In Ashingdane v UK (1985) 7 EHRR 528 at 536, 543–544 (paras 24, 47, 48) the applicant had been transferred from a high security mental hospital to an ordinary psychiatric hospital but was, it seems, still held to be detained and so deprived of his liberty (albeit legitimately) during the latest phase of his stay in the psychiatric hospital when he was on an open ward, was free to make regular unescorted visits to his family, was going home every weekend from Thursday to Sunday and was free to leave the hospital as he pleased on Monday to Wednesday provided only that he returned to his ward at night.
[16] Thus the court has insisted that account should be taken of a whole range of factors such as the nature, duration, effects and manner of execution or implementation of the penalty or measure in question (see Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669 (para 59); Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 362–363 (paras 92, 94)). There may be no deprivation of liberty if a single feature of an
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individual’s situation is taken on its own but the combination of measures considered together may have that result (at 363–364 (para 95)). Consistently with this approach, account was taken (at 342–345 (paras 23–42)) of a number of aspects of the applicant’s stay on the island of Asinara: the locality; the possibilities of movement; his accommodation; the availability of medical attention; the presence of his family; the possibilities of attending worship; the possibilities of obtaining work; the possibilities for cultural and recreational activities; and communications with the outside. In the result, the court on the facts attached weight (at 363–364 (para 95)) to the small area of the island open to him, the dilapidated accommodation, the lack of available social intercourse, the strictness of the almost constant supervision, a nine-hour overnight curfew, the obligation on him to report to the authorities twice a day and inform them of any person he wished to telephone, the need for consent to visit Sardinia on the mainland, the liability to punishment by arrest for breach of any obligation and the 16-month period during which he was subject to these restrictions. Some of these matters plainly fall within the purview of other articles of the convention. Because account must be taken of an individual’s whole situation it seems to me inappropriate to draw a sharp distinction between a period of confinement which will, and one which will not, amount to a deprivation of liberty, important though the period of daily confinement will be in any overall assessment.
[17] The Strasbourg court has realistically recognised (at 363 (para 93) that ‘The difference between deprivation of and restriction upon liberty is nonetheless merely one of degree or intensity, and not one of nature or substance’. There is no bright line separating the two. The court acknowledges the difficulty attending the process of classification in borderline cases, suggesting that in such cases the decision is one of pure opinion or what may, rather more aptly, be called judgment.
[18] In assessing the impact of the measures in question on a person in the situation of the person subject to them, the court has assessed the effect of the measures on the life the person would have been living otherwise. Thus no deprivation of liberty was held to result from light arrest of serving soldiers (Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 670 (para 61)) since they continued to perform their duties and remained more or less within the ordinary framework of their army life. The decisions of the court on curfews during the night hours is consistent with that approach. The curfew from 9 pm to 7 am imposed in Raimondo v Italy (1994) 18 EHRR 237 and the obligation imposed on him not to leave home without informing the police did not prevent him living a normal life and did not deprive him of his liberty. In Labita v Italy [2000] ECHR 26772/95 the applicant made no complaint of deprivation of liberty during a period when he was subject to a curfew from 8 pm to 6 am. In Ciancimino v Italy (1991) 70 DR 103 the applicant was obliged to live in a nominated commune which he was not permitted to leave, was obliged to report to the police daily at 11 am and was subject to a curfew from 8 pm to 7 am, but this did not amount to a deprivation of liberty. The same result followed in Trijonis v Lithuania App No 2333/02 (17 March 2005, unreported), in which, from 11 January 2001 until 6 May 2002, the applicant was permitted to be at his workplace during weekdays, subject to a curfew at his home from 7 pm to 7 am on weekdays and for the whole day at the weekend. The court pointed out, contrasting the case with Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333, that the applicant was allowed to spend time at work as well as at home during this period.
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[19] It is not, I think, suggested that the Strasbourg court has had to rule on any case at all closely comparable with the present. It is inappropriate to seek to align this case with the least dissimilar of the reported cases. The task of the English courts is to seek to give fair effect, on the facts of this case, to the principles which the Strasbourg court has laid down.
THE OBLIGATIONS IMPOSED ON THE CONTROLLED PERSONS
[20] The obligations imposed on the controlled persons by the non-derogating control orders made by the Secretary of State in each of their respective cases were in more or less standard form. Lord Carlile of Berriew QC, the independent reviewer appointed under s 14 of the Act, annexed to his First Report of the Independent Reviewer Pursuant to Section 14(3) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (February 2006) (the report) a pro forma of the schedule of obligations ‘imposed on most but not quite all of the controlees so far’ (report, para 42), and Sullivan J annexed to his judgment a list, in almost identical terms, of the obligations imposed on the controlled persons in this case. An obligation was imposed under almost all the heads specifically identified in the paragraphs of s 1(4) of the Act, and some under heads not so identified. The general effect of the obligations was helpfully summarised by the Court of Appeal ([2007] QB 446 at [4]):
‘The obligations imposed by the control orders are set out in annex 1 to Sullivan J’s judgment. They are essentially identical. Each respondent is required to remain within his “residence” at all times, save for a period of six hours between 10 am and 4 pm. In the case of GG the specified residence is a one-bedroom flat provided by the local authority in which he lived before his detention. In the case of the other five respondents the specified residences are one-bedroom flats provided by the National Asylum Support Service. During the curfew period the respondents are confined in their small flats and are not even allowed into the common parts of the buildings in which these flats are situated. Visitors must be authorised by the Home Office, to which name, address, date of birth and photographic identity must be supplied. The residences are subject to spot searches by the police. During the six hours when they are permitted to leave their residences, the respondents are confined to restricted urban areas, the largest of which is 72 square kilometres. These deliberately do not extend, save in the case of GG, to any area in which they lived before. Each area contains a mosque, a hospital, primary health care facilities, shops and entertainment and sporting facilities. The respondents are prohibited from meeting anyone by pre-arrangement who has not been given the same Home Office clearance as a visitor to the residence.’
It may be added that the controlled persons were required to wear an electronic tag and to report to a monitoring company on first leaving their flat after a curfew period and on returning to it before a curfew period. They were forbidden to use or possess any communications equipment of any kind save for one fixed telephone line in their flat maintained by the monitoring company. They could attend a mosque of their choice if it was in their permitted area and approved in advance by the Home Office. Some of the controlled persons are not permitted, because of their immigration status, to work; those who are permitted have not done so in the six-hour period between 10 am and 4 pm. They received benefits
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of £30–£35 per week, mostly in vouchers, but in JJ’s case £57·45. A request by JJ to study English at a college outside his area was refused.
[21] In the course of a careful and detailed judgment Sullivan J reviewed the authorities mentioned above, and other authorities: in particular R (on the application of the Secretary of State for the Home Dept) v Mental Health Review Tribunal [2002] EWCA Civ 1868, [2002] All ER (D) 307 (Dec), where attention is drawn to the significance of the purpose for which restrictions are imposed, distinguishing between those which are for the benefit of the subject and those which are for some other purpose. He regarded ([2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin) at [48]) the orders made in these cases, although in force for only 12 months at a time, as of indefinite duration. He confined himself (at [57], [58]) to facts which were agreed or were apparent on the face of the control orders. He took as his starting point (at [60]–[62]) the confinement of the controlled persons for 18 hours each day of the week in a small flat where (save in the case of GG) they had not previously lived in a significantly different location. He noted that the controlled persons were all single men, and accepted (at [66]) that the requirement to supply the name, address, date of birth and photographic identification to obtain prior Home Office approval of anyone wishing to visit the flat for social purposes during curfew hours deterred all but the most courageous of visitors. He expressed his conclusion at para [73] of his judgment:
‘Drawing these threads together, and bearing in mind the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the obligations in these control orders, I am left in no doubt whatsoever that the cumulative effect of the obligations has been to deprive the respondents of their liberty in breach of art 5 of the convention. I do not consider that this is a borderline case. The collective impact of the obligations in annex 1 could not sensibly be described as a mere restriction upon the respondents’ liberty of movement. In terms of the length of the curfew period (18 hours), the extent of the obligations, and their intrusive impact on the respondents’ ability to lead anything resembling a normal life, whether inside their residences within the curfew period, or for the six-hour period outside it, these control orders go far beyond the restrictions in those cases where the European Court of Human Rights has concluded that there has been a restriction upon but not a deprivation of liberty.’
He regarded the controlled persons’ concrete situation (see [74]) as the antithesis of liberty and more akin to detention in an open prison.
[22] At the outset of his judgment (at [3]) the judge had noted Lord Carlile’s description (report, paras 42, 43) of the pro forma obligations as ‘On any view . . . extremely restrictive . . . They fall not very far short of house arrest, and certainly inhibit normal life considerably.' He found reassurance (at [80]) for his conclusion in the observations of the House of Lords and House of Commons Joint Committee on Human Rights in their Twelfth Report of the Session 2005–2006 (HL Paper 122, HC Paper 915) (14 February 2006) (para 38), addressing the pro forma obligations without reference to any specific case:
‘In our view, those obligations are so restrictive of liberty as to amount to a deprivation of liberty for the purposes of Article 5(1) ECHR. It therefore seems to us that the control order legislation itself is such as to make it likely that the power to impose non-derogating control orders will be exercised in
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a way which is incompatible with Article 5(1) in the absence of a derogation from that Article.’
The judge also noted (at [82]) the recognition by Mr Alvaro Gil-Robles, the Council of Europe Commissioner for Human Rights, in his report on his visit to the United Kingdom (8 June 2005) (para 17), of the difficulty under the 2005 Act of distinguishing between derogating and non-derogating obligations:
‘The Act does not, however, as noted, provide for any clear cut off point. This is understandable as it would be difficult to provide a clear limit, in particular where there might be many combinations of a variety of different restrictions which are imposable. House arrest would, for instance, clearly, fall within the scope of Article 5(1) ECHR. However, there might be, a strict combination of other restrictions on movement, contacts and residence, falling just short of this. The question of whether the restrictions imposed by the non-derogating control order amount to a deprivation of liberty falling within the scope of Article 5(1) must inevitably be determined on a case-by-case basis . . .’
[23] On his appeal to the Court of Appeal the Secretary of State contended, as he was bound to do, that the judge had erred in law. He identified ([2007] QB 446 at [7]) five errors of principle: that the judge had identified liberty too broadly, as freedom to do as one wishes; that he had wrongly had regard to the extent to which the obligations interfered with ‘normal life’; that he had wrongly had regard to restrictions on human rights protected by other specific articles of the convention; that he had extended the meaning of liberty beyond that laid down in Guzzardi v Italy; and that he had concentrated excessively on the individual features of the idiosyncratic cases. The Court of Appeal reviewed these criticisms seriatim, but found no merit in any of them. The judge had clearly and correctly taken the confinement of the controlled persons to a small flat for 18 hours a day as his starting point (see [11]). He had properly had regard to other features of a regime at the heart of which was physical confinement (see [19]). At the end of the day the judge had to make a value judgment as to whether, having regard to the ‘the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation’ of the control orders, they effected a deprivation of liberty (see [22]). The judge’s appraisal of the likely duration of the orders, although based on a false premise, was realistic. The Court of Appeal (at [23]) shared the judge’s view that the facts of these cases clearly fell on the wrong side of the dividing line and amounted to a deprivation of liberty contrary to art 5.
[24] The Secretary of State’s argument on appeal, presented with skill and moderation, repeated, no doubt inevitably, the contentions advanced to and rejected by the Court of Appeal. It is unnecessary to rehearse them since they cannot in my opinion survive a careful reading of the judge’s judgment and I would reject them for the reasons which the Court of Appeal gave. No legal error in the reasoning of the judge or the Court of Appeal is shown, and it is not for the House to make a value judgment of its own. I would, however, add that on the agreed facts of these individual cases I would have reached the same conclusion. The effect of the 18-hour curfew, coupled with the effective exclusion of social visitors, meant that the controlled persons were in practice in solitary confinement for this lengthy period every day for an indefinite duration, with very little opportunity for contact with the outside world, with means insufficient to permit provision of significant facilities for self-entertainment and with
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knowledge that their flats were liable to be entered and searched at any time. The area open to them during their six non-curfew hours was unobjectionable in size, much larger than that open to Mr Guzzardi. But they were (save for GG) located in an unfamiliar area where they had no family, friends or contacts, and which was no doubt chosen for that reason. The requirement to obtain prior Home Office clearance of any social meeting outside the flat in practice isolated the controlled persons during the non-curfew hours also. Their lives were wholly regulated by the Home Office, as a prisoner’s would be, although breaches were much more severely punishable. The judge’s analogy with detention in an open prison was apt, save that the controlled persons did not enjoy the association with others and the access to entertainment facilities which a prisoner in an open prison would expect to enjoy.
REMEDY
[25] The Secretary of State submitted that if, contrary to his submission, the effect of these control orders was to deprive the controlled persons of their liberty in breach of art 5, the courts below were wrong to quash the orders. They should instead have quashed one or more obligations imposed by the orders or directed the Secretary of State to modify them. This argument depended on s 3(12) of the Act, which provides that if the court determines, at a hearing pursuant to directions given at a preliminary hearing, that a decision of the Secretary of State was flawed, its only powers are:
‘(a) power to quash the order; (b) power to quash one or more obligations imposed by the order; and (c) power to give directions to the Secretary of State for the revocation of the order or for the modification of the obligations it imposes.’
Here, it was said, the court should not have quashed the whole orders, which had detrimental practical results (as when LL absconded before a new order could be made).
[26] Sullivan J did not accept this argument, holding ([2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin) at [92]) that since the Secretary of State had no power to make the order, there was nothing to revoke. The Court of Appeal questioned ([2007] QB 446 at [26]) whether the Secretary of State’s decision was flawed within the meaning of s 3(10) and (12), but found (at [27]) the judge’s reasons for quashing the orders compelling. This was also the conclusion reached by Beatson J in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v E [2007] EWHC 233 (Admin) at [310], [2007] HRLR 472 at [310]. Ouseley J in Secretary of State for the Home Department v AF [2007] EWHC 651 (Admin) at [89], [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr) at [89], having found the control order under review to deprive the controlled person of his liberty, similarly held the order to be a nullity.
[27] This conclusion is in my opinion irresistible. As recorded at [8], above, s 1(2) of the Act provides that the court on the application of the Secretary of State has power to make an order imposing obligations that are or include derogating obligations, while the power to make a control order is exercisable by the Secretary of State ‘except in the case of an order imposing obligations that are incompatible with the individual’s right to liberty under Article 5’ of the convention. Thus the Secretary of State has no power to make an order that imposes any obligation incompatible with art 5. An administrative order made without power to make it is, on well-known principles, a nullity (see the recent decision of the Privy Council in McLaughlin v Governor of the Cayman Islands [2007]
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UKPC 50, [2007] 1 WLR 2839). The defects in the orders cannot be cured by amending specific obligations, since what the Secretary of State made was a series of orders, applicable to the individuals named, and these are what he had no power to make. It is true that, because public law remedies are generally discretionary, the court may in special circumstances decline to quash an order, despite finding it to be a nullity (McLaughlin’s case at [16]). But no such circumstances exist here, and it would be contrary to principle to decline to quash an order, made without power to make it, which had unlawfully deprived a person of his liberty.
[28] This conclusion makes it unnecessary to decide, in this case, whether control order proceedings involve the determination of a criminal charge within the meaning of art 6(1) of the convention, a question discussed at [13]–[24] of my opinion in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB, Secretary of State for the Home Dept v AF [2008] 1 All ER 657, [2007] 3 WLR 681.
[29] I would dismiss this appeal with costs.
LORD HOFFMANN.
[30] My Lords, the questions in these appeals are whether the terms of certain control orders made by the Secretary of State under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 are compatible with art 5(1) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) and whether the procedure by which they were made is compatible with art 6.
[31] The long title of the 2005 Act is:
‘An Act to provide for the making against individuals involved in terrorism-related activity of orders imposing obligations on them for purposes connected with preventing or restricting their further involvement in such activity. . .’
Section 1(1) defined a ‘control order’ as ‘an order against an individual that imposes obligations on him for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism’. The power to make the orders is contained in s 2(1):
‘The Secretary of State may make a control order against an individual if he—(a) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity; and (b) considers that it is necessary, for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, to make a control order imposing obligations on that individual.’
[32] Section 1(4) sets out, in 16 lettered paragraphs, the various kinds of obligations which a control order may impose. Since there is no dispute that all the obligations in these appeals fell within the statutory powers, it may be more useful, instead of quoting s 1(4), to set out the terms of one of the most restrictive orders in issue, which was made against an individual referred to as LL. He lives in a one-bedroom flat provided by the National Asylum Support Service in an inner London borough, having arrived in the United Kingdom as an asylum seeker.
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[33] The order provides that he shall:
(1) at all times wear an electronic monitoring tag;
(2) remain in his flat at all times except from 10 am until 4 pm;
(3) report to the monitoring company twice a day;
(4) allow the police any time to search his flat;
(5) not receive any private visitors except with the prior consent of the Home Office, supplying them with the visitor’s name, address and photograph;
(6) not meet anyone by prior arrangement outside his flat except with Home Office consent and not attend any pre-arranged gatherings except to attend at one mosque approved by the Home Office;
(7) not associate or communicate with five named individuals against whom control orders have also been made;
(8) not use a mobile telephone or internet connection;
(9) not go outside a designated area substantially the size of an inner London borough;
(10) surrender his passport;
(11) not maintain more than one bank account of which details have been notified to the Home Office;
(12) not transfer money or goods abroad without the consent of the Home Office.
[34] The purpose of these obligations is to make it easier for the security services to keep a close watch on what LL is doing and inhibit his participation in terrorist conspiracies. They are plainly a substantial interference with his privacy and freedom of movement. They engage art 8 of the convention (‘Everyone has the right to respect for his private and family life, his home and his correspondence’) and would engage art 2 of the Fourth Protocol (‘Everyone . . . shall . . . have the right to liberty of movement’) if the United Kingdom had ratified that Protocol. They may well engage arts 9, 10 and 11 of the convention (freedom of religion, freedom of expression and freedom of association) as well. In these appeals, however, no complaint is made on any of these grounds. The reason is that all these rights are qualified. They are subject to ‘such . . . restrictions . . . as are prescribed by law and are necessary in a democratic society, in the interests of national security . . .' And there can be no doubt that the protection of the state and its people against terrorism is necessary in a democratic society. If, therefore, complaint were made under any of these qualified rights, the court would have to consider whether the particular restrictions could be justified as necessary and proportionate for the purpose of protecting the public.
[35] But your Lordships have not been invited to carry out any such exercise. Instead, LL and the others allege that the orders infringe the rights under art 5(1), which says that ‘No one shall be deprived of his liberty’, subject to various exceptions such as imprisonment for a criminal offence, none of which apply here. The point about the right not to be deprived of one’s liberty under art 5(1) is that, subject to the exceptions, it is unqualified. Such is the revulsion against detention without charge or trial, such is this country’s attachment to habeas corpus, that the right to liberty ordinarily trumps even the interests of national security. Only in time of war or ‘public emergency threatening the life of the nation’ may the government derogate from the convention, suspend habeas corpus and imprison people without trial.
[36] There has been no derogation and the question is therefore quite simply whether the effect of the obligations imposed under the control order is to
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deprive LL and the others of their liberty. It is in my opinion clear from the unqualified nature of the right to liberty and its place in the scheme of the other qualified convention rights that it deals with literal physical restraint. The right is not infringed by restrictions on liberty in a broader sense, such as restrictions on the right to communicate, associate or pray with others, each of which is protected by a separate qualified right, or with restrictions on movement, which (so far as it is protected at all) is dealt with in art 2 of the Fourth Protocol. So much was stated by the European Court of Human Rights in Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647. The court said (at 669 (para 58)) that the article contemplates ‘individual liberty in the classic sense, that is to say the physical liberty of the person’. The paradigm case of deprivation of liberty is being in prison, in the custody of a gaoler.
[37] Why is deprivation of liberty regarded as so quintessential a human right that it trumps even the interests of national security? In my opinion, because it amounts to a complete deprivation of human autonomy and dignity. The prisoner has no freedom of choice about anything. He cannot leave the place to which he has been assigned. He may eat only when and what his gaoler permits. The only human beings whom he may see or speak to are his gaolers and those whom they allow to visit. He is entirely subject to the will of others.
[38] That is the paradigm case. Obviously, however, one may have some degree of deviation from the standard case without it ceasing to be to a deprivation of liberty. The question of what amounts to a deprivation of liberty was discussed by the European Court of Human Rights in Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333. Mr Guzzardi, suspected of association with organised crime, was sent for three years to live under ‘special supervision’ on the small island of Asinara, off the coast of Sardinia, which was then mainly used as a high security prison. (It is now a nature reserve.) About 2·5 sq km of the island lay outside the prison and was available for residence by people under special supervision like Mr Guzzardi. Virtually the only people living on that small piece of land were other internal exiles and carabinieri.
[39] The court decided by a majority of 11 votes to 7 that Mr Guzzardi had been deprived of his liberty. It is clear that both majority and minority regarded the case as very near the borderline. They agreed that the question was one of degree and, as the majority said (at 362–363 (para 92), that ‘account must be taken of a whole range of criteria such as the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the measure in question’. It is of course helpful to know that the question is one of degree and the matters which should be taken into account in answering it. But one also needs to be told what the question is. What is the criterion for deciding whether someone has been deprived of liberty or not? In the majority judgment that is not easy to discover. The nearest one gets is the statement (at 363–364 (para 95)) that ‘In certain respects the treatment complained of resembles detention in an “open prison” or committal to a disciplinary unit’. That suggests that the question was whether Mr Guzzardi’s situation approximated sufficiently closely to the paradigm case of imprisonment. In his dissenting judgment, Judge Matscher said (at 388 (para 3)) that deprivation of liberty was ‘a concept of some complexity, having a core which cannot be the subject of argument but which is surrounded by a “grey zone” where it is extremely difficult to draw the line’.
[40] That is the same idea that I have tried to express by saying that imprisonment is the paradigm case but that the concept may include situations which lack certain features of the paradigm case. There is a similar statement of
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principle in the dissenting judgment of Judge Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice (at 378–379 (para 6)), where he says that, taking into account the separate treatment of freedom of movement in art 2 of the Fourth Protocol:
‘The resulting picture is that Article 5 . . . guaranteed the individual against illegitimate imprisonment, or confinement so close as to amount to the same thing—in sum against deprivation of liberty stricto sensu.’
[41] I do not think that the majority would have disagreed with this statement of principle. It was approved by the Court of Appeal in R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2004] EWCA Civ 1067 at [45], [2005] 1 All ER 970 at [45], [2005] QB 388 and the Court of Appeal’s approach was approved by the House of Lords (see [2006] UKHL 12 at [25], [2006] 4 All ER 1041 at [25], [2006] 2 AC 307). The conclusion of the majority in Guzzardi v Italy that his situation was comparable with being in an open prison or a disciplinary unit suggests that they would have agreed with Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice’s criterion—‘confinement so close as to amount to the same thing’ but thought that ‘on balance’ the case fell on the wrong side of that line.
[42] It is therefore clear that the absence of certain features of the standard case of imprisonment—for example, locked doors or institutional surroundings—are not essential to the concept of deprivation of liberty. One may be deprived of liberty by being placed in an open prison where the doors are not locked but one will be punished if one leaves without permission. Or one may be imprisoned under house arrest in one’s own home (see Pekov v Bulgaria [2006] ECHR 50358/99). But that does not mean that these features are irrelevant in the assessment of whether one has been deprived of liberty. For example, to be placed under actual physical constraint for any length of time is, for that period, a deprivation of liberty. So in Gillan’s case, where the appellants had been stopped and searched, Lord Bingham of Cornhill said (at [25]) that they had been kept waiting rather than deprived of their liberty and distinguished the case of a person who is ‘arrested, handcuffed, confined or removed to any different place’. These amount to a deprivation of liberty. So, for example, in X v Austria (1979) 18 DR 154, the European Commission expressed the view that to detain someone forcibly, even for a short time for the purpose of taking blood for a test, was a deprivation of his liberty.
[43] However, when neither physical restraint nor removal from one’s home is present, the court takes a broader view. It does not confine its attention only to those times at which the person’s liberty is most restricted (for example, when he is subject to a curfew) but asks in more general terms, as in Guzzardi v Italy, whether his situation approximates sufficiently closely to being in prison. Thus in Trijonis v Lithuania App No 2333/02 (17 March 2005, unreported) the applicant was placed under ‘home arrest’ which required him to stay at home all weekend and between 7 pm and 7 am on workdays. The court said that his movements had been restricted but he had not been deprived of his liberty. It did not say that he was deprived of his liberty at the weekends, even though he could not then leave his house.
[44] My Lords, these cases seem to me to provide a clear enough statement and illustrations of the principle. In order to preserve the key distinction between the unqualified right to liberty and the qualified rights of freedom of movement, communication, association and so forth, it is essential not to give an over-expansive interpretation to the concept of deprivation of liberty. I remain of the opinion which I expressed in A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v
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Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56 at [86]–[97], [2005] 3 All ER 169 at [86]–[97], [2005] 2 AC 68 that the power to derogate in peace time is a narrow one and that politically or religiously motivated violence, even threatening serious loss of life, does not necessarily ‘[threaten] the life of the nation’ within the meaning of the convention. The liberty of the subject and the right to habeas corpus are too precious to be sacrificed for any reason other than to safeguard the survival of the state. But one can only maintain this position if one confines the concept of deprivation of liberty to actual imprisonment or something which is for practical purposes little different from imprisonment. Otherwise the law would place too great a restriction on the powers of the state to deal with serious terrorist threats to the lives of its citizens. In the case of anything less than actual deprivation of liberty, the other rights which are undoubtedly engaged are in my opinion adequately protected by the requirement that any interference with them must be necessary and proportionate in the interests of national security.
[45] If one applies these principles to the facts of the present case, the answer seems to me to be clear. I find it impossible to say that a person in the position of LL is for practical purposes in prison. To describe him in such a way would be an extravagant metaphor. A person who lives in his own flat, has a telephone and whatever other conveniences he can afford, buys, prepares and cooks his own food, and is free on any day between 10 am and 4 pm to go at his own choice to walk the streets, visit the shops, places of entertainment, sports facilities and parks of a London borough, use public transport, mingle with the people and attend his place of worship, is not in prison or anything that can be called an approximation to prison. True, his freedom of movement, communication and association is greatly restricted compared with an ordinary person. But that is not the comparison which the law requires to be made. The question is rather whether he can be compared with someone in prison and in my opinion he cannot.
[46] Sullivan J ([2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun)) and the Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) ([2006] EWCA Civ 1141, [2007] QB 446) came to a different conclusion. But there is no indication in either judgment that they applied what in my opinion is the correct test. Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ said (at [11]) that confining someone to his flat for 18 hours a day ‘makes most serious inroads on liberty’. So it does. He went on to agree with Sullivan J that one had to take into account that even when he was outside his flat, LL’s freedom was restricted as to how far he could go, whom he could arrange to meet and so on. That is true. Lord Phillips said (at [22]) that ‘At the end of the day’, Sullivan J had to make ‘a value judgment as to whether, having regard to “the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation” of the control orders they effected a deprivation of liberty’. But that formulation offers no guidance as to what would count as a deprivation of liberty. It simply says that the judge must take everything into account and decide the question, without saying what the question is. For these reasons I consider that the judge and the Court of Appeal not so much misdirected themselves as gave themselves no directions at all. If they had asked themselves whether the person in question could realistically be regarded as being for practical purposes in prison, I do not see how they could have arrived at the conclusion which they did.
[47] If I had considered that the combined effect of the obligations imposed by the control orders was a deprivation of liberty, I would have had to decide
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whether the control order should simply be quashed or whether different obligations which did not have the same effect could be substituted.
[48] The procedure for making a control order (except in cases of urgency) is that the Secretary of State must apply to the court for permission (see s 3(1)(a) of the 2005 Act). If the court gives permission it must give directions for a hearing ‘as soon as reasonably practicable after it is made’ (see s 3(2)(c)). In these cases, Sullivan J gave permission and directions for the hearing over which he then presided. Section 3(10) provides that at such a hearing the function of the court is to determine whether any of the following decisions of the Secretary of State was ‘flawed’: ‘(a) his decision that the requirements of section 2(1)(a) and (b) were satisfied for the making of the order; and (b) his decisions on the imposition of each of the obligations imposed by the order.’
[49] Section 3(11) says that in deciding what constitutes a flawed decision, the court must apply the principles of judicial review. So the question for the court will be whether the decisions of the Secretary of State as to the matters mentioned in s 3(10) were unlawful on one of the normal grounds for judicial review. In the cases before the House, there is no challenge to the Secretary of State’s decision that the requirements of s 2(1)(a) and (b), which I have already quoted, were satisfied. The basis of the challenge is that the cumulative effect of the imposition of the obligations infringed the convention right under art 5(1). If that was the case, the imposition of the obligations would have been unlawful because contrary to the duty of the Secretary of State under s 6(1) of the 1998 Act.
[50] Section 3(12) then provides that if the court determines that a decision of the Secretary of State was flawed:
‘its only powers are—(a) power to quash the order; (b) power to quash one or more obligations imposed by the order; and (c) power to give directions to the Secretary of State for the revocation of the order or for the modification of the obligations it imposes.’
[51] Section 3(10) makes it clear that the Secretary of State’s decision to impose each of the obligations is to be considered as a separate decision, although of course in determining whether it is flawed, the court may have to consider its cumulative effect in conjunction with the decisions to impose the other obligations. By s 3(12), if the court thinks that the decision to impose a particular obligation was unlawful, it may quash that obligation or direct the Secretary of State to modify it. The plain meaning of these provisions seems to be that if, for example (like my noble and learned friend Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood), the court considers, that the obligations infringe art 5(1) because they require someone to remain indoors 18 hours a day but that they would be perfectly lawful if they only required him to remain indoors for 16 hours a day, the court is not obliged to quash the order. It can simply direct the Secretary of State to modify that particular obligation.
[52] Sullivan J decided nevertheless to quash the orders. He said (at [92]):
‘I have no doubt that the proper course is to quash these control orders under para (a) and that it would not be appropriate to direct the Secretary of State to revoke the orders or to modify the obligations imposed by them. A direction to revoke or to modify carries with it the implication that there is in existence an order which was lawfully made by the Secretary of State, but which has been found to be flawed for some reason. The short answer to the Secretary of State’s submission that he should be directed to modify these
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orders is that since he had no power to make them in the first place, there is simply nothing to revoke. The orders were made “without jurisdiction” in the narrow pre-Anisminic [see Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208, [1969] 2 AC 147] sense of lack of jurisdiction. Each order would therefore have been described as a “nullity”, when the distinction between jurisdictional and non-jurisdictional error of law was still of consequence . . .’
[53] I am afraid that I must respectfully disagree with this reasoning. If the order of the Secretary of State is found to be flawed on principles of judicial review, that means that it was not lawfully made. I do not understand how some unlawful orders can be more lawful than others or that it makes sense to invoke distinctions which English law abandoned 40 years ago in order to create different categories of unlawfulness. The power to direct the Secretary of State to revoke or modify the order does not imply that the order was lawfully made. On the contrary, the power arises only if the order is found to have been flawed, that is to say, not lawfully made. Thus the grounds on which the judge refused to consider the exercise of the powers conferred by s 3(12)(b) and (c) would simply write them out of the statute. But there seems to me no conceptual reason why Parliament should not say that if the exercise of a power is found to have been unlawful, the court shall have power to modify the order or direct the Secretary of State to modify it so as to make it lawful. The judge’s failure to accept that he had these powers means that in my opinion he did not properly exercise his discretion.
[54] The Court of Appeal said that the reasons which Sullivan J gave for quashing the orders were ‘compelling’. In addition to the conceptual reason which he gave, Sullivan J also said that quashing the orders would be fair because then the people against whom they were made could not be prosecuted for contravening them. That may in some circumstances be a good reason, but I do not think it will always be so. Ordinarily, people who challenge the validity of orders made against them are not free simply to ignore them. They must obey them until they are set aside. The decision to make the order may have been flawed for some reason which has nothing to do with the obligation which has been contravened. The Court of Appeal added that the Secretary of State was in a better position than the court to devise a ‘new package of obligations’. But that seems to me to carry little weight if the Secretary of State says that he will be content with the modification which the court thinks necessary to make the orders lawful, such as a small reduction in the curfew period.
[55] If, therefore, I had thought that the decision to impose any of the obligations under the orders was flawed, I would have remitted the case to the judge to reconsider the exercise of his powers under s 3(12). But because I think that none of them was flawed, the question does not arise.
[56] As for the question of compliance with art 6, I think that for the reasons I have given in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB, Secretary of State for the Home Dept v AF [2007] UKHL 46, [2008] 1 All ER 657, [2007] 3 WLR 681 proceedings concerning control orders are not criminal proceedings and that the special advocate procedure complies with the requirements of art 6 for civil proceedings. I would therefore allow the appeals of the Secretary of State.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[57] My Lords, what does it mean to be deprived of one’s liberty? Not, we are all agreed, to be deprived of the freedom to live one’s life as one pleases. It means
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to be deprived of one’s physical liberty (see Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669 (para 58)). And what does this mean? It must mean being forced or obliged to be at a particular place where one does not choose to be (eg X v Austria (1979) 18 DR 154). But even that is not always enough, because merely being required to live at a particular address or to keep within a particular geographical area does not, without more, amount to a deprivation of liberty. There must be a greater degree of control over one’s physical liberty than that. But how much? As Sullivan J said ([2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin) at [33], [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun)), referring to the cases cited by my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill, at [14] and [18], above), the Strasbourg jurisprudence does not enable us to narrow the gap between—
‘24-hour house arrest seven days per week (equals deprivation of liberty) and a curfew/house arrest of up to 12 hours per day on weekdays and for the whole of the weekend (equals restriction on movement) . . .’
[58] The Strasbourg jurisprudence does tell us that ‘Deprivation of liberty may . . . take numerous other forms’ than ‘classic detention in prison or strict arrest imposed on a serviceman’ (see Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 363–364 (para 95)). We must look (at 362–363 (para 92)) at the ‘concrete situation’ of the individual concerned and take account of ‘a whole range of criteria such as the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the measure in question’; also Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669 (para 59); HL v UK (2004) 81 BMLR 131 at 162 (para 89). However, the ‘difference between deprivation of and restriction upon liberty is nonetheless merely one of degree or intensity, and not one of nature or substance’ (see Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 363 (para 93)). It also appears that restrictions designed, at least in part, for the benefit of the person concerned are less likely to be considered a deprivation of liberty than are restrictions designed for the protection of society (see R (on the application of the Secretary of State for the Home Dept) v Mental Health Review Tribunal [2002] EWCA Civ 1868 at [16], [17], [2002] All ER (D) 307 (Dec) at [16], [17], citing Nielsen v Denmark (1989) 11 EHRR 175 and HM v Switzerland (2004) 38 EHRR 314, R (on the application of Davis) v South Devon Magistrates’ Court [2004] EWHC 3113 (Admin), [2004] All ER (D) 330 (Dec)).
[59] Sullivan J took as his starting point the requirement to remain in the ‘residence’ for 18 hours each day, between 4 pm and 10 am (see [2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin) at [60]). This is classic detention or confinement. It is secured by electronic tagging, a requirement to clock out on leaving and clock in on returning, and by arrest and imprisonment for disobedience, rather than by lock and key. But that makes no difference: ‘To determine whether a person is deprived of his or her liberty the court must look upon the actual circumstances of the regime to which he or she was subject, as a matter of law and in fact’; having the opportunity to breach the requirements of that regime does not take it outside art 5 (see Pekov v Bulgaria [2006] ECHR 50358/99, para 73).
[60] Having taken the 18-hour curfew as his starting point, the judge went on to consider the concrete situation of the controlled persons, at first during the curfew hours and then during their six hours of comparative freedom. If we do the same, we can see the extent to which the regime controlled their lives and cut them off from normal society. With one exception, they were required to move from the places where they had previously lived to prescribed addresses in a different area. These addresses were one bed-roomed flats where they lived alone. They were not allowed into the communal areas during the curfew hours.
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They were allowed one landline telephone apart from the dedicated line supplied by the monitoring company. They were not allowed access to the internet nor were they supplied with any other means of making their isolation more bearable. No one was to be allowed in at any time, apart from their own lawyers, the emergency services or healthcare or social work professionals in an emergency, and anyone required to be given access under the terms of the tenancy. They were also required to allow the police to enter and search at any time, to remove or inspect anything, and to install equipment to ensure compliance with the order. Any other visitor required the prior approval of the Home Office, which had to be supplied with the name, address, date of birth and a photograph. Not surprisingly, there had been few requests for approval. The cases against the controlled persons rested largely on their links with one another and with other people with links to known terrorist individuals or organisations. Who—apart from someone with a professional reason to do so or a close family member (and these people have no family here)—would want to be seen to be associating with them?
[61] Undoubtedly, these people were deprived of their liberty during the curfew hours. Did the fact that they were allowed out for up to six hours a day make any difference? The areas to which they were restricted consisted, save in one case, of large parts of some major cities, including parks, recreational facilities, libraries, shops, and healthcare services. They had the freedom to choose what to do and what to buy with the small allowances with which they were provided (mainly in vouchers). But that freedom was also severely curtailed. Without prior Home Office agreement, they were not allowed to meet anyone by prior arrangement, apart from their lawyers or health or welfare workers at an agreed establishment; nor were they allowed to attend any pre-arranged meetings or gatherings, apart from attending group prayers at a mosque. And the areas to which they were confined were deliberately designed to cut them off from their old haunts and acquaintances. Even supposing that the Home Office would have been willing to allow them to register for regular educational classes or group recreational activities, the hours of 10 am to 4 pm do not fit in with any ordinary pattern of morning, afternoon or evening activity. Nor, in practice, would those whose immigration status allowed them to work be able to seek even part-time employment.
[62] It is in this context that the judge talked of a ‘normal’ life. He was not starting from a normal life and seeing how far the control order regime differed from this. He was starting from the 18-hour curfew and assessing how far they were nonetheless able to pursue a normal life. The reality is that every aspect of their lives was severely controlled. They were allowed out each day to go for a long and solitary walk, to attend prayers at their nominated mosques, and to buy such limited supplies as they could afford. This would not prevent detention in a psychiatric hospital under the Mental Health Act 1983 from being a deprivation of liberty (see Ashingdane v UK (1985) 7 EHRR 528). It is not surprising that the judge concluded:
‘The respondents’ “concrete situation” is the antithesis of liberty, and is more akin to detention in an open prison, where the prisoner is “likely to be released from prison regularly in order to work, take town visits and temporary release on resettlement or facility licence” (see Creighton and others Prisoners and the Law (3rd edn) para 5.37).’
Indeed, in several respects a prisoner might be better off (see [74]).
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[63] In common with the Court of Appeal and with my noble and learned friends, Lord Bingham of Cornhill and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood, therefore, I consider that the judge applied the right test and, for what it is worth, reached a conclusion on the facts with which I would agree. It is necessary to focus on the actual lives these people were required by law to lead, how far they were confined to one place, how much they were cut off from society, how closely their lives were controlled. The judge was entitled to conclude that the concrete situation in which they found themselves did deprive them of their liberty within the meaning of art 5 of the convention. As such situations may be many and various I would hesitate to suggest, in the abstract, what length of curfew would fall on the other side of the line.
[64] As to remedy, the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 draws a clear and principled distinction between control orders which do, and control orders which do not, amount to a deprivation of liberty. It recognises that people should not be deprived of their liberty on the basis of reasonable suspicion alone: involvement in terrorist-related activity must be proved (see 2005 Act, s 4(7)(a)). It also recognises that only a court may deprive people of their liberty (see s 1(2)(b)). The Home Secretary has no power to make such an order. For the reasons given by Lord Bingham, the judge had no choice but to quash these orders. To his speech, I am merely the chorus. I too would dismiss these appeals.
LORD CARSWELL.
[65] My Lords, the tension between the opposing imperatives of protecting the safety of the public and protecting individual human rights has increased steadily in the past few years, and finding an acceptable resolution has grown progressively more difficult. The government has taken steps designed to discharge its duty of protecting the public against terrorism and these have been the subject of regular challenges by those adversely affected by them. Parliament is not free to legislate as it chooses in this sphere: its ability to do so is limited by the provisions of the Human Rights Act 1998 and the necessity for legislation to be compatible and steps taken to be compliant with the requirements of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act). The duty falls upon the courts of undertaking the difficult task of adjudicating upon that compatibility and compliance.
[66] The dangers to the public posed by terrorist action give rise to very serious concern, shared by all responsible citizens. The subjects of the present appeals are persons about whom the authorities possess information which, if correct, would mean that they pose a very significant potential danger to the safety of the public. In each case, notwithstanding the extent and nature of the information, the evidence capable of being adduced in criminal prosecutions is regarded as being insufficient to obtain convictions of criminal offences. They cannot be deported or extradited, because of the constraints of art 3 of the convention, as it is claimed that they would face torture or inhuman treatment if returned to their own countries. In order to meet this situation, Parliament, rather than leave them at large, enacted s 23 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001, providing for the detention of such persons despite the fact that their removal or departure from the United Kingdom was prevented. For this to be done there had to be a derogation from art 5(1)(f) of the convention, which was effected by the Human Rights Act 1998 (Designated Derogation) Order 2001, SI 2001/3644.
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[67] That expedient foundered when the House held in A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56, [2005] 3 All ER 169, [2005] 2 AC 68, on a challenge by some of the detained persons, that s 23 of the 2001 Act was discriminatory and disproportionate, with the consequence that it could not be regarded as strictly required for the purposes of art 15 of the convention (Rome, 4 November 1950; TS 71 (1953); Cmnd 8969), the derogation provision. The House accordingly declared s 23 to be incompatible with the convention rights under arts 5 and 14 and quashed the 2001 order.
[68] In consequence of this decision the government turned to the idea of keeping such terrorist suspects under supervision by means of control orders and Parliament brought them into effect by enacting the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005. Their object, as the long title of the Act states, is to impose obligations upon them ‘for purposes connected with preventing or restricting their further involvement’ in terrorism-related activity. They operate, as my noble and learned friend Lord Hoffmann has stated (at [34]) by making it easier for the security services to keep a close watch on what they are doing and inhibiting their participation in terrorist conspiracies. The material provisions of the 2005 Act and the content of the control orders in question have been set out in detail in the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill and I gratefully adopt these without repeating them.
[69] In the appeal to which this opinion relates, the issue argued was whether control orders constituted a deprivation of liberty and so a breach of art 5(1) of the convention. The word ‘liberty’ has a range of meanings. In a narrower sense it may mean physical freedom to move, so that deprivation of liberty would be physical incarceration or restraint. In a wider sense it may mean the freedom to behave as one chooses, for example, liberty of speech. For the reasons which I shall give, and in agreement with those set out by Lord Hoffmann, I am of opinion that in the phrase ‘deprived of his liberty’ in art 5(1) the word should be interpreted in the narrower sense which I have defined.
[70] Lord Hoffmann has pointed out, but I would emphasise it again, that the challenge to the control orders is being made only under art 5 of the convention and not under art 2 of the Fourth Protocol, which provides for the right to liberty of movement, since the United Kingdom has not ratified that Protocol. It is of great importance to draw a clear distinction between the two articles. The existence of art 2 of the Fourth Protocol shows in my opinion that the framers of this provision were conscious of the limited extent of art 5 of the convention and saw the need for a separate provision to cover restriction of movement. I think that its existence also supports the view that the ambit of art 5 should be kept clear and distinct from that of art 2 of the Fourth Protocol, and that there is no need or room for a purposive construction of art 5 which would extend it in the direction of applying to restrictions of movement.
[71] The Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) expressed the view in its judgment ([2006] EWCA Civ 1141 at [12], [13], [2007] QB 446 at [12], [13]) that Sullivan J in the Administrative Court correctly interpreted ‘liberty’ in accordance with the direction of the European Court of Human Rights in its judgment in Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 (to which I shall return in more detail later) and rejected Mr Sales’s contention on behalf of the Secretary of State that the learned judge had taken too broad a meaning and had considered the extent to which the restrictions contained in the control orders interfered with ‘normal life’. I am
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unable to agree with this view, and examination of the terms of the judgment of Sullivan J will show that he did just what Mr Sales attributed to him.
[72] Having summarised ([2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun)) some of the principles propounded in Guzzardi v Italy, the judge then said:
‘[54] The extent to which the individual is subject to supervision, the extent to which he can make social contacts, the extent to which he has access to public facilities, and whether he is free to make telephone calls or otherwise to communicate with whomsoever he wishes, are all aspects of a broader question: to what extent is the individual subject to the obligations able to lead a life of his choice, which for convenience may be described as a “normal” life? If one asks the question “deprived of liberty to do what?”, the answer must be: deprived of the freedom to lead one’s life as one chooses (within the law). That freedom is the antithesis of a life which is subject to the kinds of control to which a prisoner, whose “liberty to do anything is governed by the prison regime” is subject (see Hague v Deputy Governor of Parkhurst Prison, Weldon v Home Office [1991] 3 All ER 733 at 755, [1992] 1 AC 58 at 176 per Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle).’
He went on to refer (at [63]) to the extent to which the restrictions enabled the persons affected to ‘lead a “normal” life’. Again, he stated:
‘[77] In accordance with the principles established in Guzzardi v Italy, I have considered the cumulative impact of the obligations and therefore the extent to which they restrict the respondents’ liberty in the six hours when they are allowed out of their residences, as well as the effect of the 18-hour curfew and the obligations imposed on the respondents whilst they have to remain within their residences during that period. If I had to assess the impact of the obligations individually, I would consider that house arrest for 18 hours each day, even if it was the only obligation (apart from obligations such as reporting and tagging to ensure that it was strictly observed) would be more realistically described as a deprivation of liberty, and not as a restriction on liberty, if it prevented the individual from pursuing a normal “in at home/out at work” life cycle (cf Trijonis v Lithuania App No 2333/02 (17 March 2005, unreported)).’
[73] It seems to me abundantly clear that Sullivan J’s view of the case was governed by his comparison of the life led by the respondents in the case before him with a normal life. In this I consider that he was wrong. I think that the Court of Appeal also failed to consider the correct factors in upholding Sullivan J’s judgment, as appears from its judgment, where it refers with apparent approval ([2007] QB 446 at [14]) to his consideration of ‘the extent to which restrictions would prevent an individual from pursuing the life of his choice, whatever that choice might be’.
[74] Although many decisions of the European Court of Human Rights and the European Commission were cited to your Lordships, the only one which contained any sustained discussion of the governing principle was Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333. It was analysed repeatedly in counsel’s written submission and oral arguments, and your Lordships have all commented on it in greater or lesser detail. The principles discussed in it have been repeated and applied in subsequent Strasbourg cases, and the decision itself has been distinguished in several, but without critical analysis, and I think it of assistance now to make a further examination of the terms of the judgments.
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[75] Mr Guzzardi, as your Lordships have rehearsed, who was suspected (and later convicted) of serious Mafia-linked crimes, was, instead of being remanded in custody, sent to live under ‘special supervision’ on a portion of the small island of Asinara off Sardinia, most of which was occupied by a prison complex to which entry by persons under special supervision was forbidden. They had to live in the small hamlet of Cala Reale in somewhat primitive accommodation. They could not go to the neighbouring village of Cala d’Oliva and were effectively cut off from much human contact apart from persons in compulsory residence and those supervising them. He was subject to a curfew between 10 pm and 7 am, and a number of restrictions were placed on his activities and association with other people. The portion of the island to which he was confined, some 2·5 sq km in area, was described by Guzzardi himself as a pezzo or pezzetto di terra (a scrap of land) and he also described the island as a ‘veritable concentration camp’.
[76] The court considered the issue whether the case fell within art 5 at 362–364 of its judgment, much of which bears repetition in order to follow its reasoning:
‘92. The Court recalls that in proclaiming the “right to liberty”, paragraph 1 of Article 5 is contemplating the physical liberty of the person; its aim is to ensure that no one should be dispossessed of this liberty in an arbitrary fashion. As was pointed out by those appearing before the Court, the paragraph is not concerned with mere restrictions on liberty of movement; such restrictions are governed by Article 2 of Protocol No. 4 which has not been ratified by Italy. In order to determine whether someone has been “deprived of his liberty” within the meaning of Article 5, the starting point must be his concrete situation and account must be taken of a whole range of criteria such as the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the measure in question.
93. The difference between deprivation of and restriction upon liberty is nonetheless merely one of degree or intensity, and not one of nature or substance. Although the process of classification into one or other of these categories sometimes proves to be no easy task in that some borderline cases are a matter of pure opinion, the Court cannot avoid making the selection upon which the applicability or inapplicability of Article 5 depends.
94. As provided for under the 1956 Act (see paras. 48–49 above), special supervision accompanied by an order for compulsory residence in a specified district does not of itself come within the scope of Article 5. The Commission acknowledged this: it focused its attention on Mr. Guzzardi’s “actual position” at Cala Reale (see paras. 5, 94, 99, etc., of the report) and pointed out that on 5 October 1977 it had declared inadmissible application No. 7960/77 lodged by the same individual with regard to his living conditions at Force.
It does not follow that “deprivation of liberty” may never result from the manner of implementation of such a measure, and in the present case the manner of implementation is the sole issue that falls to be considered (see para. 88 above).
95. The Government’s reasoning (see para. 91 above) is not without weight. It demonstrates very clearly the extent of the difference between the applicant’s treatment on Asinara and classic detention in prison or strict arrest imposed on a serviceman. Deprivation of liberty may, however, take
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numerous other forms. Their variety is being increased by developments in legal standards and in attitudes; and the Convention is to be interpreted in the light of the notions currently prevailing in democratic States.
Whilst the area around which the applicant could move far exceeded the dimensions of a cell and was not bounded by any physical barrier, it covered no more than a tiny fraction of an island to which access was difficult and about nine-tenths of which was occupied by a prison. Mr. Guzzardi was housed in part of the hamlet of Cala Reale which consisted mainly of the buildings of a former medical establishment which were in a state of disrepair or even dilapidation, a carabinieri station, a school and a chapel. He lived there principally in the company of other persons subjected to the same measure and of policemen. The permanent population of Asinara resided almost entirely at Cala d’Oliva, which Mr. Guzzardi could not visit, and would appear to have made hardly any use of its right to go to Cala Reale. Consequently, there were few opportunities for social contacts available to the applicant other than with his near family, his fellow “residents” and the supervisory staff. Supervision was carried out strictly and on an almost constant basis. Thus, Mr. Guzzardi was not able to leave his dwelling between 10 p.m. and 7 a.m. without giving prior notification to the authorities in due time. He had to report to the authorities twice a day and inform them of the name and number of his correspondent whenever he wished to use the telephone. He needed the consent of the authorities for each of his trips to Sardinia or the mainland, trips which were rare and, understandably, made under the strict supervision of the carabinieri. He was liable to punishment by “arrest” if he failed to comply with any of his obligations. Finally, more than 16 months elapsed before his arrival at Cala Reale and his departure for Force (see paras. 11, 12, 21, 23–42 and 51 above).
It is admittedly not possible to speak of “deprivation of liberty” on the strength of any one of these factors taken individually, but cumulatively and in combination they certainly raise an issue of categorisation from the viewpoint of Article 5. In certain respects the treatment complained of resembles detention in an “open prison” or committal to a disciplinary unit . . .
The Court considers on balance that the present case is to be regarded as one involving deprivation of liberty.’
The reference to Force is to the fact that Guzzardi was transferred from Asinara to Force, which was a remote country district but did not have the unusual characteristics of Cala Reale on Asinara. He again challenged the order requiring him to live there, but the commission held in 1977 the application inadmissible. The concluding phrase of para 92, which is the sheet anchor of the appellant’s contention that art 5 applies, comes directly from Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 669–670 (para 59). It is argued that it entitles the court to look at the conditions of life of the person the subject of the control order, and if the restrictions give rise to a sufficiently fundamental alteration of his lifestyle the case may come within art 5.
[77] That this is a questionable assumption may be seen by comparing the dissenting opinion in Guzzardi v Italy of Judge Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice. Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice came to the conclusion that art 5 did not apply, but it is apparent he regarded the question as one of degree, and in his judgment the restrictions did not amount to deprivation of Guzzardi’s liberty. In posing the issue whether
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Guzzardi’s situation amounted to deprivation of liberty or was essentially in the nature of a restriction on freedom of movement and choice of residence, he stated (at 378 (para 5)) that this—
‘must in the long run remain a matter of appreciation and opinion, namely whether the conditions of the applicant’s existence on Asinara were sufficiently stringent to amount to a sort of imprisonment, even though a mild one as imprisonments go, or whether on the other hand, there was no more than a banishment accompanied by measures of confinement to house and grounds but, subject to that, without any restriction on movement within an area of at least a half-mile radius, or more according to some accounts. This could be argued about endlessly and either view is reasonably maintainable—for the issue is essentially one of degree.’
[78] Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice went on to contrast art 5 with art 2(1) of the Fourth Protocol. He drew certain deductions (at 378–379 (para 6)):
‘(a) The existence of this provision [art 2 of the Fourth Protocol] shows either that those who originally framed the Convention on Human Rights did not contemplate that its Article 5 should go beyond preventing actual deprivation of liberty, or to extend to mere restrictions on freedom of movement or choice of residence; or else that the Governments of the Council of Europe did not see Article 5 as covering measures of “deprivation of liberty” where the basic character of those measures consisted primarily of restrictions on movement and place of residence, or they would not have considered it necessary to draw up a separate Protocol about that. The resulting picture is that Article 5 of the Convention guaranteed the individual against illegitimate imprisonment, or confinement so close as to amount to the same thing—in sum against deprivation of liberty stricto sensu—but it afforded no guarantee against restrictions (on movement or place of residence) falling short of that. The latter was effected only by the Protocol, so that in those countries (of which Italy is one) that have not ratified it, such restrictions are not prohibited.
(b) It follows that if Article 5 of the Convention is not to impinge on ground intended to be covered by Article 2 of the Protocol, and is not to do double duty with the latter, it (Art. 5) must be interpreted strictly and regarded as limited to cases of actual imprisonment or to detention close and strict enough to approximate to a virtually complete deprivation of liberty. This was certainly not the situation in regard to the applicant in the present case.
(c) If Article 5 of the Convention were to be interpreted so widely as to include instances of what was basically restriction on freedom of movement or choice of residence, then not only would Article 2 of the Protocol be rendered otiose, but an indirect means would be afforded of making Governments subject to the obligations of the latter, despite the fact that they had not ratified the Protocol. This could not have been intended, but it is a possibility that can only be avoided by a strict interpretation of Article 5 that confines it to its proper sphere.’
In so defining deprivation of liberty for the purposes of art 5 I do not understand Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice to have been taking issue with the majority of the court on the principles to be applied; rather he differed from them on the application to the instant case of those principles. What he stated seems to me to be consistent
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with a proper interpretation of the majority judgment and to furnish a clear analysis of the ambit of the article.
[79] The key in both judgments to the meaning of deprivation of liberty is, I think, to be found in the majority’s comparison of Guzzardi’s situation with detention in an open prison or committal to a disciplinary unit and in Sir Gerald Fitzmaurice’s phrase ‘illegitimate imprisonment, or confinement so close as to amount to the same thing’. It was in this context that the court referred to taking account of ‘a whole range of criteria such as the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the measure in question’. In saying this the court was in my view doing no more than recognising that the situations in which a person may be confined or restricted may vary in many ways from the archetypical case of imprisonment in a cell, but still amount to deprivation of liberty. To take the phrase out its context and use it to reach the conclusion that a variety of restrictions which prevent the person from enjoying a normal life is not in my opinion legitimate.
[80] Guzzardi v Italy has been applied or distinguished in a number of later cases before the European Court of Human Rights or the European Commission, but, as I have said, in none of them is there any analysis which would give real assistance in determining the proper ambit of deprivation of liberty. In one line of house arrest cases, represented by NC v Italy [2002] ECHR 24952/94, Mancini v Italy App No 44955/98 (2 August 2001, unreported), Vachev v Bulgaria [2004] ECHR 42987/98, Nikolova v Bulgaria (No 2) [2004] 40896/98 and Pekov v Bulgaria [2006] ECHR 50358/99, it was held that confinement to the subject’s house constituted a deprivation of liberty. It did not matter that the supervision of the confinement may have been so lax, as was claimed in Pekov v Bulgaria, that the applicant could in fact leave his house with impunity.
[81] On the other side of the line were a series of cases of compulsory residence imposed by orders made by the Italian government, in each of which the commission or the court rejected the complaints (see Ciancimino v Italy (1991) 70 DR 103, Raimondo v Italy (1994) 18 EHRR 237 and Labita v Italy [2000] ECHR 26772/95). In these cases the Strasbourg organs looked at the restrictions, contrasted them with those in Guzzardi v Italy, and concluded that they did not amount to deprivation of liberty. In Labita v Italy the applicant did not allege a breach of art 5(1), and the Grand Chamber concentrated on art 2 of the Fourth Protocol.
[82] A case on which counsel for the Secretary of State placed some reliance was Trijonis v Lithuania App No 2333/02 (17 March 2005, unreported). The applicant was permitted to attend his place of work during the week, but was subject on those days to a curfew between 7 pm and 7 am, while he was obliged to remain in his house during the whole of each weekend. The court briefly contrasted the case with that of Guzzardi v Italy and held that there was not a deprivation of liberty, going on to consider art 2 of the Fourth Protocol.
[83] It is to my mind notable that the assiduity of counsel has not brought before the House any case in which the European Court of Human Rights has held on facts at all comparable with those of the present appeals that there was a deprivation of liberty. If nothing more, this should make your Lordships feel the need to exercise some caution lest they depart from the current of the Strasbourg case law (see R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26 at [20], [2004] 3 All ER 785 at [20], [2004] 2 AC 323 per Lord Bingham of Cornhill). Similar caution is required in recourse to the facts of individual Strasbourg cases and their use as factual precedents (see
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R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2006] UKHL 12 at [23], [2006] 4 All ER 1041 at [23], [2006] 2 AC 307 per Lord Bingham), a tendency which does appear in the judgments of the courts below in these appeals. In the absence of any subsequent exposition of principle in the case law, Guzzardi v Italy remains the fount, and for the reasons I have given I do not think that it supports the conclusions which have been drawn from it.
[84] I accordingly consider that Sullivan J and the Court of Appeal did not approach the meaning of deprivation of liberty in the proper fashion, and I would allow the appeal of the Secretary of State in these cases. I am conscious of the concern which some of your Lordships have felt about the effect of a curfew as long as 18 hours per day, and I would not dismiss that concern lightly. I conclude, however, that on balance even that very long curfew does not take the cases over the line of deprivation of liberty. I am not disposed to enter into discussion of the length of time which would take a case over that line. A great deal depends on the overall factual matrix of any given case. Moreover, I feel that the House ought to focus more on the principles to be followed than in giving detailed directions.
[85] These conclusions make it unnecessary to decide on the question of remedy, but since the issue was fully argued before the House I should perhaps express a very brief view on it. The court is empowered by s 3(12) of the 2005 Act to quash one or more of the obligations imposed by the Secretary of State’s order. The detailed nature of the obligations in a typical control order may be seen from the summary of the order made in respect of LL contained at para [33] of Lord Hoffmann’s opinion. I incline to the view that the power to quash obligations is intended to cover a case where the court takes the view that the control order is justified but one of the fairly peripheral obligations is not, eg if one of the five individuals named in the non-association obligation numbered (7) in LL’s case was wrongly included. If, however, the court applying the proper test concludes that the control order constitutes a deprivation of liberty because it is in essence comparable to imprisonment, then I would agree with the conclusion reached by Lord Bingham that it can and should quash the order, leaving the Secretary of State to reconsider the case.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[86] My Lords, control orders are highly contentious. Many think them essential as a means of providing some protection at least against suspected terrorists, the very minimum which government should do in fulfilment of its undoubted obligation to safeguard public security. Others abhor the whole notion of preventive action against people not even to be charged with a criminal offence and question whether the control order regime, like internment in the past, does not create more terrorists than it disables. That, however, is a debate for the House in its legislative capacity, not for your Lordships in the Appellate Committee. Rather your Lordships have to decide certain very different questions as to the legality of the control order regime, and in particular its compatibility with the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998).
[87] Between them the four appeals now before the House raise a number of different issues (see Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642, Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB, Secretary of State for the Home Dept v AF [2007] UKHL 46, [2008] 1 All ER 657, [2007] 3 WLR
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681 and Secretary of State for the Home Dept v E [2007] UKHL 47, [2008] 1 All ER 699, [2007] 3 WLR 720). Paramount amongst them, however, and lying at the very heart of this appeal (JJ and others), is the contention that control orders which impose, as these six control orders did, 18-hour curfews necessarily involve a deprivation of liberty contrary to art 5 of the convention. That contention succeeded before the Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) ([2006] EWCA CIv 1141, [2007] QB 446). The Secretary of State now appeals.
[88] The facts of the appeal I gratefully take from the judgment below. Each of the respondents is a single man. Five are Iraqi nationals who have claimed asylum. They were arrested under the Terrorism Act 2000, released without charge, and then re-detained under immigration powers on notice of intention to deport on national security grounds. There is a dispute as to whether the sixth, LL (who has since absconded and is now believed to be overseas), is an Iranian or an Iraqi national. He too was detained pending deportation on national security grounds. All deportation proceedings were discontinued on the making of the control orders.
[89] The obligations imposed by the control orders are essentially identical in all six cases. Each respondent is required to remain within his ‘residence’ at all times, save for a period of six hours between 10 am and 4 pm. In the case of GG the specified residence is a one-bedroom flat provided by the local authority in which he lived before his detention. In the case of the other five respondents the specified residences are one-bedroom flats provided by the National Asylum Support Service. During the curfew period the respondents are confined in their small flats and are not even allowed into the common parts of the buildings in which these flats are situated. Visitors must be authorised by the Home Office, to which name, address, date of birth and photographic identity must be supplied. The residences are subject to spot searches by the police. During the six hours when they are permitted to leave their residences, the respondents are confined to restricted urban areas, the largest of which is 72 sq km. These deliberately do not extend, save in the case of GG, to any area in which they lived before. Each area contains a mosque, a hospital, primary healthcare facilities, shops and entertainment and sporting facilities. The respondents are prohibited from meeting anyone by pre-arrangement who has not been given the same Home Office clearance as a visitor to the residence.
[90] The Strasbourg jurisprudence makes plain that the art 5 concept of deprivation of liberty is autonomous and that the court’s task in cases like this is to decide whether the restrictions in question amount to a deprivation of liberty within art 5 or merely to a restriction upon liberty of movement within art 2 of the Fourth Protocol (a Protocol not in fact ratified by the United Kingdom). Deprivation of liberty can only ever be justified if brought within one of paragraphs (a)–(f) of art 5(1)—none of which are available in the present type of case notwithstanding that the judge may well conclude both that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting the person concerned to be or have been involved in terrorist-related activity and that it is necessary to make this restrictive a control order to protect the public from a risk of terrorism. Restriction of movement, on the other hand, can be justified in the public interest under art 2(4) of the Fourth Protocol.
[91] That, then, is the court’s task: to decide into which category the case falls and, as was made plain by the European Court of Human Rights in Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 363—still the leading Strasbourg authority on the
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point—the distinction between the two categories is one of degree or intensity, not of kind:
‘93. The difference between deprivation of and restriction upon liberty is nonetheless merely one of degree or intensity, and not one of nature or substance. Although the process of classification into one or other of these categories sometimes proves to be no easy task in that some borderline cases are a matter of pure opinion, the Court cannot avoid making the selection upon which the applicability or inapplicability of Article 5 depends.’
[92] The Court of Appeal (agreeing with Sullivan J at first instance [2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun)) concluded ([2007] QB 446 at [23]) that ‘the facts of this case fall clearly on the wrong side of the dividing line’. Was the Court of Appeal right in that conclusion? That is the critical question.
[93] Before seeking further assistance from Guzzardi v Italy, it is worth noting one earlier Strasbourg authority, Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647. Engel v Netherlands was concerned with disciplinary measures against members of the armed forces and considered four measures in particular: in ascending order of severity, (a) light arrest involving confinement to military buildings or premises or the serviceman’s dwelling during off-duty hours, (b) aggravated arrest involving the serviceman spending his off-duty hours in a specially designated place and being unable to visit the canteen, cinema or recreation rooms, (c) strict arrest during which the serviceman was locked in a cell both by day and by night for up to 14 days and so unable to perform his normal duties, and (d) committal to a disciplinary unit unable to leave for upwards of a month. Only (c) and (d) were held to involve the deprivation of liberty. The court said (at 669 (para 58) that art 5 ‘is contemplating individual liberty in its classic sense, that is to say the physical liberty of the person. Its aim is to ensure that no one should be dispossessed of this liberty in an arbitrary fashion.' Because, however, of ‘the specific demands of military service’, the court held (at 669 (para 59)) that:
‘The bounds that Article 5 requires the State not to exceed are not identical for servicemen and civilians. A disciplinary penalty or measure which on analysis would unquestionably be deemed a deprivation of liberty were it to be applied to a civilian may not possess this characteristic when imposed upon a serviceman.’
It appears to follow that the court contemplated that the imposition of measures akin to (a) or (b) upon a civilian might well constitute a deprivation of liberty although account would always have to be taken of ‘a whole range of factors such as the nature, duration, effects and manner of execution of the penalty or measure in question’.
[94] Guzzardi v Italy concerned the confinement of a Mafia suspect for over 16 months within a 2·5 sq km area (a corner of Asinara island) reserved for persons in compulsory residence, subject to a nine-hour (10 pm to 7 am) curfew and almost permanent supervision and with only limited opportunities for social contact. Concluding ‘on balance’ by a majority of 11 to 7 that Mr Guzzardi was deprived of his liberty, the court said ((1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 363–364 (para 95)):
‘It is admittedly not possible to speak of “deprivation of liberty” on the strength of any one of these factors [the constricting circumstances of his confinement] taken individually, but cumulatively and in combination they certainly raise an issue of categorisation from the viewpoint of Article 5. In
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certain respects the treatment complained of resembles detention in an “open prison” or committal to a disciplinary unit.’
It is important to understand, however, that the court was not there holding that only treatment resembling detention in an open prison or committal to a disciplinary unit can amount to deprivation of liberty. On the contrary, notwithstanding its recognition that there were clear differences between Mr Guzzardi’s treatment and ‘classic detention in prison or strict arrest imposed on a serviceman’—most notably that for 15 hours a day he was free to leave and return to his dwelling as he wished, that his wife and son lived with him for 14 of the 16 months of his confinement, ‘the inviolability of his home and of the intimacy of his family life, two rights that the Convention guaranteed solely to free people’, and with regard to ‘his social relations’—the court nevertheless continued:
‘Deprivation of liberty may, however, take numerous other forms. Their variety is being increased by developments in legal standards and in attitudes; and the Convention is to be interpreted in the light of the notions currently prevailing in democratic States.’
The court also echoed (at 362–363 (para 92)) what had been said in Engel v Netherlands as to the focus of art 5 being on ‘physical liberty’ and—
‘the starting point [being the applicant’s] concrete situation and account must be taken of a whole range of criteria such as the type, duration, effects and manner of implementation of the measure in question.’
[95] By ‘manner of implementation of the measure in question’, the Court indicated (at 363 (para 94)), as indeed was already apparent from para 88, that it was concerned not with the Italian legislation authorising Mr Guzzardi’s confinement but rather with his ‘actual position’ during it.
[96] Guzzardi v Italy, of course, was decided over a quarter of a century ago. But subsequent cases, whilst establishing certain parameters beyond which it is now clear one way or the other whether art 5 applies, afford little additional assistance. The borderline between deprivation of liberty and restriction upon liberty remains indistinct and around it decisions necessarily remain ‘a matter of pure opinion’.
[97] One parameter is represented by a series of Italian Mafia cases where the applicants were subject to internal exile regimes much like Mr Guzzardi’s but in larger areas and communities than Mr Guzzardi on Asinara. One such case, indeed, was that of Mr Guzzardi himself when, after Asinara, he was required to live in the small, remote mainland district of Force. Other such cases are Ciancimino v Italy (1991) 70 DR 103, Raimondo v Italy (1994) 18 EHRR 237 and Labita v Italy [2000] ECHR 26772/95. All involved curfews of between nine and eleven hours. All (save Labita v Italy where no art 5 complaint was even made) were summarily ruled inadmissible either by the commission or the court. So too was Trijonis v Lithuania App No 2333/02 (17 March 2005, unreported) where for 16 months the applicant was subject to a 12-hour nightly curfew during weekdays and an entire weekend curfew (60 hours from 7 pm Friday to 7 am Monday). He, however, lived in his own house (which was inviolable) and was free from all restraints outside his home and so was able, midweek, to work or meet people as he wished.
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[98] The other end of the spectrum is represented by the ‘house arrest’ cases in which the respective applicants were required (sometimes as a ‘less restrictive’ measure than pre-trial detention) to remain at home at all times save by prior permission of the authorities. These cases include NC v Italy [2002] ECHR 24952/94, Mancini v Italy App No 44955/98 (2 August 2001, unreported), Vachev v Bulgaria [2004] ECHR 42987/98, Nikolova v Bulgaria (No 2) [2004] 40896/98 and Pekov v Bulgaria [2006] ECHR 50358/99. All were accepted or held to involve a deprivation of liberty. In Pekov v Bulgaria the government had argued that because in fact the applicant could have left his house with impunity (the monitoring authorities being based elsewhere) he was not deprived of his liberty. Unsurprisingly the argument failed.
[99] Plainly the present cases fall comfortably within the wide spectrum between those parameters. These 18-hour curfews (not to mention the additional constraints placed upon the respondents whether at home or away from it) are substantially more restrictive than those imposed in the Italian Mafia cases, or even those imposed in Trijonis v Lithuania. But they certainly do not amount to around-the-clock house arrest.
[100] Nor is the direct comparison with the facts of Guzzardi v Italy (itself plainly a borderline case) especially helpful. In certain respects the respondents have greater physical liberty than Mr Guzzardi on Asinara: in the non-curfew period they can move around in a larger area with greater facilities and a better opportunity of meeting people (subject, of course, to clearance). But in other respects they have less physical liberty, most notably in their confinement to their small flats for all but six hours a day.
[101] My noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill warned in R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2006] UKHL 12 at [23], [2006] 4 All ER 1041 at [23], [2006] 2 AC 307, of the dangers of attempting to apply Strasbourg judgments as factual precedents: ‘The Strasbourg jurisprudence is closely focused on the facts of particular cases, and this makes it perilous to transpose the outcome of one case to another where the facts are different.' The warning is salutary. To my mind no real assistance here can be gained from other such very different cases as X v Austria (1979) 18 DR 154 (forcible submission to a blood test), X v Federal Republic of Germany (1981) 24 DR 158 (a ten-year-old girl’s detention for two hours in a police station for questioning) and Bozano v France (1986) 9 EHRR 297 (enforced travel by car for some 12 hours handcuffed to policemen for several hundred kilometres to the Swiss border).
[102] Ultimately, therefore, these appeals fall to be decided as ‘a matter of pure opinion’ with little further guidance than that deprivation of liberty is concerned with ‘physical liberty’, that it can take ‘numerous other forms’, (other, that is, than ‘classic detention in prison or strict arrest imposed on a serviceman’), and that it is to be distinguished from mere restriction upon liberty as a question of ‘degree or intensity’, starting with the applicants’ ‘concrete situation’ and then by reference to ‘a whole range of criteria such as the type, duration [and] effects’ of that situation.
[103] Plainly there must come a point at which a daily curfew (itself clearly a restriction upon liberty of movement) shades into a regime akin to house arrest, where so little genuine freedom is left that the line is crossed into deprivation of liberty. The Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 itself recognises that control orders could be made that are so onerous as to cross that line and require derogation from art 5—and it recognises too that physical liberty is so important a freedom that not only must there then be derogation but also a substantially
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higher threshold for the imposition of such deprivation: proof that the person concerned actually is or has been involved in terrorist-related activity, rather merely than that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting this.
[104] At what point, then, is the line crossed? The question plainly is one for the courts, not for the Secretary of State. She understandably wants to impose in these cases the longest curfews consistent with non-derogation—doubtless to reduce so far as possible the need for surveillance (a scarce and now presumably over-stretched resource) and the suspects’ opportunity to engage in terrorist-related activity. She contends for 18 hours. But there is no particular logic in this. Why not 20 hours, or 22? No useful comparison can be made with actual imprisonment. Indeed, conditions of imprisonment vary hugely. Some of those in open prisons daily go out to work unsupervised.
[105] Taking account of all the other conditions and circumstances of these control orders—broadly similar not only in these six cases but in the other cases heard with them—and not least the length of time for which they are imposed, I have reached the clear conclusion that 18-hour curfews are simply too long to be consistent with the retention of physical liberty. In my opinion they breach art 5. I am equally clear, however, that 12 or 14-hour curfews (those at issue in two of the related appeals before the House) are consistent with physical liberty. Indeed, I would go further and, rather than leave the Secretary of State guessing as to the precise point at which control orders will be held vulnerable to art 5 challenges, state that for my part I would regard the acceptable limit to be 16 hours, leaving the suspect with eight hours (admittedly in various respects controlled) liberty a day. Such a regime, in my opinion, can and should properly be characterised as one which restricts the suspect’s liberty of movement rather than actually deprives him of his liberty. That, however, should be regarded as the absolute limit. Permanent home confinement beyond 16 hours a day on a long-term basis necessarily to my mind involves the deprivation of physical liberty. And, although naturally I recognise that this cannot be the touchstone for the distinction, I think that any curfew regime exceeding 16 hours really ought not to be imposed unless the court can be satisfied of the suspect’s actual involvement in terrorism, the higher threshold that would apply to the making of a derogating control order.
[106] I would add just this. I have given anxious thought to what Lord Bingham said in R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26, [2004] 3 All ER 785, [2004] 2 AC 323 at [20] about not construing the convention as conferring greater rights than the Strasbourg jurisprudence itself establishes—something upon which, indeed, I myself commented in R (on the application of Al-Skeini) v Secretary of State for Defence [2007] UKHL 26 at [105]–[106], [2007] 3 All ER 685 at [105]–[106], [2007] 3 WLR 33. But whereas the issue in Al-Skeini’s case was as to the reach of art 1 itself—an issue to which the European Court of Human Rights in Bankovic v Belgium (2001) 11 BHRC 435 at 449–450 (paras 64, 65) had made plain that the ‘living instrument’ approach does not apply—here by contrast the court recognised in Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333 at 363–364 (para 95) in the passage already quoted at [94], above that developing legal standards and attitudes will further increase the variety of forms of deprivation of liberty. I think that nowadays a longer curfew regime than 16 hours a day (with the additional restraints imposed in these cases) would surely be classified in Strasbourg as a deprivation of liberty. It may be, indeed, that 16 hours itself is too long. I would, however, leave it to the Strasbourg court to decide upon that,
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were any such argument to be addressed to it. (The government itself, of course, cannot complain to Strasbourg about adverse decisions of your Lordships’ House.)
[107] Finally I would say this. The borderline between deprivation of liberty and restriction of liberty of movement cannot vary according to the particular interests sought to be served by the restraints imposed. The siren voices urging that it be shifted to accommodate today’s need to combat terrorism (or even that it be drawn with such need in mind) must be firmly resisted. Article 5 represents a fundamental value and is absolute in its terms. Liberty is too precious a right to be discarded except in times of genuine national emergency. None is suggested here.
[108] Since writing the paragraphs set out above I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinions of each of the other members of the committee. Despite the explicit reluctance of several of your Lordships to suggest the point at which curfews would, by virtue of their length, involve the deprivation of liberty, I remain unrepentant for doing so. I recognise, of course, that ‘situations may be many and various’ (Baroness Hale of Richmond at [63]), that ‘the overall factual matrix’ is important (Lord Carswell at [84]) and that the decision whether or not a particular non-derogating control order involves a deprivation of liberty is one for the judge, appealable only for error of law. As mentioned, however, the other conditions and circumstances of these six control orders (and, indeed, those under consideration in the related appeals) are all broadly similar and, as Lord Bingham points out at para [11] of his opinion in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v E [2008] 1 All ER 699, [2007] 3 WLR 720, what principally must be focused on is the extent to which the suspect is ‘actually confined’: ‘other restrictions (important as they may be in some cases) are ancillary’ and ‘[can] not of themselves effect a deprivation of liberty if the core element of confinement . . . is insufficiently stringent’. Just so that there is no mistake about it, my view is that, taking account of the conditions and circumstances in all these various control order cases, provided the ‘core element of confinement’ does not exceed 16 hours a day, it is ‘insufficiently stringent’ as a matter of law to effect a deprivation of liberty. Beyond 16 hours, however, liberty is lost.
[109] It follows that I respectfully agree with Lord Bingham and Baroness Hale that in JJ’s appeal Sullivan J and the Court of Appeal were right to hold that these six control orders involved a deprivation of liberty having regard to their ‘type, duration, effects and manner of implementation’. That being so, I respectfully agree also (with each of your Lordships save for Lord Hoffmann, and for the reasons given by Lord Bingham) that there was no alternative here but to quash the orders in their entirety rather than strike down part of them only or direct their modification by the Secretary of State.
[110] Accordingly I too would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Secretary of State for the Home Department v MB;
Secretary of State for the Home Department v AF
[2008] 1 All ER 657
[2007] UKHL 46
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: HUMAN RIGHTS; Fair Trial
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD HOFFMANN, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 5, 9, 10–13 JULY, 31 OCTOBER 2007
Human rights – Right to a fair hearing – Prevention of terrorism – Control order – Secretary of State making non-derogating control orders against individuals suspected of involvement in terrorism-related activity – Basis of Secretary of State’s reasonable suspicion of involvement in terrorism-related activity contained in closed material – Closed material disclosed to special advocates – Whether procedure compatible with right to fair hearing – Whether non-derogating control order constituting criminal charge for purpose of right to a fair hearing – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 6(1) – Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, s 3, Sch, para 4 – CPR Pt 76.
The Secretary of State applied to the court under s 3(1)(a)a of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 for permission to make a non-derogating control order against MB. The Schedule to the 2005 Act provided a rule-making power applicable to both derogating and non-derogating control orders. It required the rule-making authority to have regard in particular to the need to ensure that disclosures of information were not made where they would be contrary to the public interest. Under para 4(2)(a)b rules could make provision enabling control order proceedings to take place without full particulars of the reasons for decisions to which the proceedings related being given to a relevant party to the proceedings or his legal representative. Provision could be made enabling the relevant court to conduct proceedings in the absence of any person, including a relevant party to the proceedings and his legal representative. The Secretary of State was required to disclose all relevant material but could apply to the court for permission not to do so. Such an application was to be heard in the absence of every relevant person and his legal representative and para 4(3)(d) provided that the court had to give permission for material not to be disclosed where it considered that the disclosure of the material would be contrary to the public
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interest. The court had to consider requiring the Secretary of State to provide the relevant party and his legal representative with a summary of the withheld material but had to ensure that such summary did not contain information or other material the disclosure of which would be contrary to the public interest. If the Secretary of State elected not to disclose or summarise material which he was required to disclose or summarise, the court could give directions ensuring that the material was not relied on. CPR Pt 76 gave effect to the procedural scheme authorised by the Schedule to the 2005 Act. It modified the overriding objective of the rules so as to require a court to ensure that information was not disclosed contrary to the public interest. The Secretary of State’s application relating to MB was supported by open material, which included the statement that the Security Service was confident that MB intended to go to Iraq to fight and against coalition forces, and closed material. She applied to withhold the closed material. Permission was granted and the order was made. The special advocate appointed to represent MB’s interests did not challenge the Secretary of State’s application to withhold the closed material and accepted that it would not be possible to serve a summary which would not contain information or material the disclosure of which would be contrary to the public interest. At the required High Court hearing the judge recorded the description by counsel for the Secretary of State of his open case as ‘relatively thin’ and noted that the basis for the confidence of the Security Service was wholly contained within the closed material. He concluded that MB had not had a fair trial and declared s 3 of the 2005 Act to be incompatible with MB’s right to a fair hearing under art 6(1)c of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). The control order was maintained in force. On appeal the Court of Appeal set aside the declaration of incompatibility. MB appealed to the House of Lords. AF was also the subject of a non-derogating control order in circumstances involving closed material and the use of a special advocate. The open material disclosed to AF did not give grounds for reasonable suspicion by the Secretary of State that AF was or had been involved in terrorism-related activity. At the High Court hearing the judge quashed the order but dismissed AF’s application for a declaration of incompatibility. He granted a certificate permitting both parties to appeal directly to the House of Lords identifying issues for the House which included: (i) whether the obligations imposed on AF by the control order amounted to a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1) of the convention; (ii) whether a non-derogating control order constituted a criminal charge for the purposes of art 6 of the convention; and (iii) whether the procedures provided for by s 3 of the 2005 Act and the rules of court were compatible with art 6(1) of the convention in circumstances where they had resulted in the case made against an individual being in its essence entirely undisclosed to him and in no specific allegation of terrorism-related activity being contained in open material. The judge had decided issue (i) in favour of AF and issues (ii) and (iii) in favour of the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State appealed and AF cross-appealed.
Held – The appeal of MB and the cross-appeal of AF would be dismissed, the appeal of the Secretary of State in AF’s case would be allowed and both cases would be remitted to the High Court for reconsideration for the following reasons.
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(1) The effect of the control order had not been to deprive AF of his liberty in breach of art 5 of the convention (see [9], [11], [47], [56], [78], [89], below); Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2008] 1 All ER 613 applied.
(2) Non-derogating control order proceedings did not involve the determination of a criminal charge for the purposes of art 6(1) of the convention. The language of art 6(1) was to be given an autonomous convention meaning applicable in all member states whatever their domestic laws provided. The proceedings were classified as civil in domestic law but the concern of the European Court of Human Rights was to ascertain whether a proceeding was civil or criminal in substance. Parliament had gone to some lengths to avoid a procedure which crossed the criminal boundary; a foundation of suspicion was required but there was no assertion of criminal conduct; no identification of any specific criminal offence was provided for; the order made was preventative in purpose, not punitive or retributive; and the obligations imposed had to be no more restrictive than were judged necessary to achieve the preventative object of the order. The application of the civil limb of art 6(1), however, entitled persons against whom control orders were proposed or made to such measure of procedural protection as was commensurate with the gravity of the potential consequences (see [19]–[24], [48], [49], [56], [79], [90], below).
(3) (Per Lord Bingham of Cornhill, Baroness Hale of Richmond, Lord Carswell and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood) The Court of Human Rights had stated that that the constituent rights embodied in art 6(1) of the convention were not in themselves absolute; it had been sensitive to the special problems posed to national security by terrorism and had recognised the need for a fair balance between the general interest of the community and the rights of the individual. But even in cases where art 6(1) had not been in issue, the court had required that the subject of a potentially adverse decision enjoy a substantial measure or degree of procedural justice. The engagement of special advocates in cases such as the instant cases could help enhance the measure of procedural justice available to a controlled person. The task of the court was, looking at the process as a whole, to decide whether a procedure had been used which involved significant injustice to the controlled person. However, the concept of fairness imported a core, irreducible minimum of procedural protection. In the case of MB the control order could not have been justified on the strength of the open material alone and the thrust of the case against MB had not been effectively conveyed to him by summary, redacted documents or anonymised statements. He had been confronted by a bare unsubstantiated assertion which he could do no more than deny. In the case of AF the essence of the Secretary of State’s case had been in the closed material and AF had not known what the case against him was. If, despite all the efforts of the judge and the special advocates to ensure that there was a fair hearing, the judge determined that the hearing could not be fair unless more material is disclosed, the convention rights require that he be in a position to quash it. Paragraph 4(3)(d) of the Schedule to the 2005 Act should therefore be read and given effect except where to do so would be incompatible with the right of the controlled person to a fair trial. Paragraph 4(2)(a) and CPR Pt 76 would have to be read in the same way (see [32], [34], [35], [39]–[44], [65], [66], [68]–[76], [83]–[87], [90]–[93], below); Roberts v Parole Board [2006] 1 All ER 39, R (on the application of Hammond) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] 1 All ER 219 applied; Jasper v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 441, Fitt v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 480 considered.
(4) (Per Lord Hoffmann) In principle the special advocate procedure provided sufficient safeguards to satisfy art 6 of the convention (see [54], below).
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Notes
For the right to a fair trial, for civil proceedings, for criminal charges and for what constitutes a fair hearing, see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 134–137, and for the power to make control orders, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 454.
For the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, s 3, Sch, para 4, see 12(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 1856, 1882.
Cases referred to in opinions
A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (No 2) [2005] UKHL 71, [2006] 1 All ER 575, [2006] 2 AC 221.
A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56, [2005] 3 All ER 169, [2005] 2 AC 68, [2005] 2 WLR 87; rvsg [2002] EWCA Civ 1502, [2003] 1 All ER 816, [2004] QB 335, [2003] 2 WLR 564; rvsg [2002] HRLR 1274, SIAC.
Albert v Belgium (1983) 5 EHRR 533, [1983] ECHR 7299/75, ECt HR.
Al-Nashif v Bulgaria (2002) 36 EHRR 655, [2002] ECHR 50963/99, ECt HR.
Arcuri v Italy App No 52024/99 (5 July 2001, unreported), ECt HR.
Atlan v UK (2001) 34 EHRR 833, [2001] ECHR 36533/97, ECt HR.
B v Chief Constable of Avon and Somerset Constabulary [2001] 1 All ER 562, [2001] 1 WLR 340, DC.
Bendenoun v France (1994) 18 EHRR 54, [1994] ECHR 12547/86, ECt HR.
Benham v UK (1996) 22 EHRR 293, [1996] ECHR 19380/92, ECt HR.
Botmeh v UK [2007] All ER (D) 40 (Jun), ECt HR.
Brown v Stott (Procurator Fiscal, Dunfermline) [2001] 2 All ER 97, [2003] 1 AC 681, [2001] 2 WLR 817, PC.
Campbell v UK (1984) 7 EHRR 165, [1984] ECHR 7819/77, ECt HR.
Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405, ECt HR.
Charkaoui v Minister of Citizenship and Immigration 2007 SCC 9, [2007] 5 LRC 95, Can SC.
Ciulla v Italy (1989) 13 EHRR 346, [1989] ECHR 11152/84, ECt HR.
Customs and Excise Comrs v City of London Magistrates’ Court [2000] 4 All ER 763, [2000] 1 WLR 2020, DC.
D (minors) (adoption reports: confidentiality), Re [1995] 4 All ER 385, [1996] AC 593, [1995] 3 WLR 483, HL.
Demicoli v Malta (1991) 14 EHRR 47, [1991] ECHR 13057/87, ECt HR.
Dowsett v UK [2003] All ER (D) 307 (Jun), ECt HR.
DS v HM Advocate [2007] UKPC 36, [2007] 5 LRC 563, 2007 SC (PC) 1.
Edwards v UK (2004) 40 EHRR 593, ECt HR.
Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647, [1976] ECHR 5100/71, ECt HR.
Feldbrugge v Netherlands (1986) 8 EHRR 425, [1986] ECHR 8562/79, ECt HR.
Fitt v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 480, [2000] ECHR 29777/96, ECt HR.
Garcia Alva v Germany (2001) 37 EHRR 335, [2001] ECHR 23541/94, ECt HR.
Garyfallou AEBE v Greece (1997) 28 EHRR 344, [1997] ECHR 18996/91, ECt HR.
Gough v Chief Constable of the Derbyshire Constabulary [2002] EWCA Civ 351, [2002] 2 All ER 985, [2002] QB 1213, [2002] 3 WLR 289.
Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333, [1980] ECHR 7367/76, ECt HR.
Hamdi v Rumsfeld (2004) 542 US 507, US SC.
Han v Comrs of Customs and Excise, Martins v Comrs of Custom and Excise, Morris v Comrs of Customs and Excise [2001] EWCA Civ 1040, [2001] 4 All ER 687, [2001] 1 WLR 2253.
Page 661 of [2008] 1 All ER 657
Harkat, Re (2004) 125 CRR (2d) 319.
Hussien v Chong Fook Kam [1969] 3 All ER 1626, [1970] AC 942, [1970] 2 WLR 441, PC.
International Transport Roth GmbH v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 158, [2003] QB 728, [2002] 3 WLR 344.
Jasper v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 441, [2000] ECHR 27052/95, ECt HR.
Kanda v Government of the Federation of Malaya [1962] AC 322, [1962] 2 WLR 1153, PC.
Klass v Germany (1978) 2 EHRR 214, [1978] ECHR 5029/71, ECt HR.
Kostovski v Netherlands (1989) 12 EHRR 434, [1989] ECHR 11454/85, ECt HR.
Landvreugd v Netherlands (2002) 36 EHRR 1039, [2002] ECHR 37331/97, ECt HR.
Lauko v Slovakia (1998) 33 EHRR 994, [1998] ECHR 26138/95, ECt HR.
Lawless v Ireland (No 3) (1961) 1 EHRR 15, [1961] ECHR 332/57, ECt HR.
Lobo Machado v Portugal (1996) 23 EHRR 79, [1996] ECHR 15764/89, ECt HR.
Lucà v Italy (2001) 36 EHRR 807, [2001] ECHR 33354/96, ECt HR.
M v Italy (1991) 70 DR 59, E Com HR.
M v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 324, [2004] 2 All ER 863.
McMichael v UK [1995] 2 FCR 718, ECt HR.
Minister of Employment and Immigration v Chiarelli [1992] 1 SCR 711.
Murray v UK (1994) 19 EHRR 193, [1994] ECHR 14310/88, ECt HR.
Official Solicitor v K [1963] 3 All ER 191, [1965] AC 201, [1963] 3 WLR 408, HL; rvsg [1962] 3 All ER 1000, [1963] Ch 381, [1962] 3 WLR 1517, CA.
Olivieira v Netherlands (2000) 30 EHRR CD 258.
öztürk v Germany (1984) 6 EHRR 409, [1984] ECHR 8544/79, ECt HR.
PG v UK [2001] ECHR 44787/98, ECt HR.
R v A [2001] UKHL 25, [2001] 3 All ER 1, [2002] 1 AC 45, [2001] 2 WLR 1546.
R v H, R v C [2004] UKHL 3, [2004] 1 All ER 1269, [2004] 2 AC 134, [2004] 2 WLR 335.
R v Securities and Futures Authority Ltd, ex p Fleurose [2001] EWCA Civ 2015, [2002] IRLR 297.
R (on the application of Hammond) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 69, [2006] 1 All ER 219, [2006] 1 AC 603, [2005] 3 WLR 1229; affg [2004] EWHC 2753 (Admin), [2005] 4 All ER 1127.
R (on the application of McCann) v Crown Court at Manchester, Clingham v Kensington and Chelsea Royal London BC [2002] UKHL 39, [2002] 4 All ER 593, [2003] 1 AC 787, [2002] 3 WLR 1313.
R (on the application of R) v Durham Constabulary [2005] UKHL 21, [2005] 2 All ER 369, [2005] 1 WLR 1184.
R (on the application of Smith) v Parole Board, R (on the application of West) v Parole Board [2005] UKHL 1, [2005] 1 All ER 755, [2005] 1 WLR 350.
Raimondo v Italy (1994) 18 EHRR 237, [1994] ECHR 12954/87, ECt HR.
Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66, [1964] AC 40, [1963] 2 WLR 935, HL.
Roberts v Parole Board [2005] UKHL 45, [2006] 1 All ER 39, [2005] 2 AC 738, [2005] 3 WLR 152.
Rowe v UK (2000) 8 BHRC 325, ECt HR.
S v Miller 2001 SC 977, Sh Ct.
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v E [2007] UKHL 47, [2008] 1 All ER 699, [2007] 3 WLR 720; affg [2007] EWCA Civ 459, [2007] 3 WLR 1; rvsg [2007] EWHC 233 (Admin), [2007] HRLR 472.
Page 662 of [2008] 1 All ER 657
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642; affg [2006] EWCA Civ 1141, [2007] QB 446, [2006] 3 WLR 866; affg [2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun).
Tinnelly & Sons Ltd v UK (1998) 4 BHRC 393, ECt HR.
van Mechelen v Netherlands (1997) 2 BHRC 486, ECt HR.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 1123, [2005] 1 WLR 414.
Äärelä v Finland (Communication No 779/1997) (1997) Selected Decisions of the Human Rights Committee under the Optional Protocol, UN Doc CCPR/C/73/D/779/1997, UN HRC.
Abdulazizi v UK (1985) 7 EHRR 471, [1985] ECHR 9214/80, ECt HR.
Adolf v Austria (1982) 4 EHRR 313, [1982] ECHR 8269/78, ECt HR.
Aerts v Belgium (1998) 5 BHRC 382, ECt HR.
A-G’s Ref (No 2 of 2001) [2003] UKHL 68, [2004] 1 All ER 1049, [2004] 2 AC 72, [2004] 2 WLR 1.
A-G’s Ref (No 4 of 2002) [2003] EWCA Crim 762, [2004] 1 All ER 1, [2005] 1 AC 264, [2003] 3 WLR 1153.
Airey v Ireland (1979) 2 EHRR 305, [1979] ECHR 6289/73, ECt HR.
Ajouaou v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (29 October 2003, unreported), SIAC.
Al-Nashif v Bulgaria (2002) 36 EHRR 655, [2002] ECHR 50963/99, ECt HR.
Altun v Turkey [2004] ECHR 24561/94, ECt HR.
American Cyanamid Co v Ethicon Ltd [1975] 1 All ER 504, [1975] AC 396, [1975] 2 WLR 316, HL.
Amuur v France (1996) 22 EHRR 533, [1996] ECHR 19776/92, ECt HR.
Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208, [1969] 2 AC 147, [1969] 2 WLR 163, HL.
Ashingdane v UK (1985) 7 EHRR 528, [1985] ECHR 8225/78, ECt HR.
Aston-Cantlow and Wilmcote with Billesley Parochial Church Council v Wallbank [2001] EWCA Civ 713, [2001] 3 All ER 393, [2002] Ch 51, [2001] 3 WLR 1323.
B v France (1987) 52 DR 111, E Com HR.
Barthold v Germany (1985) 7 EHRR 383, [1985] ECHR 8734/79, ECt HR.
Begum (Runa) v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] UKHL 5, [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430, [2003] 2 WLR 388.
Bird v Jones (1845) 7 QB 742.
Bochan v Ukraine [2007] ECHR 7577/02, ECt HR.
Boddington v British Transport Police [1998] 2 All ER 203, [1999] 2 AC 143, [1998] 2 WLR 639, HL.
Borgers v Belgium (1993) 15 EHRR 92, [1991] ECHR 12005/86, ECt HR.
Brind v UK (1994) 18 EHRR CD 76, E Com HR.
Brinks v Netherlands (2005) 41 EHRR SE5, ECt HR.
Brogan v UK (1988) 11 EHRR 117, [1988] ECHR 11209/84, ECt HR.
Brüggemann v Germany (1977) 3 EHRR 244, E Com HR.
Bryan v UK [1996] 1 PLR 47, ECt HR.
Bulut v Austria (1997) 24 EHRR 84, [1996] EHCR 17358/90, ECt HR.
Butler v UK App No 41661/98 (27 June 2002, unreported), ECt HR.
Campbell v Hamlet [2005] UKPC 19, [2005] 3 All ER 1116.
Canada (Minister of Employment and Immigration) v Chiarrelli [1992] 1 SCR 711, Can SC.
Cartwright v Superintendent of HM Prison [2004] UKPC 10, [2004] 3 LRC 151, [2004] 1 WLR 902.
Page 663 of [2008] 1 All ER 657
Castorina v Chief Constable of Surrey (1988) 160 LG Rev 241, CA.
Chapman v UK (2001) 10 BHRC 48, ECt HR.
Chassagnou v France (1999) 7 BHRC 151, ECt HR.
Chuan (Ong Ah) v Public Prosecutor [1981] AC 648, [1980] 3 WLR 855, PC.
Ciancimino v Italy (1991) 70 DR 103, E Com HR.
Clarke v R [2004] UKPC 5, [2004] 3 LRC 298.
Cocks v Thanet DC [1982] 3 All ER 1135, [1983] 2 AC 286, [1982] 3 WLR 1121, HL.
Cooper v Wandsworth Board of Works (1863) 14 CBNS 180, 143 ER 414, [1861–73].
Cumming v Chief Constable of Northumbria Police [2003] EWCA Civ 1844, [2003] All ER (D) 305 (Dec).
D v Germany (1987) 54 DR 116, E Com HR.
De Freitas v Permanent Secretary of Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries, Lands and Housing [1999] 1 AC 69, [1998] 3 WLR 675, PC.
Deweer v Belgium (1980) 2 EHRR 439, [1980] ECHR 6903/75, ECt HR.
Dombo Beheer v Netherlands (1993) 18 EHRR 213, ECt HR.
Doody v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1993] 3 All ER 92, [1994] 1 AC 531, [1993] 3 WLR 154, HL.
Doorson v Netherlands (1996) 22 EHRR 330, [1996] ECHR 20524/92, ECt HR.
DPP v Hutchinson [1990] 2 All ER 836, [1990] 2 AC 783, [1990] 3 WLR 196, HL.
DPP v Meaden [2003] EWHC 3005 (Admin), [2004] 4 All ER 75, [2004] 1 WLR 945, DC.
Dumbell v Roberts [1944] 1 All ER 326, CA.
East African Asians v UK (1973) 3 EHRR 76, E Com HR.
Ebanks v R [2006] UKPC 16, [2006] 4 LRC 605, [2006] 1 WLR 1827.
Eckle v Germany (1982) 5 EHRR 1, [1982] ECHR 8130/78, ECt HR.
English v Emery Reimbold & Strick Ltd, DJ & C Withers (Farms) Ltd v Ambic Equipments Ltd, Verrechia (t/a Freightmaster Commercials) v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [2002] EWCA Civ 605, [2002] 3 All ER 385, [2002] 1 WLR 2409.
Erdem v Germany (2002) 35 EHRR 15, ECt HR.
European Roma Rights Centre v Immigration Officer at Prague Airport (United Nations High Comr for Refugees Intervening) [2004] UKHL 55, [2005] 1 All ER 527, [2005] 2 AC 1, [2005] 2 WLR 1.
Evans v UK [2007] FCR 5, ECt HR.
Ezeh v UK (2003) 15 BHRC 145, ECt HR.
Ezelin v France (1991) 14 EHRR 362, [1991] ECHR 11800/85, ECt HR.
Fothergill v Monarch Airlines Ltd [1980] 2 All ER 696, [1981] AC 251, [1980] 3 WLR 209, HL.
Foti v Italy (1982) 5 EHRR 313, [1982] ECHR 7604/76, ECt HR.
Fox v UK (1990) 13 EHRR 157, [1990] ECHR 12244/86, ECt HR.
Frau v Italy App No 12147/86 (19 February 1991, unreported), ECt HR.
Golder v UK (1975) 1 EHRR 524, [1975] ECHR 4451/70, ECt HR.
Goldsmith v. Customs and Excise Comrs [2001] EWHC Admin 285, [2001] 1 WLR 1673.
Gough v Chief Constable of the Derbyshire Constabulary [2002] EWCA Civ 351, [2002] 2 All ER 985, [2002] QB 1213, [2002] 3 WLR 289; affg [2001] EWHC Admin 554, [2001] 4 All ER 289, [2002] QB 459, [2001] 3 WLR 1392.
Guantánamo Detainees Cases, Re (2005) 355 F Supp 2d 443, US DC (DC).
Guzzardi v Italy, decision of 5 October 1977 (App No 7960/77) (French version).
Guzzardi v Italy, decision of 5 October 1977 (App No 7960/77), (English translation).
Page 664 of [2008] 1 All ER 657
Hague v Deputy Governor of Parkhurst Prison, Weldon v Home Office [1991] 3 All ER 733, [1992] 1 AC 58, [1991] 3 WLR 340, HL.
Handyside v UK (1976) 1 EHRR 737, [1976] ECHR 5493/72, ECt HR.
Hatton v UK (2003) 15 BHRC 259, ECt HR.
Heaney v Ireland (2001) 33 EHRR 264, [2000] ECHR 34720/97, ECt HR.
Hillingdon London BC v Commission for Racial Equality [1982] IRLR 424, [1982] AC 779, [1982] 3 WLR 159.
Hirst v UK (2003) 37 EHRR CD 176.
HL v UK (2004) 17 BHRC 418, ECt HR.
Hoffman-La Roche & Co AG v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1974] 2 All ER 1128, [1975] AC 295, [1974] 3 WLR 104, HL.
Hooper v UK (2005) 41 EHRR 1, [2004] All ER (D) 254 (Nov), ECt HR.
Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, Kasmiri v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] UKHL 11, [2007] 4 All ER 15, [2007] 2 WLR 581.
Huntley v A-G for Jamaica [1995] 1 All ER 308, [1995] 2 AC 1, [1995] 2 WLR 114, PC.
Ibbotson v UK (1999) 27 EHRR CD 332, E Com HR.
Indrakumar v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 1677, [2003] All ER (D) 188 (Nov).
Innisfil (Township) v Vespra (Township) [1981] 2 SCR 145, Can SC.
Ireland v UK (1978) 2 EHRR 25, [1978] ECHR 5210/71, ECt HR.
John v Rees, Martin v Davis, Rees v John [1969] 2 All ER 274, [1970] Ch 345, [1969] 2 WLR 1294.
K v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] EWCA Civ 391, [2006] All ER (D) 120 (Apr).
Kjeldsen v Denmark (1976) 1 EHRR 711, [1976] ECHR 5095/71, ECt HR.
Krasniki v Czech Republic [2006] ECHR 51277/99, ECt HR.
Kurt v Turkey (1998) 5 BHRC 1, ECt HR.
Labita v Italy [2000] ECHR 26772/95, ECt HR.
Lakato v Czech Republic App No 42058/98 (23 October 2001, unreported), ECt HR.
Lambeth London BC v Kay, Leeds City Council v Price [2006] UKHL 10, [2006] 4 All ER 128, [2006] 2 AC 465, [2006] 2 WLR 570.
Leander v Sweden (1987) 9 EHRR 433, [1987] ECHR 9248/81, ECt HR.
Lloyd v McMahon [1987] 1 All ER 1118, [1987] AC 625, [1987] 2 WLR 821, HL.
Lupsa v Romania [2006] 2 FCR 685, ECt HR.
Maaouia v France (2000) 9 BHRC 205, ECt HR.
McDonald v Dickson (Procurator Fiscal, Elgin) 2003 SCCR 311, HC of Just.
Mancini v Italy App No 44955/98 (2 August 2001, unreported), ECt HR.
Mantovanelli v France (1997) 24 EHRR 370, ECt HR.
Matthews v Ministry of Defence [2003] UKHL 4, [2003] 1 All ER 689, [2003] 1 AC 1163, [2003] 2 WLR 435.
McDonnell v Congregation of Christian Brothers Trustees (formerly Irish Christian Brothers) [2003] UKHL 63, [2004] 1 All ER 641, [2004] 1 AC 1101, [2003] 3 WLR 1627.
McVeigh v UK (1981) 5 EHRR 71, E Com HR.
Meering v Grahame-White Aviation Co Ltd (1919) 112 LT 44, [1918–19] All ER Rep Ext 1490, CA.
MK v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (5 September 2006, unreported), SIAC.
Murray v Ministry of Defence [1988] 2 All ER 521, [1988] 1 WLR 692, HL.
N v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 31, [2005] 4 All ER 1017, [2005] 2 AC 296, [2005] 2 WLR 1125.
Page 665 of [2008] 1 All ER 657
NC v Italy [2002] ECHR 24952/94, ECt HR.
Nikolova v Bulgaria (No 2) [2004] 40896/98, ECt HR.
Ngalula Mpandanjilal v Zaire (Communication No 138/1983) (1986) Selected Decisions of the Human Rights Committee under the Optional Protocol Vol 2, UN Doc CCPR/C/OP/2, p 164, UN HRC.
O’Hara v Chief Constable of the Royal Ulster Constabulary [1997] 1 All ER 129, [1997] AC 286, [1997] 2 WLR 1, HL.
O’Reilly v Mackman [1982] 3 All ER 1124, [1983] 2 AC 237, [1982] 3 WLR 1096, HL.
Official Receiver v Stern (No 2) [2001] EWCA Civ 1787, [2002] 1 BCLC 119.
Osman v UK (1998) 5 BHRC 293, ECt HR.
Padfield v Minister of Agriculture, Fisheries and Food [1968] 1 All ER 694, [1968] AC 997, [1968] 2 WLR 924, HL.
Pekov v Bulgaria [2006] ECHR 50358/99, ECt HR.
Phillips v UK (2001) 11 BHRC 280, ECt HR.
Pierson v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1997] 3 All ER 577, [1998] AC 539, [1997] 3 WLR 492, HL.
Proprietary Articles Trade Association v A-G for Canada [1931] AC 310, [1931] All ER Rep 277, PC.
Purcell v Ireland (1991) 70 DR 262, E Com HR.
Quinn v Ireland [2000] ECHR 36887/97, ECt HR.
R v Boness, R v Bebbington [2005] EWCA Crim 2395, 169 JP 621.
R v DPP, ex p Kebilene, R v DPP, ex p Rechachi [1999] 4 All ER 801, [2000] 2 AC 326, [1999] 3 WLR 972, HL.
R v F [2007] EWCA Crim 243, [2007] 2 All ER 193, [2007] QB 960, [2007] 3 WLR 164.
R v K [2007] EWCA Crim 971, [2007] 2 Cr App Rep 187.
R v Kansal (No 2) [2001] UKHL 62, [2002] 1 All ER 257, [2002] 2 AC 69, [2001] 3 WLR 1562.
R v Life Assurance Unit Trust Regulatory Organisation Ltd, ex p Ross [1992] 1 All ER 422, [1993] QB 17, DC.
R v Lord Saville of Newdigate, ex p A [1999] 4 All ER 860, [2000] 1 WLR 1855, CA.
R v P [2001] 2 All ER 58, [2002] 1 AC 146, [2001] 2 WLR 463, HL.
R v Secretary of State for the Environment, ex p Powis [1981] 1 All ER 788, [1981] 1 WLR 584, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Fayed [1997] 1 All ER 228, [1998] 1 WLR 763, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Hickey (No 2) [1995] 1 All ER 490, [1995] 1 WLR 734, DC.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Launder [1997] 3 All ER 961, [1997] 1 WLR 839, HL.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Mellor [2001] EWCA Civ 472, [2001] 2 FCR 153, [2002] QB 13, [2001] 3 WLR 533.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Simms [1999] 3 All ER 400, [2000] 2 AC 115, [1999] 3 WLR 328, HL.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Turgut [2001] 1 All ER 719, CA.
R v Shayler [2002] UKHL 11, [2002] 2 All ER 477, [2003] 1 AC 247, [2002] 2 WLR 754, HL.
R v University of London, ex p Vijayatunga [1987] 3 All ER 204, [1988] QB 322, [1987] 2 WLR 106, DC.
R (on the application of Anderson) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] UKHL 46, [2002] 4 All ER 1089, [2003] 1 AC 837, [2002] 3 WLR 1800.
Page 666 of [2008] 1 All ER 657
R (on the application of B) v Dr SS [2006] EWCA Civ 28, (2006) 90 BMLR 1, [2006] 1 WLR 810.
R (on the application of Daly) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2001] UKHL 26, [2001] 3 All ER 433, [2001] 2 AC 532, [2001] 2 WLR 1622.
R (on the application of Gillan) v Metropolitan Police Comr [2006] UKHL 12, [2006] 4 All ER 1041, [2006] 2 AC 307, [2006] 2 WLR 537.
R (on the application of Hooper) v Secretary of State for Work and Pensions [2005] UKHL 29, [2006] 1 All ER 487, [2005] 1 WLR 1681.
R (on the application of Jackson) v A-G [2005] UKHL 56, [2005] 4 All ER 1253, [2006] 1 AC 262, [2005] 3 WLR 733.
R (on the application of Mudie) v Kent Magistrates’ Court [2003] EWCA Civ 237, [2003] 2 All ER 631, [2003] QB 1238, [2003] 2 WLR 1344.
R (on the application of Nadarajah) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of Abdi) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (No 3) [2005] EWCA Civ 1363, [2005] All ER (D) 293 (Nov), CA.
R (on the application of Q) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 364, [2003] 2 All ER 905, [2004] QB 36, [2003] 3 WLR 365.
R (on the application of the Secretary of State for the Home Dept) v Mental Health Review Tribunal [2002] EWCA Civ 1868, [2002] All ER (D) 307 (Dec).
R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26, [2004] 3 All ER 785, [2004] 2 AC 323, [2004] 3 WLR 23.
R (on the application of Wilkinson) v Responsible Medical Officer, Broadmoor Hospital [2001] EWCA Civ 1545, (2001) 65 BMLR 15, [2002] 1 WLR 419.
R (on the application of Wooder) v Feggetter [2002] EWCA Civ 554, [2003] QB 219, [2002] 3 WLR 591.
Raninen v Finland (1997) 26 EHRR 563, [1997] ECHR 20972/92, ECt HR.
Reyntjens v Belgium (1992) 73 DR 136, E Com HR.
Ribic v Canada (A-G) (2003) 185 CCC (3d) 129, Can Fed CA.
RJR McDonald v Canada AG (1995) 3 SCR 199.
Roberts v Chief Constable of Cheshire Constabulary [1999] 2 All ER 326, [1999] 1 WLR 662, CA.
Rotaru v Romania (2000) 8 BHRC 449, ECt HR.
S (children: care plan), Re, Re W (children: care plan) [2002] UKHL 10, [2002] 2 All ER 192, [2002] 2 AC 291, [2002] 2 WLR 720.
Salabiaku v France (1988) 13 EHRR 379, [1988] ECHR 10589/83, ECt HR.
Schmidt v Federal Government of Germany [1994] 3 All ER 65, [1995] 1 AC 339, [1994] 3 WLR 228, HL.
Secretary of State for Education and Science v Metropolitan Borough of Tameside [1976] 3 All ER 665, [1977] AC 1014, [1976] 3 WLR 641, HL.
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Abdi [1995] Imm AR 570, CA.
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Abu Rideh [2007] EWHC 804 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 86 (Apr).
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Rehman [2001] UKHL 47, [2002] 1 All ER 122, [2003] 1 AC 153, [2001] 3 WLR 877.
Segerstedt-Wiberg v Sweden (2006) 21 BHRC 155, ECt HR.
Shamayev v Georgia App No 36378/02 (12 April 2005, unreported), ECt HR.
Steel v UK (1998) 5 BHRC 339, ECt HR.
Subesh v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 56, [2004] INLR 417, [2004] All ER (D) 326 (Mar).
Sunday Times v UK (1979) 2 EHRR 245, [1979] ECHR 6538/74, ECt HR.
Trijonis v Lithuania App No 2333/02 (17 March 2005, unreported), ECt HR.
Page 667 of [2008] 1 All ER 657
Turek v Slovakia (2007) 44 EHRR 43, [2006] ECHR 57986/00, ECt HR.
Tweed v Parades Commission for Northern Ireland [2006] UKHL 53, [2007] 2 All ER 273, [2007] 1 AC 650, [2007] 2 WLR 1.
US v Bin Laden 2001 WL 66393, US DC SDNY.
US v Nrth Crim No 88-0080 WL 148597 (DDC Apr 15 1988).
Vachev v Bulgaria [2004] ECHR 42987/98, ECt HR.
Van de Hurk v Netherlands (1994) 18 EHRR 481, [1994] ECHR 16034/90, ECt HR.
Webb v UK (1997) 24 EHRR CD 73, E Com HR.
Weber v Switzerland (1990) 12 EHRR 508, [1990] ECHR 11034/84, ECt HR.
Weeks v UK (1987) 10 EHRR 293, [1987] ECHR 9787/82, ECt HR.
Welch v UK (1995) 20 EHRR 247, [1995] ECHR 17440/90, ECt HR.
Wiseman v Borneman [1969] 3 All ER 275, [1971] AC 297, [1969] 3 WLR 706, HL.
X v UK App No 5877/72 (12 October 1973, unreported), E Com HR.
Zdanoka v Latvia (2005) 41 EHRR 31, ECt HR.
Zilli v Italy (2002) 35 EHRR CD 47.
Appeals and cross-appeal
Secretary of State for the Home Department v MB
MB, the subject of a control order made by the Secretary of State under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 29 January 2007 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) on 1 August 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 1140, [2007] QB 415) allowing the appeal of the Secretary of State from the decision of Sullivan J on 12 April 2006 ([2006] EWHC 1000 (Admin)) declaring s 3 of the 2005 Act to be incompatible with MB’s right to a fair hearing under art 6(1) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). JUSTICE appeared as an intervener. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bingham of Cornhill.
Secretary of State for the Home Department v AF
The Secretary of State appealed pursuant to a certificate granted by Ousely J under s 12(3)(b) of the Administration of Justice Act 1969 and with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 17 May 2007 from the decision of Ousely J quashing a control order made against AF under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005. AF cross-appealed from the dismissal by Ousely J of his application for a declaration that s 3 of the 2005 Act was incompatible with his right to a fair hearing under art 6(1) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). JUSTICE appeared as an intervener. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bingham of Cornhill.
Tim Owen QC, Kate Markus and Ali Bajwa (instructed by Arani & Co) for MB.
Timothy Otty QC and Zubair Ahmad (instructed by Middleweeks, Manchester) for AF.
Ian Burnett QC, Philip Sales QC, Tim Eicke, Cecilia Ivimy and Andrew O’Connor (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Michael Supperstone QC and Judith Farbey (instructed the Special Advocates Support Office) for the special advocates.
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Michael Fordham QC and Tom Hickman (instructed by Clifford Chance) for JUSTICE.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
31 October 2007. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1] My Lords, by his appeal to the House, MB seeks to challenge a non-derogating control order made by the Secretary of State on 5 September 2005 under ss 2 and 3 (1)(a) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005. That order was maintained in force by Sullivan J in a decision of 12 April 2006 ([2006] EWHC 1000 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 201 (Apr), [2006] HRLR 878, but he declared s 3 of the Act to be incompatible with MB’s rights to a fair hearing under art 6(1) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). On 1 August 2006 the Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) allowed an appeal against the judge’s decision and set aside his declaration of incompatibility ([2006] EWCA Civ 1140, [2007] QB 415, [2006] 3 WLR 839).
[2] AF was the subject of a non-derogating control order made by the Secretary of State on 11 September 2006 and varied on 18 October 2006. This order also was made under ss 2 and 3(1)(a) of the 2005 Act. Following a full hearing under s 3(10) of the Act, Ouseley J on 30 March 2007 ([2007] EWHC 651 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr)) quashed the order but dismissed an application by AF for a declaration of incompatibility. The judge granted a certificate permitting both parties to appeal directly to the House pursuant to s 12(3)(b) of the Administration of Justice Act 1969, and the House granted leave on 17 May 2007.
[3] In granting this certificate, Ouseley J identified four questions, which it is convenient to label issues (1) to (4).
Issue (1): Whether the cumulative impact of the obligations imposed on AF by the control order dated 11 September 2006 and pursuant to the 2005 Act amounted to a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1) of the convention.
Issue (2): If the answer to issue (1) is in the affirmative, in circumstances where the court is satisfied that the Secretary of State was entitled to conclude that there is a reasonable suspicion that AF is or has been involved in terrorist-related activity and that it was necessary to make a control order imposing obligations on AF for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, whether it is a proper exercise of the discretion under s 3(12) of the 2005 Act or generally to order that a control order should be quashed as a whole and ab initio rather than to quash individual obligations and/or direct the Secretary of State to modify individual obligations.
Issue (3): Whether a non-derogating control order imposed under the 2005 Act constitutes a criminal charge for the purposes of art 6 of the convention.
Issue (4): Whether the procedures provided for by s 3 of the 2005 Act and the rules of court are compatible with art 6 of the convention in circumstances where they have resulted in the case made against AF being in its essence entirely undisclosed to him and in no specific allegation of terrorism-related activity being contained in open material.
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The judge decided issues (1) and (2) in favour of AF and adversely to the Secretary of State, who appeals against those rulings. He decided issues (3) and (4) in favour of the Secretary of State and adversely to AF, who cross-appeals against those. In his separate appeal, MB complains that in relying heavily on material not disclosed to him to support the control order against him the Court of Appeal acted incompatibly with art 6 and so unlawfully. Thus, despite factual differences between their cases, MB supports the argument of AF on issue (4), as do JUSTICE and Liberty (although Liberty intervene only in the case of Secretary of State for the Home Dept v E [2007] UKHL 47, [2008] 1 All ER 699, [2007] 3 WLR 720).
[4] The terms of these issues, particularly issues (1) and (2), have direct reference to the terms of the 2005 Act. I would make reference to, and will not here repeat, the general summary of that Act which I have given in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642.
ISSUE (1)
[5] AF is a dual United Kingdom and Libyan national. He was born in this country on 1 July 1980. His father is Libyan, his mother British. The family moved to Libya during the 1980s, but his mother returned here, where she still lives. She is the landlady of a public house in West Yorkshire. AF spent his formative years in Libya with his father and sister. They left Libya in December 2004, according to AF because of a blood feud between his family and the Gadaffi tribe, and also to take advantage of better job opportunities. AF was briefly married, is now divorced and has no children. He has a fiancée in Libya. Since a date shortly after his arrival in the United Kingdom, AF has lived with his father in a flat rented from the council on the outskirts of Manchester. His sister lives in Paris with her husband and two children.
[6] A control order was first made against AF on 24 May 2006. This, among other obligations, confined him to his flat for 18 hours each day. The Secretary of State revoked that order following the Court of Appeal decision in JJ’s case [2007] QB 446 and replaced it by the order made on 11 September 2006 of which complaint is now made.
[7] By the 11 September control order AF was required to remain in the flat where he was already living (not including any communal area) at all times save for a period of 10 hours between 8 am and 6 pm. He was thus subject to a 14-hour curfew. He was required to wear an electronic tag at all times. He was restricted during non-curfew hours to an area of about nine square miles bounded by a number of identified main roads and bisected by one. He was to report to a monitoring company on first leaving his flat after a curfew period had ended and on his last return before the next curfew period began. His flat was liable to be searched by the police at any time. During curfew hours he was not allowed to permit any person to enter his flat except his father, official or professional visitors, children aged ten or under or persons agreed by the Home Office in advance on supplying the visitor’s name, address, date of birth and photographic identification. He was not to communicate directly or indirectly at any time with a certain specified individual (and, later, several specified individuals). He was only permitted to attend one specified mosque. He was not permitted to have any communications equipment of any kind. He was to surrender his passport. He was prohibited from visiting airports, sea ports or certain railway stations, and was subject to additional obligations pertaining to his financial arrangements.
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[8] In his judgement, Ouseley J summarised the evidence given by AF concerning the impact of the order upon him. He had three times been refused permission to visit his mother. His sister and her family were unwilling to visit because of the traumatic experience of one child when AF was first arrested. Friends were unwilling to visit. He only had one Libyan or Arabic-speaking friend in the area he was allowed to frequent, which was not the area to which he had gravitated before. He was not permitted to attend the mosque he had attended before, and was confined to an Urdu-speaking mosque; he could not speak Urdu. He could not visit his Arabic-speaking general practitioner. He could not continue his English studies, since there were no places at the college in his permitted area. He was cut off from the outside world (although, as was pointed out, he had television access to Al Jazeera). The judge very broadly accepted AF’s account of the effects of the control order on him, and of his reaction to those effects ([2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr) at [53] of his judgment), while noting certain elements of overstatement and exaggeration (at [53], [54]). The judge concluded (at [54]) that the effects of the control order as described by AF were the effects which the restrictions were intended to have.
[9] The judge reviewed the convention and domestic jurisprudence on deprivation of liberty, including the recent decisions of Sullivan J and the Court of Appeal in JJ’s case [2006] EWHC 1623 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 330 (Jun); affd [2007] QB 446 and Beatson J in E’s case [2007] EWHC 233 (Admin), [2007] HRLR 472. I have myself attempted to summarise the effect of the convention and domestic jurisprudence in my opinion in JJ’s case [2008] 1 All ER 613 at [12]–[19]. I need not repeat that summary. Ouseley J analysed the effect of the jurisprudence in a careful and judicious manner.
[10] The judge noted ([2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr) at [76]) that it is the cumulative effect of the restrictions which matters. Turning to the facts of the case, he treated the 14-hour curfew as the most important aspect (at [78]). He regarded the case as finely balanced, but was of opinion that once a curfew reaches, let alone exceeds, 12 hours a day, the scope for further restrictions on what can be done during those hours of curfew without depriving someone of their liberty is very substantially reduced. The judge reviewed certain of the other restrictions, and regarded the case (at [89]) as ‘quite finely balanced’. But having compared AF’s situation with that of E, and noted in particular AF’s longer curfew and geographical restriction, he concluded (at [89]) that the effect of the order was to deprive AF of his liberty, and that the order was accordingly a nullity.
[11] Subject to one point, I should have been unwilling to disturb the value judgment made by the judge, who had had the benefit of receiving and hearing a considerable body of evidence. I do not think the judge misdirected himself in law, subject to that one point, and an appeal against his decision lies only on law. My one qualification is that the judge, quite rightly as matters then stood, paid close attention to Beatson J’s decision in E’s case [2007] HRLR 472, which had not then but has since been reversed by the Court of Appeal ([2007] 3 WLR 1), rightly, as the House has now concluded ([2008] 1 All ER 699). Had the judge had the benefit of the Court of Appeal’s judgment in E’s case, he would in all probability have found on balance that there was no deprivation of liberty in AF’s case. On this basis I am willing to accept the view which I understand to be taken by my noble and learned friends, that the effect of the order was not to deprive AF of his liberty in breach of art 5.
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ISSUE (2)
[12] In the light of that conclusion, issue (2) does not arise. Had it done so, I would have upheld the judge’s decision to quash the control order, for reasons I have given in JJ’s case [2008] 1 All ER 613 at [25]–[27].
ISSUE (3)
[13] As explained in JJ’s case, the conditions for making and upholding a non-derogating control order under ss 2(1)(a) and 3(10) of the 2005 Act are that the Secretary of State (s 2(1))—
‘(a) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity; and (b) considers that it is necessary, for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, to make a control order imposing obligations on that individual.’
Before confirming a derogating control order under s 4(7) the court must first be ‘(a) . . . satisfied, on the balance of probabilities, that the controlled person is an individual who is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity’.
[14] Article 6 of the convention (‘Right to a fair trial’) provides in the opening sentence of para (1): ‘In the determination of his civil rights and obligations or of any criminal charge against him, everyone is entitled to a fair . . . hearing . . .' The article continues in paras (2) and (3) to identify certain rights specific to those who have been charged with a criminal offence. These include the presumption of innocence (see para (2)) and certain minimum rights, among them rights (see para (3)): ‘(a) to be informed promptly, in a language which he understands and in detail, of the nature and cause of the accusation against him . . . (d) to examine or have examined witnesses against him . . .’
[15] The Secretary of State accepts that control order proceedings fall within the civil limb of art 6(1) because they are in their effect decisive for civil rights, in some respects at least. But AF goes further. It is contended on his behalf that control order proceedings fall within the criminal limb of art 6 or, alternatively, that if they fall within the civil limb only they should nonetheless, because of the seriousness of what is potentially involved, attract the protection appropriate to criminal proceedings.
[16] This is not a contention which can be lightly dismissed, for two reasons. First, it may very well be (although the point was not argued) that proceedings for a derogating control order are criminal in character. This was the unequivocal view of the House of Lords and House of Commons Joint Committee on Human Rights in their Twelfth Report of the Session 2005–2006 (HL Paper 122, HC Paper 915) (14 February 2006) (para 49): ‘In our view it is clear that the criminal limb of Article 6(1) ECHR applies to proceedings for a derogating control order. In such a case the full right to due process in Article 6(1) applies.' But, as the Council of Europe Commissioner for Human Rights pointed out in his report on his visit to the United Kingdom (8 June 2005) (para 20), and the Joint Committee (para 52 of its report) agreed, the obligations imposed by a derogating control order differ from those in a non-derogating control order only in their degree of severity, and—
‘It would be curious if at least immediately below this most extreme sanction, there were not other limitations or restrictions of sufficient severity to warrant the classification of the obligations as tantamount to a criminal penalty.’
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[17] Secondly, the law on this subject is not altogether straightforward, since the Strasbourg jurisprudence has recognised the difficulty in some contexts of distinguishing between disciplinary and criminal proceedings (see Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 678–679 (para 82); Campbell v UK (1984) 7 EHRR 165 at 194–195 (paras 70–71)) and even between civil and criminal proceedings (see Albert v Belgium (1983) 5 EHRR 533 at 542–543 (para 30)). Control order proceedings, potentially applicable to all, lack the internal quality characteristic of disciplinary proceedings. But in this country also judges have regarded the classification of proceedings as criminal or civil as less important than the question of what protections are required for a fair trial (see International Transport Roth GmbH v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 158 at [33], [148], [2003] QB 728 at [33], [148], [2002] 3 WLR 344) and have held that the gravity and complexity of the charges and of the defence will impact on what fairness requires (R v Securities and Futures Authority Ltd, ex p Fleurose [2001] EWCA Civ 2015 at [14], [2002] IRLR 297 at [14]).
[18] It was said in Customs and Excise Comrs v City of London Magistrates’ Court [2000] 4 All ER 763 at 767, [2000] 1 WLR 2020 at 2025 (para 17) that in this country—
‘criminal proceedings involve a formal accusation made on behalf of the state or by a private prosecutor that a defendant has committed a breach of the criminal law, and [that] the state or the private prosecutor has instituted proceedings which may culminate in the conviction and condemnation of the defendant.’
Thus if or when the relevant authority decides not to prosecute and there is no possibility of conviction or penalty, there are then no criminal proceedings (see S v Miller 2001 SC 977 at 988, 989–990 (paras 20, 23); R (on the application of R) v Durham Constabulary [2005] UKHL 21 at [14], [2005] 2 All ER 369 at [14], [2005] 1 WLR 1184). For present purposes, however, guidance on the distinction between determination of a civil right and obligation and determination of a criminal charge is to be found in the Strasbourg jurisprudence, and in particular in the leading case of Engel v Netherlands (1976) 1 EHRR 647 at 678–679 (para 82).
[19] The starting point is to ascertain how the proceedings in question are classified in domestic law. This is by no means unimportant, since if the proceedings are classified as criminal in domestic law that will almost certainly be conclusive. But if (as is agreed to be the case here) the proceedings in question are classified as civil in domestic law, that is by no means conclusive. The language of art 6(1) is to be given an autonomous convention meaning, that is, a Council of Europe-wide meaning applicable in all member states whatever their domestic laws may provide. Consistent with its constant principles of preferring substance to form and seeking to ensure that convention rights are effectively protected, the European Court is concerned to ascertain whether a proceeding is, in substance, civil or criminal (see, for example, öztürk v Germany (1984) 6 EHRR 409 at 423–424 (para 53); Lauko v Slovakia (1998) 33 EHRR 994 at 1011–1012 (para 58)). It is recognised that member states may have many reasons for choosing to treat as civil proceedings which are in substance criminal. It is the substance which matters. More significant in most cases are the second and third criteria in Engel v Netherlands, the nature of the offence and the degree of severity of the penalty that the person concerned risks incurring. Here we reach the heart of the argument.
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[20] The Secretary of State submits that there is in proceedings for a non-derogating control order no charge of an offence against the criminal law (in the French text no ‘accusation en matière pénale’). The counter-argument for AF is that there is in substance such a charge or accusation. The conduct of which a person must be reasonably suspected is past or present involvement in terrorism-related activity. The definition of ‘terrorism’ in s 1(1)–(4) of the Terrorism Act 2000, incorporated in the 2005 Act by s 15(1), and the definition of ‘terrorism-related activity’ in s 1(9) of the 2005 Act, are so comprehensive as to render criminal almost any activity which would fall within the definitions, as my noble and learned friend Baroness Hale of Richmond recognised in A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56 at [223], [2005] 3 All ER 169 at [223], [2005] 2 AC 68. To the extent that any loopholes have been thought to exist Parliament has sought to fill them.
[21] I see great force in this approach. On any common sense view involvement in terrorism-related activity is likely to be criminal. But the Secretary of State is entitled to respond, as he does, that the controlled person is not charged with such conduct. This is not a point which turns on procedural requirements, which will vary from state to state. It is a point which turns on the distinction between suspecting A of doing X (‘I suspect but I cannot prove’ (see Hussien v Chong Fook Kam [1969] 3 All ER 1626 at 1630, [1970] AC 942 at 948)) and asserting that A has done X. There is an obvious contrast between the reasonable suspicion required of the Secretary of State under ss 2(1)(a) and 3(10) of the Act and the satisfaction required of the court under s 4(7)(a). There is some analogy with the special supervision and protection measures imposed under Italian legislation, in so far as those cases fell within art 6(1) at all (see, for instance, Guzzardi v Italy (1980) 3 EHRR 333; Ciulla v Italy (1989) 13 EHRR 346; M v Italy (1991) 70 DR 59; Raimondo v Italy (1994) 18 EHRR 237; Arcuri v Italy App No 52024/99 (5 July 2001, unreported)).
[22] The Secretary of State further submits that it is an essential feature of a criminal process that it exposes a person to the risk of conviction and punishment. Here, he says, controlled persons are exposed to no such risk. The counter-argument is that the proceedings expose the controlled person to adverse consequences of a very serious kind, more serious than the great majority of criminal penalties. Reliance is placed by analogy on observations of the Joint Committee on Human Rights in their Twelfth Report of the Session 2006–2007 (Legislative Scrutiny: Fifth Progress Report) (HL Paper 91, HC Paper 490) (25 April 2007) (para 1.13), made with reference to serious crime prevention orders.
[23] It cannot be doubted that the consequences of a control order can be, in the words of one respected commentator, ‘devastating for individuals and their families’ (The Hon Mr Justice Chaskalson ‘The Widening Gyre: Counter-terrorism, Human Rights and the Rule of Law’, Seventh Sir David Williams Lecture, p 18). But the tendency of the domestic courts (not without criticism: see Ashworth, ‘Social Control and “Anti-Social Behaviour”: The Subversion of Human Rights?’ (2004) 120 LQR 263) has been to distinguish between measures which are preventative in purpose and those which have a more punitive, retributive or deterrent object. Examples of the former are B v Chief Constable of Avon and Somerset Constabulary [2001] 1 All ER 562, [2001] 1 WLR 340; Gough v Chief Constable of the Derbyshire Constabulary [2002] EWCA Civ 351, [2002] 2 All ER 985, [2002] QB 1213; and, most notably, R (on the application of McCann) v Crown Court at Manchester, Clingham v Kensington and Chelsea Royal London BC [2002] UKHL 39, [2002] 4 All ER 593, [2003] 1 AC 787; of the latter,
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Han v Comrs of Customs and Excise, Martins v Comrs of Custom and Excise, Morris v Comrs of Customs and Excise [2001] EWCA Civ 1040, [2001] 4 All ER 687, [2001] 1 WLR 2253; International Transport Roth GmbH v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 158, [2003] QB 728, [2002] 3 WLR 344. The same distinction is drawn in the Strasbourg authorities. Treated as non-criminal are preventative measures such as those in issue in the Italian cases already mentioned, Lawless v Ireland (No 3) (1961) 1 EHRR 15, Olivieira v The Netherlands (2000) 30 EHRR CD 258, and Landvreugd v Netherlands (2002) 36 EHRR 1039; treated as criminal were the measures considered in öztürk v Germany (1984) 6 EHRR 409; Demicoli v Malta (1991) 14 EHRR 47; Benham v UK (1996) 22 EHRR 293; Lauko v Slovakia (1998) 33 EHRR 994; Garyfallou AEBE v Greece (1997) 28 EHRR 344. Even this distinction, however, is not watertight, since prevention is one of the recognised aims and consequences of punishment (see R (on the application of Smith) v Parole Board, R (on the application of West) v Parole Board [2005] UKHL 1, [2005] 1 All ER 755, [2005] 1 WLR 350) and the effect of a preventative measure may be so adverse as to be penal in its effects if not in its intention.
[24] I would on balance accept the Secretary of State’s submission that non-derogating control order proceedings do not involve the determination of a criminal charge. Parliament has gone to some lengths to avoid a procedure which crosses the criminal boundary: there is no assertion of criminal conduct, only a foundation of suspicion; no identification of any specific criminal offence is provided for; the order made is preventative in purpose, not punitive or retributive; and the obligations imposed must be no more restrictive than are judged necessary to achieve the preventative object of the order. I would reject AF’s contrary submission. This reflects the approach of the English courts up to now (see A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 1502 at [57], [2003] 1 All ER 816 at [57], [2004] QB 335). But I would accept the substance of AF’s alternative submission: in any case in which a person is at risk of an order containing obligations of the stringency found in this case, or the cases of JJ and E, the application of the civil limb of art 6(1) does in my opinion entitle such person to such measure of procedural protection as is commensurate with the gravity of the potential consequences. This has been the approach of the domestic courts in cases such as B v Chief Constable of Avon and Somerset Constabulary [2001] 1 All ER 562, [2001] 1 WLR 340, Gough v Chief Constable of the Derbyshire Constabulary [2002] 2 All ER 985, [2002] QB 1213 and R (on the application of McCann) v Crown Court at Manchester [2002] 4 All ER 593, [2003] 1 AC 787, and it seems to me to reflect the spirit of the convention.
ISSUE (4)
[25] On 11 July 2002 the Committee of Ministers of the Council of Europe promulgated Human rights and the fight against terrorism The Council of Europe Guidelines. The first two principles are (p 8):
‘I. States’ obligation to protect everyone against terrorism
States are under the obligation to take the measures needed to protect the fundamental rights of everyone within their jurisdiction against terrorist acts, especially the right to life. This positive obligation fully justifies States’ fight against terrorism in accordance with the present Guidelines.
II. Prohibition of arbitrariness
All measures taken by States to fight terrorism must respect human rights and the principle of the rule of law, while excluding any form of arbitrariness,
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as well as any discriminatory or racist treatment, and must be subject to appropriate supervision.’
For understandable reasons the Secretary of State lays particular stress on the first of these guideline principles, the controlled persons (MB and AF) on the second. As observed in R v H, R v C [2004] UKHL 3 at [23], [2004] 1 All ER 1269 at [23], [2004] 2 AC 134:
‘The problem of reconciling an individual defendant’s right to a fair trial with such secrecy as is necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or the prevention or investigation of crime is inevitably difficult to resolve in a liberal society governed by the rule of law.’
It is the problem with which Parliament grappled in the 2005 Act, and with which the House is confronted in these appeals.
[26] The Schedule to the 2005 Act provides a rule-making power applicable to both derogating and non-derogating control orders. It requires the rule-making authority (see para 2(b)) to have regard in particular to the need to ensure that disclosures of information are not made where they would be contrary to the public interest. Rules so made (see para 4(2)(b)) may make provision enabling the relevant court to conduct proceedings in the absence of any person, including a relevant party to the proceedings and his legal representative. Provision may be made for the appointment of a person to represent a relevant party (see paras 4(2)(c) and 7). The Secretary of State must be required to disclose all relevant material (see para 4(3)(a)), but may apply to the court for permission not to do so (see para 4(3)(b)). Such application must be heard in the absence of every relevant person and his legal representative (see para 4(3)(c)) and the court must give permission for material not to be disclosed where it considers that the disclosure of the material would be contrary to the public interest (see para 4(3)(d)). The court must consider requiring the Secretary of State to provide the relevant party and his legal representative with a summary of the material withheld (see para 4(3)(e)), but the court must ensure that such summary does not contain information or other material the disclosure of which would be contrary to the public interest (see para 4(3)(f)). If the Secretary of State elects not to disclose or summarise material which he is required to disclose or summarise, the court may give directions withdrawing from its consideration the matter to which the material is relevant or otherwise ensure that the material is not relied on (see para 4(4)).
[27] Part 76 of the Civil Procedure Rules gives effect to the procedural scheme authorised by the Schedule to the 2005 Act. Rule 76.2 modifies the overriding objective of the CPR so as to require a court to ensure that information is not disclosed contrary to the public interest. Rule 76.1(4) stipulates that disclosure is contrary to the public interest if it is made contrary to the interests of national security, the international relations of the United Kingdom, the detection or prevention of crime, or in any other circumstances where disclosure is likely to harm the public interest. Section 3 of Pt 76 applies to non-derogating control orders. It is unnecessary to rehearse its detailed terms. Provision is made for the exclusion of a relevant person and his legal representative from a hearing to secure that information is not disclosed contrary to the public interest (see CPR 76.22). Provision is made for the appointment of a special advocate whose function is to represent the interests of a relevant party (see CPR 76.23, 76.24), but who may only communicate with the relevant party before closed
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material is served upon him, save with permission of the court (see CPR 76.25, 76.28(2)). The ordinary rules governing evidence and inspection of documents are not to apply (see CPR 76.26): evidence may be given orally or in writing, and in documentary or any other form; it may receive evidence which would not be admissible in a court of law; it is provided that ‘Every party shall be entitled to adduce evidence and to cross-examine witnesses during any part of a hearing from which he and his legal representative are not excluded.’
[28] In his written case the Secretary of State states:
‘It is not in dispute that as a general principle and in ordinary circumstances, the right to a fair trial in criminal and in civil proceedings under Article 6 includes the right to disclosure of relevant evidence: see eg (Roberts v Parole Board [2005] UKHL 45 at [17], [2006] 1 All ER 39 at [17], [2005] 2 AC 738) per Lord Bingham, and the cases there referred to.’
In that paragraph reference is made to a number of convention cases, some of them mentioned below. But the controlled persons submit with some force that the Secretary of State’s qualified acceptance does less than justice to the fundamental principle here in issue.
[29] In Kanda v Government of the Federation of Malaya [1962] AC 322 at 337, [1962] 2 WLR 1153 at 1161 per Lord Denning, the Privy Council described the right to be heard as one of the essential characteristics of natural justice. But he pointed out:
‘If the right to be heard is to be a real right which is worth anything, it must carry with it a right in the accused man to know the case which is made against him. He must know what evidence has been given and what statements have been made affecting him: and then he must be given a fair opportunity to correct or contradict them . . . It follows, of course, that the judge or whoever has to adjudicate must not hear evidence or receive representations from one side behind the back of the other.’
Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest repeated this ruling in Ridge v Baldwin [1963] 2 All ER 66 at 102, [1964] AC 40 at 113–114:
‘It is well established that the essential requirements of natural justice at least include that before someone is condemned he is to have an opportunity of defending himself, and in order that he may do so that he is to be made aware of the charges or allegations or suggestions which he has to meet; see Kanda v Government of The Federation of Malaya. My lords, here is something which is basic to our system: the importance of upholding it far transcends the significance of any particular case.’
Much more recently, and in a convention context, Lord Hope of Craighead described the right to a fair trial as ‘fundamental and absolute’ (see Brown v Stott (Procurator Fiscal, Dunfermline) [2001] 2 All ER 97 at 129, [2003] 1 AC 681 at 719) and in DS v HM Advocate [2007] UKPC 36 at [17], [2007] 5 LRC 563 at [17], 2007 SC (PC) 1, Lord Hope of Craighead referred to and reaffirmed earlier observations to the effect that—
‘the overriding right guaranteed by article 6(1) was a fundamental right which did not admit of any balancing exercise, and that the public interest could never be invoked to deny that right to anybody in any circumstances . . .’
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[30] Similar statements may be found elsewhere. In Charkaoui v Minister of Citizenship and Immigration 2007 SCC 9 at [53], [2007] 5 LRC 95 at [53], McLachlin CJ, for the Supreme Court of Canada, observed: ‘Last but not least, a fair hearing requires that the affected person be informed of the case against him or her, and be permitted to respond to that case.' That right was not absolute and might be limited in the interests of national security (at [57], [58]) but (at [64]):
‘The judge is therefore not in a position to compensate for the lack of informed scrutiny, challenge and counter-evidence that a person familiar with the case could bring. Such scrutiny is the whole point of the principle that a person whose liberty is in jeopardy must know the case to meet. Here that principle has not merely been limited; it has been effectively gutted. How can one meet a case one does not know?’
In the recent case of Hamdi v Rumsfeld (2004) 542 US 507 at 533, O’Connor J, writing for the majority, said:
‘We therefore hold that a citizen-detainee seeking to challenge his classification as an enemy combatant must receive notice of the factual basis for his classification, and a fair opportunity to rebut the Government’s factual assertions before a neutral decisionmaker. [Authority, cited.] For more than a century the central meaning of procedural due process has been clear: “Parties whose rights are to be affected are entitled to be heard; and in order that they may enjoy that right they must first be notified . . .” These essential constitutional promises may not be eroded.’
[31] Statements to similar effect, less emphatically expressed, are to be found in the Strasbourg case law. In Kostovski v Netherlands (1989) 12 EHRR 434 at 448, 449 (paras 42, 44), a criminal case concerned with anonymous witnesses, the court observed:
‘. . . If the defence is unaware of the identity of the person it seeks to question, it may be deprived of the very particulars enabling it to demonstrate that he or she is prejudiced, hostile or unreliable. Testimony or other declarations inculpating an accused may well be designedly untruthful or simply erroneous and the defence will scarcely be able to bring this to light if it lacks the information permitting it to test the author’s reliability or cast doubt on his credibility. The dangers inherent in such a situation are obvious . . .
44. The right to a fair administration of justice holds so prominent a place in a democratic society that it cannot be sacrificed to expediency.’
In McMichael v UK [1995] 2 FCR 718 at 737 (para 80), a family case concerning a child, the court said:
‘Nevertheless, notwithstanding the special characteristics of the adjudication to be made, as a matter of general principle the right to a fair—adversarial—trial “means the opportunity to have knowledge of and comment on the observations filed or evidence adduced by the other party”. . .’
Lobo Machado v Portugal (1996) 23 EHRR 79 was a civil case concerning the applicant’s right, in an adversarial hearing, to see and reply to material before the court. ‘That right’, the court ruled (at 98 (para 31))—
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‘means in principle the opportunity for the parties to a criminal or civil trial to have knowledge of and comment on all evidence adduced or observations filed, even by an independent member of the national legal service, with a view to influencing the Court’s decision.’
In van Mechelen v Netherlands (1997) 2 BHRC 486 at 502 (para 51), a criminal case, the court ruled:
‘In addition, all the evidence must normally be produced at a public hearing, in the presence of the accused, with a view to adversarial argument. There are exceptions to this principle, but they must not infringe the rights of the defence; as a general rule, paras (1) and (3)(d) of art 6 require that the defendant be given an adequate and proper opportunity to challenge and question a witness against him, either when he makes his statements or at a later stage . . .’
In Garcia Alva v Germany (2001) 37 EHRR 335 at 353–354 (para 42), another criminal case, the court said:
‘The Court acknowledges the need for criminal investigations to be conducted efficiently, which may imply that part of the information collected during them is to be kept secret in order to prevent suspects from tampering with evidence and undermining the course of justice. However, this legitimate goal cannot be pursued at the expense of substantial restrictions on the rights of the defence. Therefore, information which is essential for the assessment of the lawfulness of a detention should be made available in an appropriate manner to the suspect’s lawyer.’
[32] As the Secretary of State correctly submits, the Strasbourg court has repeatedly stated that the constituent rights embodied in art 6(1) are not in themselves absolute. As it was put in Jasper v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 441 at 471 (para 52), and Fitt v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 480 at 510–511 (para 45) (footnotes omitted):
‘However, as the applicant recognised, the entitlement to disclosure of relevant evidence is not an absolute right. In any criminal proceedings there may be competing interests, such as national security or the need to protect witnesses at risk of reprisals or keep secret police methods of investigation of crime, which must be weighed against the rights of the accused. In some cases it may be necessary to withhold certain evidence from the defence so as to preserve the fundamental rights of another individual or to safeguard an important public interest. However, only such measures restricting the rights of the defence which are strictly necessary are permissible under Article 6(1). Moreover, in order to ensure that the accused receives a fair trial, any difficulties caused to the defence by a limitation on its rights must be sufficiently counterbalanced by the procedures followed by the judicial authorities.’
The court has not been insensitive to the special problems posed to national security by terrorism (see, for instance, Murray v UK (1994) 19 EHRR 193 at 222, 226 (paras 47, 58)). It has (as it was said in Brown v Stott (Procurator Fiscal, Dunfermline) [2001] 2 All ER 97 at 115, [2003] 1 AC 681 at 704) eschewed the formulation of hard-edged and inflexible statements of principle from which no departure could be sanctioned whatever the background or the circumstances,
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and has recognised the need for a fair balance between the general interest of the community and the rights of the individual. But even in cases where art 6(1) has not been in issue, the court has required that the subject of a potentially adverse decision enjoy a substantial measure or degree of procedural justice (see Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 433 (para 131); Al-Nashif v Bulgaria (2002) 36 EHRR 655 at 678 (para 97)). In Tinnelly & Sons Ltd v UK (1998) 4 BHRC 393 at 415 (para 72), the court held that any limitation of the individual’s implied right of access to the court must not impair the very essence of the right.
[33] Little assistance is gained from R v H [2004] 1 All ER 1269, [2004] 2 AC 134 since the problem in that case related to the withholding by a prosecutor, on national security grounds, of material helpful to a defendant. There was no question of withholding from the defendant material adverse to him and relied on by the prosecutor, and it was held (at [36](6)) that if the fairness of the trial required disclosure to the defendant the prosecutor must either disclose or discontinue. There is also little assistance to be gained from cases where, although evidence is withheld, the person receives an adequate summary, as the Strasbourg court understood to be the Canadian practice (see Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 436 (para 144)) and as was found to have been done in the Canadian cases of Minister of Employment and Immigration v Chiarelli [1992] 1 SCR 711 at 745–746 and Re Harkat (2004) 125 CRR (2d) 319 (para 32). There is, again, little help to be gained from reported cases in which the material not disclosed was not relied on, as was found to be so in Bendenoun v France (1994) 18 EHRR 54 at 77–78 (para 52); Jasper v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 441 at 472 (para 55); Fitt v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 480 at 511–512 (para 48). The real problem arises where material is relied on in coming to a decision which the person at risk of an adverse ruling has had no adequate opportunity to challenge or rebut, as in Feldbrugge v Netherlands (1986) 8 EHRR 425 at 436–437 (paras 42, 44); van Mechelen v Netherlands (1997) 2 BHRC 486 at 504–505 (paras 62–65); Lucà v Italy (2001) 36 EHRR 807 at 816 (paras 43–45). In each of these cases the trial was found to be unfair.
[34] In Roberts v Parole Board [2005] UKHL 45, [2006] 1 All ER 39, [2005] 2 AC 738, there was a division of opinion among members of the House on the question (not relevant to these appeals) whether the Parole Board had power to adopt a special advocate regime. The hearing in question had yet to take place, and it could not at that stage be known whether, and to what extent, the board would make a finding adverse to the applicant in reliance on evidence not disclosed to or challengeable by him. I myself doubted (at [19]) whether a decision of the board adverse to the applicant, based on evidence not disclosed even in outline to him or his legal representatives, which neither he nor they had heard and which neither he nor they had had any opportunity to challenge or rebut, could be held to meet the fundamental duty of procedural fairness required (in that case) by art 5(4). Lord Woolf, in the course of a detailed opinion, accepted (at [62]) ‘the overriding obligation for a hearing to meet the requirements of art 5(4) and of appropriate standards of fairness required by domestic law’ and accepted (at [68]) the applicant’s contention that there was ‘a core, irreducible, minimum entitlement’ for him as a life sentence prisoner to be able effectively to test and challenge any evidence which decisively bore on the legality of his detention. He held (at [78]) that if a case were to arise where it was impossible for the board to make use of information that had not been disclosed to the prisoner and, at the same time, protect the prisoner from a denial of his fundamental right to a fair hearing, then the rights of the prisoner would have to take precedence. The applicant had a fundamental right to be treated fairly
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(at [80]) and what would be determinative in a particular case (at [83](vii)) would be whether, looking at the process as a whole, a decision had been taken by the board which involved significant injustice to a prisoner. In the opinion of Lord Steyn the proposed procedure (at [93]) would override a fundamental right of due process and would (at [97]) be contrary to the rule of law. Lord Rodger of Earlsferry associated himself with certain statements of Lord Woolf, including his reference to a fundamental right to be treated fairly, but held (at [112]) that the House could not decide in advance whether the full hearing, with a specially appointed advocate, would meet the requirements of art 5(4). My noble and learned friend Lord Carswell concluded (at [144]) that the interests of the informant and the public should prevail over the interests of the applicant, strong though the latter might be. But he emphasised that he was making a decision in principle on the power of the board to appoint special advocates and their compatibility with art 5(4), and he accepted that there might well be cases in which it would not be fair and justifiable to rely on special advocates. Each case would require consideration on its own facts. I do not understand any of my noble and learned friends to have concluded that the requirements of procedural fairness under domestic law or under the convention would be met if a person entitled to a fair hearing, in a situation where an adverse decision could have severe consequences, were denied such knowledge, in whatever form, of what was said against him as was necessary to enable him, with or without a special advocate, effectively to challenge or rebut the case against him.
[35] I do not for my part doubt that the engagement of special advocates in cases such as these can help to enhance the measure of procedural justice available to a controlled person. The assistance which special advocates can give has been acknowledged (for instance, in M v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 324 at [34], [2004] 2 All ER 863 at [34]), and it is no doubt possible for such advocates on occasion to demonstrate that evidence relied on against a controlled person is tainted, unreliable or self-contradictory. I share the view to which the Strasbourg court inclined in Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 433 (para 131), repeated in Al-Nashif v Bulgaria (2002) 36 EHRR 655 at 678 (para 97), that the engagement of special advocates may be a valuable procedure. But, as Lord Woolf observed in Roberts v Parole Board [2006] 1 All ER 39 at [60]: ‘The use of [a special advocate] is, however, never a panacea for the grave disadvantages of a person affected not being aware of the case against him.' The reason is obvious. In any ordinary case, a client instructs his advocate what his defence is to the charges made against him, briefs the advocate on the weaknesses and vulnerability of the adverse witnesses, and indicates what evidence is available by way of rebuttal. This is a process which it may be impossible to adopt if the controlled person does not know the allegations made against him and cannot therefore give meaningful instructions, and the special advocate, once he knows what the allegations are, cannot tell the controlled person or seek instructions without permission, which in practice (as I understand) is not given. ‘Grave disadvantage’ is not, I think, an exaggerated description of the controlled person’s position where such circumstances obtain. I would respectfully agree with the opinion of Lord Woolf in Roberts’s case (at [83](vii)) that the task of the court in any given case is to decide, looking at the process as a whole, whether a procedure has been used which involved significant injustice to the controlled person (see also R (on the application of Hammond) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 69 at [10], [2006] 1 All ER 219 at [10], [2006] 1 AC 603).
[36] It is now necessary to apply these principles to the facts of these two appeals.
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MB
[37] MB is a 24-year-old student, born in Kuwait. He is a British citizen, naturalised as such in January 1998 after his mother was granted indefinite leave to remain. On 1 March 2005 he was seeking to fly to Syria from Manchester Airport when he was stopped and questioned by police officers and officers of the Security Service. On the following day he was at Heathrow, this time seeking to fly to Yemen, when he was again stopped and questioned by the police. His passport was seized and he was released. The content of these interviews is disputed. The Secretary of State asserts that on each occasion MB intended to travel on to Iraq to fight against coalition forces, which MB denies.
[38] On 1 September 2005 the Secretary of State applied to the court under s 3(1)(a) of the 2005 Act for permission to make a non-derogating control order. The application was supported by a witness statement and an open statement with supporting documents. The open statement said, so far as material:
‘3. MB is an Islamist extremist who, as recently as March 2005, attempted to travel to Syria and then Yemen. The Security Service assessment is that MB was intending to travel onwards to Iraq . . .
8. The Security Service is confident that prior to the authorities preventing his travel, MB intended to go to Iraq to fight against coalition forces. Despite having been stopped from travelling once, MB showed no inclination to cancel his plans. The police prevented his travel on a second occasion, and seized his passport . . .’
The Secretary of State’s application was also supported by a closed statement and further documents and an application to withhold the closed material. Permission was granted, subject to minor amendments, under s 3(2)(b) of the Act, and the order was made on 5 September 2005. The obligations imposed on MB by this order, plainly directed to preventing him leaving the country, were very much less stringent than in the cases of JJ, E and AF. Thus he was obliged to live at a specified address, to report to his local police station daily and to surrender his passport, and was forbidden to leave the United Kingdom or enter any airport or sea port, but he was otherwise subject to no geographical restriction, was subject to no curfew and was subject to no restriction on his social contacts. MB served a witness statement and the Secretary of State served a second open statement, which added little, and a second closed statement. The special advocate appointed to represent MB’s interests did not challenge the Secretary of State’s application to withhold the closed material, and accepted that it would not be possible to serve a summary which would not contain information or material the disclosure of which would be contrary to the public interest. The hearing under s 3(10) of the Act took place between 4 and 7 April 2006 before Sullivan J, who gave judgment on 12 April.
[39] In his judgment ([2006] EWHC 1000 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 201 (Apr), [2006] HRLR 878 at [66]) the judge recorded the description by counsel for the Secretary of State of his open case as ‘relatively thin’ and referred to part of the passage quoted in the last paragraph above. He observed (at [67]):
‘The basis for the Security Service’s confidence is wholly contained within the closed material. Without access to that material it is difficult to see how, in reality [MB] could make any effective challenge to what is, on the open case before him, no more than a bare assertion.’
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Taking account also of other aspects of the hearing, on some of which he misdirected himself, the judge concluded (at [103]) that MB had not had a fair hearing.
[40] The Court of Appeal thought it plain ([2007] QB 415 at [27]) that the justification for the obligations imposed on MB lay in the closed material, and (at [70]) it was the impact, on the facts of the case, of the provisions in the 2005 Act for the use of closed material that caused the court most concern. But having reviewed some of the authorities, it concluded (at [86]):
‘If one accepts, as we do, that reliance on closed material is permissible, this can only be on terms that appropriate safeguards against the prejudice that this may cause to the controlled person are in place. We consider that the provisions of the [2005 Act] for the use of a special advocate, and of the rules of court made pursuant to paragraph 4 of the Schedule to the [Act], constitute appropriate safeguards, and no suggestion has been made to the contrary.’
[41] The Council of Europe Commissioner for Human Rights, in para 21 of his report referred to at [16], above, and the Joint Committee on Human Rights, in para 76 of its report referred to at [16], above, had difficulty in accepting that a hearing could be fair if an adverse decision could be based on material that the controlled person has no effective opportunity to challenge or rebut. This is not a case (like E’s case) in which the order can be justified on the strength of the open material alone. Nor is it a case in which the thrust of the case against the controlled person has been effectively conveyed to him by way of summary, redacted documents or anonymised statements. It is a case in which, on the judge’s assessment which the Court of Appeal did not displace, MB was confronted by a bare, unsubstantiated assertion which he could do no more than deny. I have difficulty in accepting that MB has enjoyed a substantial measure of procedural justice, or that the very essence of the right to a fair hearing has not been impaired.
AF
[42] Ouseley J observed ([2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr) at [11]) that the open case for a control order against AF was very short. AF came to the attention of the Security Service before his arrest in May 2006. It was alleged that he had links with Islamist extremists in Manchester, some of whom were affiliated to the Libyan Islamic Fighting Group (LIFG). The LIFG became a proscribed organisation on 14 October 2005. The judge found (at [61]) it to be clear that the essence of the Secretary of State’s case against AF was in the closed material, and AF did not know what the case against him was. The open material disclosed to AF did not give grounds for reasonable suspicion (at [131]), and it was not contended that it did. There were no more than links to extremists, who also had innocent links to him. The judge thought it clear (at [131]) that more than reasonable grounds for suspicion existed, but only on the closed material. The judge was similarly satisfied that a control order was necessary (at [133]) but that conclusion depended on the closed evidence. The judge accepted (at [146]), without qualification, submissions by counsel for AF that no, or at least no clear or significant, allegations of involvement in terrorist-related activity were disclosed by the open material, that no such allegations had been gisted, that the case made by the Secretary of State against AF was in its essence entirely undisclosed to him and that no allegations of wrongdoing had been put to him by
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the police in interview after his arrest, affording him an idea by that side wind of what the case against him might be. Having noted the decision of the Court of Appeal in MB’s case and the decision of the House in Roberts’s case, the judge concluded (at [166]) that there was no clear basis for a finding of incompatibility.
[43] This would seem to me an even stronger case than MB’s. If, as I understand the House to have accepted in Roberts’s case, the concept of fairness imports a core, irreducible minimum of procedural protection, I have difficulty, on the judge’s findings, in concluding that such protection has been afforded to AF. The right to a fair hearing is fundamental. In the absence of a derogation (where that is permissible) it must be protected. In this case, as in MB’s, it seems to me that it was not.
REMEDY
[44] Since a majority of my noble and learned friends are of my opinion on the principles relevant to this issue, it is necessary to consider the question of remedy. In receiving and acting on closed material not disclosed to MB and AF, the courts below acted in strict accordance with the Act and the CPR. It was suggested in argument that the relevant provisions should be read down under s 3 of the 1998 Act, so that they would take effect only when it was consistent with fairness for them to do so. This would be a possible course, and it is plain that the provisions do not operate unfairly in all cases, as where the open material is sufficient to support the making of an order. But I question whether s 3 should be relied on in these cases, first, because any weakening of the mandatory language used by Parliament would very clearly fly in the face of Parliament’s intention, and, secondly, because it might be thought preferable to derogate from art 6, if judged permissible to do so (on which I express no opinion whatever), than to accept any modification of the terms of the Act and the CPR. I therefore see force in the argument that a declaration of incompatibility should be made and the orders quashed. Having, however, read the opinions of my noble and learned friends Baroness Hale of Richmond, Lord Carswell and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood, I see great force in the contrary argument, and would not wish to press my opinion to the point of dissent. I therefore agree that s 3 should be applied, and the cases referred back, as they propose, for consideration in each case by the judge in the light of the committee’s conclusions.
LORD HOFFMANN.
[45] My Lords, MB is the subject of a control order made by the Secretary of State on 2 September 2005 (with the permission of Ouseley J) on the grounds that he was suspected of being an Islamist extremist who twice tried to go to Iraq to fight against coalition forces. On a review of the case, Sullivan J decided ([2006] EWHC 1000 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 201 (Apr), [2006] HRLR 878) that the procedure by which closed material was withheld from MB was inconsistent with his right to a fair trial under art 6(1) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). He made a declaration of incompatibility under s 4(2) of the 1998 Act. The Court of Appeal reversed this decision and discharged the declaration. MB appeals.
[46] AF is the subject of a control order made by the Secretary of State (with the permission of a judge) on 11 September 2006 (and varied on 18 October 2006) on the grounds that he was suspected of links with Islamist extremists, some of whom were affiliated to the Libyan Islamic Fighting Group, a proscribed terrorist
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organisation. On a review of the case, Ouseley J decided ([2007] EWHC 651 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr)) that the restrictions imposed by the order amounted to a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1) of the convention. In the absence of a derogation, the order was therefore unlawful. But he rejected a submission that the control order proceedings amounted to the determination of a criminal charge or that the withholding of closed material was inconsistent with AF’s right under art 6 to a fair trial. The judge gave a leapfrog certificate and both sides appeal; the Secretary of State against the ruling on deprivation of liberty and AF against the rulings on art 6.
[47] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill and gratefully adopt his statement of the various restrictions imposed by the control order made against AF. For the reasons I gave in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642, I do not think that these restrictions come anywhere near amounting to a deprivation of liberty in the sense contemplated by the convention and I therefore agree that the appeal of the Secretary of State on this point should be allowed.
[48] I also agree with my noble and learned friend that a review of a control order is not the determination of a criminal charge. As a matter of English law, this is beyond doubt. MB and AF are not charged with having committed any breach of the law, let alone a terrorist act. The order is made on the basis of suspicion about what they may do in the future and not upon a determination of what they have done in the past. And the restrictions imposed by the order are for the purpose of prevention and not punishment or deterrence.
[49] It is of course true that domestic law is not conclusive for the purposes of art 6. The term criminal charge has an autonomous convention meaning which cannot be circumvented by the labels affixed in domestic law. But the Strasbourg jurisprudence recognises the distinction between determination and punishment of past guilt and prevention of future suspected wrongdoing (see the cases mentioned at [21] and [23] of Lord Bingham of Cornhill’s opinion, above). We were not referred to any case in which a genuinely preventative measure based on suspicion of future conduct was held to be the determination of a criminal charge. On this point, domestic and convention law agree.
[50] The final question is whether the non-disclosure of the closed material is consistent with the right to a fair trial. On this question, the critical point appears to me to be that material can be withheld only if a judge has decided that disclosure would be contrary to the public interest. It is a judicial decision and not that of the Secretary of State (see para 4(3) of the Schedule to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 and Pt 76 of the Civil Procedure Rules). On the other hand, the Secretary of State may make a control order only if he has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual concerned is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity and that an order is necessary for ‘protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism’. If, on the evidence put before the judge on review, he considers that the decision of the Secretary of State was flawed, the order cannot stand.
[51] Thus a decision that art 6 does not allow the Secretary of State to rely on closed material would create a dilemma: either he must disclose material which the court considers that the public interest requires to be withheld, or he must risk being unable to justify to the court an order which he considers necessary to protect the public against terrorism. It was this dilemma, and the way in which
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it should be resolved, which the Strasbourg court recognised in Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 433 (para 131):
‘The Court recognises that the use of confidential material may be unavoidable where national security is at stake. This does not mean, however, that the national authorities can be free from effective control by the domestic courts whenever they choose to assert that national security and terrorism are involved . . . The Court attaches significance to the fact that, as the intervenors pointed out in connection with art 13 (see para 144 below), in Canada a more effective form of judicial control has been developed in cases of this type. This example illustrates that there are techniques which can be employed which both accommodate legitimate security concerns about the nature and sources of intelligence information and yet accord the individual a substantial measure of procedural justice.’
[52] The court described the Canadian procedure which they recommended as a model at 436 (para 144):
‘. . . a Federal Court judge holds an in camera hearing of all the evidence, at which the applicant is provided with a statement summarising, as far as possible, the case against him or her and has the right to be represented and to call evidence. The confidentiality of security material is maintained by requiring such evidence to be examined in the absence of both the applicant and his or her representative. However, in these circumstances, their place is taken by a security-cleared counsel instructed by the court, who cross-examines the witnesses and generally assists the court to test the strength of the state’s case. A summary of the evidence obtained by this procedure, with necessary deletions, is given to the applicant.’
[53] These remarks were made in the context of detention pending deportation, a deprivation of liberty in respect of which the person detained is entitled under art 5(4) to have the lawfulness of his detention determined by a court. They seem to me a fortiori applicable to an examination of the lawfulness of a non-derogating control order, which by definition involves no deprivation of liberty. The significant feature is that the Strasbourg court recognised that the confidentiality of security material should be maintained and that the state should be entitled to protect the public interest.
[54] The Canadian model is precisely what has been adopted in the United Kingdom, first for cases of detention for the purposes of deportation on national security grounds (as in Chahal v UK) and then for the judicial supervision of control orders. From the point of view of the individual seeking to challenge the order, it is of course imperfect. But the Strasbourg court has recognised that the right to be informed of the case against one, though important, may have to be qualified in the interests of others and the public interest. The weight to be given to these competing interests will depend upon the facts of the case, but there can in time of peace be no public interest which is more weighty than protecting the state against terrorism and, on the other hand, the convention rights of the individual which may be affected by the orders are all themselves qualified by the requirements of national security. There is no Strasbourg or domestic authority which has gone to the lengths of saying that the Secretary of State cannot make a non-derogating control order (or anything of the same kind) without disclosing material which a judge considers it would be contrary to the public interest to disclose. I do not think that we should put the Secretary of State
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in such an impossible position and I therefore agree with the Court of Appeal that in principle the special advocate procedure provides sufficient safeguards to satisfy art 6.
[55] I would therefore dismiss the appeals of MB and AF and allow the appeal of the Secretary of State against AF.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[56] My Lords, on issues (1)–(3) identified by Ouseley J in the case of AF [2007] EWHC 651 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr), I have nothing to add to the reasoning and conclusions of my noble and learned friend, Lord Bingham of Cornhill, with which I agree. On issue (4), however, my approach is somewhat different, an approach which I understand to be shared by my noble and learned friends, Lord Carswell and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood.
[57] The object of all legal proceedings is to do justice according to law: but this is easily said and not so easily done. Doing justice means not only arriving at a just result but arriving at it in a just manner. The overriding objective of the Civil Procedure Rules is to enable the court to deal with cases justly (see CPR 1.1(1)). Of the fundamental importance of the right to a fair trial there can be no doubt. But there is equally no doubt that the essential ingredients of a fair trial can vary according to the subject matter and nature of the proceedings.
[58] The basic requirement is to know the case against one and to have an opportunity of meeting it. But in Official Solicitor v K [1962] 3 All ER 1000 at 1008, [1963] Ch 381 at 405, Upjohn LJ identified more detailed principles of a judicial inquiry: ‘the right to see all the information put before the judge, to comment on it, to challenge it, and if needs be to combat it, and to try to establish by contrary evidence that it is wrong’. However, as Lord Devlin pointed out in the same case in the House of Lords ([1963] 3 All ER 191 at 209, [1965] AC 201 at 238):
‘. . . a principle of judicial inquiry, whether fundamental or not, is only a means to an end. If it can be shown in any particular class of case that the observance of a principle of this sort does not serve the ends of justice, it must be dismissed; otherwise it would become the master instead of the servant of justice.’
If, as in that case, the whole object of the proceedings is to protect and promote the best interests of a child, there may be exceptional circumstances in which disclosure of some of the evidence would be so detrimental to the child’s welfare as to defeat the object of the exercise: the modern principles are explained in Re D (minors) (adoption reports: confidentiality) [1995] 4 All ER 385, [1996] AC 593. A similar approach is taken in the Mental Health Review Tribunal Rules 1983, SI 1983/942, which allow evidence to be withheld from the patient if ‘disclosure would adversely affect the health or welfare of the patient or others’ (see rr 6(4) and 12(2)). But nothing may be withheld from a suitably qualified representative of the patient (see r 12(3)). That representative is then in the difficult position of not being able to share all the information which he has with his client; but overall there may still be a fair trial of the issues.
[59] I mention these examples, not because they are factually similar to the present case, but to show that the problem is not a new one and that there are courts which have long been doing their best to try cases justly even though the ordinary principles of judicial inquiry identified by Upjohn LJ cannot be observed in every particular. If procedure is the servant rather than the master, then dealing with some cases ‘justly’ may sometimes require a rather different
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approach (it follows that I take issue with CPR 76.2, which requires that in control order cases the overriding objective be read and given effect in a way which is compatible with the duty to ensure that information is not disclosed contrary to the public interest, thus apparently requiring that the court deal otherwise than justly with at least some cases).
[60] The examples of cases concerning children and mental patients fall fairly and squarely within the problem which now confronts us in the control order cases. They too are hearings in which civil rights and obligations are determined for the purpose of art 6(1). I emphasise this, because the powerful submissions from JUSTICE ask us to draw a distinction between such a case and, first, the withholding of information which the authorities do not intend to use to prove their case but which might be helpful to the other side (as in R v H, R v C [2004] UKHL 3, [2004] 1 All ER 1269, [2004] 2 AC 134; and the Strasbourg cases cited at [62], below), and second, deportation cases in which the state has a right to deport on grounds of national security (as in Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405). While non-disclosure and the use of special advocates might be acceptable in the last two situations, it is argued that it is not acceptable in the first.
[61] But I do not think that we can draw such a clear distinction. Chahal v UK may have been a deportation case in which Mr Chahal had no right to be here, but he had been deprived of his liberty for a very long time with a view to deportation, so his rights under art 5 were clearly engaged. There cannot be such a stark distinction between the requirements of art 5(4) and the requirements of art 6(1) (and see Al-Nashif v Bulgaria (2002) 36 EHRR 655). The same applies to the Mental Health Review Tribunal Rules, where the issue is whether the patient should continue to be deprived of his liberty. If adaptations to enable the case to be dealt with justly are permissible in such cases, they must in principle be permissible in these.
[62] Strasbourg has not yet had to deal with a case exactly on all fours with the present. The principles applicable to disclosure in criminal proceedings were laid down by the Grand Chamber in three cases decided on the same day: Rowe v UK (2000) 8 BHRC 325 at 342–343 (paras 60, 61); Jasper v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 441 at 471 (paras 51, 52); Fitt v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 480 at 510–511 (paras 44, 45); repeated in Edwards v UK (2004) 40 EHRR 593 at 609 (para 46) of the judgment of the Grand Chamber, quoting paras 52 and 53 of the judgment of the Chamber in 2003; see also PG v UK [2001] ECHR 44787/98; Atlan v UK (2001) 34 EHRR 833; Dowsett v UK [2003] All ER (D) 307 (Jun); and most recently in Botmeh v UK [2007] All ER (D) 40 (Jun) at para 37. The most important passage is the following Rowe v UK (2000) 8 BHRC 325 at 342 (para 61):
‘However . . . the entitlement to disclosure of relevant evidence is not an absolute right. In any criminal proceedings there may be competing interests, such as national security or the need to protect witnesses at risk of reprisals or keep secret police methods of investigation of crime, which must be weighed against the rights of the accused . . . In some cases it may be necessary to withhold certain evidence from the defence so as to preserve the fundamental rights of another individual or to safeguard an important public interest. However, only such measures restricting the rights of the defence which are strictly necessary are permissible under art 6(1) . . . Moreover, in order to ensure that the accused receives a fair trial, any difficulties caused to the defence by a limitation on its rights must be sufficiently counterbalanced by the procedures followed by the judicial authorities . . .’
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[63] I take several messages from those cases which are helpful for present purposes. First, even in criminal proceedings, it is recognised that there may be competing interests, which include national security, the need to keep secret police methods of investigation, and to protect the fundamental rights of another person. Secondly, evidence may only be withheld if it is strictly necessary to do so. Thirdly, any difficulties caused to the defence must be ‘sufficiently counterbalanced’ by the measures taken by the judicial authorities, that is, by the court itself. Fourthly, what is sufficient will be specific to the case in question. The European Court of Human Rights will not assess whether the non-disclosure was strictly necessary but will review—
‘whether the decision-making procedure applied in each case complied, as far as possible, with the requirements of adversarial proceedings and equality of arms and incorporated adequate safeguards to protect the interests of the accused.’ (Rowe v UK (2000) 8 BHRC 325 at 343 (para 62).)
Fifthly, however, there is a difference between background information which is not essential to the outcome of the case and evidence which is crucial to its determination (cf, for example, the facts in Edwards v UK and Botmeh v UK). Sixthly, in none of those cases did the court have the assistance of a special advocate as now provided for in that context as well as in control order cases.
[64] In several of the above cases, however, the Strasbourg court contemplated that the use of a special advocate might have solved the problem: this is one of the counter-balancing measures which might be adopted by the judicial authorities. This House too has endorsed their use in non-disclosure claims in criminal proceedings (see R v H, R v C [2004] UKHL 3, [2004] 1 All ER 1269, [2004] 2 AC 134). The guidance given in that case relating to the treatment of material which may weaken the prosecution case or strengthen the defence case (at [36]) could also be applied in control order cases.
[65] However, it is necessary to go further than that, and ask whether the use of a special advocate can solve the problem where the Secretary of State wishes to withhold from the controlled person material upon which she wishes to rely in order to establish her case. We are all agreed that these are not criminal proceedings for the purpose of art 6; in ordinary civil proceedings it is appropriate to give weight to the interests of each side; nevertheless, the state is seeking to restrict the ordinary freedom of action which everyone ought to enjoy, in some cases seriously. It seems probable that Strasbourg would apply very similar principles to those applicable in criminal proceedings, but would be more inclined to hold that the measures taken by the judicial authorities had been sufficient to protect the interests of the controlled person. It would all depend upon the nature of the case; what steps had been taken to explain the detail of the allegations to the controlled person so that he could anticipate what the material in support might be; what steps had been taken to summarise the closed material in support without revealing names, dates or places; the nature and content of the material withheld; how effectively the special advocate had been able to challenge it on behalf of the controlled person; and what difference its disclosure might have made. All of these factors would be relevant to whether the controlled person had been ‘given a meaningful opportunity to contest the factual basis’ for the order (see Hamdi v Rumsfeld 542 US 507 (2004) at 509 per O’Connor J).
[66] I do not think that we can be confident that Strasbourg would hold that every control order hearing in which the special advocate procedure had been
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used, as contemplated by the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 and Pt 76 of the Civil Procedure Rules, would be sufficient to comply with art 6. However, with strenuous efforts from all, difficult and time consuming though it will be, it should usually be possible to accord the controlled person ‘a substantial measure of procedural justice’. Everyone involved will have to do their best to ensure that the ‘principles of judicial inquiry’ are complied with to the fullest extent possible. The Secretary of State must give as full as possible an explanation of why she considers that the grounds in s 2(1) are made out. The fuller the explanation given, the fuller the instructions that the special advocates will be able to take from the client before they see the closed material. Both judge and special advocates will have to probe the claim that the closed material should remain closed with great care and considerable scepticism. There is ample evidence from elsewhere of a tendency to over-claim the need for secrecy in terrorism cases (see Serrin Turner and Stephen J Schulhofer The Secrecy Problem in Terrorism Trials (2005) Brennan Centre for Justice at NYU School of Law). Both judge and special advocates will have stringently to test the material which remains closed. All must be alive to the possibility that material could be redacted or gisted in such a way as to enable the special advocates to seek the client’s instructions upon it. All must be alive to the possibility that the special advocates be given leave to ask specific and carefully tailored questions of the client. Although not expressly provided for in CPR 76.24, the special advocate should be able to call or have called witnesses to rebut the closed material. The nature of the case may be such that the client does not need to know all the details of the evidence in order to make an effective challenge.
[67] The best judge of whether the proceedings have afforded a sufficient and substantial measure of procedural protection is likely to be the judge who conducted the hearing. It is highly significant that, in AF’s case, Ouseley J concluded ([2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr) at [167]):
‘I should add that looking at the nature of the issue, namely necessary restrictions on movement in an important interest, and at the way in which the special advocates were able to and did deal with the issues on the closed material, I do not regard the process as one in which AF has been without a substantial and sufficient measure of procedural protection.’
That is a judgment with which any appeal court should be slow to interfere.
[68] But there may still be a few cases in which, under the scheme set out in the 2005 Act and the CPR, this is not possible. The material which is crucial to demonstrating the reasonable basis of the Secretary of State’s suspicions or fears cannot be disclosed in any way which will enable the controlled person to give such answer as he may have. What is to happen then? The key provisions are in the Schedule to the 2005 Act. Paragraph 4(2)(a) provides that rules of court may—
‘make provision enabling control order proceedings or relevant appeal proceedings to take place without full particulars of the reasons for decisions to which the proceedings relate being given to a relevant party to the proceedings or his legal representative (if he has one).’
More importantly, para 4(3)(d) provides that rules of court must secure ‘that the relevant court is required to give permission for material not to be disclosed where it considers that disclosure of the material would be contrary to the public interest’. This is carried through into CPR 76.2(2): ‘The court must ensure that
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information is not disclosed contrary to the public interest.' Further, in CPR 76.29(8): ‘The court must give permission to the Secretary of State to withhold closed material where it considers that the disclosure of that material would be contrary to the public interest.' Disclosure contrary to the public interest is widely defined in CPR 76.1(4):
‘For the purpose of this Part, disclosure is contrary to the public interest if it is made contrary to the interests of national security, the international relations of the United Kingdom, the detection and prevention of crime, or in any other circumstances where disclosure is likely to harm the public interest.’
[69] On the face of it, therefore, the judge is precluded from ordering disclosure even where he considers that this is essential in order to give the controlled person a fair hearing. This would not matter if he were then in a position to refuse to uphold the order. However, he will have had all the relevant material which was available to the Secretary of State placed before him (see Schedule, para 4(3)(a) and CPR 76.27). The obvious intention is that he should take it into account even though it remains closed to the controlled person. Section 3(12) allows him to quash the order, to quash one or more of the obligations in the order, or to direct that the Secretary of State revoke or modify the order, but only if he considers that a decision of the Secretary of State was flawed. Section 3(13) provides: ‘In every other case the court must decide that the control order is to continue in force.’
[70] But the judge is also a public authority for the purpose of the Human Rights Act 1998 and thus under a duty to act compatibly with the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights And Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act) unless precluded from doing so by primary legislation which cannot be read in any other way (see 1998 Act, s 6(1),(2) and (3), and 2005 Act s 11(2)). If, despite all the efforts of the judge and the special advocates to ensure that there is a fair hearing, the judge determines that the hearing cannot be fair unless more material is disclosed, the convention rights require that he be in a position to quash the order. On the face of it, therefore, s 3(13) of the Act may on occasions produce a result which is incompatible with the convention rights. However, this will not be so in every case. Indeed, my view is that the procedures can be made to work fairly and compatibly in many cases. It would not, therefore, be appropriate to make a declaration of incompatibility. The matter can be dealt with in a different way.
[71] A similar situation arose in R (on the application of Hammond) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 69, [2006] 1 All ER 219, [2006] 1 AC 603. This concerned para 11(1) of Sch 22 to the Criminal Justice Act 2003, which provided that a single judge should set minimum terms for certain prisoners sentenced to life imprisonment ‘without an oral hearing’. Yet in some but not all cases a hearing would be necessary if the judge was to adjudicate fairly. Rather than declare the provision incompatible, it was read subject to an implied condition that the judge had power to order a hearing where this was required in order to comply with the prisoner’s rights under art 6. Admittedly, in that case it was not argued that such an interpretation was not possible under s 3 of the 1998 Act: the government invited the court to take that course (mindful no doubt that a very similar course was taken in the leading case of R v A [2001] UKHL 25, [2001] 3 All ER 1, [2002] 1 AC 45 and wishing to save the provision if it could). In this case the Secretary of State has argued that such an interpretation of the 2005 Act
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is not possible, but has not convincingly explained why it was possible in Hammond’s case and is not possible here. I share the view of Lord Bingham of Cornhill, at [44], above, that this would be a possible course. If it is possible, then s 3(1) of the 1998 Act requires that it be done.
[72] In my view, therefore, para 4(3)(d) of the Schedule to the 2005 Act, should be read and given effect ‘except where to do so would be incompatible with the right of the controlled person to a fair trial’. Paragraph 4(2)(a) and CPR 76.29(8) would have to be read in the same way. This would then bring into play CPR 76.29(7), made under para 4(4) of the Schedule. Where the court does not give the Secretary of State permission to withhold closed material, she has a choice. She may decide that, after all, it can safely be disclosed (experience elsewhere in the world has been that, if pushed, the authorities discover that more can be disclosed than they first thought possible). But she may decide that it must still be withheld. She cannot then be required to serve it. But if the court considers that the material might be of assistance to the controlled person in relation to a matter under consideration, it may direct that the matter be withdrawn from consideration by the court. In any other case, it may direct that the Secretary of State cannot rely upon the material. If the Secretary of State cannot rely upon it, and it is indeed crucial to the decision, then the decision will be flawed and the order will have to be quashed.
[73] Not only, in my view, are we required by Parliament to take this course if it is possible. There are several reasons why it is desirable for us to do so. First, when Parliament passed the 2005 Act, it must have thought that the provisions with which we are concerned were compatible with the convention rights. In interpreting the Act compatibly we are doing our best to make it work. This gives the greatest possible incentive to all parties to the case, and to the judge, to conduct the proceedings in such a way as to afford a sufficient and substantial measure of procedural justice. This includes the Secretary of State, who will, of course, be anxious that the control order be upheld. A declaration of incompatibility, on the other hand, would allow all of them to conduct the proceedings in a way which they knew to be incompatible. Secondly, there is good reason to think that Strasbourg would find proceedings conducted in accordance with the Act and rules compatible in the majority of cases. Inviting a derogation in order to cater for the minority where it might not so find may risk even greater incursions into the fundamental requirements of a fair trial which have not yet been shown to be necessitated by the exigencies of the situation. Thirdly, and above all, there are powerful policy reasons in support of procedures which enable cases to be proven through the evidence of infiltrators and informers rather than upon evidence which may have been obtained through the use of torture. Not only is the latter abhorrent, there is good reason to believe that it is generally unreliable and counter-productive. This House has ruled that such evidence is always inadmissible, but has placed the burden of proving this upon the person who wishes to challenge it (see A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (No 2) [2005] UKHL 71, [2006] 1 All ER 575, [2006] 2 AC 221). It is particularly difficult for a person subject to control order proceedings to do this. Devising a sufficient means of challenging the evidence is an incentive to the authorities to rely on better and more reliable sources of intelligence. That may sometimes mean keeping their identity, and sometimes some of the surrounding circumstances, secret. But that is an overall price worth paying for the good of all.
[74] It follows that I cannot share the view of Lord Hoffmann, that the use of special advocates will always comply with art 6; nor do I have the same difficulty
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as Lord Bingham of Cornhill in accepting that the procedure could comply with art 6 in the two cases before us. It is quite possible for the court to provide the controlled person with a sufficient measure of procedural protection even though the whole evidential basis for the basic allegation, which has been explained to him, is not disclosed.
[75] In the case of MB, the Court of Appeal corrected the major premise which underpinned the declaration of incompatibility made by the trial judge: that the court was limited to reviewing the Secretary of State’s decision on the basis of the information available to her when that decision was made. But the Court of Appeal also took the view that the use of a special advocate constituted an appropriate safeguard (see [2006] EWCA Civ 1140 at [86], [2007] QB 415 at [86], [2006] 3 WLR 839). They allowed the Secretary of State’s appeal and ordered that the validity of the control order be reconsidered. That remains the appropriate outcome, although the case now falls to be reconsidered in the light of the majority opinions in this House.
[76] The case of AF is more difficult, because of the judge’s view that there had been a ‘substantial and sufficient measure of procedural protection’. It is tempting, therefore, simply to allow the Secretary of State’s appeal on the first (the deprivation of liberty) issue and leave the control order in place. However, the judge had already concluded that the control order should be quashed as a deprivation of liberty; moreover he was bound by the decision of the Court of Appeal in MB’s case. In fairness, AF should have the opportunity of having his case heard in accordance with the approach approved in this House. I would therefore send that case back also.
LORD CARSWELL.
[77] My Lords, the four issues in AF’s appeal have been set out at [3], above, of the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill and I need not repeat them. The issue in MB’s appeal is similar to that in the fourth issue of AF’s appeal, and is in essence whether the control orders can stand in the light of the withholding of closed material from the appellants, taking into account the use of special advocates at their hearings.
[78] On the first issue in AF’s case, whether the effect of the control order was a deprivation of his liberty within the meaning of art 5 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998), I would refer to my opinion in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642. For the reasons which I set out in that opinion I do not consider that AF was deprived of his liberty by the control order. I cannot agree with Ouseley J’s conclusion on this issue, on which the Secretary of State is entitled to succeed. The second issue accordingly does not arise. I would allow the Secretary of State’s appeal on these issues.
[79] The third issue is whether non-derogating control order proceedings constitute the determination of a criminal charge within the meaning of art 6 of the convention. I agree with the conclusion expressed by Lord Bingham of Cornhill (at [24], above) that it does not, and with his reasons for reaching that conclusion. It is not in dispute that the civil limb of art 6(1) applies to the examination of control orders by the courts and the person subject to such an order (to whom I shall refer for convenience, albeit inelegantly, as the controlee) is entitled to a fair hearing. The question of what prevents a hearing from being fair brings one to the fourth issue.
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[80] The necessity to furnish a controlee with sufficient material to understand the case made against him and to be in a position to contest it is very clearly established, and it is not necessary for me to cite the many authorities on the point. It is recognised, however, both in domestic law and in the Strasbourg jurisprudence that in some contexts it may be legitimate to withhold a certain amount of significant material from a party where there are sufficiently strong countervailing reasons to set against the individual’s right grounded in art 6 to have knowledge of and be able to contest the case against him. The European Court of Human Rights accepted in Edwards v United Kingdom (2004) 40 EHRR 593 at 609 (para 46) that the safeguarding of an important public interest may at times justify the withholding of evidence. In Rowe v UK (2000) 8 BHRC 325 at 342–343 the court said:
‘61. However, as the applicants recognised . . . the entitlement to disclosure of relevant evidence is not an absolute right. In any criminal proceedings there may be competing interests, such as national security or the need to protect witnesses at risk of reprisals or keep secret police methods of investigation of crime, which must be weighed against the rights of the accused . . . In some cases it may be necessary to withhold certain evidence from the defence so as to preserve the fundamental rights of another individual or to safeguard an important public interest. However, only such measures restricting the rights of the defence which are strictly necessary are permissible under art 6(1) . . . Moreover, in order to ensure that the accused receives a fair trial, any difficulties caused to the defence by a limitation on its rights must be sufficiently counterbalanced by the procedures followed by the judicial authorities . . .
62. In cases where evidence has been withheld from the defence on public interest grounds, it is not the role of this court to decide whether or not such non-disclosure was strictly necessary since, as a general rule, it is for the national courts to assess the evidence before them . . . Instead, the European Court’s task is to ascertain whether the decision-making procedure applied in each case complied, as far as possible, with the requirements of adversarial proceedings and equality of arms and incorporated adequate safeguards to protect the interests of the accused.’
The need to protect a state’s citizens from the risk of terrorist attack is one of the most important and pressing competing interests, as the European Court of Human Rights has recognised in a series of decisions (see, eg, Klass v Germany (1978) 2 EHRR 214, Murray v UK (1994) 19 EHRR 193 and Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405).
[81] The European Court has also accepted that expedients such as the use of special advocates may in principle give sufficient protection to the individual’s rights to satisfy the requirements of art 6. In Chahal v UK it said (at 433):
‘131. The Court recognises that the use of confidential material may be unavoidable where national security is at stake. This does not mean, however, that the national authorities can be free from effective control by the domestic courts whenever they choose to assert that national security and terrorism are involved . . . The Court attaches significance to the fact that, as the intervenors pointed out in connection with art 13 . . . in Canada a more effective form of judicial control has been developed in cases of this type. This example illustrates that there are techniques which can be
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employed which both accommodate legitimate security concerns about the nature and sources of intelligence information and yet accord the individual a substantial measure of procedural justice.’
The reference to these techniques is to the use of special advocates to represent the interests of the individual concerned, which the court described in more detail at 436 (para 144). Similarly, in Al-Nashif v Bulgaria (2002) 36 EHRR 655 the court noted United Kingdom legislation providing for the appointment of special counsel and went on to say (at 678):
‘97. Without expressing in the present context an opinion on the conformity of the above system with the Convention, the Court notes that, as in the case of Chahal, there are means which can be employed which both accommodate legitimate national security concerns and yet accord the individual a substantial measure of procedural justice.’
The court did, however, define a limit to this in Tinnelly & Sons Ltd v UK (1998) 4 BHRC 393 at 415 (para 72), where it stated that limitations must not restrict or reduce the individual’s access to the court ‘in such a way or to such an extent that the very essence of the right is impaired’. The House was referred to a litany of cases in which the European Court held that where material had been withheld from an individual there was a breach of art 6, but in none of them was a special advocate employed to represent his interests, and accordingly the assistance to be derived from these decisions is limited.
[82] The House has had occasion to consider the use of special advocates on a couple of occasions. One cannot obtain much assistance from the decision in R v H, R v C [2004] UKHL 3, [2004] 1 All ER 1269, [2004] 2 AC 134, where the issues which arose were not comparable with those in the present appeals. More can be gained, however, from Roberts v Parole Board [2005] UKHL 45, [2006] 1 All ER 39, [2005] 2 AC 738, notwithstanding the differences in context and governing legislation. This case has been discussed by Lord Bingham of Cornhill at [34] of his opinion, above, and I shall not rehearse the details of the issues. The members of the Appellate Committee were all conscious of the grave extent of the disadvantage imposed upon the individual if material is withheld from his legal representatives as well as himself and his interests are represented only by a special advocate. As in Roberts’s case, I would not seek to minimise these disadvantages, and in the present context the impact upon the individual’s interests is at least as significant as in a parole hearing. The majority were, however, prepared to accept that the Parole Board had in principle power to withhold information and appoint special advocates to represent prisoners’ interests, while declining to decide at that stage on the fairness of their use in the appeal before the House. They emphasised that their decision only extended to accepting in principle that the use of a special advocate did not necessarily infringe the right to a fair hearing, but were not prepared to hold that that procedure would constitute a fair procedure in all cases. Lord Woolf said (at [83]):
‘What will be determinative in a particular case is whether looking at the process as a whole a decision has been taken by the board using a procedure that involves significant injustice to the prisoner. If there has been, the decision should be quashed.’
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[83] In the present case one has to balance two interests, that of the controlee and the public interest, without the added factor of protecting the informant. Both interests are clear and strong, but in my opinion it is possible to accommodate both with an appropriate balance. The House was referred to a number of expressions of concern about the limits on the value of the representation of a controlee’s interests afforded by a special advocate. Lord Woolf CJ remarked, however, in the Court of Appeal in M v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 324 at [34], [2004] 2 All ER 863 at [34]:
‘(i) Having read the transcripts, we are impressed by the openness and fairness with which the issues in the closed session were dealt with by those who were responsible for the evidence given before SIAC. (ii) We feel the case has additional importance because it does clearly demonstrate that, while the procedures which SIAC have to adopt are not ideal, it is possible by using special advocates to ensure that those detained can achieve justice and it is wrong therefore to undervalue the SIAC appeal process.’
[84] In MB’s case Sullivan J concluded that there was inherent unfairness in a hearing under s 3(10) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 and proceeded to make a declaration of incompatibility. But that remedy is to be regarded as a measure of last resort, to be avoided unless it is plainly impossible to do so (see R v A [2001] UKHL 25 at [44], [2001] 3 All ER 1 at [44], [2002] 1 AC 45 per Lord Steyn). I do not consider that the provisions of the 2005 Act and CPR Pt 76 are necessarily incapable of being made to operate compatibly with art 6. It seems to me possible to imply into them, and in particular into para 4(2)(a) and 4(3)(d) of the Schedule to the 2005 Act, a qualification that the powers conferred do not extend to withholding particulars of reasons or evidence where to do so would deprive the controlee of a fair trial. The House adopted a comparable course in R v A, when it was willing (Lord Hope of Craighead dubitante) to imply a provision into s 41 of the Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act 1999 that evidence or questioning which was required to ensure a fair trial under art 6 should not be treated as inadmissible (see [45] per Lord Steyn). Similarly, in R (on the application of Hammond) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWHC 2753 (Admin), [2005] 4 All ER 1127, the Divisional Court was willing to interpolate a qualification such as that which I propose into para 11(1) of Sch 22 to the Criminal Justice Act 2003. Before the House ([2005] UKHL 69, [2006] 1 All ER 219, [2006] 1 AC 603) the Secretary of State expressly accepted that if para 11(1) was found to be incompatible with the convention, it should be read subject to such an implied condition. It was therefore unnecessary to reach a considered decision on whether such an interpolation would be sustainable, but although Lord Hoffmann described it as a ‘bold exercise in “interpretation”’, the House accepted it.
[85] There is a very wide spectrum of cases in which closed material is relied on by the Secretary of State. At one extreme there may be cases in which the sole evidence adverse to the controlee is closed material, he cannot be told what the evidence is or even given its gist and the special advocate is not in a position to take sufficient instructions to mount an effective challenge to the adverse allegations. At the other end there may be cases where the probative effect of the closed material is very slight or merely corroborative of strong open material and there is no obstacle to presenting a defence. There is an infinite variety of possible cases in between. The balance between the open material and the closed material and the probative nature of each will vary from case to case. The special advocate may be able to discern with sufficient clarity how to deal with the closed material
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without obtaining direct instructions from the controlee. These are matters for the judge to weigh up and assess in the process of determining whether the controlee has had a fair trial. The assessment is, as Lord Woolf said in Roberts v Parole Board [2006] 1 All ER 39 at [77], fact specific. The judge who has seen both the open and the closed material and had the benefit of the contribution of the special advocate is in much the best position to make it. I do consider, however, that there is a fairly heavy burden on the controlee to establish that there has been a breach of art 6, for the legitimate public interest in withholding material on valid security grounds should be given due weight. The courts should not be too ready to hold that a disadvantage suffered by the controlee through the withholding of material constitutes a breach of art 6.
[86] In MB’s case Sullivan J stated ([2006] EWHC 1000 (Admin) at [67], [2006] All ER (D) 201 (Apr) at [67], [2006] HRLR 878), and it has not been the subject of dispute, that the evidence implicating MB in terrorist activities is wholly contained within the closed material. He stated his view at [74] that where the substantial part of the case against him was not disclosed to the controlee, it was difficult to see how the very essence of his right of access to the court was not impaired. He did take the view, however, which the Court of Appeal declared to be incorrect, that the court could not take into account any potentially exculpatory information identified by the special advocate which might cast a different and less unfavourable light on the closed material. I would send the matter back to the Administrative Court to review the overall fairness of the appeal hearing in the light of the opinions of the House and those of the Court of Appeal. The Court of Appeal proposed to take this course and I accordingly would uphold its decision and dismiss MB’s appeal, though for my own somewhat differing reasons, which accord with those given by my noble and learned friends Baroness Hale of Richmond and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood.
[87] In AF’s case Ouseley J accepted ([2007] EWHC 651 (Admin) at [146], [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr) at [146]) that ‘no, or at least no clear or significant, allegations of involvement in terrorist-related activity are disclosed by the open material, nor have any such allegations been gisted’. Again, this finding has not been challenged. As in MB’s case, it is difficult to see how this could constitute a fair hearing, unless the contribution of the special advocate was such as to make a significant difference. The judge referred (at [167]) to ‘the way in which the special advocates were able to and did deal with the issues on the closed material’, but it is not spelled out in the judgment how significant their contribution was. The judge has not made a decision on the overall fairness of the hearing and its compliance with art 6, and in these circumstances I would allow the Secretary of State’s appeal, reverse the judge’s order quashing the control order and send the case back to the Administrative Court for reconsideration in the light of the opinions expressed by the House.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[88] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill and gratefully adopt his exposition of the relevant facts and law and his identification of the issues now arising on these two appeals.
[89] AF’s control order subjected him to a 14-hour curfew. For the reasons given in my judgment in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642 I do not regard that as involving a sufficient
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degree of physical confinement to constitute a deprivation of liberty as opposed to a restriction of AF’s freedom of movement. Plainly it is a very severe restriction on that freedom and by virtue of that restriction together with the various additional restrictions inherent in the other conditions and circumstances of AF’s order it interferes too with a number of AF’s rights under the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights And Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) (most notably perhaps those under arts 8, 9 and 10). But these are all qualified rights (as too would be AF’s right to freedom of movement had the United Kingdom in fact conferred it upon him by ratifying the Fourth Protocol) and it is noteworthy that neither AF nor, indeed, any of the other appellants before your Lordships have sought to challenge the justification for these various restrictions nor their proportionality. I accordingly agree with all your Lordships that the Secretary of State’s appeal should succeed on this aspect of AF’s case.
[90] With regard to AF’s cross appeal on the art 6 issues, and MB’s appeal against the Court of Appeal’s ruling that s 3 of the 2005 Act is compatible with his right to a fair hearing under art 6 of the convention, I agree with much of Lord Bingham of Cornhill’s opinion. In particular I agree with his conclusions at [24], above, that non-derogating control order proceedings do not involve the determination of a criminal charge but that nevertheless those against whom such orders are proposed or made are entitled to such measure of procedural protection as is commensurate with the gravity of the potential consequences. I agree too with Lord Bingham’s convincing analysis of the authorities at [25]–[34], above, and his conclusion at [35] that the court’s task in any given case is to decide whether the process as a whole has occasioned significant injustice to the person concerned (the suspect). I agree further that the special advocate procedure, highly likely though it is that it will in fact safeguard the suspect against significant injustice, cannot invariably be guaranteed to do so. There may perhaps be cases, wholly exceptional though they are likely to be, where, despite the best efforts of all concerned by way of redaction, anonymisation, and gisting, it will simply be impossible to indicate sufficient of the Secretary of State’s case to enable the suspect to advance any effective challenge to it. Unless in these cases the judge can nevertheless feel quite sure that in any event no possible challenge could conceivably have succeeded (a difficult but not, I think, impossible conclusion to arrive at—consider, for example, the judge’s remarks in AF’s own case, set out by my noble and learned friend Baroness Hale of Richmond at [67] of her opinion, above), he would have to conclude that the making or, as the case may be, confirmation of an order would indeed involve significant injustice to the suspect. In short, the suspect in such a case would not have been accorded even ‘a substantial measure of procedural justice’ (see Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 433 (para 131)) notwithstanding the use of the special advocate procedure; ‘the very essence of [his] right [to a fair hearing] [will have been] impaired’ (see Tinnelly & Sons Ltd v UK (1998) 4 BHRC 393 at 415 (para 72)).
[91] I cannot accept that a suspect’s entitlement to an essentially fair hearing is merely a qualified right capable of being outweighed by the public interest in protecting the state against terrorism (vital though, of course, I recognise that public interest to be). On the contrary, it seems to me not merely an absolute right but one of altogether too great importance to be sacrificed on the altar of terrorism control. By the same token that evidence derived from the use of torture must always be rejected so as to safeguard the integrity of the judicial process and avoid bringing British justice into disrepute (see A v Secretary of State
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for the Home Dept (No 2) [2005] UKHL 71, [2006] 1 All ER 575, [2006] 2 AC 221), so too in my judgment must closed material be rejected if reliance on it would necessarily result in a fundamentally unfair hearing.
[92] The judges in AF’s and MB’s cases both appear to have regarded the disclosure made (or capable of being made consistently with the public interest) as insufficient to allow of any effective challenge. In these circumstances I agree with the majority of my noble and learned friends that both cases should now be remitted to the Administrative Court for a final decision as to whether nonetheless it is possible to confirm the control orders consistently with there having been overall fairness in the appeal process. If the judges’ final decision is that the control orders cannot fairly be made, then, in common with Lord Carswell and Baroness Hale of Richmond, with both of whose reasoning on this part of the case I entirely agree, rather than make a declaration of incompatibility, I would instead invoke s 3 of the 1998 Act in the manner and with the consequences they suggest.
MB’s appeal and AF’s cross-appeal dismissed. The Secretary of State’s appeal allowed. Both cases remitted to the High Court for reconsideration.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Secretary of State for the Home Department v E and another
[2008] 1 All ER 699
[2007] UKHL 47
Categories: HUMAN RIGHTS; Liberty: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD HOFFMANN, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 5, 9, 10–13 JULY, 31 OCTOBER 2007
Human rights – Right to liberty and security – Prevention of terrorism – Control order – Non-derogating control order – Criminal investigations after making of control order – Duty to secure that investigation of individual’s conduct with view to prosecution for terrorism-related offence kept under review during period of control order – Duty to consult chief officer of police about evidence available for purposes of prosecution – Whether consultation condition precedent to making of control order – Secretary of State making non-derogating control order against individual suspected of involvement in terrorism-related activity – Control order requiring each individual to remain in specified residence for 12 hours per day and prohibiting contact with most other persons unless previously authorised – Whether obligations in control order breaching right to liberty – Nature of Secretary of State’s duty to review and consult – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 5(1) – Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, ss 2(1), 8(2), (4).
In March 2005 the Secretary of State made a non-derogating control order against E under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005. The requirements of s 2(1)a of the 2005 Act under which the Secretary of State could make a control order included that the Secretary of State had reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual was or had been involved in terrorism-related activity. The obligations imposed by that control order (which was later renewed) included that he wear an electronic tag and reside at a specified address. Permission of the Home Office was required in advance for most visitors and advance Home Office agreement was required in advance if he wished to attend most pre-arranged meetings outside his residence. His residence was liable to be searched by the police at any time. He was subject to a curfew from 7 pm to 7 am; the residence specified in the order was his own home, where he had lived for some years, in a part of London with which he was familiar and Home Office permission was not required in advance to receive visitors under the age of ten; five members of his wider family lived in the area, and had been approved as visitors; and he was subject to no geographical restriction during non-curfew hours, was free to attend a mosque of his choice, and was not prohibited from associating with named individuals. In September 2003 first instance judgments were given by a Belgian court and affirmed on appeal in Belgium on February 2005, whose effect was to implicate E in terrorist-related activity. The Secretary of State learned of them in September 2005, after the control order had been made against E but before it was renewed. He received copies of the judgments in November 2005,
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and English translations became available in January 2006. Before renewal of the order in March 2006 the chief officer of police informed the Secretary of State that there was insufficient evidence to prosecute. However, neither the police nor the Crown Prosecution Service had received copies of the judgments. They had, however, been part of the open evidence relied on by the Secretary of State since September 2006. Section 8b of the 2005 Act applied where it appeared to the Secretary of State that the involvement in terrorism-related activity of which an individual was suspected might have involved the commission of an offence relating to terrorism and that the commission of that offence was being or would fall to be investigated by a police force. Under s 8(2) the Secretary of State had to consult the chief officer of the police force about whether there was evidence available that could realistically be used for the purposes of a prosecution of an individual for an offence relating to terrorism before making, or applying for the making of, a control order against the individual. If a control order was made the Secretary of State had to inform the chief police officer and under s 8(4) it was then the duty of the chief officer to secure that the investigation of the individual’s conduct with a view to his prosecution for an offence relating to terrorism was kept under review throughout the period during which the control order has effect. In carrying out his functions the chief police officer had to consult the relevant prosecuting authority but that requirement could be satisfied by consultation that had taken place wholly or partly before the passing of the 2005 Act. At the supervisory High Court hearing E contended (i) that the effect of the control order was to deprive him of his liberty in violation of art 5c of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998), and (ii) that the Secretary of State had breached his duty under s 8(2) of the 2005 Act in relation to consideration of criminal prosecution. The judge quashed the control order, having concluded that the cumulative effect of the restrictions was to deprive E of his liberty in breach of art 5 of the convention. He rejected the argument that compliance by the Secretary of State with his duty under s 8(2) was a condition precedent to his power to make a control order. The Court of Appeal allowed the Secretary of State’s appeal and E appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – (1) The non-derogating control order had not deprived E of his right to liberty in breach of art 5(1) of the convention. The Court of Appeal had treated physical liberty as the starting point and central issue and correctly considered that the core element of confinement, an overnight curfew of 12 hours, to which
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the other obligations were ancillary, was insufficiently stringent to deprive E of his liberty (see [10]–[12], [23]–[25], [29], [31], [35], [36]), below); Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2008] 1 All ER 613 distinguished.
(2) Compliance by the Secretary of Secretary of State with his duty under s 8(2) of the 2005 Act was not a condition precedent to his power to make a control order in a case falling within s 8(1). Section 2(1) of the 2005 Act prescribed the circumstances in which the Secretary of State could make a non-derogating control order and compliance with the s 8(2) duty was not included as a qualifying condition. However s 8(2) was expressed in strong mandatory terms and the duty was to be taken seriously. When the Secretary of State sought permission from the court to make a non-derogating control order or where an order had been referred to the court, the court should, as a matter of strict routine, seek to be satisfied that the s 8(2) duty had been complied with and require very convincing reasons for any omission of that duty. Under s 8(4) the duty of keeping the possibility of prosecution under review was laid upon the chief officer of police but it was implicit in the duty of the Secretary of State to keep the decision to impose a control under review that the Secretary of State had to do what he reasonably could to ensure that the continuing review was meaningful so that it was incumbent on him to provide the police with any material in his possession which was or might be relevant to any reconsideration of the prosecution. If in any case it appeared that the duty to consult under s 8(2) or the duty to keep the prospect of prosecution under review had been breached and that but for the breach the individual could and should properly have been prosecuted with a reasonable prospect of success there would be strong grounds for contending that the control order was not or was no longer necessary and that the Secretary of State’s decision to make or maintain it had been flawed; it might then be appropriate to quash the order. In the instant case, while it was regrettable that the Belgian judgments had not been made available promptly to the appropriate authorities, the Court of Appeal had been correct to find that even if the Secretary of State had acted diligently and expediently in relation to the Belgian judgments they could not have given rise to a prosecution at any material time. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [15]–[18], [20]–[24], [28], [29], [32]–[36], below).
Notes
For the right to liberty and the security of the person, see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 127, and for the power to make control orders, making of non-derogating control orders and criminal investigations after making of control orders, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 454, 455, 461
For the Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 5, see 7 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 705.
For the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, ss 2, 8, see 12(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 1854, 1866.
Cases referred to in opinions
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642.
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB, Secretary of State for the Home Dept v AF [2007] UKHL 46, [2008] 1 All ER 657, [2007] 3 WLR 681; affg [2006] EWCA Civ 1140, [2007] QB 415, [2006] 3 WLR 839.
Page 702 of [2008] 1 All ER 699
Cases referred to in list of authorities
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A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (No 2) [2005] UKHL 71, [2006] 1 All ER 575, [2006] 2 AC 221.
A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56, [2005] 3 All ER 169, [2005] 2 AC 68, [2005] 2 WLR 87; rvsg [2002] EWCA Civ 1502, [2003] 1 All ER 816, [2004] QB 335, [2003] 2 WLR 564; rvsg [2002] HRLR 1274, SIAC.
Äärelä v Finland (Communication No 779/1997) (1997) Selected Decisions of the Human Rights Committee under the Optional Protocol, UN Doc CCPR/C/73/D/779/1997, UN HRC.
Abdulazizi v UK (1985) 7 EHRR 471, [1985] ECHR 9214/80, ECt HR.
Adolf v Austria (1982) 4 EHRR 313, [1982] ECHR 8269/78, ECt HR.
Aerts v Belgium (1998) 5 BHRC 382, ECt HR.
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Airey v Ireland (1979) 2 EHRR 305, [1979] ECHR 6289/73, ECt HR.
Ajouaou v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (29 October 2003, unreported), SIAC.
Albert v Belgium (1983) 5 EHRR 533, [1983] ECHR 7299/75, ECt HR.
Al-Nashif v Bulgaria (2002) 36 EHRR 37, [2002] ECHR 50963/99, ECt HR..
Altun v Turkey [2004] ECHR 24561/94, ECt HR.
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Amuur v France (1996) 22 EHRR 533, [1996] ECHR 19776/92, ECt HR.
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Arcuri v Italy App No 52024/99) (5 July 2001, unreported), ECt HR.
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Barthold v Germany (1985) 7 EHRR 383, [1985] ECHR 8734/79, ECt HR.
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Brüggemann v Germany (1977) 3 EHRR 244, E Com HR.
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Bryan v UK [1996] 1 PLR 47, ECt HR.
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Campbell v Hamlet [2005] UKPC 19, [2005] 3 All ER 1116.
Campbell v UK (1984) 7 EHRR 165, [1984] ECHR 7819/77, ECt HR.
Canada (Minister of Employment and Immigration) v Chiarrelli [1992] 1 SCR 711.
Cartwright v Superintendent of HM Prison [2004] UKPC 10, [2004] 3 LRC 151, [2004] 1 WLR 902.
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Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405, ECt HR.
Chapman v UK (2001) 10 BHRC 48, ECt HR.
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Chassagnou v France (1999) 7 BHRC 151, ECt HR.
Chuan (Ong Ah) v Public Prosecutor [1981] AC 648, [1980] 3 WLR 855, PC.
Ciancimino v Italy (1991) 70 DR 103, E Com HR.
Ciulla v Italy (1989) 13 EHRR 346, [1989] ECHR 11152/84, ECt HR.
Clarke v R [2004] UKPC 5, [2004] 3 LRC 298.
Cocks v Thanet DC [1982] 3 All ER 1135, [1983] 2 AC 286, [1982] 3 WLR 1121, HL.
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Cumming v Chief Constable of Northumbria Police [2003] EWCA Civ 1844, [2003] All ER (D) 305 (Dec).
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D v Germany (1987) 54 DR 116, E Com HR.
De Freitas v Permanent Secretary of Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries, Lands and Housing [1999] 1 AC 69, [1998] 3 WLR 675, PC.
Demicoli v Malta (1991) 14 EHRR 47, [1991] ECHR 13057/87, ECt HR.
Deweer v Belgium (1980) 2 EHRR 439, [1980] ECHR 6903/75, ECt HR.
Dombo Beheer v Netherlands (1993) 18 EHRR 213, ECt HR.
Doody v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1993] 3 All ER 92, [1994] 1 AC 531, [1993] 3 WLR 154, HL.
Doorson v Netherlands (1996) 22 EHRR 330, [1996] ECHR 20524/92, ECt HR.
DPP v Hutchinson [1990] 2 All ER 836, [1990] 2 AC 783, [1990] 3 WLR 196, HL.
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DS v HM Advocate [2007] UKPC 36, [2007] 5 LRC 563, 2007 SC (PC) 1.
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East African Asians v UK (1973) 3 EHRR 76, E Com HR.
Ebanks v R [2006] UKPC 16, [2006] 4 LRC 605, [2006] 1 WLR 1827.
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Edwards and Lewis v UK (2005) 40 EHRR 24.
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Evans v UK [2007] FCR 5, ECt HR.
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Fitt v UK (2000) 30 EHRR 480, [2000] ECHR 29777/96, ECt HR.
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Foti v Italy (1982) 5 EHRR 313, [1982] ECHR 7604/76, ECt HR.
Fox v UK (1990) 13 EHRR 157, [1990] ECHR 12244/86, ECt HR.
Frau v Italy App No 12147/86 (19 February 1991, unreported), ECt HR..
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Garyfallou AEBE v Greece (1997) 28 EHRR 344, [1997] ECHR 18996/91, ECt HR.
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Gough v Chief Constable of the Derbyshire Constabulary [2002] EWCA Civ 351, [2002] 2 All ER 985, [2002] QB 1213, [2002] 3 WLR 289; affg [2001] EWHC Admin 554, [2001] 4 All ER 289, [2002] QB 459, [2001] 3 WLR 1392.
Guantánamo Detainees Cases, Re (2005) 355 F Supp 2d 443, US DC (DC).
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Guzzardi v Italy, decision of 5 October 1977 (App No 7960/77) (French version).
Guzzardi v Italy, decision of 5 October 1977 (App No 7960/77), (English translation).
Hague v Deputy Governor of Parkhurst Prison, Weldon v Home Office [1991] 3 All ER 733, [1992] 1 AC 58, [1991] 3 WLR 340, HL.
Hamdi v Rumsfeld 542 US 507 (2004), US SC.
Han v Comrs of Customs and Excise, Martins v Comrs of Custom and Excise, Morris v Comrs of Customs and Excise [2001] EWCA Civ 1040, [2001] 4 All ER 687, [2001] 1 WLR 2253.
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Harkat, Re 2004 FC 1717, (2004) 125 CRR (2d) 319.
Hatton v UK (2003) 15 BHRC 259, ECt HR.
Heaney v Ireland (2001) 33 EHRR 264, [2000] ECHR 34720/97, ECt HR.
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Hirst v UK (2003) 37 EHRR CD 176.
HL v UK (2004) 17 BHRC 418, ECt HR.
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John v Rees, Martin v Davis, Rees v John [1969] 2 All ER 274, [1970] Ch 345, [1969] 2 WLR 1294.
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Appeal
E, the subject of a non-derogating control order under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, and his wife S, appealed with permission of the Court of Appeal (Pill, Wall and Maurice Kay LJJ) given on 25 May 2007 from the courts decision on that date ([2007] EWCA Civ 459, [2007] 3 WLR 1) allowing the appeal of the Secretary of State from the order of Beatson J made on 16 February 2007 ([2007] EWHC 233 (Admin), [2007] HRLR 472) quashing the control order. The National Council for Civil Liberties (Liberty) appeared as an intervener. The facts are set out in the judgment of Lord Bingham of Cornhill.
Ben Emmerson QC, Raza Husain and Helen Law (instructed by Birnberg Peirce & Partners) for E.
Ian Burnett QC, Philip Sales QC, Tim Eicke, Cecilia Ivimy and Andrew O’Connor (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
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David Pannick QC and Alex Bailin (instructed by Liberty) for the National Council for Civil Liberties.
Michael Supperstone QC and Judith Farbey (instructed by the Special Advocates Support Office) as special advocates.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
31 October 2007. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1] My Lords, the effective appellant in this appeal is E, who challenges a non-derogating control order made against him on 12 March 2005 under the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005. The order has since been varied on occasion but has been renewed and remains substantially in force. E challenges the order on two main grounds pertinent to this appeal: that the effect of the order is to deprive him of his liberty in breach of art 5 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998); and that the Secretary of State has breached his statutory duty in relation to consideration of criminal prosecution. These contentions succeeded at first instance before Beatson J, who quashed the order (see [2007] EWHC 233 (Admin), [2007] HRLR 472). The Court of Appeal (Pill, Wall and Maurice Kay LJJ) allowed on appeal by the Secretary for State and set aside the judge’s order (see [2007] EWCA Civ 459, [2007] 3 WLR 1).
[2] In Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45 at [6]–[11], [2008] 1 All ER 613 at [6]–[11], [2007] 3 WLR 642, I have given a general summary of the main provisions of the 2005 Act. I would refer to, but need not repeat, that summary.
[3] E was born in Tunis on 24 July 1963. He arrived in the United Kingdom in 1994 and applied for asylum. That application was refused but he was granted exceptional leave to remain until 2005. He is married to S, who is some years younger and of Jordanian nationality. They have five children under the age of nine. S has been joined as a party to these proceedings, but she raises no separate issue which remains live for decision.
[4] In December 2001 E was certified by the Secretary of State under s 21 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001. He was detained in HM Prison Belmarsh until his release on bail on 10 March 2005 on conditions similar to those of the control order made two days later. There is evidence, accepted by the judge, that since his detention in 2001 E’s mental health has deteriorated and he now suffers from a depressive illness of some severity. The hearing before Beatson J was both a supervisory hearing under s 3 of the 2005 Act in relation to the making of the order and a hearing of E’s appeal against the renewal of the order. The issues were essentially the same.
[5] It was necessary for the judge to consider whether, on the material before him, the Secretary of State’s decisions under s 2(1)(a) and (b) of the 2005 Act (reasonable grounds for suspecting involvement in terrorism and consideration of necessity to impose obligations for the protection of the public) were flawed. He held ([2007] HRLR 472 at [82]) that they were not, being satisfied that the low threshold of reasonable suspicion was crossed by a substantial margin on the basis of the open material alone. This conclusion makes it unnecessary to address, in this case, the question whether reliance on material not disclosed to the controlled person, is compatible with art 6(1) of the convention, a question
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discussed in my opinion in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB [2007] UKHL 46 at [25]–[35], [2008] 1 All ER 657 at [25]–[35], [2007] 3 WLR 681.
DEPRIVATION OF LIBERTY
[6] The obligations imposed on E by the control order made on 12 March 2005 and since renewed contain a number of obligations similar to those noted in JJ’s case. Thus, for example, he must wear an electronic tag; he must reside at a specified address; he must report to a monitoring company each day on first leaving his residence and on his last return to it; the permission of the Home Office is required in advance (with name, address, date of birth and photographic evidence of identity supplied) for most visitors to the residence; he must obtain the agreement of the Home Office in advance to attend most pre-arranged meetings outside his residence; his residence is liable to be searched by the police at any time; and he is permitted to have no communications equipment of any kind save for one fixed telephone line and one or more computers, provided any computer is disabled from connecting to the internet.
[7] The obligations imposed on E do, however, differ from those imposed on JJ and others in respects accepted by the courts below as material. The curfew to which he is subject is of 12 hours’ duration, from 7 pm to 7 am, not 18 hours. The residence specified in the order is his own home, where he had lived for some years, in a part of London with which he is familiar. By a variation of the order his residence is defined to include his garden, to which he thus has access at any time. He lives at his home with his wife and family, and Home Office permission is not required in advance to receive visitors under the age of ten. Five members of his wider family live in the area, and have been approved as visitors. He is subject to no geographical restriction during non-curfew hours, is free to attend a mosque of his choice, and is not prohibited from associating with named individuals. The judge found ([2007] HRLR 472 at [231]) that E does not lack a social network, goes to the mosque, takes his older children to school, picks them up, goes shopping and sees family members who live in the area.
[8] Both the courts below reviewed the Strasbourg authority on art 5 and deprivation of liberty. I have endeavoured to summarise the effect of this authority in JJ’s case [2008] 1 All ER 613 at [12]–[19], [2007] 3 WLR 642. I would refer to but need not repeat that summary.
[9] Beatson J gave a lengthy and very careful judgment resolving a number of questions which are no longer germane to this appeal. He concluded ([2007] HRLR 472 at [231]) that very limited weight could be given to E’s mental condition in the context of art 5. He regarded the order as likely to be renewed (see [233]) for successive 12-month periods. He concluded (at [235]) that E was ‘significantly less socially isolated that the controlled persons in the JJ cases’. But he thought it of particular importance (see [238]) that there was the same control over visitors to the home and meetings outside the home, and the same liability to spot checks and searches by the police at any time. It was these features which made the obligations particularly intense (see [240]), somewhat as if he were accommodated in prison. The judge recognised (at [242]) the case as more finely balanced than JJ’s case, but concluded that the cumulative effect of the restrictions was to deprive E of his liberty in breach of art 5 of the convention.
[10] The Court of Appeal ([2007] 3 WLR 1 at [62]) treated physical liberty as the starting point and the central issue, and judged (at [63]) that the degree of physical restraint on E’s liberty was far from a deprivation of liberty in art 5 terms. It discounted (at [64]) the judge’s analogy with prison accommodation and also
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(at [65]) the deterrent effect of the requirement that visitors be approved in advance. It noted (at [69]) the distinctions between the restrictions in this case and those in JJ’s case, and concluded that this case was plainly distinguishable.
[11] As noted in JJ’s case [2008] 1 All ER 613 at [11], [2007] 3 WLR 642, an appeal lies from the court of first instance in control order proceedings only on a point of law. This is a provision of some importance, since the legislation does not permit each successive court in the curial hierarchy to make its own independent evaluation. This is not a point which the Court of Appeal in this case specifically addressed. But it must, I think, be inferred that the Court of Appeal found the judge to have erred in law in failing to focus on the extent to which E was actually confined, here an overnight curfew of 12 hours, a period accepted by the Strasbourg authorities, as compared with the very much more stringent restriction in JJ’s case. The matters which particularly weighed with the judge were not irrelevant, but they could not of themselves effect a deprivation of liberty if the core element of confinement, to which other restrictions (important as they may be in some cases) are ancillary, is insufficiently stringent. This is in my opinion a sound criticism of the judge’s approach, and the Court of Appeal was right to regard this case, on its special facts, as distinguishable from JJ’s case.
[12] I would dismiss E’s appeal on this point.
PROSECUTION
[13] Section 8 of the 2005 Act, so far as material for present purposes, provides:
‘8. Criminal investigations after making of control order.—(1) This section applies where it appears to the Secretary of State—(a) that the involvement in terrorism–related activity of which an individual is suspected may have involved the commission of an offence relating to terrorism; and (b) that the commission of that offence is being or would fall to be investigated by a police force.
(2) Before making, or applying for the making of, a control order against the individual, the Secretary of State must consult the chief officer of the police force about whether there is evidence available that could realistically be used for the purposes of a prosecution of the individual for an offence relating to terrorism.
(3) If a control order is made against the individual the Secretary of State must inform the chief officer of the police force that the control order has been made and that subsection (4) applies.
(4) It shall then be the duty of the chief officer to secure that the investigation of the individual’s conduct with a view to his prosecution for an offence relating to terrorism is kept under review throughout the period during which the control order has effect.
(5) In carrying out his functions by virtue of this section the chief officer must consult the relevant prosecuting authority, but only, in the case of the performance of his duty under subsection (4), to the extent that he considers it appropriate to do so.
(6) The requirements of subsection (5) may be satisfied by consultation that took place wholly or partly before the passing of this Act . . .’
[14] In the submission of E, it is a fundamental premise of the 2005 Act in general, and s 8 in particular, that where there are realistic prospects of prosecuting an individual against whom it is proposed to make a control order,
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he will indeed be prosecuted. There is strong support for this contention. In Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB [2006] EWCA Civ 1140 at [53], [2007] QB 415 at [53], [2006] 3 WLR 839, the Court of Appeal (Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers CJ, Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Sir Igor Judge P) described it as implicit in the scheme of the Act that if there is evidence that justifies the bringing of a criminal charge, a suspect will be prosecuted rather than made the subject of a control order. In its judgment in the present case ([2007] 3 WLR 1 at [73]) the Court of Appeal described it as ‘axiomatic’ that a control order is only made when it is considered that there is no reasonable prospect of successfully prosecuting the subject of the order for a terrorism-related offence. Reference was made to a number of strong ministerial assurances in Parliament to this effect. The Secretary of State in his written case accepts that ‘The scheme of the [Act] is that control orders should only be made where an individual cannot realistically be prosecuted for a terrorism-related offence’. Thus there can be no doubt about the governing principle. Nor in my opinion can there be doubt about its importance, since the control order regime is not intended to be an alternative to the ordinary processes of criminal justice, with all the safeguards they provide for those accused, in cases where it is feasible to prosecute with a reasonable prospect of success.
[15] It was argued for E before the judge that compliance by the Secretary of State with his duty under s 8(2) was a condition precedent to his power to make a control order in a case falling within s 8(1) (see Beatson J’s judgment [2007] HRLR 472 at [245]). The judge rejected this argument, holding that the conditions precedent to the making of a control order are set out in s 2(1), this condition could have been included but was not, and it was not necessary to construe s 8(2) as including this condition. The Court of Appeal also rejected it for very much the same reason (see [2007] 3 WLR 1 at [87]). I agree. Section 2(1) of the Act prescribes the circumstances in which the Secretary of State may make a non–derogating control order and compliance with the s 8(2) duty is not included as a qualifying condition. It is nonetheless true, as was urged for E, that s 8(2) is expressed in strong mandatory terms: ‘Before making, or applying for the making of, a control order against the individual, the Secretary of State must . . .' Plainly this duty is to be taken seriously. On the seeking by the Secretary of State of permission from the court to make a non-derogating control order under s 3(1)(a) of the Act or, where an order has been referred to the court under s 3(3)(a), I would expect the court, as a matter of strict routine, to seek to be satisfied that the s 8(2) duty has been complied with and, if it has not, to require very convincing reasons for that omission.
[16] In submissions to the House, it was argued for E that the absence of a realistic prospect of prosecution is a condition precedent to the making by the Secretary of State of a non-derogating control order. Thus the Secretary of State must not only consult under s 8(2), in a case falling within s 8(1), but must be given to understand that it is not feasible to prosecute with a reasonable prospect of success. Unless this was so, it was argued, it could not be ‘necessary’ to impose obligations under a control order, since it would not be shown that the public could not be protected by arresting, charging and prosecuting the individual. This more ambitious submission must also fail, for the reason given in the last paragraph. But there are in my view strong practical reasons for rejecting it. The situation is, by definition, one in which the Secretary of State has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual is or has been involved in terrorism–related activity (see s 2(1)(a)). He must consider that it is necessary, for
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purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, to make a control order imposing obligations on that individual (see s 2(1)(b)). There may be a need to act with great urgency (see s 3(1)(b)). The potential risk may be very great. It is one thing to require the Secretary of State to consult, as s 8(2) does in cases falling within s 8(1), which is the great majority of cases. But it is quite another to require him to obtain a clear answer: this is something the chief officer of police is unlikely to be in a position to give, he himself being subject to a duty (see s 8(5)) to consult the relevant prosecuting authority which will in turn require time to consider the matter, and very probably to seek the advice of counsel. The condition precedent contended for would have the potential to emasculate what is clearly intended to be an effective procedure, and cannot be taken to represent the intention of Parliament.
[17] I have addressed this matter in some detail, because the general point raised is one of importance. But it has no bearing on the control order made in this case at the time it was made. This is because the judge made a very clear finding, not now challenged, that the Secretary of State did consult the chief officer of police, who did consult the Crown Prosecution Service (CPS), concerning the prospect of successful prosecution before the order was made, and the advice he received was clearly negative (see [2007] HRLR 472 at [251], [254], [258], [266]). The consultation took place before the Act was passed, but such consultation was effective by virtue of s 8(6).
[18] The thrust of E’s argument before the House was directed not to lack of consultation before the order was made on 12 March 2005 but on the Secretary of State’s failure to take steps open to him to ensure that the possibility of prosecution was kept under effective review thereafter. Under s 8(4) of the Act the duty of keeping the prospect of prosecution under review is laid on the chief office of police, in conjunction (where he considers it appropriate (see s 8(5))) with the relevant prosecuting authority. In its judgment in MB’s case [2007] QB 415 at [44], however, the Court of Appeal held it to be implicit in the Act—
‘that it is the duty of the Secretary of State to keep the decision to impose a control order under review, so that the restrictions that it imposes, whether on civil rights or Convention rights, are no greater than necessary. A purposive approach to section 3(10) must enable the court to consider whether the continuing decision of the Secretary of State to keep the order in force is flawed.’
Beatson J followed this ruling in the present case (see [2007] HRLR 472 at [282]). It was argued for the Secretary of State in the Court of Appeal that the Secretary of State, having consulted the chief of police at the outset, need do no more thereafter than make periodic inquiry whether the prospect of prosecution had increased (see [2007] 3 WLR 1 at [96]). But the Court of Appeal held (at [97]) that more was called for:
‘. . . Once it is accepted that there is a continuing duty to review pursuant to MB’s case, it is implicit in that duty that the Secretary of State must do what he reasonably can to ensure that the continuing review is meaningful . . . it was incumbent upon him to provide the police with material in his possession which was or might be relevant to any reconsideration of prosecution . . .’
The Secretary of State, it is understood, now accepts the correctness of this approach, which I would respectfully endorse.
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[19] The materiality of this point arises in this way. On 30 September 2003 first instance judgments were given by a Belgian court, affirmed on appeal in Belgium on 21 February 2005. The effect of the judgments was to implicate E in terrorist-related activity. The Secretary of State learned of these judgments in September 2005, after the control order had been made against E but before it was renewed. He received copies of the judgments in November 2005, and English translations became available in January 2006. Before renewal of the order in March 2006 the chief officer of police informed the Secretary of State that there was insufficient evidence to prosecute. But neither the police nor the CPS has received copies of these judgments. They have, however, as the judge found ([2007] HRLR 472 at [286]), been part of the open evidence relied on by the Secretary of State since September 2006, and were now at the core of the Secretary of State’s open national security case against E. It is pointed out on behalf of E that the Belgian judgments rested in part on intercept evidence which, because obtained abroad, would be admissible in an English court, that the availability of this evidence in the public domain could affect the judgment on whether it was in the public interest to prosecute, and that some of the Belgian material had already been relied on to prosecute defendants in this country.
[20] The judge concluded (at [293]) that the Secretary of State’s failure to consider the impact of the Belgian judgments on the prospects of prosecuting E meant that his continuing decision to maintain the control order was flawed. The breach was not a technical one (see [293]), and the judge would have quashed the order on this ground were he not already quashing it for incompatibility with art 5 (see [310]). The Court of Appeal found ([2007] 3 WLR 1 at [97]) that the judge had been right to find a breach by the Secretary of State of his MB duty to keep the possibility of prosecution under review, even though the decision whether or not to prosecute was clearly not his. The breach ‘arose from the omission of the Secretary of State himself to provide the police with the Belgian judgments so as to prompt and facilitate a reconsideration’ (see [99]). But although tending to agree with the judge that the breach was not technical (see [102]), the Court of Appeal differed from him on remedy. It was satisfied (at [103]) that even if the Secretary of State had acted diligently and expeditiously in relation to the Belgian judgments they could not have given rise to a prosecution at any time material to this case. The question to be asked (see [105]) was whether a particular breach had materially contributed to and vitiated the decision to make the control order, and the judge had erred in law in holding without further analysis that the breach justified the remedy of quashing the order.
[21] Counsel for E criticised the Court of Appeal’s reasoning on this point, but I do not think its approach was wrong in principle. It was certainly regrettable that the Belgian judgments were not made available promptly to the appropriate authorities, perhaps suggesting that the duty of continuing review by the Secretary of State was not appreciated before the Court of Appeal’s judgment in MB’s case in August 2006 or, if appreciated, was not treated with the seriousness which its importance deserved. But I do not for my part think that the Court of Appeal’s reasoning in this case can be faulted. If in any case it appeared that the duty to consult under s 8(2) or the duty to keep the prospect of prosecution under review had been breached, and also that but for the breach the individual could and should properly have been prosecuted with a reasonable prospect of success, there would be strong grounds for contending that the control order was not or was no longer necessary and that the Secretary of State’s decision to make or
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maintain it was flawed. It might then be appropriate to quash the order. But the House cannot hold, on the material before it, that that condition was met in this case, and the order should not have been quashed.
[22] On this point also I would dismiss E’s appeal.
LORD HOFFMANN.
[23] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill and I gratefully adopt his exposition of the facts and issues. For the reasons which I gave in my opinion in the case of Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642, I agree that the submission that the control order deprived E of his liberty fails. I also agree, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend, that the Secretary of State did not fail to comply with the provisions of s 8 of the Act. The appeal must therefore be dismissed.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[24] My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friends, Lord Bingham of Cornhill and Lord Carswell, I agree that this appeal should be dismissed on both points.
[25] As to the first issue, whatever the point at which the cumulative effect of the restrictions imposed in a control order crosses the boundary into deprivation of liberty, as in my view it did in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642, that point is not reached in this case. The starting point in any consideration of deprivation of liberty is the ‘core element’ of confinement. The length of the curfew in this case is within the range which Strasbourg has accepted as merely restricting liberty. Nor is there anything to make it more severe: the appellant is confined to his own home with his wife and children; other family members and the children’s friends were allowed to visit. These factors greatly reduce the extent to which he is cut off from society even during the curfew hours. Outside those hours, he is not subject to any geographical restriction and can attend the mosque of his choice. He does have to get Home Office approval for visitors to his home and for pre-arranged meetings outside it and his home is subject to intrusive searches at any time. These may call in question certain other convention rights but do not, on their own, turn his ‘concrete situation’ into one in which he is deprived of his liberty.
[26] As to the second issue, a control order must always be seen as ‘second best’. From the point of view of the authorities, it leaves at liberty a person whom they reasonably believe to be involved in terrorism and consider a risk for the future. The public is far better protected, even while criminal proceedings are pending, let alone if they result in a conviction. From the point of view of the controlled person, serious restrictions are imposed upon his freedom of action on the basis of mere suspicion rather than actual guilt. From both points of view, prosecution should be the preferred course. That is why s 8 was inserted in the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005. But there are practical difficulties: the Secretary of State does not control the prosecution process. The police investigate and the Crown Prosecution Service decide whether or not to prosecute. There are very good reasons for this division of responsibility: it injects an important element of independence and objectivity into the decision to prosecute. But it makes the task of the Secretary of State, in considering the alternative of prosecution, all the more difficult. She does not have the power to choose between the two.
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[27] It is noteworthy that s 8 does not impose a duty upon the Secretary of State to consider whether there is a reasonable prospect of a successful prosecution; still less does it require her to have formed the view that there is no such prospect. All it does is require her to consult. I agree, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friends, that compliance with the duty to make inquiries of the police under s 8(2) is not a condition precedent to making a control order; nor is the receipt of a negative reply to those inquiries. But both are highly relevant factors to be taken into account by the Secretary of State when considering whether a control order is ‘necessary’. The court, in considering whether the Secretary of State’s decision was flawed, will be reluctant to confirm that decision if the requirements of s 8 have not been complied with or, indeed, if inquiries reveal that there is a reasonable prospect of a successful prosecution.
[28] Nor does s 8 impose an express duty upon the Secretary of State to keep the matter under review. But, as the Court of Appeal held in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB [2006] EWCA Civ 1140 at [44], [2007] QB 415 at [44], [2006] 3 WLR 839, it is implicit in the 2005 Act that the Secretary of State must keep the decision to impose a control order under review; and, as the Court of Appeal held in this case, that duty involves her, not only in consulting the police from time to time, but also in sharing such information as is available to her, but may not have reached the police, which is relevant to the prospects of a successful prosecution. These are all matters which the court will wish to consider in deciding whether the decision to make or maintain the control order was flawed.
[29] On the facts of this case, however, I agree that the order should not have been quashed on this ground; still less on the ground that it constituted a deprivation of liberty.
LORD CARSWELL.
[30] My Lords, the issues argued in this appeal were, first, whether the effect of the control order was to deprive the appellant E of his liberty within the meaning of art 5 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) and, secondly, whether the Secretary of State was in breach of his statutory duty in relation to consideration of criminal prosecution.
[31] On the first issue, I held in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642 that the control orders relating to the appellants in that appeal did not have the effect of depriving the appellants of their liberty. The reasons which I set out in my opinion given in that appeal, to which I would refer, apply also in the present case, taking proper account of E’s circumstances. I would accordingly hold that E has not been deprived of his liberty.
[32] On the second issue, the statutory duty of the Secretary of State under s 8(2) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 is, as my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill has observed at para [15] of his opinion, one to be taken seriously. Nevertheless, as Beatson J ([2007] EWHC 233 (Admin), [2007] HRLR 472) and the Court of Appeal (Pill, Wall and Maurice Kay LJJ) ([2007] EWCA Civ 459, [2007] 3 WLR 1) have correctly held, it does not constitute a condition precedent to the making of a non-derogating control order. For the reasons given by Lord Bingham at paras [15] and [16] of his opinion, I also consider that the absence of a realistic prospect of prosecution is not a condition precedent to the making of such an order.
[33] In my opinion the judge and the Court of Appeal were plainly right in their conclusion that it is the duty of the Secretary of State to keep the decision to impose
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a control order under review. I agree with the statement in the Court of Appeal’s judgment given by Pill LJ ([2007] 3 WLR 1 at [97]):
‘. . . Once it is accepted that there is a continuing duty to review pursuant to MB’s case, it is implicit in that duty that the Secretary of State must do what he reasonably can to ensure that the continuing review is meaningful . . .’
The Court of Appeal found (at [97]) in relation to the fulfilment of that duty:
‘. . . In our judgment, Beatson J was right to find that there had been a breach by the Secretary of State of his MB duty to keep the question of possible prosecution under review, not in the sense that the decision to prosecute was one for him (for clearly it was not), but in the sense that it was incumbent upon him to provide the police with material in his possession which was or might be relevant to any reconsideration of prosecution. The duty extends to a duty to take reasonable steps to ensure that the prosecuting authorities are keeping the prospects of prosecution under review. The duty does not, however, extend to the Secretary of State becoming the prosecuting authority. The decision whether to prosecute lies elsewhere.’
The Court of Appeal said (at [99]):
‘ In our view, the correct analysis in the present case is that the breach arose from the omission of the Secretary of State himself to provide the police with the Belgian judgments so as to prompt and facilitate a reconsideration. That failure rendered nugatory the negative responses of the police at meetings of the [Control Orders Review Group] when asked about prosecution.’
Again, I agree.
[34] The Court of Appeal went on to hold that not every breach of an obligation renders a subsequent decision flawed. It was of the opinion that the Belgian judgments could not have given rise to a prosecution at any time material to this case. Like Lord Bingham, I do not think that its reasoning can be faulted. It was therefore correct to hold that the control order should not have been quashed.
[35] I accordingly would hold that the appellant has not made out either of the grounds on which he has based his case before the House and dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[36] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill and like him would dismiss the appeal on both points. On the first point—as to whether the control order involved a deprivation of E’s liberty—I would do so for the reasons I have given in my opinion in Secretary of State for the Home Dept v JJ [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642. On the second point I agree with all that Lord Bingham says and cannot usefully add to it.
Appeal dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Morina v Secretary of State for Work and Pensions;
Borrowdale v Secretary of State for Work and Pensions
[2008] 1 All ER 718
[2007] EWCA Civ 749
Categories: SOCIAL SECURITY
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR, ARDEN AND MAURICE KAY LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 8 MAY, 23 JULY 2007
Social security – Social security commissioners – Appeal to social security commissioner – Appeal from any decision of an appeal tribunal – Appeal tribunal dismissing application for extension of time beyond specified period – Appeal tribunal striking out appeal against ‘out of jurisdiction’ appeal – Social security commissioner granting permission to appeal but dismissing appeals – Secretary of State appealing – Whether commissioner having jurisdiction to entertain appeal from appeal tribunal – Whether appropriate court having jurisdiction to entertain appeal from Secretary of State as successful party – Social Security Act 1998, ss 12, 14(1), 15(1) – Social Security and Child Support (Decisions and Appeal) Regulations 1999, SI 1999/991, regs 31, 32, 46, 47.
M appealed in 2004 against a decision of the Secretary of State in 2001 that he had been overpaid income support. His case fell within s 12(4)a of the Social Security Act 1998 under which any person from whom the Secretary of State had determined that any amount was recoverable had the same right of appeal as a benefit claimant. Section 12(7) provided that regulations could make provision as to the manner in which, and the time within which, appeals were to be brought. Regulation 32(1)b of the Social Security and Child Support (Decisions and Appeal) Regulations 1999, SI 1999/991 provided that the time within which an appeal had to be brought could be extended where specified conditions were satisfied ‘but no appeal shall in any event be brought more than one year after the expiration of the last day’ of the period prescribed by reg 31c, which was one month. Regulation 32(2) provided: ‘An application for an extension of time under this regulation . . . shall be determined by a legally qualified panel member’ of the appeal tribunal. A legally qualified panel member refused the application. Section 14(1)d of the 1998 Act provided that an appeal lay to a social security commissioner ‘from any decision of an appeal tribunal under section 12 . . . on the ground that the decision of the tribunal was erroneous in point of law.' M applied to a commissioner for permission to appeal. The commissioner granted permission to appeal without prejudice to the right of the Secretary of State to argue that the commissioner lacked jurisdiction. In due course, the Secretary of State argued against jurisdiction but the commissioner decided that he had jurisdiction. Nevertheless he dismissed M’s appeal. The Secretary of State
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sought permission to appeal on the question of jurisdiction. He was refused permission by the commissioner on the ground that he had been a successful appellant. His application to the Court of Appeal was adjourned for an oral hearing on notice, with appeal to follow if permission were to be granted. B was a recipient of income support who was notified by the Secretary of State that in future his benefit would be paid by cheque. Under regs 46e and 47f of the 1999 regulations an appeal could be struck out ‘where it was an out of jurisdiction appeal’. By s 12(1) of the 1998 Act, Sch 2 to the 1998 Act rendered certain decisions unappealable and decisions as to the manner and time of the payment of benefits were included in the list of unappealable decisions and were within the meaning of the 1999 regulations ‘out of jurisdiction’ appeals. B appealed against the decision to pay him by cheque and a legally qualified panel member struck out the appeal pursuant to reg 46 of the 1999 Regulations. Thereafter the matter proceeded on the same lines as M’s case. The central point of law before the Court of Appeal was whether a social security commissioner had jurisdiction to hear and determine an appeal from a legally qualified panel member of the appeal tribunal who had refused to extend time or who had struck out a proposed appeal for want of jurisdiction. The Secretary of State contended that the remedy potentially available to persons in the position of M and B was an application to the administrative court for permission to apply for judicial review of the legally qualified panel member. The question also arose, if the commissioner did have jurisdiction, as to whether the Court of Appeal could or should hear the appeal of the Secretary of State in view of the fact that he had been the successful party before the commissioner in the cases of M and B. Section 15(1)g of the 1998 Act provided that an appeal on a question of law lay to the appropriate court from any decision of a commissioner.
Held – (1) The Court of Appeal was not precluded from hearing the Secretary of State’s appeals. The commissioner had decided, first, that he had jurisdiction to hear each appeal and, secondly, that each appeal should be dismissed on the merits; the Secretary of State was seeking to establish that the appeals should have been rejected for want of jurisdiction rather than dismissed on the merits. The subject-matter of the proposed appeals was a ruling by the commissioner on a fundamental legal issue. Accordingly, permission to appeal would be granted (see [10], [42], [49], below); Lake v Lake [1955] 2 All ER 538 distinguished.
(2) Decisions of a legally qualified panel member of an appeal tribunal such as those in the instant cases were unappealable; M and B did not have a right to seek leave to appeal to the commissioner and the commissioner did not have jurisdiction to entertain such appeals. Section 14 of the 1998 Act and regs 31, 32, 46 and 47 of the 1999 Regulations together constituted the statutory framework for appeals which were outside the maximum time period and ‘out of jurisdiction’ appeals. That statutory framework had to be considered as a whole, looking not only at the language used but at the substance of the meaning of the provision. The word ‘decision’ in s 14 of the 1998 Act looked all-embracing but it had to be given a purposive interpretation. M’s case fell within reg 32 of the 1999 Regulations which provided that appeals could not be more than one year after the expiration of the last date for appealing under reg 31. B’s case fell within
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reg 46 because it was an out of jurisdiction appeal. To interpret ‘decision’ in s 14 as including a decision that either of those appeals could not be brought would be to subvert the provision that an appeal did not lie. It would produce the opposite result from that which was clearly intended by the 1999 regulations. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed (see [37], [41]–[50], below); Lane v Esdaile [1891] AC 210 applied.
Notes
For social security decisions and appeals, see Supp to 44(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 356A
For the Social Security Act 1998, ss 12, 14, 15, see 40(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 229, 234, 239.
For the Social Security and Child Support (Decisions and Appeal) Regulations 1999, SI 1999/991, regs 31, 32, 46, 47, see 18 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (2005 issue) 294, 295, 304.
Cases referred to in judgments
Bland v Chief Supplementary Benefit Officer [1983] 1 All ER 537, [1983] 1 WLR 262, CA.
Carpenter v Secretary of State for Work and Pensions [2003] EWCA Civ 33, [2003] All ER (D) 51 (Jan).
Insurance Officer v McCaffery [1985] 1 All ER 5, [1984] 1 WLR 1353, HL.
Lake v Lake [1955] 2 All ER 538, [1955] P 336, [1955] 3 WLR 145, CA.
Lane v Esdaile [1891] AC 210, HL.
Rickards v Rickards [1989] 3 All ER 193, [1990] Fam 194, [1989] 3 WLR 748, CA.
White v Chief Adjudication Officer [1986] 2 All ER 905, CA.
Application and appeal
The application of the Secretary of State for Work and Pensions for permission to appeal from decisions of a Social Security Commissioner (Mr Rowland), by which he had decided (i) that he had jurisdiction to hear the appeal of Mr Morina against the refusal of a legally qualified panel member of the appeal tribunal of Mr Morina’s application appeal out of time against a decision that he had been overpaid income support, but had dismissed Mr Morina’s appeal; and (ii) that he had jurisdiction to hear the appeal of Mr Borrowdale against the decision of a legally qualified panel member of the appeal tribunal striking out for want of jurisdiction Mr Borrowdale’s proposed appeal against a decision of the Secretary of State that income support would be paid to him by cheque, but had dismissed Mr Borrowdale’s appeal, was considered on the papers by Sir Henry Brooke and adjourned for an oral hearing on notice with appeal to follow if permission were granted. Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale did not appear. The Child Poverty Action Group intervened by way of written submissions. The facts are set out in the judgment of Maurice Kay LJ.
Nathalie Lieven QC (instructed by the Solicitor to the Department of Work and Pensions) for the Secretary of State.
Steven Kovats (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as advocate to the court.
Judgment was reserved.
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23 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
MAURICE KAY LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Anthony Clarke MR).
[1] In the field of social security, primary and secondary legislation are notoriously labyrinthine. Sometimes the substantive entitlement to a statutory benefit is clothed in complexity and can only be determined after an interpretive journey that few are equipped to travel. These two appeals do not involve complex substantive law. However, they raise procedural and jurisdictional issues of real difficulty.
[2] Mr Morina was an asylum seeker. On 28 June 2001 the Secretary of State decided that Mr Morina had been overpaid £417·40 in respect of income support for the period 4–25 December 2000 because he had failed to disclose that he had been refused asylum. On 11 June 2004 the Home Secretary granted Mr Morina indefinite leave to remain, as a result of which he became entitled to job seeker’s allowance. However, on 16 August 2004 the Secretary of State informed Mr Morina that he intended to recover the £417·40 by way of set-off against job seeker’s allowance. On 24 August 2004 Mr Morina wrote to the Secretary of State saying that he did not know of the refusal of asylum until he received a letter dated 21 December 2000. This was treated as an application to appeal out of time against the decision of 28 June 2001. On 2 December 2004 a legally qualified panel member (LQPM) of the appeal tribunal refused the application. On 6 July 2005 Mr Morina applied to a social security commissioner for permission to appeal. On 2 September 2005 Mr Commissioner Rowland granted permission to appeal without prejudice to the right of the Secretary of State to argue that the commissioner lacked jurisdiction. In due course, the Secretary of State argued against jurisdiction but on 12 June 2006 the commissioner decided that he had jurisdiction. Nevertheless he dismissed Mr Morina’s appeal. Mr Morina has accepted that decision and has played no part in proceedings in this court. The Secretary of State, on the other hand, whilst obviously satisfied with the decision of the commissioner on the merits, has sought permission to appeal to this court on the question of jurisdiction. He was refused permission by the commissioner on the ground that he had been a successful appellant. His application to this court was considered on the papers by Sir Henry Brooke who adjourned it for an oral hearing on notice, with appeal to follow if permission were to be granted.
[3] Mr Borrowdale was a recipient of income support. On 11 January 2005, the Secretary of State notified him that in future his benefit would be paid by cheque. On 19 January Mr Borrowdale gave notice of appeal. He did not challenge the correctness of the amount of the benefit but contended that the Secretary of State had no power to pay it by cheque. The matter was first considered by a clerk to the appeal tribunal but he referred it to an LQPM. On 25 January the LQPM struck the appeal out on the basis that there was no jurisdiction to hear it. Thereafter, events proceeded along the same lines as in Mr Morina’s case. Mr Commissioner Rowland granted permission to appeal and held that he had jurisdiction but dismissed the appeal substantively. The case has now reached this court at the behest of the Secretary of State following identical decisions on permission by the commissioner and Sir Henry Brooke.
[4] Thus the central point of law is whether a social security commissioner has jurisdiction to hear and determine an appeal from an LQPM who has refused to extend time or who has struck out a proposed appeal for want of jurisdiction.
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The Secretary of State contends that it has always been understood that persons in the position of Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale have no right to appeal to a commissioner and that their remedy, if any, is an application to the Administrative Court for permission to apply for judicial review of the decision of the LQPM. If the commissioner was right to hold that he had jurisdiction, there also arises the question as to whether this court either can or should hear an appeal by the Secretary of State in view of the fact that he was the successful party before the commissioner in both cases. These are matters of some importance. In view of their complexity and the fact that Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale have manifested no wish to be involved in the proceedings in this court, we have had the assistance of Mr Steven Kovats as advocate to the court. He has provided us with helpful written and oral submissions. His contention is that Mr Commissioner Rowland was right about jurisdiction in both cases and that this court should not feel inhibited from saying so. Also, the Child Poverty Action Group has been permitted to intervene by way of written submissions which support the approach of the commissioner.
[5] In an everyday dispute about substantive entitlement to a social security benefit, a claimant who is not satisfied with a decision of the Secretary of State has a right of appeal to the appeal tribunal. Since the Social Security Act 1998, the unified appeal tribunal has replaced a number of previous tribunals including social security tribunals. There is then a further right of appeal to a commissioner, but only on a point of law and with the leave of the appeals tribunal or the commissioner. Subsequent appeals to the Court of Appeal must also be on a point of law and with the permission of the commissioner or the Court of Appeal. In a typical case, questions of procedure and jurisdiction are tolerably clear. The difficulties arise around the margins where a plethora of statutory provisions may or may not apply, as this case vividly illustrates. Before dealing with the intricacies of the social security legislation, it is logical to resolve the threshold issue of whether this court can or should hear the appeals of the Secretary of State in view of the fact that he was the successful appellant before the commissioner.
THE APPEALS TO THIS COURT: JURISDICTION AND DISCRETION
[6] Although we have received no submissions discouraging us from hearing these appeals, it is common ground that our entitlement to do so is not beyond dispute and requires resolution. This is because of the traditional reluctance to permit an appeal at the behest of a litigant who succeeded below and who seeks to take issue with the reasoning of the decision rather than with its outcome.
[7] An appeal to the Court of Appeal from a commissioner is provided for by s 15 of the 1998 Act. It is limited to ‘a question of law’ and relates to ‘any decision of a Commissioner’ (my emphasis). This language is at variance with that used in connection with appeals from the High Court to the Court of Appeal which lie against ‘any judgment or order of the High Court’: s 16(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The approach of the Court of Appeal to appeals from the High Court is illustrated by Lake v Lake [1955] 2 All ER 538, [1955] P 336 which arose in the context of s 27 of the Supreme Court of Judicature (Consolidation) Act 1925, where the language was also that of ‘judgment or order’. Mrs Lake’s answer to an allegation of adultery had been one of denial or, in the alternative, condonation. Her husband’s petition was dismissed, the commissioner finding that there had been adultery but that it had been condoned. She sought to appeal against the finding of adultery but the Court of Appeal declined to hear such an
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appeal. It held that ‘judgment or order’ meant ‘the formal judgment or order which is drawn up and disposes of the proceedings’ as opposed to ‘some finding or statement . . . which you may find in the reasons given by the judge for the conclusion at which he eventually arrives, disposing of the proceeding’ (per Sir Raymond Evershed MR [1955] 2 All ER 538 at 541, [1955] P 336 at 343–344). Hodson LJ agreed, adding:
‘This is an attempt by a successful wife to appeal against an order which she has obtained in her favour. In my judgment, this court cannot entertain such an appeal.’ (See [1955] 2 All ER 538 at 542, [1955] P 336 at 345.)
[8] The procedure and documentation in the context of an appeal to a social security commissioner are not the same as in the High Court. The appeals of Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale were disposed of in a single document which also refused a third claimant leave to appeal and granted leave to appeal to a fourth. The single document contains para 1, headed ‘Decision of the Social Security Commissioner’, which, in the cases of Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale, simply stated with respect to each: ‘I dismiss the claimant’s appeal.' Paragraphs 2–54, headed ‘Reasons’, then described the four cases and explained the conclusions reached by the commissioner.
[9] An analysis producing the result that we do not have jurisdiction to hear the Secretary of State’s appeals would take this form: (1) s 15 of the 1998 Act provides for an appeal against ‘any decision of a Commissioner’; (2) the ‘decision’ in each of these cases is to be found in para 1, dismissing the claimant’s appeal; (3) the Secretary of State is not seeking to challenge that decision; (4) by analogy with Lake’s case, he has no right to challenge the reasoning on an issue upon which he was unsuccessful—jurisdiction—when the ultimate decision was wholly favourable to him.
[10] In the present context, I do not consider that analysis to be correct. It is significant that the wording of s 15 of the 1998 Act does not replicate that of s 16 of the 1981 Act. It concerns ‘any decision’ rather than ‘any judgment or order’. To that extent, Lake’s case is not applicable as a matter of construction. Nevertheless, the policy aspect of Lake’s case as articulated by Hodson LJ has to be borne in mind. Does it apply so as to shut out an appeal by the successful party before the commissioner? In my judgment, it does not. I find force in Mr Kovats’s submission that the ‘decision’ referred to by the commissioner in para 1 was in each case and in reality two decisions—first, that he had jurisdiction to hear the appeal and, secondly, that the appeal should be dismissed on the merits. Whilst it is difficult to imagine circumstances in which the Secretary of State, having succeeded on the merits, should be permitted to appeal in relation to some aspect of the reasoning of the commissioner on the merits, I do not think that that necessarily precludes an appeal by him on the jurisdiction point which he lost. Moreover, as Miss Lieven QC submits, the Secretary of State is seeking to change ‘the decision’ described in para 1. He is seeking to establish that the appeals of the claimants should have been rejected for want of jurisdiction rather than dismissed on the merits. It is mainly for these reasons that I do not consider that we are precluded by law from hearing these appeals. Having said that, however, I am not to be taken to be enabling a whole range of ‘winners’ appeals’. It is significant that, in the present case, the subject matter of the proposed appeals to this court is a ruling by the commissioner on a fundamental legal issue of jurisdiction and not a finding such as the finding of adultery in Lake’s case. The latter was of interest only to the parties and, as
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between them, was of no lasting legal significance in view of the finding of condonation. Thus, even where ingenuity can result in the decision of a commissioner being represented as, in reality, two decisions, I would expect this court to refuse the successful party below permission to appeal against an immaterial finding of no general significance.
[11] It will be seen that I have approached the powers and jurisdiction of this court strictly on the basis that the answer is to be sought and found within the four corners of s 15 of the 1998 Act. In the course of submissions, we were invited, particularly by Mr Kovats, to bring into the equation some of the authorities on the ambit of appeals to the commissioner. I shall have to refer to some of them when addressing the substantive issue of the jurisdiction of the commissioner to hear appeals such as those of Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale. However, I do not consider that they illuminate the threshold question of who can appeal to this court pursuant to s 15.
[12] I should add that if and to the extent that our considering this appeal rests on an exercise of discretion, it is clearly appropriate to exercise that discretion affirmatively in view of the general importance of the issue. In these circumstances, I would unhesitatingly grant permission to appeal.
DID THE COMMISSIONER HAVE JURISDICTION TO HEAR THESE APPEALS?
[13] The decision of the LQPM that the proposed appeal of Mr Morina was out of time and that time could not be extended was made pursuant to reg 36 of the Social Security and Child Support (Decisions and Appeals) Regulations 1999, SI 1999/991. The decision to strike out Mr Borrowdale’s proposed appeal on the ground that the appeal tribunal had no jurisdiction to hear it was made by an LQPM pursuant to reg 46. It is therefore necessary to consider the issue of whether, in each case, the commissioner had jurisdiction to hear an appeal against the decision of the LQPM.
[14] Decisions by the Secretary of State under the 1998 Act are dealt with in s 8, which provides:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of this Chapter, it shall be for the Secretary of State—(a) to decide any claim for a relevant benefit . . . (c) . . . to make any decision that falls to be made under or by virtue of a relevant enactment . . . ’
[15] Section 12 then provides for appeals to an appeal tribunal in these terms:
‘(1) This section applies to any decision of the Secretary of State under section 8 . . . which—(a) is made on a claim for, or on an award of, a relevant benefit, and does not fall within Schedule 2 to this Act . . .
(2) In the case of a decision to which this section applies, the claimant . . . shall have a right to appeal to an appeal tribunal, but nothing in this subsection shall confer a right of appeal in relation to a prescribed decision, or a prescribed determination embodied in or necessary to a decision . . .
(4) Where the Secretary of State has determined that any amount is recoverable under or by virtue of section 71 or 74 of the Administration Act, any person from whom he has determined that it is recoverable shall have the same right of appeal to an appeal tribunal as a claimant . . .
(7) Regulations may make provision as to the manner in which, and the time within which, appeals are to be brought.’
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[16] Mr Morina was affected by s 12(4). Section 12(7) provided the vires for the provisions in the 1999 regulations dealing with time limits. The primary time limit under reg 31(1) fixes the time within which an appeal must be brought as ‘within one month of the date of notification of the decision against which the appeal is brought’, subject to extension under reg 32. Regulation 32 permits time to be extended, subject to satisfaction about reasonable prospects of success and the interests of justice (reg 32(4)). However, ‘no appeal shall in any event be brought more than one year after the expiration of the last day for appealing under regulation 31’ (reg 32(1)). In other words, there is no jurisdiction to extend time if more than 13 months have expired since the notification of the decision. Moreover, an application for an extension which has been refused cannot be renewed (reg 32(9)).
[17] Regulation 32(2) provides: ‘An application for an extension of time under this regulation . . . shall be determined by [an LQPM] . . .’
[18] Mr Borrowdale’s proposed appeal was struck out under regs 46 and 47. His problem was not the time limit but the absence of a right of appeal against a decision to pay an undisputed benefit by cheque. The relevant provisions state:
‘46(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), an appeal may be struck out by the clerk to the appeal tribunal—(a) where it is an out of jurisdiction appeal and the appellant has been notified by the Secretary of State that an appeal brought against such a decision may be struck out . . .
(2) Where the clerk to the appeal tribunal determines to strike out the appeal, he shall notify the appellant that his appeal has been struck out and of the procedure for reinstatement of the appeal as specified in regulation 47.
(3) The clerk to the appeal tribunal may refer any matter for determination under this regulation to [an LQPM] for decision by the panel member rather than the clerk to the appeal tribunal . . .
47(2) A [LQPM] may reinstate an appeal which has been struck out in accordance with regulation 46 . . . where—(a) the appellant has made representations, or as the case may be, further representations in support of his appeal with reasons why he considers that his appeal should not have been struck out, to the clerk to the appeal tribunal, in writing within one month of the order to strike out the appeal being issued, and the panel member is satisfied in the light of those representations that there are reasonable grounds for reinstating the appeal . . . (c) the panel member is satisfied that the appeal is not an appeal which may be struck out under regulation 46 . . .’
[19] Thus, the clerk has jurisdiction to strike out an appeal but, if he does so, the appeal may still be reinstated by the LQPM. Alternatively, instead of deciding the issue himself, the clerk may refer it to the LQPM for a decision. This is what happened in Mr Borrowdale’s case.
[20] Two further statutory provisions need to be referred to at this stage. Schedule 1 to the 1998 Act is headed ‘Appeal Tribunals: Supplementary Provisions’. Paragraph 12, under the subheading ‘Delegation of certain functions of appeal tribunals’, provides:
‘(1) The Secretary of State may by regulations provide—(a) for officers authorised by the Secretary of State to make any determinations which fall to be made by an appeal tribunal and which do not involve the determination of any appeal, application for leave to appeal or reference;
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(b) for the procedure to be followed by such officers in making such determinations; (c) for the manner in which such determinations by such officers may be called into question.
(2) A determination which would have the effect of preventing an appeal, application for leave to appeal or reference being determined by an appeal tribunal is not a determination of the appeal, application or reference for the purposes of sub-paragraph (1) above.’
[21] Finally, s 14(1) of the 1998 Act, which provides for appeals to the commissioners, states that an appeal lies to a commissioner ‘from any decision of an appeal tribunal under section 12 . . . on the ground that the decision of the tribunal was erroneous in point of law’.
THE STATUS OF THE LQPM
[22] Miss Lieven’s first submission is that a commissioner has no jurisdiction in relation to an appeal from an LQPM because the jurisdiction conferred by s 14(1) of the 1998 Act is to hear appeals ‘from any decision of an appeal tribunal under section 12’ and a decision of an LQPM alone under reg 32(2) or reg 46(3) is not a ‘decision of an appeal tribunal’. His decision is therefore unappealable under the Act and can only be challenged by way of judicial review.
[23] Nothing turns on the fact that the decisions are those of a single member of the appeals tribunal because, by s 7(1) of the 1998 Act, a tribunal ‘shall consist of one, two or three members drawn by the President from the panel constituted under section 6’. The panel is constituted by the Lord Chancellor and includes ‘persons possessing such qualifications as may be prescribed by . . . regulations’: s 6(3). By s 7(2):
‘The member, or (as the case may be) at least one member, of an appeal tribunal must—(a) have a general qualification (construed in accordance with section 71 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990) . . .’
[24] Plainly, therefore, the Act contemplates some decisions of the appeals tribunal being made by a single, legally qualified member. It follows that Miss Lieven’s submission can only be that some decisions of an LQPM alone are not decisions of the appeal tribunal.
[25] Although the 1998 Act paved the way for LQPMs, the term does not expressly appear on the face of the Act. Pursuant to his powers under the Act, the Lord Chancellor promulgated the 1999 regulations. Regulation 1(3) defines an LQPM as a panel member who satisfies the requirements of para 1 of Sch 3 which again cross-refers to the qualifications recognized in s 71 of the Courts and Legal Services Act 1990.
[26] It is implicit in Miss Lieven’s submission that reg 46(3) in relation to striking out and reg 32(2) in relation to extension of time provide for a decision-making framework wholly outside that of the appeals tribunal. In these circumstances, it is necessary to delve a little more deeply into the origins and context of reg 46 and reg 32. Miss Lieven submits that the vires for reg 46 lie in para 12(1) of Sch 1 to the 1998 Act. Paragraph 12 appears under the heading ‘Delegation of certain functions of appeal tribunals’, which I have set out at [20], above.
[27] I acknowledge that Sch 1 to the 1999 regulations includes para 12(1) of Sch 1 to the 1998 Act in the list of enabling provisions behind the regulations but I do not accept that it was the source of the vires for the part of reg 46 which provides for the making of a decision on striking out by an LQPM. Paragraph 12 is solely concerned with delegation to ‘officers authorised by the Secretary of
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State’ (my emphasis). I agree with the conclusion of Mr Commissioner Rowland that ‘officers’ are civil servants and that an LQPM is not an ‘officer’ in that sense. ‘Officers’ are appointed by the Secretary of State pursuant to para 6 of Sch 1 to the 1998 Act, whereas LQPMs are appointed by the Lord Chancellor under s 6. A clerk to the appeals tribunal who strikes out an out of jurisdiction appeal pursuant to reg 46(1) is an officer whose power is enabled by para 12 of Sch 1 but his determination is not necessarily final because an LQPM may reinstate the appeal under reg 47(2). Moreover, even when a clerk determines to strike out, I do not consider that he is acting otherwise than on behalf of the appeal tribunal. The enabling provision in para 12 of Sch 1 concerns ‘any determinations which fall to be made by an appeal tribunal’. As Arden LJ observed, that language implies that the determination remains one of the appeal tribunal—if it did not, the language would be more likely to be ‘determinations which otherwise fall to be made by an appeal tribunal’.
[28] It seems to me that these points of construction militate tellingly against the approach for which Miss Lieven contends. The position becomes even clearer when one stands back and considers it in the round. A decision to strike out for want of jurisdiction is inherently judicial rather than administrative in its nature. Leaving aside the possibility of its being made by a clerk pursuant to reg 46(1)—a decision which, in any event, need not be final by reason of reg 47—it is allocated to an LQPM. Of what is an LQPM a member? The answer is the appeal tribunal, outside which he has no statutory existence. If it is the case (as I have held it to be) that para 12 of Sch 1 has no relevance to decisions of LQPMs, then I can find nothing in the enabling provisions of the 1998 Act which empowers the Secretary of State to make regulations which confer decision-making power in relation to or in connection with a s 12 appeal on any person or body other than one acting as an appeals tribunal. In this context, Mr Commissioner Rowland said:
‘Where Parliament has conferred a right of appeal to an Appeal Tribunal and has enabled a Secretary of State to make procedure regulations for the Tribunal under which interlocutory and other decisions may be made, the implication is that Parliament intended that those decisions would be made by the Appeal Tribunal save where specific provision is made to the contrary.’
[29] I agree. The Secretary of State has no implied power to outsource decisions which relate to or are connected with appeals under s 12. He has correctly positioned the decision-making power in the appeal tribunal, albeit differently constituted for different purposes.
[30] So far, I have considered Miss Lieven’s submission in the context of a strike out decision under reg 46(3). The position in relation to an extension of time under reg 32(2) is essentially similar. For the same reasons, the LQPM is acting as the appeal tribunal and in no other capacity, regardless of whether the vires behind reg 32 are to be found in s 12(7) of the 1998 Act (‘provision as to the manner in which, and the time within which, appeals are to be brought’), s 79(6) (‘such incidental, supplementary, consequential or transitional provision as appears to [the Secretary of State] to be expedient for the purposes of [the] regulations’), or a combination of them both. Miss Lieven favours s 79(6) but I do not consider that that enables her to escape the conclusion that the decision about extending time is that of the appeals tribunal, save in a case where the Secretary of State himself agrees to an extension under reg 32(2).
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[31] In my judgment, if the commissioners lack jurisdiction to hear an appeal in a case such as that of Mr Morina or Mr Borrowdale, it is not because the LQPM is acting in a capacity outwith the appeal tribunal.
‘APPEALABILITY’
[32] Miss Lieven’s alternative submission is that, even if the LQPM is acting qua appeal tribunal, some decisions are just not susceptible to appeal. She relies on two decisions of this court made under earlier social security legislation. In Bland v Chief Supplementary Benefit Officer [1983] 1 All ER 537, [1983] 1 WLR 262, the statutory context was that of the Social Security Act 1980 and the Supplementary Benefit and Family Income Supplements (Appeals) Rules 1980, SI 1980/1605. The appellant had been refused entitlement to a particular benefit and his appeal to the Supplementary Benefit Appeal Tribunal had failed. Under the rules, he needed leave to appeal to a commissioner on a question of law but the commissioner refused leave. By s 14 of the Act, an appeal lay from ‘any decision of a Commissioner’ to the Court of Appeal, but only with the leave of the commissioner or of the Court of Appeal. The appellant unsuccessfully sought the leave of the commissioner to go to the Court of Appeal and thereafter made an application to the Court of Appeal for leave to appeal the refusal of leave. The court held that it had no jurisdiction because, although s 14 referred to ‘any decision’, the refusal of the commissioner to grant leave to appeal from the tribunal was not a ‘decision’ because, in the context of s 14, ‘decision’ applied only to a decision ‘which determines the matter in dispute’ ([1983] 1 All ER 537 at 541, [1983] 1 WLR 262 at 267 per Sir John Donaldson MR). This conclusion has its roots in Lane v Esdaile [1891] AC 210. Clearly it would subvert the purpose of a leave requirement if a refusal of leave were itself appealable. To this day, a refusal by a commissioner to grant leave to appeal from an appeal tribunal is challengeable only by way of an application for judicial review.
[33] Bland’s case was applied in White v Chief Adjudication Officer [1986] 2 All ER 905. Mrs White was refused an invalidity pension by an insurance officer. She appealed to a commissioner who dismissed her appeal. Some time later, the House of Lords in Insurance Officer v McCaffery [1985] 1 All ER 5, [1984] 1 WLR 1353 declared the law to be such as would have supported Mrs White’s case. She then applied to the commissioner for leave to appeal out of time to the Court of Appeal. The commissioner refused leave, whereupon Mrs White applied to the Court of Appeal to appeal the refusal to extend time. The Court of Appeal held that a refusal by the commissioner to extend time was not a ‘decision’ under s 14 of the 1980 Act because it was not an order which determined the outcome of the appeal and that, accordingly, the court had no jurisdiction. Lawton LJ (at 909) considered that a refusal to extend time to be ‘much less a decision of the commissioner than any refusal of leave to appeal’.
[34] Miss Lieven submits that this line of authority has not been doubted in later cases under the social security legislation and that it establishes that the refusal to extend time in Mr Morina’s case and the strike out in Mr Borrowdale’s case are, by parity of reasoning, not appealable decisions.
[35] The response of Mr Kovats is that, in the context of the present appeals, Bland’s case and White’s case must now be considered in the light of the later decision of this court in Rickards v Rickards [1989] 3 All ER 193, [1990] Fam 194. In matrimonial proceedings in the county court, the husband, seeking to appeal from an order made by the registrar, failed to file a notice of appeal within the prescribed time limit. The judge refused his application for leave to appeal out of
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time but granted him leave to appeal against that refusal to the Court of Appeal which held, distinguishing Lane’s case, that the grant or refusal of an application to extend the time limited for taking a step in the proceedings, including giving notice of appeal, was not analogous to the grant or refusal of an application for leave to appeal. Nor was it inherently unappealable. There was therefore jurisdiction to hear the husband’s appeal. Although White’s case was not referred to, Bland’s case was. Revisiting his judgment in Bland’s case, Lord Donaldson remained of the view that a refusal of leave to appeal ‘is not the kind of decision which . . . section 14 [of the Social Security Act 1980] contemplates’ but he added ([1989] 3 All ER 193 at 198, [1990] Fam 194 at 203):
‘In retrospect I regret that I added the sentence “That section relates to a decision which determines the matter in dispute”. This is wrong, since a truly interlocutory or procedural decision could give rise to an appealable question of law, even if it is unlikely that leave to appeal would be given.’
[36] Mr Kovats submits that this passage is highly relevant to the present appeals. Indeed, it expressly informed the conclusion of Mr Commissioner Rowland that he had jurisdiction to hear the appeals of Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale.
[37] I cannot accept Mr Kovats’s submission that, in the light of Rickards’s case, we should not follow White’s case. Our concern is with the question of what is an appealable ‘decision’ under s 14(1) of the 1998 Act. In Rickards’s case, the husband was seeking to appeal a decision which the registrar had had jurisdiction to make and in respect of which the judge had had a discretionary power to grant an extension of time. The position in Mr Morina’s case is quite different. Once the prescribed period of one month (reg 31) and the additional extension period of 12 months (reg 32) had expired, no one could enable Mr Morina to appeal against the decision of the Secretary of State. There is no general power to extend time which continues after the 13 months have expired. In the case of Mr Borrowdale, he never did have a right to appeal against the decision of the Secretary of State to pay his income support by cheque. This is because (1) by s 12(1) of the 1998 Act, Sch 2 to the Act renders certain decisions unappealable; (2) by para 9 of Sch 2, the list of unappealable decisions may be added to; and (3) by para 5 (j) and (l) of Sch 2 to the 1999 regulations, decisions as to the manner and time of the payment of benefits have been added to the list of unappealable decisions. They are, within the meaning of the regulations (reg 1(3)), ‘out of jurisdiction appeals’. Thus, just as Mr Morina was seeking from the appeal tribunal something that it had no jurisdiction to grant, so too was Mr Borrowdale.
[38] This is the context in which reg 32 and reg 46 have provided that certain decisions of the tribunal are allocated to an LQPM. They relate to unappealable or no longer appealable decisions of the Secretary of State. In the overwhelming majority of cases, they will be plainly recognisable as such when they arise and there are perfectly good and obvious policy reasons why no further avenue of appeal should be provided. I acknowledge that there may be a few cases in which there may be room for debate over, say, whether the 13 months had truly expired or whether a decision really related to ‘the manner and time of the payment’. That is no doubt why provision is made for the decision to be taken by the LQPM. One must allow for the possibility that he may get it wrong but that does not necessarily mean that his decision must be considered to be an appealable one under s 14.
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[39] In my judgment, it is neither necessary nor desirable to import the Rickards reasoning into the field of the 1998 Act, particularly when the decisions sought to be appealed are the subject of unencumbered appellate exclusions. Where a commissioner in the normal way refuses leave to appeal against a substantive tribunal decision, his refusal is susceptible to judicial review. It is common ground in the present case that, if a decision of the LQPM is unappealable to the commissioners, it is susceptible to judicial review. Mr Kovats submits that that is a less attractive remedy than the ‘more accessible’ right to apply for leave to appeal to the commissioners. I do not accept this submission. I tend to the view that the number of potential cases is relatively small and the potentially meritorious ones even smaller. In my experience, the Administrative Court is not greatly burdened by the number of applications for permission to challenge refusals by the commissioners of leave to appeal. I see no reason why a claimant who has been shut out of an appellate remedy by the decision of an LQPM in circumstances such as these should be provided with a more ‘accessible’ remedy than judicial review. To the extent that the commissioners may be more accessible, there are countervailing policy reasons why they should be shielded from ill-founded applications and appeals in cases which are unappealable or no longer appealable to the appeals tribunal.
[40] It is expressly provided that some of the decisions of the Secretary of State are not appealable to the appeals tribunal (s 12(1) and Sch 2) and it is settled law that some decisions made within the appellate structure are not further appealable. I have made a number of references to the decision of a commissioner refusing leave to appeal against a decision of the appeals tribunal (Bland’s case). In addition to White’s case, concerning the unappealability of a refusal to extend time, it is appropriate to refer also to Carpenter v Secretary of State for Work and Pensions [2003] EWCA Civ 33, [2003] All ER (D) 51 (Jan), in which it was held that a refusal of an adjournment by the appeals tribunal is not appealable to the commissioners because—
‘there is a plain distinction between a decision (that is, a decision upon the actual question whether a claimant is entitled to a particular benefit or not) and what may conveniently be called a determination (that is, a determination of any matter along the way leading to a decision, including a determination of a procedural issue such as an application for an adjournment).’ (Per Laws LJ at [14].)
I acknowledge that a refusal of an adjournment is not precisely comparable with an ‘out of jurisdiction’ decision. However, Carpenter’s case does support the proposition that there are instances of unappealability within the 1998 Act which may not be manifest on the face of the legislation. As Mr Kovats concedes, it is difficult to draw a bright line between the differential uses in the Act and the regulations of the words ‘decision’ and ‘determination’ because, to some extent, the uses are not deployed with consistency. Moreover, it seems to me that in Carpenter’s case Laws LJ was not limiting his distinction to the situations in which the Act or the regulations use the word ‘determination’.
CONCLUSION
[41] For all these reasons I have come to the conclusion that claimants in the position of Mr Morina and Mr Borrowdale do not have a right to seek leave to appeal from an LQPM to the commissioners and the commissioners do not have jurisdiction to entertain such appeals. Such decisions of an LQPM are
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unappealable, even though they are decisions of the appeals tribunal. A claimant who is aggrieved by such decisions is limited to relief by way of judicial review.
ARDEN LJ.
[42] I agree with Maurice Kay LJ that this appeal must be allowed. I agree with all that he has said save that I would approach the third issue (appealability) as purely one of statutory interpretation. Putting the third issue in question form, the issue is: does s 14(1) of the Social Security Act 1998 (set out at [21], above) apply to decisions by a legally qualified panel member (LQPM) that the purported appeal is an appeal which Parliament has provided cannot be appealed?
[43] Maurice Kay LJ has explained at [37], above, neither Mr Morina nor Mr Borrowdale ever had a right of appeal. He has set out the provisions of the Social Security and Child Support (Decisions and Appeals) Regulations 1999, SI 1999/991 that are relevant and I would add simply that s 14(11) of the 1998 Act enables regulations to be made as to the time within which appeals are to be brought and applications made for leave to appeal.
[44] Section 14 of the 1998 Act and regs 31, 32, 46 and 47 of the 1999 regulations together constitute the statutory framework for appeals which are outside the maximum time period and ‘out of jurisdiction’ appeals (as described by Maurice Kay LJ above). In my judgment, this statutory framework is closely analogous to that considered by the House of Lords in Lane v Esdaile [1891] AC 210. The question was whether the House had jurisdiction to hear an appeal against the refusal of the Court of Appeal to grant permission to appeal. Section 3 of the Appellate Jurisdiction Act 1876 provides that ‘an appeal shall lie to the House of Lords from any order or judgment of’ the Court of Appeal. The House of Lords unanimously rejected the argument that the refusal of leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal was an ‘order or judgment’ of the Court of Appeal for this purpose. Lord Halsbury LC held that he would have hesitated to hold that an appeal did not lie if he had looked simply at the language of s 3, but he held that the answer was clear when the statutory framework was considered as a whole (at 211):
‘[W]hen I look not only at the language used, but at the substance and meaning of the provision, it seems to me that to give an appeal in this case would defeat the whole object and purview of the order or rule itself, because it is obvious that what was there intended by the Legislature was that there should be in some form or other a power to stop an appeal—that there should not be an appeal unless some particular body pointed out by the statute (I will see in a moment what that body is), should permit that an appeal should be given. Now just let us consider what that means, that an appeal shall not be given unless some particular body consents to its being given. Surely if that is intended as a check to unnecessary or frivolous appeals it becomes absolutely illusory if you can appeal from that decision or leave, or whatever it is to be called itself. How could any Court of Review determine whether leave ought to be given or not without hearing and determining upon the hearing whether it was a fit case that for an appeal?’
[45] So too here the word ‘decision’ in s 14(1) of the 1998 Act looks all-embracing but it has to be given a purposive interpretation. Mr Morina’s case falls within reg 32 of the 1999 regulations which provides that appeals cannot be more than one year after the expiration of the last date for appealing under reg 31. Mr Borrowdale’s case falls within reg 46 because it is an out of jurisdiction appeal. To interpret the word ‘decision’ as including a decision that either of these
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appeals cannot be brought would be to subvert the provision that an appeal does not lie. It would produce diametrically the opposite result from that which was clearly intended by the 1999 regulations.
[46] Mr Kovats submits that, applying art 6 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) (right of access to a court), the court should proceed on the assumption that a right of appeal is conferred. This submission contrasts with the second sentence of Lord Halsbury’s speech in Lane’s case (at 211) that ‘[a]n appeal is not to be presumed but must be given’. There has been no analysis of the precise respects in which a decision of the LQPM would not satisfy art 6, but, taking the submission on its face, I would hold that the right of access to court is not excluded by the statutory framework in question here. That is because it is always open to an appellant who contends that his case has been wrongly struck out or dismissed, in circumstances where under the regulations there is no appeal, to bring judicial review proceedings. The grounds for judicial review may be more limited but it has not been suggested that judicial review proceedings would not satisfy any right under art 6. Accordingly, this is not a case for a strained interpretation under s 3 of the Human Rights Act 1998.
[47] As this question is to be decided by reference to the words used by Parliament, I consider that the observations of Lord Donaldson of Lymington MR in Rickards v Rickards [1989] 3 All ER 193, [1990] Fam 194 do not assist in the instant case.
[48] For these reasons, I agree with Maurice Kay LJ on the ‘appealability’ issue.
SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR.
[49] I agree that this appeal should be allowed for the reasons given by Maurice Kay and Arden LJJ. I do not wish to add anything except on the appealability point.
[50] I add a few words only to emphasise the point made by Arden LJ that the question is entirely one of statutory construction of a particular statutory provision, namely s 14 of the Social Security Act 1998. In some contexts the word ‘decision’ might well include an interlocutory decision such as a refusal of an adjournment or an order to disclose documents. All depends upon the particular circumstances. In the particular context of s 14 of the 1998 Act, I agree that neither of the decisions complained of were appealable.
Permission to appeal granted. Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
District Court of Vilnius City v Barcys
[2008] 1 All ER 733
[2007] EWHC 615 (Admin)
Categories: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (DIVISIONAL COURT)
Lord(s): LATHAM LJ AND DAVIS J
Hearing Date(s): 7, 22 MARCH 2007
Extradition – Extradition hearing – Discharge – Appeal against discharge – Notice of appeal – Disposal of Pt 1 warrant – Warrant disposed of when order made for discharge and no further possibility of appeal – Notice of appeal to be given before end of period of seven days starting with day on which discharge order – Notice lodged one day late – Whether warrant disposed of – Extradition Act 2003, ss 28(5), 213(1), (3).
B was arrested in November 2006 pursuant to a European arrest warrant issued by the Prosecutor General of the Republic of Lithuania. Lithuania was a category 1 territory under the Extradition Act 2003 and the extradition request was governed by Pt 1 of the 2003 Act, which had been enacted in discharge of the United Kingdom’s duty to transpose into national law the obligations imposed on it by the European Council Framework Decision of 13 June 2002 on the European arrest warrant and the surrender procedures between member states (the Framework Decision). At the extradition hearing the district judge found that it would be unjust or oppressive to extradite B by reason of the passage of time since he was alleged to have committed the offences and ordered his discharge on 6 February 2007. The Prosecutor General indicated that he would appeal. Under s 28(5)a of the 2003 Act notice of an appeal from the magistrates’ court where the judge had ordered a person’s discharge had to be given in accordance with rules of court before the end of the permitted period which was seven days starting with the day on which the order for the discharge had been made. A notice of appeal was drafted and was ready for filing on 12 February, the final day of the seven-day period, but on that day the court offices at the Royal Courts of Justice were closed because of a power cut. The notice was filed the following day and served the following week. Section 213(1)(a)b of the 2003 Act provided that a Pt 1 warrant in respect of a person was disposed of when an order was made for the person’s discharge in respect of the warrant and there was no further possibility of an appeal and sub-s (3)(a) provided that there was no further possibility of an appeal against an order for a person’s discharge or extradition when the period permitted for giving notice of an appeal ended, if notice was not given before the end of that period. Subsection (5) stated that any power of a court to extend the period permitted for giving notice of appeal or for applying for leave to appeal and any power of a court to grant leave to take a step out of time had to be ignored for the purpose of sub-s (3). At the hearing of the appeal B submitted that the court had no jurisdiction as the statutory time limit had not been complied with and that as a result the arrest warrant had been disposed of by virtue of s 213(1)(a) and accordingly was of no effect. The Prosecutor General submitted that the court should do whatever was necessary to permit the appeal to proceed and that the 2003 Act should be construed and the statutory time limit applied in the context of the Framework Decision.
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Held – On the true construction of the 2003 Act, the effect of s 213 was that once the seven day period permitted by s 28(5) of the 2003 Act had passed, there was no extant warrant justifying the continuation of proceedings or the continued detention of the person arrested. Section 213(5) was intended to ensure that the warrant could not be resurrected by any exercise of the court’s power to extend time limits. Moreover, s 28 did not in itself provide any power to extend time and nor did any of the general provisions in the 2003 Act so that there was no power to extend the statutory time limit in s28(5). There was nothing in the Framework Decision which could affect the proper interpretation of s 28(5); the objective of the Decision included the avoidance of delays and the 2003 Act, in so far as it related to European arrest warrants, made it plain that the United Kingdom government considered that a tightly drawn timetable for the process of extradition consequent on the implementation of such a warrant was a necessary part of the procedures to give effect to the Decision. Furthermore, in the context of extradition there were broad policy reasons why Parliament may have intended a strict regime as to time limits relating to the extradition process in general and to appeals in particular. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed on the basis that the court had no jurisdiction to entertain it (see [8]–[16], [21], [25]–[28], below).
Dictum of Lord Steyn in R v Soneji [2005] 4 All ER 321 at [21] considered.
Notes
For appeal against discharge at extradition hearing see Supp to 17(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1420
For the Extradition Act 2003, s 28, 213, see 18 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 826, 977.
Cases referred to in judgments
Office of the King’s Prosecutor, Brussels v Cando Armas [2005] UKHL 67, [2006] 1 All ER 647, [2006] 2 AC 1, [2005] 3 WLR 1079.
Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority (1998) 153 ALR 490, (1998) 194 CLR 355, [1998] HCA 28, Aus HC.
R v Ashton, R v Draz, R v O’Reilly [2006] EWCA Crim 794, [2007] 1 WLR 181.
R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340, [2005] 3 WLR 303.
R v Weir [2001] 2 All ER 216, [2001] 1 WLR 421, HL.
R (on the application of Amoako) v DPP [2006] EWHC 1572 (Admin), [2006] 4 All ER 230.
Appeal
The District Court of Vilnius City appealed from the decision of Senior District Judge Workman on 6 February 2007 in the City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court discharging Linas Barcys, the subject of a European arrest warrant issued by the Prosecutor General of the Republic of Lithuania, under s 11 of the Extradition Act 2003, on the ground that it would be unjust or oppressive to extradite him by reason of the passage of time since he was alleged to have committed the relevant offences. The facts are set out in the judgment of Latham LJ.
Mark Weekes (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Prosecutor General.
Ravi Dogra of Victor Lissack Roscoe & Coleman for Mr Barcys.
Judgment was reserved.
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22 March 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
LATHAM LJ.
[1] On 27 November 2006 Mr Barcys was arrested in this country pursuant to a European arrest warrant issued by the Prosecutor General of the Republic of Lithuania on 23 March 2006. Mr Barcys was brought before the City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court on 28 November 2006 but did not consent to be extradited. As a result the matter was adjourned for hearing. The offences alleged against him are of the utmost seriousness. First is an offence of murder, allegedly committed by him at the end of 1998 or the beginning of 1999. The second is conspiracy to cause an explosion and a related charge of possessing explosives with intent in September 1999. On 6 February 2007, Senior District Judge Workman ordered Mr Barcys’s discharge on the grounds that it would be unjust or oppressive to extradite him by reason of the passage of time since he was alleged to have committed the offences, pursuant to s 14 of the Extradition Act 2003.
[2] The Prosecutor General immediately indicated an intention to appeal the decision to this court pursuant to the provisions of s 28 of the 2003 Act. A notice of appeal was drafted and was ready for filing on 12 February 2007. Unhappily, because of the electrical blackout that day at the Royal Courts of Justice, the offices were closed. The appeal was filed the next day, 13 February 2007. The notice was not, however, served on Mr Barcys until sent by letter on 21 February 2007 to his solicitors. At the hearing before us today, Mr Dogra, on behalf of Mr Barcys, submits that this court has no jurisdiction to hear the appeal, as the statutory time limits have not been complied with, and that, as a result of the failure to meet the statutory time limits, the Pt 1 warrant (the warrant issued for the arrest of Mr Barcys in this country) has been ‘disposed of’ by virtue of s 213(1)(a) of the 2003 Act, and is, accordingly, of no effect.
[3] Section 28 of the 2003 Act is the provision governing appeals from the magistrates’ court where a judge has ordered a person’s discharge. Subsection (5) provides:
‘Notice of an appeal under this section must be given in accordance with rules of court before the end of the permitted period, which is 7 days starting with the day on which the order for the person’s discharge is made.’
[4] Section 213 of the 2003 Act provides:
‘(1) A Part 1 warrant issued in respect of a person is disposed of—(a) when an order is made for the person’s discharge in respect of the warrant and there is no further possibility of an appeal . . .
(3) There is no further possibility of an appeal against an order for a person’s discharge or extradition—(a) when the period permitted for giving notice of an appeal to the High Court ends, if notice is not given before the end of that period . . .
(5) These must be ignored for the purposes of subsections (3) and (4)—(a) any power of a court to extend the period permitted for giving notice of appeal or for applying for leave to appeal; (b) any power of a court to grant leave to take a step out of time . . .’
[5] The relevant rules relating to appeals under the 2003 Act are contained in CPR 52 PD 22.6A, which provides as follows:
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‘(1) In this paragraph, “the Act” means the Extradition Act 2003 . . .
(3) Where an appeal is brought under section 26 or 28 of the Act—(a) the appellant’s notice must be filed and served before the expiry of 7 days, starting with the day on which the order is made . . . (c) The High Court must begin to hear the substantive appeal within 40 days of the person’s arrest . . .
(4) The High Court may extend the period of 40 days under paragraph (3)(c) if it believes it to be in the interest of justice to do so . . .’
[6] The notice of appeal was neither filed nor served within seven days of 6 February 2007. And no application has been made to the court for any extension of time within which to comply with the statutory time limit. It is, however, submitted on behalf of the Prosecutor General that as far as the filing of the notice of appeal is concerned, r 2.8(5) provides that where the period specified by the rules, a practice direction, or any judgment or court order ends on a day on which the office is closed, whatever act is required shall be in time if done on the next day on which the court office is open. It is accepted that this rule cannot apply directly, as the time limit with which we are concerned is a statutory time limit. But, it is submitted, this court can properly apply the principle behind the rule pari passu to the statutory time limit. As far as the failure to serve is concerned, that has not caused, on the evidence, any prejudice to Mr Barcys who knew from the day of the decision that it was the Prosecutor General’s intention to appeal. This court should therefore, it is submitted, do whatever is necessary to permit the appeal to proceed, in particular in view of the provisions of r 52.9, which deals with the power of the appeal court to strike out the whole or part of an appeal notice. This provides that the court will only exercise this power where there is ‘a compelling reason for doing so’. Further, it is submitted that we should, when dealing with both the question of construction of the 2003 Act and the application of the statutory time limit, do so in the context of the European Council Framework Decision of 13 June 2002 on the European arrest warrant and the surrender procedures between member states (2002/584/JHA) (OJ 2002 L190 p1) (the Framework Decision), which is the Community law background against which the provisions of the 2003 Act with which we are concerned were enacted.
[7] The effect of the failure to comply with a statutory time limit was most recently considered by the House of Lords in R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340. Lord Steyn approved (at [21]) the conclusion of the Australian High Court in Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority (1998) 153 ALR 490, (1998) 194 CLR 355, which included the following sentence: ‘A better test for determining the issue of validity is to ask whether it was the purpose of the legislation that an act done in breach of the provision should be invalid.’
[8] In other words, as later explained by Lord Steyn, the question is essentially one of statutory construction. In R v Soneji and many other cases that exercise has had to be carried out in the absence of any express provision in the statute in question which provided the answer. But in the case of the 2003 Act, it seems to me that the intention has been made reasonably clear in s 213. Although that section is an interpretation section, and the phrase ‘disposed of’ is not a phrase which appears in any of the sections with which we are directly concerned, the effect of the section must be that once the seven-day period permitted by s 28(5) has passed, there is no extant warrant justifying the continuation of proceedings or the continued detention of the person arrested; and s 213(5) is intended to ensure that
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the warrant cannot be resurrected by any exercise of the court’s power to extend the time limits.
[9] I am, however, somewhat puzzled by the reference to the court’s supposed powers. For s 213 is not the only section of the 2003 Act which indicates that the seven-day time limit in s 28(5) is one which Parliament intended to be a strict time limit, the passing of which would bring to an end any right to appeal. A consistent theme throughout, in particular, Pt 1 of the 2003 Act, is that a timetable is provided for the taking of the various steps following on from the execution of a Pt 1 warrant; and a feature of that timetable is that express power is given to extend time only in relation to some of those steps: see eg ss 8(5), 35(4)(b), 36(3)(b). Perhaps, however, most relevant is the time limit for the start of the hearing of an appeal set out in s 31. This makes provision for time limits to be prescribed by rules of court; and s 31(4) gives an express power to extend the relevant period, which power is replicated in para 22.6A(4) of the practice direction set out above. No equivalent power is provided for extending the time for filing and serving the notice of appeal.
[10] The only pointer to the contrary seems to me to be that reference in s 213(5) to the powers of the court. Indeed the same words are used in s 32(9) in relation to the time limits for appeals to the House of Lords, and in s 35(6) and s 36(6) dealing with the time limits for giving effect to orders for extradition. It might be said that these subsections clearly envisage the court having the power to extend the time limits, quite apart from any express powers given by the 2003 Act itself, and that accordingly where those words do not appear, as in s 28, Parliament envisaged that such a power would be available.
[11] I acknowledge the apparent force of this argument. But it begs the question as to what power the court does have to extend time in the circumstances where there is an express statutory time limit. Section 28 does not in itself provide any power to extend time. And no other general provisions in the 2003 Act giving such a power was drawn to our attention. In so far as it brings into play rules of court, it only does so in the context of defining how a notice of appeal is ‘given’. The rules to which I have already referred make it plain in CPR 52 PD 22.6A(3)(a) that this is to be done by way of filing and serving the relevant notice. No power is given to extend the statutory time limit. Further, as with the provisions of the CPR r 3.9, the court’s general powers of management in r 3.1(2)(a) only give power to the court to extend time for compliance with a rule, practice direction or court order. It follows, in my view, that there is no power to extend the statutory time limit in s 28(5).
[12] I reach that conclusion without any regret in relation to the requirement to serve the notice within seven days. That is a matter wholly within the control of the appellant. In the present case, service was well out of time; and there is no explanation before us as to the reason for the failure to effect service. But the failure to file the notice was clearly not the fault of the Prosecutor General. If that had been the only failure to comply with the statutory time limit in the present case, to hold that the consequence of the office being unexpectedly closed was that the notice of appeal was not filed in time would have been an unfortunate and unsatisfactory consequence of the construction, which I consider to be inevitable, of s 28(5) of the 2003 Act.
[13] Further, I do not think that the Prosecutor General can escape from this construction of the 2003 Act by reference to the Framework Decision. This has been considered in detail by the House of Lords in Office of the King’s Prosecutor, Brussels v Cando Armas [2005] UKHL 67, [2006] 1 All ER 647, [2006] 2 AC 1. Nothing
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in the decision prevents the imposition of time limits. The purpose of the decision is best set out in recital (5) of the preamble:
‘The objective set for the Union to become an area of freedom, security and justice leads to abolishing extradition between Member States and replacing it by a system of surrender between judicial authorities. Further, the introduction of a new simplified system of surrender of sentenced or suspected persons for the purposes of execution or prosecution of criminal sentences makes it possible to remove the complexity and potential for delay inherent in the present extradition procedures. Traditional cooperation relations which have prevailed up till now between Member States should be replaced by a system of free movement of judicial decisions in criminal matters, covering both pre-sentence and final decisions, within an area of freedom, security and justice.’
[14] Whilst therefore it is clear that judicial cooperation is a fundamental feature of the new system, the objective includes the avoidance of delays. It seems to me that reading the 2003 Act in so far as it relates to European arrest warrants makes it plain that the United Kingdom government considered that a tightly drawn timetable for the process of extradition consequent on the implementation of such a warrant was a necessary part of the procedures to give effect to the decision. It follows that I can see nothing in the decision which could in anyway affect my conclusion as to the proper interpretation of s 28(5).
[15] I would accordingly hold that this court has no jurisdiction to entertain any appeal from the decision of the Senior District Judge.
DAVIS J.
[16] I agree. I express my conclusion in my own words, however, in view of the potential importance of the point: the more so as the same result must apply, as I see it, to the time limits applicable to those seeking to appeal against an extradition order: the wording of s 26(4) of the Extradition Act 2003 being, in all relevant respects, identical to that contained in s 28(5). It may be that the same result potentially also would apply to, for example, category 2 cases (see ss 103 and following).
[17] In approaching the issue of statutory interpretation that arises here, it is both legitimate and necessary to consider the consequences of non-compliance with the statutory provision as to time limits, and to ask whether it was the intention and purpose of the legislation that acts done which are in breach of the provision are invalid and null (see R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340). An example of where this approach was applied can be found in the decision of the Court of Appeal (Criminal Division) in R v Ashton, R v Draz, R v O’Reilly [2006] EWCA Crim 794, [2007] 1 WLR 181.
[18] In argument before us, Mr Dogra, on behalf of the respondent, concentrated on the late service of the appeal notice: that, on any view, being several days beyond the prescribed seven-day time limit and with no explanation, other than oversight, offered. But I can see no difference, for the purposes of s 28(5), between the late filing of the notice of appeal and the late service of the notice of appeal. For s 28(5) says that ‘Notice of an appeal under this section must be given in accordance with rules of court before the end of the permitted period . . .’; and by CPR 52 PD 22.6A(3) (which applies to appeals under s 26 and s 28 of the 2003 Act) it is expressly provided that the notice must be filed and served
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before the expiry of seven days. Accordingly the ‘giving’ of notice of appeal requires both filing and service within the permitted period.
[19] In the present case, it was through absolutely no fault of the prosecuting authority that the notice of appeal was not filed in time. As the evidence shows, it was prevented from doing so by reason of the blackout at the High Court on 12 February 2007. In circumstances such as these, one has to ask whether it really had been intended by Parliament that any proceedings thereafter should be a nullity and that the High Court should have no jurisdiction to entertain an appeal. Moreover, as Mr Weekes pointed out in the course of argument, it is entirely foreseeable that an extradition decision sought to be challenged may be given shortly before holiday periods, such as the Christmas or Easter holidays, when the High Court may be closed for some days.
[20] It might be said that any potential hardship or injustice (at least for s 28 appeals) could be alleviated by the prosecuting authority seeking, in an appropriate case, to issue a fresh warrant. But even if that were practicable in some cases there would in the interim be the potential disadvantage—I am talking generally, not with regard to this specific case—of there being no power under the 2003 Act to remand in custody or on bail.
[21] Consequently, a purposive approach to interpretation would suggest that the time limits applicable to giving notice of appeal under s 28 or s 26 should not be mandatory. But ultimately the intention of Parliament is to be found in the words used. An example of a case where time limits laid down by statute relating to criminal appeals were held not to be capable of being extended by the courts can be found in the decision of the House of Lords in R v Weir [2001] 2 All ER 216, [2001] 1 WLR 421 (which concerned s 34 of the Criminal Appeals Act 1968). Moreover, it can be said that in the context of extradition there are broad policy reasons why Parliament may indeed have intended a strict regime as to time limits relating to the extradition process in general and to appeals in particular.
[22] Paragraph 20.2 (contained in section III of CPR 52 PD) provides that Pt 52 applies to all appeals to which that section applies subject to any special provisions set out in the section. Rules 52.6 and 3.1.2(a) give wide powers to the court to extend time. But this only applies to time for compliance with any rule, practice direction or court order. The rules thus cannot be used to trump the express provisions of the applicable statute.
[23] Section 28(5) has, it is to be noted, not left the time for giving notice of appeal to be provided by rules of the court. (Had it done so, there would potentially have been available the power to extend time under those rules.) On the contrary, as I read the subsection, whilst the ‘giving’ of the notice is to be in accordance with rules of court the timing of the giving of such notice is expressly laid down by the subsection itself: that is to say, it ‘must be’ before the end of the ‘permitted period’ which is defined as being seven days starting with the day on which the order for discharge is made.
[24] Further, in the same part of this Act relating to appeals there is provision expressly enabling the High Court to extend the period prescribed by the rules for beginning the hearing of an appeal: see s 31(4), (5). It is striking that no such express power relating to extending time for giving notice of appeal is provided for. That distinction is also maintained in CPR 52 PD 22.6A(4).
[25] Yet further, in the general interpretation section of the 2003 Act (s 213) the provisions of s 213(3) would seem to reinforce a conclusion that the time limits under s 26(4) and s 28(5) are mandatory. It is true that s 213(5) refers to ‘any power of a court to extend the period permitted for giving notice of appeal’: that may,
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perhaps, suggest that there is some such power. But where such power actually comes from is left unexplained. In any event, even if there were such a power, the effect of s 213(5) is that the availability of such a power is to be ignored for the purposes of s 213(3). Mr Weekes in argument frankly acknowledged the difficulty s 213(5) put in his way in seeking to apply to extend time.
[26] For these reasons, I feel compelled to the conclusion—with, I make clear, a considerable degree of reluctance—that there is no power to extend the time-limit contained in s 28(5). It may be noted that this was the position also taken by Ouseley J on s 26(4) of the 2003 Act in the case of R (on the application of Amoako) v DPP [2006] EWHC 1572 (Admin), [2006] 4 All ER 230: albeit, as the report makes clear, it was in fact agreed by both counsel appearing before Ouseley J that there was no power in the court to extend time.
[27] Mr Weekes suggested that such a conclusion would not be consistent with the European Council Framework Decision of 13 June 2002 on the European arrest warrant and the surrender procedures between member states (2002/584/JHA) (OJ 2002 L190 p1). But such Framework Decision gives a degree of procedural latitude to member states and, moreover, in its recitals it refers to the desirability of removing the potential for delay in extradition procedures.
[28] In the result, for these reasons and for the reasons given by Latham LJ with which I agree, I would dismiss the appeal on the basis that this court has no jurisdiction to entertain it.
Appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
United Utilities Water plc v Environment Agency for England and Wales
[2008] 1 All ER 741
[2007] UKHL 41
Categories: ENVIRONMENTAL: EUROPEAN COMMUNITY; Environment
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD HOFFMANN, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 19 JULY, 17 OCTOBER 2007
European Community – Environment – Waste – Disposal – Permit – Disposal of waste other than by incineration or landfill – Biological or physico-chemical treatment resulting in final compounds or mixtures – Treatment of sewage sludge in intermediate plant – Whether permit required – Pollution Prevention and Control Regulations 2000, SI 2000/1973, reg 9(1), Sch 1, Pt 1, s 5.3(c) – Council Directive (EEC) 75/442 – Council Directive (EC) 96/61.
The Pollution Prevention and Control (England and Wales) Regulations 2000 were made under the Pollution Prevention and Control Act 1999 in implementation of EC Council Directive 96/61 (the Integrated Pollution Prevention and Control Directive (OJ 1996 L257 p 26)) and EEC Council Directive 75/442 (the Waste Framework Directive (OJ 1975 L194 p 39)). Community environmental law made a distinction between disposal—typically by landfill or incineration—and recovery—typically by recycling. The policy of the Framework Directive was to favour recovery rather than disposal. Paragraph 9(1)a of the 2000 Regulations provided that no person ‘shall operate an installation’ except under a permit granted by the regulator. An ‘installation’ was defined as a stationary technical unit where one or more activities listed in Pt 1 of Sch 2 to the 2000 regulations were carried out and those activities included, in s 5.3b, under the heading ‘Disposal of Waste Other than by Incineration or Landfill’, disposal of non-hazardous waste by biological treatment (as specified) or physico-chemical treatment (as specified) ‘which results in final compounds or mixtures . . . which are discarded’ (in specified ways). The claimant was a statutory water undertaker and a sewerage undertaker and the defendant was the regulator under the 2000 regulations. The claimant operated a number of waste water treatment plants including sludge treatment plants which used processes which amounted to physico-chemical or biological treatment and then transported sludge by pipeline to a central processing plant. About one-third of the sludge treated at the central plant was incinerated or sent for landfill and about two thirds was recovered, mainly as agricultural fertiliser. The claimant brought proceedings for declaratory relief to the effect that many of the sludge treatment plants did not require a permit under reg 9 of the 2000 regulations as what was produced was transferred to the central plant and it was there that the final compounds or mixtures were discarded. The claimant was unsuccessful both before the judge and the Court of Appeal. It appealed to the House of Lords.
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Held – On the true construction of s 5(3)(c) of Pt 1 of Sch 1 to the 2000 regulations treatment of non-hazardous waste by physico-chemical treatment or biological treatment at an installation fell within reg 9(1) and required a permit even if the treatment produced an intermediate product which was then transferred to another installation for final treatment and disposal. That accorded with the scheme and purpose of the Regulations and the Directives which was to not only to ensure the environmentally acceptable disposal of the final product of waste management but to ensure that the processes by which it was produced were themselves environmentally acceptable. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [5], [6], [19], [23], [24], [26]–[29], below).
Notes
For regulation of polluting activities, and for pollution prevention and control regulations, see 38 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 170, 171.
For the Pollution Prevention and Control Regulations 2000, SI 2000/1973, reg 9, Sch 1, Pt 1, s 5.3, see 16 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (2007 issue) 241, 275.
Cases referred to in opinions
Marleasing SA v La Comercial Internacional de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135, ECJ.
Scotch Whisky Association v Compagnie Financière Européenne de Prises de Participation (COFEPP) Case C-136/96 [1998] ECR I-4571, ECJ.
SITA EcoService Nederland BV v Minister van Volkshuisvesting, Ruimtelijke Ordening en Milieubeheer Case C-116/01 [2004] QB 262, [2004] 2 WLR 259, [2003] ECR I-2969, ECJ.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
AvestaPolarit Chrome Oy, Re Case C-114/01 [2003] ECR I-8725, ECJ.
Litster v Forth Dry Dock and Engineering Co Ltd [1989] 1 All ER 1134, [1990] 1 AC 546, [1989] 2 WLR 634, HL.
Palin Granit Oy (Application by) Case C-9/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 366, [2002] 1 WLR 2644, [2002] ECR I-3533, ECJ.
R (on the application of Thames Water Utilities Ltd) v Bromley Magistrates’ Court [2005] EWHC 1231 (Admin), [2005] All ER (D) 265 (May).
R (on the application of Thames Water Utilities Ltd) v Bromley Magistrates’ Court Case C-252/05 [2007] 1 WLR 1945, ECJ.
Revenue and Customs Comrs v IDT Card Services Ireland Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 29, [2006] STC 1252.
Appeal
United Utilities Water plc appealed with permission of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 25 July 2006 from that part of the decision of the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clarke MR, Laws and Smith LJJ) on 19 May 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 633, [2006] Env LR 42) dismissing United Utilities’ appeal against part of the decision of Nelson J on 13 January 2006 ([2006] EWHC 9 (QB), [2006] Env LR 32) that certain waste water treatment works operated by United Utilities required permits from the Environment Agency under the Pollution Prevention and Control Regulations 2000. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe.
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Lawrence West QC and Wendy Outhwaite (instructed by Addleshaw Goddard) for United Utilities.
David Hart QC and Angus McCullough (instructed by the Environment Agency) for the agency.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
17 October 2007. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD HOFFMANN.
[1] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe and I gratefully adopt his statement of the facts, the relevant legislation and the issues.
[2] Regulation 9 of the Pollution Prevention and Control (England and Wales) Regulations 2000, SI 2000/1973 provides that no person may operate an ‘installation’, as defined in the regulations, without a permit. An installation is defined in reg 2 as a stationary technical unit ‘where one or more activities listed in Part 1 of Schedule 1 are carried out’. Part 1 lists a large number of activities under various headings, including (in s 5.3 of Ch 5) ‘Disposal of Waste other than by Incineration or Landfill’. Under this heading, para (a) deals with hazardous waste, para (b) with waste oils and para (c), with which this appeal is concerned, with non-hazardous waste.
[3] The activities described in para (c) are:
‘Disposal of non-hazardous waste . . . by—(i) biological treatment . . . which results in final compounds or mixtures which are discarded by means of any of the operations numbered D1 to D12 in [Annex IIA to Council Directive (EEC) 75/442]; or (ii) physico-chemical treatment . . . which results in final compounds or mixtures which are discarded by means of any of the [same operations] . . .’
[4] The definition makes it clear that the forms of treatment described in sub-paras (i) and (ii) require a permit only if they result in end products (‘final compounds or mixtures’) which are discarded. Identical treatment which results in end products which are ‘recovered’, ie put to some use, does not require a permit. The 2000 regulations and the Directive upon which they are based make a clear distinction between disposal or discarding on the one hand and recovery on the other. But the short point in this appeal is whether the production and discarding of the end product must take place within the same installation as the biological or physico-chemical treatment. The appellants say that treatment of non-hazardous waste at an installation which produces an intermediate product which is then transferred to another plant for final treatment and disposal does not fall within the definition. Indeed, they say that this is the plain and obvious meaning of the words.
[5] I do not agree. The purpose of the legislation was, among other things, to protect the environment against potential damage from the operations involved in the disposal of non-hazardous waste, including biological or physico-chemical treatment. If one asks why, in that case, the 2000 regulations did not simply designate ‘biological or physico-chemical treatment of non-hazardous waste’ as an activity requiring a permit, the answer is that it was necessary to distinguish between such treatment for the purposes of disposal and the same treatment for the purposes of recovery. Hence the qualification introduced by the words
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‘which results in final compounds or mixtures which are discarded’. The exclusion of recovery processes from the permit regime was no doubt part of a policy of encouraging recovery. But exclusion of treatment simply on the ground that the final product for discarding was produced elsewhere could have no rational explanation. In my opinion sub-paras (i) and (ii) mean that the treatment must form part of a process which results in a discarded rather than a recovered product but do not stipulate where that should take place. For those reasons and those given by my noble and learned friend, I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[6] My Lords, I have had the privilege of considering the speech of my noble and learned friend, Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe, in draft. For the reasons he gives, with which I am in complete agreement, I too would dismiss this appeal.
LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE.
[7] My Lords, This appeal turns on a single issue as to the correct construction of the Pollution Prevention and Control (England and Wales) Regulations 2000, SI 2000/1973. The regulations were made under s 2 of the Pollution Prevention and Control Act 1999 in implementation of Council Directive (EC) 96/61 concerning integrated pollution prevention and control (OJ 1996 L257 p 26) (the IPPCD). As the IPPCD’s title suggests (and its recitals confirm), the 2000 regulations cover many diverse operations which raise environmental concerns as to emissions in the air, water and land, including (in Ch of Pt 1 of Sch 1) waste management. Chapter 5 implements (largely in language identical to its English text) many provisions in Council Directive (EEC) 75/442 on waste (OJ 1975 L194 p 39) (the Framework Directive) as it stood in 1996. (The Framework Directive has been amended from time to time over the years and has now been consolidated by Parliament and Council Directive (EC) 2006/12 on waste (OJ 2006 L114 p 9); your Lordships are concerned with the text as amended down to 1996.)
[8] The appellant United Utilities Water plc (United Utilities) is a statutory water undertaker and a sewerage undertaker within the meaning of the Water Industry Act 1991. It provides these services to about 2·9m houses and businesses in the north-west of England. The infrastructure of its undertaking is correspondingly large: over 40,000 km of sewers, 599 waste water treatment plants incorporating 70 sludge treatment plants, and the ‘stand-alone’ Shell Green processing plant (Shell Green).
[9] The Environment Agency for England and Wales (the agency) is the authority which issues permits required under the relevant part of the 2000 regulations. In 2004 United Utilities started proceedings against the agency under CPR Pt 8 for declaratory relief to the effect that 23 (or failing that 18) of its sewage treatment plants did not require a permit under the 2000 regulations. Seven of these plants were selected, as a case management exercise, as suitable test cases. One of them (Eccles) was conceded by the agency before trial, and another (Wigan) was conceded by United Utilities in the course of argument in the Court of Appeal. On two more (Blackburn and Dalston) the trial judge decided in favour of United Utilities, the agency’s cross-appeal was dismissed by the Court of Appeal, and there is no further cross-appeal. The House is concerned with the three plants (Bolton, Davyhulme and Widnes) on which United Utilities was unsuccessful in both courts below.
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[10] The processes involved in the treatment of waste water, and the sites at which these processes are carried out by United Utilities, are fully and clearly described in the judgments of the trial judge (Nelson J: [2006] EWHC 9 (QB), [2006] Env LR 32) and the Court of Appeal (Laws LJ, with whom Sir Anthony Clarke MR and Smith LJ concurred: [2006] EWCA Civ 633, [2006] Env LR 42). An abbreviated description is therefore sufficient. ‘Waste water’ is the industry term for the contents of public sewers, which contain a mixture of domestic sewage, trade effluent and (depending on the weather) rainwater run-off. After preliminary treatment to remove large items of waste (such as plastic bags or bits of wood) the waste water receives primary treatment (‘de-sludging’) during which organic matter settles at the bottom of a large tank, and is removed. The remaining water then receives further treatment which is not now material. The sludge is subjected to three further processes: (a) thickening, using a gravity belt thickener; (b) primary and secondary digestion (by slow heating followed by cooling) to reduce the organic and pathological content; and (c) dewatering (by centrifuge or other mechanical means) to reduce the sludge to ‘cake’ with about 30 per cent solid matter. Processes (a) and (c) amount to ‘physico-chemical treatment’ for the purposes of s 5.3 in Pt 1 of Sch 1 to the 2000 regulations, and (b) amounts to ‘biological treatment’ for those purposes.
[11] At Widnes, sludge is treated by thickening but is then transported by road to Warrington (a plant on which no question arises, but which is on the Mersey Valley Sludge Pipeline—‘the pipeline’). It receives further treatment at Warrington and is then transported by the pipeline to Shell Green.
[12] At Bolton, sludge is treated by thickening and primary digestion; it is then sent to Davyhulme for further treatment and is then transported by the pipeline to Shell Green.
[13] At Davyhulme, some sludge is thickened, subjected to primary and secondary digestion, and then transported by the pipeline to Shell Green. Other sludge (from Bolton and elsewhere) joins the stream and has the same destination.
[14] Thus Shell Green is the ultimate destination of a huge volume of partially-treated sludge. In order to be pumped through to Shell Green the sludge must at that stage have a water content of about 95 per cent. What happens at Shell Green is described as follows in the agreed statement of facts:
‘At Shell Green, the liquid sludge is received into reception tanks and then transferred to conditioning tanks. In the conditioning tanks, ferric chloride is added to cause coagulation of solids and a polymer is added to flocculate the coagulated particles. The sludge is then fed into one of nine filter presses which reduces its water content to leave a sludge cake. These processes are treatments falling within section 5.3 of Schedule 1 to the [2000 regulations]. After this stage a decision is taken as to whether the sludge cake will be incinerated (a disposal operation within the meaning of section 5.1 of Schedule 1), land-filled (also a disposal operation, but under section 5.2 of the Schedule) or sent for recovery (not subject to the [Regulations]).’
The judge found that about one-third of the sludge treated at Shell Green was incinerated there or sent for landfill, and about two-thirds was recovered, mainly by being spread on agricultural land as fertiliser.
[15] Having quoted these references to Ch 5 in Sch 1 to the 2000 regulations I must now go to the regulations in much more detail. But before exploring their intricacies I should draw attention to the very important distinction which
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Community environmental law makes between ‘disposal’ and ‘recovery’. Disposal means, in colloquial terms, getting rid of rubbish as something worthless—typically by landfill or by incineration. Recovery means making use of it—typically by recycling it in one way or another. The terms in the French text of the Framework Directive (‘élimination’ and ‘valorisation’) bring out the distinction more vividly. The clear policy of the Framework Directive (since its amendment in 1991) has been to prefer recovery to disposal.
[16] Paragraph 9(1) of the regulations provides, so far as material: ‘No person shall operate an installation . . . except under and to the extent authorised by a permit granted by the regulator’—that is, in this case, the agency (see reg 8(2)). ‘Installation’ is defined (in reg 2(1)), so far as material, as: ‘a stationary technical unit where one or more activities listed in Part 1 of Schedule 1 are carried out.’
[17] The general structure of Ch 5 is: s 5.1 disposal of waste by incineration; s 5.2 disposal of waste by landfill; s 5.3 disposal of waste other than by incineration or landfill; s 5.4 recovery of waste; and 5.5 the production of fuel from waste. Section 5.3 is in the following terms:
‘Part A(1)(a) The disposal of hazardous waste (other than by incineration or landfill) in a facility with a capacity of more than 10 tonnes per day.
(b) The disposal of waste oils (other than by incineration or landfill) in a facility with a capacity of more than 10 tonnes per day.
(c) Disposal of non-hazardous waste in a facility with a capacity of more than 50 tonnes per day by—(i) biological treatment, not being treatment specified in any paragraph other than paragraph D8 of Annex IIA to [the Framework Directive], which results in final compounds or mixtures which are discarded by means of any of the operations numbered D1 to D12 in that Annex (D8); or (ii) physico-chemical treatment, not being treatment specified in any paragraph other than paragraph D9 in Annex IIA to [the Framework Directive], which results in final compounds or mixtures which are discarded by means of any of the operations numbered D1 to D12 in that Annex (for example, evaporation, drying, calcination, etc) (D9) . . .’
It is common ground that in s 5.3(c)(ii) the parenthesis ‘(for example, evaporation, drying, calcination, etc)’ qualifies ‘physico-chemical treatment’ (and not the words which immediately precede the parenthesis).
[18] In s 5.3 paras (a) and (b) are easily understood and are not to be in point here. Paragraph (c) is much more opaque, and it lies at the heart of this appeal. The issue of construction is focused on the words in s 5.3(c)(i) and (ii):
‘. . . treatment . . . which results in final compounds or mixtures which are discarded by means of [any operation of the specified description—in practice, subject to the wrinkle discussed below, some sort of incineration or landfill].’
The corresponding French text is: ‘Traitement . . . aboutissant à des composés ou à des mélanges qui sont éliminés selon l’un des procédés . . .’
[19] The purpose underlying s 5.3(c)—and both sides agree, with varying degrees of enthusiasm, that a purposive construction is needed—cannot be understood without looking at the whole of Annex IIA and Annex IIB to the Framework Directive. Annex IIA lists the operations which (under art 9 of the Framework Directive) may not be undertaken without a permit from the competent authority designated by the member state in question (in this case the agency). All of them are ‘disposal operations’ (in the French text ‘opérations
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d’élimination’). Annex IIB lists ‘recovery operations’ (‘opérations de valorisation’); item R10 in Annex IIB is ‘Land treatment resulting in benefit to agriculture or ecological improvement’.
[20] Annex IIA contains fifteen items, D1 to D15. D1 to D7 and D12 are all types of disposal by landfill or specialised methods akin to landfill. D10 and D11 are incineration (on land or at sea). All these activities are methods by which waste is finally disposed of (the English text uses a variant, ‘discarded’; as already noted, the French text sticks with ‘sont éliminés’). D8 and D9, by contrast, are activities of treatment which produces a physical result (a product) which is ‘discarded by means of any of the operations numbered D 1 to D 12’. D13, D14 and D15 refer to ancillary activities (blending, repacking, and temporary storage).
[21] The words quoted in the penultimate sentence of the last paragraph are the wording of the 1996 text. If I am right in supposing that D8 and D9 are generically different from the group of activities consisting of D1 to D7 and D10 to D12 (because that group lists activities by which waste is finally disposed of or discarded) then the words quoted ought, one might suppose, to be amended to exclude D8 and D9—to stop them being, as my noble and learned friend Lord Hoffmann put it in the course of counsel’s argument, self-referential. How can a product be disposed of, it may be asked, by an operation which results in another physical product which has to be discarded? In fact the text was amended in the 2006 consolidation, but only to remove the element of pure self-reference. As amended D8 still appears to contemplate the possibility that the product of some biological treatment might be discarded by an operation amounting to physico-chemical treatment under D9 (and vice versa). This seems to raise the theoretical possibility of a waste product in perpetual circulation between D8 and D9, without ever reaching a final resting place in landfill (of one sort or another) or by incineration. I have to say that I find this point baffling. But it is not (in either the 1996 or the 2006 version) a point that gives any support to the submission of Mr West QC (for United Utilities) that s 5.3(c) cannot be directed to intermediate treatment activities.
[22] This wrinkle is however peripheral to the main argument. Mr West, while accepting that a purposive construction is appropriate, has submitted (and Mr Hart QC for the agency did not dispute) that this is not a case where there is any discrepancy between the IPPCD or the Framework Directive and the implementing domestic legislation such as to call for any special Marleasing approach to construction (see Marleasing SA v La Comercial Internacional de Alimentación SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135). Mr West submitted that the plain language of s 5.3(c), and in particular the word ‘final’ which qualifies ‘compounds or mixtures’, was decisive in favour of United Utilities. A product which is to receive further treatment cannot, he submitted, be a final compound or mixture. He asked the House to take heed of the opinion of Advocate General Mischo in Scotch Whisky Association v Compagnie Financière Européenne de Prises de Participation (COFEPP) Case C-136/96 [1998] ECR I-4571, para 18:
‘It is a fundamental principle of statutory interpretation that words which do not require interpretation, because they are perfectly clear, should not be distorted under pretence of interpretation.’
Mr West also referred to SITA EcoService Nederland BV v Minister van Volkshuisvesting, Ruimtelijke Ordening en Milieubeheer Case C-116/01 [2004] QB 262, [2004] 2 WLR 259. He also placed some reliance on the French text of Annex IIA to the Framework Directive, D8 and D9.
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[23] Against that Mr Hart pointed to the absurd consequences which would, in his submission, follow from the appellant’s construction. It would mean that no sludge treatment plant would need a permit if its product was moved to another site for further treatment before disposal (even if the whole, and not merely part of the product, was disposed of rather than recovered). Mr Hart argued that the appellant’s construction amounted to reading in the words ‘at once and without more’ before ‘discarded’ and that it would be irrational to do so. The purpose of the measure is not only to ensure the environmentally acceptable disposal of the final product of waste management, but also to ensure that the processes by which it is produced are themselves environmentally acceptable.
[24] I do not regard this as a case where the language is ‘perfectly clear’. Nor do I derive any real assistance from the French text. By using the participle ‘aboutissant’ it avoids the ugly cumulation of subordinate clauses in the English text (‘which results . . . which are discarded’) but it is not to my mind any less ambiguous, simply as a matter of language. The ambiguity has to be resolved by the context and by looking at the scheme and purpose of the 2000 regulations and the Council Directives which they implement.
[25] The SITA case does not seem to me to assist the appellant either. It concerned the shipment of waste glue and other substances from the Netherlands to Belgium for use in the cement industry by two sequential processes: first burning as fuel in cement kilns, and then production of clinker from the residue for use in cement-making. The European Court of Justice’s decision that the first operation was decisive for classification purposes turned largely on the inclusion in Annex IIB of head R11 (‘Use of wastes obtained from any of the operations numbered R 1 to R 10’). There is no comparable provision applicable in this case. On the contrary, the possible interaction between D8 and D9 suggests that intermediate activities are relevant to the definition of ‘installation’.
[26] Much of the difficulty arises from the hidden complexity of that definition. ‘Installation’ is defined in terms of the activity carried on at the site, which appears straightforward enough. But it then becomes apparent that some activities (D8 and D9) are defined, not only in terms of their physical product, but also in terms of the final destination of that product. There is therefore an attractive simplicity about the appellant’s suggested construction, which would focus exclusively on what happens on the site in question. But I accept the submission on behalf of the agency that that would produce irrational results. In my opinion the language of s 5.3(c) has a wider scope. Its compressed form follows the compressed language of Annex IIA to the Framework Directive. But its meaning is to be spelled out, not by reading in something like ‘at once and without more’ to qualify ‘are discarded’, but by looking to the product’s eventual destination when it is discarded. The use of the present tense in the two subordinate clauses does not require the coming into existence of the product and its disposal to be simultaneous. Any other reading would be contrary to the clear general policy of preferring recovery to disposal.
[27] For these reasons (which are, I think, essentially the same as those of Nelson J and the Court of Appeal) I would dismiss this appeal. I can understand that United Utilities may feel some sense of grievance at the situation. Shell Green is the hub of a centralised system for disposing of a very large volume of sludge, and no doubt it achieves economies of scale by its centralised system. If all its output went for recovery, upstream treatment plants would not need permits under the 2000 regulations and there would, your Lordships were told,
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be a significant financial benefit for United Utilities. In fact two-thirds of its output goes for recovery, but United Utilities does not get any proportionate relief or discount on that account (that is the agency’s position as explained in para 4.6 of Annex 4 of the official publication Guidance: Application of the PPC and Waste Management Licensing Regulations to Water Companies (5 November 2003)). But that is not a matter for your Lordships.
LORD CARSWELL.
[28] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe. For the reasons which he gives, with which I fully agree, I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[29] My Lords, I have had the privilege of considering the speech of my noble and learned friend, Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe, in draft. For the reasons he gives, with which I am in complete agreement, I too would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Charman v Orion Publishing Group Ltd and others
[2008] 1 All ER 750
[2007] EWCA Civ 972
Categories: TORTS; Defamation
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WARD, SEDLEY AND HOOPER LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 19, 20, 28, 29 MARCH, 11 OCTOBER 2007
Libel and slander – Qualified privilege – Common law privilege – Responsible journalism – Principles to be applied – Defendants publishers and author of book on police corruption – Whether publication of book an occasion of qualified privilege.
The claimant, a former detective constable in the Metropolitan Police force, issued libel proceedings against the defendants, the publishers and author of a book entitled Bent Coppers, subtitled ‘Scotland Yard’s Battle Against Police Corruption’. The claimant alleged defamation in respect of passages concerning a detailed account of his relationship with another officer and a police informant. The defendants raised the defence of qualified privilege. They relied, inter alia, on the common law privilege based on reportage and the defence of responsible journalism (Reynolds privilege) (see Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609). The judge at first instance found that an ordinary reasonable reader of the books taking them as a whole would understand them to mean that there were cogent grounds to suspect that the claimant had abused his position as a police officer by colluding with an informant in the commission of substantial fraud by the informant from whom the claimant and another had received corrupt payments and dismissed the qualified privilege defences. The defendants appealed. The principal issues for the court were: (1) the extent of the privilege claimed for ‘reportage’ and how it fitted into the Reynolds type of qualified privilege; and (2) the proper approach for a court to take in judging whether the author and publishers had acted responsibly in communicating information to the public. In relation to qualified privilege the court considered the balance between the right to freedom of expression and the right of an individual to protect his reputation within arts 10 and 8 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998).
Held – (1) The reportage defence would be established where, judging the thrust of the report as a whole, the effect of the report was not to adopt the truth of what was being said, but to record the fact that the statements which were defamatory had been made. The protection was lost if the journalist adopted what had been said and made it his own or if he failed to report the story in a fair, disinterested, neutral way. To justify the attack on the claimant’s reputation, the publication should always meet the standards of responsible journalism, the burden being on the defendants. In that way, the balance between arts 10 and 8 of the convention was maintained. No matter how overwhelming the public interest, it was not reportage simply to report with perfect accuracy and in the most neutral way the defamatory allegations A had uttered of B as repeating someone else’s libellous statement was just as bad as making the statement directly. Whilst it was appropriate to start with the objective meaning of the publication, that had to be
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seen in the context of the case. Moreover, attempting to resolve the adoption/neutrality question by reference to the rules relating to the single objective meaning of the defamatory publication was not helpful. Like had to be compared with like; the meaning of the book with the meaning of the source material. In any event, meaning (in the sense of the single objective meaning) could not determine whether the allegations had been adopted. Meaning might be affected by adoption, but not the other way round. The issue was whether or not, looking at the piece as a whole, the author had made the allegations his own. In the instant case, an ordinary reader would have appreciated at once that the author was not simply reporting published material but mixing that material with other information that his inquiries had revealed so as to write as the product of his own considerable researches an inside story of corruption. The book was not written to report the fact that allegations of corruption were made against the claimant and the fact that he denied them and in turn accused the investigating officers of plotting against him; the whole effect of the book was, as its sub-title made plain, to tell the ‘inside story of Scotland Yard’s battle against police corruption’ and that tale included the claimant’s alleged corruption (see [48]–[50], [52]–[57], [88], [259], below); Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609, and Roberts v Gable [2007] EMLR 457 applied; Bonnick v Morris (2002) 12 BHRC 558 adopted.
(2) The propositions which could be derived from recent authority on responsible journalism were: (a) whether or not the matter was properly in the public interest and whether or not the standard of responsible journalism had been met had to be considered in the context of the article as a whole; (b) taking steps to verify the information would be given added emphasis; (c) if the public interest was engaged, the report was privileged if it satisfied the test of responsible journalism, namely whether the steps taken to gather and publish information had been responsible and fair; (d) the ten factors identified in Reynolds were pointers which might be more or less indicative, depending on the circumstances of a particular case, and not a series of hurdles to be negotiated by a publisher before he could successfully rely on qualified privilege, nor tests which the publication had to pass; (e) in assessing the responsibility of the article, weight should be given to the professional judgment of the journalist; (f) the test was not intended to present an onerous obstacle to the media in the discharge of their function; and (g) Reynolds should be seen as an attempt to redress the balance between arts 8 and 10 of the convention in favour of greater freedom for the press to publish stories of genuine public interest. Further, the consistent trend of the Strasbourg jurisprudence was supportive of the right of free expression. Whilst it was the essence of responsible journalism that the journalist should take proper care, he should not be penalised for making a wrong decision on a question of meaning on which different people might reasonably take different views. In the instant case, the judge had erred in his approach to the question of whether the defendants had acted in accordance with the standards of responsible journalism. Whereas the judge had set out to consider whether the author struck a fair balance in the relation to the claimant and the allegations levelled at him, he had not considered the claimant’s story in the context of the whole story of the book, the larger story of alleged corruption within the Metropolitan Police force. Moreover, the judge had not made any sufficient allowance for the author’s honesty, his expertise in the subject, his careful research and his evaluation of a mass of material. In the circumstances, the book was a piece of responsible
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journalism. Upon consideration of the ten Reynolds pointers, the judge’s analysis had lacked some assessment of whether a fair balance had been held between the freedom of expression and the reputations of the individuals, bearing in mind that the court should suffer no greater limitation of press freedom than was necessary to hold that balance. It followed that the book was a piece of responsible journalism protected by qualified privilege and accordingly the appeal would be allowed (see [66], [68]–[70], [72], [75], [84], [85], [87], [88], [215], [259], below); Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609 and Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL [2006] 4 All ER 1279 applied; Bonnick v Morris (2002) 12 BHRC 558 adopted.
Decision of Gray J [2007] 1 All ER 622 reversed in part.
Notes
For the defence of qualified privilege, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 109.
Cases referred to in judgments
Al-Fagih v HH Saudi Research & Marketing (UK) Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1634, [2002] EMLR 215.
Bladet Tromsø v Norway (1997) 23 EHRR CD 40, E Com HR.
Bonnick v Morris [2002] UKPC 31, (2002) 12 BHRC 558, [2003] 1 AC 300, [2002] 3 WLR 820.
Chase v News Group Newspapers Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 1772, [2003] EMLR 218.
Cumpana v Romania (2005) 41 EHRR 200, ECt HR.
Edwards v National Audubon Society Inc (1977) 556 F 2d 113, US Ct of Apps (2nd cir).
Galloway v Telegraph Group Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 17, [2006] EMLR 221; affg [2004] EWHC 2786 (QB), [2005] EMLR 115.
Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL (No 3) [2006] UKHL 44, [2006] 4 All ER 1279, [2007] 1 AC 359, [2006] 3 WLR 642; rvsg [2005] EWCA Civ 74, [2005] 4 All ER 356, [2005] QB 904, [2005] 2 WLR 1577.
Lewis v Daily Telegraph Ltd, Lewis v Associated Newspapers Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 151, sub nom Rubber Improvement Ltd v Daily Telegraph Ltd [1964] AC 234, [1963] 2 WLR 1063, HL.
Loutchansky v Times Newspapers Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 536, [2001] 4 All ER 115, [2002] QB 321, [2001] 3 WLR 404.
Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609, [2001] 2 AC 127, [1999] 3 WLR 1010, HL; affg [1998] 3 All ER 961, [2001] 2 AC 127, [1998] 3 WLR 862, CA.
Roberts v Gable [2006] EWHC 1025 (QB), [2006] RPC 692; affd [2007] EWCA Civ 721, [2007] EMLR 457.
S (a child) (identification: restriction on publication), Re [2004] UKHL 47, [2004] 4 All ER 683, [2005] 1 AC 593, [2004] 3 WLR 1129.
Selistö v Finland (2006) 42 EHRR 144, [2004] ECHR 56767/00, ECt HR.
Slim v Daily Telegraph [1968] 1 All ER 497, [1968] 2 QB 157, [1968] 2 WLR 599, CA.
Thoma v Luxembourg (2003) 36 EHRR 359, [2001] ECHR 38432/97, ECt HR.
Verlagsgruppe News GmbH v Austria [2006] ECHR 76918/01, ECt HR.
White v Sweden [2007] EMLR 1, ECt HR.
Cases referred to in skeleton arguments
Burnett & Hallamshire Fuel Ltd v Sheffield Telegraph & Star Ltd [1960] 2 All ER 157, [1960] 1 WLR 502, Assizes.
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Charleston v News Group Newspapers Ltd [1995] 2 All ER 313, [1995] 2 AC 65, [1995] 2 WLR 450, HL.
Cook v Alexander [1973] 3 All ER 1037, [1974] QB 279, [1973] 3 WLR 617, CA.
Gillick v Brook Advisory Centre [2001] EWCA Civ 1263.
Grobbelaar v News Group Newspapers Ltd [2002] UKHL 40, [2002] 4 All ER 732, [2002] 1 WLR 3024.
Horrocks v Lowe [1974] 1 All ER 662, [1975] AC 135, [1974] 2 WLR 282, HL.
Jersild v Denmark (1995) 19 EHRR 1, [1994] ECHR 15890/89, ECt HR.
Kimber v Press Association [1893] 1 QB 65, CA.
Lukowiak v Unidad Editorial SA [2001] EMLR 1043.
Mark v Associated Newspapers Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 772, [2002] EMLR 839.
McCartan Turkington Breen (a firm) v Times Newspapers Ltd [2000] 4 All ER 913, [2001] 2 AC 277, [2000] 3 WLR 1670, HL.
Mersey Care NHS Trust v Ackroyd (No 2) [2007] EWCA Civ 101, (2007) 94 BMLR 84.
Prager v Austria (1996) 21 EHRR 1, [1995] ECHR 15974/90, ECt HR.
Radio France v France (2005) 40 EHRR 706, [2004] ECHR 53984/00, ECt HR.
Shah v Standard Chartered Bank [1998] 4 All ER 155, [1999] QB 241, [1998] 3 WLR 592, CA.
Stern v Piper [1996] 3 All ER 385, [1997] QB 123, [1996] 3 WLR 715, CA.
Tsikata v Newspaper Publishing plc [1997] 1 All ER 655, CA.
Appeal
The defendants, Orion Publishing Group Ltd, Orion Books Ltd and Graeme McLagan, who were respectively the publishers and author of a book entitled Bent Coppers, appealed with permission of Keene LJ from the decision of Gray J ([2006] EWHC 1756 (QB), [2007] 1 All ER 622) on 13 July 2006, whereby, inter alia, he dismissed their defences of qualified privilege based on responsible journalism and reportage and the statutory privilege which protected fair and accurate reports of parliamentary and judicial proceedings, raised in defamation proceedings brought by the claimant, Michael Charman. The facts are set out in the judgment of Ward LJ.
Adrienne Page QC, Adam Speker and Matthew Nicklin (instructed by Wiggin LLP, Cheltenham) for the defendants.
Hugh Tomlinson QC and Lucy Moorman (instructed by Simons Muirhead & Burton) for the claimant.
Judgment was reserved.
11 October 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
WARD LJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1] The subject matter of this appeal is a libel action being tried in stages by Gray J without a jury. The claimant is Mr Michael Charman, a former detective constable in the Metropolitan Police force (the Met). He claims that he has been defamed in a book called Bent Coppers written by Mr Graeme McLagan and published in hardback by the Orion Publishing Group Ltd and in paperback by Orion Books Ltd.
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[2] On 17 June 2005 Gray J ordered that the action be tried by judge alone. On 14 October 2005 he ruled at the first stage of the trial on the defamatory meaning conveyed by the book ([2005] EWHC 2187 (QB), [2005] All ER (D) 152 (Oct)). He held that the book did not mean to the ordinary reasonable reader that Mr Charman had been guilty of corruption as Mr Charman contended it meant nor that there were only reasonable grounds to investigate whether he had abused his position as police officer by receiving corrupt payments or even that there were reasonable grounds to suspect him of so doing as contended for by the defendants. Instead the judge held that the defamatory meaning was slightly above Chase level 2 (see Chase v News Group Newspapers Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 1772, [2003] EMLR 218), because he considered (at [58]) that the phrase ‘reasonable grounds’ was ‘inadequate to convey the degree of suspicion, conveyed to readers’. He held that the ordinary reasonable reader of the books taking them as a whole, whether in the hardback edition or in the paperback edition, would understand them to mean—
‘that there are cogent grounds to suspect that Mr Charman abused his position as a police officer by colluding with Brennan in the commission of substantial fraud by “Geoffrey Brennan from whom he and Mr Redgrave received corrupt payments totalling £50,000”.’ (My emphasis.)
[3] The next stage of the trial was to resolve the preliminary issue of qualified privilege, both common law and statutory. On 13 July 2006 Gray J ordered that the qualified privilege defences be dismissed and his judgment is now reported at [2006] EWHC 1756 (QB), [2007] 1 All ER 622. Giving the defendants permission to appeal, Keene LJ observed that—
‘[t]he case, and the grounds of appeal, raise important issues about the steps required of an author and publisher in order to qualify for a defence of the “Reynolds” type of qualified privilege, when the publication in question is a book and not a newspaper article, where the topic is one of public interest but is also complex, and where the author has made attempts to obtain the claimant’s side of the story.’
[4] To be a little more specific in this introduction, the issues of law, leaving statutory privilege aside, are essentially these: (1) What is the extent of the privilege claimed for ‘reportage’ and how does this fit into the Reynolds type of qualified privilege developed by and since Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609, [2001] 2 AC 127? (2) What is the proper approach for the court to take in judging whether the author and the publishers have acted responsibly in communicating the information to the public? Once the relevant principles of law are identified, then a great deal of factual material will need to be investigated in order to establish, putting it very broadly for the moment, whether the books were published in a fair, balanced and neutral way, without adoption by the appellants and whether the defamatory information was responsibly reported.
SETTING THE SCENE: A PRÉCIS
[5] Mr Graeme McLagan (I shall henceforth, like the judge, refer to him and others simply by their surnames) is a journalist of many years’ standing. He started his career as a reporter on the Newcastle Journal and then worked for the Daily Mail in the 1960s. In 1971 he joined the BBC and later became the Deputy Home Affairs correspondent for both radio and television. From the late 1970s onwards, he took a special interest in the issue of police corruption. In the early
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1980s he reported on the first major inquiry by an outside police force into police corruption within the Met. He covered the several trials which arose out of it. He reported on abuses in the system of using informants in a Panorama television programme in 1982. He reported on the criminal trials of several allegedly corrupt police officers and in 1988 presented another Panorama programme about police corruption.
[6] The hardback version of Bent Coppers was published by the first defendant on 9 June 2003. It is subtitled ‘The Inside Story of Scotland Yard’s Battle Against Police Corruption’. On the cover are words attributed to the then Metropolitan Police Commissioner, Sir John Stevens: ‘This is a story that deserves to be told—warts and all.' On the inside of the cover:
‘This is the inside story of the “Ghost Squad” and how it broke into the secret world of police corruption . . . Graeme McLagan’s gripping account reveals the ugly underside of London’s police force and why teams from America and Australia have now come to Britain to find out how the Met is winning the battle against bent coppers.’
[7] The book has 16 chapters giving a chronological account of the periodic and eventually partly successful purges against police corruption carried out within the Met and the South Eastern Regional Crime Squad (SERCS) from the 1960s onwards. It is 260 pages long.
[8] The paperback edition published by the third defendant on 1 April 2004 has 19 chapters, spread over 439 pages but as the judge held at the trial of the preliminary issue on meaning, the paperback version bore the same meaning as the hardback even though there were a substantial number of changes.
[9] Charman sought damages for libel in respect of both the hardback and the paperback edition of the book by a claim issued on 4 June 2004, over a year after the publication of the hardback edition.
[10] He served in the Met from 1971 until 6 May 2004 when he was required to resign following the finding of an internal disciplinary panel that he had acted in a manner likely to bring discredit to the reputation of the force. He was part of the team investigating the Brink’s-Mat robbery in about 1983, as was Mr John Redgrave (Redgrave) who attained the rank of detective inspector and Chris Smith (Smith) who became a detective sergeant. Whereas Charman and Redgrave established a good friendship, bad blood appears to have fractured the relationship between Charman and Smith.
[11] In June 1993 Charman was in the Flying Squad based at Tower Bridge. He became the handler of an informant called Geoffrey Brennan (Brennan). Brennan was also passing information to Smith. He was himself a small-time criminal who had got to know ‘high-calibre criminals’. He ran a retail mobile telephone business in Bexleyheath.
[12] In the summer of 2003 the police set up an operation called ‘Nightshade’ which was investigating allegations of drug trafficking in Venezuela, the production of amphetamines in Portugal and, ostensibly, money laundering and/or gun running from the United States to Northern Ireland. This third strand lies at the heart of the present controversy, much of which is, of course, hotly disputed.
[13] It is the defendants’ case that this third element of Operation Nightshade was a fabrication by Brennan, Charman and Redgrave devised in order to conceal their own involvement in criminal activity. Brennan and a man known as
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‘Tall Ted’ Williams conspired to steal £400,000 from two Chinese American businessmen (the Wangs) by pretending to sell them mobile phones for resale in China. The defendants contend that there were cogent grounds to suspect that, having become aware of this conspiracy, Charman and Redgrave struck a dishonest deal with Brennan that he would pay them £50,000 in return for their protection, were he to be arrested, by pretending that he was giving the police information about a money-laundering operation being run from the United States by the Wangs.
[14] The Wangs duly paid Brennan for the mobiles and Brennan claimed that he then paid £10,000 to each of Charman and Redgrave and later handed over the remaining £30,000 in a plastic bag. The Wangs waited in vain in Hong Kong for their mobile phones and in October reported the theft to the Kent police.
[15] Brennan was arrested on 12 November 1993. He claimed that everything he had done vis-à-vis the Wangs had been in the full knowledge of Charman and Redgrave and that he had paid them £50,000. It is alleged that the next day Redgrave and Charman met the Bexleyheath officers and told them that if the theft inquiry were pursued, it would put both the informant Brennan and the undercover officers in Operation Nightshade at risk. They asked that the theft inquiries be put on hold. The investigation was then transferred from Bexleyheath to SERCS where Redgrave was serving. Detective Constable Maul was put in charge of the theft inquiry but Redgrave continued to intervene during these early months of 1994.
[16] In about May 1994 Det Chief Supt Gaspar (Gaspar) set up a secret anti-corruption ‘Ghost Squad’ for the Met. Brennan was introduced to him by Smith because Brennan was saying that documents revealing him as an informant had fallen into the hands of ‘Tall Ted’ Williams as a result of which his life was in danger. Gaspar had to make immediate arrangements for Brennan and his family to be put on the police witness protection programme, given new identities and rehoused.
[17] Gaspar interviewed Brennan on a number of occasions in the days that followed. Brennan was only prepared to talk off the record. Gaspar wanted the information and so a number of interviews were tape-recorded by Gaspar but not under caution. In these tapes (the Gaspar tapes) Brennan admitted that he had defrauded the Wangs of £400,000, and claimed that Charman knew all about the intended theft but corruptly took his share of the £50,000. Charman’s case is that this was a tissue of lies intended to provide Brennan with a defence to the charge of theft for which he had been arrested.
[18] Brennan remained under police protection until November 1996 when he was arrested for a second time by Det Con Maul and on arrest adopted what he had said when interviewed by Gaspar.
[19] Then in January 1997 Brennan withdrew his allegation against Charman and Redgrave. Instead he accused Smith, who by this time had retired from the Met, of having incited Brennan to make up the allegations of corruption on the part of Charman and Redgrave because of the bad blood which existed between the three officers.
[20] Detective Supt John Coles (Coles) succeeded Gaspar and in an operation known as ‘Cornwall’ executed search warrants at the homes of Charman and Redgrave who were suspended from duty on 4 and 7 February 1997 respectively. They were never to return to duty.
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[21] This suspension received publicity in the national press and although Charman and Redgrave were not named, they appear to have spoken to the media, denied any wrongdoing and claimed to have been the victims of the Met’s zealous anti-corruption campaign.
[22] There was then another development. Smith was due to give evidence for the prosecution in the case of a man named Phillips who was being defended by David Bate QC. When Smith was cross-examined by Mr Bate about his relationship with Brennan, he refused to answer questions on the basis that to do so might incriminate him. This led to Smith being investigated as part of Operation Cornwall.
[23] A member of the Crown Prosecution Service, Debbie Cahill, was given confidential information about Smith and was suspected of sharing that with Charman and Redgrave. Covert surveillance was being carried out at her home which had been bugged as part of Operation Ambleside. The police broke down the door of her home when they heard discussion about destroying some of the documents and Charman, Redgrave and Cahill were arrested and charged with conspiracy to pervert the course of justice. Those charges were summarily dismissed by the magistrate and an application to prefer a voluntary bill of indictment against them was also dismissed. Eventually Charman and Redgrave were informed that there would be no criminal charges against them over the Brennan allegations.
[24] From May 1999 onwards Charman and Redgrave made formal complaints against the Met and in particular against Coles about their arrest, detention and treatment. They met with a reporter from the Guardian, Mr Gillard, and articles supporting their position and protesting their innocence were published in that paper from March 2000 onwards. They enlisted the help of Redgrave’s MP, Mr Andrew McKinlay, and he sprang to their defence. He tabled parliamentary questions, spoke at an adjournment debate in the House of Commons about the alleged mistreatment of the two officers and called upon the Home Secretary to set up an independent judicial inquiry. They were charged on 8 September 2000 with discreditable conduct relating not to the Brennan allegations but to sharing confidential information with Cahill. They were eventually required to resign in May 2004.
[25] Brennan finally stood trial before Judge Barker QC at the Central Criminal Court in January 2001 charged with the theft committed so many years previously. Richard Latham QC was prosecuting and Andrew Trollope QC led for the defence.
[26] Before the jury was empanelled Mr Trollope submitted that the prosecution should be stayed as an abuse of process on the ground of delay and unfairness in that at the time of the alleged theft Brennan had been a participating police informant who had performed all acts relevant to the case at the direction of Charman and Redgrave. The principal witness called on behalf of the prosecution in relation to the abuse of process application was Gaspar. He gave a detailed account of the interviews he had conducted with Brennan whilst he was under police protection. Reference was made to possible irregularities in the financial affairs of the two officers: Redgrave was said to have received unexplained income and in the case of Charman an unusual spending pattern was said to have emerged at the time when Brennan claimed to have paid over the £50,000 bribe. There was also an issue as to the admissibility in Brennan’s trial of the Gaspar tapes, the defence contending that they should not be introduced in
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evidence because Brennan had not been cautioned and because he was at the time in such a state of fear that he would have been motivated to say anything in order to obtain protection for himself.
[27] The judge ruled that the trial should proceed but that the tapes should not be admitted in evidence, reserving the right to review that in the course of the trial.
[28] Brennan duly gave evidence in his own defence. He was vigorously cross-examined by Mr Latham and I shall have to refer to this in due course. He was eventually convicted and sentenced to three-and-a-half years’ imprisonment. McLagan reported on the trial for BBC radio. Mr Gillard published an article in The Big Issue highly critical of the role of the Ghost Squad in relation to Brennan, Charman and Redgrave. As already stated, Bent Coppers was published in June 2003 notwithstanding Charman’s attempts to prevent publication.
THE DEFAMATORY MATERIAL
[29] There are references to Charman in seven chapters of the book as well as in the caption to one of the photographs in it. These passages are much too lengthy to be set out in this judgment and I can give but a summary of them.
[30] Chapter 3 is entitled ‘Corruption in Elite Detective Squads’. The reader had been told in the previous chapter that Gaspar had received a ‘startling’ phone call which was to give him ‘an amazing insight into major corruption’. That call came, as already set out, from Smith who told Gaspar that an important police informant (Brennan) had been compromised. Brennan is described as ‘a big, excitable man given to lies, boast and bluster’. Brennan’s handlers are identified as Redgrave, described as a SERCS officer, and ‘a flying squad detective constable called Michael Charman’.
[31] The book then describes the various meetings between Gaspar and Brennan, how Brennan complained that confidential police records had fallen into the hands of major violent criminals and how he was provided with police protection. The subsequent meetings are described in which Brennan told Gaspar about the corrupt dealings he claimed to have had with Redgrave and Charman including the alleged payments of £10,000 to each of them and a further £30,000 paid over in return for their help if ever he was to be questioned or arrested.
[32] As to the involvement of Charman in the plan by Brennan to swindle the Wang brothers under cover of a money-laundering operation, the author comments:
‘Although Gaspar believed him, what Brennan had said amounted to no more than simple allegations of police wrongdoing. Such allegations had no chance of standing up in court without corroboration, even if Brennan agreed to appear as a witness and he was refusing to do that. It would simply be Brennan’s word, that of the criminal, against the word of two honest detectives with distinguished records.’
A little later there is a brief reference to the fact that Redgrave and Charman ‘strenuously denied all allegations of wrong-doing’.
[33] In Ch 12, entitled ‘Problems and Difficulties’, the reader is reminded of the theft and of the payments Brennan claimed to have made to Redgrave and Charman for protection. It is said that relations between Brennan and the Ghost Squad had soured, culminating in his arrest in November 1996 for that theft. Brennan is recorded as having replied when charged that he acted with the
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knowledge of the Met as part of police operations. However Coles, who was then in charge of the Brennan case, is said to have wondered whether Brennan manipulated the Complaints Investigation Bureau (CIB) from the start. Coles is said to have known that fraudsters such as Brennan ‘were capable of constructing elaborate stories to extract money from their victims and they knew roughly how far they could push the law’. Having been arrested, Brennan is said to have mounted his counter-attack, contacting the Police Complaints Authority to withdraw his allegations against Redgrave and Charman claiming that he had been put up to blackening the pair by his former handler who had ‘had it in’ for Redgrave and Charman since the 1980s.
[34] There follows this paragraph:
‘. . . Redgrave and Charman were suspended, their homes having been raided three days before. From the outset the pair have denied receiving money from Brennan, or indeed any corruption at all.’
Coles was given advice from Treasury counsel who ‘eventually concluded that without Brennan’s co-operation the chances were that a prosecution of Redgrave and Charman would fail’.
[35] The author then describes the Debbie Cahill incident, Charman’s arrest but the collapse of the prosecution when the magistrate ‘threw the case out’.
[36] The next mention of Charman and Redgrave is in Ch 15 entitled ‘Loose Ends’. The reader is reminded of the history and that—
‘[d]eeply aggrieved at what had happened to them, the three (i.e. Charman, Redgrave and Ms Cahill) then counter-attacked, making official complaints against CIB officers. Redgrave’s MP, Andrew McKinlay, raised the case in a 15 minute speech in the House of Commons.’
Charman claimed that his arrest, detention and prosecution were unlawful, malicious, unwarranted and amounted to a conspiracy to pervert the course of justice. Charman claimed that his arresting officer had adopted unwarranted and unnecessary tactics causing him humiliation and distress.
[37] There are six pages dealing with Brennan’s trial at the Old Bailey. The opening paragraph of this section reads:
‘CIB officers hoped that Redgrave and Charman would give evidence for Geoffrey Brennan at his trial in 2001. The pair could have used the proceedings as an opportunity to set the record straight, to deny Brennan’s original allegations that he had bunged them £50,000 to cover up his theft of £400,000 from the Chinese-American businessman, Sam Wang. They could also have backed Brennan’s later claims that the police operation mounted by the pair into gunrunning and money laundering had been entirely legitimate and not a smokescreen, as was being suggested by the CIB. If the pair had appeared in the witness box, they would have been open to cross-examination by the CIB prosecution team, determined to get at the truth of Brennan’s allegations. But it was not to be. Although Redgrave and Charman’s names were continually mentioned throughout the trial, the two suspended officers did not appear at the Old Bailey.’
Gaspar is said to have ‘revealed’ at the pre-trial hearing that Redgrave had received unexplained income over and above his Metropolitan Police salary and that in Charman’s case an unusual spending pattern had started in October 1993,
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coinciding with the time Brennan had claimed to have paid over the £50,000 bribe.
[38] Next there is an account of the cross-examination of Brennan by Richard Latham QC who is said to have put to Brennan that Redgrave and Charman were ‘dishonest and corrupt’. Counsel is recorded as having put to Brennan that the two officers had ‘come into [his] pay’ and that he had given them money. Brennan is said to have demanded to know why the prosecution was not calling the officers to give evidence, whereupon it is said that: ‘Latham chose his words with care. They were damning: “I am not going to bring in criminals to give evidence”.' Then comes this paragraph:
‘Although Redgrave and Charman were not on trial, for much of the time it was as if they were in the dock with Brennan. In Latham’s closing speech to the jury much play was made of their alleged corruption. He repeated that the prosecution case was that a total of £50,000 had been paid to the two detectives to provide a smokescreen for the theft of Wang’s money . . .’
[39] The reader next learns of the unanimous finding of the jury that Brennan was guilty. His defence counsel is said to have told the judge in mitigation that—
‘[i]t was unquestionably the case that Redgrave and Charman were in contact with him at the time of the offence and were aware of what was taking place.’
[40] The last paragraph of Ch 15 contains a number of general comments about abuse of the informant system and general acknowledgment throughout the police service that ‘grasses’ are dangerous, being clever, with the ability to hide their treachery, highly manipulative, turning the relationship with their police handlers to their own benefit. Reference is also made to perceived CIB unfairness and the suspension of officers on flimsy grounds. Towards the end of the hardback edition there is a reference to officers who felt ‘wronged’ and to claims that CIB’s operations and tactics had resulted in injustices.
THE HEADLINE FINDINGS OF THE JUDGMENT
[41] The way the judge dealt with the ‘amalgam of various species of privilege’ was in summary this. (1) He readily accepted that the problem of corruption within a police force was a matter of grave public concern and therefore of legitimate public interest. (2) He rejected the reportage defence because McLagan had partially adopted a serious charge against Charman and failed to report the facts fully, fairly and disinterestedly: his was not a neutral report. He did not achieve the balanced approach he set himself. (3) The defendants failed to show that they were acting responsibly in communicating the information contained in Bent Coppers about Charman to the public. McLagan had a duty to subject the material to a degree of critical analysis but failed to do so. He was selective in reporting the Brennan trial giving prominence to matters he ought to have realised were of marginal relevance and generally putting such a spin on the report as to distort it. An analysis of the ten Reynolds factors supported the conclusion that this was not responsible journalism. (4) Reporting the adjournment debate in the House of Commons was protected by statutory privilege but as for the court proceedings, the report as a whole was skewed so as to give the readers the false and unfair impression that the issue of Charman’s alleged corruption assumed a far greater importance than in fact it
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had either at the pre-trial hearings or at the trial itself. The defence of qualified privilege failed accordingly.
THE LAW AS DETERMINED BY THE JUDGE
[42] There is no challenge as to the way the judge directed himself on statutory privilege under s 15 of the Defamation Act 1996 adopting as he did the accuracy of the summary in Gatley on Libel and Slander (10th edn, 2004) p 493 (para 15.4):
‘Nor need the report be accurate in every detail. If the report be as a whole a substantially fair and correct account of the proceedings, a few slight inaccuracies will not deprive it of protection, but where the inaccuracies are of a substantial kind, there is no immunity.’
The challenge in the appeal is to the manner in which the judge applied that law to the facts.
[43] He dealt with the law on reportage and the Reynolds defence as follows:
‘[107] It is common ground that the matters set out by Lord Nicholls in Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609 at 626, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 205 represent important criteria for deciding the availability of privilege. But, as Lord Nicholls made clear, they are non-exhaustive and so not of themselves necessarily determinative in every case. Moreover, as counsel agreed, those tests require modification in the present case because the publication sued on is a book rather than a newspaper containing the perishable commodity which is news. Also allowance needs to be made for the fact that the author of a book has more time for checking than a journalist who has to meet a deadline. Furthermore there have been a number of authorities since Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd which need to be taken into account.
[108] I will attempt to summarise what seem to me to be the principles which can be derived from the cases which were cited in argument:
(i) Qualified privilege is designed to strike an appropriate balance between the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) art 10 right to freedom of expression and the right of an individual to protect his reputation which is an aspect of private life which is protected by art 8 (see Bonnick v Morris [2002] UKPC 31 at [23], (2002) 12 BHRC 558 at [23], [2003] 1 AC 300 per Lord Nicholls and Cumpana v Romania (2005) 41 EHRR 200 at 220 (para 91)).
(ii) Neither of those rights is pre-eminent or has “presumptive priority”: there is a clear public interest in the promotion of free and vigorous press to keep the public informed and journalists should be permitted a good deal of latitude in how they present the material; but reputation is an integral and important part of the dignity of the individual, the protection of which is conducive to the public good. In some cases the reputations of other individuals than the claimant may be engaged (see Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609 at 631, 650, 657, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 210, 230 and 238; [Loutchansky v Times Newspapers Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 536 at [36], [2001] 4 All ER 115 at [36], [2002] QB 321; Re S (a child) (identification: restriction on publication) [2004] UKHL 47 at [17], [2004] 4 All ER 683 at [17], [2005] 1 AC 593 per Lord Steyn; Bonnick v Morris (2002) 12 BHRC 820 at [23],
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[2003] 1 AC 300; Galloway v Telegraph Group Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 17 at [80], [83], [2006] EMLR 221 at [80], [83] and Bladet Tromsø v Norway (1997) 23 EHRR CD 40)].
(iii) In order to determine whether publication was in the public interest, it is first necessary carefully to analyse the information which has been provided to the public and to pose and answer the question whether the public had a right to know or a legitimate interest in knowing the facts alleged, even if they cannot be shown to be true (see Loutchansky v Times Newspapers Ltd [2001] 4 All ER 115 at [39], [2002] QB 321; [Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL (No 3) [2005] EWCA Civ 74 at [86]–[87], [2005] 4 All ER 356 at [86]–[87], [2005] QB 904 and Galloway v Telegraph Group Ltd [2006] EMLR 221 at [37]]).
(iv) The question identified at (iii) above should be answered by reference to the information which was known to the publisher at the time of publication (see Loutchansky v Times Newspapers Ltd [2001] 4 All ER 115, [2002] QB 321).
(v) The touchstone being that of the public interest and responsible journalism, it is then necessary to ask whether in the particular circumstances of the case the publisher has demonstrated that he was acting responsibly in communicating the information to the public. For that exercise the starting point is to consider such of the factors set out by Lord Nicholls in Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609 at 629, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 208 as are applicable (see also [Galloway v Telegraph Group Ltd [2006] EMLR 221 at [37]).
(vi) The requirements of responsible journalism will vary according to the particular circumstances. Depending on the circumstances, factors other than those identified by Lord Nicholls may come into play. It is necessary always to bear in mind that the publication is defamatory and cannot be shown to be true. The standard of conduct by which the responsibility of the journalism is judged must be applied in a practical, fact-sensitive and elastic manner (see Loutchansky v Times Newspapers Ltd [2001] 4 All ER 115 at [38], [2002] QB 321; Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL [2005] 4 All ER 356 at [87], [2005] QB 904 and Bonnick v Morris (2002) 12 BHRC 820 at [24], [2003] 1 AC 300).
(vii) One such circumstance is where the publication consists of what has been described as “reportage”, that is, where the publisher has neutrally and disinterestedly reported in an even-handed way unattributed [sic—this is accepted to be a typographical error as the judge clearly meant ‘attributed’] allegations which are of legitimate and topical interest to the readers of the publication but has not adopted those allegations as being true or otherwise embellished them (see [Al-Fagih v HH Saudi Research & Marketing (UK) Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1634 at [6], [29], [2002] EMLR 215 at [6], [29]; Galloway v Telegraph Group Ltd [2004] EWHC 2786 (QB) at [130], [2005] EMLR 115 at [130] and in the Court of Appeal [2006] EMLR 221 at [28] and Roberts v Gable [2006] EWHC 1025 (QB), [2006] RPC 692]).
(viii) In the case of reportage there may well be no duty on the publisher to verify the information, provided that the publication did not include background information which was defamatory of the claimant and provided further that any comment by the publisher about the information was confined to honest comment about the information made without
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malice (see Al-Fagih v HH Saudi Research & Marketing (UK) Ltd [2002] EMLR 215 at [50] and [39]–[43] and Galloway v Telegraph Group Ltd [2006] EMLR 221 at [50]–[51]).
Common law privilege
[109] Before I endeavour to apply the principles set out above to the facts of the present case, there are a number of general observations which need to be made. The first is that I readily accept that the problem of corruption within a police force is a matter of grave public concern. Particular case histories, of which Brennan is one, are equally of legitimate public interest. This was common ground between the parties.
[110] Part of the underlying purpose of the House of Lords in Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd in effecting a change to the common law defence of qualified privilege was to reflect the concern felt in some quarters that a greater degree of freedom of publication was required in regard to the reporting of matters of public interest in circumstances where the defendant publisher was unable to prove the truth of what he intended to publish. The House of Lords adopted as a new criterion of privilege the test of responsible journalism. It is well known that hitherto the defence of privilege based on responsible journalism has failed more often than it has succeeded. I accept that the court must be on its guard not to set an unrealistically high standard of journalism or authorship. I bear in mind what Lord Nicholls said in Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609 at 623, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 202: “The common law does not seek to set a higher standard than that of responsible journalism, a standard the media themselves espouse”.
[111] An unusual feature of the present case is that McLagan laid great stress both in his witness statement and in his oral evidence upon the fact that Bent Coppers is, as he put it, a balanced and non-partisan account of the public dispute between CIB on the one hand and Charman and Redgrave on the other, based on material in the public domain. I will shortly have to decide if those claims are made out. It seems to me, however, that before I address those issues I should first consider whether, as McLagan claims, the passages of which Charman complains constitute “reportage” in the sense in which that term is used in Al-Fagih v HH Saudi Research & Marketing (UK) Ltd and later cases. If those passages do constitute reportage, the requirements of responsible journalism are or may be significantly relaxed.
Reportage
[112] In Al-Fagih v HH Saudi Research & Marketing (UK) Ltd [2002] EMLR 215 Simon Brown LJ described reportage (at [6]) as “a convenient word to describe the neutral reporting of attributed allegations rather than their adoption by the newspaper”. The court held that in such a situation the public was entitled to be informed of such a dispute without having to wait for the publisher, following an attempt at verification, to commit himself to one side or the other.’
[44] It is interesting to note the brief reasons the judge gave for refusing permission to appeal. He said:
‘In the light of Bonnick’s case, I accept that the issue of responsible journalism falls to be determined by reference to the meaning subjectively intended by the defendant. However, in the present case I had to decide whether the book was “reportage”. That question turned largely on
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whether the defendant adopted the allegations against the claimant: see paras [112]–[118] of the judgment. I do not think that there is a real prospect of success for an argument that I misdirected myself.’
[45] We have to consider first, whether the judge fully and correctly directed himself as to (1) the nature of, and the ambit of the reportage defence, and (2) the proper test to apply in judging whether the journalism is responsible. Secondly, having established the proper principles, I must see whether they were correctly applied.
REPORTAGE
The judge’s findings [2007] 1 All ER 622 at [112]–[118]
[46] The judge dealt with this defence as follows. He rejected Miss Page QC’s argument on the defendants’ behalf that because he had found that the passages complained of bore the meaning that there were cogent grounds to suspect Charman was guilty of corruption (as opposed to the meaning that he was guilty) it must follow that McLagan had not adopted Brennan’s allegations as being true. He held (at [115]) that—
‘an imputation that there are cogent grounds to suspect a police officer of corruption comes somewhere between a [Chase v News Group Newspapers Ltd [2003] EMLR 218] level one and two meaning. Such an imputation may not amount to an unequivocal adoption of the charge of corruption but it does not to my mind constitute neutral reportage. It is partial adoption of a serious charge . . .’
[47] Although the present case was far removed from one where politicians and other public figures were reported to have been making allegations and cross-allegations against one another in the course of an ongoing dispute which was of itself of inherent public interest, ‘in a loose sense it could be said that there were two opposite sides to the debate’ on ‘the controversial issue of corruption within the Met’ about which there had been ‘extensive publicity . . . over the years’. Whether the books ‘fully, fairly and disinterestedly’ reported the facts underlying the Brennan allegations and Charman’s response to them raised the question of whether the books were ‘in their context balanced’, to which question he said he would return when considering ‘whether McLagan’s journalism achieved the requisite standard of responsibility’. One significant respect in which the books lacked balance resulted from McLagan’s willingness to draw inferences adverse to Charman from material which, as he should have appreciated, was weak. A balanced approach required McLagan to mention aspects of Brennan’s story which cast doubt upon his credibility. The judge did not regard the account of the facts set out in each of the books to be ‘neutral’ because:
‘[117] . . . I think that the reader would take away from the passages of the book which deal with the Brennan affair that it was more probable than not that Charman was guilty of corruption.’
For those reasons the judge was unable to accept that the passages in the books constituted reportage. He added (at [118]), ‘for what it is worth . . . the prospective reader is not led to believe that the account in Bent Coppers is going to be neutral reportage’ because ‘[i]n the sub-title of the book and on the flyleaf of
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Bent Coppers . . . the reader is told he is going to get “the inside story”’. Later in the judgment he summarised his conclusions as follows:
‘[131] . . . The reasons why I have rejected the suggestion that the passages in question were reportage are, firstly, that to an extent it appears to me that McLagan adopted the allegation of corruption against Charman and, secondly, that the relevant facts are not presented in the full, fair and disinterested fashion which is required of reportage. Very similar reasons led me to reject McLagan’s claim to have written a “balanced” account of the Brennan allegations directed at Charman and Redgrave.’
My commentary on reportage
[48] As for the law on reportage, the nature of the defence and its place within the Reynolds doctrine of qualified privilege was recently examined in Roberts v Gable [2007] EWCA Civ 721, [2007] EMLR 457. The critical point of that analysis is that the defence will be established where, judging the thrust of the report as a whole, the effect of the report is not to adopt the truth of what is being said, but to record the fact that the statements which were defamatory were made. The judge’s task is akin to the way in which at common law hearsay evidence used to be admitted or excluded. The protection is lost if the journalist adopts what has been said and makes it his own or if he fails to report the story in a fair, disinterested, neutral way. To justify the attack on the claimant’s reputation the publication must always meet the standards of responsible journalism as that concept has developed in Reynolds’s case, the burden being on the defendants. In that way the balance between art 10 and art 8 is maintained. Roberts v Gable was a good example of reportage in that the defendant newspaper simply republished allegation and counter-allegation of two politically opposed factions within the British National Party, each side accusing the other of theft of money collected at their ‘Grand Rally . . . to promote the BNP campaign for the London Mayoral and GLA elections in 2004’.
[49] Applying those considerations to this case, one sees at once why this case is miles removed from the confines of reportage properly understood. A defining characteristic of reportage is missing in that this book was not written to report the fact that allegations of corruption were made against Charman and the fact that he denied them and in turn accused the investigating officers of plotting against him. The whole effect of this book is, as its sub-title makes plain, to tell the ‘inside story of Scotland Yard’s battle against police corruption’ and the tale includes Charman’s alleged corruption. McLagan was making a story, his story, of that corruption. This book, read as a whole, is a far cry from McLagan’s simply reporting Brennan’s account of corruption and Charman’s refutation of it and countercharge of his malicious mistreatment by other officers in the Ghost Squad. This was a piece of investigative journalism where McLagan was acting as the bloodhound sniffing out bits of the story from here and there, from published material and unpublished material, not as the watchdog barking to wake us up to the story already out there. As the judge found, he drew upon much more than the reports already in the public domain. He was not just reporting published material. The Gaspar tape transcript was provided by a confidential source. So was the Chaplin report. Information about alleged ‘forged entries’ on informant logs written by Charman were provided by police sources as was information about surveillance tapes. The information about
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Coles being unhappy about the decision not to prosecute came from a private conversation. The fact is, and McLagan admitted it in cross-examination, this was the ‘inside story’, the story of corruption in the Met which McLagan set out to tell in Bent Coppers. That was the whole point of the book. Looking at the book as a whole, it was hardly a neutral, disinterested report, even if the excerpts reported were factually accurate.
[50] In suggesting, as she seemed to do, that no more was needed to establish the defence than that the report was attributed, was neutral and was in the public interest, Miss Page pitched her case far too widely. No matter how overwhelming the public interest, it is not reportage simply to report with perfect accuracy and in the most neutral way the defamatory allegations A has uttered of B. As Lord Reid said in Lewis v Daily Telegraph Ltd, Lewis v Associated Newspapers Ltd [1963] 2 All ER 151 at 155, [1964] AC 234 at 260 ‘[r]epeating someone else’s libellous statement is just as bad as making the statement directly’. Adopting the analogy of rules for admitting hearsay evidence, the effect of repeating the allegation is to make the article a report of the truth of the defamatory material as opposed to its being a report only of the fact that it was said. It will depend on the context whether the material is published to report the fact that it was said or to report what was said as a fact. That point of characterisation of the material is enough to doom this part of the appeal. Whether or not it could ever give rise to Reynolds privilege is, of course, a different question altogether and I deal with that later.
[51] A great deal of the argument before us was devoted to the inter-relation between the single meaning found for the book and the question of adoption/neutrality. It will be recalled that the judge rejected Miss Page’s argument that because the book bore the meaning of cogent grounds to suspect corruption (as opposed to meaning that he was guilty (the judge’s emphasis) of corruption), it must follow that McLagan had not adopted the allegations as being true. He found that although the imputation might not have amounted to an unequivocal adoption of corruption, it was the partial adoption of a serious charge.
[52] It was common ground between the parties, relying on Galloway v Telegraph Group Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 17, [2006] EMLR 221, that it is appropriate to start with the objective meaning of the publication. One must, however, see that in the context of that case. There the court posed the question whether the statements in the Baghdad documents were adopted and embellished and in answering that question the Court of Appeal considered it important to form a view as to whether the judge’s conclusions about the meaning of what was published were correct. The inquiry was whether the ‘sting’ of the coverage was not simply that Mr Galloway was obtaining money from Saddam’s regime but that he was doing so for the purposes not only of political campaigning (or use in the Mariam Appeal) but of lining his own pockets so that the coverage imputed venality and greed. The court’s conclusion was:
‘[58] . . . It seems to us that the judge was right to hold that the headlines and articles complained of went further than simply stating that Mr Galloway was taking money from the oil-for-food programme for his political and charitable purposes but meant that he was taking money for personal gain and that that allegation was seriously defamatory of Mr Galloway . . .
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[59] It appears to us that the newspaper was not merely reporting what the Baghdad documents said but that, as the judge held, it both adopted and embellished them. It was alleging that Mr Galloway took money from the Iraqi oil-for-food programme for personal gain. That was not a mere repeat of the documents, which in our view did not, or did not clearly, make such an allegation. We agree with the judge that, although there were some references to allegations, the thrust of the coverage was that the Daily Telegraph was saying that Mr Galloway took money to line his own pockets. In all the circumstances we answer the question whether the newspaper adopted and embellished the statements in the Baghdad documents in the affirmative.’
This translates into a finding that the Daily Telegraph was not simply repeating and reporting the information recovered from Baghdad but adding further information which did not appear in those documents. The essential comparison was between the information contained in the source documents and the information contained in the newspaper report. Of course it is correct that one can only decide a question of adoption by comparing the source material with the way in which it was imparted but meaning the technical sense of the single objective meaning of the publication is hardly at the heart of that comparison.
[53] Thus in my judgment it is not particularly helpful to attempt to resolve the adoption/neutrality question by reference to the rules relating to the single objective meaning of the defamatory publication. It presents too many difficulties. If any comparison is properly to be made, then like must be compared with like, the meaning of the book with the meaning of the source material. By his judgment on meaning given in October 2005 the judge had established the single objective meaning of the pages and pages of the book, but to ascertain a single meaning of the copious source material revealed in the investigation would be burdensome if not impossible given the range of information available to McLagan in writing the story. It is not a task which should be undertaken.
[54] In any event, meaning (in the sense of the single objective meaning) cannot determine whether the allegations have been adopted. It may well be that meaning can be affected by adoption, but not the other way round. If J, the journalist, simply reports that S, the source, says that C, the claimant, is corrupt, then the objective meaning of the source allegation and the report is the same, guilt. However, the fact that in so far as J simply repeated the allegation and, to the extent that he did may be said to have adopted it, that cannot determine the real question whether he had made the allegation his own. If, for example, J adds to his report, ‘and I agree’, then the meaning remains the same, but adoption is clear from the added words. So meaning alone has not determined the question of adoption. What if J adds to his report, ‘X says C is not guilty, Y says he does not know and Z says it might be true’? Here the objective meaning of S’s statement is at Chase level 1 but J’s report is probably, say, at Chase level 2. But that difference cannot determine whether J has adopted S’s report. As a matter of textual analysis, J was maintaining a position of neutrality and did not adopt S’s words as his own. If J reports that S says C is corrupt and adds, ‘so there are reasonable grounds to suspect him’ the meanings are different but one can find this time, again as a matter of textual analysis, at least the partial adoption of the allegation. One is not, however, driven to that conclusion by the difference in meaning but by the language used in making the report.
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[55] My view is, therefore, that one should not get embroiled in meaning to answer the question of whether the journalist has adopted the allegations so as to make them his own. I draw support for this from the opinion of Lord Nicholls in Bonnick v Morris [2002] UKPC 31, (2002) 12 BHRC 558, [2003] 1 AC 300. Although this is an opinion of the Privy Council, it seems to me to be more than persuasive given that it was written by Lord Nicholls with other members of the Board including Lord Hoffmann, Lord Hope of Craighead and Lord Scott of Foscote, all of whom later sat in Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL (No 3) [2006] UKHL 44, [2006] 4 All ER 1279, [2007] 1 AC 359. Reference was made to it in Jameel’s case without dissent: see the mentions by Lord Bingham of Cornhill (at [32]), Lord Hoffmann (at [53], [56]) and Lord Scott (at [136]). Bonnick v Morris is more relevant to Reynolds privilege in general, but paras [20]–[22] are apposite here:
‘[20] . . . Language is inherently imprecise. Words and phrases and sentences take their colour from their context. The context often permits a range of meanings, varying from the obvious to the implausible. Different readers may well form different views on the meaning to be given to the language under consideration. Should the law take this into account when applying the objective standard of responsible journalism? Or should the law simply apply the objective standard of responsible journalism to the single meaning the law attributes to the offending words, regardless of how reasonable it would be for a journalist or editor to read the words in a different, non-defamatory sense?
[21] At first sight there might seem to be some legal logic in applying the latter approach. The “single meaning” rule adopted in the law of defamation is in one sense highly artificial, given the range of meanings the impugned words sometimes bear: see the familiar exposition by Diplock LJ in Slim v Daily Telegraph [1968] 1 All ER 497 at 503–504, [1968] 2 QB 157 at 171–172. The law attributes to the words only one meaning, although different readers are likely to read the words in different senses. In that respect the rule is artificial. Nevertheless, given the ambiguity of language, the rule does represent a fair and workable method for deciding whether the words under consideration should be treated as defamatory. To determine liability by reference to the meaning an ordinary reasonable reader would give the words is unexceptionable.
[22] At first sight it might seem appropriate to apply the same principle when considering whether Reynolds privilege affords a defence. This might appear to have the merit of consistency. But that would be to apply the “single meaning” principle for a purpose for which it was not designed and for which it is not suitable. It is one matter to apply this principle when deciding whether an article should be regarded as defamatory. Then the question being considered is one of meaning. It would be an altogether different matter to apply the principle when deciding whether a journalist or newspaper acted responsibly. Then the question being considered is one of conduct.’
[56] Those objections apply with equal force here. The single meaning principle is highly artificial and should not be imported to decide the quite different question of whether or not the allegations had been adopted. The issue is whether or not, looking at the article as a whole, the author made the allegations his own. This question is intimately bound up with other facets or
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other ways of looking at the same fundamental question in the same inquiry. Did he make the allegations his own by espousing or concurring in the charges in the source material or was it a piece of neutral, disinterested, impartial reporting? Was it a full, fair and accurate report or was it embellished or distorted? Has the author engaged in comment, description or elaboration of his own, as opposed to permissibly adding colour to the published account? Having regard to material additions to and omissions from the source material, can the resultant piece of journalism still fairly be said simply to be a report of the source material or has the author taken it over and transformed it? These are questions which the ordinary reader, not one with particular knowledge, still less the trained lawyer, must answer. If one can treat them in that commonsense way, as ‘jury questions’ if you like to demystify them, then one is able to avoid the artificiality of the single meaning rule and the true elements of the reportage defence will be addressed.
[57] Here I am in no doubt at all that an ordinary reader would appreciate at once that McLagan was not simply reporting published material but mixing that material with other information his inquiries had revealed so as to write as the product of his own considerable researches an inside story of corruption in the Met. This was never a case of reportage as the defence must now be understood and so I turn to the real question of whether or not it was a work of responsible journalism.
RESPONSIBLE JOURNALISM
The judge’s findings in outline
[58] He said (at [119]) that it would by no means necessarily follow from a rejection of McLagan’s claim that the book constituted a balanced account that his claim to privilege based on the responsible journalism had to fail. ‘A publication does not have to be balanced in order to qualify as responsible journalism.' He directed himself (at [120]) that ‘“Balanced” in this context must mean balanced in relation to Charman and the allegations levelled against him’. He felt that McLagan’s own view that Charman was ‘probably’ guilty of the alleged corruption ‘subliminally’ affected the way in which he presented his account to the reader. McLagan was endeavouring to steer a ‘middle course’. He failed because he did not mention ‘certain noteworthy aspects of the Brennan story’. So the judge concluded (at [125]):
‘Finally, in connection with the question of balance, I am bound to say that McLagan is in my view open to criticism for the manner in which he reported in Bent Coppers the pre-trial hearings in Brennan’s criminal case and the trial which followed . . . it is my conclusion that McLagan did not achieve the balanced approach which he set himself.’
[59] Turning from ‘balance’ to ‘responsible journalism’ the judge held (at [130]):
‘. . . a responsible journalist should evaluate with some care the material on which that imputation [that there were cogent grounds for suspecting a police officer to be guilty of corruption] is based. Such a journalist should in my view subject the material to a degree of critical analysis . . .’
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Although there were passages where the reader was told that Redgrave and Charman strenuously denied all allegations of wrongdoing, there were no references in the book to the discrediting of officer Smith:
‘[137] . . . In my opinion McLagan is open to criticism for failing to inform his readers that, far from being “reliable”, Smith was profoundly tainted by his answers during cross-examination in the Phillips trial [when he refused to answer questions about his relationship with and his ‘moonlighting’ for Brennan].’
[60] As for his reporting the account of Brennan’s trial the judge said (at [142]):
‘. . . I bear in mind that, whilst he is a highly experienced journalist with considerable experience of court reporting, McLagan is not a lawyer and is therefore not to be taken to be familiar with the practices and procedures of criminal trials.’
Nevertheless the judge found that he was in error in saying that it was an unusual move for the inquiry into Wang’s allegations of theft to have been taken over by SERCS.
[61] As for the reported ‘new important disclosures of evidence’ by Gaspar that Redgrave had received unexplained income and Charman had started an unusual spending pattern in October 1993 coinciding with the time Brennan had claimed to have made the corrupt payments, the judge said (at [145]):
‘. . . The criticism which I make of this passage is that it treats matters which McLagan ought to have realised were of marginal relevance and which he knew had taken up no more than a few minutes of court time as if they formed a major part of the hearing. The references to “unexplained income” and “an unusual spending pattern” are damning. No balancing reference is made to other evidence given at the pre-trial hearing which tended to exonerate Charman.’
[62] As for the passage in the book:
‘[146] . . . “Although Redgrave and Charman’s names were continually mentioned throughout the trial, the two suspended officers did not appear at the Old Bailey.” . . .’
The judge said (at [147]):
‘As McLagan ought to have appreciated, there was in fact no possibility of Charman or Redgrave giving evidence at Brennan’s trial. The issue for the jury was whether Brennan had stolen money from the Wangs. It was no part of the prosecution case to say that Brennan’s allegations of corruption against Charman and Redgrave were true. Besides, those allegations had been withdrawn. I do not think it is accurate to say that the names of Redgrave and Charman were “continually mentioned throughout the trial”. They were referred to on two days after the trial had been running (with interruptions) for a month.’
[63] As for McLagan’s account of Brennan’s cross-examination including prosecuting counsel’s ‘damning’ words chosen ‘with care’, namely, ‘I am not going to bring in criminals to give evidence’, the judge said (at [150]):
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‘. . . McLagan’s quotations are accurate. There nevertheless appears to me to be considerable force in the criticism made by Mr Tomlinson that McLagan should have made clear that the alleged criminality of Charman and Redgrave had no bearing on the issues which the jury had to decide. I accept that at the end of the passage which I have quoted McLagan informs readers that in his closing speech Trollope told the jury that there was no evidence the officers had been paid money. McLagan does not mention the fact that Latham accepted that there was no direct evidence that corrupt payments were made to the officers. A more serious omission is the failure to refer to the judge’s advice to the jury in his summing up to ignore suggestions made that any money was taken by Charman or Redgrave to assist Brennan. He told the jury that they ought to put that out of their minds. In the context of the trial as a whole it is difficult to understand how, as McLagan claims, for much of the time it was as if Charman and Redgrave were in the dock with Brennan.’
[64] The judge concluded (at [151]):
‘I have taken some time with the account in Bent Coppers of the Brennan trial because it marks the culmination of McLagan’s account of one of the major characters in the book. One of the questions which I have to decide is whether this is a fair account of what took place at Brennan’s trial. For the reasons which I have given, I have concluded that it is not.’
[65] The judge then returned to the ten matters to be taken into account when deciding the issue of responsible journalism as identified by Lord Nicholls in Reynolds’s case and I shall comment on this in due time. The judge’s conclusion was that the defendants had not acted responsibly in communicating the information contained in Bent Coppers about Charman to the public.
My commentary on responsible journalism
An analysis of recent developments in the law
[66] When setting out his commendably careful and thorough statement of legal principle (see [43], above), Gray J did not have the advantage of their Lordships’ opinions in Jameel’s case [2006] 4 All ER 1279. Jameel’s case has made an important contribution to this developing jurisprudence for it reiterates the Reynolds principles but also clarifies their application. Had Gray J had the benefit of it, he would, I do not doubt, have approached his task differently. The salient features of Jameel’s case, some of which are of significance in this appeal, are these. (1) Whether or not the matter was properly in the public interest and whether or not the standard of responsible journalism has been met has to be considered in the context of the article as a whole. I see this from these passages. Lord Hoffmann said:
‘[48] . . . I think that one should consider the article as a whole and not isolate the defamatory statement . . .
[51] If the article as a whole concerned a matter of public interest, the next question is whether the inclusion of the defamatory statement was justifiable. The fact that the material was of public interest does not allow the newspaper to drag in damaging allegations which serve no public purpose. They must be part of the story. And the more serious the
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allegation, the more important it is that it should make a real contribution to the public interest element in the article.’
Lord Hope said:
‘[107] . . . Context is important too when the standard [of responsible journalism] is applied to each piece of information that the journalist wishes to publish. The question whether it has been satisfied will be assessed by looking to the story as a whole, not to each piece of information separated from its context.
[108] . . . I do not believe that [Lord Nicholls] was intending . . . to indicate that the public’s right to know each piece of information in any given article should be assessed, piece by piece, without regard to the whole context. On the contrary, each piece of information will take its colour and its informative value from the context in which it is placed. A piece of information that, taken on its own, would be gratuitous can change its character entirely when its place in the article read as a whole is evaluated. The standard of responsible journalism respects the fact that it is the article as a whole that the journalist presents to the public . . .’
(2) Taking steps to verify the information is given added emphasis. Lord Bingham said (at [32]):
‘. . . The rationale of this test is, as I understand, that there is no duty to publish and the public have no interest to read material which the publisher has not taken reasonable steps to verify. As Lord Hobhouse observed with characteristic pungency ([1999] 4 All ER 609 at 657, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 238), “No public interest is served by publishing or communicating misinformation”. But the publisher is protected if he has taken such steps as a responsible journalist would take to try and ensure that what is published is accurate and fit for publication.’
Baroness Hale of Richmond said (at [149]):
‘. . . the publisher must have taken the care that a responsible publisher would take to verify the information published. The actual steps taken will vary with the nature and sources of the information. But one would normally expect that the source or sources were ones which the publisher had good reason to think reliable, that the publisher himself believed the information to be true, and that he had done what he could to check it. We are frequently told that “fact checking” has gone out of fashion with the media. But a publisher who is to avoid the risk of liability if the information cannot later be proved to be true would be well-advised to do it. Part of this is, of course, taking reasonable steps to contact the people named for their comments . . .’
(3) If the public interest is engaged, the report is privileged if it satisfies the test of responsible journalism. The House had, in Reynolds’s case [1999] 4 All ER 609 at 620–621, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 199, refused to follow the Australian and South African approach in considering the reasonableness of the conduct in publishing the information. The House preferred the ‘elasticity’ of a test of responsible journalism. Lord Hoffmann expressed himself in these terms:
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‘[53] If the publication, including the defamatory statement, passes the public interest test, the inquiry then shifts to whether the steps taken to gather and publish the information were responsible and fair [my emphasis]. As Lord Nicholls said in [Bonnick v Morris (2002) 12 BHRC 558 at [23]]:
“Stated shortly, the Reynolds privilege is concerned to provide a proper degree of protection for responsible journalism when reporting matters of public concern. Responsible journalism is the point at which a fair balance [again my emphasis] is held between freedom of expression on matters of public concern and the reputations of individuals. Maintenance of this standard is in the public interest and in the interests of those whose reputations are involved. It can be regarded as the price journalists pay in return for the privilege.”
[54] Lord Nicholls was speaking in the context of a publication in a newspaper but the defence is of course available to anyone who publishes material of public interest in any medium. The question in each case is whether the defendant behaved fairly and responsibly in gathering and publishing the information. But I shall for convenience continue to describe this as “responsible journalism”.’
This may seem to add the element of fairness to the test. It can, however, be said that fairness is clearly implicit in what Lord Nicholls has always been saying. Lord Steyn in Reynolds’s case [1999] 4 All ER 609 at 634, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 213 was content to accept as the governing principle that ‘the occasion must be one in respect of which it can fairly [my emphasis] be said that it is in the public interest that information should be published’. (4) As for Lord Nicholls’s ten factors to be taken into account, Lord Bingham said:
‘[33] Lord Nicholls ([1999] 4 All ER 609 at 626, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 205) listed certain matters which might be taken into account in deciding whether the test of responsible journalism was satisfied. He intended these as pointers which might be more or less indicative, depending on the circumstances of a particular case, and not, I feel sure, as a series of hurdles to be negotiated by a publisher before he could successfully rely on qualified privilege . . .’
Lord Hoffmann viewed them in this way:
‘[56] In Reynolds, Lord Nicholls gave his well-known non-exhaustive list of ten matters which should in suitable cases be taken into account. They are not tests which the publication has to pass. In the hands of a judge hostile to the spirit of Reynolds, they can become ten hurdles at any of which the defence may fail. That is how [the judge] treated them. The defence, he said (at [32]), can be sustained only after “the closest and most rigorous scrutiny” by the application of what he called “Lord Nicholls’ ten tests”. But that, in my opinion, is not what Lord Nicholls meant. As he said in Bonnick’s case (2002) 12 BHRC 558 at [24] the standard of conduct required of the newspaper must be applied in a practical and flexible manner. It must have regard to practical realities.’
(5) In assessing the responsibility of the article, weight must be given to the professional judgment of the journalist. This is a very important point to emphasise in our appeal. Lord Bingham said:
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‘[33] . . . Lord Nicholls recognised ([1999] 4 All ER 609 at 623–624, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 202–203), inevitably as I think, that it had to be a body other than the publisher, namely the court, which decided whether a publication was protected by qualified privilege. But this does not mean that the editorial decisions and judgments made at the time, without the knowledge of falsity which is a benefit of hindsight, are irrelevant. Weight should ordinarily be given to the professional judgment of an editor or journalist in the absence of some indication that it was made in a casual, cavalier, slipshod or careless manner.’
Lord Hoffmann expressed it thus:
‘[51] . . . But whereas the question of whether the story as a whole was a matter of public interest must be decided by the judge without regard to what the editor’s view may have been, the question of whether the defamatory statement should have been included is often a matter of how the story should have been presented. And on that question, allowance must be made for editorial judgment. If the article as a whole is in the public interest, opinions may reasonably differ over which details are needed to convey the general message. The fact that the judge, with the advantage of leisure and hindsight, might have made a different editorial decision should not destroy the defence. That would make the publication of articles which are, ex hypothesi, in the public interest, too risky and would discourage investigative reporting.’
In the opinion of Lord Hope:
‘[108] . . . The standard of responsible journalism respects the fact that it is the article as a whole that the journalist presents to the public. Weight will be given to the judgment of the editor in making the assessment, as it is the article as a whole that provides the context within which he performs his function as editor.
[109] . . . The cardinal principle that must be observed is that any incursion into press freedom that the law lays down should go no further than is necessary to hold the balance between the right to freedom of expression and the need to protect the reputation of the individual. It must not be excessive or disproportionate. Mr Robertson’s test which introduces the criterion of “high quality journalism”, especially if it is applied to each particular piece of information that is published, would contravene that principle . . .’
In Lord Scott’s opinion:
‘[140] . . . In deciding whether or not the criterion of responsible journalism had been met, the court should apply the standard of conduct expected of the journalist “in a practical and flexible manner” (my emphasis) . . .’
(6) The test is not intended to present an onerous obstacle to the media in the discharge of their function. This is another important point to note. As Lord Hope said:
‘[105] . . . common law does not seek to set a higher standard than that of responsible journalism . . .
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[107] Any test which seeks to set a general standard which must be achieved by all journalists is bound to involve a degree of uncertainty, as Lord Nicholls recognised in Reynolds [1999] 4 All ER 609 at 623, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 202. But, like him, I think that the extent of this uncertainty ought not to be exaggerated. “Responsible journalism” is a standard which everyone in the media and elsewhere can recognise. The duty-interest test based on the public’s right to know, which lies at the heart of the matter, maintains the essential element of objectivity. Was there an interest or duty to publish the information and a corresponding interest or duty to receive it, having regard to its particular subject matter? This provides the context within which, in any given case, the issue will be assessed . . .’
(7) Reynolds’s case must be seen as the House’s attempt ‘to redress the balance [between arts 8 and 10 of the convention] in favour of greater freedom for the press to publish stories of genuine public interest’ (per Lord Hoffmann at [38]). Lord Bingham’s criticism of the Court of Appeal (at [35]) was that its ‘ruling subverts the liberalising intention of the Reynolds decision’ concluding that ‘[i]t might be thought that this was the sort of neutral, investigative journalism which Reynolds privilege exists to protect’. Baroness Hale (at [150]) was of the view that ‘[w]e need more such serious journalism in this country and our defamation law should encourage rather than discourage it’. Lord Hoffmann (at [38]) was concerned ‘that Reynolds has had little impact upon the way the law is applied at first instance’. These are sombre words of warning. I sense at once which way the wind from the House of Lords is blowing and I must trim my sails accordingly.
[67] Turning away from Jameel’s case, it is necessary to consider Bonnick’s case in the context of responsible journalism. Having been cited without any disapproval in Jameel’s case, it seems perfectly plain to me that we should treat it as not merely persuasive but as authoritative.
[68] One must appreciate the facts in that case. An article was published giving an account of litigation, referring to unusual aspects of the contracts there involved and making allegations of irregularities. Mr Bonnick was the managing director of the company concerned and he defended his position to the Sunday Gleaner emphasising that the contracts had properly been put out to tender, evaluated and awarded according to the rules and that the auditors were present on all occasions. He indicated he would sue anyone who suggested otherwise. Despite being told by the plaintiff that there had been no connection between the termination of his employment and the contracts, the journalist had made no inquiries about the reason for his dismissal and made no reference in the article to his explanation for it. The article then stated that Mr Bonnick’s services as managing director were terminated shortly after the second contract was agreed. He asserted several defamatory meanings, namely, that his services had been terminated because of his impropriety, that he caused the company to enter into the contract irregularly and in breach of normal procedures and that he was insane, stupid or incompetent. The trial judge found that the words would be understood by the ordinary reader to mean that Mr Bonnick was dismissed as a result of the irregularities. In the Court of Appeal one of their Lordships held that the article was not defamatory at all. The second judge of appeal agreed with the trial judge on the defamatory meaning and the third judge expressed no view about it. The Privy Council upheld the trial judge. I have already cited
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paras [20]–[22] at [55], above. Dealing with responsible journalism the Privy Council advised:
‘[24] To be meaningful this standard of conduct must be applied in a practical and flexible manner. The court must have regard to practical realities. Their Lordships consider it would be to introduce unnecessary and undesirable legalism and rigidity if this objective standard, of responsible journalism, had to be applied in all cases exclusively by reference to the “single meaning” of the words. Rather, a journalist should not be penalised for making a wrong decision on a question of meaning on which different people might reasonably take different views. Their Lordships note that in the present case the selfsame question has resulted in a division of view between members of the Court of Appeal. If the words are ambiguous to such an extent that they may readily convey a different meaning to an ordinary reasonable reader, a court may properly take this other meaning into account when considering whether Reynolds privilege is available as a defence. In doing so the court will attribute to this feature of the case whatever weight it considers appropriate in all the circumstances.
[25] This should not be pressed too far. Where questions of defamation may arise ambiguity is best avoided as much as possible. It should not be a screen behind which a journalist is “willing to wound, and yet afraid to strike”. In the normal course a responsible journalist can be expected to perceive the meaning an ordinary, reasonable reader is likely to give to his article. Moreover, even if the words are highly susceptible of another meaning, a responsible journalist will not disregard a defamatory meaning which is obviously one possible meaning of the article in question. Questions of degree arise here. The more obvious the defamatory meaning, and the more serious the defamation, the less weight will a court attach to other possible meanings when considering the conduct to be expected of a responsible journalist in the circumstances . . .
[27] . . . The defamatory meaning of the words used was not so glaringly obvious that any responsible journalist would be bound to realise this was how the words would be understood by ordinary, reasonable readers. The failure to make further inquiry, and the omission of Mr Bonnick’s explanation of his dismissal, although unfortunate, have to be evaluated, and their compatibility with responsible journalism considered, against this background.’
[69] I have looked again at the Strasbourg jurisprudence. The consistent trend is very supportive of the right of free expression. It is necessary only to cast an eye over the Strasbourg decisions since Jameel’s case was argued. White v Sweden [2007] EMLR 1 concerned the publication of a series of articles in which the murder of Olaf Palme, the Swedish Prime Minister, was ascribed to White based mainly on reports made by others, in particular a former senior official of the South African security police. In striking the balance, the court was satisfied that the public interest in publishing the information in question outweighed the applicant’s right to protection of his reputation. In Verlagsgruppe News GmbH v Austria [2006] ECHR 76918/01, the impugned statements had already been widely disseminated in another newspaper and as the court said, the applicant company quoted this letter ‘in the context of its reportage about the then pending defamation proceedings’. The court recalled that:
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‘33. . . . a general requirement for journalists systematically and formally to distance themselves from the content of a quotation that might insult or provoke others or damage their reputation is not reconcilable with the press’s role of providing information on current events, opinions and ideas (see Thoma v Luxembourg (2003) 36 EHRR 359). The court finds that in the present case the article remained within the limits of acceptable comment on court proceedings.’
I remind myself of the oft-cited passage in Thoma v Luxembourg (2003) 36 EHRR 359 at 373 (para 45):
‘The press plays an essential role in a democratic society. Although it must not overstep certain bounds, in particular in respect of the reputation and rights of others, its duty is nevertheless to impart—in a manner consistent with its obligations and responsibilities—information and ideas on all matters of public interest. Not only does it have the task of imparting such information and ideas: the public also has a right to receive them. Were it otherwise, the press would be unable to play its vital role of “public watchdog”. Article 10 protects not only the substance of the ideas and information expressed, but also the form in which they are conveyed [my emphasis].’
To give added emphasis to that point, which is point (6) in my analysis of Jameel’s case, I can also refer to Selistö v Finland (2006) 42 EHRR 144 at 161 (para 59) where the court said:
‘. . . The methods of objective and balanced reporting may vary considerably, depending among other things on the medium in question; it is not for the Court, any more than it is for the national courts, to substitute its own views for those of the press as to what techniques of reporting should be reported by journalists . . . Reading the articles as a whole, the Court cannot find that this statement was excessive or misleading.’
Commentary on responsible journalism
[70] Let me first dispose of the Bonnick point about which there was some argument. The judge had said (at [130]):
‘It seems to me that where, as I have found, the imputation conveyed to readers in relation to Charman was that cogent grounds exist for suspecting that in his capacity as a police officer he had been guilty of corruption, a responsible journalist should evaluate with some care the material on which that imputation is based. Such a journalist should in my view subject the material to a degree of critical analysis . . .’
I agree he should take proper care: that is the essence of responsible journalism. The Bonnick point (at [24]) is, however, that ‘the journalist should not be penalised for making a wrong decision on a question of meaning on which different people might reasonably take different views . . .' It was conceded in para 12.2 of Charman’s skeleton argument that ‘[r]eaders would have understood the words to bear a range of meanings from “grounds to investigate” to “guilt”—all of which are defamatory.' This was, therefore, not a case where—
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‘[t]he defamatory meaning of the words used was not so glaringly obvious that any responsible journalist would be bound to realise this was how the words would be understood by ordinary, reasonable readers . . .’ (see [27]).
Consequently McLagan’s assertion that he did not intend to convey the imputation the words were held to bear was a relevant fact to take into account. Since it is a question of degree (see [25]), it seems to me that his belief must be of some weight in assessing the responsibility of his conduct overall even if it cannot exculpate him given the seriousness of the imputation and the fact that ‘a responsible journalist will not disregard a defamatory meaning which is obviously one possible meaning of the article in question’.
[71] I turn, therefore, to the crucial question: did McLagan act with proper professional responsibility? As I have pointed out the judge did not have the benefit of Jameel’s case. He would not have appreciated how far the courts have gone in releasing the shackles on the freedom of expression afforded to the media in matters of public interest. ‘Serious journalism’ is to be encouraged, said Baroness Hale.
[72] Secondly, and importantly, the emphasis is on considering the article as a whole as opposed to the spotlight focusing on isolated individual pieces of information. The criticism that can, therefore, be made of the judgment is that whereas the judge set out to consider whether McLagan struck a fair balance ‘in relation to Charman and the allegations levelled against him’, he did not consider the Charman story in the context of the whole story of the book about Bent Coppers. Charman was one story within the larger story of corruption or alleged corruption within the Met. Even within the confines of the Charman story, the reputation of others was affected by the way that, in mounting his defence, Charman did not flinch from accusing the investigating officers of corrupt practice directed against him and Redgrave. In failing to look at the bigger picture, the judge erred.
[73] Looking more closely at the judge’s conclusions on balance, he held (at [124]) that ‘a balanced approach required McLagan to mention certain noteworthy aspects of the Brennan story’, among others, ‘the very real reasons for doubting Brennan’s credibility’. This does not seem to me to be a fair criticism. The book described Brennan as one ‘given to lies and bluster’ and, as the judge himself found in his meaning judgment ([2005] All ER (D) 152 (Oct) at [52](i)): ‘Readers would in my view hesitate before accepting the truth of an allegation of corruption on the part of a police officer emanating from such a man.’
[74] In arriving at a judgment on balance the judge ought to have regard not only to what was said, but also to what was not said. I consider that the judge erred in not weighing the several matters which McLagan deliberately omitted to mention in the book in his pursuit of a fair balance such as, for example, the extraordinary fact that Charman and Redgrave declined to answer any police questions about Brennan’s allegations against them. Surely innocent police officers should have nothing to fear from an unfounded complaint from a common criminal? They resorted instead to persuading the press to put their side of the story and Mr McKinlay MP to make a parliamentary statement about the predicament in which they said they found themselves. As a further example of the omissions of adverse information, there was no mention of Charman’s alleged fabrication of informant logs made in relation to aspects of Operation Nightshade.
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[75] This analysis highlights another difficulty for the judge. Jameel’s case emphasises how important it is that weight be given to the professional judgment of the journalist. Where opinions may reasonably differ over the details which are needed to convey the general message, then deference has to be paid to the editorial decisions of the author, journalist or editor. True it may be that the journalist has to subject the material, as the judge held, to ‘critical analysis’. But it is his assessment of that evaluation which is important, not the judge’s own evaluation of the material conducted with the benefit of hindsight and with the sharp eye of a trained lawyer. I do not see in this judgment any sufficient allowance made for McLagan’s honesty, his expertise in the subject, his careful research, and his painstaking evaluation of a mass of material. Bringing the strands of criticism together—
‘[w]eight will be given to the judgment of the editor in making the assessment, as it is the article as a whole that provides the context within which he performs his function as editor.’ (See [2006] 4 All ER 1279 at [108] per Lord Hope.)
And Gray J erred in not taking that into account or sufficiently into account.
[76] To move from the general to the particular. The judge was critical of McLagan’s failure to inform his readers that far from being ‘reliable’ Smith was profoundly tainted by his answers during cross-examination in the Phillips trial. I do not agree. To have explored in depth whether or not Smith was ‘moonlighting’ for Brennan would not dissolve the suspicion that he was and that he was doing so corruptly. That it was possible that Brennan had corrupted Smith would not make it less likely that he had also corrupted Charman. In my view blackening Smith’s reputation would have added weight to the case against Charman.
[77] As for the account of Brennan’s trial the judge’s first criticism related to the fact that the inquiry into Wang’s allegations of theft had been taken over by SERCS but the judge considered (at [144]) that there was ‘nothing unusual or sinister about it’. That criticism ignores the fact that evidence was given by Gaspar that the transfer was ‘curious in itself’. Deputy Assistant Commissioner Roy Clark also gave evidence describing the transfer as ‘something that made me suspicious’ and as ‘strange because the regional crime squad do not reactively investigate crime. They work entirely proactively’.
[78] The judge then commented (at [145]) on the fact that references to ‘unexplained income’ and ‘an unusual spending pattern’ for Charman were damning and observed that no balancing reference was made to other evidence which tended to exonerate Charman. This was said in the context of McLagan being criticised for treating matters of marginal relevance as if they formed a major part of the hearing. These were, however, certainly not matters of marginal relevance. They were central to the case against Charman and were matters put in the public domain in open court. McLagan did take steps to verify this ‘damning evidence’ because he asked for and was allowed to read the financial report on which the cross-examination was based.
[79] The judge’s next criticism (at [147]) was that McLagan ought to have appreciated that there was in fact no possibility of Charman or Redgrave giving evidence at Brennan’s trial. I disagree. If Brennan was to stick to his story that he was not guilty of theft and that all was part of the operation in which he was
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acting as the informer, then, if that had been true, one would have expected Charman and Redgrave to support him.
[80] Finally the judge accepted the criticism made by Mr Tomlinson that McLagan should have made clear that the alleged criminality of Charman and Redgrave had no bearing on the issues the jury in the Brennan trial had to decide. The judge drew attention to McLagan’s failure to mention that Latham had accepted there was no direct evidence that corrupt payments had been made to the officers. He (Gray J) considered that a more serious omission was the failure to refer to the trial judge’s advice to the jury in his summing up to ignore suggestions that any money was taken by Charman or Redgrave to assist Brennan. So McLagan was criticised for observing that for much of the time it was as if Charman and Redgrave were in the dock with Brennan.
[81] As it appears to me, the issue for the jury was whether or not the relationship between Brennan and the two officers was a proper one or an improper one. It was Brennan who made it an issue because it was his defence to the charge of theft that he was acting innocently with the officers’ full knowledge and approval. If it seemed as if they were on trial and in the dock with him, they were in the same boat as Brennan because he put them there. He so allied his defence with their honesty that the three of them were bound to stand or fall together. The prosecution challenged Brennan’s veracity through rigorous, even vigorous, cross-examination as the prosecution was entitled and in the circumstances bound to do. It was perfectly proper in a cross-examination as to credit to suggest money was paid to Redgrave and Charman without being able to place evidence before the jury to support the allegation. The alleged criminality of the officers in accepting corrupt payments had the most material bearing on the issue before the jury because if the jury disbelieved Brennan and his story of being the innocent informer, then his defence was in ruins. The jury could have decided that whether or not there was direct evidence of any corrupt payments having been made. The role of Charman and Redgrave remained a pivotal part of the defence and McLagan was in my judgment entitled to concentrate on them.
[82] I am reinforced in these conclusions having since read in draft a copy of the judgment of Hooper LJ. I agree with his close analysis of the Brennan trial and the way a responsible journalist could report it.
CONCLUSIONS
[83] Although I have considerable sympathy for him since he did not have the benefit of Jameel’s case at the time he wrote his judgment, I am satisfied that the judge erred in his approach. I am, moreover, satisfied that I have enough material before me to deal with this defence of Reynolds privilege. I have already expressed views about the professional responsibility of McLagan’s conduct and I now turn to the ten matters identified by Lord Nicholls in Reynolds’s case ([1999] 4 All ER 609 at 626, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 205):
(1) ‘The seriousness of the allegation. The more serious the charge, the more the public is misinformed and the individual harmed, if the allegation is not true.' Even though the passages bear the meaning of cogent grounds for suspicion rather than guilt of corruption, the charges are nonetheless, as the judge held, very serious for senior serving officers of the Met.
(2) ‘The nature of the information, and the extent to which the subject matter is a matter of public concern.' The public interest in this story has always been common ground, and rightly so. The police are here to protect us and we
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demand and expect that they will carry out their duties without corruption and so, where there is corruption, it must be exposed and where there is a justified suspicion of corruption it deserves to be discussed.
(3) ‘The source of the information. Some informants have no direct knowledge of the events. Some have their own axes to grind, or are being paid for their stories.' Much of the story comes, of course, from Brennan as revealed in the Gaspar tapes. Brennan was a flawed character as was made obvious. McLagan did not, however, rest on his account alone, he made great efforts to tap his police sources for all the light they could shed on the problem. This was, after all, the story of the Ghost Squad.
(4) ‘The steps taken to verify the information.' In his judgment the judge said that McLagan did not claim to have verified the information about Charman and that there were no means whereby he could have done so. He held (at [152](iv)): ‘In my view McLagan ought to have carried out an evaluation and analysis of the material available to him.' Indeed he ought to have done. But in my judgment it is plain that he did so. True it is he could not verify the truth of Brennan’s allegations because only three people were involved in the corruption and the payment of £50,000 by Brennan to the officers. It was one man’s word against another’s. What McLagan did do, and what the judge gives him no or too little credit for doing was the further research he carried out, the interviews he held with the investigating officers and the judgment he made as to their credibility and the inferences which could properly be drawn from the material as a whole. It is not easy to see what more he could have done.
(5) ‘The status of the information. The allegation may have already been the subject of an investigation which commands respect.' ‘The status of the information’ was no doubt introduced in Reynolds’s case because of the importance that it had in the Court of Appeal in that case. The Court of Appeal said ([1998] 3 All ER 961 at 995, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 167):
‘We make reference to “status” bearing in mind the use of that expression in some of the more recent authorities to denote the degree to which information on a matter of public concern may (because of its character and known provenance) command respect . . .’
To the extent that matters were investigated at the Central Criminal Court, as they were, they must command respect. The judge held (at [152](v)) it was ‘unwise on McLagan’s part to have placed reliance on the opinions expressed privately to him by individual officers such as Coles’, but these were the investigating officers and their opinions cannot be discounted even making allowance for the counter-attack launched against them by Charman. The status of their information is certainly high enough to warrant writing a story which gives rise to no more serious an allegation than that there were cogent grounds to suspect Charman.
(6) ‘The urgency of the matter. News is often a perishable commodity.' This factor does not arise in this case as the judge correctly held. I see no reason at all for confining responsible journalism to newspapers and magazines. It must be extended to the authors and publishers of books. Mr Tomlinson did not attempt to suggest otherwise. As Lord Hoffmann said in Jameel’s case [2006] 4 All ER 1279 at [54], the Reynolds defence is available ‘to anyone who publishes material of public interest in any medium’, the emphasis being added by me. I agree, however, with Mr Tomlinson’s submission that because the authors and
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publishers are not under the same pressure of time before the presses begin to roll, greater care will be expected of them to ensure they act properly.
(7) ‘Whether comment was sought from the [claimant]. He may have information others do not possess or have not disclosed. An approach to the [claimant] will not always be necessary.' The judge accepted that approaches to obtain Charman’s side of the story were rebuffed. The judge concluded that McLagan was entitled to assume that Charman would have remained uncooperative if allegations to be published in the book had been put directly to him, rather than through his brother-in-law, Millar who was co-ordinating the Charman campaign to publicise their side of the story.
(8) ‘Whether the article contained the gist of the [claimant’s] side of the story.' The judge accepted that the book did contain Charman and Redgrave’s side of the story. Curiously the judge appears to criticise McLagan for not having sought comment as to the ‘positive case’ which was going to be made against him in the book. This seems inconsistent with his earlier correct finding that Charman would have remained uncooperative if he had been approached.
(9) ‘The tone of the [book] and [author] can raise queries or call for an investigation. It need not adopt allegations as statements of fact.' The judge relied on his earlier finding of partial adoption of the Brennan allegations as true but that does not really deal with the tone of the book. In my judgment the tone of this book is exactly what one would expect of an objective investigative journalist. The ‘inside story’ of Charman and Redgrave was essentially factual in context and unsensational in tone. Even the ‘damning’ words of prosecuting counsel Richard Latham QC chosen ‘with care’ do not add more than permissible colour to the book. Reading it as a whole the author expresses no personal judgment but leaves it to the reader to form his or her own impression of the two officers concerned. That seems to me to be a hallmark of responsible journalism.
(10) ‘The circumstances of the publication, including the timing.' There is nothing in this point.
[84] What seems to me to be lacking after the judge’s analysis of those ten factors is some assessment of whether a fair balance was being held between the freedom of expression and the reputations of the individuals, bearing in mind that the court should suffer no greater limitation of press freedom than is necessary to hold that balance. Lord Nicholls concluded ([1999] 4 All ER 609 at 626, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 205):
‘The court should be slow to conclude that a publication was not in the public interest and, therefore, the public had no right to know . . . Any lingering doubts should be resolved in favour of publication.’
This theme was emphasised in Jameel’s case as I pointed out in para [66](6) and (7), above. Gray J would not have been aware of their Lordships’ rebuke of the lower courts for their failure to appreciate how ‘liberalising’ an opinion Reynolds’s case was intended to be. Given that Charman and Redgrave had themselves put the attack on their character in the public domain by their press announcements and by the statement made on their behalf in Parliament, the balance of fairness falls in my judgment heavily in favour of the case against them being put to the public.
[85] Having given the matter most careful consideration, I am totally satisfied that this was a piece of responsible journalism. As Lord Bingham said in Jameel’s case (at [35]): ‘It might be thought that this was the sort of neutral, investigative journalism which Reynolds privilege exists to protect.’
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Statutory privilege
[86] In the light of the above conclusions, it is unnecessary to go further and consider this defence. At its heart lies the question of whether the book as a whole gives a substantially fair and accurate account of the court proceedings and the parliamentary debate. It will be noted that fairness and accuracy play their part in considering reportage and, especially as emphasised by Lord Hoffmann, in the general question of responsible journalism. Fairness is the common thread that links all three aspects of privilege in this context. The question of fairness should be judged alike in each instance. I am satisfied that the book gives a fair portrayal of the trial and to that extent this defence of privilege should also prevail.
THE RESULT
[87] The appeal must be allowed. The passages in Bent Coppers of which Charman makes complaint are protected by qualified privilege.
SEDLEY LJ.
[88] In agreement with the other members of the court, I consider that this appeal should be allowed. Like them, I do not think the case can possibly rank as a reportage case. Apart from anything else the book is much too wide-ranging to come within a class designed only to protect the factual reporting in the public interest of a dispute containing defamatory matter. I will return briefly to reportage below. But Bent Coppers is in my judgment an exercise of entirely responsible journalism and as such is entitled to the protection of the law against what would otherwise be the consequences of its defamatory imputation against the claimant.
[89] Hooper LJ in his judgment explains why the author’s carefully documented account of the complicated and murky events which are the subject matter of Bent Coppers could legitimately throw up the suggestion that there were cogent grounds to suspect that the claimant had colluded for reward with a professional criminal’s fraud. It may well be that no explanation of this detail and clarity was proffered to Gray J; but it may equally be that Gray J’s critique of the author’s journalistic balance would still have driven him to the same conclusion (see [2006] EWHC 1756 (QB), [2007] 1 All ER 622).
[90] In my judgment, however, an otherwise sound defence of responsible journalism is not, or at least not necessarily, undermined by a presentation which could arguably have been less unfavourable to the claimant than it was. Such an approach risks embarking upon the kind of retrospective editorial function which is not the court’s role. A point can of course come at which, without necessarily being able to be branded irresponsible, a defamatory account loses its balance and with it the protection of qualified privilege; but for the reasons given by both Ward and Hooper LJJ, the grounds on which the judge considered this point to have been reached in the present case do not stand up to scrutiny once the true character and import of the Brennan trial is appreciated. Balance, it should be appreciated, does not mean giving equal weight or credence to intrinsically unequal things—for example a telling accusation and an evasive reply. Such balance may be a sufficient answer for the purposes of a responsible journalism defence, but it is not a necessary one. A more selective or evaluative account is quite capable of staying within the bounds of responsible journalism.
[91] The reportage doctrine developed in Al-Fagih v HH Saudi Research & Marketing (UK) Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1634, [2002] EMLR 215 cannot logically be
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confined to the reporting of reciprocal allegations. A unilateral libel, reported disinterestedly, will be equally protected. Although no reference was made in the case to the decision of the Second Circuit Court of Appeals in Edwards v National Audubon Society Inc (1977) 556 F 2d 113, Al-Fagih’s case reflects this now classic limb of First Amendment jurisprudence. But the present case bears no substantive resemblance to either of those cases, nor to the case recently decided by this court of Roberts v Gable [2007] EWCA Civ 721, (2007) 151 Sol Jo LB 988. These were all cases of a self-contained account of a dispute, libellous in its content but reported without adoption or more than marginal embellishment. It is the very dependence of a reportage defence on the bald retailing of libels which makes it forensically problematical to fall back upon an alternative defence of responsible journalism. Pleaders may need to decide which it is to be.
HOOPER LJ.
[92] On 9 June 2003 a book entitled Bent Coppers written by the third defendant, Graeme McLagan (McLagan) was published in hardback by the first defendant. Nine months later the respondent, Michael Charman (Charman) wrote a letter before action. In the words of the outline submissions of Miss Page QC:
‘Charman made no complaint about the hardback and continued to abstain from complaint about it after he knew that a paperback was in production until the very eve of its publication when he instructed his solicitors to write a letter before action dated 22 March 2004, over 9 months after publication of the hardback and after the paperback had been printed and distributed.’
[93] On 1 April 2004 the paperback edition was published by the second defendant. Although in the paperback edition changes were made, those changes, we were told, are not of significance for the purposes of this appeal.
[94] On 4 June 2004, the claim form in these proceedings was issued, claiming damages for libel.
[95] In October 2005 the judge, Gray J, concluded, after a hearing, that the relevant passages in the hardback edition bore the defamatory meaning that—
‘there are cogent grounds to suspect that Mr Charman abused his position as a police officer by colluding with Brennan in the commission of substantial fraud by Geoffrey Brennan from whom he and Mr Redgrave received corrupt payments totalling £50,000.’ (See [2005] EWHC 2187 (QB), [2005] All ER (D) 152 (Oct).)
[96] In the judgment the subject matter of this appeal ([2006] EWHC 1756 (QB), [2007] 1 All ER 622) Gray J said:
‘[3] The issue which I now have to decide is whether the defendants, who are respectively the publishers and author of a book entitled Bent Coppers, are correct in their contention that the publication of the passages from that book of which the claimant makes complaint is protected by qualified privilege. The defendants rely on an amalgam of various species of privilege: the privilege accorded to responsible journalism (the so-called Reynolds privilege: see Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609, [2001] 2 AC 127); the statutory privilege which protects fair and accurate reports of parliamentary and judicial proceedings and the ancillary common law
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privilege which can attach to matters closely connected with reports of proceedings which enjoy statutory privilege. Unquestionably the most important of these various species of privilege for the purposes of the present case is that which is accorded to the products of responsible journalism.’
[97] The judge decided the issue against the defendants, now appellants. I propose to concentrate on the part of the judge’s decision in which he found that the defence of qualified privilege based on responsible journalism failed. I agree with Ward LJ that the judge was right to find (at [118]) that the defendants could not rely on the so-called defence of reportage. In my view that ‘defence’ was doomed to failure and should never have been advanced.
[98] I have to say that, in my view, far too much time was spent during the appeal on law. The law in this area is clear. Apart from referring us to a few minor alleged imperfections, Miss Page accepted that the judge had properly set out the law. Given what in my view was the hopeless reportage issue, the only realistic attack which could be made on the judge’s finding was that he was wrong to have rejected the responsible journalism defence. Miss Page largely made that attack in a very detailed schedule.
[99] Geoffrey Brennan (Brennan) was described by McLagan in his book in the following way (p 41, all references being to the hardback edition):
‘He was a big, excitable man given to lies, boast and bluster . . . as well as being a fairly small-time criminal he has been an informant for years, especially since the early 1990s, when he had got to know high-calibre criminals and various police officers.’
[100] Brennan’s handlers included Charman and Det Sgt Chris Smith (Smith).
[101] McLagan had made a substantial witness statement and then was in the witness box for four days, most of which was taken up by cross-examination. The finding was in large measure based on points made during that cross-examination. Notwithstanding that there had been extensive pleadings, many of the points made by Mr Tomlinson QC during that cross-examination had not been foreshadowed in the pleadings. In the words of Miss Page:
‘The Reply, both in its original and amended versions, failed to plead or forewarn of many of the detailed points of criticism that were canvassed in a very prolonged cross-examination of McLagan that went on for three days.’
[102] I take the background facts about the parties from the judgment of Gray J:
‘[6] The claimant (Charman), is a former Detective Constable in the Metropolitan Police Force (the Met). He was a serving officer from 1971 until 6 May 2004. In June 1993 he was in the Flying Squad, based at Tower Bridge. He became the joint handler of an informant called Geoffrey Brennan (Brennan). Another officer in the Met was John Redgrave (Redgrave) who attained the rank of Detective Inspector. Unlike Charman, Redgrave was a member of the South Eastern Regional Crime Squad (SERCS) but he and Charman had worked together on the Brink’s Mat inquiry and investigation from about 1983. Later, however, they were on different teams.
[7] Charman and Redgrave were required to resign from the Met on 6 May 2004, following the finding of an internal disciplinary panel that they
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had acted in a manner likely to bring discredit on the reputation of the force . . .
[9] McLagan is a journalist of many years’ standing. After starting as a reporter on the Newcastle Journal, he moved to London and worked for the Daily Mail in the 1960s. In 1971 he joined BBC Radio News as a reporter, becoming Deputy Home Affairs correspondent a few years later and thereafter Home Affairs correspondent for both radio and television. Over the years he covered many major home affairs stories. In 1993 he was appointed head of a new investigations team which covered both television and radio news. He was heavily involved in reporting the Matrix Churchill trial and the subsequent Scott Inquiry.
[10] From the late 1970s onwards McLagan took a special interest in the issue of police corruption. In the early 1980s he reported on the first major inquiry by an outside force into police corruption within the Metropolitan Police. He covered the progress of that inquiry and several trials which arose out of it. A particular problem within the Metropolitan Police at that time was the abuse of the system of informants. McLagan reported on this area of police corruption in a Panorama programme transmitted in 1982. He came to be recognised as the BBC’s expert on police corruption. He reported on the criminal trials of several allegedly corrupt police officers. In January 1998 McLagan was the presenter for another Panorama programme about police corruption.’
[103] To understand the case and this appeal, it is, in my view, necessary to take a step back and concentrate on what I consider to be the more important events. We have been provided with a chronology with two columns showing the ‘Event (per appellants)’ and the ‘Respondent’s comments’. I shall refer to it as the ‘chronology’ but I shall note the respondent’s comments thereon when applicable. I understand that the trial judge did not have the benefit of the very detailed chronology with which we have been provided. If so, I find that surprising.
[104] In June 1993 Charman became Brennan’s handler, taking over from Smith. In October Smith resumed as a handler of Brennan and according to the respondent both handled Brennan from that time until March 1994.
[105] At the same time, in the words of Gray J:
‘[24] In or about June [1993] an operation called “Nightshade” was set up. Ostensibly it had three strands: (i) drug trafficking in Venezuela; (ii) production of amphetamines in Portugal; and (iii) money-laundering and/or gun-running. Brennan provided information to the police in connection with Operation Nightshade. The defendants’ case, hotly contested by Charman, is that the third element of Operation Nightshade was a fabrication by Brennan, Charman and Redgrave devised in order to conceal their own involvement in criminal activity.’
[106] The Home Secretary was to say in the House of Commons in March 2000 about Operation Nightshade and arms deals that—
‘[t]he Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis tells me that no such details were revealed as a result of Operation Nightshade.’ (See 346 HC Official Report (6th series) written answers col 268.)
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[107] As I shall show later in my judgment, Mr McKinlay MP was a vociferous supporter in the House of Commons of Operation Nightshade’s attempts to uncover arms dealing involving Sierra Leone. Mr McKinlay attributed the downfall of Redgrave and Charman to a desire on the part of the intelligence services to bring Operation Nightshade’s inquiries into arms dealing to an end.
[108] In November 1993 Brennan was arrested by a Kent officer, Det Con Inglis, for theft in September 1993 of £400,000 from an American businessman, named Sam Wang. Brennan was released on bail.
[109] Brennan was subsequently convicted of that theft at the Central Criminal Court many years later in April 2001 (Judge Barker QC and a jury).
[110] Returning to 1994, in the words of the book:
‘On 14 June 1994, DCS Roger Gaspar received a dramatic phone call requiring immediate action. It led to armed police protecting a man [Brennan], moving him and his family from their home for their own safety. The caller was the head of the Flying Squad, Bill Griffiths. He said that a reliable Flying Squad officer, Detective Sergeant Chris Smith, had told him that an important police informant had been compromised. Confidential police documents detailing his activities had leaked to the major criminals on whom he was informing. His life was in danger.’
[111] Detective Chief Supt Gaspar (Gaspar) had, in May 1994, been given permission to create what the book describes as a ‘secret ghost squad’ to investigate corruption within the Met.
[112] According to the book, during the course of the conversation between Gaspar and Bill Griffiths (Griffiths), Griffiths had mentioned Redgrave as being involved with Brennan. According to the book, Redgrave’s name was on a list of suspect corrupt officers only recently compiled.
[113] Two hours after the call, Gaspar met Brennan. According to the book, Brennan told Gaspar that confidential material relating to Brennan’s informant status was now in the hands of criminals, that his life was in serious danger and that he had turned to Smith for help. According to the book Gaspar had no reason to disbelieve Brennan’s story about the leak of the information ‘especially as it was corroborated by DS Smith’. Gaspar then arranged for elaborate steps to be taken to protect Brennan (safe house, new name, etc).
[114] According to the book there were many subsequent meetings between Gaspar and Brennan (some or all of which, it appears, Smith attended). Brennan agreed to some of the conversations being taped. Brennan was not cautioned. The book gives an account in some detail of what Brennan told Gaspar on tape. McLagan told Gray J that during Brennan’s subsequent trial for theft, McLagan had been lent a copy of the transcripts for some two hours. The judge does not make a finding that McLagan’s summary of the Brennan interviews was inaccurate nor does he find that it was not responsible journalism to rely on what he had read and noted during that two hours. The judge’s summary of the critical parts of the tape takes up one paragraph of the judgment (para [30]).
[115] The account of the tapes in the book reads as follows (pp 44–48):
‘Brennan recounted how he had been a police informant while running a mobile-phone shop. During the previous summer, with the business in increasing financial difficulties, he had become an informant for Detective Constable Mick Charman, a Flying Squad officer based at the squad’s Tower Bridge offices. He was giving him information about a robber who had
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moved into the drugs trade, importing cocaine from Venezuela [strand (i) of Nightshade]. Brennan said that at the same time he had been contacted by a Texan wanting to buy mobile phones for use on offshore oil rigs. The Texan then introduced him to a Chinese-American, Sam Wang. Thousands of a particular type of Motorola mobile were wanted by Wang for resale in Hong Kong and mainland China, where they were unobtainable because of international licensing agreements. Brennan agreed to provide the phones, although he knew he would never be able to supply more than a handful. Wang flew to London to clinch the deal and met Brennan at an expensive London hotel. Wang was impressed by the presence of Brennan’s good friend DC Mark Norton.
On tape, to Gaspar, Brennan related what he said the Texan had told him: “He said, ‘You know, you are going to earn a lot of money out of this. We are all going to earn a lot of money out of this.' And I thought, no, all I’m going to do is fucking relieve you of the money . . . It’s as simple as that.”’
Brennan was describing a simple straightforward theft. The jury at the end of Brennan’s trial found him guilty of that theft and disbelieved the account which he was to give in evidence and which (as I shall show later) was foreshadowed both by the media and by Mr Redgrave’s MP, Mr McKinlay, in the House of Commons.
[116] The book continues:
‘Brennan went on to describe how he had then met his police handler, DC Charman: “I said to Mick, if this shapes up, I can relieve these people. It’s an opportunity, and these things come up once in your life-time, without anyone getting hurt, if it can be done proper . . . I said: ‘Look Mick, I want to relieve them of all of it.’”
Meanwhile money starting arriving [sic] from Wang and his brother in the USA for the mobile phones that Brennan had no intention of supplying. The crooked businessman [Brennan] was to receive more than £400,000 in the coming weeks. He claimed that a plan was hatched with Charman so that police would provide him with cover as he pocketed the money. The police would pretend that Brennan was giving them information about a money-laundering operation being run from the US, and in return for the protection Brennan would pay over cash.’ (My emphasis.)
[117] As I shall show below, both the media and Mr McKinlay adopted as true what Brennan was saying was only a pretence.
[118] The book continues:
‘Brennan alleged he gave a first payment of £10,000 to Charman, who told him he would introduce him to his old friend DI John Redgrave, who was now with SERCS, the South East Regional Crime Squad. The two detectives had worked together on the Brink’s-Mat robbery.
“I give Mick £10,000 and at that time I was led to believe that five grand was going to Redgrave to start all this off,” said Brennan. “We met John in the car park of the restaurant at South Mimms [a large service station at the junction of the A1 and M25] . . . He drove up in a metallic Cavalier. He come over and said, ‘Let’s get back in the car.' Then we took off like fucking . . . you don’t know who you thought you had up your arse. He was going left,
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right, left, right, all round them roundabouts. Next thing, we’re into the back of a hotel.”
According to Brennan’s account, the three of them went to a room at the hotel which had been pre-booked by Redgrave. The DI then searched Brennan thoroughly, looking for a microphone or some kind of recording device. He had to take off his shoes and belt for examination, and said that Redgrave even went through his hair. As the search continued, Brennan said he remonstrated with Charman: “I looked at Mick and Mick went, ‘Don’t worry.' I went: ‘No Mick. What is all this?' Then Redgrave said, ‘I’ve got a pension to worry about, and I ain’t being fucked. I ain’t being fucked by you or anybody.' I said: ‘Well, if you’re worried about a set-up, you’re a friend of Mick’s and Mick’s given me that you’re OK.' He said there was no problem. He’s trying to defuse the situation, ‘cos I’m now up in the air about it. Mick’s going, ‘Calm down, calm down.’”
Eventually the situation did calm down, said Brennan, with Redgrave apologising and then giving more details about the money-laundering cover story. Brennan would say he had been approached by some Americans who wanted him to launder money in the UK, and Redgrave would say he had authority for Brennan to act as a participating informant. After agreeing to the scam, Brennan said Redgrave asked him for £10,000, which Brennan got for him from Charman’s car.’ (My emphasis.)
[119] The emphasised passage gives more detail of the cover story which Brennan, on his account, was to use. The book continues:
‘Brennan told Gaspar he had agreed to pay the pair a total of £50,000. With two amounts of £10,000 already handed over, he claimed the final payment of £30,000 was made a few days later in south-east London. Redgrave warned him that provided he stayed within Scotland Yard’s informant-handling guidelines, telling the officers what he was doing, they could cover anything he wanted. Brennan told them the £30,000 was in his car. Charman went to get it. “I said, ‘It’s in there,” said Brennan. “And it was in a green Marks and Spencer Bag, and he opened it up and he went ‘Lovely’. ‘All right,’ he said, ‘I’ll be in touch with yer.' And that’s how I parted with the thirty grand . . . So they’ve been paid for their work to cover the job . . . everything was being covered as long as I stayed in with them guidelines, which I intended to do. I couldn’t foresee a problem and nor could they.”
DI Redgrave had told Brennan that he had contacted the FBI, who said it was believed the Texans were into gunrunning and other crimes, including money laundering. Brennan’s earlier information to DC Charman about British criminals involved in importing drugs was being acted on in an investigation code-named Operation Nightshade, and Redgrave now expanded this to include the Texans.’
[120] The last paragraph in this passage is interesting in the light of later events. As I shall show later, according to the media and Mr McKinlay, the Texans were not only into money laundering but also gun running. By the time of Mr McKinlay’s speech in 2000, the gun running had, so it was being said, become the most important aspect of Operation Nightshade. On the other hand, the view of the Met, as reported in the House of Commons, was that Operation Nightshade had nothing to do with gun running (see [106], above).
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[121] The book continues:
‘With permission, Redgrave activated a special Scotland Yard account in the name of a fake company, Switch On Enterprises. This account had been set up in 1989 with the then Midland Bank for use in covert police operations. Whoever decided on its name must have been enjoying themselves. SO, the first two initial letters, stand for the Scotland Yard unit running the account, Specialist Operations. When the third letter, E, is added, it represents a throwback to the wartime Special Operations Executive. A fake contract was faxed to the US confirming that Switch On Enterprises were Motorola distributors and registered in the British Virgin Islands. The contract referred to SOE supplying six thousand of the special mobiles, and appeared to be aimed at calming any concerns Sam Wang may have had about the deal.
Brennan summed up the position at that stage for Gaspar:
“It was a case that we were going to earn a lot of money. At that time the Americans were talking about a further million or a million and a half. They were talking colossal amounts of money, and it was looking like money laundering. This is why the Switch On account was set up . . . It wasn’t that we’re going to relieve them of 470 odd grand [the cost of the mobile phone deal] and that’s where it’s going to stop. It was going to go on and on, and the payments were just going to go on and on . . . You must understand that I was doing it with the support of these two officers. I couldn’t do nothing wrong . . . It was their aim to have what we’ve had, and to cover for me for what I was having, or my part of it . . . We definitely believed that the FBI had proved that these were crooks and this money was a money-laundering operation from America to turn bad money into good . . . It was a total utter scam from start to finish.”’
[122] The emphasised passage is not easy to follow. Brennan is saying that ‘we believed’ it was a money-laundering operation but that also it, presumably the theft, was ‘a total utter scam’. In a part of the judgment of Gray J which looks at the defence of a balanced account of material in the public domain (see [119]ff) and precedes the reasons why the judge rejected the defence of responsible journalism, the judge criticises McLagan for not saying that Brennan lied to Gaspar when he said that the Wangs were dishonest. That criticism did not appear in the pleaded case but arose out of cross-examination. It could be, of course, that Brennan was led to believe by Charman and Redgrave that the Wangs were dishonest and, as Miss Page points out, the assertion that the Wangs were dishonest was a fact relied on by Redgrave and Charman at the time of Brennan’s arrest and during the public debate thereafter.
[123] The book continues:
‘Gaspar pointed out to Brennan that there would inevitably have come a time when Wang would have realised he had been defrauded. Brennan replied: “It was a case of how long you could play it out for . . . The fanny would go on till eventually Wang would go to Hong Kong and wait for the shipment to arrive and it was never going to fucking arrive. It was as simple as that.”
Once the £400,000 had arrived, Brennan took precautionary steps to avoid being found by the Chinese-American businessman. He quit his mobile-phone shop and moved house, turning up at his solicitor’s with a
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suitcase containing £137,000 in cash to buy a new home. His plans seemed to be working. Wang did go to Hong Kong, but when the phones did not arrive he became increasingly concerned and flew to England to find out what had happened. Eventually, in October 1993, unable to trace Brennan, he reported what had happened to Kent police, in whose county Brennan’s mobile-phone shop had been located.
Brennan told Gaspar that he expected help from Redgrave and Charman if he was ever questioned or arrested over the theft of Wang’s money:
“I done everything what they told me to do. They knew what the game was and what the plan was. You know, you can’t relieve someone of four hundred odd thousand pounds and just walk away from it. I knew there was going to be problems and John [Redgrave] always said to me, ‘Don’t worry about it.' I said, ‘Look, John, what happens when the curtain does come down? What’s going to happen?' He said, ‘Don’t worry about it . . . if the time comes that you are nicked or pulled in, or it’s put to yer, just mention my name. I will get this docket [police file] and I will sit down with these people. If I’ve got to sit down with the CPS, don’t worry. You’ve done everything by the guidelines. You’ve not got to worry about this.’”
Brennan said he had continued to assist Redgrave in the police money-laundering investigation but he was arrested in November 1993. He told Gaspar that he had asked for Redgrave, but he had been locked up overnight. “I’m in the fucking shit here . . . I quite expected the door to open up and just be told, ‘OK, fair enough, you go.' It never worked like that. It just turned into an absolute fucking nightmare.”
To what extent Brennan knew of the efforts Redgrave had made behind the scenes when talking to Gaspar is unclear. In fact, police records show that, when arrested, Brennan had asked for help from DS Chris Smith, his original handler and the officer who later introduced him to Gaspar. The records go on to reveal that the arresting Kent officers were later told by Redgrave that Brennan was an informant and that their enquiries were putting him and others at risk. Despite this intervention, the Kent police investigation into the alleged mobile fraud continued, however, and a report was sent to the CPS. Still working on the money-laundering investigation, Redgrave again stepped in, telling a CPS official of Brennan’s informant status and of a bank account established by the police. The move appeared to have halted the CPS action, but a high-ranking SERCS officer, suspicious about events, instituted another investigation by a police financial specialist. This was still continuing when Gaspar first met Brennan in June 1994.’
[124] There are a number of important points to be made about Brennan’s account to Gaspar as set out in this long passage in the book.
[125] First, at Brennan’s trial for theft, the prosecution sought to rely on the contents of the tapes as evidence that he had stolen the money and that the officers had agreed to give him a cover story for money. In other words the prosecution took the view that Brennan was telling the truth on the tapes. The judge ruled the evidence inadmissible because of the absence of a caution.
[126] Secondly, it is to be noted that Brennan was telling Gaspar that Redgrave had given Brennan a story to ‘cover’ the theft—namely that Brennan had been approached by some Americans to launder money and that Brennan had authority to act as a participating informant (that is, an informant who actually participates in the money-laundering scheme whilst giving information). I shall
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show later how that story is repeated in 2000 by Mr McKinlay in the House of Commons and how close that story is to the story that Brennan was eventually to rely upon at his trial.
[127] Thirdly, in so far as the money allegedly handed over by Brennan to the officers, the chronology shows that Brennan did withdraw £10,000 in cash on 3 September. The first tranche of money from Wang (£95,000) was due to enter Brennan’s bank account that day, but it was returned by the bank and only finally received on 10 September 1993. During the course of Brennan’s subsequent trial for theft, Mr Latham QC, prosecuting counsel, put to Brennan in cross-examination that this amount had been paid by him to Charman that day at the Oval, Sidcup. He also put to Brennan in cross-examination that he handed over another £10,000 cash at the Travel Lodge in South Mimms on 17 September 1993. He also put that two or three days after the South Mimms meeting, Brennan gave Charman and Redgrave a third tranche of money, cash in the sum of £30,000. Brennan, unsurprisingly, denied these allegations.
[128] During the course of the Brennan trial evidence was given about what were said to be unusual movements of money. According to the book—
‘Gaspar also revealed the results of a secret investigation he had ordered into possible irregularities in the two officers’ financial affairs. He said this showed that Redgrave had received unexplained income, over and above his Met police salary. In Charman’s case, an unusual spending pattern had started in October 1993, coinciding with the time Brennan had claimed to have paid over the £50,000 bribe.’
[129] Fourthly the chronology shows what happened at the time of Brennan’s arrest. Brennan was arrested on 12 November 1993 and questioned at Welling Police Station in relation to the Wang fraud allegation by Det Con Inglis of Bexleyheath. He was released next day on bail. This was followed by Redgrave and, the appellants say, Charman meeting Bexleyheath officers who were told that Brennan was a very important informant involved in a current operation; the moneys involved in the theft allegations were obtained as a result of criminal activity; that there were covert police accounts set up in the undercover operation; that if the theft inquiry was pursued it would put both the informant and undercover officers at risk; and asking for the inquiries to be put on hold. Redgrave was to produce documentation that demonstrated the necessity for this course of action, but the documentation he produced did not ‘remotely’ corroborate what he was saying. The respondent does not dispute the accuracy of these entries in the appellants’ chronology but comments:
‘Put to Inglis that Charman was there and he says he “believe(s) so”.
McKenzie does not mention Charman being there.
McLagan was not present on this day and no evidence that he was aware of this at the time of publication.’
According to the transcript Redgrave told Det Sgt McKenzie of Bexleyheath police station (the senior officer to Det Con Inglis) that ‘Tom and Sam Wang were criminals and the missing cash was from a police account’ but the documentation he produced to support this did not ‘remotely’ corroborate what he was saying. According to Det Con Inglis, Redgrave said that the moneys involved in these theft allegations made by the Wangs ‘had been obtained as a result of criminal activity’.
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[130] In my view what happened at Bexleyheath is important. To what criminal activity by the Wangs was Redgrave referring? Was this the truth or was it the cover story? If it was the truth why did the documentation not remotely corroborate what was being said by Redgrave? If the FBI had confirmed to Redgrave that those involved in the transfer of money to Brennan were involved in money laundering or worse, why could Redgrave not prove that to the Bexleyheath officers? If Brennan was genuinely informing on the Wangs, would it not be so easy to demonstrate that?
[131] At the trial Brennan was to say that on his arrest at Bexleyheath police station he gave three names to his solicitor and Det Con Inglis: Redgrave, Charman and Smith. He wanted to find out how it was that he was being arrested having at all times acted under police authority. According to Brennan, Redgrave assured him that he would sort the matter out.
[132] According to the chronology on 22 February 1994 Redgrave and DS Kelly met Mrs Jennifer Terry of the CPS regarding the Brennan investigation. It was to Mrs Terry that the papers had been sent by the Bexleyheath police, according to the evidence of Det Sgt Maul (Maul) at the Brennan trial (a detective constable when he took over the investigation).
[133] According to the chronology, on 4 March 1994, the investigation into the theft was transferred from Bexleyheath to the South East Regional Crime Squad (SERCS) and Dept Supt McCullough (McCullough) told Maul to reinvestigate the theft allegation (Operation Triangle) and report only to him and Commander Penrose.
[134] McCullough, it could be said, must have had concerns that those who were apparently investigating Brennan’s ‘information’ said to be about money laundering etc should not know about the progress of the investigation into the theft. This was, it will be remembered, three months before Brennan spoke to Gaspar. Notwithstanding McCullough’s order, Redgrave, according to the chronology, made immediate representations to Maul and continued to do so, with a view to avoiding a prosecution of Brennan. The respondent comments on these entries on the chronology as follows:
‘Redgrave’s explanation set out in [Russell, Jones and Walker’s] letter to BBC dated 19.3.02 (R2/11).
Maul explains that Redgrave told him that he wanted to avoid prosecution because of the work Brennan was doing (App4/B/8/211B). Maul does not suggest that Redgrave was acting improperly.’
[135] According to Maul at the Brennan trial, Redgrave was seeking to avoid any prosecution of Brennan because of ‘the work [Brennan] was doing for the police service’.
[136] The 19 March 2002 letter from Russell, Jones and Walker to the BBC, to which the respondent refers, is a letter written on behalf of Redgrave to the BBC complaining about a news item in the form of a report from McLagan following the conviction of Brennan in April 2001. According to the letter, in the course of Operation Nightshade, Brennan had informed his handlers that he had been approached by Texan gangsters with Chinese connections to assist in the proceeds of money laundering through the United Kingdom. Brennan had also informed his handlers that the Texans had asked Brennan to connect them with arms buyers and Brennan had been used to introduce an undercover police officer posing as an Irish terrorist. Unknown to his handlers he was
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‘simultaneously engaged with the Texans in the fraud which would ultimately result in the theft conviction at the Old Bailey’. ‘Briefly, this consisted in persuading Chinese connections of the Texans named Wang that Brennan could supply large quantities of mobile phones’. Brennan received the £400,000 but did not supply the phones. The letter continues:
‘Even before Brennan was interviewed at Bexleyheath, his dealings with the Texans had been fully reported on by our client with a view to investigation. But Brennan was still needed as a contact and source of information for Operation Nightshade and the arms investigation.’ (My emphasis.)
[137] The letter continues by stating that ‘for vital operational reasons’ Redgrave asked senior management to hand over the theft investigation to an ‘independent financial investigator’, namely Maul.
[138] It is important to note that this letter was written after the conviction of Brennan for theft. The letter (so it seems to me) is giving a very different account of what happened from the account which had been given by Mr McKinlay. The emphasised passage suggests that the £400,000 theft was known to Redgrave before Brennan’s arrest to be a quite separate scam by Brennan on the Wangs using his role as an informant on money laundering by the Wangs and the Texans as a cover. Redgrave had reported this scam for investigation. Even if this is a misreading of the letter, it would seem to follow from the letter (if true) that Redgrave must have known or suspected strongly shortly after Brennan’s arrest that Brennan was involved in his own separate scam on the Wangs. If Redgrave and Charman did not know before Brennan’s arrest that he had stolen £400,000 it seems likely, to say the least, that they would have known when they learnt the facts of the alleged offence.
[139] It is worth comparing this letter with the evidence of the Bexleyheath officers as to what Redgrave was saying to them at the time of Brennan’s arrest. At that time the Wangs were being described as criminals and the £400,000 was being said to have been obtained by them in the course of criminal activity. According to the letter the £400,000 had apparently been obtained by Brennan as part of a quite separate and reported scam. If that is true why were the officers not told this? Why were the officers not told that Brennan had deceived his handler when he stole the £400,000? Why were the officers not told that the theft of £400,000 had come as a complete surprise to Redgrave and Charman?
[140] We were also referred by Miss Page to a letter dated 30 March 2004 sent after the publication of the book by Russell, Jones and Walker (and therefore inadmissible if the defence of responsible journalism is to be determined as at the date of the publication of the hardback) in which it is said that Brennan had informed his handlers that he had been approached by Texan gangsters to assist in laundering the proceeds of organised crime and to connect them with arms buyers. Unknown to his handlers he had been simultaneously involved in the theft (using the money laundering as cover). At the time of his arrest, Brennan’s dealings with the Texans (ie the theft so it appears) had been monitored and reported on by Redgrave with a view to investigation, but Brennan was still needed as a contact and source of information for Operation Nightshade and the arms investigation.
[141] The letter continues:
‘For vital operational reasons, when Mr Redgrave learned of the local police investigation he made representations to his senior management that
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the investigation into the mobile telephone fraud should be made the responsibility of an experienced independent financial investigator from within SERCS with access to full information about Operation Nightshade. The result was the ensuing investigation by Detective Constable Maul, supervised by Detective Superintendent McCullough.’
[142] Miss Page compares that with a passage in the book and the judge’s finding thereon (to which I return later). In the book McLagan had written (p 233):
‘At the pre-trial hearing, Gaspar made two new important disclosures of evidence coming from his investigation. He said he had learned that the separate inquiry into Wang’s allegations of theft had been taken over by SERCS, which was an unusual move as that elite group of detectives was not normally involved in such investigations.’
The judge decided ([2007] 1 All ER 622 at [144]):
‘. . . Whilst it is factually correct that the inquiry into Wang’s allegations of theft had been taken over by SERCS, there was nothing unusual or sinister about it . . .’
[143] According to the chronology in June 2004—
‘Maul travelled to the US (preceded by a request from Redgrave to delay the trip because of an operation of which he was in charge that Maul should not compromise by any inquiries. He interviewed Wang Hu (the principal loser) and a man called Hong (who was also involved) and obtained statements from them on 23 June and saw also the banks involved in the money transfer and others involved as alleged criminal associates of Wangs . . .’
[144] I have not been able to find this reference. (I have to confess I have found navigating the bundles a particularly difficult feature of this case.) I am not sure who is alleging that the Wangs had criminal associates. Presumably Redgrave and/or Brennan.
[145] On 22 July 1994 Maul, whilst in the United States on the Wang inquiry, was transferred from SERCS to Heathrow. According to the chronology Redgrave in August 1994 ‘continued to make contact with Maul’.
[146] According to the chronology, in February 1996 Brennan was repeating to Gaspar his allegations that he had paid money to Redgrave and Charman.
[147] On 6 November 1996 Brennan was re-arrested by Maul for the theft from Wang. It is agreed that the records show that, at the time of his arrest, Brennan’s solicitor said:
‘My name is John Wood. I am an authorised representative of Graham Dobson & Co solicitors. I am required to explain my role here; it is to protect my client’s basic and legal rights. I can continue to advise him throughout the interview. He has received legal advice. I have reminded him of his right to silence . . . He further instructs me that he has already been interviewed at some length on tape by CS Gaspar of CID in May 1994 and given a full account of these events. In these circumstances my client has decided, on my advice, that he has nothing more to say . . .’
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[148] The respondent (who originally denied in para 36.1 of the reply that this had been said) accepts that this passage was read out in court. He disputes that McLagan was in court when it was read out or knew about it at the time of publication. Miss Page submits that McLagan knew this and was present in court on 22 February 1996 when the verbatim wording of the solicitor’s statement on Brennan’s arrest in November 1996 was repeated by Mr Latham in the course of legal submissions.
[149] This was very important evidence, one might think. Brennan at this stage, on re-arrest, was confirming that he had stolen the money and was saying that he had done so with the connivance of Redgrave and Charman, to whom he had paid money. To the extent that he was asking for Smith at this stage (a matter relied upon by the respondent), this would be understandable against the background of Brennan’s acceptance at that stage of the truth of what he had told Gaspar in the presence of Smith.
[150] In the book the arrest is described in this way (p 179):
‘It culminated in his arrest in November 1996. Although he had admitted on tape to stealing the £400,000, when charged he replied: “I am not guilty of this offence. At all times I acted with the knowledge of the Metropolitan Police as part of a police operation . . . Prior to attending here [a police station] I had protection status. That’s now changed. My family are in jeopardy.”’
[151] The book continues:
‘Shortly after this declaration, [Brennan] said he approached Charman for help, and told the officer that he and Redgrave had been under CIB investigation for more than two years.’
[152] On 20 November Brennan did visit Charman at his home.
[153] As the book describes, Det Supt Coles (Coles) now in charge of the Brennan allegations against Charman and Redgrave had doubts about Brennan (pp 179, 180).
[154] Brennan, knowing that he was to be tried for the theft from Wang, then went on the attack. According to the book (p 180):
‘. . . the clever Brennan, worried after being charged, counter-attacked on two fronts, muddying the situation even further.
First, he contacted the Police Complaints Authority to withdraw his allegations against Redgrave and Charman. He claimed he had been put up to blackening the pair by his old handler, the Flying Squad detective sergeant Chris Smith. He said that Smith had “had it in” for Redgrave and Charman since the 1980s, when all three had worked on the huge Brink’s-Mat robbery inquiry. Smith strongly denied both claims, but Brennan also alleged that Smith and other officers had been moon-lighting for a private security company he was running, and he issued a complaint against Gaspar too. His claims meant there would have to be a fresh inquiry into the whole affair, and that his prosecution for the theft would have to be postponed.’
[155] As the chronology shows, on 29 January Brennan withdrew his allegations against Charman and Redgrave and made complaints against other officers including Smith in a letter to John Cartwright of the Police Complaints Authority.
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[156] According to the chronology:
‘Brennan refused to pursue, or co-operate with the investigation by Operation Cornwall of his allegations against Smith whilst using the press in 1997 and 1998 publicly to discredit Smith . . .’
[157] The book continues (p 180):
‘. . . Brennan also set out to cause Scotland Yard maximum embarrassment, aiming to have the case against him dropped altogether. Just days after contacting the Police Complaints Authority he approached the Mirror, which ran a story under the headline “Bent Coppers Shopped Me To Gangsters”. It said: “Brennan joined a huge undercover operation to trap American mobsters who wanted to sell Ulster Protestant terrorists an arsenal of machine guns and explosives. Plans were made to switch cash to a secret police bank account while Brennan introduced an undercover cop into the crooked American cartel.” Brennan was quoted as saying: “I risked my life to help the police with some of the most important cases of recent years. Now I am being thrown to the wolves.”’ (My emphasis.)
[158] The emphasised passage is very similar to what Mr McKinlay was to say in the House of Commons in 2000.
[159] This is what McLagan had to say in his witness statement about the story in the Mirror:
‘An article was published in The Mirror on 7 February 1997 entitled “Bent Coppers shopped me to gangsters” (Defence §5.19). It reported claims to the newspaper by Brennan that he was a police informer who had been betrayed and left to the mercy of villains, including Kenneth Noye, with his Scotland Yard files being leaked to some of London’s most dangerous gangsters. It was claimed that the betrayal had taken place during the course of an undercover operation against organised crime involving a plot by Texas-based crooks to launder huge sums of money through Brennan’s bank accounts in London and the Channel Islands. The American “mobsters” were said to want to sell Ulster Protestant terrorists an arsenal of machine guns and explosives, the purpose of the operation being to trap the criminals involved. It was reported that the activities of a number of detectives, three of high rank, were being investigated, some of whom dealt with informants. It was said that Brennan had complained to the PCA that officers abandoned him after the leak of his informant file.’
[160] The book continues:
‘The day the Mirror published the story, Redgrave and Charman were suspended, their homes having been raided three days before. From the outset the pair have denied receiving money from Brennan, or indeed, any corruption at all. The two also denied involvement with newspapers at that time.’
[161] Charman and Redgrave were in fact suspended on respectively 4 and 7 February 1997. Thereafter, as the Home Secretary was to say later in the House of Commons, both Charman and Redgrave immediately reported sick.
[162] The book did not mention that Redgrave and Charman invoked their right not to answer any questions about the Brennan allegations to the
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investigators. The book did make it clear that they ‘strenuously denied all allegations of wrongdoing’ ‘from the outset’ (pp 49, 180).
[163] In his witness statement McLagan said (para 48):
‘At the time of writing the relevant section of the book I thought the article’s publication so soon after the suspensions of Redgrave and Charman was unlikely to be mere coincidence and more likely the product of some collusion between Redgrave, Charman and Brennan.’
[164] He went on to say:
‘I have subsequently been told by Jeff Edwards, the author of the Mirror article, that Redgrave approached him about a week after the article wanting to explain his side of the story.’
[165] This information from Edwards came to him after the publication of the book (I believe) and therefore has to be ignored at least when considering the defence of responsible journalism as at the date of the publication of the hardback edition.
[166] The book goes on (pp 180, 181):
‘But Brennan himself approached the Sunday Times, claiming that detectives had pressurised him into incriminating innocent police officers. The resulting story, splashed on 2 March across the newspaper’s front page, with a further whole page inside, confused the picture even more. Under the headline “Yard Loses £m in Mafia Arms Sting”, it related how two Scotland Yard detectives had been suspended over the disappearance of nearly £500,000 from a secret police bank account, set up to stop the American Mafia selling weapons to an Irish terrorist gang. The newspaper said it had seen hundreds of pages of intelligence documents “at the heart of one of the most sensitive policing operations in recent history”. Although the newspaper did not name Redgrave and Charman, it said they were claiming to have been the victims of the Met’s zealous anti-corruption campaign. “They say that everything they did—including placing money, which they believed to have been stolen or earned from drugs sales, into the secret police account in London—was approved by senior officers.”’
[167] In his witness statement McLagan wrote:
‘51. In addition to the statements attributed to the suspended officers, the Sunday Times claimed to have seen hundreds of pages of intelligence documents outlining “the scandal at the heart of one of the most sensitive policing operations in recent history”. The newspaper purported to be in possession of detailed operational information about Nightshade, including information about meetings involving police officers working undercover. It appeared from the face of the article that the newspaper had a source or sources from within the police who had been closely connected with Nightshade and I thought it very likely that the suspended officers had been involved, directly or indirectly, in this information, along with their side of the story being provided to the Sunday Times, in addition to the involvement of Brennan.
52. The coverage continued on the inside with the headline “Deadly Nightshade” and with the trailer:
“Scotland Yard mounted one of its most daring undercover investigations to stop the mafia from supplying arms to Irish terrorists. But Operation
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Nightshade had ended in a corruption inquiry that is shaking the Metropolitan police.”
Detailed operational information was given and it was again repeated that the two suspended officers:
“say they reported every detail of the way the money was handed to their superiors at the time”.’
[168] The book then refers to a second Sunday Times article in August 1997 (p 181):
‘[Brennan] was the main source for a second Sunday Times story in August which said that Scotland Yard detectives were earning tens of thousands of pounds moonlighting as private eyes, illegally bugging members of the public, and selling highly sensitive police secrets. Brennan was pleased that the newspaper singled out Chris Smith in its front-page story; “Chris Smith worked for Brennan while a detective sergeant on the Flying Squad. According to Brennan, Smith was paid £100 a day for his help during a three-month spying operation on a private house in Sussex . . . They placed miniature bugs in holes drilled through a downstairs window and connected them to voice-activated tape recorders.” Brennan told the newspaper that Smith had used police equipment during his moonlighting, which had earned him £20,000–30,000. In a later story, Brennan was quoted as having decided to speak out about corruption because he was being unfairly targeted by police officers; “It’s a vendetta. They are trying to silence me by making trumped-up charges. I’m being persecuted because of the information I have . . .”’
[169] As to this article McLagan in his witness statement wrote:
‘57. The Sunday Times article, containing this highly damaging story involving Smith, was published just days before Smith, by then retired, was called as a witness at the Old Bailey trial of David James Phillips. Phillips faced charges of armed robbery and Smith had played a part in the surveillance that led to Phillips’ arrest. It emerged on cross-examination of Smith by Phillips’ defence lawyers, that they had been put in possession of detailed information about Smith moonlighting for Brennan and allegedly accepting money corruptly from him. There was a prolonged attack upon Smith in cross-examination for which I was present in Court (Defence §5.23). It appeared that the Defence had been provided with information that could only have been provided, directly or indirectly, by Brennan, presumably with a motive to discredit Smith, for his own benefit or that of others.’
[170] McLagan then refers (in para 58) to information which he received (I believe) following publication and continues in para 59 to say that Redgrave was in contact with Martin Short, who attended the Old Bailey hearing in the Phillips case. Short told McLagan that he had been introduced to Redgrave and Charman. He then writes: ‘More recently Short has told me that he had four meetings with both Redgrave and Charman around this time.’
[171] It is not clear to me whether this information came to him before or after publication. In para 37.1 of the reply the respondent admits that he met the journalists Leppard and Short during the Phillips trial.
[172] A further article was published by the Sunday Times on 1 February 1998. According to the chronology—
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‘Sunday Times “Yard officers sold secrets to criminals”. Second major attack on Smith, on the eve of a trial, unrelated to Brennan or Nightshade, where he was to be a prosecution witness.’
In the words of Gray J (at [36]): ‘. . . On 1 February 1998 an article appeared in The Sunday Times accusing him of having taken thousands of pounds in bribes from Brennan.’
[173] The book goes on to report that Senior Treasury Counsel, Nigel Sweeney, ‘eventually concluded’ in early 1998 (p 182) that without the co-operation of Brennan there could be no prosecution of Charman and Redgrave.
[174] The book then describes an investigation into both them and Debbie Cahill, a Crown Prosecution Service employee and friend of Charman. ‘Coles concluded that Cahill was trying to gather material for Charman [about Smith] with which to discredit the CIB investigation’ into Charman and Redgrave (p 182). A sting operation was mounted. All three were arrested on 16 July 1998 at Cahill’s home in Essex to which she had invited Charman and Redgrave. Criminal charges against the three of them were subsequently dismissed in May 1999 at the preliminary stage although the information gathered led to successful disciplinary proceedings against Redgrave and Charman.
[175] On 4 March 2000 according to the chronology:
‘Guardian, “Corruption squad under fire”, “Officers tell of lives destroyed”, “Internal inquiries that would haunt police” and “Stings Flaws undermine CIB’s covert operations against officers”.’
[176] McLagan summarised the article in his witness statement:
‘65. Gillard and Flynn’s front page story in The Guardian of 4 March 2000 contained a major critical review of the Met’s achievements (or lack thereof) and methods in tackling corruption, reporting that the CIB was itself the subject of three inquiries because of allegations over the way it operated, allegedly using discredited methods to pursue serving and former police officers. Elsewhere in the coverage of that edition, it appeared that at least two of the three inquiries that were being referred to in the article arose out of CIB’s handling of Redgrave and Charman. The article gave a range of statistics for officers suspended, charged and convicted.
66. The coverage continued on the inside with a big story, occupying most of page 8, headlined “Corruption in the Met—Officers tell of lives destroyed”. This was a detailed case history of Redgrave and Charman, as two officers who had been targeted by CIB and had their lives destroyed. Redgrave was quoted telling the Guardian:
“I have been suspended in relation to a complaint that is six years old. This has caused the complete destruction of every aspect of my personal and professional life, friends, financial security, family, marriage, career and reputation . . . The building blocks of life have all gone with no hope of recovery.”
Redgrave and Charman were pictured at the top of the page apparently posing together for a photograph to accompany the Guardian’s coverage of their story.
67. Gillard and Flynn reported, as if it were fact, that Brennan, in his capacity as a police informant handled by Charman, had been involved by Texan-based
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criminals in a money-laundering scam and asked if he could find a buyer for arms worth millions of dollars. He was then authorised to introduce to the Texans two British undercover officers posing as representatives of Protestant terrorists from Northern Ireland. They said that at a delicate stage in the arms negotiations the operation began to fall apart when Brennan in August 1993 was charged with the theft of £400,000, money that had been deposited in his business account by the Texan gang as part of their money-laundering scam. The operation, which had cost millions of pounds, collapsed with no arrests.
68. They went on to relate that Brennan confessed to the theft in interviews with Gaspar and also claimed to have “bunged” Redgrave and Charman £50,000 to turn a blind eye. There was background information about the careers in the Met of Redgrave and Charman. There were quotes from testimonials to the two officers by other police officers, speaking of their dedication and honesty. The article reported that the Guardian had spoken at length to Brennan. The events that followed Brennan telling Charman, that he and Redgrave were under investigation for corruption were described as having “[rocked] CIB to its core”.
69. Gillard and Flynn also referred to reports seen by the Guardian that Charman and Redgrave had written to senior officers on learning that they were under investigation for corruptly receiving money from Brennan. Charman and Redgrave were reported telling the Guardian that they had received no response to those reports. Gillard and Flynn also said the Guardian had been provided with correspondence written by lawyers acting for Charman and Redgrave to CIB and the PCA.’
[177] McLagan then turns to the role of Smith:
‘70. The connection between Smith (the subject of the cross-examination at the Phillips trial as being in a corrupt financial relationship with Brennan) and the Redgrave and Charman affair, was also revealed in the Guardian article. The implication of the account was that Smith had procured Brennan to make false corruption allegations against Redgrave and Charman. Gillard and Flynn reported Brennan saying that Smith, who had been his handler for 20 years, had been “moonlighting” for Brennan and that Brennan had been “rehearsed” by Smith before making the allegations to Gaspar in June 1994 of a £50,000 payment to them. In a passage for which I deduced Charman was the source, it was said that in 1985 Charman and his Inspector at the time had formally reported Smith for being in a corrupt relationship with Brennan. It was suggested that Smith might even have been a covert CIB officer at the relevant time (in the mid-1990’s). The implication was that Smith had procured Brennan to make false allegations against Redgrave and Charman to exact revenge against Charman for reporting him in 1985, or as part of an unlawful plot by CIB falsely to implicate Redgrave and Charman in a corruption scandal. (My emphasis.)
[178] McLagan continues:
‘71. It seemed obvious at the time that much of the information in this article, not just the incident in which Charman is said to have reported Smith in 1985, must have come from and/or been confirmed by Redgrave and Charman; or that it had come from others, authorised by Redgrave and Charman to speak to the Guardian journalists on their behalf or in promotion of their cause. There were references
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to documents, in particular the reports and correspondence that I have referred to above, that a reader would naturally infer, as did I, had been made available to the journalists by Redgrave and Charman or by others with their authority.
72. This represented another very prominent item of press coverage of their cause to which both they and Brennan appeared to have contributed. This impression was strongly reinforced by the photograph of Redgrave and Charman that appeared to have been taken of them posing for the purpose of the article.
73. My impression at the time has since been confirmed by Charman who has conceded this much, in para 11.1(3) of his Reply, that “he was approached by Gillard and gave his version of events.” . . .
76. Not only had Redgrave and Charman obviously, on the face of the article, participated in its preparation, along with Brennan . . .’ (My emphasis.)
[179] It seems to me that a responsible journalist would be entitled to draw the conclusion that the respondent was behind the attack on Smith.
[180] It can be seen that the story, apparently being put forward by Charman directly or indirectly, was that Brennan, in his capacity as a police informant handled by Charman, had been involved by Texan-based criminals in a money-laundering scam and that the £400,000 had been deposited in Brennan’s business account by the Texan gang as part of their money-laundering scam. That was what Mr McKinlay was to say later in 2000. The story is suggesting if not saying that Brennan was innocent. There is no reference to Brennan deceiving Charman and Redgrave by carrying out his own independent scam, as the letter of 19 March 2002 says that he had (see [138], above).
[181] On 11 March 2000 another article appeared in The Guardian. According to The Guardian:
‘One of Operation Nightshade’s most promising lines of enquiry concerned an illegal arms deal via Sierra Leone. It was on-going when Brennan claimed to have given Mr Redgrave and Mr Charman 50,000 to turn a blind eye to a theft. He later withdrew the allegation . . .
Both detectives now hope that a judicial enquiry will uncover whether they were the victims of a plot by the intelligence services to undermine Operation Nightshade and protect its targets, in particular a US-based gang of arms dealers who were never arrested . . .
Confidential Met and US customs documents seen by the Guardian . . . contradict claims by CIB and sections of the Met that the arms deal was not genuine but designed to cover the two officers’ corruption.’ (My emphasis.)
[182] In his witness statement McLagan underlined the word ‘Both’ in the penultimate paragraph and wrote:
‘82. In the passage above I have emphasised the word “Both” because, in his Reply at para 16.1(3), Charman has disassociated himself from the claims made publicly through McKinlay and the Guardian that he and Redgrave believed themselves to be the victims of a plot by the intelligence services. A reader of the Guardian article would not have detected any disassociation of Charman from that claim, and neither did I.
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83. It was my impression at the time, and would have been that of anyone following the case, that Gillard, Flynn and Mckinlay were speaking out publicly about Redgrave and Charman with their authority and, indeed, at their request or with their approval. McKinlay, in particular, would not have taken up the case in the House of Commons unless his constituent wanted him to so do. He would not have acted adversely to or to the embarrassment of his constituent. There was no apparent distancing of Charman from McKinlay’s Parliamentary activity. On the contrary, the dossier released to me by McKinlay showed that Millar was in communication with McKinlay and that McKinlay had been provided with copies of letters written by and on behalf of Charman, as well as Redgrave, containing their complaints about the investigations against them.’
[183] In this passage McLagan is implicitly at least drawing comparisons between what was being written in the media and what Mr McKinlay had to say.
[184] McLagan goes on to note that Charman’s brother-in-law, Mr G Millar (Millar), wrote a letter in August 2000 to the Met. According to McLagan:
‘84. . . . Millar emphatically denied that either Redgrave or Charman had any part in any press article published during the period of their suspension until they were advised that no further action was to be taken against them in relation to the Brennan allegations, that is to say, from February 1997 until early December 1999. I read this at the time with some disbelief because of what had been published in the Sunday Times (see paras 49 to 57 above) and the information I had received from Short about his meetings with them around that time (see [59], above).’
[185] I would add to that. The similarities with what Mr McKinlay was to say later in the year suggest that Redgrave and Charman did have something to do with these press articles.
[186] On 12 March 2000 the News of the World wrote: ‘The destruction of the lives and careers of honest detectives John Redgrave and Michael Charman is described as “sickening” by their colleagues.’
[187] The book describes how Redgrave and Charman, gravely dissatisfied with their treatment at the hands of the Met, sought help from MPs. According to the book (pp 231, 232):
‘Redgrave and Charman and the other complainants wanted what they called a full, independent investigation into their allegations, conducted by a senior officer from an outside force. Frustrated with the Met’s refusal to call in another force and its insistence on carrying out its own investigation, they sought help from MPs, among them Andrew McKinlay, Redgrave’s own MP. In the early part of 2000, he tabled a series of parliamentary questions about the cases and the cost of CIB investigations. In July he and other MPs who had expressed interest in anti-corruption work received letters from the Met Commissioner, Sir John Stevens, inviting them to intelligence briefings which would last about two hours and include question-and-answer sessions. McKinlay declined what he said was a wholly improper offer, one which, if he had taken it up, he believed would have precluded him from pursuing his constituent’s case.
Certainly, in his account of the affair to Parliament in October 2000, McKinlay spent the fifteen minutes allowed him under the adjournment
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debate slot to attack the Met and, in particular, CIB. Using parliamentary privilege, which meant he could not be sued for defamation, McKinlay said he wanted the debate because he was seeking “an end to the agony and unfairness of the inordinate suspension of my constituent”.
He continued: “there has been widespread misfeasance at the highest level in the Metropolitan Police. I again demand a full judicial inquiry into Operation Nightshade [the gun-running and money-laundering investigation mounted by Redgrave and Charman] and the consequent malevolence and corrupt practice of those who served, and serve, in the CIB against my constituent and other officers.” Referring to Redgrave’s claim that CIB were not interested in following up his allegations of a police cover-up over the Stephen Lawrence murder investigation, McKinlay said: “The CIB is riddled with people who want to stop further light being shed on those relationships.” He described the disciplinary charges against Redgrave as “a nonsense” and claimed that the CIB commander, Andy Hayman, was “refusing to take the counter-complaint seriously”.
Replying to the onslaught, the Home Office minister, Charles Clarke, declared he supported the way the Met was dealing with corrupt officers. He said he was unable to comment on Redgrave and Charman’s particular case, but on the question of delays in the disciplinary procedures he pointed out that when the pair were suspended they immediately reported sick. A disciplinary board had been arranged for early 2001, but because their lawyers were not available then, the hearing had to be put back to 2002.’
[188] McLagan wrote this in his witness statement about the complaints being made by Charman and Redgrave:
‘61. Following the dismissal of the charges against Charman, Redgrave and Cahill (Defence §5.26), both officers made complaints against the Met in which very strong criticisms were made of Coles (Defence §5.27–§5.30). I became aware of this later, following the trial of Brennan, when McKinlay released to me a dossier of documents setting out their complaints against and criticisms of the CIB investigation of them (see paragraphs 148 to 159 below). The documents in the dossier included those listed in the Defence at §5.27.1–§5.27.5, namely:
Letter from Charman dated 24 May 1999 to the Chief Constable (Complaints Dept), Essex Police;
Letter from Redgrave of 24 May 1000 to Commander Personnel, 1 Area Headquarters, Westminster Police Station;
Letter from Charman’s brother-in-law, Millar, of 16 November 1999 to McKinlay, enclosing the above letters together with a letter from Cahill to Essex Constabulary, dated 28 May 1999;
Letter from Millar to Deputy Assistant Commissioner Andrew Trotter, dated 30 December 1999; and
Letter from Millar to McKinlay of 8 June 2000 enclosing the above, as well as other correspondence involving Trotter, Commander Hayman and Commander James.
62. McKinlay was evidently authorised by Redgrave and Charman to release these documents to journalists in order to promote their cause and bring to the attention of the press and media their very strong criticisms and complaints against Met CIB officers. I gave considerable coverage to these
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criticisms and complaints in the book. In the absence of Redgrave and Charman’s preparedness to communicate with me themselves, McKinlay’s dossier was a valuable resource of balancing material (see paragraphs 148 to 159 below).’
[189] Mr McKinlay’s intervention in the House of Commons is, in my view, an important feature of the case. As Gray J said, it was Charman’s brother-in-law, Millar, who enlisted the assistance of Mr McKinlay. The MP had called on two earlier occasions for an independent inquiry. He then spoke at length on 31 October 2000 during an adjournment debate. I set out much of what he had to say in so far as it relates to this case (355 HC Official Report (6th series) cols 192wh–198wh):
‘I am pleased to introduce the debate, which relates primarily to my constituent, Detective Inspector John Redgrave . . .
My constituent has given 30 of his 46 years to the Metropolitan police. He has received numerous commendations for his diligent policing . . .
Obviously my constituent would have been heading for further promotion, but on 3 February 1997 his world crashed. The CIB broke into his house in the most traumatic circumstances, causing maximum embarrassment to his children and family . . .
I could produce much evidence of the tremendous trauma that my constituent has suffered . . .
In December last year my constituent was cleared, after more than six years of CIB investigation, yet he remains suspended and is still fighting to clear his name. I join him in doing so. I have referred to the depression that he endured. Also suspended was his subordinate Michael Charman, a detective constable. They have had to endure the suspension together. On 17 July 1998, to try to cheer up my constituent, who was suffering considerable psychiatric problems, Michael Charman and his girlfriend invited him to their house in Pitsea for dinner. We now know, because it has been documented, that their house had been bugged by the Complaints Investigation Bureau.
[There then follows an account of what happened that day and of the aftermath] . . .
My purpose in securing this debate is to seek an end to the agony and unfairness of the inordinate suspension of my constituent . . .
There has been widespread misfeasance at the highest level in the Metropolitan police. I again demand a full judicial inquiry into Operation Nightshade, with which my constituent was involved, and the consequent malevolence and corrupt practice of those who served and serve in the CIB against my constituent and other officers.
I want to halt Commander Hayman’s dilatory and partial handling of my constituent’s serious complaints of wrongdoing by John Coles and others in the CIB. I want responsibility for the investigation to be removed from the Police Complaints Authority. Commander Hayman should have investigated my constituent’s complaints, but is now demonstrably disqualified from doing so . . .
As I said, my constituent, Redgrave, was suspended on the basis of an allegation by a police informant [Brennan] that he had corruptly bunged my constituent stolen money from Operation Nightshade. My constituent was
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not advised that the allegation, made in June 1994, had been withdrawn. In fact, the informant withdrew it on 27 January 1997 . . .
We now know that there are no grounds for the continued suspension of my constituent or for the bugging probe at Michael Charman’s dinner. I believe that the warrants obtained for access during the raids were probably unlawful. Police procedures were certainly not followed. I hope that the Minister will investigate further. Despite all that, Detective Chief Superintendent John Coles, unprofessionally and with maximum spite and deceit, continues to traduce my constituent by making baseless accusations that he shared a £50,000 bung with another officer. When will it stop?
There is a serious political dimension to Operation Nightshade—an anglo-American police sting across three continents, costing millions of pounds. It started in June 1993 and a central figure was a registered police informant [Brennan] to whom I have already referred. He was handled by Detective Constable Michael Charman and my constituent was the senior investigating officer.
Operation Nightshade incorporated three elements—a planned cocaine shipment from Venezuela to the UK; a money laundering scam; and, most importantly, an illegal arms deal using Sierra Leone as a trans-shipment point. The British side included Customs and Excise; the south-east regional crime squad; SO10, the undercover outfit in Scotland Yard; and SO13, the anti-terrorism branch. The British worked closely with the Houston branch of United States Customs, the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms Branch of the US Treasury Department. All were in the loop.
The informant [Brennan] had been approached in 1993 by a Texan-based gang with an offer to sell arms. The Americans were in the car business and boasted high political connections in Texas, where they lived in opulent homes. Roger Crooks was one of the group and it transpires from my questions to the Foreign and Commonwealth Office that he met Peter Penfold, our high commissioner in Sierra Leone in recent times. It was Crooks who supplied the helicopter in the Sandline affair and he also runs the Mama Yoko hotel, the headquarters of the United Nations in Freetown.
The informant [Brennan] was asked whether he could find a buyer for a large quantity of arms worth millions of dollars. The weapons on offer included M16 assault rifles, grenade and rocket launchers, plastic explosives, mines and ammunition. Redgrave was notified and obtained further authorisation from several senior Scotland Yard commanders and their US counterparts to mount a well planned sting operation. The informant [Brennan] then helped to introduce the Texans to a British undercover officer from SO10, posing as a buyer for Northern Ireland Protestant terrorists. The weapons were to be stolen in part from an army base in the United States and shipped to Britain via Sierra Leone. Officers were particularly interested in finding out how Barratt sniper rifles were getting into Northern Ireland—at the cost of many British soldiers’ lives.
The sting operation was going well and undercover officers were gathering evidence against the American gang. After successfully bugging meetings in London and Houston, Redgrave’s team and US customs were poised to make arrests. Then something strange happened during the arms negotiations, which ultimately scuppered the operation. The informant was
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charged with theft of £400,000, which had been deposited in his account by the Texan gang as part of the laundering scam.
To keep Operation Nightshade on track, a financial investigator was appointed by the Metropolitan police to examine the informant’s business accounts.
Meanwhile my constituent redoubled his and his colleagues’ efforts to complete the sting and make the arrest. By autumn 1994, the American gang had backed off. Operation Nightshade, which cost millions of pounds, faded with no arrests on either side of the Atlantic. I would really like to know exactly how much it cost.
The informant [Brennan] disappeared and the theft charges against him were mysteriously dropped. Three years later, in February 1997, as anti-corruption officers raided my constituent’s home, it became clear that he and Charman had not escaped the shadow of Operation Nightshade. Subsequently, the CIB told Redgrave and Charman that the informant had been re-arrested for the alleged theft of money during Operation Nightshade. The anti-corruption squad also accused both detectives of turning a blind eye to the theft in return for £50,000. My constituents were not told that that allegation was subsequently withdrawn, which is disgraceful.
The CIB further claimed that in order to disguise the corrupt payment, Redgrave had duped his senior commanders and simply invented the arms deal. That is clearly untrue, as I have ascertained through parliamentary questions and other parliamentary activities. The protection or non-prosecution of people whom Redgrave and Charman tried to investigate through Operation Nightshade is important to understanding what happened to those two officers. That is especially the case when examining the targets connected with the plan to sell arms to two Met undercover officers posing as buyers for Northern Ireland terrorists. I greatly regret that the SO10 officers were not brought before the Select Committee on Foreign Affairs, but Members are well aware of our uphill struggle for transparency in that matter.
Confidential Met and United States police documents on the progress of their joint operation against the United States-based gang clearly showed that all the law enforcement officers involved believed that they were dealing with real gangsters offering an arms deal in return for millions of pounds.
In Redgrave’s report to his superior on 26 May 1994, he said that the current position was that Crooks had placed an order for arms, faxed exportation documents and received the undercover officers’ dummy end-user certificate. The report stated that the targets had also seen proof of purchase funds and Crooks had said on tape that the shipment was ready in a container for export within 30 days. Redgrave noted that the next stage would be to return to Houston to arrest the principals. In a memo from United States Customs dated 9 May 1994, special agent Leon Guinn said that the targets in Houston had repeatedly made incriminating statements over the arms deal in numerous telecommunications and in three meetings with undercover officers in London. Guinn continued:
“Investigation by the SAC—
special customs—
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in Houston has determined that the targets have made specific inquiries with US arms dealers . . . further, the co-conspirators have been recorded alluding to the undercover officers that some of the material requested by them will be taken from US military installations.”
Guinn ended by saying that the Government attorney handling the case had expressed “a desire to pursue prosecution of suspects” and believed conviction to be “very likely”.
In another south-east regional crime squad police report, Crooks is described as
“the head of the organisation, a high-profile fraudsman, diamond smuggler and arms dealer known to the American authorities and fully researched by the US Customs.”
In a summary of meetings between one undercover officer and Crooks at the Britannia hotel in London on 20 December 1993, the undercover officer said:
“Roger again said he had no problem in selling weapons to our organisation but he could only get it out of the United States to, say, Nigeria or Sierra Leone. However, he could put us in contact with the right people who would facilitate its onward shipment to the United Kingdom . . . Roger again said that we would not have a problem getting it from Sierra Leone as he had all the right contacts, in fact he even had a diplomatic passport for that country—”
and indeed he has. There are sensitive diplomatic reasons why that aspect of Operation Nightshade has been fudged, which I may make available to the House on another occasion. Crooks and his outfit had high-level contacts in the United States and I believe that political leverage was used. The Operation Nightshade papers show that both the United States and British officers wanted to arrest Crooks and his gang by the middle of 1994 and that opportunity was botched. It is not clear whether MI5 was involved. It is of course unanswerable and unaccountable to Parliament.
Crooks later claimed that throughout the arms deal he was acting as an informant. Crooks appeared later in history at the heart of the United States navy’s plan to rescue American and British citizens stranded in Sierra Leone, and he is still involved in the Mama Yoko hotel.
My constituent has been cleared of corruption, but he remains suspended. He believes that his plight is connected to the targeting of Roger Crooks and British policy, official and deniable, on Sierra Leone. He hoped that a judicial inquiry would uncover whether he and others were the victims of a plot by the intelligence services to undermine Operation Nightshade and to protect its targets.
I remind the House that I received some interesting answers from Home Office and Foreign and Commonwealth Office Ministers and from the Ministry of Defence. Despite extensive evidence of arms deals involving Crooks in Sierra Leone, the Minister of State, Home Office, the hon. Member for Norwich, South (Mr. Clarke), said:
“The Commissioner of Police of the Metropolis tells me that no such details were revealed as a result of Operation Nightshade.—[Official Report, 16 March 2000; Vol. 346, c. 268W.]”
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In other words, no details were revealed of arms deals via west Africa. However, in answer to another question, the Minister conceded that Crooks was interviewed by the anti-terrorist branch in London on 24 June 1993
“about matters that involved the supply of firearms.—[Official Report, 3 April 2000; Vol. 347, c. 379W.]”
Answers from the Foreign Office were equally revealing. I was told that Crooks had been known
“to various members of the High Commission for some time.—[Official Report, 16 March 2000; Vol. 346, c. 287W.]”
He had provided assistance in the evacuation of the United States hotel in Freetown in May 1997. The Foreign Office also confirmed that Crooks had had contact with unnamed Foreign and Commonwealth Office and Ministry of Defence personnel during the past few years—but not about arms or military matters. The Foreign and Commonwealth Office confirmed that Crooks was expelled from Sierra Leone; but he has now been reinstated. The website of the Sierra Leone news agency said that he had been expelled for trying to arrange the trafficking of arms between Northern Ireland and Sierra Leone. As we know, he also had discussions with Peter Penfold, our controversial high commissioner in Sierra Leone, who was aware of the Sandline plan to arm a counter-coup to restore Kabbah to power.
. . . I apologise for having detained the House, but I think that you will realise that, prima facie, the case stinks.’ (Emphasis added.)
[190] McLagan had this to say in his witness statement about Mr McKinlay’s speech in the House of Commons:
‘95. McKinlay’s speech in the House of Commons was a very strongly-worded and critical attack upon CIB, and Coles in particular. It was made on a privileged occasion in Parliament on behalf of Redgrave in a context that required the Home Secretary or his Minister to respond. From the information that he gave in his speech, McKinlay was clearly in close liaison with Gillard and Flynn. I am told that they were at the House of Commons for McKinlay’s speech in the company of Redgrave and Charman. As I found out from the dossier that was later provided to me by McKinlay, Millar too was in contact with McKinlay on behalf of Redgrave and Charman.’
[191] There is much detailed information in what Mr McKinlay had to say and, in my view, what he said requires close analysis. First, however, was McLagan entitled to assume as a responsible journalist that what was being said had come from Charman as well as Redgrave? The answer to that in my view is Yes and there is no contrary finding by Gray J. Nor, I believe, does Mr Tomlinson dispute that.
[192] According to Mr McKinlay, of the three elements in Operation Nightshade, the second was a money-laundering scam and the third, ‘most importantly, an illegal arms deal using Sierra Leone as a trans-shipment point’ described as ‘an anglo-American police sting across three continents, costing millions of pounds’. A ‘Texan-based gang’ had approached Brennan in 1993 ‘with an offer to sell arms’. Brennan ‘was asked whether he could find a buyer for a large quantity of arms worth millions of dollars’. ‘Redgrave was notified by Brennan and obtained further authorisation from several senior Scotland Yard commanders and their US counterparts to mount a well planned sting operation.'
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That involved Brennan introducing ‘the Texans to a British undercover officer from SO10, posing as a buyer for Northern Ireland Protestant terrorists’.
‘The sting operation was going well and undercover officers were gathering evidence against the American gang. After successfully bugging meetings in London and Houston, Redgrave’s team and US customs were poised to make arrests. Then something strange happened during the arms negotiations, which ultimately scuppered the operation. The informant was charged with theft of £400,000, which had been deposited in his account by the Texan gang as part of the laundering scam’ (the second element in Operation Nightshade).
‘Meanwhile my constituent redoubled his and his colleagues’ efforts to complete the sting and make the arrest. By autumn 1994, the American gang had backed off. Operation Nightshade, which cost millions of pounds, faded with no arrests on either side of the Atlantic.’
‘The CIB . . . claimed that in order to disguise the corrupt payment, Redgrave had duped his senior commanders and simply invented the arms deal. That is clearly untrue . . .'
Redgrave—
‘believes that his plight is connected to the targeting of Roger Crooks [described as the head of the organisation, a high-profile fraudsman, diamond smuggler and arms dealer] and British policy, official and deniable, on Sierra Leone.’
He hoped that a judicial inquiry would uncover whether he and others were the victims of a plot by the intelligence services to undermine Operation Nightshade and to protect its targets.
[193] On this account there is nothing to suggest that Brennan had done anything wrong. He had not, so it appears, stolen the money but received it from the Texan gang as part of the second element of Operation Nightshade. In other words he had received it with the knowledge of and under the supervision of Redgrave and Charman. He had helped set up a major sting to uncover arms dealings into Northern Ireland. Then he had been arrested for a theft which he had not committed as part of a plan by the intelligence services to scupper Operation Nightshade. This can be compared with the post-conviction letter of 19 March 2002 (see [138], above), in which, so it seems to me, the fact that Brennan had committed a theft was known to Redgrave before Brennan’s arrest in 1993 and had been reported—or, at the least, was known at about the time of the arrest.
[194] Mr McKinlay did not mention Smith’s role in those ‘false’ allegations. I am not aware that Charman ever directly adopted Brennan’s account of why Smith had persuaded him to make false allegations against Charman and Redgrave. However, McLagan believed (see [177], above) that the implication of the 4 March 2000 Guardian article—
‘was that Smith had procured Brennan to make false allegations against Redgrave and Charman to exact revenge against Charman for reporting him in 1985, or as part of an unlawful plot by CIB falsely to implicate Redgrave and Charman in a corruption scandal.’
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[195] I return to the book. According to the book (p 232), the Met ‘always had robust answers to the criticisms’ made by or on behalf of Redgrave and Charman ‘but had difficulty responding publicly because of possible prejudice to forthcoming trials or disciplinary proceedings’.
[196] I turn to the Brennan trial. In his witness statement McLagan writes:
‘110. I followed the Brennan trial very closely. I attended some, but not all, of the pre-trial hearings, making notes of Gaspar’s evidence. I also received reports from the Old Bailey news agency, Central News, for days when I was not in attendance. I was given by Andrew Trollope QC, Brennan’s counsel, a copy of his skeleton argument, which was very useful. I was also able to obtain copies of the transcripts of Gaspar’s tape recordings with Brennan, which had been referred to in court. These went into great detail about how and where Brennan said he had handed over money to Redgrave and Charman. I also had access to the report on the private finances of Redgrave and Charman by DC Jamie Chaplin, that was mentioned during the pre-trial hearings.
111. Information was also given to me about allegedly false entries said to have been made by Charman in Brennan’s informant logs . . .
115. My account in the book of the Brennan trial was based upon my attendances at the Old Bailey and the notes I made; agency reports of the trial, where necessary; the documents referred to in the trial of which I was able to obtain copies or have sight; and my own impressions as an observer from the press bench . . .
118. There was no dispute that the money had passed through his bank account nor that the telephones had never materialised nor that he was having regular meetings with Redgrave and Charman at this time. It was Brennan’s defence that he received the money from the Wangs in his capacity as informant working under the direction of honest police officers, Redgrave and Charman, in the course of a bona fide police operation to ensnare serious criminals . . . Richard Latham QC for the Crown was able, on the basis of the Gaspar Tapes, to cross-examine Brennan to the effect that his relationship with Redgrave and Charman was a corrupt relationship, not an honest one. He was able to put to Brennan the two different versions of events: the one on the Gaspar Tapes where he said Redgrave and Charman took money from him and the one in Court where he said they were honest. The names of Redgrave and Charman came up repeatedly during the proceedings and officers I spoke to were waiting with interest to see whether they would be called by Brennan to support his account of an honest and legitimate relationship, but they did not make appearances as witnesses.
119. In his cross-examination of Brennan, Latham put to him the following matters on behalf of the Crown, all of which Brennan denied (Defence §5.48.1–5.48.4):
that a cash withdrawal of £10,000 by Brennan from his bank account on 3 September 1993 was paid over by him to Charman at the Oval, Sidcup, by way of a corrupt payment;
that, on 17 September 1993, by prior arrangement, Brennan met Charman and Redgrave at The Travel Lodge, South Mimms, where Brennan handed over another £10,000 and was told by the officers that they wanted £50,000 to mind Brennan’s back with the story that the £400,000 from the Wangs was all suspected money-laundering;
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that two or three days after the South Mimms meeting, Brennan gave Charman and Redgrave a third tranche of money, cash in the sum of £30,000; and that after Sam Wang made his complaint of theft by Brennan to CID at Bexleyheath police station, the investigation was transferred out of that station to SERCS after representations were made by Redgrave . . .
123. In the book, I have made extensive references to the Brennan trial. For these, I relied upon the notes I made while sitting in Court and, for when I was not present, the Old Bailey news agency reports or information given to me by interviewees. I had no access to transcripts, although these have now been obtained for a great deal, but not all, of the trial . . .’
[197] The book described the trial in this way (pp 232–234). It started with this comment:
‘CIB officers hoped that Redgrave and Charman would give evidence for Geoffrey Brennan at his trial in 2001. The pair could have used the proceedings as an opportunity to set the record straight, to deny Brennan’s original allegations that he had bunged them £50,000 to cover up his theft of the £400,000 from the Chinese-American businessman, Sam Wang. They could also have backed Brennan’s later claims that the police operation mounted by the pair into gunrunning and money laundering had been entirely legitimate, and not a smokescreen, as was being suggested by CIB. If the pair had appeared in the witness box, they would have been open to cross-examination by the CIB prosecution team, determined to get at the truth of Brennan’s allegations. But it was not to be. Although Redgrave and Charman’s names were continually mentioned throughout the trial, the two suspended officers did not appear at the Old Bailey.’
[198] The judge held that McLagan should have appreciated that there was no possibility of Charman or Mr Redgrave giving evidence at the Brennan trial. Mr Tomlinson supports that conclusion. I return to that later in my judgment. Sufficient to say at this stage that if Brennan was innocent and had acted in the way described, for example, by Mr McKinlay, one might have expected his handler Charman, and the investigating officer, Redgrave, to ‘ride to his support’. That did not happen.
[199] The book continues:
‘However, information about their finances emerged at a pre-trial hearing. This was held because Brennan’s lawyers wanted to have the case against him thrown out, and if that move failed, to have some of the evidence against him excluded at the full jury trial. A single judge heard the issues, with the main witness being Roger Gaspar, the ghost squad’s original head. He went through all the meetings he had with Brennan. He started with the early ones in which the crooked businessman had described in great detail how he had paid £50,000 to Redgrave and Charman, allegations which he repeated at later meetings with Gaspar, but later withdrew. Even more than a year after their first meeting in June 1994, Gaspar was still sometimes providing expensive armed police protection to Brennan, believing that his life was in danger. One such occasion occurred when Brennan said he wanted to visit his father, who was in hospital after suffering a heart attack. Gaspar contacted the hospital and subsequently went there himself, making
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arrangements for Brennan to enter and leave by a side entrance. He was given armed protection on the journey to and from the hospital.
At the pre-trial hearing, Gaspar made two new important disclosure of evidence coming from his investigation. He said he had learned that the separate inquiry into Wang’s allegations of theft had been taken over by SERCS, which was an unusual move as that élite group of detectives was not normally involved in such investigations. Gaspar also revealed the results of a secret investigation he had ordered into possible irregularities in the two officers’ financial affairs. He said this showed that Redgrave had received unexplained income, over and above his Met police salary. In Charman’s case, an unusual spending pattern had started in October 1993, coinciding with the time Brennan had claimed to have paid over the £50,000 bribe.
But Gaspar had to admit that he had not cautioned Brennan that any of his confessions could be used against him. That fact alone, according to the defendant’s QC, Andrew Trollope, meant that the officer’s notes and tape recordings of meetings should not be allowed as evidence at the main trial. But he advanced further arguments which he said made Brennan’s accounts to Gaspar unreliable. He said that Brennan had approached the chief superintendent because he was in fear for his life, someone in the Met having leaked information about him to a violent robber. In order to get police protection, Brennan would have been strongly motivated to say anything. He thought it possible, said Trollope, that either Redgrave or Charman, or both of them, had placed him in danger, so he had a motive for implicating them and seeking protection from them. But while there was no hard evidence that they were corrupt, there was strong evidence that Brennan himself had been a participating informant at the time of the theft, and had been acting for the officers as they investigated drugs dealing, money laundering and gunrunning. The QC also argued that the trial should be abandoned because of the length of time since the original offence, and because of irregularities in the investigation.
For the prosecution, Richard Latham, QC, said that Gaspar had been presented with a unique situation when dealing with Brennan. The businessman had been compromised by the leak of documents that should have remained in police hands, and he was potentially a valuable informant on police corruption. On the other hand he was admitting to the Wang fraud. Gaspar had opposing duties. He was protecting a compromised informant involved with fraud, but he was also investigating corruption, trying to stamp it out.
The officer in overall charge of the ghost squad and CIB, Deputy Assistant Commissioner Roy Clark, amplified on the problems to the court. He said the anti-corruption detectives did not know whom they could trust, particularly in the early days. Excessive secrecy had also hindered their effectiveness.
Having heard both sides, the judge, Brian Barker, ruled that the trial should go ahead in front of a jury, but Gaspar’s notes and recordings of Brennan’s confessions to stealing the £400,000 should not be allowed in evidence.’
[200] The judge also ruled as inadmissible the apparent adoption of the taped interviews by Brennan at the time of his re-arrest in November.
[201] The book continues (pp 235–237):
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‘Brennan . . . went into the witness box, answering questions from his own QC, Andrew Trollope. He stuck to his story that he had been a police informant, giving information first to Charman on drugs dealing and then, as the police inquiry expanded, to Redgrave. He claimed that he believed all the money sent from the United States was part of a money-laundering and gunrunning operation being monitored by Scotland Yard, and that he had done nothing without the prior approval of the two detectives. Redgrave was running the operation. He agreed that later he had met Chief Superintendent Gaspar to obtain protection, but the jury heard no mention from him of his confessions to stealing Wang’s money or of giving £50,000 to Redgrave and Charman (an allegation later withdrawn).
From the start of his cross-examination, Richard Latham tore into Brennan, exposing a series of lies on the part of the businessman, who counter-attacked, protesting that the prosecution was going down the same vindictive road as the police had done, having waged a vendetta against him for the previous seven years. Worked into a fury, Brennan asked for a break so he could calm down, but his request was refused. It was classic knockabout stuff, and Latham’s chronological questioning had not even reached the mobile-phone deal. Brennan could take no more—at that stage, anyway. He said he was ill and the court was adjourned for a day. When it reconvened, Latham did not let up. He was on top of every aspect of the case, having been prosecuting counsel in the CIB sting operation that had netted Redgrave and Charman. He knew how far he could go legally over the two detectives, and he knew how far he could go in goading Brennan.
One exchange was particularly fascinating. It came after Brennan had described giving information to Charman. “That officer was going to come into your pay?” asked Latham. “No, he was not,” replied Brennan, who then admitted that he had met Charman and Redgrave at South Mimms, the service station where, unknown to the jury, he had originally claimed to have paid money to the two detectives. “They wanted money,” said Latham, “and you gave them money.” Brennan denied the charge and threw the gauntlet back, demanding to know why the prosecution was not calling the pair to give evidence. In replying, Latham chose his words with care. They were damning: “I am not going to bring in criminals to give evidence.” Brennan retorted that they were honest officers who had been doing their job: Don’t accuse people when they are not here to defend themselves. Why not charge them with corruption?”
“There are few people around when officers are involved in corruption,” replied Latham, going on to warn Brennan: “Be very careful what you say about these two officers.”
In later exchanges, Latham described the two as “dishonest” and “corrupt”, claiming they wanted £50,000 from Brennan out of the £400,000 and in exchange they would “mind his back” with a cover story about money laundering and arms dealing. Brennan denied it, but his back was to the wall and he knew it. Under pressure, his facial twitch became more pronounced. At times he was twitching virtually non-stop. The cross-examination was relentless, until by the end Brennan was on the ropes, red-faced and blustering. Some members of the jury were even laughing at a number of his responses.
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Although Redgrave and Charman were not on trial, for much of the time it was as if they were in the dock with Brennan. In Latham’s closing speech to the jury, much play was made of their alleged corruption. He repeated that the prosecution case was that a total of £50,000 had been paid to the two detectives to provide a smokescreen for the theft of Wang’s money, and he attacked the defence team for not producing a single document to support their contention that the £400,000 had been handed back in an operation monitored by the police. If honest officers were mounting an official operation with Brennan playing an important part, he said there should have been no difficulty in putting the record straight when the businessman was arrested. Instead, Brennan had refused to answer police questions. For the defence, Andrew Trollope said that although the prosecution was calling Redgrave and Charman criminals, there was no evidence that they were paid a penny piece or were party to any plan to steal the money.
Speaking in mitigation for him, Trollope said that the defendant might not have been alone in carrying out the theft and the events that followed. Although the jury had rejected Brennan’s defence, Trollope continued that it was unquestionably the case that Redgrave and Charman were in contact with him at the time of the offence and were aware of what was taking place. While acknowledging that they were not before the court, and that there was no evidence as to their role, he went on to make an apparent reference to the pre-trial hearing evidence that Brennan had originally alleged paying the pair £50,000. Cryptically, he said the judge knew “what the prosecution is about”. If it was right that the officers were compliant in what took place, then they bore a heavy responsibility, particularly as Brennan was an informant passing on genuine information.’ (My emphasis.)
[202] In the emphasised passage Brennan is giving his account. I repeat it:
‘He claimed that he believed all the money sent from the United States was part of a money-laundering and gunrunning operation being monitored by Scotland Yard, and that he had done nothing without the prior approval of the two detectives. Redgrave was running the operation.’
[203] The claim that ‘all the money sent from the United States was part of a money-laundering and gun running operation being monitored by Scotland Yard’, a claim which was rejected by the jury, was almost the same claim which Mr McKinlay had put forward in the House of Commons in 2000.
[204] I shall try now to bring together a number of strands from this complicated story of truths, half-truths and lies. I do so without considering the conclusions of the judge. I return to those later.
[205] That Brennan stole £400,000 from the Wangs seems undeniably true. Indeed it is not disputed. Given that he stole £400,000 it must follow (so it seems to me) that the £400,000 had not been deposited in his account by the Texan gang as part of the laundering scam which was allegedly being investigated by Redgrave and Charman as part of Operation Nightshade. Indeed the jury must have rejected Brennan’s attempts to defend himself in this way.
[206] It must also follow that Brennan was not being falsely arrested to scupper the ongoing alleged arms investigation.
[207] So why did Mr McKinlay (whose assistance was enlisted by Charman’s brother-in-law, Millar) say, as the media had said before him, that the informant
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was charged with theft of £400,000, which had been deposited in his account by the Texan gang as part of the laundering scam?
[208] Why did Mr McKinlay implicitly or explicitly tell the House that Brennan had done nothing wrong and that he had been falsely arrested as part of a plan by the intelligence services to scupper Operation Nightshade? Why did Mr McKinlay tell the House that Brennan had received the money from the Texan gang as part of the second element of Operation Nightshade? It seems unlikely to me that this account was true, although Mr McKinlay would not have known this.
[209] As I have said, a responsible journalist would be entitled to conclude, as McLagan did, that Charman was in some way involved with what Mr McKinlay said and was behind at least some of the similar things said by the media.
[210] It further seems to me that a responsible journalist would be entitled to conclude that the account being given by Mr McKinlay and by the media reflected what Brennan had in 1994 said to Gaspar on tape, namely Charman and Redgrave would pretend that Brennan was giving them information about a money-laundering operation being run from the United States as a cover for the theft and would help him in the event of Brennan being arrested. To put it another way: Brennan told Gaspar about an agreed cover up and that was the cover up which was used in 1997 and following Brennan’s arrest.
[211] What other explanation could there be? I have looked at the 19 March 2002 letter (see [136], above). Notwithstanding that letter, would a responsible journalist conclude that Redgrave and Charman could believe that the £400,000 the subject matter of the theft charge was money coming to Brennan as part of their supervised investigation into money laundering by the Texans? I do not believe so. A responsible journalist would, in my view, be entitled to conclude that there cannot have been two £400,000s.
[212] The arrest in 1996 and what happened thereafter may provide a clue. Brennan had admitted the theft to Gaspar but, presumably, had hoped that he would not be prosecuted because of the information he had given about police corruption. Now he was being prosecuted. He could have stayed with the story and hoped to be treated leniently because of the information which he had given. Or he could abandon the story altogether. He chose the latter.
[213] Having been convicted, Brennan, through Mr Trollope, did rely on his perilous activities as an informant involved in money laundering and gun running to obtain a reduction in his sentence. However, if the prosecution had accepted that he was an informant who had put his life at risk with money launderers and terrorists, there would have been an obligation so to inform the court. I cannot see any evidence that they did so.
[214] Although Miss Page did not analyse the evidence in quite the way that I have done she relied, as Mr McLagan had, on the fact that the account given by the media and Mr McKinlay was the account relied upon by Brennan at his trial.
[215] Without considering the conclusions of the judge, which I shall do next, my provisional view is that the defence of responsible journalism should have succeeded. A responsible journalist was well entitled on the material available to McLagan to tell the public that there were cogent grounds to suspect that Charman abused his position as a police officer by colluding in the commission of substantial fraud with Brennan from whom he and Redgrave received corrupt payments totalling £50,000. Brennan tells Gaspar that he committed the theft and that Charman and Redgrave agreed to cover up the theft so that Brennan would
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not be prosecuted. Although Brennan later retracts the allegations after being charged with the theft, the agreed cover story about which Brennan told Gaspar then featured in the media and in the House of Commons as part of a campaign in which Charman (so a responsible journalist could conclude) was involved to defend his name and attack the Met (‘attack being the best form of defence’). As the 19 March letter showed, that cover story was then, so it could properly be argued, abandoned after Brennan had been convicted.
[216] There was also some support for Brennan’s account: for example the involvement of Redgrave and possibly Charman after the arrest to prevent Brennan being prosecuted and the financial evidence.
[217] A responsible journalist could also rely on the fact that the Met denied that any details about gun running were revealed as a result of Operation Nightshade. Such a journalist could also rely on the response made by prosecuting counsel, Mr Latham, to Brennan, describing Charman and Redgrave as ‘criminals’—not an allegation which can be made lightly by counsel. If, as the Sunday Times reported (see [167], above) the two officers had reported ‘every detail of the way the money was handled’ to their superiors, if what Brennan was doing vis-à-vis the Wangs had, as was claimed, ‘been fully reported on . . . with a view to investigation’ (see [136], above), then it seems very unlikely that prosecuting counsel would have described them as ‘criminals’, and indeed unlikely that they would have been the subject of any prolonged investigation.
[218] There is a further important point. Brennan was saying at his trial: what I did was not theft but the receipt of money on the instructions of Charman and Redgrave who were, so they told me, investigating suspected money laundering by the Wangs. In most criminal cases where the defendant runs this kind of defence, the prosecution challenge the involvement of the police or other agency, and submit that the defendant has fabricated his account. This case is very unusual. The prosecution accepted, as they had to, that Charman, as Brennan’s handler, and Redgrave through Operation Nightshade were substantially involved with Brennan (both before and after his arrest in November 1993) but it was the prosecution’s case that they were involved dishonestly, ie they were involved to help Brennan cover up a theft by pretending that he had received the money in the course of a money-laundering investigation. Unless the prosecution could prove that either Charman and Redgrave had been misled or that Charman and Redgrave were involved dishonestly, the prosecution case would fail or was likely to fail. It was no part of the prosecution’s case that they had been misled—there was no evidence of that (indeed the two officers had refused to answer questions when the Brennan allegations were put to them). That had not been suggested, so it appears, by Charman or Redgrave when Brennan was arrested. If the prosecution thought that they had been misled, then one would expect the prosecution to call them as witnesses. There was evidence that they had acted dishonestly—evidence which had been ventilated at the pre-trial stage albeit not sufficient, without Brennan’s help, to charge them. Furthermore, if Brennan was telling the truth about the innocent involvement of Redgrave and Charman, one would have expected them to give evidence on his behalf. Handlers often help their informants (for example Roy Garner was helped, see p 19 of the book).
[219] I turn therefore to the judge’s conclusions. The judge had earlier considered the question of balance, adding that a publication does not have to be balanced in order to qualify as responsible journalism. The judge (at [124]) set out
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a number of matters which a balanced approach required him to mention. Most of those matters I have considered or shall consider below. He also criticises McLagan’s failure to tell his readers that Brennan, apparently, gave Gaspar the wrong date for when Redgrave became involved in Operation Nightshade. This was another unpleaded criticism made in cross-examination. Miss Page in the schedule makes a convincing case that the judge was wrong to make this criticism, as she does also of the unpleaded criticism that Brennan gave no adequate explanation to Gaspar of the source of the £30,000 and of the criticism that McLagan did not mention that Brennan told Gaspar that the first person he turned to on his arrest in November 1993 was Smith.
[220] The judge started his examination of the defence of responsible journalism at [129]. He wrote (at [132]):
‘It would be impractical for me in this judgment to undertake a line-by-line examination of the substantial passages complained of by Charman. I will therefore confine myself to those which seem to me to matter.’
[221] The first criticism under the heading of responsible journalism is to be found at [135]. The judge said:
‘There is, however, no reference to be found in the book to the discrediting of the officer Smith. He had been described in Ch 3 as “a reliable Flying Squad officer” [in June 1994 by the head of the Flying Squad]. The reader of Bent Coppers is told that he had formerly acted as Brennan’s handler and that it was he (Smith) who referred Brennan to Gaspar. At p 42 McLagan writes that Gaspar had no reason to disbelieve Brennan’s story “especially as it was corroborated by DS Smith”.’
[222] A look at p 42 makes it clear, so it seems to me, that the corroboration related to the disclosure of his informant status and not to the allegations against Redgrave and Charman. Paragraph [135] continues:
‘. . . At p 180 of the hardback edition the reader is told that when Brennan withdrew his allegations against Charman and Redgrave some two-and-a-half years after he was interviewed by Gaspar, he claimed to the Police Complaints Authority that Smith had put Brennan up to blackening the two officers because he had “had it in” for Charman and Redgrave since the 1980s. The reader is told that Smith strongly denied that claim. There follows a reference to Smith and other officers “moonlighting” for a private security company which Brennan was running. Smith is said to have received payments from Brennan for his help during a spying operation on a private house in the course of which police equipment was used. At p 182 Smith is recorded as having admitted working for Brennan whilst still employed by the Met.
[136] What the reader is not told about Smith is that (as I have recorded at [36], above) he had been accused in the columns of The Sunday Times of having taken thousands of pounds in bribes from Brennan . . .’
[223] As to this article, McLagan wrote in his witness statement (see [87], above):
‘It appeared that the Defence had been provided with information that could only have been provided, directly or indirectly, by Brennan,
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presumably with a motive to discredit Smith, for his own benefit or that of others.’
[224] As Mr Tomlinson accepts, the reader was told about these allegations at p 18. Mr Tomlinson describes the judge’s error as ‘merely a slip’. In fact the Sunday Times had not referred to bribes but to fees for moonlighting. As Miss Page points out, in any event, the moonlighting had apparently occurred some two years after Brennan had made the allegations to Gaspar about Redgrave and Charman.
[225] The judge continued:
‘[136] . . . Shortly afterwards Smith was cross-examined by counsel on behalf of the defendant Phillips about his relationship with Brennan. Smith repeatedly refused to answer these questions on the basis that it might incriminate him if he told the truth. He also refused to answer questions about payments made to him by Brennan. As a result Smith became the subject of an investigation by the CIB. McLagan was present in court during that cross-examination and had a transcript of it when he wrote the book. The flavour of the cross-examination can be gauged from the transcript of the present hearing (Day 2, pp 146–158). In his evidence McLagan accepted that it had been a mistake on his part to have written that Smith had admitted “moonlighting” in his evidence. In the witness box he denied having moonlighted but later he admitted having done so. McLagan did not mention this contradiction.
[137] It seems to me that the role of Smith in relation to the Brennan allegations was important. He had been Brennan’s handler. The claim was made by Brennan that it was Smith who put him up to making allegations of corruption against Charman and Redgrave. It was to Smith that Brennan turned when he decided to allege corruption on the part of Charman and Redgrave. In my opinion McLagan is open to criticism for failing to inform his readers that, far from being “reliable”, Smith was profoundly tainted by his answers during cross-examination in the Phillips trial.’
[226] Mr Tomlinson in his skeleton argument had this to say about Smith:
‘It was common ground that DS Smith played a very important role in the whole “Brennan affair”. In particular:
(i) He had been Mr Brennan’s “handler” and introduced him to DCS Gaspar, an introduction which led directly to the “Brennan Allegations” being made. He was present during most of the “Gaspar Tape” interviews (Hardback, p 42; Paperback, p 53).
(ii) When Mr Brennan was arrested in November 1993, he immediately asked for DS Smith.
(iii) When Mr Brennan withdrew the Brennan Allegations in January 1997 he said that he had been put up to making them by DS Smith who “had it in” for Redgrave and Charman.
As a result, DS Smith’s credibility and the nature of his relationship with Mr Brennan and with Mr Charman were matters to which a responsible author had to give serious consideration when writing the story of the Brennan allegations.’
[227] I have difficulty with the judge’s criticism. The reader had been told that Smith had moonlighted for Brennan whilst a police officer. I accept that the
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reader could have been told more about Smith, but I have considerable doubt whether there was sufficient reliable material for a responsible journalist to allege not only that Brennan claimed that Smith had put him up to making false allegations, but that Smith had in fact conspired with Brennan to make false allegations against Redgrave and Charman to Gaspar. Miss Page submits that it would have been quite wrong for McLagan to suggest that what happened in the Phillips trial provided corroboration for Brennan’s allegation that Smith had conspired with him in June 1994 to make false allegations against Charman and Redgrave. In my view a responsible journalist was not required to state that Smith was profoundly tainted.
[228] I do not agree with Mr Tomlinson (schedule of judge’s criticisms of McLagan’s journalism, box 9) that McLagan’s failure to say that Smith was profoundly tainted was ‘a fact which was of great importance in considering these events’ and therefore undermines the defence of responsible journalism. I should add that this is one of the complaints which was to be found in neither the reply nor the amended reply, albeit as Mr Tomlinson states, it was raised in the skeleton and in the opening. If it was seen as a fact of such great importance, one might expect to see it in the pleadings.
[229] The second criticism of McLagan’s journalistic responsibility comes at [143]ff. The judge cited a paragraph from the book:
‘At the pre-trial hearing, Gaspar made two new important disclosures of evidence coming from his investigation. He said he had learned that the separate inquiry into Wang’s allegations of theft had been taken over by SERCS, which was an unusual move as that élite group of detectives was not normally involved in such investigations. Gaspar also revealed the results of a secret investigation he had ordered into possible irregularities in the two officers’ financial affairs. He said this showed that Redgrave had received unexplained income, over and above his Met police salary. In Charman’s case, an unusual spending pattern had started in October 1993, coinciding with the time Brennan had claimed to have paid over the £50,000 bribe.’
[230] The judge continued (at [144]):
‘That passage appears to me to be open to a number of criticisms. Whilst it is factually correct that the inquiry into Wang’s allegations of theft had been taken over by SERCS, there was nothing unusual or sinister [not a word used by McLagan] about it. DC Maul, the SERCS officer who conducted the inquiry, gave evidence at the pre-trial hearing about it. It was not suggested to him that it was in any way unusual for SERCS to have become involved. It is hard to understand why this aspect ranked as an “important new disclosure” by Gaspar.’
[231] This was another matter not foreshadowed in the pleadings.
[232] Redgrave claimed the credit for the investigation being placed with Maul. McLagan’s assertion that it would be unusual for SERCS to take over what was, on the face of it, a simple investigation into a theft is not challenged. As Mr Roy Clark (Clark) said in evidence in the Brennan trial the squad does not reactively investigate crime. In the Brennan trial Gaspar described the moving of the investigation to SERCS as ‘curious’ and that he had considered it another corrupt act. Clark described it as ‘something that made me suspicious’. The bringing of the case into the Regional Crime Squad was a corrupt act for an
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ulterior motive, he said. Mr Trollope understood the prosecution’s case to be that the ‘investigation was improperly taken over by the Regional Crime Squad’. According to McLagan’s notes, Maul said in evidence that what he was asked to do was very unusual. Maul told McLagan that he thought that he may have been transferred to Heathrow to get him out of the way. Mr Tomlinson points out that Maul told McLagan that the transfer ‘wasn’t so unusual’. Mr Tomlinson submits that Maul was a conscientious and honest officer and that therefore there cannot have been an improper motive in the transfer. I do not follow that argument. It does not follow from the fact that Maul is honest that Redgrave’s motives in asking for this to happen are also honest. I, for my part, do not see why McLagan’s description of the evidence as being an important new disclosure shows that his journalism was no longer responsible.
[233] The judge continued (at [145]):
‘The other “important new disclosure” identified by McLagan was the revealing by Gaspar of the results of a secret investigation he had ordered into possible irregularities in the two officers’ financial affairs. Gaspar is reported to have said that this showed that Redgrave had received unexplained income, over and above his Met police salary, and that in Charman’s case an unusual spending pattern had started in October 1993, coinciding with the time Brennan had claimed to have paid over the £50,000 bribe. In point of fact it was not Gaspar but Clark and [Det Chief Supt] Coles who had mentioned these matters in the course of their cross-examination. The criticism which I make of this passage is that it treats matters which McLagan ought to have realised were of marginal relevance and which he knew had taken up no more than a few minutes of court time as if they formed a major part of the hearing. The references to “unexplained income” and “an unusual spending pattern” are damning . . .’ (My emphasis.)
[234] Miss Page identifies the evidence:
‘The evidence given was by Clark, not Gaspar—the wrong name was put into their report by the Central News Agency, from which McLagan took this and repeated the error. Clark’s evidence is at App 4/D/11/164D–G; Coles also referred to the financial evidence and said it “jig sawed exactly” with the Brennan allegation: App A/D/11/246D–H . . .’
[235] Mr Tomlinson attaches significance to the fact that the evidence was given by Clark and not Gaspar. That seems to me of very marginal relevance.
[236] Miss Page writes:
‘The Judge refers to the references to “unexplained income” and “an unusual spending pattern” as “damning”. Why therefore should they have been omitted? This was information given in a public courtroom and reported accurately by McLagan. It was not of “marginal relevance” to the book. On the contrary it was highly relevant because it was corroboration independent of Brennan of his corruption allegations. McLagan not only reported accurately what was said in court, but he asked for and was allowed to read the financial report, it having been referred to and summarised in evidence. He therefore took steps to verify that this “damning” evidence had been accurately described in court.’
[237] Mr Tomlinson submits:
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‘The Judge was right to criticise the highlighting of this evidence (which was mentioned briefly in passing and was of marginal relevance to the Brennan trial). The references were indeed damning and, if McLagan was going to report them as “important new disclosures” then he should have made it clear that these “revelations” were not the subject of first hand evidence and were never examined at the pre-trial hearing. The reader is being told that independent corroborative evidence of the Brennan Allegations was presented to the Court when, in fact, what took place is that passing references were made to the financial investigations without further discussion or consideration . . .’
[238] In my view the judge’s criticism, supported by Mr Tomlinson, is without merit. Whether or not what was said about unexplained income was of marginal relevance to the Brennan trial, a responsible journalist must be entitled to report that officers involved in the investigation of Redgrave and Charman had said in open court that evidence of unexplained income at the relevant time had been discovered, evidence which, in the words of Det Chief Supt Coles (Coles), appeared on the face of it to corroborate what Brennan was saying.
[239] The judge continued his criticism by saying, at the conclusion of this paragraph: ‘No balancing reference is made to other evidence given at the pre-trial hearing which tended to exonerate Charman.’
[240] This is apparently a reference to the covert surveillance of Charman and Redgrave. According to Clark: ‘I wouldn’t say it yielded nothing, it did yield something.' According to Coles there were some 16 or 17 hrs of recording of conversations involving Charman and/or Redgrave and he was not aware of anything of evidential significance having been identified. I accept that it might have been better if McLagan had mentioned this, but the book makes it clear that there was insufficient evidence to charge Charman and Redgrave. The failure to mention it cannot in my view lead to the conclusion that McLagan was not acting as a responsible journalist.
[241] I turn to the next criticism:
‘[146] McLagan at the foot of p 232 writes that CIB officers hoped that Redgrave and Charman would give evidence for Brennan at his trial. It is said that the pair could have used the proceedings as an opportunity to set the record straight but that, if the pair had appeared in the witness box, they would have been open to cross-examination by the CIB prosecution team, determined to get at the truth of Brennan’s allegations. The paragraph ends with these words: “Although Redgrave and Charman’s names were continually mentioned throughout the trial, the two suspended officers did not appear at the Old Bailey.”
[147] As McLagan ought to have appreciated, there was in fact no possibility of Charman or Redgrave giving evidence at Brennan’s trial. The issue for the jury was whether Brennan had stolen money from the Wangs. It was no part of the prosecution case to say that Brennan’s allegations of corruption against Charman and Redgrave were true. Besides, those allegations had been withdrawn. I do not think it is accurate to say that the names of Redgrave and Charman were “continually mentioned throughout the trial”. They were referred to on two days after the trial had been running (with interruptions) for a month.’
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[242] The judge says that there was in fact no possibility of Charman or Redgrave giving evidence at Brennan’s trial. Why? As I have said, Mr McKinlay was telling the House that Brennan had done nothing wrong, that he had been falsely arrested as part of a plan by the intelligence services to scupper Operation Nightshade and that he had not stolen the money but received it from the Texan gang as part of the second element of Operation Nightshade. He had helped set up a major sting to uncover arms dealings into Northern Ireland. If that was correct, one might well have expected Charman and Redgrave to give evidence at Brennan’s trial and in mitigation should he be convicted. Brennan’s defence was that everything he had done was with the knowledge and consent of police officers—he had not stolen the money. Their failure to give evidence, a responsible journalist might well conclude, shows that the account given to Mr McKinlay was not the truth.
[243] The judge says in this passage: ‘It was no part of the prosecution case to say that Brennan’s allegations of corruption against Charman and Redgrave were true.’
[244] That, with respect, misstates the position. With the Gaspar tapes ruled inadmissible because Brennan had not been cautioned, the prosecution’s case was and had to be simple—Brennan had stolen the money. When, however, Brennan gave evidence that he had not stolen the money and that his involvement with the money was at the request of, and under the supervision of, Redgrave and Charman, the prosecution was bound to allege that his involvement with Redgrave and Charman, as Brennan had admitted on tape, was a corrupt one. Brennan had stolen the money and paid Charman and Redgrave for protection. Brennan had certainly met Redgrave and Charman. The prosecutor’s hands were tied by the ruling, but he was entitled to put to Brennan the substance of what he had admitted without referring to the actual admissions. This is what happened. Redgrave and Charman were the cornerstone of Brennan’s defence. Work has been done to show how often Redgrave and Charman were mentioned. As one would expect they were mentioned when during the prosecution’s case Mr Trollope was establishing that Brennan was an informant working with Redgrave and Charman. They were then mentioned by Brennan in chief as he sought to establish his defence and by Mr Latham in cross-examination when seeking to undermine the defence. McLagan’s notes of Mr Latham’s final speech shows a number of references to them—central to his argument was the proposition that if Charman and Redgrave were honest officers and the whole transaction with the Wangs was being monitored from start to finish and Brennan an important cog in the wheel of a general police operation involving money laundering, there would be no difficulty in setting the record straight when Brennan was arrested in Bexleyheath in November 1993. Mr Latham noted that Redgrave and Charman did intercede at that time and that Redgrave had told the officer that the relevant paperwork would be produced—but it was not.
[245] Mr Trollope told the jury in closing that the prosecution case depended on proving ‘to you’ that the Wangs were honestly attempting to buy mobile phones and not involved in money laundering, arms dealing or any dishonesty. He submitted to the jury that this was not a straightforward mobile phone deal and that the Wangs were lying and acting dishonestly. It was Brennan’s case that Brennan was helping the police to catch the dishonest Wangs. Everything he did was with the knowledge of and consent of Redgrave, his handler Charman (with
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whom Brennan was ‘in regular contact’) and the Met. Mr Trollope referred to the prosecution’s case that Brennan had a corrupt relationship with the ‘criminals’ Redgrave and Charman and that they were parties to the theft. They knew the money was coming into Brennan’s account and knew that Brennan was intending to keep it. They allowed him to do so because they had been paid £50,000. Unsurprisingly, Mr Trollope then invited the jury to conclude that these ‘allegations are totally unsubstantiated’. He said that not a single witness had been called to support these allegations; more than one juror may have wondered why Brennan had not called Redgrave and Charman. Mr Trollope was, of course, able to say that because the tapes had been ruled inadmissible.
[246] In mitigating on behalf of Brennan, Mr Trollope said:
‘It is unquestionably the case that Detective Inspector Redgrave and Detective Constable Charman were in contact with him throughout the relevant time and were cognisant of what was taking place.’
[247] It seems clear to me, contrary to the view of the judge and the submissions of Mr Tomlinson, that central to Brennan’s case was the allegation that the Wangs were dishonest and that he was helping the Met and particularly Redgrave and Charman to catch the Wangs. Gray J, in my view, underestimated the importance of Redgrave and Charman in the trial. If Brennan could show that he might have been helping them in their investigations, he would be acquitted. The prosecution sought to meet that case by showing during the voir dire and asserting during the trial that the relationship between Brennan and the officers (a relationship which was not disputed by the prosecution) was corrupt.
[248] The judge said (at [148]): ‘It would have been apparent to McLagan that the reason for that was that, true or false, the giving of £50,000 to the two officers was irrelevant.’
[249] I do not agree.
[250] He said (at [150]):
‘There nevertheless appears to me to be considerable force in the criticism made by Mr Tomlinson that McLagan should have made clear that the alleged criminality of Charman and Redgrave had no bearing on the issues which the jury had to decide . . . In the context of the trial as a whole it is difficult to understand how, as McLagan claims, for much of the time it was as if Charman and Redgrave were in the dock with Brennan.’
[251] In my view the judge was quite wrong to accept this criticism.
[252] The judge also said (at [150]):
‘. . . I accept that at the end of the passage which I have quoted McLagan informs readers that in his closing speech Trollope told the jury that there was no evidence the officers had been paid money. McLagan does not mention the fact that Latham accepted that there was no direct evidence that corrupt payments were made to the officers. A more serious omission is the failure to refer to the judge’s advice to the jury in his summing up to ignore suggestions made that any money was taken by Charman or Redgrave to assist Brennan. He told the jury that they ought to put that out of their minds . . .’
[253] In my view responsible journalism did not require McLagan to tell his readers that which Mr Latham had said or that which the judge had said in his
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summing-up about this. The jury had to be told by the judge to ignore the suggestion because the Gaspar tapes had been ruled inadmissible and because Mr Latham’s allegations had not been accepted by Brennan. In my view, what is more important in the context of the book as a whole is that leading counsel for the prosecution had made the allegations—allegations which, as I have said, are and cannot be made lightly and which were fully supported by the tapes on which the prosecution had sought unsuccessfully to rely.
[254] I turn to another criticism. The judge said (at [152](iv)):
‘. . . He does not claim to have verified the information about Charman and it is his case that there were in fact no means whereby he could have verified the truth or otherwise of the Brennan allegations. In my view McLagan ought to have carried out an evaluation and analysis of the material available to him.’
[255] I am not certain what the judge is saying McLagan ought to have done. It is of note that the judge said a little later:
‘. . . I think, however, that McLagan was entitled to assume that Charman would have remained uncooperative if the allegations to be published in the book had been put directly to him.’
[256] McLagan also had access to the McKinlay dossier and regarded it as ‘a valuable source of balancing material’ (see [97], above).
[257] The judge also said (at [152](v)):
‘. . . Whilst I do not accept that the truth or otherwise of the Brennan allegations were investigated at his criminal trial, nor in my opinion did the Crown’s case at that trial evidence the truth of Brennan’s allegations, I do accept that there had been an investigation by police officers under the leadership of Coles in the form of Operation Cornwall. However, that investigation concluded that there was insufficient evidence to charge Charman with any offence arising out of his dealings with Brennan. That being so, it seems to me to have been unwise on McLagan’s part to have placed reliance on the opinions expressed privately to him by individual officers such as Coles.’
[258] In my view a responsible journalist was entitled to rely on the private opinions of individual officers in the light of the whole history including the stance taken by the prosecution at the Brennan trial. Those individual opinions were no longer private when, at the pre-trial stage, Clark said that Redgrave was suspected of being involved in major offences of corruption, a view shared by Gaspar.
[259] In conclusion, in my view, the criticisms made by the judge are misplaced. McLagan has demonstrated that he did not depart from the standards required of a responsible journalist. I would allow the appeal.
Appeal allowed.
Rakesh Rajani Barrister
Trustee Solutions Ltd and others v Dubery and another
[2008] 1 All ER 826
[2007] EWCA Civ 771
Categories: COMPANY; Other: PENSIONS
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WARD, TUCKEY LJJ AND SIR PETER GIBSON
Hearing Date(s): 27 JUNE, 26 JULY 2007
Pension – Pension scheme – Company pension scheme – Winding up – Priority – Priority where person’s entitlement to payment of pension or other benefit has arisen – Whether entitlement arising only where pension actually in payment – Pensions Act 1995, s 73(3)(b).
The effect of a series of decisions of the Court of Justice of the European Communities commencing with Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660 on 17 May 1990 was that pension schemes which provided unequal retirement ages as between men and women were unlawful; that for pensionable service prior to 17 May 1990 it was not unlawful for pension benefits to be provided at different normal retirement dates for men and women; that a scheme could be amended so as to equalise benefits up or down, for example to make the normal retirement date for both men and women age 60 or 65; and that for pensionable service between 17 May 1990 and the date of any such amendment (a period known as the Barber window) men were entitled to be treated as if their normal retirement date was the same as the normal retirement date for women. The claimants were trustees of a company’s occupational pension scheme. Under rules adopted in 1986 (the rules) the retirement ages for male and female members of the scheme were 65 and 60 respectively. The company’s scheme included a power of amendment. In 1992 the company and the trustees sought to amend the rules to level down the scheme by increasing the normal retirement age of female members to 65 with effect from 1 October 1991. In 2001 the company went into creditors’ voluntary liquidation. The scheme, as an unsecured creditor of the company, commenced winding up in 2002 and was in deficit. The trustees applied to the court for directions, inter alia, as to whether the power of amendment had been validly exercised, and as to the priority of payments. The defendants were representative members of the scheme. Section 73a of the Pensions Act 1995 required the assets of a salary related occupational pension scheme which was being wound up to be applied in satisfying the liabilities of the scheme in respect of pensions and other benefits, including increases in pensions, in a particular order by reference to categories of liabilities specified in s 73(3). That subsection provided for priority ‘(b) . . . where a person’s entitlement to payment of pension or other benefit has arisen.' It was argued on behalf of the first defendant that a person’s entitlement to payment was not confined to cases where the pension was in payment but could arise where that person was entitled to call for immediate payment, that a male member of the scheme with an accrued Barber window pension had an absolute right under Community law to take that
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pension at the age of 60, but that the rules of the scheme and the requirements of the Inland Revenue did not allow only part of a pension to be taken so that a male member wishing to take his Barber window pension at the age of 60 had to retire and accept the application of an early retirement factor to the remaining accruals if they had been based on a normal retirement date at an age greater than 60. The judge held (i) that the power of amendment had not been validly exercised, so that the Barber window had never been closed; and (ii), accepting the arguments of the first defendant, that members of the scheme who had had the right to retire at the age of 60 in respect of any part of their service and who where aged between 60 and 64 at the date that the scheme had commenced winding up fell within s 73(3)(b) even in respect of pensions or other benefits which had accrued by service to which a normal retirement date of 65 applied. The second defendant appealed.
Held – Section 73(3)(b) was limited to pension and other benefits in payment or payment of which a member had a right to demand; it did not extend to benefits accrued outside the Barber window when the member had not yet reached the normal retirement date under the rules. Section 73 was concerned with the order of priority in which the assets of a scheme in winding up should be applied. The key word in s 73(3) was ‘entitlement’, which pointed to the rules which governed a member’s entitlement. The rules had to be treated as modified by the decisions of the Court of Justice, but that modification had had no effect on the rules relating to benefits which had accrued outside the Barber window. The Revenue’s requirements had to be treated as yielding to Community law conferring a right on male members of the scheme to receive their Barber window benefits at age 60, but without that right being construed as affecting the members’ other benefits just as the rules had to be treated as overridden by the need for the scheme to comply with Community law. The judge had placed too much reliance on the fact that the rules and the Revenue requirements only contemplated a single pension payable on retirement at or after the normal retirement date. The situation had arisen where more than one normal retirement date was required where there had been pensionable service both in and outside the Barber window and benefits had accrued by reference to different normal retirement dates. Accordingly, members of the scheme who had the right to retire at age 60 in respect of any part of their service and who were aged between 60 and 64 at the date that the scheme commenced winding up, fell within s 73(3)(b) of the 1995 Act but not in respect of pension or other benefits accrued by service to which a normal retiring age of 65 applied. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see [29]–[38], below).
Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660 and Coloroll Pension Trustees Ltd v Russell Case C-200/91 [1995] All ER (EC) 23 applied.
Decision of Lewison J [2007] 1 All ER 308 reversed in part.
Notes
For implementation of the principle of equal treatment, and for preferential liabilities on winding up, see 44(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 778, 845.
Section 270(1) of the Pensions Act 2004 substituted new ss 73, 73A, 73B for s 73 of the Pensions Act 1995 with effect from 6 April 2005.
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Cases referred to in judgments
AON Trust Corp Ltd v KPMG (a firm) [2005] EWCA Civ 1004, [2006] 1 All ER 238, [2006] ICR 18, [2006] 1 WLR 97.
Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344, [1991] 2 WLR 72, [1990] ECR I-1889, ECJ.
Barclays Bank plc v Holmes [2000] PLR 339.
Coloroll Pension Trustees Ltd v Russell Case C-200/91 [1995] All ER (EC) 23, [1995] ICR 179, ECJ.
Moroni v Collo GmbH Case C-110/91 [1994] IRLR 130, [1995] ICR 137, [1993] ECR I-6591, ECJ.
Appeal
The second defendant, Julia Cripps, appealed with permission of Jonathan Parker LJ from the part of the decision of Lewison J on 21 June 2006 ([2006] EWHC 1426, [2007] 1 All ER 303) relating to the effect of s 73 of the Pensions Act 1995 in proceedings in which the claimants, Trustee Solutions Ltd, Stephen Patrick Comar and Keith James Edwards, as trustees of the Colour Processing Laboratories Pension Scheme (the scheme) applied to the court for directions following the creditors’ voluntary liquidation of Graphic Resolution (CPL) Ltd, the principal employer under the scheme, and the commencement of the winding up of the scheme. The first defendant, Leslie Dubery, and Mrs Cripps had been joined as representative defendants. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sir Peter Gibson.
Keith Rowley QC (instructed by Eversheds) for Mrs Cripps.
Paul Newman (instructed by Lee & Priestley, Leeds) for Mr Dubery.
Nicolas Stallworthy (instructed by Nabarro) for the trustees.
Judgment was reserved.
26 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
SIR PETER GIBSON (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Ward LJ).
INTRODUCTION
[1] This appeal gives rise to a point of statutory construction which, we are told, is of some importance to the many occupational pension schemes which went into winding up between 6 April 1997, when s 73 of the Pensions Act 1995 came into force, and 6 April 2005 when a substantial amendment to s 73, effected by s 270 of the Pensions Act 2004, took effect.
[2] The point arises by reason of the impact of art 141 EC (formerly art 119 of the EC Treaty) of the amended Treaty of Rome, as interpreted by the European Court of Justice (the ECJ) in a series of decisions commencing with Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1990] ECR I-1889, on schemes which differentiated between male and female members for the normal retirement date (NRD). Until Barber’s decision given by the ECJ on 17 May 1990 British schemes usually mirrored the different ages at which state pensions were payable, namely 65 for males and 60 for females. Article 141 requires that male and female workers should receive equal pay for equal work or work of equal value. In Barber’s case the ECJ held that pensions are
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pay and must be equal for both men and women. Accordingly, schemes which provide for unequal retirement ages as between men and women are unlawful.
[3] In further decisions, most notably Coloroll Pension Trustees Ltd v Russell Case C-200/91 [1995] All ER (EC) 23, [1995] ICR 179, the ECJ decided further points arising out of Barber’s case and in particular that:
(1) for pensionable service prior to 17 May 1990 it was not unlawful for pension benefits to be provided at different NRDs for men and women;
(2) a scheme could be amended so as to equalise benefits up or down, for example to make the NRD for both men and women at age 60 or 65; and
(3) for pensionable service between 17 May and the date of any such amendment (a period known in the pensions industry as the Barber window or corridor) men were entitled to be treated as if their NRD was the same as the NRD for women.
Thus in the usual form of scheme men were to be treated as having their NRD at age 60, but only in respect of benefits accruing from pensionable service in the Barber window.
[4] Until recent years another usual feature of British schemes was that they provided pension benefits for a member of the scheme by reference to the member’s final salary. Many such schemes fell into deficit, the schemes’ liabilities to their members and other beneficiaries exceeding the assets of the schemes, and went into winding up. In December 2002 it was reported to Parliament that the number of schemes which went into winding up between 1 April 1997 and 31 March 2002 exceeded 29,000 and that the members of those schemes totalled nearly 1·6m.
[5] Schemes usually provide by their rules for the order in which, on a winding up, the liabilities of the scheme are to be met out of the assets of the scheme. However, since 1975 such provisions have been made subject to statutorily imposed priorities. Section 73 of the 1995 Act prescribes, for schemes to which it applies, the order of priority as between liabilities of the scheme for the application of the available assets. Inherent in such prescription is the consequence that, where the assets are insufficient, those scheme members to whom liabilities in a lower category are owed may receive less than those to whom liabilities in a higher category are owed and they may receive nothing at all. Whilst provision has been made out of other funds to assist members of some insolvent schemes, members of many schemes do not qualify, and politically it remains a contentious topic whether such provision should be extended to such schemes.
THE FACTS
[6] This appeal relates to the Colour Processing Laboratories Pension Scheme (the scheme). It is a final salary scheme contracted out of the state earnings related pension scheme. It was established by a deed dated 3 October 1960 and is governed by a set of rules. Those applicable are the third edition (the rules). They were introduced by a resolution dated 10 November 1986 of the trustees of the scheme, to which the scheme’s sponsoring employer, then called Colour Processing Laboratories Ltd (the principal employer), gave its consent. The rules were expressed to be applicable from 6 April 1978.
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[7] The rules provide for the NRD of a male member to be at age 65 and for a female member at age 60. The pensionable service of a member is limited to service in the period between the member becoming a member and the NRD of that member. The rules require contributions to be made weekly or monthly or at such other interval as the employers might determine by each member in pensionable service and periodically by the employers. By r 12(A) a member in service on his or her NRD is entitled to a pension commencing the next day and unless the member exercises an option to postpone retirement and the commencement of the pension, which the member could do for up to five years beyond the NRD, the member is treated as having retired on the NRD. The quantum of the pension is calculated by reference to the member’s years of service and final salary. By r 12(B) provision is made for withdrawal by the member from service before the NRD with the consent of the employers and for entitlement to a deferred pension commencing the day after the NRD, with an option available to the member with the consent of the scheme’s trustees to take a reduced pension commencing on or after the member attains the age of 50. Rule 12(C) provides for an immediate pension on a member’s early retirement (not earlier than on the attainment by the member of the age of 50) with the employer’s consent or on account of incapacity. Rule 38 contains a power to amend the rules. Rule 40(A) provides for the winding up of the scheme on specified contingencies. By r 40(B) the priorities in which the assets of the scheme are to be applied to meet liabilities are laid down.
[8] In 1992 the principal employer and the scheme’s trustees sought to close the Barber window by an appropriate amendment to the rules. They attempted to level down the scheme by increasing the NRD of female members to 65 with effect from 1 October 1991. From that date the scheme was administered on the basis that benefits had been equalised.
[9] On 1 November 2001 the principal employer went into creditors’ voluntary liquidation. There is unlikely to be any dividend for unsecured creditors, of which the scheme is one. The scheme went into winding up on 15 February 2002 heavily in deficit. As at 1 November 2004 the scheme’s liabilities were £17·824m as against assets of £6·5m. As at September 2003 the scheme had 230 deferred members and 63 pensioners.
[10] The claimants, Trustee Solutions Ltd, Mr Comar and Mr Edwards, are the trustees of the scheme. They decided to seek the directions of the court on three issues. The first related to whether the power of amendment had been validly exercised. The second related to whether an estoppel arose with the result that the Barber window must be treated as having been closed. The third concerned the application of s 73. It is not in dispute that s 73 does apply to the scheme. What is in dispute is how it applies and that turns on a question of construction.
[11] To assist the court in the determination of those issues representative defendants were joined. The first defendant, Leslie Dubery, was appointed to represent (a) all members of the scheme in whose interests it was to argue that there had been no valid exercise of the power of amendment and that no estoppel had arisen and (b) all beneficiaries under the scheme by reason of the pensionable service of those members. He was employed by the principal employer and was a contributing member of the scheme between 1992 and 2000. He was aged 64 when the winding up commenced. The second defendant, Julia Cripps, was born on 11 October 1952 and so was 49 when the winding up commenced. She too was employed by the principal employer and was a contributing member of the
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scheme between 1975 and 1988 when her service terminated and she became a deferred member of the scheme. She was appointed to represent all other beneficiaries under the scheme. I shall come to the respective positions of Mr Dubery and Mrs Cripps in relation to the third issue later.
[12] The proceedings were heard by Lewison J ([2006] EWHC 1426 (Ch), [2007] 1 All ER 308, [2007] ICR 412). He held that on the first issue the power of amendment had not been validly exercised and on the second issue that no estoppel had arisen. It is unnecessary to say anything more about those issues as there is no appeal from the judge’s decision on either of them. It is sufficient to note that the result of the judge’s decision on those issues is that the Barber window was never closed.
[13] I must now explain the third issue and the judge’s decision on that. Section 73 requires the assets of a salary-related occupational pension scheme which is being wound up to be applied in satisfying the liabilities of the scheme in respect of pensions and other benefits, including increases in pensions, in a particular order by reference to categories of liabilities specified in the lettered paragraphs of sub-s (3). By s 73(2) if the assets are insufficient to satisfy the amounts of the liabilities specified in sub-s (3) the assets must be applied first towards satisfying the amounts of the liabilities specified in earlier paragraphs of sub-s (3) before the amounts of the liabilities specified in later paragraphs and when the amounts of the liabilities mentioned in one of those paragraphs cannot be satisfied in full, those amounts must be satisfied in the same proportions.
[14] Section 73(3), which by the time it came into force had already been amended by the Occupational Pension Schemes (Winding Up) Regulations 1996, 1996/3126, provides (as so amended) as follows:
‘The liabilities referred to in subsection (2) are—(a) any liability for pensions or other benefits which, in the opinion of the trustees, are derived from the payment by any member of the scheme by voluntary contributions, (aa) where—
(i) the trustees or managers of the scheme are entitled to benefits under a contract of insurance which was entered into before 6th April 1997 with a view to securing the whole or part of the scheme’s liability for any pension or other benefit payable in respect of one particular person whose entitlement to payment of a pension or other benefit has arisen and for any benefit which will be payable in respect of that person on his death, and
(ii) either that contract may not be surrendered or the amount payable on surrender does not exceed the liability secured by the contract (but excluding liability for increases to pensions), the liability is so secured,
(b) in a case not falling within paragraph (aa), where a person’s entitlement to payment of pension or other benefit has arisen, liability for that pension or benefit and for any pension or other benefit which will be payable in respect of that person on his death (but excluding increases to pensions),
(c) any liability for—
(i) for equivalent pension benefits (within the meaning of section
Page 832 of [2008] 1 All ER 826
57(1) of the National Insurance Act 1965), guaranteed minimum pensions, protected rights, section 9(2B) rights (within the meaning of regulation 1(2) of the Contracting-out (Transfer and Transfer Payment Regulations 1996), or safeguarding rights (within the meaning of section 68A(1) of the Pension Schemes Act 1993)(but excluding increases to pensions), or
(ii) in respect of members with less than two years pensionable service who are not entitled to accrued rights under the scheme, for the return of contributions,
(d) any liability for increases to pensions referred to in paragraphs (aa) and (b),
(e) any liability for increases to pensions referred to in paragraph (c),
(f) so far as not included in paragraph (c) or (e), any liability for—
(i) pensions or other benefits which have accrued to or in respect of any members of the scheme (including increases to pensions), or
(ii) future pensions, or other future benefits, attributable (directly or indirectly) to pension credits (including increases to pensions,
and, for the purposes of subsection (2), the amounts of the liabilities mentioned in paragraphs (aa) to (f) are to be taken to be the amounts calculated and verified in the prescribed manner.’
[15] The issue before the judge concerned para (b) of s 73(3). As he put it at [60], the question is essentially whether a male member, who had accrued pensionable service within the Barber window and who had attained the age of 60 before the commencement of the winding up of the scheme, had an entitlement which fell within para (b). Mr Dubery was such a person. If the answer was in the affirmative, he would be paid in priority to Mrs Cripps, whose deferred pension fell within s 73(3)(f). The judge considered the rival arguments then advanced on behalf of the representative defendants.
[16] For Mr Dubery it was argued that a person’s entitlement to payment was not confined to cases where the pension was in payment but might equally arise where that person is entitled to call for immediate payment, that a male member with an accrued Barber window pension has an absolute right under European law to take that pension at the age of 60, but that the rules, referring to the payment of ‘a pension’, not ‘part of a pension’, and the requirements of the Inland Revenue do not allow only part of a pension to be taken; accordingly, if a male member wanted to take his Barber window pension at age 60, he must retire and accept the application of an early retirement factor to the remaining accruals, the required consent of the employer under the rule relating to early retirement being treated as not capable of refusal as otherwise there would be a breach of European law.
[17] For Mrs Cripps it was argued that there can only be one NRD and no one had an entitlement to payment of a pension before the NRD prescribed by the rules in force at the commencement of the winding up.
[18] The judge rejected the latter argument, saying:
Page 833 of [2008] 1 All ER 826
‘[65] In my judgment this argument overlooks one of the primary functions of the normal retirement date, which is to act as a calculator for the accrual of pension. An accrual in this sense is an entitlement to pension earned in a particular period of pensionable service. It is therefore possible for different normal retirement dates to apply to different periods of pensionable service, even though in the end there will only be one pension payable. Moreover, the effect of Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Group Case C-262/88 . . . was to confer on male members the right to retire at the age of 60; and that right cannot be taken away from them.
[66] I conclude that the argument in favour of an affirmative answer to the question is correct. In my judgment the entitlement to pension of members who have the right to retire for part of their service and who had attained the age of 60 at the date of winding up falls within s 73(3)(b) of the 1995 Act.’
[19] Accordingly the judge declared that members of the scheme who had the right to retire at age 60 in respect of any part of their service and who were aged between 60 and 64 at the date that the scheme commenced winding up fell within s 73(3)(b) even in respect of pension or other benefits accrued by service to which an NRD at age 65 applied. It would appear that the judge accepted the whole of the argument advanced on behalf of Mr Dubery.
THE APPEAL
[20] A much more fully argued case was advanced on behalf of Mrs Cripps on the application to this court for permission to appeal against that part of the judge’s order which related to s 73. Jonathan Parker LJ gave such permission on the papers.
[21] On this appeal Mr Keith Rowley QC, who did not appear below, appears for Mrs Cripps. Mr Paul Newman appears for Mr Dubery and Mr Nicolas Stallworthy appears for the trustees, as they did below. Mr Stallworthy very properly maintained a neutral stance as between Mrs Cripps and Mr Dubery, but he helpfully drew our attention to a few points on the question of construction.
[22] Mr Rowley accepts and indeed relies on the fact that a male member of the scheme who has accrued Barber window benefits by reference to pensionable service within the Barber window for which an NRD at age 60 applies will have a different NRD, namely at age 65, for benefits in respect of pensionable service prior to 17 May 1990 and similarly for benefits which accrue in respect of pensionable service continuing after the closing of the Barber window. Mr Rowley identifies three possibilities in respect of the application of s 73(3)(b) to such a situation:
(a) no entitlement to payment of pension or other benefit has arisen at all;
(b) entitlement to payment of the member’s Barber window benefits only has arisen;
(c) entitlement to payment of the whole of his benefits, including his Barber window benefits and benefits in respect of any pensionable service before and after the Barber window, has arisen.
The judge found that (c) was correct. The judge, we are told, in the course of the argument referred to (b) as a possibility, but neither counsel for Mrs Cripps nor Mr Newman for Mr Dubery advocated it and the judge did not refer to it in his judgment. On this appeal Mr Rowley’s initial submission in his skeleton
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argument was in favour of (a), alternatively (b), but in his oral submissions he said that he would have been content for the appeal to proceed on the basis that he would argue for (b), only relying on (a) as a fallback position if the court did not accept that (b) was correct. Mr Newman indicated in his skeleton argument that he would have been content not to oppose Mr Rowley’s primary oral submission in favour of (b). However, this court requested counsel to argue the various possibilities fully and so Mr Rowley deployed arguments in favour of (a) and, alternatively, (b) while Mr Newman argued against both (a) and (b) and supported the judge’s conclusion that (c) was correct.
[23] Mr Rowley submitted that the normal meaning to be attributed to ‘where a person’s entitlement to payment of pension or other benefit has arisen’ is where a person is in receipt of the pension or other benefit. As he pointed out, that is supported by the distinction in s 67 of the 1995 Act, as originally enacted, between ‘accrued right’ (as defined in s 124(2) of the Act) and ‘entitlement’ and by authority on s 67. Thus Neuberger J, in Barclays Bank plc v Holmes [2000] PLR 339 at 362 (para 129), said that ‘when using the word “entitlement” in section 67(2), the legislature had in mind a case where the right to payment had arisen, in other words, to take the normal case, it covers a pension in payment’. In para 130 that judge contrasted ‘accrued right’ as referring to future benefits. In AON Trust Corp Ltd v KPMG (a firm) [2005] EWCA Civ 1004 at [181], [2006] 1 All ER 238 at [181], [2006] ICR 18 Jonathan Parker LJ applied the same distinction between ‘entitlement’ and ‘accrued right’, namely that ‘entitlement’ refers to a pension already in payment whereas ‘accrued right’ refers to a current right to a future payment. However, I do not read these authorities as doing more than give the typical examples of what is an entitlement and what is an accrued right.
[24] Mr Rowley then said that if ‘entitlement’ should be given a wider meaning, it should be limited to the case where the member satisfies the qualifications prescribed by the scheme’s rules and has done all that is necessary to render himself eligible to receive the benefit. He submitted that s 73(3)(b) also included a case where the pension or other benefit had unconditionally fallen due for payment. He conceded that Mr Dubery, whose service was entirely within the Barber window, whose NRD was by reason of Barber and Coloroll at age 60 and who was over 60 when the winding up commenced was a person whose entitlement to pension or other benefit had arisen, even though the pension was not in payment. Although Mr Newman pointed out that that concession, which had not been made below, may have rendered Mr Dubery unsuitable to be a representative defendant for all in whose interest it was to argue against possibilities (a) and (b) and for possibility (c), Mr Newman’s careful arguments were sufficiently comprehensive to cover those who, for example, had service outside the Barber window and so were not entirely on all fours with Mr Dubery.
[25] Mr Rowley suggested that the judge had construed s 73(3)(b) too widely in holding that it embraced not only pensions in payment but also where a person is entitled to call for immediate payment of pension. He submitted that a right to call for payment of a pension is not the same as an entitlement to receive it.
[26] Mr Newman pointed out that elsewhere in the 1995 Act (see ss 52(1), 54(2) and 163(3)) the phrase ‘pension in payment’ or materially indistinguishable phrases appear and could have been used in s 73(3)(b) if that
Page 835 of [2008] 1 All ER 826
is what was intended. Further, any requirement that the pension or other benefit be actually in payment could lead to gross injustice, for example where the payment of the benefit had been requested by the member but through mistake, oversight or other delay not the fault of or outside the control of the member the payment had not been made. It would also be surprising if Parliament intended to place in a lower priority liabilities owed to those who had attained their NRDs but had chosen to continue working than those who had already elected to take their pensions. I need not say more on this as what I take to be Mr Rowley’s substantial case was demonstrated by his concession that Mr Dubery, although not in actual receipt of his pension, was a person with the requisite entitlement, in that he had become unconditionally entitled under European law to payment of his pension on reaching the NRD. Mr Newman submitted that the fact that a member who has reached the NRD can elect to receive his or her pension by retiring from service means that he or she is at all times entitled to the pension. He further submitted, in my view correctly, that the difference between Mr Rowley’s position, accepting that an entitlement to pension included the situation where the member had the right to receive a pension, and Mr Newman’s own position, supporting the judge that such entitlement included a right to call for payment in circumstances where the entitlement lay wholly in the hands of the member, was wafer thin.
[27] Mr Newman was also able to obtain some support for his submissions from provisions of the Pension Schemes Act 1993 which relate to the preservation of benefits for members leaving service early. Thereby such members become entitled to short service benefit in the form of a deferred pension. Sections 69–74 of the 1993 Act require schemes to ensure that such members are treated no less favourably than those members who retire at what is called normal pension age (NPA) and thereby become entitled to long service benefit in the form of an immediate pension. Short service benefit and long service benefit must be calculated and accrue on the same basis. To compare the accrual of the two types of benefit it must be possible to ascertain with certainty what the long service benefit will be, and it is therefore also necessary to say with certainty what the NPA will be. Part of the definition of the NPA includes (in s 180(l)(b) of the 1993 Act) ‘the earliest age at which the member is entitled to receive benefits . . . on his retirement from such employment’. As Mr Newman pointed out, if ‘entitled to receive’ does not include an entitlement to call for payment of a pension not yet in payment, the preservation requirements would be unworkable as the NPA would depend on the future date when the member retired and so elected to receive the pension. If ‘entitled to receive benefits’ in the 1993 Act includes a situation where the member can require the pension to be paid, so the similar phrase ‘entitlement to payment of pension or other benefit’ in the 1995 Act, which amended the 1993 Act, should be construed similarly.
[28] For these reasons I would reject Mr Rowley’s submissions in favour of possibility (a). That conclusion renders it unnecessary to consider Mr Newman’s further argument raised in a respondent’s notice that even if Mr Rowley were right to contend that entitlement to payment of pension or other benefit referred to the pension or other benefit being in payment or unconditionally due for payment, by reason of rr 12(A) and 40(A) members not then in receipt of pension or other benefit are to be treated as having retired or left service immediately before the winding up and so were entitled to
Page 836 of [2008] 1 All ER 826
payment. Nor is it necessary or appropriate to consider a further new argument of Mr Newman that as a matter of law the employment contracts of the employees of the principal employer terminated when it went into liquidation on 2 November 2001. That might require a factual inquiry not undertaken below and in any event is inconsistent with the way the matter has proceeded thus far, the employees having been treated as continuing in employment at least until the commencement of the winding up of the Scheme.
[29] I come now to possibility (b). There is no doubt but that the effect of the Barber and Coloroll decisions has been to require that schemes must be administered on the footing that for pensionable service in the Barber window male members are entitled to treat their NRDs as being at the same age as for female members with the consequence that the scheme must be construed as modified to that extent. The judge appears to have accepted the argument for Mr Dubery that because the rules and the requirements of the Revenue do not allow part only of a pension to be taken, the member wishing to take his Barber window pension at the age of 60 must retire and accept the application of an early retirement factor to the remaining accruals if they have been based on an NRD at an age greater than 60, the requirement of the rules that retirement before the NRD needs the consent of the employers being treated as satisfied as to refuse consent would be a breach of European law.
[30] Mr Rowley submitted that the judge thereby erred. He had two routes to that conclusion, one being based on a construction of s 73 and the rules and the other being based on European law.
[31] I start with construction. Mr Rowley submitted that s 73 was not concerned with payment but with the order of priority in which the assets of a scheme in winding up should be applied. He pointed out that under s 73(3) members can have entitlements to different benefits with different priorities. Thus the liability for benefits derived from voluntary contributions comes highest in the order of priority while the liability for pension increases comes lowest. He argued that the key word in s 73(3)(b) was ‘entitlement’ which pointed one to the rules which governed a member’s entitlement. While the rules have to be treated as modified by Barber to the limited extent indicated by Coloroll, that modification, Mr Rowley said, had no effect on the rules relating to benefits which accrued outside the Barber window. He accepted that under para 6.1 of the Revenue’s Occupational Pension Scheme Practice Notes IR12 (2001) on the Approval of Occupational Pension Schemes it was provided that pension entitlement for a member under a scheme must come into payment immediately upon the member leaving service at or after NRD or if remaining in service no later than the attainment of age 75. However, he submitted that the possibility of benefits accruing by reference to more than one NRD is simply not contemplated by IR 12 nor for that matter by the rules. Just as the rules must be treated as overridden by the need for the scheme to comply with European law, so the Revenue’s requirements must be treated as yielding to European law conferring a right on male members of the scheme to receive their Barber window benefits at age 60, but without that right being construed as affecting the members’ other benefits.
[32] Mr Newman relied on the fact that neither the rules nor the Revenue’s requirements contemplated pension benefits being taken in tranches. He stressed that entitlement to payment of benefits was the key concept in
Page 837 of [2008] 1 All ER 826
s 73(3)(b) and said that to assess what benefits were payable to members at a particular point in time can only be done by reference to the rules construed by reference to the relevant Revenue practice. He drew our attention to another decision of the ECJ, Moroni v Collo GmbH Case C-110/91 [1994] IRLR 130, [1995] ICR 137, but he accepted that it did not determine the question now under consideration.
[33] In my judgment Mr Rowley’s submissions on possibility (b) are to be preferred. With all respect to the judge, he placed too much reliance on the fact that the rules and the Revenue requirements only contemplated a single pension payable on retirement at or after the NRD. But the rules and the Revenue requirements never contemplated the situation that has now arisen as a result of Barber and Coloroll with more than one NRD being required where there has been pensionable service both in and outside the Barber window and benefits have accrued by reference to different NRDs. I accept that the reference in s 73(3)(b) to ‘entitlement to payment’ takes one to the rules and that it is permissible to construe them having regard to Revenue requirements, but the rules and Revenue requirements, both of which were drawn without reference to Barber and its complex consequences, must yield to European law and be modified accordingly. But I can see no good reason why the modification should extend beyond what is necessary to give effect to European law. The ECJ has made clear that Barber is not retrospective and accordingly the rules continue to apply save to the extent of the necessary modifications. The Revenue’s requirements must also now take account of the fact that different benefits can accrue to a member by reference to more than one NRD. The judge had rightly recognised in para [65] of his judgment that there can be an entitlement to pension earned in a particular period to which one NRD applies and an entitlement to pension earned in another period to which another NRD applies. Section 73 itself recognises different tranches of pension to which different priorities apply. Accordingly, I would construe s 73(3)(b) as limited to pension and other benefits in payment or payment of which a member has a right to demand but as not extending to benefits accrued outside the Barber window when the member has not yet reached the NRD under the rules.
[34] I confess that I am the happier to reach this conclusion because of the potentially distorting effect on the statutory priorities in s 73 which would otherwise result if the judge were correct. Take a case where, as in the present case if the attempt to close the Barber window had succeeded, the window had been closed from 1 October 1991. On the judge’s decision a male member who had attained 60 at the commencement of the winding up and who had 40 years’ pensionable service with benefits accruing both before 17 May 1990 and after 1 October 1991 would have not only his 17 months’ Barber window benefits but also other benefits in respect of as much as 38 years 7 months’ service prioritised. That would be an extraordinary result. If the judge’s decision were correct, Mrs Cripps and those like her would have received nothing by way of pension benefit.
[35] My conclusion in favour of (b) renders it unnecessary for me to consider Mr Rowley’s alternative European law route to the same result.
[36] For these reasons I would allow the appeal on the s 73 issue and substitute for the judge’s declaration a declaration that members of the scheme who had the right to retire at age 60 in respect of any part of their service and
Page 838 of [2008] 1 All ER 826
who were aged between 60 and 64 at the date that the scheme commenced winding up fell within s73(3)(b) but not in respect of pension or other benefits accrued by service to which an NRD at age 65 applied.
TUCKEY LJ.
[37] I agree.
WARD LJ.
[38] I also agree.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Re DLP Ltd’s Patent
[2008] 1 All ER 839
[2007] EWHC 2669 (Pat)
Categories: INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY; Patents
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION (PATENTS COURT)
Lord(s): KITCHIN J
Hearing Date(s): 26 OCTOBER, 16 NOVEMBER 2007
Patent – Appeal – Comptroller’s opinion as to validity or infringement – Review of Comptroller’s opinion – Appeal from review to High Court – Appellant applying to Comptroller for opinion as to infringement of patent relating to shower tray by third party’s product – Examiner issuing opinion of no infringement – Hearing officer agreeing with conclusion of examiner upon review – Appellant seeking to appeal to High Court – Whether appellant having right of appeal against decision of Comptroller – Patents Act 1977, ss 74A, 74B, 97 – Patent Rules 1995, SI 1995/2093, r 77K.
The appellant company was the proprietor of UK patent 2,394,175B, which related to shower trays, particularly to low level shower trays which could readily be accessed by infirm or disabled people while seated in a wheelchair. Sections 74Aa and 74Bb of the Patents Act 1977, inserted into the 1977 Act by s 13(1) of the Patents Act 2004, introduced a new system of opinions of the Comptroller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks as to validity or infringement of a patent upon request by the patent holder. Section 74A(4) provided that such an opinion would not be binding for any purposes. Section 74B allowed rules to make provision for a review procedure and for a right of appeal against a review decision in prescribed cases. The Patents Rules 1995 provided details of the application process, the right of review and the right of appeal against the review decision. The appellant sought an opinion from the Comptroller pursuant to s 74A of the 1977 Act, as to whether a shower tray made and sold by a third party infringed its patent. In accordance with the statutory scheme, the examiner issued an opinion that the shower tray in issue did not infringe. The appellant requested a review of that decision under s 74B. The hearing officer ordered certain parts of the original opinion to be set aside but found no fault with the overall conclusions of the examiner. The appellant sought to challenge that decision pursuant to s 97c of the 1977 Act and r 77Kd of the Patents Rules 1995, SI 1995/2093. Rule 77K gave a limited right of appeal against a decision on review, providing that no appeal under s 97 would lie from a decision to set aside the opinion under r 77J(1)(a), except where the appeal related to a part of the opinion that was not set aside. The principal issues for the court were: (i) whether there had been a decision against which there lay a right of appeal; (ii) if so, whether the fact that it was inherent in the procedure that it could only lead to a non-binding opinion or decision precluded the court from hearing the appeal; (iii) the nature of such an appeal to the High Court; and (iv) whether the appeal in the instant case was to be allowed.
Page 840 of [2008] 1 All ER 839
Held – (1) Upon the true construction of both s 74B of the 1977 Act and r 77K of the 1995 rules, an appeal should lie as of right where it related to part of an opinion that had not been set aside on review. By virtue of s 97 an appeal lay to the High Court from any decision of the Comptroller under the Act or the rules, subject to certain exceptions. The appeal in the instant case was not excluded by any of the provisions referred to in s 97 of the Act, nor was it excluded by r 77K of the 1995 rules. Accordingly, the appellant had an appeal as of right against the review decision of the hearing officer which had partially upheld the original opinion of the examiner (see [18], below).
(2) Both the 1977 Act and the 1995 rules provided a regime for the provision of non-binding opinions which were potentially of great value to all persons concerned with the validity or infringement of a patent. They also provided for an application, by the patent holder, for a review of an unfavourable opinion and for an appeal as of right against an unfavourable decision on such a review. Such an appeal did not involve an academic question; it involved a living issue, namely whether the opinion to which the patent holder was entitled had reached a wrong conclusion. In those circumstances, it would be wrong to decline to exercise the jurisdiction conferred by 1977 Act and the 1995 rules (see [19], [20], below); Sun Life Assurance of Canada v Jervis [1944] 1 All ER 469 distinguished.
(3) An appeal to the High Court had in general to be limited to a review of the decision of the hearing officer. The decision the subject of the appeal was itself a review of the opinion of the examiner and a hearing officer, on review, and the High Court, on appeal, had to be sensitive to the nature of that starting point. It followed that a hearing officer should only decide an opinion was wrong if the examiner had made an error of principle or reached a conclusion that was clearly wrong; and, on appeal, the High Court should only reverse a decision of a hearing officer if he had failed to recognise such an error or wrong conclusion in the opinion and so declined to set it aside. Whilst the court had to give a reasoned decision in relation to the grounds of appeal it should not go further. It was not the function of the High Court on appeal (nor that of the hearing officer on review) to express an opinion on the question the subject of the original request. Moreover, the proposed approach of the Comptroller not to appear on such appeals as a matter of course was entirely reasonable (see [21], [22], [26], below).
(4) In all the circumstances, both the examiner and the hearing officer had directed themselves correctly in law and had properly considered the claim 1 of the patent in suit in the light of the specification and through the eyes of the skilled person. Accordingly, the opinion was not one which had been clearly wrong and the appeal would be dismissed (see [39], below).
Notes
For opinions by Patent Office as to validity or infringement, see Supp to 35 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 598A.
For the Patents Act 1977, ss 74A, 74B, 97, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 851, 876.
For the Patents Rules 1995, SI 1995/2093, r 77K, see 14(2) Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (4th edn) (2007 reissue) 335.
Cases referred to in judgment
EI Du Pont De Nemours & Co v ST Dupont [2003] EWCA Civ 1368, [2004] IP & T 559, [2006] 1 WLR 2793.
Page 841 of [2008] 1 All ER 839
Kirin-Amgen Inc v Hoechst Marion Roussel Ltd, Hoescht Marion Roussel Ltd v Kirin-Amgen [2004] UKHL 46, [2005] 1 All ER 667.
Sun Life Assurance Co of Canada v Jervis [1944] 1 All ER 469, [1944] AC 111, HL.
Appeal
The appellant, DLP Ltd, the proprietor of UK patent no 2,394,175B, sought an opinion from the Comptroller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks pursuant to s 74A of the Patents Act 1977 as to whether a product of a third party infringed its patent. On 20 October 2006, the examiner issued an opinion that it did not. A review of that opinion, pursuant to s 74B of the 1977 Act, was issued by the hearing officer, Mr Walker, acting for the Comptroller, on 26 April 2007, whereby he ordered certain parts of the examiner’s opinion to be set aside but found no fault with its overall conclusion. The appellant appealed to the High Court. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Richard Hacon (instructed by Marks & Clerk) for the appellant.
Michael Tappin (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Comptroller.
Judgment was reserved.
16 November 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
KITCHIN J.
INTRODUCTION
[1] This is the first appeal before this court under the new scheme for ‘Comptroller’s opinions’. It raises two important issues: (i) Should this court entertain such an appeal at all? (ii) If it does, what approach should it adopt?
[2] On 19 July 2006, the appellant (DLP) sought an opinion from the Comptroller under s 74A of the Patents Act 1977 as to whether a shower tray made and sold by a third party, Scrabo Bathing Care (Scrabo), infringed its UK patent no 2,394,175B (the patent). On 20 October 2006, and in accordance with the statutory scheme, the examiner issued an opinion that the Scrabo shower tray did not infringe the patent. DLP requested a review of the opinion which was duly issued by Mr Walker, the hearing officer acting for the Comptroller, on 26 April 2007. The hearing officer ordered certain parts of the original opinion to be set aside but found no fault with its overall conclusion. DLP now appeals to this court against that decision. The appeal is brought under s 74B of the Act and the rules made under that section.
[3] A preliminary hearing of the appeal took place before Pumfrey J on 18 October 2007. In the course of that hearing an important feature of the procedure was canvassed, namely that it can only ever result in opinions or decisions on review which are non binding. I understand this led the learned judge to express reservations as to whether this court should entertain the appeal for essentially two reasons: first, whether the review by the hearing officer is a decision against which there is a right of appeal; second, whether the appeal is of a type with which the court should, in any event, refuse to deal. Accordingly, he directed that these issues should be addressed by both the Comptroller and DLP at the substantive hearing. As a result, I have had the benefit of submissions upon them by Mr Tappin on behalf of the Comptroller, and Mr Hacon on behalf of DLP.
Page 842 of [2008] 1 All ER 839
THE LEGAL FRAMEWORK
[4] The framework of the opinion system was created by ss 74A and 74B of the 1977 Act which were introduced by s 13 of the Patents Act 2004.
[5] Section 74A deals with opinions and reads:
‘(1) The proprietor of a patent or any other person may request the comptroller to issue an opinion—(a) as to whether a particular act constitutes, or (if done) would constitute, an infringement of the patent; (b) as to whether, or to what extent, the invention in question is not patentable because the condition in section 1(1)(a) or (b) above is not satisfied.
(2) Subsection (1) above applies even if the patent has expired or has been surrendered.
(3) The comptroller shall issue an opinion if requested to do so under subsection (1) above, but shall not do so—(a) in such circumstances as may be prescribed, or (b) if for any reason he considers it inappropriate in all the circumstances to do so.
(4) An opinion under this section shall not be binding for any purposes.
(5) An opinion under this section shall be prepared by an examiner.
(6) In relation to a decision of the comptroller whether to issue an opinion under this section—(a) for the purposes of section 101 below, only the person making the request under subsection (1) above shall be regarded as a party to a proceeding before the comptroller; and (b) no appeal shall lie at the instance of any other person.’
[6] Section 74B allows rules to make provision for a review procedure and for there to be a right of appeal against a decision made on a review in prescribed cases. It reads:
‘(1) Rules may make provision for a review before the comptroller, on an application by the proprietor or an exclusive licensee of the patent in question, of an opinion under section 74A above.
(2) The rules may, in particular—(a) prescribe the circumstances in which, and the period within which, an application may be made; (b) provide that, in prescribed circumstances, proceedings for a review may not be brought or continued where other proceedings have been brought; (c) make provision under which, in prescribed circumstances, proceedings on a review are to be treated for prescribed purposes as if they were proceedings under section 61(1)(c) or (e), 71(1) or 72(1)(a) above; (d) provide for there to be a right of appeal against a decision made on a review only in prescribed cases.’
[7] The relevant rules (rr 77A–K of the Patents Rules 1995, SI 1995/2093) came into force on 1 October 2005. They provide details of the application process, the right of review and the right of appeal against the review decision.
THE OPINION
[8] The opinion procedure is set forth in rr 77B–G. The scheme is relatively straightforward and I can summarise the material aspects of it quite shortly. Any person may request the Comptroller to issue an opinion as to whether a particular act constitutes an infringement or as to whether an invention is patentable. The procedure begins with a request setting out the question upon which an opinion is sought, the requester’s submissions on that question and any matters of fact which are requested to be taken into account. The requester must
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provide details of any persons having an interest in the question and of any proceedings of which the requester is aware which relate to the patent and which may be relevant to the question. The Comptroller then advertises and notifies interested parties of the request. Any person may, but is not required to, file observations on any issue raised by the request. The Comptroller then refers the request to an examiner for the preparation of the opinion and the Comptroller issues the opinion by sending a copy to the requester, the patent holder and any other person who has filed observations. Appropriate particulars are entered on the register throughout.
[9] Importantly, the opinion is not binding for all purposes (see s 74A(4)). The aim of the scheme was explained in a consultation paper issued by the Patent Office (as it then was) before the rules were finalised (see The Patents Act 2004: Patent Office Opinions and Other Changes to the Patents Rules). In short, it is intended to provide a low cost service which helps to resolve patent disputes, and so encourages innovation, by providing a quick, balanced and affordable way for parties to get an impartial assessment of key infringement and validity issues. The Comptroller aims to provide a reasoned opinion and express a firm view, rather than trying to assess the likelihood of invalidity or infringement in percentage terms. It was also noted that the opinion can only be as good as the material submitted allows. However, it was hoped that an opinion might assist the parties to focus their minds on the key issues, test and understand the strength of their cases and so better enable them to negotiate a settlement rather than engaging in litigation.
THE REVIEW
[10] The rules relating to the review process read:
‘77H. Review of opinion.—(1) The patent holder may, before the end of the period of three months beginning with the date on which the opinion is issued, apply to the comptroller for a review of the opinion.
(2) However, such proceedings for a review may not be brought (or if brought may not be continued) if the issue raised by the review has been decided in other proceedings.
(3) The application shall be made on Patents Form 2/77, and shall be accompanied by a copy and a statement in duplicate setting out fully the grounds on which the review is sought.
(4) The statement shall contain particulars of any proceedings of which the applicant is aware which may be relevant to the question whether the proceedings for a review may be brought or continued.
(5) The application may be made on the following grounds only—(a) that the opinion wrongly concluded that the patent was invalid, or was invalid to a limited extent; or (b) that, by reason of its interpretation of the specification of the patent, the opinion wrongly concluded that a particular act did not or would not constitute an infringement of the patent.
77I. Procedure on review.—(1) Upon receipt of the application, the comptroller shall send a copy of the form and statement filed under rule 77H—(a) to the requester (if different from the applicant); and (b) to all persons who filed observations under rule 77F.
(2) The comptroller shall advertise the application in such manner as he may think fit.
(3) Before the end of the relevant period, any person may file a statement in support of the application or a counter-statement contesting it (which in
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either case must be in duplicate), and on so doing shall become a party to the proceedings.
(4) The relevant period is the later to end of the following periods—(a) the period of four weeks beginning with the date that the application is advertised under paragraph (2); (b) the period of two months beginning with the date on which the opinion is issued under rule 77G(2).
(5) The comptroller shall send to the other parties a copy of each statement or counter-statement filed under paragraph (3).
(6) The comptroller may give such directions as he thinks fit with regard to the subsequent procedure.
77J. Outcome of review.—(1) Upon the completion of the proceedings under rule 77I the comptroller shall either—(a) set aside the opinion in whole or in part; or (b) decide that no reason has been shown for the opinion to be set aside.
(2) A decision under paragraph (1)(a) or (b) shall not estop any party to proceedings from raising any issue regarding the validity or the infringement of the patent.’
[11] It is apparent that only the ‘patent holder’ (the proprietor of the patent and any exclusive licensee) may apply to the Comptroller for a review of the opinion. The thinking behind this limitation was that any party named in an opinion must have a right to challenge the opinion if it is adverse to him. Where a third party has requested an opinion then this can be achieved by launching full proceedings. If he dislikes an opinion that the patent is wholly or partially valid then he may apply for revocation. If he dislikes an opinion that a particular act infringes the patent then he may apply for a declaration of non-infringement. However, it was considered that a patent holder faced with an adverse opinion may not have the same opportunity. The reason is explained in paras 33, 34 of the consultation paper:
‘The patent holder may apply to have an adverse opinion on validity set aside, and this would include an opinion which suggested that the patent was only partially valid. It is important to provide this opportunity since—in the absence of a third party launching revocation proceedings or committing an allegedly infringing act—the patent holder may have no other way of tackling an adverse opinion on validity that he feels is wrong.
34. The patent holder may also apply to have an adverse opinion on infringement set aside, but only where the opinion has come to that adverse view as a result of (what the patent holder believes is) an erroneous construction of the patent specification. Generally speaking, if the opinion has concluded that no infringement is taking place and the patent holder disagrees, he may sue for infringement. This could include the circumstances where the patent holder disagrees with the way that the claims have been construed. But suing for infringement is not possible if the opinion was sought on a potential or hypothetical act, and in such circumstances it would be unfair to deny the patent holder a chance to overturn an infringement opinion based on a construction of the claims which is adverse to him. Thus it is proposed to allow a review of an infringement opinion where the sole issue at stake is the construction of the claims.’
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[12] Mr Tappin explained that in proposing a review and appeal procedure, the Patent Office was influenced by considerations relating to art 1 of the First Protocol to the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). It was considered that a patent holder faced with an adverse opinion ought always to have an opportunity to have the opinion reviewed. Accordingly the rules permit a patent holder to apply for a review on the grounds that the opinion wrongly concluded that the patent was invalid, or was invalid to a limited extent and also on the grounds that, by reason of its interpretation of the specification of the patent, the opinion wrongly concluded that a particular act did not or would not constitute an infringement of the patent.
[13] Upon receipt of an application for a review, the Comptroller notifies all interested parties and advertises the application. Any interested party may, but is not required to, contest the application. If he does so then he becomes a party to the proceedings. Finally, a decision is issued which must either set aside the opinion in whole or in part, or conclude that no reason has been shown for the opinion to be set aside.
[14] Once again, the decision is not binding—it does not estop any party to proceedings from raising any issue regarding the validity or the infringement of the patent (see r 77J(2)).
THE APPEAL
[15] Rule 77K addresses appeals against a decision on review: ‘No appeal under section 97 shall lie from decision to set aside the opinion under rule 77J(1)(a), except where the appeal relates to a part of the opinion that is not set aside.’
[16] This rule gives a limited right of appeal against a decision on review. No permission is required. But an appeal lies only against a decision which upholds an opinion either wholly or in part. It follows that it is a right afforded only to a patent holder. The rationale for this limited right of appeal is explained in para 42 of the consultation paper:
‘Under section 74B(2)(d), the right to appeal a decision on a review may be limited to prescribed cases. If an opinion adverse to the patent holder is set aside on review, it would be disproportionate for the original requester (or anyone else) to be able to appeal that decision, and have the court consider in full proceedings whether to reinstate a non-binding opinion. Such a person will in any event be able to have the issues determined by a court by bringing revocation proceedings or proceedings for a declaration of non-infringement. Thus rule 78K [now rule 77K] does not allow for such appeals. Under that rule, a review decision will only be appealable if it upholds an opinion either wholly or in part. In other words, if after a review an opinion adverse to the patent holder remains, the patent holder will be entitled to appeal.’
[17] Mr Tappin provided me with some statistics which show that the opinion service has generally been a success so far. It began on 1 October 2005 with an opinion fee of £200 and a review fee of £50. As of 19 October 2007, 57 requests for opinions had been received. Of these, opinions had been issued in 45 cases, three requests had been refused, three requests had been withdrawn and six were pending. The 45 issued opinions had resulted in 13 requests for reviews (one of which had been withdrawn); eight review decisions had been issued and four
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were still pending. It seems that of the eight review decisions, two have been appealed—including this case.
RIGHT OF APPEAL
[18] It is convenient at this point to address the questions raised by Pumfrey J at the hearing on 18 October 2007. The first is whether there has been a decision against which there is a right of appeal. Both Mr Tappin and Mr Hacon submitted that the answer to this question is Yes. I agree. The hearing officer, on behalf of the Comptroller, decided that no reason had been shown for the overall conclusion of the examiner to be set aside. By virtue of s 97 of the Act, an appeal lies to this court from any decision of the Comptroller under the Act or rules, subject to certain exceptions. The instant appeal is not excluded by any of the provisions referred to in s 97. Nor is it excluded by r 77K. In my judgment, it was manifestly the intention of s 74B and r 77K that an appeal should lie as of right where it relates to a part of an opinion that is not set aside. This is just such a case.
[19] The second is whether this appeal is of a type with which the court should refuse to deal because it is an inherent feature of the procedure that it can only result in the production of non binding opinions or decisions. In the course of the preliminary hearing, Pumfrey J referred to the decision of the House of Lords in Sun Life Assurance Co of Canada v Jervis [1944] 1 All ER 469, [1944] AC 111. In that case their Lordships declined to hear an appeal since there was no longer any issue to be decided between the parties. Viscount Simon LC said ([1944] AC 111 at 113):
‘My Lords, in my opinion, the House should decline to hear this appeal on the ground that there is no issue before us to be decided between the parties. The difficulty is that the terms put on the appellants by the Court of Appeal are such as to make it a matter of complete indifference to the respondent whether the appellants win or lose. The respondent will be in exactly the same position in either case. He has nothing to fight for, because he has already got everything that he can possibly get, however the appeal turns out, and cannot be deprived of it. I do not think that it would be a proper exercise of the authority which this House possesses to hear appeals if it occupies time in this case in deciding an academic question, the answer to which cannot affect the respondent in any way. If the House undertook to do so, it would not be deciding an existing lis between the parties who are before it, but would merely be expressing its view on a legal conundrum which the appellants hope to get decided in their favour without in any way affecting the position between the parties.’ (See also [1944] 1 All ER 469 at 470.)
And ([1944] 1 All ER 469 at 471, [1944] AC 111 at 114):
‘The research which has been given to the matter does not discover any previous decision in which the House of Lords has undertaken, on the petition of an unsuccessful appellant, to review the decision below when the opposite party has been finally settled with, and I think it is an essential quality of an appeal fit to be disposed of by this House that there should exist between the parties a matter in actual controversy which the House undertakes to decide as a living issue.’
[20] In my judgment the principles explained by the House of Lords in the Sun Life case do not lead to the conclusion that this court should decline to
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entertain appeals of the kind now before me. The 1977 Act and the 1995 rules provide a regime for the provision of non-binding opinions which are potentially of great value to all persons concerned with the validity or infringement of a patent. They also expressly provide for an application by the patent holder for a review of an unfavourable opinion and for an appeal as of right against an unfavourable decision on such a review. Such an appeal does not involve an academic question. To the contrary, it involves a living issue, namely whether the opinion to which the patent holder is entitled reached the wrong conclusion. I believe it would be wrong for this court to decline to exercise the jurisdiction which the 1997 Act and the 1995 rules have conferred.
THE NATURE OF THE REVIEW AND THE APPEAL PROCESS
[21] What then is the nature of the appeal to this court? Pursuant to CPR 52.11 it must in general be limited to a review of the decision of the hearing officer. The nature of this exercise is explained by May LJ in EI Du Pont De Nemours & Co v ST Dupont [2003] EWCA Civ 1368 at [94], [2004] IP & T 559 at [94], [2006] 1 WLR 2793:
‘As the terms of r 52.11(1) make clear, subject to exceptions, every appeal is limited to a review of the decision of the lower court. A review here is not to be equated with judicial review. It is closely akin to, although not conceptually identical with, the scope of an appeal to the Court of Appeal under the former Rules of the Supreme Court. The review will engage the merits of the appeal. It will accord appropriate respect to the decision of the lower court. Appropriate respect will be tempered by the nature of the lower court and its decision-making process. There will also be a spectrum of appropriate respect depending on the nature of the decision of the lower court which is challenged. At one end of the spectrum will be decisions of primary fact reached after an evaluation of oral evidence where credibility is in issue and purely discretionary decisions. Further along the spectrum will be multi-factorial decisions often dependent on inferences and an analysis of documentary material . . .’
[22] In the case of an appeal under r 77K, the decision the subject of the appeal is itself a review of the opinion of the examiner. More specifically, it is a decision by the hearing officer as to whether or not the opinion of the examiner was wrong. I believe that a hearing officer, on review, and this court, on appeal, should be sensitive to the nature of this starting point. It was only an expression of an opinion, and one almost certainly reached on incomplete information. Upon considering any particular request, two different examiners may quite reasonably have different opinions. So also, there well may be opinions with which a hearing officer or a court would not agree but which cannot be characterised as wrong. Such opinions merely represent different views within a range within which reasonable people can differ. For these reasons I believe a hearing officer should only decide an opinion was wrong if the examiner has made an error of principle or reached a conclusion that is clearly wrong. Likewise, on appeal, this court should only reverse a decision of a hearing officer if he failed to recognise such an error or wrong conclusion in the opinion and so declined to set it aside. Of course this court must give a reasoned decision in relation to the grounds of appeal but I think it is undesirable to go further. It is not the function of this court (nor is it that of the hearing officer) to express an opinion on the question the subject of the original request.
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THE POSITION OF THE COMPTROLLER ON APPEAL
[23] Pursuant to CPR 52 PD 17.6 the Comptroller is entitled to attend any appeal to this court from one of his decisions. As a matter of practice, he treats ex parte and inter partes cases differently.
[24] In ex parte cases, a decision is made by an examiner and thereafter the Comptroller gives the applicant (if he wishes) the opportunity to have a decision made by a hearing officer at a formal hearing. The examiner generally attends at the hearing and participates to ensure the relevant points are covered and often to explain his reasoning. In inter partes cases two contesting parties attend before the hearing officer and a decision is made. There is no role for an examiner and there is no kind of prior informal decision.
[25] It is the policy of the Comptroller to appear before this court on appeals from ex parte decisions. Whether properly characterised as a respondent or not, he is often named as such and, in the event the appeal is dismissed, will generally seek an order for costs. By contrast, it is not the policy of the Comptroller to appear on appeals from inter partes decisions unless invited to appear to assist the court in relation to an important issue or to advance submissions on behalf of a party who has dropped out of the proceedings.
[26] The Comptroller proposes to treat appeals of the kind before me as inter partes appeals and not to appear as a matter of course. In my judgment this approach is entirely reasonable. I see no reason why the Comptroller should be required to participate in all such appeals, particularly since the examiner played no part in the procedure on review. Further, and importantly, it would tend to frustrate the whole object of the opinion system which is to provide a quick, cheap and simple means to obtain a view from a respected and experienced source as to the validity or infringement of a patent.
THIS APPEAL
[27] The invention relates to shower trays and particularly to low level shower trays which can readily be accessed by infirm or disabled people while seated in a wheelchair.
[28] The patent describes various systems which formed part of the state of the art. One, known as the wet floor former, involved locating the shower tray below the floor surface which was covered with a waterproof covering extending over the edges of the shower tray. In another, the shower tray was located above the floor surface with ramps providing access to the user of a wheelchair. In yet another, the shower tray was located primarily within the floor but with a raised rim, typically no more than 2–5mm in height, under which the floor covering was located and sealed and over which the wheelchair user could manoeuvre.
[29] Against this background, the patent explains the invention seeks to provide a shower tray which provides the access and positioning benefits of a wet floor former whilst also allowing installation of the shower tray either above or below the floor surface. Claim 1 reads: ‘A shower tray comprising a trough along one or more sides of the tray and means for clamping flexible floor covering material and/or a flexible edge of a ramp device in the trough(s).’
[30] The benefit of the shower tray of the invention is described in the following paragraph on p 13 of the specification:
‘The shower tray described above can thus be installed into one of a plurality of different installation configurations equivalent to a wet floor former, a low level shower tray and a surface mounted shower tray. The particular configuration can be selected by the installer at the time of
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installation. Surrounding flooring material and/or an access ramp may be inserted and retained by the clamping and sealing device arrangement located within the tray periphery. The peripheral trough feature within the shower tray allows the installer a wide margin of error in the trimming of the floor covering material while still achieving an effective water seal and floor covering clamping mechanism.’
[31] DLP accepted that the Scrabo tray, in the form purchased from a plumber’s merchant or other supplier, does not comprise a trough. Rather, it has a lip extending horizontally from the bottom section of two of its sides. However, when the Scrabo tray is installed, a trough is formed by the vertical edge of the tray, the upper surface of the lip and either the cut away section of the floor (if set into the floor) or the wall of the ramp (if installed on the floor surface) which it abuts.
[32] DLP recognised there could be no infringement under s 60(1) of the Act by the manufacture of the Scrabo tray because it does not, at that stage, comprise a trough. However, DLP argued that it does comprise a trough upon installation. Hence the supply of the Scrabo tray would constitute the supply of means, relating to an essential element of the invention, for putting the invention into effect and the person supplied with the tray would know, or it would be obvious to a reasonable person in the circumstances, that the tray was suitable for putting, and was intended to put the invention into effect. The supply of the tray would therefore infringe under s 60(2) of the 1977 Act.
[33] In his opinion, the examiner set out the background and then directed himself as to the law. He properly referred to s 125 of the 1977 Act as defining the extent of an invention and correctly identified the decision of the House of Lords in Kirin-Amgen Inc v Hoechst Marion Roussel Ltd, Hoescht Marion Roussel Ltd v Kirin-Amgen [2004] UKHL 46, [2005] 1 All ER 667 as the leading authority in this jurisdiction on the question of interpretation. With the principles explained in that case in mind, he turned to consider what the patentee meant by the words ‘a shower tray comprising a trough along one or more sides of the tray’. He observed that ‘comprising’ conventionally means ‘including’ in patent claims and considered the patent drawings and description to be consistent with this interpretation. In this regard he specifically relied upon the passage appearing on p 13 of the specification which I have set out at [30], above. It was his opinion that the claim required one or more sides of the tray to include a trough. Moreover, he considered the patentee intended the trough to be formed from the material of the tray or as an integral part of it.
[34] The examiner then turned to consider the Scrabo tray and agreed with DLP that, when the tray was installed, a trough was inevitably formed between the vertical edge of the floor, the wall of the tray body and the upper surface of the lip. However, having construed the claim in the way that he had, he was unable to agree that it included the composite arrangement of the tray and the edge of the floor within its scope. He was satisfied that the formation of a trough between the upright wall of the tray and the upright edge of the floor fell outside the scope of the claim.
[35] Upon reviewing the opinion of the examiner, the hearing officer found that he had interpreted claim 1 too narrowly by requiring the trough to be an integral part of the tray and formed from the material of the tray itself. Nevertheless, he agreed with the interpretation given in the opinion that the shower tray must itself include a trough on one or more of its sides. Indeed, on
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this point he went still further and expressed the view that the trough must be in place at the time and place of supply. Accordingly, and while he was not able fully to accept the examiner’s interpretation of the specification, he could not fault the overall conclusion that the patent would not be infringed by the supply of the Scrabo tray in the United Kingdom.
[36] On appeal, Mr Hacon advanced a number of criticisms of various aspects of the detailed reasoning of the original opinion and in the review decision. I have considerable sympathy with a number of those criticisms, particularly as to the suggestion by the examiner that the trough must be integral with or formed of the material of the tray and as to the view of the hearing officer that the claim requires the trough to be in place at the time and place of supply. But at the end of the day, for this appeal to succeed, it must be shown that the core reasoning they each contain is clearly wrong.
[37] That core reasoning is that claim 1, on its proper interpretation, requires the shower tray itself to include a trough and that although a trough is undoubtedly formed by a combination of a Scrabo tray and the flooring upon its installation, it cannot be said, even then, that the trough is part of the tray.
[38] Mr Hacon submitted that in the present case the language of the claim merely requires the presence of a trough along one or more sides of the tray. The trough need not be attached to the tray at all; far less does it need to be attached at any particular time in the tray’s existence. It followed that, once installed, the Scrabo tray has a trough along one of its sides and that, with the trough, the tray falls within claim 1.
[39] It can be seen that these submissions have at their heart the ordinary meaning of the words of claim 1. Both the examiner and the hearing officer considered the skilled person would understand the words of claim 1 to mean the shower tray must itself include a trough. They directed themselves correctly in law and considered the claim in the light of the specification and through the eyes of the skilled person. It was not an opinion which was clearly wrong. Indeed, I think it was a reasonable view for them to take. This appeal must be dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Giovanni D’Avola Barrister.
Chen v Government of Romania;
Mitoi v Secretary of State for the Home Department
[2008] 1 All ER 851
[2007] EWHC 520 (Admin)
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Order: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (DIVISIONAL COURT)
Lord(s): SCOTT BAKER LJ AND DAVID CLARKE J
Hearing Date(s): 19 JANUARY, 15 MARCH 2007
Extradition – Extradition hearing – Appeal – Appeal to High Court – Direction that judge decide again question decided at extradition hearing – Statute providing that appeal must be taken to have been dismissed if judge coming to same decision – Judge deciding question again and coming to same decision – Whether appeal lying to High Court – Whether judicial review available – Extradition Act 2003, s 104(1)(b), (7).
Extradition – Extradition hearing – Appeal – Appeal to High Court – Direction that judge decide again question decided at extradition hearing – Statute providing that discharge must be ordered if judge coming to different decision – Judge deciding question again and coming to different decision – Decision not conclusive as to discharge – Whether judge required to order discharge – Guidance – Extradition Act 2003, s 104(1)(b), (6).
C was convicted in Romania in 1995 in his absence of offences that would in the United Kingdom have constituted murder. In 2005 the government of Romania requested his extradition from the United Kingdom. The Extradition Act 2003 required the district judge, at the extradition hearing, to decide, inter alia, whether a person’s extradition ought to be barred by reason of the passage of time. At the extradition hearing the district judge decided, inter alia, that C’s extradition was not so barred. The case was sent to the Secretary of State for his decision and the Secretary of State ordered C’s extradition. The 2003 Act provided for an appeal to the High Court from the decision of the judge to send a case to the Secretary of State. Under s 104(1)a, on such an appeal, the High Court could (a) allow the appeal; (b) direct the judge to decide again a question or questions which he had decided at the extradition hearing; or (c) dismiss the appeal. The court could allow the appeal only if the conditions in sub-ss (3) or (4) were satisfied and these were (sub-s (3)) that the judge ought to have decided a question before him at the extradition hearing differently and if he had decided the question in the way he ought to have done, he would have been required to order the person’s discharge, and (sub-s (4)) that an issue was raised that had not been raised at the extradition hearing or evidence was available that had not been available at the extradition hearing, the issue or evidence would have resulted in the judge deciding a question before him at the extradition hearing differently, and if he had decided the question differently he would have been required to order the person’s discharge. Section 104(6) provided: ‘If the judge comes to a different decision on any question that is the subject of a direction under
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subsection (1)(b) he must order the person’s discharge’ and sub-s (7) provided: ‘If the judge comes to the same decision as he did at the extradition hearing on the question that is (or all the questions that are) the subject of a direction under subsection (1)(b) the appeal must be taken to have been dismissed by a decision of the High Court’. C appealed and, under s 104(1)(b) the Divisional Court remitted the question of whether his extradition ought to be barred by reason of the passage of time to the magistrates’ court, with a direction that the district judge decide that question again. The remittal hearing took place but the district judge came to the same conclusion as he had at the extradition hearing. C sought to appeal from the district judge’s decision and also applied for permission to apply for judicial review of the decision. M had been convicted in Romania in his absence of offences of dishonesty and his extradition had been requested. At the extradition hearing s 85(1)b of the 2003 Act required the judge to decide whether M had been convicted in his presence. Under sub-s (2), if the judge decided the question in sub-s (1) in the affirmative he had to proceed on to the next statutory requirement for an extradtion hearing which was to consider human rights; under sub-s (3), if the judge decided the sub-s (1) question in the negative he had to decide whether the person had deliberately absented himself from the trial; under sub-s (4) if the judge decided the sub-s (3) question in the affirmative he had to proceed to consider human rights; under sub-s (5) if the judge decided the sub-s (3) question in the negative he had to decide whether the person would be entitled to a retrial. If the person would be entitled to a retrial the judge had to proceed to consider sufficiency of evidence and then human rights but if the judge decided the sub-s (5) question in the affirmative he had to order the person’s discharge. The district judge decided that M had not been convicted in his presence and therefore had to decide under s 85(3) whether he had deliberately absented himself. She decided that he had done so and went proceeded with the other statutory requirements resulting in the case being sent to the Secretary of State. M appealed. The Divisional Court had fresh evidence before it relating to whether M had voluntarily absented himself from the trial. The court remitted the question under s 85(3) to the district judge for reconsideration. At the remittal hearing she decided the question in the negative. She did not order M’s discharge under s 104(6) but proceeded as if she had been conducting the extradition hearing to consider the question of entitlement to a retrial under s 85(5). She decided that M would be entitled to a retrial and so proceeded to send the case to the Secretary of State for a second time. M sought to appeal against the district judge’s decision and applied for permission to apply for judicial review. The Secretary of State contended, into alia, that it was to be implied that the Divisional Court had remitted the wider question of whether M was entitled to be discharged under s 85.
Held – (1) Where a question remitted to the district judge by the High Court under s 104(1)(b) of the 2003 Act was, as at the extradition hearing, decided adversely to an appellant, the effect of s 104(7) was that the original appeal was taken to have been dismissed by the High Court. An appellant’s only route of appeal against a district judge’s redetermination of a question remitted to him in which he reached the same conclusion as at the extradition hearing was to apply to the High Court within the mandatory time limit of 14 days for certification of a point of law of general public importance and leave to appeal to the House of
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Lords. Accordingly, in C’s case, the court had no jurisdiction to entertain any appeal. The decision of the district judge in C’s case was not amenable to judicial review; the judge had acted lawfully and within the ambit of the provisions of the 2003 Act. C’s appeal and his application for permission to apply for judicial review would therefore be dismissed (see [20]–[23], [32], [34], [40], [68], below); R (on the application of Okandeji) v Bow Street Magistrates’ Court [2006] 1 WLR 674 applied.
(2) Section 104(1)(b) of the 2003 Act had to be read so as to incorporate into any question remitted to the district judge to decide again any further question which the judge would be required to decide if the initial question were decided differently. When the High Court remitted a question to the district judge it was advisable for the court to look carefully at the 2003 Act to ensure that any consequential issues that might be thrown up by the answer to the question previously decided by the district judge at the extradition hearing were, if necessary, incorporated within the remitted question itself. The High Court’s power to allow an appeal only arose if the conditions in s 104(3) or (4) were satisfied and the remitted question had to achieve a similar result. In the case of M the remitted question could not be read as impliedly covering the whole of s 85 as the Divisional Court had not asked the judge to consider the question of retrial. As the answer the district judge had given to the remitted question was different from that which she had given at the extradition hearing M should have been discharged under s 104(6). The district judge had been wrong to overlook s 104(6) and, in effect, to have resumed the extradition hearing. The appropriate remedy for M was judicial review of the district judge’s decision, which would succeed because the judge had acted unlawfully in proceeding beyond the question remitted to her (see [47]–[54], [57], [62], [66], [69], below).
Per curiam. The ‘flow chart’ structure of the 2003 Act is a potential source of problems. Questions the district judge was not obliged to answer may become relevant if a question he did answer should have been answered differently. Where a negative answer to a question would lead to the judge at the extradition hearing being required to consider a further question, the judge should ascertain from the parties whether there is any issue and, if so, hear the evidence and resolve it. This requires the parties to be ready to deal with all points that may arise at the extradition hearing (see [60], below).
Notes
For Appeals: appeal where case sent to Secretary of State; court’s powers on appeal under section 103, see Supp to 17(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1474.
For the Extradition Act 2003, s 104, see 18 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 888.
Cases referred to in judgments
Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208, [1969] 2 AC 147, [1969] 2 WLR 163, HL.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Launder (No 2), Launder v Governor of Brixton Prison (No 2) [1998] QB 994, [1998] 3 WLR 221, DC.
R (on the application of Okandeji) v Bow Street Magistrates’ Court [2005] EWHC 2925 (Admin), [2006] 1 WLR 674, DC.
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Appeals and applications
Chen v Government of Romania
Da An Chen (i) appealed from the decision of Deputy Senior District Judge on 12 October 2006 in which, pursuant to a direction of the Divisional Court (Maurice Kay LJ and Mitting J) made on 23 June 2006 under s 104(1)(b) of the Extradition Act 2003, she decided again that Chen’s extradition to Romania was not barred by reason of the passage of time under s 79(1)(c) of the 2003 Act; and (ii) applied for permission to apply for judicial review of the judge’s decision. The Secretary of State for the Home Department appeared as an interested party. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Mitoi v Secretary of State for the Home Department and another
Cristian Mitoi (i) appealed from the decision of District Judge Tubbs on 10 October 2006, in which, pursuant to a direction of the Divisional Court (Maurice Kay LJ and Mitting J) made 7 June 2006 under s 104(1)(b) of the Extradition Act 2003, she decided under s 85(3) of the 2003 Act that Mitoi had not deliberately absented himself from the trial in Romania at which he had been convicted for offences of dishonesty, but did not discharge Mitoi under s 104(6) of the 2003 Act; (ii) applied for permission to apply for judicial review of a subsequent decision of the Secretary of State. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Edward Fitzgerald QC and Rachel Spearing (instructed by Blavo & Co) for Chen.
Campaspe Lloyd Jacob (instructed by Tuckers) for Mitoi.
John Hardy and Ben Watson (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the government of Romania.
David Perry QC and Kate Wilkinson (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Judgment was reserved.
15 March 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SCOTT BAKER LJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1] These two cases, which concern extradition requests by the government of Romania, have been listed to be heard together because each concerns the right of appeal or review following remittal by the High Court of a question under s 104(1)(b) of the Extradition Act 2003. In each case there is a statutory appeal under the 2003 Act. In Chen’s case there is additionally an application for permission to apply for judicial review of the judge’s decision. In Mitoi’s case there is additionally a claim for permission to apply for judicial review of the Secretary of State’s decision and, as will become apparent later in this judgment, the court has treated the material before it as creating an application for permission to apply for judicial review of the district judge’s decision.
[2] In both cases the district judges at the extradition hearings made orders under s 87(3) of the Act sending the cases to the Secretary of State for his decision. In both cases the appellants had been convicted in their absence. Accordingly the judge in each case had to decide whether any of the bars to extradition prescribed
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by s 79 existed and, if not, then to consider s 85 which deals specifically with convicted persons before moving to s 87 (infringement of convention rights) and finally sending the case to the Secretary of State under s 87(3).
CHEN
[3] Da An Chen, to whom we shall refer for convenience as ‘Chen’, arrived in Bucharest with Yu Xing Yu and Zhai Jing Sheng in December 1991 with the intention of setting up an import/export company. The plan did not work out but the three took up residence in an apartment in Bucharest. It is claimed that a dispute broke out between Yu Xing Yu and Chen which culminated in Chen bludgeoning him to death with an axe. When Zhai returned he noticed that the layout of the apartment had been altered. Chen had hidden Yu’s body under a bed. Zhai decided to leave and was in the process of gathering a suitcase from a bedroom when Chen attacked him with either the same or a similar axe. Zhai managed to find a knife with which to defend himself and escape. He alerted a neighbour before spending some two weeks in hospital. The police discovered Yu’s body two days later on 27 January 1992, but in the meantime Chen had disappeared. Over 13 years later in 2005 he was provisionally arrested under a European Arrest Warrant granted under s 73 of the 2003 Act. At the time of receipt of the request for extradition Romania was designated as a category 2 territory. Accordingly, Pt 2 of the 2003 Act was engaged. Following Romania’s accession to the European Economic Community it has been redesignated as a category 1 territory from 1 January 2007. That, however, is of no direct relevance to the present appeals.
[4] On 6 April 1995 Chen was convicted in Romania in his absence of offences that would in the jurisdiction of the United Kingdom have constituted murder (in the case of Yu) and wounding with intent (in the case of Zhai) and sentenced to 20 years’ imprisonment. His conviction and sentence became final (there being no appeal against either) on 6 September 1995.
[5] A warrant for Chen’s arrest was issued on 30 January 1992. He denies committing the offence and denies all knowledge of the proceedings until he was arrested in Liverpool in March 2005. On 18 March 2005 the Republic of Romania requested his extradition to Romania and this request was certified by the Secretary of State on 24 April 2005.
[6] On 3 December 2005 Deputy Senior District Judge Wickham sent Chen’s case to the Secretary of State pursuant to s 87(3) of the 2003 Act for his decision whether to order Chen’s extradition. On 31 January 2006, pursuant to s 93(4) of the Act, the Secretary of State ordered his extradition. Chen did not appeal against the Secretary of State’s decision but did appeal to the High Court under s 103 against Judge Wickham’s decision. Judgment on the appeal was given by the Divisional Court (Maurice Kay LJ and Mitting J) on 23 June 2006 ([2006] EWHC 1752 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 265 (Jun)). Two points were in issue before that court. Chen argued (1) that his extradition was barred by the passage of time by ss 79(1)(c) and 82 of the Act and (2) that he did not deliberately absent himself from his trial and that he would not be entitled to a retrial or review amounting to a retrial which would guarantee his rights, in particular under arts 6(3)(c) and (d) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998), as required by s 85 of the Act. The court remitted the first point to the district judge with a direction that she decide that question again. It dismissed the appeal on the second point, certifying that its decision involved a point of law of
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general public importance. It however refused leave to appeal. Chen then petitioned the House of Lords, but leave was again refused.
[7] The remittal hearing took place on 12 September 2006. Judge Wickham, in a reserved judgment on 12 October 2006, rejected Chen’s submissions and thus reached the same conclusion on the passage of time question that she had done before. Chen now seeks to appeal against this decision.
MITOI
[8] Cristian Mitoi (Mitoi) was on 20 September 2002, together with his brother Misu, convicted of a number of offences of dishonesty by the Criminal Section of the Dambovita District Court in provincial Romania. The offences were committed in 1999. Three offences were of fraud contrary to art 215 of the Romanian Civil Code and two were of theft. The offences comprised issuing cheques for goods supplied by two different companies when there were no funds to cover them in the bank account on which the cheques were drawn.
[9] Neither Mitoi nor his brother was present at the trial. Mitoi says he left Romania on the night of 30/31 May 1999. He told the district judge at the extradition hearing that he left Romania with his brother and that they arrived in the United Kingdom on 26 June 1999. Neither brother was present at the trial but they were represented by counsel, described by the court in the official record as ‘chosen counsel’. There is no indication on the record that the facts on which the prosecution was based were disputed.
[10] On 20 September 2002 Mitoi was convicted and sentenced to concurrent sentences amounting to 12 months’ imprisonment. The sentence was suspended for three years. On 18 June 2003, on the prosecutor’s appeal, the sentence was increased to three years’ imprisonment and not suspended. On 6 February 2004 an appeal by Mitoi and his brother was rejected by the High Court of Cassation and Justice in Bucharest. They were represented by Gheorghe Birsan, described in the official record as ‘chosen counsel for defence’.
[11] On 26 February 2004 the Dambovita court issued a warrant for Mitoi’s arrest and detention. On 3 March 2005 the Romanian government made a request for his extradition and on 15 March 2005 the Secretary of State certified that the request was validly made under Pt 2 of the 2003 Act.
[12] On 13 January 2006 at the extradition hearing District Judge Tubbs rejected Mitoi’s contention that his extradition was barred by reason of extraneous considerations under ss 79(1)(b) and 81 of the Act and there was no challenge to that element of her decision. However, she also ruled that he had deliberately absented himself from his trial (see s 85(3)).
[13] As he was entitled to, Mitoi appealed to the High Court under s 103 of the Act. The appeal was heard by a Divisional Court (again Maurice Kay LJ and Mitting J) on 7 June 2006 ([2006] EWHC 1977 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 25 (Jun)). Having read fresh evidence on the point, the court ruled that the question whether Mitoi had deliberately absented himself should be remitted to the district judge and that the district judge should apply the criminal standard of proof in considering the question.
[14] The matter came back before District Judge Tubbs on 10 October 2006. She decided, applying the criminal standard of proof, having considered the fresh material, that she was not satisfied that Mitoi had deliberately absented himself. She described the exercise she was required to undertake in the following terms:
‘The matter has, therefore, been re-listed before me to consider the further evidence and redetermine the two questions of fact: first, was Cristian Mitoi
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aware of the trial and appeal proceedings and secondly, if so, did he deliberately fail to attend. That matter is remitted under s 104(1)(b) of the Act. If I decide the relevant questions differently then I must proceed as I would have been required to proceed if I had decided those questions differently at the extradition hearing (s 106(6) of the Act). That is, I would decide in accordance with s 85(5) and (8) whether Mr Mitoi would be entitled to a retrial or (on appeal) to a review amounting to a retrial. If I come to the same decision as I did at the extradition hearing the appeal must be taken to have been dismissed by a decision of the High Court (s 106(7) of the Act). The High Court decision confirms what I had always taken to be the position, that the standard of proof required is the criminal standard.’
We do not think the district judge’s analysis of how she was required to proceed was correct and we shall return to this in a moment.
THE RELEVANT LEGISLATION
[15] The High Court’s powers on appeal from a decision of the district judge to send a case to the Secretary of State are set out in s 104:
‘(1) On an appeal under section 103 the High Court may—(a) allow the appeal; (b) direct the judge to decide again a question (or questions) which he decided at the extradition hearing; (c) dismiss the appeal.
(2) The court may allow the appeal only if the conditions in subsection (3) or the conditions in subsection (4) are satisfied.
(3) The conditions are that—(a) the judge ought to have decided a question before him at the extradition hearing differently; (b) if he had decided the question in the way he ought to have done, he would have been required to order the person’s discharge.
(4) The conditions are that—(a) an issue is raised that was not raised at the extradition hearing or evidence is available that was not available at the extradition hearing; (b) the issue or evidence would have resulted in the judge deciding a question before him at the extradition hearing differently; (c) if he had decided the question in that way, he would have been required to order the person’s discharge.
(5) If the court allows the appeal it must—(a) order the person’s discharge; (b) quash the order for his extradition.
(6) If the judge comes to a different decision on any question that is the subject of a direction under subsection (1)(b) he must order the person’s discharge.
(7) If the judge comes to the same decision as he did at the extradition hearing on the question that is (or all the questions that are) the subject of a direction under subsection (1)(b) the appeal must be taken to have been dismissed by a decision of the High Court.’
[16] In each of the present cases the High Court directed the district judge to decide again a question she had decided at the extradition hearing. The judge in Chen’s case came to the same conclusion as before, but the judge in Mitoi’s case came to a different conclusion. The consequence of these decisions is to be found in sub-ss (6) and (7) of s 104. Thus the judge was on the face of sub-s (6) required in Mitoi’s case to discharge him whereas in Chen’s case, by sub-s (7) his appeal was taken to have been dismissed.
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[17] As will be apparent, the judge in Mitoi’s case did not discharge him but went on to consider s 85(5) and (8). The focus of the hearing before us has been on what, if any, remedy each of Chen and Mitoi now has.
[18] The only right of appeal for the individual in Pt 2 of the 2003 Act is in s 103 from the decision of a district judge and s 108 from the decision of the Secretary of State. Section 116 provides:
‘A decision under this Part of the judge or the Secretary of State may be questioned in legal proceedings only by means of an appeal under this Part.’
[19] Section 116 is not an ‘ouster’ provision in the true sense of the word. What it does is to ensure that the only right of appeal is under the express provisions within the scheme of the 2003 Act. In our view it is not possible to go behind s 116 and thus undermine the scheme of the Act, which is quite particular about when and how the appeal process operates.
[20] The various provisions for appeals ‘under this Part’ (Pt 2 of the Act) are set out in ss 103–116. It will be observed that where the High Court hears an appeal under s 103 it has three options; it either allows the appeal, dismisses the appeal or sends back a question or questions to be re-decided by the judge. The way that s 104(6) and (7) are phrased is such that, depending on whether the judge comes to the same or a different decision, the consequence is that the appeal is either treated as dismissed or the appellant is discharged. The redetermination of a question by the district judge is treated as an extension of the appeal process to the High Court. Effectively the district judge’s decision is treated as if it was the decision of the High Court. There is therefore no appeal to the High Court from a redetermination of a question by a district judge. The only route of appeal lies to the House of Lords under s 114 of the Act. Section 114(1) provides for appeal to the House of Lords from a decision of the High Court on an appeal under ss 103, 105, 108 or 110. In the present case the relevant section is s 103.
[21] Leave to appeal lies only with the leave of the High Court or the House of Lords and by s 114(4) leave must not be granted unless the High Court has certified that there is a point of law of general public importance involved in the decision and it appears to the court granting leave that the point is one which ought to be considered by the House of Lords.
[22] Section 114(5) provides:
‘An application to the High Court for leave to appeal under this section must be made before the end of the permitted period, which is 14 days starting with the day on which the court makes its decision on the appeal to it.’
[23] Bearing in mind that s 104(7) treats the decision of the district judge as effectively the decision of the High Court, it seems to us that an appellant’s only route of appeal against a district judge’s decision redetermining a question remitted to him when he reaches the same conclusion as before is to apply to the High Court for certification within 14 days of the district judge’s decision. It is to be observed that the 14-day time limit in s 114(5) is mandatory.
CHEN’S APPEAL
[24] Chen has sought to appeal to the High Court against the redetermination of Judge Wickham. His grounds of appeal are as follows:
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‘1. The learned district judge was factually wrong to conclude that Chen “fled the scene and area and the country” so that any prejudice brought to him by delay should not avail him. The evidence did not support the conclusions to the required standard.
2. The district judge erred in concluding that due to the lack of oral evidence she was unable to assess the potential unfairness to the appellant of conducting a retrial after such delay.
3. Further and in the alternative she failed to direct herself that the real injustice arose from the inability after such lapse of time to challenge the evidence of the chief prosecution witness, who would be both unavailable and whose whereabouts are unknown. Evidence from the key witness remaining in standard form, and in those circumstances prejudice arose from the inability to challenge the prosecution case as much as from the difficulties of securing evidence to support the appellant’s alibi defence. For all these reasons reliance on [R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Launder (No 2), Launder v Governor of Brixton Prison (No 2) [1998] QB 994 at 1003, [1998] 3 WLR 221 at 228] was inappropriate.
4. The district judge wrongly concluded that her decision was final in accordance with s 104(7) given that there had been no previous decision on prejudice.
5. The appellant asserts that the High Court have jurisdiction to hear this appeal and would invite the court to consider this as a preliminary issue.’
[25] It should be noted that Chen’s first appeal was brought on two grounds. He contended that he should have been discharged from the extradition proceedings (i) due to the passage of time (s 82) and (ii) because he was convicted in his absence (s 85). On 23 June 2006 the Divisional Court dismissed his appeal on the s 85 ground but remitted the s 82 issue to the district judge under s 104(1)(b). The question remitted in Chen’s case was in the following terms:
‘Under s 104(1)(b) of the Extradition Act 2003 the question as to whether the appellant’s extradition ought to be barred by reason of the passage of time, under s 79(1)(c) of the Extradition Act 2003 is remitted to Bow Street Magistrates’ Court with a direction that the judge decide that question again.’
As Mitting J put it (at [28]):
‘Accordingly, I would remit the question to the district judge for her to decide again the question of whether or not extradition is barred by reason of the passage of time and to answer that question by deciding whether or not it would be unjust, and not merely oppressive, to extradite him by reason of the passage of time. That issue should be decided on the evidence adduced and the submissions made by both parties at the remitted hearing.’
[26] As will become apparent when we consider Mitoi’s case, it is of critical importance that the remitted question is carefully drafted and the High Court’s order drawn appropriately. Fortunately that happened in Chen’s case.
[27] Mr Fitzgerald QC who has appeared for Chen, makes two basic submissions. (i) There is a right of appeal following the district judge’s adverse conclusion on the remitted question. (ii) The court should allow the appeal or at least direct a further consideration under s 104(1)(b) because the district judge erred in law in ruling that there was no injustice in returning Chen for trial in
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Romania after such a lengthy lapse of time; and because she failed to recognise that one consequence of the lapse of time was that he would have no effective right to reopen his conviction in absentia and no effective right to challenge the written statement of the chief prosecution witness by way of cross-examination. If there is no right of appeal, the second question does not arise.
[28] The case was sent back to the district judge to reconsider whether Chen’s extradition was barred by the passage of time. Section 82 provides:
‘A person’s extradition to a category 2 territory is barred by reason of the passage of time if (and only if) it appears that it would be unjust or oppressive to extradite him by reason of the passage of time since he is alleged to have committed the extradition offence or since he is alleged to have become . . . (b) unlawfully at large (where he is alleged to have been convicted of it).’
[29] The Divisional Court dismissed the appeal as regards the finding of the judge under s 85. It did so in terms which made it very clear that the decision to remit the other question would not reopen any part of the s 85 issue. Maurice Kay LJ, agreeing with the judgment of Mitting J, remarked that he had wondered whether there should be a remission to the district judge also of the s 85 question but was persuaded that that was a question that the High Court itself could and should answer.
[30] The answer to the remitted question would, undoubtedly, be determinative of the appeal. It was helpfully referred to in argument by Mr Perry QC, who has appeared for the Secretary of State, as ‘a discharge question’ ie as opposed to a question which, if answered in the appellant’s favour would simply lead to a further question. At the hearing of the remitted question Judge Wickham answered the question in the same way as before. She held that extradition was not barred by reason of the passage of time either because it would be unjust or because it would be oppressive.
[31] Substantial complaint is made about that ruling, as it was indeed about the earlier ruling, in relation to the retrial provisions, on which the appeal had been expressly dismissed by this court. Expert evidence was relied on before the district judge as it had been before this court, in relation to the Romanian provisions for retrial and in particular the lack of any entitlement to cross-examine the principal witness.
[32] It seems to us that the core of Mr Fitzgerald’s complaint now is that the district judge erred in concluding there was no injustice in returning Chen to Romania after such a lengthy lapse of time. She failed to recognise, so it is said, that one consequence of the lapse of time, taken in conjunction with the practice of the Romanian courts, was that Chen would have no effective right to reopen his conviction in absentia and that that he would not be able to challenge the written statement of the chief prosecution witness by way of cross-examination. The difficulty for Chen now is that this did not form part of the remitted question. The district judge having answered the remitted question as before, the appeal was at once deemed to have been dismissed by this court.
[33] Mr Fitzgerald submits that the underlying question on the remittal hearing was whether it was unjust to extradite Chen and the district judge never came to a decision on that at all. He argues that she did not come to the same decision on that because she had never considered it before. The Divisional Court should have been specifically asked to put the question in that way. But, he says, that is the effect of what Mitting J was saying at [28]. He submits that s 104(1)(b) only applies when the judge comes to the same decision as she did at
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the extradition hearing on the question that is (or all the questions that are) the subject of a direction under s 104(1)(b). When, as here, the actual and specific issue remitted to the district judge, and decided adversely by her on the remitted case—namely whether it would be unjust to extradite the appellant—was never decided before, the judge’s decision is governed by the normal procedures in ss 79–87 of the 2003 Act save that the district judge does not have to re-decide matters already decided at the earlier hearing. The district judge must therefore proceed to send the case to the Secretary of State unless any of the other bars to extradition apply.
[34] We are unable to accept Mr Fitzgerald’s submission. Chen has no further right of statutory appeal to the High Court. We have no jurisdiction to entertain any appeal. The statute is clear. Where a remitted question has, as before, been decided adversely to an appellant, the effect of s 104(7) is that the original appeal is taken to have been dismissed by the High Court.
[35] In the alternative to a statutory appeal, Chen seeks permission to apply for judicial review of the district judge’s failure to refer the case to the Secretary of State under s 87(3). This is on the basis that she should not have declared her decision to be the final decision of the High Court in accordance with s 104(7).
[36] The mechanism of the Act is that when the district judge has considered all requisite matters and has not found any reason to discharge the individual he or she is required to send the case to the Secretary of State for his decision whether the person should be extradited. The judge is required to tell the person that he has a right of appeal but that that right cannot be exercised until the Secretary of State has made his decision (s 92(2)). The Secretary of State’s powers are much more limited than they were under the Extradition Act 1989 and the purpose of this provision is to achieve a more streamlined and speedy procedure.
[37] The problem that Chen faces in his judicial review claim is similar to that faced by the claimant in R (on the application of Okandeji) v Bow Street Magistrates’ Court [2005] EWHC 2925 (Admin), [2006] 1 WLR 674. In that case the claimant was the subject of an extradition request by the government of Australia. Australia is a category 2 territory. The district judge sent the case to the Secretary of State and the Secretary of State ordered the claimant’s extradition. The claimant appealed and the Divisional Court (Maurice Kay LJ and Moses J) sent the case back to the district judge to redetermine a question pursuant to s 104(1)(b) of the Act. The claimant received a second adverse decision and was therefore stymied by s 104(7). He sought judicial review of the district judge’s decision.
[38] Maurice Kay LJ, in a judgment with which Penry-Davy J agreed, said there was no doubt the purpose of the 2003 Act was to provide streamlined procedures and to avoid successive and repeated applications which, under the 1989 Act, often had the effect of unduly prolonging extradition proceedings. Then he said (at [13]):
‘Mr Hardy (on behalf of Australia) and Mr Perry (on behalf of the Secretary of State who has been permitted to intervene) submit that the language of section 104(7) is clear and unambiguous. Where this court has remitted a question to the district judge under section 104(1)(b) but the district judge has come to the same conclusion as he did at the original extradition hearing, “the appeal must be taken to have been dismissed by a decision of the High Court”. In these circumstances, judicial review of the second decision of the district judge is simply unavailable. This is made abundantly clear by
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section 116 which limits challenges to decisions of district judges to the appeal procedure described by Part 2. Accordingly, a deemed decision of the High Court is not amenable to judicial review by the High Court nor to any route of appeal save that, in an appropriate case, the deemed decision may result in an appeal to the House of Lords under section 114 subject to certification and leave.’
[39] He then recited the arguments of Mr Summers, who had appeared for the claimant, observing that Mr Summers’ starting point was that if a second decision of a district judge is demonstrably wrong in law but does not raise an issue of general importance it would be highly unusual for there to be no process of appeal or review in relation to it and said (at [19]):
‘I entirely accept that a statutory structure in which, in one limited situation, a decision of a district judge will usually be final, is novel, particularly in the context of Convention rights. However, the context is one in which there has already been access to the High Court and the sole remaining task of the district judge is to reconsider a question in the light of the judgment of the High Court. Where the High Court itself has all the necessary material, it is more likely to answer the question itself, for example by reference to section 104(4)(a). That would have been the case here if the Divisional Court had had before it the expert evidence on Australian law. However, in the absence of that evidence, it exercised its power to remit. What has to be borne in mind is that the purpose of the 2003 Act was to reduce the amount of toing and froing with multiple and successive appeals.’
He considered that the decision of the district judge was deemed to be a decision of the High Court pursuant to s 104(7) and that it was not amenable to further appeal or review unless suitable for consideration by the House of Lords.
[40] In our judgment the reasoning in Okandeji’s case is, with respect, plainly correct and the circumstances of Chen’s case are indistinguishable. Judge Wickham performed the function that was delegated to her by the Divisional Court under the statute. Her decision is treated by the statute as that of the High Court and the only route of appeal lies to the House of Lords. Her decision is not in our view amenable to judicial review; she acted perfectly lawfully and within the ambit of the provisions of the statute. We can see, therefore, no basis for granting Chen permission to apply for judicial review.
MITOI’S APPEAL
[41] The matter that caused the Divisional Court to remit Mitoi’s case to the district judge was her decision that Mitoi had deliberately absented himself from his trial before the Dambovita court on 20 September 2002. That was, as the Divisional Court pointed out, the sole issue that had arisen before the district judge.
[42] As Mitting J observed, the relevant statutory provision was s 85 of the 2003 Act. It provides:
‘(1) If the judge is required to proceed under this section he must decide whether the person was convicted in his presence.
(2) If the judge decides the question in subsection (1) in the affirmative he must proceed under section 87.
(3) If the judge decides that question in the negative he must decide whether the person deliberately absented himself from his trial.
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(4) If the judge decides the question in subsection (3) in the affirmative he must proceed under section 87.
(5) If the judge decides that question in the negative he must decide whether the person would be entitled to a retrial or (on appeal) to a review amounting to a retrial.
(6) If the judge decides the question in subsection (5) in the affirmative he must proceed under section 86.
(7) If the judge decides that question in the negative he must order the person’s discharge.
(8) The judge must not decide the question in subsection (5) in the affirmative unless, in any proceedings that it is alleged would constitute a retrial or a review amounting to a retrial, the person would have these rights—(a) the right to defend himself in person or through legal assistance of his own choosing or, if he had not sufficient means to pay for legal assistance, to be given it free when the interests of justice so required; (b) the right to examine or have examined witnesses against him and to obtain the attendance and examination of witnesses on his behalf under the same conditions as witnesses against him.’
[43] District Judge Tubbs had decided the question in sub-s (3) in the affirmative and was therefore required to proceed under s 87 which she did, sending the case to the Secretary of State. It should be noted that no question arose before the district judge, and there was no question before the Divisional Court, about retrial entitlement under s 85(5)–(8). The judge had simply decided the issue under sub-s (3) that Mitoi had deliberately absented himself and accordingly she moved straight to s 87. As his extradition would be compatible with his convention rights, she accordingly sent the case to the Secretary of State telling Mitoi under s 92 that he had a right of appeal to the High Court.
[44] This court considered that the reasoning of the district judge on the s 85(3) issue, on the material before her, could not be faulted. However, further material was before this court in the form of witness statements from two Romanian lawyers, leading this court to conclude that there was material which might persuade the district judge that the question whether the appellant voluntarily absented himself from the trial should be answered differently. Mitting J, with whom Maurice Kay LJ once again agreed, said this:
‘The witness statement of Adriana Dascalu is, on reading and rereading, curious and obscure, but it may persuade the district judge, if the matter is to be remitted to her, that one of the conclusions that she reached—that the appellant had chosen counsel, counsel of his choice, to represent him at the trial—was erroneous. It is a matter which can only be resolved after further exploration of the documentary evidence and almost certainly further evidence from and cross-examination of the appellant. It is therefore a matter which is fit for remission to the district judge under s 104(1)(b) of the 2003 Act, for her to reconsider the question whether or not the appellant voluntarily absented himself from the trial, and I would propose in relation to that issue that that course be adopted.’
Mitting J went on to consider the burden and standard of proof to be applied to that question, concluding that the criminal standard of proof should be applied. He concluded:
Page 864 of [2008] 1 All ER 851
‘I would therefore direct the district judge when she reconsiders the question under s 85(3) to apply to it the criminal standard of proof.’ (Emphasis added.)
[45] The Divisional Court’s order was recorded in these terms:
‘(1) This appeal be allowed and be remitted back for consideration by District Judge Tubbs.
(2) It is recommended by the judges that when reconsidering the matter a criminal standard of proof is to be applied.’
[46] It is apparent that the district judge was supplied with a copy of the transcript of the Divisional Court’s judgment which, as is apparent from the passage we have cited, was a good deal more explicit than the order in what was required of her.
[47] The difficulties that have arisen in this case illustrate that it is crucial when a question is remitted under s 104(1)(b) first that great care is taken in formulating the precise question the district judge is required to answer and second that the court’s order should spell out precisely and accurately the court’s decision. The terms of the order should, if possible, be agreed between counsel and approved by the court.
[48] The difficulty which arises in Mitoi’s case is that the remitted question was not what Mr Perry calls a ‘discharge’ question, the Yes or No answer to which would be determinative of the extradition hearing. At the extradition hearing, if the district judge answers the s 85(3) question in the affirmative she does not without more send the case to the Secretary of State, but must move first to s 87. If she decides it in the negative then she must go on to decide the issue of retrial under the remaining subsections of s 85.
[49] The problem with the form of question in the present case can be seen from examining what actually happened at the hearing of the remitted question. Whereas at the extradition hearing the judge had decided the question in the affirmative, at the remittal hearing she decided it in the negative. She decided that Mitoi had not deliberately absented himself from his trial. She had decided that question differently when the matter was originally before her and as that was the question that was the subject of direction under s 104(1)(b) she was obliged by s 104(6) to order his discharge. The district judge did not, however, order his discharge. Instead she proceeded as if she had been conducting the extradition hearing and went on, as provided by s 85(5) and (8), to consider whether Mitoi would be entitled to a retrial or (on appeal) to a review amounting to a retrial. She said the government had provided confirmation from the Ministry of Justice in Romania that Mitoi did have a right of retrial, having been convicted in his absence. Having decided the questions in s 85(5) and (8) in the affirmative she then proceeded, as she had before, under s 87, and again sent the case to the Secretary of State.
[50] Mr Perry submits that the remitted question was inappropriately expressed, or rather that it should have been framed in such a way as to be a discharge question. Mr Perry’s argument is that only ‘discharge’ questions should be remitted. Although s 104(1)(b) does not expressly limit the type of question that may be remitted, he submits that this is apparent from looking at the High Court’s powers as a whole under s 104. In particular the court’s power to allow an appeal only arises if the conditions in sub-ss (3) or (4) are satisfied. The end point of each of those subsections is the person’s discharge. Since a judge
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deciding the remitted question is in effect doing so on behalf of the High Court it is apparent that the remitted question must achieve a similar result. We see the force of this submission and when the High Court remits a question to the district judge it is advisable for the court to look carefully at the material provisions in the Act to ensure that any consequential issues that may be thrown up by the answer to the question are, if necessary, incorporated within the question itself. Thus, in the present case, the question of retrial had not previously arisen, because the judge had concluded that Mitoi had deliberately absented himself, but was going to arise, if, as turned out to be the case, she decided on the remittal he had not deliberately absented himself. There would have been no problem in the present case had the remitted question been phrased: ‘Whether Mitoi was entitled to be discharged under s 85.’
[51] It is true that s 104(1)(b) is phrased in such a way that this court may only remit a case to the district judge to decide again a question which he has previously decided at the extradition hearing, but it seems to us that in order to give any sense to the provision it must be read so as to incorporate any further question arising within s 85 which the judge would be required to decide in the event that she decides the initial question differently.
[52] Mr Perry submits that we should read the remitted question in this case as including the retrial issue under s 85(5). A remitted question must he argues cover the whole of s 85 and not just part of it. The difficulty with that submission seems to us to be that the Divisional Court did not ask the judge to consider the question of retrial or review although it might and indeed should have done so had counsel then acting for the parties invited it to. In our view, the answer that the judge gave to the question that was remitted was different from that which she had given at the extradition hearing and the inescapable conclusion is that she should have ordered Mitoi’s discharge under s 104(6).
[53] We have some sympathy with the judge, faced as she was with a question that was not a discharge question. However, she was in our view wrong to overlook s 104(6) and instead, in effect to resume the extradition hearing. She concluded by sending the case once again to the Secretary of State under s 87 having made a fresh decision on a matter that was not the subject of the remitted question. Plainly she thought a right of appeal existed against that fresh decision. Indeed she told Mitoi so under s 92(2) of the Act. That, however, is not the way that the legislation works. Parliament has given the High Court the power, instead of allowing or dismissing the appeal to send a question back to the judge to be reconsidered. But when that question is decided by the judge the effect is as if the question had been decided by the High Court itself.
[54] The judge was therefore wrong to continue through ss 85(5) and 87. She had no power to send the case a second time to the Secretary of State. The Home Office was therefore correct to reject the sending as of no legal validity. However, in our view the correct analysis of the situation is not that the appeal had been dismissed by s 104(7) of the Act. The true position was that, the judge having decided the question that was actually remitted in favour of Mitoi, Mitoi should have been discharged under s 104(6).
[55] It is of some interest to compare the High Court’s powers under s 106 on an appeal against discharge at the extradition hearing with those under s 104, where the appeal is by the individual against his case being sent to the Secretary of State. Section 106 gives the High Court power to direct the judge to decide the relevant question again. A question is defined as relevant in s 106(2) if the judge’s decision on it resulted in the order for the person’s discharge. In s 104(2) the
Page 866 of [2008] 1 All ER 851
questions that may be remitted are not limited in any similar way. But, as we have observed the conditions for allowing an appeal under s 104(3) and (4) involve as their end point questions that would have been answered so as to result in the appellant’s discharge. There is therefore a consistency of approach between ss 104 and 106 which supports Mr Perry’s argument that it was wrong to remit a non-discharge question to the judge.
[56] The right of appeal that brought this case to the Divisional Court in the first instance was against ‘the relevant decision’ (see s 103(1)). The relevant decision is described in s 103(3) as the decision that resulted in the case being sent to the Secretary of State. Mr Perry submits that reading s 104(1)(b) with s 103(3) makes it plain that questions must be such as led to the relevant decision ie the decision to send the case to the Secretary of State. The only discharge question in s 85, submits Mr Perry, is that posed in s 85(7).
[57] What is Mitoi’s remedy? Notwithstanding he was told by the district judge he had a right of appeal to the High Court, it is plain that he had no such right of appeal under the 2003 Act. Once, as in this case, a question has been remitted to the judge, one of two things happens. If the judge comes to a different decision she must order the appellant’s discharge (s 104(6)) or if she comes to the same decision the appellant’s appeal is deemed to have been dismissed by the High Court (s 104(7)). Mr Perry’s position is that it is to be implied that the Divisional Court remitted a wider question to the judge which was answered in the same way as at the extradition hearing. By s 104(7) the extradition order has now become final in the sense that (subject to any appeal to the House of Lords which is out of time) Mitoi’s original appeal to this court now stands dismissed. The fact that the district judge erroneously told him he had a further right of appeal is nothing to the point. We cannot accept this submission. The district judge should have ordered the appellant’s discharge under s 104(6).
[58] Mitoi has no statutory appeal under s 103. There is no second appeal and the hearing of the remitted question was not an extradition hearing within the meaning of s 140; it was a hearing limited as defined by s 104. No judicial review lies against the Secretary of State, who was in our view correct to reject the second sending of the case to him by the district judge.
[59] We were told by Miss Lloyd Jacob, who has appeared for Mitoi, that the problem that occurred in this case arose from a change of presentation of the case on the part of the Romanian government. It was not suggested at the extradition hearing that there might be a right to a retrial nor was there any discussion about the conditions under which any retrial might occur. Furthermore that possibility was not mentioned at the appeal hearing before this court. No doubt this court, when remitting the case and formulating the question under s 85(3), was under the impression that the answer to the question it remitted would be determinative and so bring about the consequences in s 104(6) or (7). It was only at the remittal hearing that the Romanian government put forward the case that satisfied s 85(5). In our view it was not open to the judge at that stage, in view of the terms of the remitted question, to embark on that issue. Miss Lloyd Jacob points out that if it had been made clear at an earlier stage that there were provisions for a retrial, the other issues under s 85, and in particular whether Mitoi deliberately absented himself, would have been irrelevant. Perhaps she was at fault for not objecting to the admission of the evidence about a retrial. It should have not been admitted because it did not fall within the ambit of the question that the district judge had been asked to re-decide.
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[60] We think it desirable to say a word or two about the procedure that might be adopted in other cases so that similar difficulties may be avoided in the future. The ‘flow chart’ structure of the 2003 Act, as it was described by Lord Donaldson of Lymington MR during the Bill’s passage through the House of Lords, is a potential source of problems. Questions the judge was not obliged to answer may become relevant if a question he did answer should have been answered differently. Where, as in the present case, a negative answer to the question under appeal (s 85(3)) would have led to the judge at the extradition hearing being required to consider a further question (s 85(5)), the judge should ascertain from the parties whether there is any issue and, if so, hear the evidence and resolve it. This requires the parties to be ready to deal with all points that may arise at the extradition hearing. This should not be an undue burden because the extradition hearing is, after all, the hearing at which the judge has to decide whether to send the case to the Secretary of State for his decision whether the person is to be extradited.
[61] If this course is not followed there is a risk that an entirely new question will be brought into play at the appeal stage or, as in this case at the hearing of the remitted question. As we have mentioned, there are difficulties with the wording of s 104 about considering for the first time on appeal questions that were not considered by the judge at the extradition hearing. Further, it would be most unsatisfactory for an issue such as a right to retrial or review that had not been decided at the extradition hearing to be decided for the first time on a remitted question, as there is no right of appeal to the High Court in the event of an error on the part of the judge.
[62] In our judgment the appropriate remedy in Mitoi’s case is judicial review of the district judge’s decision. In purporting to decide issues beyond those within the question remitted to her and in sending the case a second time to the Secretary of State she was acting outwith the powers conferred upon her by the statute. Once she went beyond the four corners of the statute it seems to us that the judge was not making a decision under Pt 2 and accordingly the prohibition in s 116 on questioning her decision other than by an appeal under Pt 2 does not bite.
[63] The principle in Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208, [1969] 2 AC 147 applies. Section 116 cannot operate to prevent judicial review because the district judge was purporting to exercise a jurisdiction that she did not have.
[64] We are fortified in our view that judicial review is appropriate in Mitoi’s case because he was told erroneously by the district judge that he had a right of appeal to the High Court.
[65] There is before the court in Mitoi’s case an application for permission to apply for judicial review of the Secretary of State’s decision of 23 October 2006 declining to reconsider his decision to order Mitoi’s extradition to Romania. For the reasons we have given, we do not think the district judge should have sent the case to the Secretary of State on the second occasion. The application for judicial review against the Secretary of State is misconceived and accordingly permission is refused.
[66] During the course of the hearing before us it became apparent that the appropriate remedy might be judicial review of District Judge Tubbs’ decision of 10 October 2006 rather than a statutory appeal. It was agreed that we should treat the hearing as a claim for judicial review, that we should grant the necessary extension of time and waive the necessity for service of the claim and all other
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formal requirements, provided that the consent of the district judge was forthcoming. This has been obtained.
[67] We would add this, that with hindsight the question remitted should have been drawn so as to cover the whole of s 85. The question the judge should have been asked to decide was whether Mitoi was entitled to be discharged under s 85, thus bringing into the question s 85(5). The Divisional Court did not formulate the question in that way because the Romanian government never made it clear to it that Mitoi could indeed be retried.
CONCLUSION
[68] Chen’s appeal and application for permission to apply for judicial review both fail because District Judge Wickham decided the question remitted to her under s 104(1)(b) in the same manner as she had done originally. In those circumstances Chen’s original appeal to the High Court was deemed by s 104(7) to have been dismissed. The 2003 Act provides for no further avenue of appeal, save to the House of Lords, which is now out of time. Section 116 provides that it is not now open to question the district judge’s decision in this court on the remitted question.
[69] Mitoi’s claim for judicial review succeeds against the district judge because she acted unlawfully in proceeding beyond the question remitted to her. Having answered the remitted question differently from the earlier occasion she should have discharged Mitoi under s 106.
Chen’s appeal and application dismissed. Mitoi’s appeal dismissed and application for judicial review granted.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Ahsan v Watt (formerly Carter) (sued on behalf of the Labour Party)
[2008] 1 All ER 869
[2007] UKHL 51
Categories: EMPLOYMENT; Discrimination
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD HOFFMANN, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 16–18 JULY, 21 NOVEMBER 2007
Race relations – Discrimination – Employment – Discrimination on racial grounds – Discrimination by qualifying bodies – Labour party not selecting complainant as electoral candidate – Whether discrimination on racial grounds – Whether Labour party qualifying body – Employment tribunal erroneously holding Labour party a qualifying body – Court of Appeal in unconnected proceedings holding Labour party not a qualifying body – Whether issue estoppel arising – Race Relations Act 1976, ss 12(1), 25(1).
A was of Pakistani origin. Between 1991 and 1998 he was a Labour Party councillor for the Sparkhill ward in Birmingham which had a large Pakistani population. In 1995 the Labour Party national executive suspended four constituency parties and their branches, including the Sparkhill branch, after national newspaper articles appeared alleging that local councillors of Pakistani origin, including A, had been helping Pakistani residents to obtain priority for housing grants. The party held an inquiry and no evidence was found of any impropriety on the part of A or other Pakistani councillors. However, eight branches remained suspended; the suspended wards included (with one exception) all the wards with a significant Pakistani population. In 1997 A put himself forward for re-adoption as the Labour candidate in the approaching local government elections. As the branches were suspended the national executive decided that the candidates would be selected by a panel from the regional executive committee. He was interviewed by the panel which chose J, a white man, as candidate for the Sparkhill ward. In February 1998 A made a complaint to an employment tribunal, alleging that the Labour Party had discriminated against him on racial grounds, contrary to s 12(1)a of the Race Relations Act 1976. That section was headed ‘Qualifying bodies’ and appeared in Pt II of the 1976 Act which was headed ‘Discrimination in the Employment Field’. Under s 12(1) it was unlawful for an authority or body which could confer an authorisation or qualification which was needed for, or facilitated, engagement in a particular profession or trade to discriminate on racial grounds (a) in the terms on which it was prepared to confer on him that authorisation or qualification; or (b) by refusing or deliberately omitting to grant, his application for it; or (c) by withdrawing it from him or varying the terms on which he held it. ‘Profession’ was defined as including ‘any vocation or occupation’. The Labour Party considered that s 12 did not apply as they were not a ‘qualifying body’. The employment tribunal decided to determine whether s 12 was applicable as a preliminary issue. In the meantime, A found that his name had been taken off a draft list of approved candidates for selection by ward parties on the ground that
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he had brought proceedings against the Labour Party. He brought a second complaint under the 1976 Act alleging victimisation. In August 1998 the tribunal found against the Labour Party on the preliminary point. The party appealed unsuccessfully to the Employment Appeal Tribunal (the EAT). It obtained permission to appeal to the Court of Appeal. Meanwhile, A started proceedings in the county court under s 25b of the 1976 Act. That section dealt with discrimination by associations against members or prospective members. By s 25(1) it applied to any association of persons if (a) it had 25 or more members and (b) admission to membership was regulated by its constitution and was so conducted that ‘the members did not constitute a section of the public’. A made a third complaint of racial discrimination in May 2000, again under s 12, in connection for the selection of candidates in that year and his candidature for the national executive committee. The Labour Party did not exercise its right to appeal against the decision of the EAT on the preliminary point and A’s three complaints were heard between June and September 2001. In the interim, the Labour Party had argued the same preliminary point on s 12 in another, unconnected, case. The party lost before the tribunal and the EAT, but succeeded before the Court of Appeal in February 2002 when the court ruled that the Labour Party was not the type of qualifying body to which s 12 was intended to apply. The judgment of the tribunal in A’s case had been reserved and the Labour Party made further submissions, inviting the tribunal to dismiss A’s applications on the ground that, following the ruling of the Court of Appeal, the tribunal was bound to hold that the Labour Party was not a qualifying body under s 12 and that the tribunal therefore lacked jurisdiction. The tribunal decided that, as between the parties, it was still bound by the earlier decision of the EAT which the Labour Party had not appealed. On the merits, it found for A on all three complaints. The Labour Party appealed to the EAT on the preliminary point; the EAT dismissed the appeal in respect of the first complaint, but allowed it in respect of the other two. The EAT dismissed an appeal on the merits of the first complaint. A’s county court proceedings under s 25 of the 1976 Act remained on hold pending the resolution of the s 12 dispute. The Labour Party appealed to the Court of Appeal, which ruled by a majority that the earlier decision of the Court of Appeal had established that the employment tribunal had no jurisdiction to hear complaints against the Labour Party under s 12. It also considered that the complaint should have failed on the merits because A had not been discriminated against on racial grounds. A appealed against both the decisions on jurisdiction and the merits. He argued (i) that the Labour Party was a qualifying body for the purposes of s 12 and that the Court of Appeal decision to the contrary had been wrongly decided; (ii) that s 25 did not apply to the Labour Party as its admission to membership was so conducted that the members were a section of the public as it had a large membership and anyone who supported its objects could join; and (iii) that in any event the interpretation of s 12 by the EAT on his first complaint, which had not been appealed, was res judicata between the Labour party and himself.
Held – (1) The Labour Party was not a qualifying body for the purposes of s 12 of the 1976 Act. In s 12 an ‘authorisation or qualification’ suggested an objective standard which the qualifying body applied, a test which people could pass or fail. The qualifying body vouched to the public for the qualifications of the candidate
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and the public relied upon the qualification in offering him employment or professional engagements. That was far removed from the basis upon which a political party chose its candidates (see [18], [50]–[53], below); Triesman v Ali [2002] IRLR 489 approved.
(2) Section 25 of the 1976 Act prohibited the Labour Party from discriminating on racial grounds in choosing its candidates. The distinction between an association and a section of the public did not depend upon whether the association had a large number of members or upon how easy it was to join. The qualification in s 25(1)(b) which excluded associations where admission to membership was so conducted that the members were a section of the public was directed at cases in which a business purported to be a proprietary club but such conditions of membership as the constitution might specify were in practice nugatory or not enforced, so that there was no genuine selection. As the Labour Party took its admission procedures seriously it followed that it fell within s 25. In the instant case, therefore, the EAT had been wrong to hold that the Labour Party was a qualifying body within s 12 and that the tribunal had jurisdiction to hear A’s complaint; he should have been told to pursue his proceedings in the county court under s 25 (see [19], [24], [25], [27], [28], [50]–[53], below).
(3) A decision made by a competent tribunal as to jurisdiction was binding on the parties, even though a later decision might show that it was erroneous in law. The EAT had been a court of competent jurisdiction to determine whether or not the Labour Party was a qualifying body within the meaning of s 12, whether the issue was formulated as one of fact or law. Its decision that the Labour Party was a qualifying body for the purposes of s 12 was therefore binding upon the parties; the Labour Party was estopped from challenging the ruling that it was a qualifying body and was not entitled to discriminate on racial grounds in its choice of candidates for the council election (see [30]–[35], [50]–[53], below).
(4) In the instant case the tribunal had regarded the selection of J as evidence that a person whose circumstances were the same as those of A, but who was not Pakistani, would not have been rejected. That was discrimination on racial grounds. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed (see [42], [43], [49]–[55], below).
Notes
For discrimination and harassment by qualifying bodies and for the scope of provisions as to clubs and associations, see 13 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2007 reissue) paras 452, 465, and for issue estoppel, see 16(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 980–984.
For the Race Relations Act 1976, ss 12, 25, see 7 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 176, 197.
Cases referred to in opinions
Arnold v National Westminster Bank plc [1991] 3 All ER 41, [1991] 2 AC 93, [1991] 2 WLR 1177, HL.
Charter v Race Relations Board [1973] 1 All ER 512, [1973] AC 868, [1973] 2 WLR 299, HL.
Dept of Health and Social Security v Coy [1983] IRLR 474, [1984] ICR 309, EAT; rvsd [1984] IRLR 360, [1984] ICR 557, CA; rvsd [1985] IRLR 263, [1985] AC 776, [1985] 2 WLR 866, HL.
Dockers’ Labour Club and Institute Ltd v Race Relations Board [1974] 3 All ER 592, [1976] AC 285, [1974] 3 WLR 533, HL.
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Panama (Piccadilly) Ltd v Newberry [1962] 1 All ER 769, [1962] 1 WLR 610, DC.
Secretary of State for Employment v Globe Elastic Thread Co Ltd [1979] 2 All ER 1077, [1980] AC 506, [1979] 3 WLR 143, HL.
Shamoon v Chief Constable of the Royal Ulster Constabulary [2003] UKHL 11, [2003] 2 All ER 26, [2003] ICR 337.
Thoday v Thoday [1964] 1 All ER 341, [1964] P 181, [1964] 2 WLR 371, CA.
Triesman v Ali [2002] EWCA Civ 93, [2002] IRLR 489, sub nom Ali v McDonagh [2002] ICR 1026.
Waring (decd), Re, Westminster Bank Ltd v Burton-Butler [1948] 1 All ER 257, [1948] Ch 221.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
Ahmed v Government of Saudi Arabia [1996] 2 All ER 248, [1996] ICR 25, CA.
Amin, Re [1983] 2 AC 818, HL.
Anisminic Ltd v Foreign Compensation Commission [1969] 1 All ER 208, [1969] 2 AC 147, [1969] 2 WLR 163, HL.
Anya v University of Oxford [2001] EWCA Civ 405, [2001] IRLR 377, [2001] ICR 847.
Anyanwu v South Bank Student Union [2001] UKHL 14, [2001] 2 All ER 353, [2001] ICR 391, [2001] 1 WLR 638.
Aparau v Iceland Frozen Foods plc [2000] 1 All ER 228, CA.
Arthur v A-G [1999] ICR 631, EAT.
Asda Stores Ltd v Thompson [2004] IRLR 598, EAT.
Associated Society of Locomotive Engineers & Firemen v UK [2007] IRLR 361, ECt HR.
Aziz v Trinity Street Taxis Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 860, [1988] ICR 534, [1988] 3 WLR 79, CA.
Bahl v Law Society [2004] EWCA Civ 1070, [2004] IRLR 799.
Barber v Staffordshire CC [1996] 2 All ER 748, [1996] ICR 379, CA.
Barber v Thames Television plc [1991] IRLR 236, [1991] ICR 253, EAT.
Bernstein v Immigration Appeal Tribunal [1988] Imm AR 449, CA; affg R v Immigration Appeal Tribunal, ex p Bernstein [1987] Imm AR 182.
Biggs v Somerset CC [1995] IRLR 452, [1996] ICR 364, CA; affg [1995] IRLR 452, [1995] ICR 811, EAT.
Booth-Clibborn v UK (1985) 43 DR 236, E Com HR.
British Judo Association v Petty [1981] IRLR 484, [1981] ICR 660, EAT.
Bunbury v Fuller (1853) 9 Exch 111.
Cast v Croydon College [1998] IRLR 318, [1998] ICR 500, CA.
Chief Constable of West Yorkshire Police v Khan [2000] ICR 1169, CA.
DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, [1976] 2 WLR 857, PC.
Dunnachie v Kingston-upon-Hull City Council [2004] UKHL 36, [2004] 3 All ER 1011, [2005] 1 AC 226, [2004] 3 WLR 310; rvsg [2004] EWCA Civ 84, [2004] 2 All ER 501, [2004] ICR 481; rvsg [2003] IRLR 384, [2003] ICR 1294, EAT.
Essex CC v Essex Incorporated Congregational Church Union [1963] 1 All ER 326, [1963] AC 808, [1963] 2 WLR 802, HL.
European Roma Rights Centre v Immigration Officer at Prague Airport [2004] UKHL 55, [2005] 1 All ER 527, [2005] 2 AC 1, [2005] 2 WLR 1.
Farah v Comr of Police for the Metropolis [1997] 1 All ER 289, [1998] QB 65, [1997] 2 WLR 824, CA.
Farquharson v Morgan [1894] 1 QB 552, [1891–4] All ER Rep 595, CA.
Garthwaite v Garthwaite [1964] 2 All ER 233, [1964] P 356, [1964] 2 WLR 1108, CA.
Glasgow City Council v Zafar [1998] 2 All ER 953, [1998] ICR 120, [1997] 1 WLR 1659, HL.
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Glennie v Independent Magazines (UK) Ltd [1999] IRLR 719, CA.
Glimmerveen v The Netherlands (1979) 18 DR 187, E Com HR.
Green v Hampshire CC [1979] ICR 861.
Harrington v Roots [1984] 2 All ER 474, sub nom Re Harrington [1984] AC 743, [1984] 3 WLR 142, HL.
House v Emerson Electric Industrial Controls [1980] ICR 795, EAT.
Hunter v Chief Constable of West Midlands Police [1981] 3 All ER 727, [1982] AC 529, [1981] 3 WLR 906, HL.
ICTS (UK) Ltd v Tchoula [2000] IRLR 643, EAT.
Isaacs v Robertson [1984] 3 All ER 140, [1985] AC 97, [1984] 3 WLR 705, PC.
James v Eastleigh BC [1990] 2 All ER 607, [1990] 2 AC 751, [1990] 3 WLR 55, HL.
James v Redcats (Brands) Ltd [2007] IRLR 296, [2007] ICR 1006, EAT.
Jepson v Labour Party [1996] IRLR 116, Ind Trib.
Johnson v Gore Wood [2001] 1 All ER 481, [2002] 2 AC 1, [2001] 2 WLR 72, HL.
Jones v Tower Boot Co Ltd [1997] 2 All ER 406, [1997] ICR 254, CA.
Kelly v Northern Ireland Housing Executive, Loughran v Northern Ireland Housing Executive [1998] IRLR 593, [1998] ICR 828, [1998] 3 WLR 735, HL.
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Appeal
Raghib Ahsan appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 6 February 2006 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Buxton LJ and Rimer J, Sedley LJ dissenting) on 28 July 2005 ([2005] EWCA Civ 990, [2005] ICR 1817) allowing the appeal of Matt Carter (the then general secretary of the Labour party, sued on behalf of all other members of the Labour party) from (i) the decision of the Employment Appeal Tribunal (the EAT) (Burton P) on 24 February 2004 ([2004] ICR 938) allowing in part the appeal of the Labour party from the decision of the Birmingham employment tribunal that it had jurisdiction to hear Mr Ahsan’s complaint under s 12 of the Race Relations
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Act 1976 brought against the Labour party; and (ii) the decision of the EAT (Silber J) on 21 June 2004 dismissing the Labour party’s appeal from the decision of the tribunal that the Labour party had racially discriminated against Mr Ahsan contrary to ss 1 and 12 of the 1976 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of Lord Hoffmann.
Robin Allen QC and Akua Reindorf (instructed by the Commission for Racial Equality) for Mr Ahsan.
Gavin Millar QC and Michael Ford (instructed by Thompsons) for the Labour Party.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
21 November 2007. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD HOFFMANN.
[1] My Lords, between 1991 and 1998 Mr Raghib Ahsan was a Labour Party councillor for the Sparkhill Ward of Birmingham. The ward has a large Pakistani population and he is from Pakistan. When the 1998 local government elections were approaching, he hoped to be readopted as the Labour candidate. Ordinarily, the candidate would have been chosen by the Sparkhill branch of the party. But when the selection process was due to take place, late in 1997, the Sparkhill branch had been suspended for nearly three years. The reason was that, early in 1995, articles had appeared in the Observer and the Daily Mail in which it was alleged that local councillors of Pakistani origin or associated with the Pakistani community were helping Pakistani residents to jump the queue for housing grants. The journalists made free with words like ‘sleaze’ and ‘scandal’. One of the councillors named in this connection was Mr Ahsan, who was known to be an aspirant for adoption as prospective parliamentary candidate for the Sparkbrook constituency, which included the Sparkhill ward. The newspapers linked the housing grant story to another story that large numbers of Pakistanis, real or imaginary, had suddenly joined the Birmingham Labour Party. The implication was that Mr Ahsan was recruiting or inventing countrymen to support his parliamentary ambitions.
[2] The reaction of the Labour Party national executive was immediately to suspend four constituency parties and their branches, including Sparkhill. These were mainly the wards with the highest concentration of ethnic minority groups. In the event, after inquiry by the party, no evidence was found of any impropriety in connection with housing grants on the part of Mr Ahsan or the other Pakistani councillors. They appear to have been doing no more than advising or encouraging their constituents to exercise their statutory rights. The executive’s concerns about new members were addressed by requiring all members to attend in person at the Labour Party office to verify their membership. Again, no evidence of any abuse involving Mr Ahsan was found. Nevertheless eight branches remained suspended throughout the 1997 general election campaign and they remained suspended when it came to the selection of candidates for the council at the end of 1997. The suspended wards included (with one exception) all the wards with a significant Pakistani population.
[3] As the branches were suspended, the national executive committee of the Labour Party decided that the candidates would be selected by a panel from the regional executive committee. On 19 December 1997 Mr Ahsan and others were interviewed by the panel, consisting of five members. He was not chosen. The
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candidate chosen for the Sparkhill ward was a white man from the Fox Hollies branch, a Mr Ian Jamieson.
[4] On 26 February 1998 Mr Ahsan made a complaint to an employment tribunal, alleging that the Labour Party had discriminated against him on racial grounds, contrary to s 12(1) of the Race Relations Act 1976:
‘It is unlawful for an authority or body which can confer an authorisation or qualification which is needed for, or facilitates, engagement in a particular profession or trade to discriminate against a person—(a) in the terms on which it is prepared to confer on him that authorisation or qualification; or (b) by refusing, or deliberately omitting to grant, his application for it; or (c) by withdrawing it from him or varying the terms on which he holds it.’
[5] By s 3, ‘discriminate’ means to discriminate on racial grounds and by s 78(1), ‘profession’ is defined to include ‘any vocation or occupation’. Mr Ahsan says that being a councillor is a profession, or at any rate an occupation, and that the Labour Party is able to confer its authorisation to stand as a Labour candidate, which he needs to be elected or which will facilitate his election.
[6] The Labour Party objected that s 12 did not apply to them. They said they did not confer authorisations or qualifications within the meaning of the Act. Section 12 is headed ‘Qualifying bodies’ and appears in Pt II of the Act, which is headed ‘Discrimination in the Employment Field’. It is, they said, concerned with vocational or professional qualifications and not with politics.
[7] The employment tribunal decided that they would decide the question of whether s 12 was applicable as a preliminary point. While that question was pending before the tribunal in July 1998, the secretary of the Birmingham Labour Party’s Local Government Committee circulated to branches a draft list of approved candidates for selection by ward parties. Notwithstanding that Mr Ahsan was an approved candidate, his name had been taken off the list on the ground that he had brought proceedings against the Labour Party. This incident formed the subject of a second complaint to the employment tribunal on 22 September 1998, this time alleging victimisation contrary to s 2(1) of the 1976 Act:
‘A person (“the discriminator”) discriminates against another person (“the person victimised”) in any circumstances relevant for the purposes of any provision of this Act if he treats the person victimised less favourably than in those circumstances he treats or would treat other persons, and does so by reason that the person victimised has—(a) brought proceedings against the discriminator or any other person under this Act . . .’
[8] On 25 August 1998 the tribunal found against the Labour Party on the preliminary point. The Labour Party said that they would appeal and the tribunal therefore adjourned the second complaint to await the outcome of the appeal.
[9] On 14 July 1999 the Employment Appeal Tribunal (EAT) (Lindsay J presiding) dismissed the Labour Party’s appeal: see Sawyer v Ahsan [1999] IRLR 609, [2000] ICR 1. The tribunal gave the Labour Party leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal and ordered that, if they did not appeal, the case should be relisted for hearing on the merits.
[10] On 26 May 2000 Mr Ahsan made another complaint of racial discrimination, again under s 12, in connection with the selection of candidates in that year and his candidature for the national executive committee. That made three complaints in all.
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[11] The Labour Party did not exercise their right to appeal against the decision of the EAT. In accordance with the tribunal’s direction, the first case was therefore heard on the merits and by agreement the other two complaints were heard at the same time, over 15 days between June and September 2001.
[12] Meanwhile, the Labour Party had argued the same preliminary point on s 12 in another entirely unconnected case in the Reading employment tribunal, also concerning alleged discrimination in the selection of a candidate for council elections. The employment tribunal followed Sawyer v Ahsan and rejected the Labour Party’s objection. An appeal to the EAT (Lindsay J again presiding) was dismissed on the same ground. Again leave to appeal was granted. But this time the Labour Party took it up and pursued the appeal.
[13] On 7 February 2002 the Court of Appeal gave judgment. The appeal succeeded: see Triesman v Ali [2002] EWCA Civ 93, [2002] IRLR 489, sub nom Ali v McDonagh [2002] ICR 1026. Peter Gibson LJ, who gave the judgment of the court, said (at [35]) that the Labour Party was ‘not the type of qualifying body to which the section is intended to apply’.
[14] At the time of the judgment in Triesman v Ali, the judgment of the tribunal in Mr Ahsan’s case was still reserved. The Labour Party asked to make further submissions on the effect of the Court of Appeal’s decision and did so on 10 July 2003. It invited the tribunal to dismiss the applications on the ground that, following the decision of the Court of Appeal, the tribunal was now bound to hold that the Labour Party was not a ‘qualifying body’ under s 12. It therefore had no jurisdiction to proceed with the case. But the tribunal decided that, as between the parties, it was still bound by the unappealed decision in Sawyer v Ahsan. On the merits, it found for Mr Ahsan on all three complaints.
[15] The Labour Party appealed to the EAT (Burton P presiding) (see [2004] ICR 938) on the preliminary point alone. The EAT dismissed the appeal in respect of the first complaint but allowed it in respect of the other two. The ground for distinction was that the EAT in Sawyer v Ahsan had directed a hearing on the merits of the first complaint but said nothing about the other two, of which it was not at the time seised. There followed an appeal to the EAT (Silber J presiding) against the employment tribunal’s decision on the merits of the first complaint. The EAT held that the tribunal had made no error of law and dismissed the appeal.
[16] The Labour Party then appealed against the decision of the EAT presided over by Burton P which had dismissed their appeal on the preliminary point. The Court of Appeal (Buxton LJ and Rimer J, Sedley LJ dissenting) allowed the appeal, primarily on the ground that the earlier decision of the Court of Appeal had established that the employment tribunal had no jurisdiction to hear a complaint against the Labour Party under s 12 (see [2005] EWCA Civ 990, [2005] ICR 1817). The majority were also of the opinion that Mr Ahsan’s case should have failed on the merits because he had not been discriminated against on racial grounds.
[17] Mr Ahsan appeals to your Lordships’ House against the decisions of the Court of Appeal both on s 12 and the merits. On s 12, he argues that the Labour Party is a qualifying body and that Triesman v Ali was wrongly decided. In any case, he submits, the interpretation given to s 12 by the EAT in Sawyer v Ahsan is res judicata between him and the Labour Party, not only for the purposes of his first complaint but for the other two as well.
[18] My Lords, it seems to me that logically the first question to be answered is whether the Labour Party is a qualifying body for the purposes of s 12. In my opinion, for the reasons given by Peter Gibson LJ in Triesman v Ali, it is not. The
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notion of an ‘authorisation or qualification’ suggests some kind of objective standard which the qualifying body applies, an even-handed, not to say ‘transparent’, test which people may pass or fail. The qualifying body vouches to the public for the qualifications of the candidate and the public rely upon the qualification in offering him employment or professional engagements. That is why s 12 falls under the general heading of discrimination ‘in the Employment Field’. But that is far removed from the basis upon which a political party chooses its candidates. The main criterion is likely to be the popularity of the candidate with the voters, which is unlikely to be based on the most objective criteria. That will certainly be true of selection by vote of the branch and I doubt whether greater objectivity can be expected of a selection committee. The members or selection panel want to choose the candidate who, for whatever reason, seems to them most likely to win or at least put up a respectable showing in the election.
[19] That does not mean that a political party is entitled to discriminate on racial grounds in choosing its candidates. It would be most surprising if it could lawfully do so. But the relevant prohibition is to be found, not in s 12, but in s 25, which deals with discrimination by associations against members or prospective members:
‘(1) This section applies to any association of persons (however described, whether corporate or unincorporate, and whether or not its activities are carried on for profit) if—(a) it has twenty-five or more members; and (b) admission to membership is regulated by its constitution and is so conducted that the members do not constitute a section of the public within the meaning of section 20(1); and (c) it is not an organisation to which section 11 applies . . .
(3) It is unlawful for an association to which this section applies, in the case of a person who is a member or associate of the association, to discriminate against him—(a) in the way it affords him access to any benefits, facilities or services, or by refusing or deliberately omitting to afford him access to them . . .’
[20] As is well known, s 25 was enacted to fill a gap in the Race Relations Act 1968 revealed by the decisions of the House of Lords in Charter v Race Relations Board [1973] 1 All ER 512, [1973] AC 868 and Dockers’ Labour Club and Institute Ltd v Race Relations Board [1974] 3 All ER 592, [1976] AC 285. In the 1968 Act, there was nothing which dealt expressly with race discrimination in the admission of members to clubs or associations or the treatment of those who had been admitted. There was only the provision which is now s 20 of the 1976 Act (s 2(1) of the 1968 Act) which prohibits anyone ‘concerned with the provision to the public or a section of the public . . . of any goods, facilities or services’ from discriminating on racial grounds. When, in Charter’s case, the East Ham South Conservative Club refused on racial grounds to admit Mr Amarjit Singh Shah as a member, the Race Relations Board brought proceedings under s 2(1) of the 1968 Act. But the club said that they were not supplying anything to the public. They were a private club which offered services only to members. This defence was upheld by the House of Lords. The same happened in the Dockers’ Labour Club case.
[21] Section 25 was intended to reverse these decisions and prohibit racial discrimination in the choice or treatment of members in all but very small associations or clubs. The section contains two qualifications which are intended to prevent overlap with other sections of the 1976 Act. The first is the exclusion
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of the trade unions and employers’ organisations which come within s 11. The second is exclusion of cases which come within s 20 because, although the association or club is nominally supplying goods or services only to its members, the procedure for admission to membership is so conducted that the supply is in fact to the public or a section of the public. The formulation of s 25(1)(b) appears to be based upon the way Lord Simon of Glaisdale put the matter in Charter’s case [1973] 1 All ER 512 at 529, [1973] AC 868 at 903:
‘The essential feature is that there should be a genuine screening at some stage as a pledge of general acceptability to fellow members. It is this screening that determines that membership is a private role. Without it the association remains a section of the public (see [Panama (Piccadilly) Ltd v Newberry [1962] 1 All ER 769, [1962] 1 WLR 610]). The rules will determine prima facie whether the association is in this way a private club or a section of the public; omnia praesumuntur rite esse acta. But this is a rebuttable presumption; so it will always be open to any interested person (including the board) to show that the rules are a sham, that anyone who applies can join, that the mode of entry is, in other words, a mere formality.’
[22] The 1976 Act therefore starts with the requirement that admission to membership must be regulated by the constitution. It is the constitution which must provide the ‘screening’ to which Lord Simon refers. But the statute allows for the possibility that in practice there is no ‘regulation’ of membership and that anyone can avail themselves of the privileges to which, under the constitution, members are entitled.
[23] There is no dispute that the Labour Party is an unincorporated association which has more than 25 members and a constitution which regulates admission to membership. It is not one of the organisations mentioned in s 11, which deals with trade unions and employers’ associations. But Mr Allen QC submitted on behalf of Mr Ahsan that admission to membership is so conducted that the members are a section of the public.
[24] The reason why the Labour Party was said to be a section of the public was that it has a large membership and anyone who supports its objects can join. In my opinion, however, the distinction between an association and a section of the public does not depend upon whether the association has a large number of members or upon how easy it is to join. The qualification in s 25(1)(b) which excludes associations where admission to membership is ‘so conducted’ that the members are a section of the public is directed at cases in which a business purports to be a proprietary club but such conditions of membership as the constitution may specify are in practice nugatory or not enforced, so that there is no genuine selection. An example may be found in Panama (Piccadilly) Ltd v Newberry [1962] 1 All ER 769, [1962] 1 WLR 610 to which Lord Simon referred.
[25] The Labour Party, on the other hand, takes its admission procedures seriously. Applicants for membership must accept the principles and policies of the party and not belong to inconsistent or proscribed organisations. Constituency parties and the general secretary have the right to object to applicants for membership. Members of the general public are not free, either in theory or in practice, to attend party meetings.
[26] It is true that in emphasising the private nature of the Conservative Club, both Lord Reid ([1973] 1 All ER 512 at 515–516, [1973] AC 868 at 886) and Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest ([1973] 1 All ER 512 at 523, [1973] AC 868 at 895) said that ‘Conservatives’ (but not members of the club) were a section of the public.
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But I suspect that what they had in mind was Conservative supporters rather than the persons admitted to membership under the party’s constitution. In any event, the remarks were obiter dicta.
[27] It follows that the Labour Party comes within s 25. In the present case, however, that section does not help Mr Ahsan because it cannot be relied upon before an employment tribunal. Proceedings under Pt III of the Act must be brought in the county court. Back in 1998, after the Labour Party had first taken the point that it was not a qualifying body under s 12, Mr Ahsan started proceedings under s 25 (and, in the alternative, s 20) in the Birmingham County Court. But these proceedings have been on hold pending the resolution of the present dispute.
[28] It follows that in my opinion the EAT was wrong in Sawyer v Ahsan to hold that the Labour Party was a qualifying body within the meaning of s 12 and that the employment tribunal had jurisdiction to hear Mr Ahsan’s complaint. He should have been told to pursue his proceedings in the county court under s 25. But there was no appeal against the decision of the EAT. So the question is whether, notwithstanding that it was wrong in law, the decision in Sawyer v Ahsan remains binding upon the parties.
[29] The majority of the Court of Appeal held that it was not binding because it involved an error as to the employment tribunal’s jurisdiction. Rimer J said a party could not be estopped by conduct from disputing a tribunal’s jurisdiction (see, for example, Secretary of State for Employment v Globe Elastic Thread Co Ltd [1979] 2 All ER 1077 at 1081, [1980] AC 506 at 512–513 and Dept of Health and Social Security v Coy [1983] IRLR 474 at 477, [1984] ICR 309 at 315–316). It followed, in his opinion, that a decision on jurisdiction could not give rise to an issue estoppel either: see [2005] ICR 1817 at [69]–[74]. Buxton LJ likewise said (at [84]) that:
‘If it becomes apparent through a decision of a court of superior authority that the tribunal lacks . . . jurisdiction, then the [obligation of the tribunal to decline jurisdiction] arises; and that obligation, it is trite law, cannot be offset by any previous determination between, or lack of action by, the parties themselves.’
[30] Although it is well established that the parties cannot by agreement or conduct confer upon a tribunal a jurisdiction which it does not otherwise have, the question in this case is whether an actual decision by a tribunal that it has jurisdiction can estop the parties per rem judicatam from asserting the contrary. Neither Buxton LJ nor Rimer J cited any authority which decides that it cannot. The law on this point is not at all trite. Although estoppel in pais and estoppel per rem judicatam share the word estoppel, they share very little else. The former is based upon a policy of giving a limited effect to non-contractual representations and promises while the latter is based upon the altogether different policy of avoiding relitigation of the same issues. It is easy to see why parties should not be able to agree to confer upon a tribunal a jurisdiction which Parliament has not given it. And if they cannot do this by contract, it would be illogical if they could do it by non-contractual representations or promises. But when the tribunal has decided that it does have jurisdiction, the question of whether this decision is binding at a later stage of the same litigation, or in subsequent litigation, involves, as Sedley LJ explained in his dissenting judgment, quite different issues about fairness and economy in the administration of justice.
[31] Issue estoppel arises when a court of competent jurisdiction has determined some question of fact or law, either in the course of the same
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litigation (for example, as a preliminary point) or in other litigation which raises the same point between the same parties: see Thoday v Thoday [1964] 1 All ER 341 at 352, [1964] P 181 at 198. The question is therefore whether the EAT was a court of competent jurisdiction to determine whether the Labour Party was a qualifying body within the meaning of s 12.
[32] The jurisdiction of an employment tribunal depends upon whether the facts fall within certain statutory concepts which the Act defines with varying degrees of precision. These include concepts such as a ‘contract of employment’ (s 230 of the Employment Rights Act 1996), ‘redundancy’ (s 139 of the 1996 Act) and, in the present case, ‘body which can confer an authorisation or qualification’. The decision as to whether the facts found by the tribunal answer to the statutory description is sometimes treated as a question of fact (from which there is no appeal to the EAT) and sometimes as a question of law (from which there is). In either case, however, the tribunal has jurisdiction to decide the question. I can see no basis for distinguishing between questions which ‘go to its jurisdiction’ and those which do not. A decision that a contract falls outside the jurisdiction of the tribunal because it is for services, or for service overseas, seems to me just as much a question which goes to the jurisdiction as the question of whether the Labour Party is within the jurisdiction because it is a qualifying body. Both are decisions of fact or law, which are (subject to appeal on questions of law) within the competence of the tribunal.
[33] In my opinion, therefore, the decision that the Labour Party was a qualifying body for the purposes of s 12 was made by a competent court and is therefore binding upon the parties. It does not matter that a later decision, now approved by this House, has shown that it was erroneous in law: see Re Waring (decd), Westminster Bank Ltd v Burton-Butler [1948] 1 All ER 257, [1948] Ch 221. The whole point of an issue estoppel on a question of law is that the parties remain bound by an erroneous decision.
[34] As Rimer J pointed out [2005] ICR 1817 at [74], the issue estoppel is in principle binding between the parties in subsequent litigation raising the same issue, as in the second and third applications by Mr Ahsan. I cannot therefore see any basis for the distinction drawn by the EAT between the application of res judicata in relation to the first application and in relation to the second and third. It is true that the severity of this rule is tempered by a discretion to allow the issue to be re-opened in subsequent proceedings when there are special circumstances in which it would cause injustice not to do so: see Arnold v National Westminster Bank plc [1991] 3 All ER 41, [1991] 2 AC 93. As Lord Keith of Kinkel said ([1991] 3 All ER 41 at 50, [1991] 2 AC 93 at 109), the purpose of the estoppel is to work justice between the parties. In the present case, however, I think it would be unjust if the issue estoppel did not apply to the second and third applications. Although the Labour Party knew that it had given notice of appeal in Triesman v Ali [2002] IRLR 489, [2002] ICR 1026, it made no attempt to obtain an extension of its time for appealing in this case. Instead, it involved Mr Ahsan in a lengthy and expensive hearing over the summer of 2001, during which the merits of all three applications were examined. It would be quite unfair for Mr Ahsan now to be told that he must start again in the county court.
[35] In my opinion, therefore, the Labour Party is estopped from challenging the ruling that it was a qualifying body and was not entitled to discriminate on racial grounds in its choice of candidates for the council election. The tribunal found that it had done so. This finding was held by the EAT (presided over by Silber J) to involve no error of law. But the majority of the Court of Appeal
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expressed the opinion that if the tribunal had had jurisdiction to consider the complaints at all, their findings of fact would not have supported a conclusion that there had been discrimination. I must therefore consider the facts in greater detail.
[36] The discrimination which s 12 of the 1976 Act makes unlawful is defined by s 1(1)(a) as treating someone on racial grounds ‘less favourably than he treats or would treat other persons’. The meaning of these apparently simple words was considered by the House in Shamoon v Chief Constable of the Royal Ulster Constabulary [2003] UKHL 11, [2003] 2 All ER 26, [2003] ICR 337. Nothing has been said in this appeal to cast any doubt upon the principles there stated by the House, but the case produced five lengthy speeches and it may be useful to summarise: (1) The test for discrimination involves a comparison between the treatment of the complainant and another person (the ‘statutory comparator’) actual or hypothetical, who is not of the same sex or racial group, as the case may be. (2) The comparison requires that whether the statutory comparator is actual or hypothetical, the relevant circumstances in either case should be (or be assumed to be), the same as, or not materially different from, those of the complainant (see s 3(4) of the 1976 Act). (3) The treatment of a person who does not qualify as a statutory comparator (because the circumstances are in some material respect different) may nevertheless be evidence from which a tribunal may infer how a hypothetical statutory comparator would have been treated: see Lord Scott of Foscote in Shamoon’s case (at [109]) and Lord Rodger of Earlsferry (at [143]). This is an ordinary question of relevance, which depends upon the degree of the similarity of the circumstances of the person in question (the ‘evidential comparator’) to those of the complainant and all the other evidence in the case.
[37] It is probably uncommon to find a real person who qualifies under s 3(4) as a statutory comparator. Lord Rodger’s example in Shamoon’s case (at [139]) of the two employees with similar disciplinary records who are found drinking together in working time has a factual simplicity which may be rare in ordinary life. At any rate, the question of whether the differences between the circumstances of the complainant and those of the putative statutory comparator are ‘materially different’ is often likely to be disputed. In most cases, however, it will be unnecessary for the tribunal to resolve this dispute because it should be able, by treating the putative comparator as an evidential comparator, and having due regard to the alleged differences in circumstances and other evidence, to form a view on how the employer would have treated a hypothetical person who was a true statutory comparator. If the tribunal is able to conclude that the respondent would have treated such a person more favourably on racial grounds, it would be well advised to avoid deciding whether any actual person was a statutory comparator.
[38] In this case, the tribunal did not do so. In relation to the first complaint, it began by saying that the Labour Party had provided no satisfactory grounds for the continued suspension of the Sparkhill branch and seven others for nearly three years. The allegations about housing grants had been ‘laid to rest’ by the middle of 1995 and ‘no single case’ of membership abuse had been established. Three of the four wards which had been reinstated were predominantly white and the fourth had a relatively low Pakistani population. By contrast, seven of the eight wards which remained suspended had a significant Pakistani population. The tribunal concluded (in para 49):
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‘As has been noted above, the respondent suspected membership abuse particularly within the Pakistani population. There clearly was a racial dimension to the consideration to suspend those branches where Pakistani members were numerous and where it was suspected that some at least of those members were guilty of abuses of the membership system.’
[39] The tribunal then considered the positive evidence from the Labour Party about the way in which the selection panel had made its choice. It declared itself ‘extremely unhappy’ about the way in which the members appeared to have gone about the matter and was not satisfied with the explanation of the Party’s failure to preserve vital documents, despite having been told within two days that there would be a challenge to the procedure.
[40] Section 65 of the 1976 Act permits a person who complains of race discrimination to serve a questionnaire on the respondent asking about the reasons for doing a relevant act. If the questionnaire is not answered within a reasonable period or the reply is ‘evasive or equivocal’, the tribunal may draw such inference as it considers just and equitable. In this case, Mr Ahsan served his questionnaire on 17 March 1998 and received a reply on 30 June 2000. The tribunal noted that it was ‘provided with no satisfactory explanation for that delay’. One would expect such a questionnaire to be answered while memory was fresh and documents available, but even if the Labour Party had been waiting for the decision of the EAT on the preliminary point, that had been given in August 1999. The tribunal also found some of the replies to be ‘evasive’.
[41] The candidate selected by the panel, Mr Ian Jamieson, did not qualify under the rules, which required candidates to have been verified party members for 12 months. The tribunal said that ‘different rules were applied to Ian Jamieson’ and asked itself why. They quoted the evidence of the national constitutional officer, Mr Penn: ‘It was felt that he . . . was best placed to counter some of the problems which had arisen in the ward’. What were these problems? They were the adverse publicity on housing grants and the suspicions about membership abuse, ‘both matters which were closely associated with the Pakistani community’:
‘The respondent associated the applicant’s continuing representation of that ward with a continuation of those two perceived problems. In point of fact the applicant had been exonerated of any wrongdoing in connection with the allocation of grants, nor had anything been established—whether against the applicant or at all—in connection with the membership abuse allegation. Nevertheless, in the mind of the respondent, both of these remained problems. They were both intimately associated with the Pakistani community.’
[42] The tribunal reached its conclusion in paras 55 and 56:
‘The applicant is himself of Pakistani Muslim origin. The respondent identified him with that section of the community and with those perceived problems and with the embarrassment which the party and the city council had suffered as a result of them. A councillor not of the same racial group would not in the respondent’s eyes be likely to identify with the Pakistani Muslim community in particular, or to pursue the same campaigns. . .
56. It was perfectly plain to us on the evidence we heard that the respondent wanted the applicant off the council. There was more than one reason for that. However, the ethnic origins of the applicant, and of
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Ian Jamieson, were not irrelevant to the respondent’s considerations. Considerations relating to the applicant’s ethnic origins were a significant cause of his non-selection by the respondent in December 1997.’
[43] These two paragraphs are saying, as clearly as you could wish, that a significant reason why Mr Jamieson was chosen instead of Mr Ahsan was that Mr Jamieson was white and Mr Ahsan was Pakistani. It did not say that Mr Jamieson was a statutory comparator because in some respects his circumstances were obviously different. But it regarded his selection as evidence that a person whose circumstances were the same as those of Mr Ahsan but who was not Pakistani would not have been rejected. That is discrimination on racial grounds.
[44] Buxton LJ, with the benefit of further reflection after the end of argument, was not satisfied that the findings were sufficient. After quoting extracts from the passages to which I have referred, he said that ‘on their face, these findings are more than sufficient to ground a finding of discrimination’. So they are. But, he said, the point was not so simple. The Labour Party’s wish not to have a candidate who would be seen to identify with the Pakistani community was a ‘legitimate objective . . . provided that the perception that the problem was predominantly a Pakistani one was itself legitimate’ (see [2005] ICR 1817 at [93]).
[45] What is the difference between a legitimate and an illegitimate perception that the problem is a Pakistani one? Buxton LJ said (at [94]) it would have been illegitimate if ‘the judgment that the problems were particularly associated with the Pakistani community had been influenced at least in part by the racial make-up of that community’. But he said that there was no finding to this effect.
[46] I must confess that I have great difficulty in understanding the distinction. How can one form a view that a problem is ‘associated with the Pakistani community’ but reach that view uninfluenced by ‘the racial make-up of that community’? Its racial make-up is what enables it to be described as a Pakistani community. The only meaning which I can ascribe to the distinction is that it would be acceptable for the Labour Party to discriminate against a Pakistani candidate if they held no racist views about Pakistanis but thought that it was better not to have a Pakistani candidate because the electorate would identify ‘the problem’ with the Pakistani community.
[47] If that is what the distinction means, it seems to me unacceptable. It is nothing more than the old plea that you have nothing against employing a black person but the customers would not like it. In essence it is a defence of justification based on political expediency. It may salvage the purity of the personal motives of the selection panel but it does not in my opinion satisfy the terms of the 1976 Act, which does not allow any justification for ‘direct’ discrimination. It simply says that one shall not discriminate on racial grounds.
[48] On the second complaint, the tribunal found the allegation of victimisation made out on the facts. On the third complaint, the allegations of racial discrimination and victimisation in relation to the shortlisting of candidates for the council in 2000 were again found proved. A separate allegation of discrimination in relation to election to the national executive committee was dismissed. All of these complaints turn upon findings of fact against which there is no appeal.
[49] I would therefore allow the appeal and restore the decision of the employment tribunal.
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LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[50] My Lords, I have had the privilege of considering the speech of my noble and learned friend, Lord Hoffmann, in draft. I agree with it and, for the reasons that he gives, I too would allow the appeal and restore the decision of the employment tribunal.
LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE.
[51] My Lords, I have had the privilege of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hoffmann. I am in full agreement with it, and for the reasons which Lord Hoffmann gives I would allow this appeal and restore the decision of the employment tribunal.
LORD CARSWELL.
[52] My Lords, I have had the privilege of reading the speech of my noble and learned friend, Lord Hoffmann, in draft. I agree with it and, for the reasons that he gives, I too would allow the appeal and restore the decision of the employment tribunal.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[53] My Lords, I have had the privilege of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hoffmann. I am in full agreement with it, and for the reasons which Lord Hoffmann gives I too would allow this appeal and restore the decision of the employment tribunal.
Appeal allowed.
James Wilson Barrister (NZ).
R (on the application of Wright and others) v Secretary of State for Health and another
[2008] 1 All ER 886
[2007] EWCA Civ 999
Categories: HEALTH; Other: HUMAN RIGHTS; Fair Trial
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): MAY, DYSON AND JACOB LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 19, 20 JULY, 24 OCTOBER 2007
Health – Health care – Care worker – Protection of vulnerable adults – Misconduct harming vulnerable adult or placing vulnerable adult at risk of harm – Right to fair trial – Duty of Secretary of State to keep list of individuals unsuitable to work with vulnerable adults – Duty of persons providing care for vulnerable adults to refer care workers to Secretary of State where provider had dismissed worker on grounds of misconduct which harmed vulnerable adult or placed vulnerable adult at risk of harm – Provision for care worker to make observations to Secretary of State – Provision for care worker to appeal to tribunal – Secretary of State including care worker in provisional list – Alleged misconduct occurring before coming into force of relevant statutory provisions – Whether Secretary of State having power to include care worker in provisional list – Whether breach of right to fair trial – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 6 – Care Standards Act 2000, ss 81, 82, 86.
Part VII of the Care Standards Act 2000 introduced a listing system (the POVA list) which listed care workers who were considered unsuitable to work with vulnerable adults. Section 82a of the 2000 Act provided in sub-s (1) that a person who provided care for vulnerable adults ‘shall refer a care worker to the Secretary of State’ if the conditions in sub-ss (2)(a) applied, which were that the provider had dismissed a care worker on the grounds of misconduct which harmed or placed at risk of harm a vulnerable adult (sub s(3) made analogous provision relating to resignation, retirement, transfer or suspension). The Secretary of State was to invite observations from the care worker and was to confirm the care worker’s inclusion in the list if she was of the opinion that the provider reasonably considered the care worker to be guilty of the misconduct and that the care worker was unsuitable to work with vulnerable adults. The concluding subsection, sub-s (10) provided: ‘Nothing in this section shall require a person who provides care for vulnerable adults to refer a worker to the Secretary of State in any case where the dismissal, resignation, retirement, transfer or suspension took place or, as the case may be, the opinion was formed before the commencement of this section.' Provisional inclusion in the list meant that an existing employer had to cease to employ the worker in a care position and restricted the employment which the care worker could lawfully obtain. Section 81(3)b empowered the Secretary of State to remove a person from the list at any time if satisfied that she or he should not have been included in it. After a person had been provisionally on the POVA list for nine months she or he could apply under s 86c of the 2000 Act to have the issue of his or her inclusion on the list determined by the Care Standards Tribunal. Such a person could also apply for judicial review of the Secretary of State’s decision. The
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claimants, who were people who had been placed on the POVA list provisionally, considered that provisional inclusion constituted a determination of their civil rights and obligations within art 6d of the Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) and that the denial of the right to be heard at that stage infringed their right to a fair hearing under art 6. They brought proceedings for judicial review and the judge made a declaration of incompatibility. He also held as a point of construction that the Secretary of State could include a person in the POVA list, following a reference from her or his employer, where the alleged misconduct of the person had preceded the coming into force of s 82 as although, read literally, s 82(1) created only a duty and s 82(10) negated the duty in relation to pre-commencement events, the words ‘nothing . . . shall require’ in sub-s (10) indicated that Parliament had regarded sub-s (1) as creating both a power and a duty and had intended to restrict the duty while leaving the power intact. The Secretary of State appealed against the declaration of incompatibility and, by a respondents’ notice, the claimants appealed on the construction point. The Secretary of State contended that art 6 was not applicable because a decision to include a care worker provisionally in the POVA list was an interim decision only, but that if art 6 were applicable it was established that decisions which determined civil rights and obligations could by taken at first instance by the executive, provided that those decisions were subject to a fair and public review by an independent and impartial tribunal which exercised full jurisdiction and that a care worker included provisionally in the list could apply to the Secretary of State to remove her or him from the list under s 81(3), could apply for judicial review of the Secretary of State’s decision to include her or him in the list, or the Secretary of State’s refusal to remove her or him from the list, and could appeal to the tribunal under s 86.
Held – (1) Section 82(10) of the 2000 Act did not preclude a person who provided care for vulnerable adults from referring a care worker to the Secretary of State under s 82(10) if the dismissal or other alteration of the care worker’s employment on the grounds of s 82(2)(a) misconduct had taken place, or the relevant employer’s opinion had been formed, before the commencement of s 82; and the judge had been correct to so construe the section. Accordingly, the appeal on the respondents’ notice would be dismissed (see [24]–[36], [116], [118], below).
(2) (Per Dyson and Jacob LJJ) Article 6 of the convention was engaged in all cases when a care worker was included provisionally on the POVA list and the denial of the right to make representations was a breach of the worker’s art 6 rights which was not made good by the fact that there was an opportunity (i) to
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seek to persuade the Secretary of State to remove the worker from the list under s 81(3); (ii) to seek judicial review of a decision to include the worker in the list or a refusal to remove the worker from the list; and (iii) to appeal to the tribunal under s 86. The decision to include a care worker in the list was potentially one of a drastic character which could cause irreversible prejudice to the worker. The denial of the right to make representations before being included in the POVA list was not a formal or technical breach; it was a total denial of the right to be heard. The serious detriment suffered by a care worker as a result of being included in the list could not be made good by an application for removal from the list, judicial review or an appeal to the tribunal. However, it did not follow from the engagement of art 6 in all cases that a worker should be given the right to make representations in all cases. The Parliamentary intention of protecting vulnerable adults from the risk of harm from care workers had to be respected. The 2000 Act could and should be read and given effect in a way which was compatible with art 6 so as to require the Secretary of State to give the care worker an opportunity to make representations before she or he was included in the POVA list unless to give such an opportunity would expose vulnerable adults to the risk of harm. It would be a matter for the Secretary of State to decide whether it was necessary to include a worker in the list without giving her or him an opportunity to make representations and the Secretary of State would have to take into account all the circumstances of the case but in particular the gravity of the allegations. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed to the extent of quashing the declaration of incompatibility (see [76], [77], [86]–[88], [106]–[109], [113], [114], [117], [118], below); Bryan v UK, [1995] ECHR 19178/91, Markass Car Hire Ltd v Cyprus App No 51591/99 (admissibility decision, 11 June 2002, unreported), Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] 1 All ER 731 considered.
Decision of Stanley Burnton J [2007] 1 All ER 825 reversed in part.
Notes
For inclusion in list on reference by persons who provide care for vulnerable adults, see 5(3) Halsbury’s Laws (2008 reissue) para 654, and for the right to a fair trial, see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 134.
Sections 80–89 of the Care Standards Act 2000 were repealed by the Safeguarding Vulnerable Groups Act 2006, s 63, Sch 9, Pt 1, para 9, Sch 10, as from a day to be appointed.
For the Care Standards Act 2000, ss 81, 82, 86, see 35(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2007 reissue) 511, 517.
Cases referred to in judgments
Antonelli v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1998] 1 All ER 997, [1998] QB 948, [1998] 2 WLR 826, CA.
APIS as v Slovakia App No 39754/98 (13 January 2000, unreported), ECt HR.
Bryan v UK (1996) 21 EHRR 342, [1995] ECHR 19178/91, ECt HR.
De Cubber v Belgium (1985) 7 EHRR 236, [1984] ECHR 9186/80, ECt HR.
Dogmoch v Germany App No 26315/03 (8 September 2006, unreported), ECt HR.
International Transport Roth GmbH v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 158, [2003] QB 728, [2002] 3 WLR 344.
Jaffredou v France App No 39843/98 (15 December 1998, unreported), ECt HR.
Kingsley v UK (2001) 33 EHRR 288, ECt HR and (2002) 35 EHRR 177, [2002] ECHR 35605/97, ECt HR (Grand Chamber).
Page 889 of [2008] 1 All ER 886
Lamprecht v Austria App No 71888/01 (25 March 2004, unreported), ECt HR.
Lancashire CC v Taylor (Secretary of State for the Environment, Food and Rural Affairs intervening) [2005] EWCA Civ 284, [2005] 2 EGLR 17, [2005] 1 WLR 2668.
Le Compte v Belgium (1981) 4 EHRR 1, ECt HR.
Markass Car Hire Ltd v Cyprus App No 51591/99 (admissibility decision, 11 June 2002, unreported), ECt HR.
Matthews v Ministry of Defence [2003] UKHL 4, [2003] 1 All ER 689, [2003] 1 AC 1163, [2003] 2 WLR 435.
Moura Carreira v Portugal App No 41237/98 (6 July 2000, unreported), ECt HR.
R (on the application of Alconbury Developments Ltd) v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions [2001] UKHL 23, [2001] 2 All ER 929, [2003] 2 AC 295, [2001] 2 WLR 1389.
R (on the application of Malik) v Waltham Forest Primary Care Trust [2006] EWHC 487 (Admin), [2006] 3 All ER 71, [2006] ICR 1111.
Rainys v Lithuania [2005] ECHR 70665/01, ECtHR.
Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] UKHL 5, [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430, [2003] 2 WLR 388.
S (children: care plan), Re, Re W (children: care plan) [2002] UKHL 10, [2002] 2 All ER 192, [2002] 2 AC 291, [2002] 2 WLR 720.
Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB [2006] EWCA Civ 1140, [2007] QB 415, [2006] 3 WLR 839.
Sidabras v Lithuania [2004] ECHR 55480/00, ECt HR.
Stefan v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 130, E Com HR.
Tsfayo v UK [2007] LGR 1, ECt HR.
Turek v Slovakia [2006] ECHR 57986/00, ECt HR.
X v UK (1981) 24 DR 57, E Com HR.
X v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 88, E Com HR.
Zlínsat Spol SRO v Bulgaria App No 57785/00 (15 June 2006, unreported), ECt HR.
Appeals
The Secretary of State for Health appealed with the permission of Stanley Burnton J from his decision on 16 November 2006 ([2006] EWHC 2886 (Admin), [2007] 1 All ER 825), in conjoined judicial review proceedings brought against the Secretary of State for Health and the Secretary of State for Education and Skills by the claimants, June Wright, Khemraj Jummun, Mary Quinn and Barbara Gambier, granting the claimants a declaration under s 4(2) of the Human Rights Act 1998 that s 82(4)(b) of the Care Standards Act 2000 was incompatible arts 6, 8 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act). By a respondents’ notice the claimants appealed with permission of the judge from that part of his decision concerning the construction of s 82 of the 2000 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of May LJ.
Philip Sales QC and Natalie Lieven QC (instructed by the Office of the Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Martin Spencer QC and Jamie Carpenter (instructed by Helen Caulfield, Legal Department, Royal College of Nursing) for the claimants.
Judgment was reserved.
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24 October 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
MAY LJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1] On 16 November 2006, Stanley Burnton J granted the claimants a declaration under s 4(2) of the Human Rights Act 1998 that s 82(4)(b) of the Care Standards Act 2000 was incompatible with the rights afforded by arts 6 and 8 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act). The Secretary of State appeals against this decision with permission of the judge who wrote, as I agree, that the issue is one of important principle. There was another issue of statutory construction which the judge decided in favour of the Secretary of State. The claimants appeal against this decision, again with the judge’s permission. The judge’s judgment is at [2006] EWHC 2886 (Admin), [2007] 1 All ER 825, where extended detail, which I shall not need to repeat, may be found.
THE 2000 ACT
[2] Part VII of the 2000 Act introduced for the protection of vulnerable adults the essentials of a listing system which already existed for children under the Protection of Children Act 1999. Part VII of the 2000 Act also made amendments to the 1999 Act.
[3] The list for the protection of vulnerable adults is referred to as ‘the POVA list’. The list provided for by the 1999 Act is referred to as ‘the POCA list’. The central structure of the system under each of the statutory schemes is that care workers or individuals who are included in the lists are prevented from working as carers of vulnerable adults or in a child care position respectively. There is an obvious and unchallenged public interest in having an appropriate system for protecting vulnerable adults and children from the risk of harm from unsuitable carers. It is also necessary that any scheme takes a proportionate account of the rights of those who have worked and wish to continue to work as carers.
[4] There is extended citation from or summary of ss 80–89 of the 2000 Act in paras [6]–[13] of the judge’s judgment. In shorter summary, the scheme is as follows.
[5] The Secretary of State has to keep a list of individuals who are considered unsuitable to work with vulnerable adults. ‘Vulnerable adult’ and ‘care worker’ are defined in s 80(6) and (2) respectively. Parts of these subsections are not in force so that the definitions are currently limited to those who are provided with personal care in a care home, or in their own home under arrangements with a domiciliary care agency, or under an agreement providing support, care or accommodation; and those whose employment brings them into regular contact with such vulnerable adults. Those parts not in force would extend the definitions to include care in an independent hospital, clinic or medical agency or the National Health Service. This is relevant because it is agreed that the question of human rights compatibility arises in relation to the statutory provisions in force; and the restrictions on employment deriving from a person’s inclusion in the list are less extensive than they would be if s 80(2) and (6) were fully in force (see s 89(1), (2) and (5) and the definition of ‘care position’ in s 80(3)). In short, an individual who is included in the list is not currently prevented by statute from being employed in a care position by, for example, the National Health Service or an independent hospital.
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[6] By s 82(1) persons who provide care for vulnerable adults have a duty to refer a care worker to the Secretary of State if any of the conditions in sub-ss (2) or (3) are fulfilled. These subsections provide as follows:
‘(2) The conditions referred to in subsection (1)(a) are—(a) that the provider has dismissed the worker on the grounds of misconduct (whether or not in the course of his employment) which harmed or placed at risk of harm a vulnerable adult; (b) that the worker has resigned, retired or been made redundant in circumstances such that the provider would have dismissed him, or would have considered dismissing him, on such grounds if he had not resigned, retired or been made redundant; (c) that the provider has, on such grounds, transferred the worker to a position which is not a care position; (d) that the provider has, on such grounds, suspended the worker or provisionally transferred him to a position which is not a care position but has not yet decided whether to dismiss him or to confirm the transfer.
(3) The condition referred to in subsection (1)(b) is that—(a) in circumstances not falling within subsection (2), the provider has dismissed the worker, he has resigned or retired or the provider has transferred him to a position which is not a care position; (b) information not available to the provider at the time of the dismissal, resignation, retirement or transfer has since become available; and (c) the provider has formed the opinion that, if that information had been available at that time and if (where applicable) the worker had not resigned or retired, the provider would have dismissed him, or would have considered dismissing him, on such grounds as are mentioned in subsection (2)(a).’
[7] Thus a reference to the Secretary of State under s 82(2) has to be made by the employer of a care worker whose employment has terminated or altered on grounds of misconduct which harmed or placed at risk of harm a vulnerable adult. I shall refer to this as ‘s 82(2)(a) misconduct’. This is not, as Mr Spencer QC for the respondent claimants was inclined to suggest, trivial. If a person caring for vulnerable adults has perpetrated such misconduct, appropriate steps should obviously be taken to protect other vulnerable adults from similar misconduct. Of course allegations of misconduct may be made which are unfounded; and there may be questions in individual cases whether alleged conduct characterised as misconduct was serious enough to have harmed a vulnerable adult or placed him or her at risk of harm. But the care worker’s employment is terminated or altered on such grounds before they are referred to the Secretary of State. The reference and subsequent listing, if it occurs, does not itself have this effect if the employment was current immediately before the reference to the Secretary of State was made. The effect of a reference and listing under this subsection in these circumstances is to restrict the individual’s ability to obtain future employment. It is also, I think, generally relevant to the application of art 6 of the convention in particular that the care worker has or had rights against their employer under employment legislation or their employment contract. The court is, of course, concerned in addressing art 6 in the present case with civil rights and obligations which the 2000 Act may determine, to which a care worker’s rights against their employer may not be directly relevant. But what is a fair hearing within a reasonable time by an independent and impartial tribunal established by law may be tempered by the context in which the determination of civil rights and obligations comes to be made.
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[8] A reference under s 82(3) is different. The subsection essentially applies to past employment which came to an end for reasons or on grounds which did not relate to s 82(2)(a) misconduct. But the employer subsequently receives information from which he forms the opinion that, if the information had been available at the time, he would have dismissed or considered dismissing the care worker on grounds of s 82(2)(a) misconduct. Here the necessity for a scheme to protect vulnerable adults remains evident, but the need for proportionate safeguards for the care workers against references which turn out to be unfounded may be rather greater. The employer did not dismiss the care worker for s 82(2)(a) misconduct. The care worker retains no relevant employment rights. As will appear, if the care worker is included provisionally on the list, they will lose their present employment if it is in a care position but the misconduct will not have related to their present employment. The information subsequently becoming available from the former employer may be unreliable, as for instance from an elderly or infirm adult of deteriorating mind, or it may even be malicious. The former employer has not relevantly decided to dismiss the care worker or alter their employment. He only has to form an opinion about what he might have done.
[9] I pause to note that, during the hearing of this appeal, I at one time thought that a possible view might be that provisional listing following a reference under s 82(2) might be compatible with the 1998 Act, but that provisional listing under s 82(3) might not be compatible. I note also that I found persuasive the submission of Mr Sales QC, for the Secretary of State, that a declaration of incompatibility should identify the incompatibility in sufficient detail to enable the Secretary of State to see what amending legislation would be necessary to achieve compatibility. The declaration made by the judge in the present case did not do so.
[10] Section 82(4) requires the Secretary of State first to make a judgment from the information submitted with the reference whether it may be appropriate for the worker to be included on the POVA list. If the judgment is that it may be appropriate, the Secretary of State has to include the worker provisionally on the list pending a determination of the reference in accordance with s 82(5)–(7). The effect of inclusion on the list is that an employer who provides care for vulnerable adults who discovers that an individual employed by him in a care position is included in the list has to cease to employ him in a care position (s 89(2)). A person who provides care for vulnerable adults who proposes to offer an individual employment in a care position has to find out whether the individual is included in the POVA list and shall not offer him such employment if he is (s 89(1)). These provisions apply to individuals who are included in the list provisionally as well as if their inclusion in the list is confirmed. An individual who is included in the list otherwise than provisionally is guilty of an offence if he knowingly works in a care position or applies for, offers to do, accepts or does any such work (s 89(5)). It is anomalous, I think, that s 89(5) does not apply to those who know that they are provisionally included in the list, but nothing turns on the anomaly in this case.
[11] Inclusion in the list under s 82(4)(b) is the crux of the claimants’ case that the legislation is, as the judge found, incompatible with the 1998 Act. Provisional inclusion on the list has immediate consequences under s 89 of requiring an existing employer to cease to employ the worker in a care position and of restricting the employment which the care worker may lawfully obtain. It is thus, say the claimants, a determination of their civil rights and obligations within
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art 6 of the convention. But they have no right to be heard at this stage before that determination takes effect, and they are not in practice given any such right. This is in stark contrast with the rights of other health professionals in broadly similar circumstances for whom the relevant legislation is summarised in the appendix of the judge’s judgment.
[12] The evidence in the present case is that the Secretary of State habitually takes several months between receiving a reference under s 82(1) and making the decision required by s 82(4). When the legislation first came into operation, there were numerous references which must have accounted for some of the time. The Secretary of State also took steps to obtain further information where this was thought to be needed. A literal reading of s 82(4) could suggest that gathering further information at this stage might be statutorily unnecessary (‘. . . from the information submitted with the reference . . .’) but it is not suggested that doing this is beyond the Secretary of State’s competence. Indeed the evidence shows that a substantial number of cases referred to the Secretary of State under s 82(1) do not result in provisional listing. What is said is that the time in fact taken shows that an urgency to protect vulnerable adults is not in practice apparent and cannot properly be advanced as a reason for not giving the care worker an opportunity to be heard.
[13] The procedure, if it results in provisional inclusion in the POVA list, has some similarity with an application without notice to a judge for an interim prohibitory injunction. Dissimilarities include that the person who decides is in a sense an interested party, not an impartial tribunal established by law; that the provisional listing does not simply preserve the existing position, as when frozen money remains where it is, but becomes available again if the injunction is lifted; and that there is no undertaking as to damages.
[14] Mr Sales accepts that a decision by the Secretary of State to include a care worker provisionally on the POVA list would not be procedurally compliant with art 6 of the convention, if that decision is to be taken alone and if it is a decision of which, taken alone, art 6 compliance is required. He does not, however, accept either of the premises. He further and importantly says that, although the decision alone would not comply procedurally, s 81(3), which he says the judge overlooked, enables a care worker included provisionally on the list to apply to the Secretary of State for his name to be removed from the list. The subsection enables the Secretary of State to do this ‘at any time’ if he is satisfied that the individual should not have been included in the list. An art 6 entitlement to a fair and public hearing within a reasonable time by an independent and impartial tribunal established by law is satisfied, says Mr Sales, by the availability of judicial review of a decision by the Secretary of State under s 81(3) not to remove the individual from the list.
[15] Mr Sales would also submit that judicial review is available of a decision under s 82(4)(b) to include the worker in the POVA list in the first place. Mr Spencer says that this is illusory. The listing under s 82(4)(b) is provisional pending the determination of the reference in accordance with s 82(5)–(7). The procedure under those subsections is a full and proper administrative consideration under which the Secretary of State invites observations from the worker on the information submitted with the reference, and from the provider of the information submitted. The Secretary of State considers this material and any other material which he considers relevant. The Secretary of State then has to confirm the worker’s inclusion in the list, if she is of the opinion that the provider reasonably considered the worker to have been guilty of s 82(2)(a)
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misconduct, and that the worker is unsuitable to work with vulnerable adults. Otherwise the Secretary of State has to remove the worker from the list. This is a proper administrative procedure where both sides are heard. The determinative opinion is that of the Secretary of State that the worker is unsuitable to work with vulnerable adults—this in contrast with s 82(4), where there is provisional listing if it appears that it may be appropriate for the worker to be included in the list. Mr Spencer is correct that at the provisional stage the threshold is not as high as at the later stage. He submits that for this reason, and since provisional listing is followed by and does not comprise full consideration in which both parties are heard, judicial review of a decision under s 82(4)(b) may be discarded as impractical. Further, a claim for judicial review of a decision under s 82(4)(b) by a worker who had not adopted the alternative remedy of applying to the Secretary of State under s 81(3) to remove him from the list would be likely to fail for that reason.
[16] A claim for judicial review of a decision by the Secretary of State under s 81(3) not to remove an individual from the list could, however, provide an art 6 compliant remedy, but would only be likely to succeed, I think, in cases where the initial reference to the Secretary of State, or possibly the decision under s 82(4)(b), were obviously and demonstrably mistaken. Obviously mistaken identity would be a possible example and there could be others. A claim for judicial review of a s 81(3) refusal would not be likely to succeed in practice, if the claim depended on anything like a contested determination of the full merits of the reference. In such proceedings, the court would be likely to hold that the proper way for the Secretary of State to determine an arguable case was by the procedure in s 82(5)–(7) designed for that very purpose.
[17] So the crux of the claimants’ case is that s 82(4)(b) is not human rights compliant because the procedure does not give a care worker against whom there is an arguable case of s 82(2)(a) misconduct a right to make representations before they are included provisionally in the POVA list; and that provisional inclusion in the list terminates their existing employment without recourse if it is employment in a care position, and in any event prevents them from obtaining other employment in a care position. Although other employment may be open to such care workers, many of them may only in truth be suited to the very work from which they are excluded.
[18] The crux of the Secretary of State’s case is that the opportunity to bring judicial review proceedings of a s 81(3) refusal is sufficient to make the legislative procedure as a whole art 6 compliant; that the nature of the social problem which the legislation addresses requires a fair and proportionate balance between the rights and needs of vulnerable adults and the rights of care workers; that a fair final decision cannot be made immediately and without proper investigation; that it is a fair and proportionate legislative decision that vulnerable adults should not be exposed to the risk of harm by care workers against whom there is an arguable case of s 82(2)(a) misconduct while the matter is properly investigated and determined; and that the procedural unfairness complained of is on analysis a matter of legislative substance and therefore not amenable to an art 6 challenge.
[19] An individual who is included in the list may appeal to the tribunal established under s 9 of the 1999 Act against a decision to include him in the list or, with leave of the tribunal, against any decision of the Secretary of State not to remove his name from the list under s 81(3). The tribunal can hear evidence and operates under procedural rules such that its procedure is art 6 compliant. The tribunal has to direct the removal of the appellant from the list, if it is not satisfied
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either that the appellant was guilty of s 82(2)(a) misconduct or that he is unsuitable to work with vulnerable adults (s 86(3)), the first of these being more positively expressed than the otherwise comparable provision in s 82(7)(a). These provisions for appeal do not, however, apply to an individual who is included in the list provisionally. The effect of s 86(2) is that an individual who is included in the list provisionally has no right of appeal to the tribunal until he has been provisionally included for more than nine months. After the nine months, he may, with the leave of the tribunal, have the issue of his inclusion in the list determined by the tribunal instead of the Secretary of State, unless his alleged misconduct is the subject of civil or criminal proceedings. In that event, an application for leave may not be made before the end of six months following the determination of the proceedings. Leaving civil or criminal proceedings aside, an individual provisionally included in the list has to wait for up to nine months for the Secretary of State to make (or fail to make) a determination under s 82(5)–(7) before being able to apply to the tribunal. This is subject to the possibility of an application under s 81(3) and judicial review of that decision or, the conceivable, but scarcely viable, possibility of applying within the nine months for judicial review of the Secretary of State’s failure to make a decision under s 82(6). The evidence is that in practice the Secretary of State takes most of the nine-month period in most cases.
THE CLAIMANTS
[20] The claimants, who have the support of the Royal College of Nursing, come before the court as representative of themselves and others who claim that provisional inclusion on the POVA list under s 82(4)(b) of the 2000 Act is disproportionately unfair so as to infringe their rights under arts 6 and 8 of the convention. The case is mounted as a general challenge to the structure of this part of the statute inviting a declaration of incompatibility, rather than a claim that the rights of an individual claimant are infringed.
[21] The judge briefly described the cases of each claimant as follows ([2007] 1 All ER 825 at [2]):
‘Each of the claimants was placed on the POVA list provisionally. Mrs Wright was included in the list on the basis of alleged misconduct that pre-dated the coming into force of the statutory provisions. She has appealed against her inclusion in the list to the Care Standards Tribunal, which has stayed her appeal pending the outcome of these proceedings. Mr Jummun was placed on the list provisionally but the Secretary of State decided not to confirm his listing. Mary Quinn and Barbara Gambier were placed on the list provisionally; following representations on their behalf, the Secretary of State decided not to confirm their listing.’
[22] The judge summarised the times taken by the Secretary of State to deal with the claimants’ references as follows (at [21]):
‘In the case of June Wright, the event which fulfilled the qualifying event (ie the event alleged to have fulfilled a condition specified in s 82(2) or (3)) occurred at the latest in May 2003. The referral was made on 10 October 2004. She was provisionally listed on 4 February 2005, and her listing confirmed on 22 November 2005, over nine months later. In the case of Khemraj Jummun, the qualifying event was on 2 February 2003; the
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referral was on 11 May 2005, over two years later; he was provisionally listed on 23 November 2005, over six months after referral; and his name was removed from the list on 18 August 2006. In the case of Mary Quinn, the qualifying event was on 25 June 2005; the referral was made on about 30 June 2005; she was provisionally listed on 13 December 2005 (ie nearly six months after the referral); and on 4 August 2006 she was informed that her name had not been confirmed on the list. The date of Barbara Gambier’s qualifying event is not known. She was referred on about 30 June 2005; she was provisionally listed on 30 November 2005, and the Secretary of State informed her too on 4 August 2006 that her name had not been confirmed on the list.’
These times and other matters are to be seen in the context of the volume of actual and potential references, which the judge described (at [19]) as follows:
‘There are about nine hundred thousand care workers within the scope of s 80(2) in so far as it is in force. Referrals are running at the rate of about two hundred a month. Between the commencement of this Part of the 2000 Act in July 2004 and 30 September 2006, 5,224 referrals were made to the Secretary of State. One thousand five hundred and fifty two persons were provisionally listed in the POVA list; 623 of those persons were removed from the list by the Secretary of State; the listings of 498 persons were confirmed. As at 30 September 2006 the decision of the Secretary of State in the remaining 431 cases was pending. There are about five hundred persons whose listing has been confirmed; there are about two thousand provisional listings. There have been five hearings of the tribunal under Pt VII. There are 32 cases pending before the tribunal. All of these are appeals against confirmed listings; none is an application in respect of a provisional listing.’
[23] The claimants also relied on the facts of the case of Penelope Smith as illustrating what the practical effects of the system established by the 2000 Act could be. The judge described her case (at [18]) as follows:
‘[Penelope Smith] qualified as a psychiatric nurse in 1987. Since 1995 she has specialised in the care of the elderly. In January 2001 she was appointed head of a unit in a care home. In 2001 a project for which she was responsible won the Queen’s Nursing Institute and Alzheimer Society’s award for “excellence and innovation in dementia care”. In October 2004, the home where she worked was sold to Barchester Healthcare Homes Ltd. On 23 May 2005, she was suspended from her job. She had never previously been the subject of disciplinary proceedings or of a grievance. Unknown to her, her employer referred her to the Secretary of State for possible inclusion in the POVA list. The first she knew of this was when she received a letter dated 23 February 2006, informing her that she had been provisionally included in the POVA list and the POCA list. In June 2006 she commenced judicial review proceedings to challenge her listing. In the same month an employment tribunal found that she had been unfairly dismissed, and in July 2006 she was removed from the lists. However, she had been on the list for some five months, during which she was unable to work as a nurse in the
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area in which she had specialised; she was unable to maintain her mortgage payments and lost her home.’
THE RETROSPECTIVITY ISSUE
[24] I take this issue first, because I agree with the judge that it has a general relevance to the other and, as I see it, main issue in this appeal. It is a straight and fairly short issue of statutory construction which the judge decided in favour of the appellant for the reasons he gave in paras [22]–[34] of his judgment. By respondents’ notice, the respondents appeal against this decision with the judge’s permission. Essentially, the respondents restate in this court the submissions which they made to the judge. The judge found it a most difficult question. However, I am clear that his conclusion was correct for the reasons which he gave. It is not, I think, necessary to rehearse again other than in summary all the material covered by the judge and the reasons he gave.
[25] The question of construction is whether s 82(10) of the 2000 Act precludes a person who provides care for vulnerable adults from referring a care worker to the Secretary of State under s 82(10) if the dismissal or other alteration of the care worker’s employment on the grounds of s 82(2)(a) misconduct took place, or the relevant employer’s opinion was formed, before the commencement of s 82. If it does, the Secretary of State could not include that care worker on the POVA list for that reason. The Secretary of State’s duty under s 82(4) to include care workers on the list has to derive from the information submitted with a reference under sub-s (1). If there can be no reference for dismissal etc before the commencement of the section, there can be no inclusion in the list.
[26] Section 81(2) provides that an individual shall not be included in the POVA list except in accordance with Pt VII of the 2000 Act. The respondents’ submission is simply that s 82(1) imposes a duty to refer (‘. . . shall refer . . .’, and see the heading ‘duty to refer’). It does not also provide a power to refer, short of a duty. Section 82(10) precludes a duty to refer (‘Nothing in this section shall require a person who provides care for vulnerable adults to refer . . .’) where the dismissal etc occurred before the commencement of the section. Section 82(10) therefore restricts a s 82(1) reference to exclude cases where the dismissal etc occurred before the commencement of the section. The judge considered that on a literal reading of s 82(1), (4) and (10), the respondents’ construction would be correct. But he was not persuaded to adopt the literal reading.
[27] In my view, the judge was correct to reject the literal reading. Section 82(1) should be construed as embracing a power as well as a duty, and s 82(10) as restricting the duty, but not the power. The literal construction verges on the absurd. The plain purpose of this part of the statute would be irrationally truncated if the protection of vulnerable adults by means of the POVA list did not extend to dismissals etc on the grounds of s 82(2)(a) misconduct before the commencement of the section. Vulnerable adults are just as vulnerable to care workers who may have perpetrated s 82(2)(a) misconduct just before the commencement of the section as to those who may have perpetrated it after its commencement. The respondents’ objection that this could take matters unfairly back into the distant past is in part met by the statutory test in s 82(7)(b) in particular and the antecedent requirement in s 82(4) for the Secretary of State to form a judgment that it may be appropriate for the worker to be included in the POVA list. These requirements may not be fulfilled for long past misconduct
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where, for instance, the worker’s conduct towards vulnerable adults may have been entirely satisfactory for a long intervening period.
[28] I agree with the judge that s 82(10) is placed in the section and expressed in terms that are appropriate to exclude part only of the pre-commencement subject matter. I am not persuaded that the respondents’ case receives much support from a presumption that statutes will not have adverse retrospective effect. The respondents accept that s 82(2) and, I think, s 82(3) are not expressed to have temporal limitation. This is a clear indication that dismissal etc for pre-commencement misconduct may be referred. The natural place for the limitation for which the respondents contend would be in those subsections. Mr Sales is also correct that the material which the Secretary of State may consider is not limited in time.
[29] I see the force of Mr Sales’s submission that this is not in any event legislating to alter adversely matters in the past, but legislating to provide for the future consequences of past events. I note, but do not see great force in, the respondents’ submission that care workers who were unfairly dismissed in the past may have refrained from taking proceedings in an employment tribunal when they may not have so refrained if they had known that their inclusion on a future POVA list and its consequences would result. Those who may have been dismissed etc for s 82(2)(a) misconduct would have that blot on their employment record anyway, and those who were unfairly dismissed because they did not perpetrate such misconduct would be likely to wish to establish the unfairness at the time.
[30] The judge referred (see [2007] 1 All ER 825 at [26]) to the decision of this court in Antonelli v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [1998] 1 All ER 997, [1998] QB 948 and quoted at some length from Beldam LJ’s judgment ([1998] 1 All ER 997 at 1006–1007, [1998] QB 948 at 958–959). This passage provides general support for the Secretary of State’s description of the statutory purpose of the 2000 Act in the present case in the context of a submission about retrospectivity. The relevant issue in Antonelli’s case was whether the expression ‘has been convicted’ in s 3(1)(a)(i) of the Estate Agents Act 1979 should be construed as embracing conviction before the inception of the Act. The court, which reviewed authorities about retrospectivity, upheld a decision that it should be so construed. The statutory provisions to be construed did not closely resemble those in the present case, but the decision is generally helpful in the context of statutory purpose.
[31] The Secretary of State’s submission that the relevant parts of the 2000 Act have such close statutory affinity with the 1999 Act that s 82(10) of the 2000 Act should be construed to have the same ambit as the materially identical s 2(10) of the 1999 Act seems to me to be most persuasive. It is true that s 2(1) of the 1999 Act gives a power to ‘any other organisation’, but a child care organisation is, on the literal wording of the subsection only under a duty to refer, and s 2(10), read literally, precludes that duty for dismissals etc before the commencement of the section. But s 2(1) of the 1999 Act plainly embraces a power within the duty placed on child care organisations, as Mr Spencer for practical purposes accepted. His written submission that the power is to be found in an implicit extension of the words ‘any other organisation’ to include a child care organisation—so that the power would derive from words which are not in s 82(1) of the 2000 Act—ignores the word ‘other’ and is, in my view, untenable.
[32] Mr Spencer refers to the Consultancy Service Index, which had preceded the inception of the 1999 Act and for which there was no preceding equivalent list
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or index for the 2000 Act, as a reason why the equivalent provisions of the two statutes should be construed differently. Those included in the Consultancy Service Index were carried forward to be considered for inclusion in the POCA list by s 3 of the 1999 Act. This submission is an extension of Mr Spencer’s submission that the 2000 Act should not be given retrospective effect unless it clearly does so. I do not find this persuasive because there seems to me to be little logical connection between precluding a pre-commencement duty to refer, but retaining the power, in the 1999 Act and the pre-existence of the Consultancy Service Index. There may have been a pre-commencement reference for the purposes of the Consultancy Service Index, but that seems to me to be at most neutral on the question whether, after the inception of the 1999 Act, a child care organisation should or should not have a power to refer for pre-commencement misconduct.
[33] There is some force in Mr Sales’s additional references to ss 85, 92, 93 and 96 of the 2000 Act as supporting the judge’s construction.
[34] The judge was puzzled by s 84(3) of the 2000 Act, which Mr Spencer relies on as supporting the respondents’ construction of s 82(1) and (10). Section 84 gives the registration authority a discretionary power to refer a care worker to the Secretary of State, if the authority in the exercise of its inspecting functions obtains evidence that a worker has been guilty of s 82(2)(a) misconduct but the worker has not been referred under ss 82 or 83 in respect of the misconduct. Section 84(3) confines the relevant misconduct to misconduct which occurred after the commencement of the section. I do not see that this has much bearing on the construction of s 82(1) and (10). Section 84 confines a discretionary power, not a duty. Mr Spencer submits that this shows that the draftsman referred to a power when that was intended. The power is obviously supplementary to the powers and duties in ss 82 and 83, and it would be understandable if Parliament thought that the registration authority, which assumed responsibility for regulation and inspection from numerous health and local authorities in April 2002, should concentrate on misconduct after the commencement of the section, so as not to enlarge unduly the ambit of its inspections or investigations. By contrast, a person who provides care for vulnerable adults would more readily know if a past or present worker had been guilty of s 82(2)(a) misconduct.
[35] Although there are oddities in these parts of Pt VII of the 2000 Act, and although I agree with the judge that the drafting transposition of s 2(10) of the 1999 Act to become s 82(10) of the 2000 Act was not done with a keen eye to the precise terms of s 82(1), I do not in the end consider that the two subsections are truly ambiguous, other than to an ardent literalist. Recourse to presumptions, Hansard or ministerial guidance is not therefore, in my view, helpful or necessary.
[36] I would dismiss the appeal on the respondents’ notice, noting that the judge’s correct construction to some general extent bolsters the respondents’ case on the human rights issue.
THE HUMAN RIGHTS ISSUE
[37] As I have said, the crux of the claimants’ human rights case is that provisional inclusion in the POVA list under s 82(4)(b) of the 2000 Act is procedurally unfair because the care worker has no right under the statute, or opportunity in practice, to be heard before the provisional listing occurs; and because provisional listing results under s 89 in loss of existing employment if it is in a care position and an embargo on obtaining any other employment in a care position as defined. Provisional listing accordingly embraces a determination of
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the care worker’s civil rights and obligations to which art 6 of the convention is applicable. Article 6 is infringed because the worker does not get any hearing, let alone a fair and public one within a reasonable time. Possibilities of judicial review are not sufficient to achieve compliance with art 6. Article 8 is applicable because loss of employment and reputation consequent on provisional listing so interferes with the worker’s private and personal life as to come within art 8(1). This interference is not necessary and proportionate within art 8(2) for the same reasons that the procedure is unnecessary, unfair and disproportionate for the purposes of art 6. There was also a case made under art 1 of the First Protocol of the convention, which the judge did not decide for the reasons given in paras [68] and [69] of his judgment. This case was not pursued before this court.
THE JUDGE’S JUDGMENT
[38] The judge upheld the claimants’ submissions on each of arts 6 and 8. The respondents submit that he was right to do so for the reasons he gave.
[39] As to art 6, the judge accepted that provisional listing is temporary and that interim or provisional measures which preserve the status quo do not generally attract the requirements of art 6, because they do not involve a determination of civil rights and obligations. But provisional listing in this statute has a clear and decisive impact on the contract of employment of the care worker in a care position and on the worker’s ability to obtain employment in a care position. Article 6 therefore applies. The judge considered the cases before him to be analogous with Zlínsat Spol SRO v Bulgaria App No 57785/00 (15 June 2006, unreported). He did not consider that the procedure in the 2000 Act or the possibility of judicial review made the procedure compliant with art 6. He said ([2007] 1 All ER 825 at [46]):
‘The care worker who is listed provisionally is unable to make any application to set aside the termination of his employment. So far as the tribunal is concerned, he must wait for nine months before he can even apply for leave to make an application. Even if an application for judicial review were otherwise a sufficient remedy, all the Administrative Court could do is to quash the decision made provisionally to list the care worker. It would then be for the former employer to decide whether to re-engage the care worker. I see no means of compelling the employer to do so, and Ms Lieven did not suggest that there are. The care worker’s employment may be terminated, on the ground of his suspected (but at this stage unproven) misconduct without any opportunity of his being heard. In my judgment, this result brings these cases within the principle enunciated in Zlínsat Spol SRO v Bulgaria, and necessarily involves an infringement of the care worker’s rights under art 6.’
[40] The judge did not consider that judicial review was an adequate remedy satisfying art 6. The requirement for provisional listing in s 82(4) that ‘it may be appropriate for the worker to be included in the list’ was scarcely amenable to judicial review other than on grounds of blatant mistake. ‘What the listed person cannot do is obtain a speedy determination of the underlying facts: did he commit the misconduct alleged?’ (see [2007] 1 All ER 825 at [48]).
[41] The judge did not consider that the fairness of the statutory provision could render the scheme compatible, but he dealt with fairness, justification and proportionality at this stage. He concluded that the scheme for provisional listing
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was unfair and a disproportionate means of addressing the problem. First, he saw no reason for cases which were not urgent to be decided without the care worker being heard, even though in many cases the worker may be unable to demonstrate that provisional listing is inappropriate. Second, there was, he said, no good reason for not adopting a procedure on the lines of that adopted by Parliament for all other health care professionals, the legislation for which he summarised in his appendix. He considered for instance that a modified version of the scheme for nurses could have been adopted. He accepted however that the need for a procedure for provisional action taking effect before the facts had been fully investigated was obvious and that in some cases action would be required as a matter or urgency. He had seen no assessment whether a provisional suspension scheme, such as those in the appendix, would be adequate. Third, the 2000 Act precludes access to the tribunal for an inflexible nine months, irrespective of the circumstances of the case. This could not, for every care worker, constitute a fair and public hearing within a reasonable time.
[42] The judge considered that art 8 of the convention applied because provisional listing directly affected the individuals’ ability to earn a living and to provide for themselves and their families; because it affected their standing in their profession and therefore their personal and professional relationships; and because it affected their relationships with vulnerable adults for whom they had cared, and to whom they might return if the provisional listing was not confirmed. He declined to adopt a narrow approach to art 8 and found support for his conclusion in Turek v Slovakia [2006] ECHR 57986/00 following Sidabras v Lithuania [2004] ECHR 55480/00 and Rainys v Lithuania [2005] ECHR 70665/01. Having concluded that art 8 applied, the judge held shortly that the measures were not justified under art 8(2) for the same reasons as he had concluded under art 6 that the procedure was unfair and disproportionate.
DISCUSSION
[43] A human rights challenge such as this tends to over-emphasise the rights of the claimants and to under-emphasise the often balancing rights of other parties, in this case vulnerable adults. It is accepted that vulnerable adults need and are entitled to proper protection from care workers who have been guilty of s 82(2)(a) misconduct. Such proper protection in accordance with law will be necessary in a democratic society for the protection of health or morals or for the protection of the rights and freedom of others and, perhaps, for the prevention of crime under art 8. It is also accepted that what is fair and proportionate procedurally under art 6 may have an eye to a precautionary approach. Specifically, Parliament has provided that, if it appears after preliminary consideration that it may be appropriate for the worker to be included in the POVA list, he should be so included provisionally as a precaution pending determination of the reference. This does not of course mean that everyone referred is provisionally included, and in fact many are not. It does not seem to me that the adoption by Parliament of a precautionary approach of this kind is either objectionable or beyond a proper parliamentary margin of discretion. A rather stronger objection may be, not to a precautionary approach which protects vulnerable adults, but to some of the details of the specific s 89 consequences, which may require termination of the care worker’s present employment, rather than, as the judge thought preferable, its suspension. The judge was concerned that the rationale for this had not been explored. But my impression is that it would be much more difficult to impose by statute a
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suspension of employment on a private care provider than on (say) nurses or doctors employed in the National Health Service.
[44] This is a case mainly about procedure. Discussion of it sits more comfortably in art 6 and, although art 8 may arguably apply, incompatibility with art 8 will scarcely be established, if the case under art 6 fails. If art 6 does not apply because there is no determination of civil rights and obligations or because in art 6 terms the procedure is fair and proportionate, this goes most of the way to showing art 8 will not be infringed because the measure will be justified under art 8(2). This is the obverse of the judge’s conclusion that art 8 was infringed.
[45] The ambit of the court’s consideration is quite narrow. It is confined to the provisional listing stage, and to the question whether there should be an opportunity to be heard before the individual referred is included provisionally on the POVA list. The claimants do not say that, if the Secretary of State reaches the opinion set out in s 82(7) after full consideration under s 82(5) and (6), the consequences under s 89, subject to an appeal to the tribunal, would offend their rights under the convention. Their case is limited to provisional listing without the right to be heard.
[46] A full investigation with each party being properly heard and appropriate information gathered will inevitably take some time. In this context, the nine months in s 86(2) does not seem to me to be unduly long, nor is it intrinsically inappropriate to postpone appeals to the tribunal until the Secretary of State has made a full decision. The s 82(4) stage does not envisage full consideration, but, as the parties agree (see [2007] 1 All ER 825 at [15]), a judgment that there is a real prospect that, after the steps required by s 82(5) have been taken, the Secretary of State will confirm the worker’s name on the list. There has to be a properly arguable case for inclusion in the list. In this context, there is a tension between para [48] of the judge’s judgment, where he emphasised in the context of possible judicial review that ‘[w]hat the listed person cannot do is to obtain a speedy judicial determination of the underlying facts; did he commit the misconduct alleged?’, and para [55], where he said that ‘the need for a procedure for provisional action, taking effect before the facts have been fully investigated and determined, is obvious’.
[47] I do not think on consideration that delay, whether between the reference and the provisional listing or if most of the nine-month period passes before the Secretary of State makes the decision under s 82(6), can contribute to a decision that the structure of the statute is incompatible with the convention, regrettable though delay may be in an individual case. Mr Spencer on reflection agreed with this, although he did rely on the fact of delay between reference and provisional listing as indicating that extreme urgency to protect vulnerable adults was not in practice regarded as paramount. Delay before provisional listing does not derive from the structure of the statute. The nine-month period occurs after the events which are relied on as constituting infringement of the claimants’ rights. The Secretary of State does not rely on the eventual possibility of an appeal to the tribunal as constituting a fair and public hearing within a reasonable time by an independent and impartial tribunal for the purposes of the antecedent decision to include the worker on the provisional list, if that decision comprises a determination of civil rights and obligations within art 6.
GROUNDS OF APPEAL
[48] The Secretary of State’s grounds of appeal against the judge’s decision are that the judge was wrong not to hold that:
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(1) art 6 is not applicable because a decision to include a care worker provisionally in the POVA list is an interim decision only, which does not amount to a determination of his civil rights and obligations;
(2) if art 6 is applicable, judicial review is a sufficient remedy to make the procedure compliant;
(3) the limitations on judicial review in practice derive from the substantive legal test in s 82(4), rather than from any procedural provision, and so do not fall within the scope of art 6 which is concerned with procedural matters;
(4) in making any decision under s 82(4) the Secretary of State is obliged to carry out any factual investigation required by arts 6 and 8, and the Administrative Court would then have equivalent powers and obligations to carry out such examination of the facts as would be necessary to ensure compliance with convention rights;
(5) art 8 is not applicable because a decision to include a care worker provisionally on the POVA list does not interfere with the worker’s private life in the manner and to the extent required by art 8;
(6) alternatively, if art 8 is applicable, the legislative provisions are capable of being operated in a particular case compatibly with convention rights under art 8 so that no declaration of incompatibility should be granted.
[49] I am not impressed with ground 4, nor ground 6 in the terms in which it is here put, any more than was Jonathan Parker LJ impressed with broadly equivalent submissions in International Transport Roth GmbH v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 158 at [156], [157], [2003] QB 728 at [156], [157], [2002] 3 WLR 344. It seems to me to stretch the language of s 82(4) beyond breaking point, and so as to rewrite it, to say that the Secretary of State, and more particularly the Administrative Court, can and should operate the procedure in an individual case at the provisional stage so as to conduct a full investigatory hearing, if compliance with the convention requires it. This is not what the Secretary of State on the evidence in fact does, and it is not what the language of s 82(4) taken with that of s 82(5)–(7) requires. There is however a substantial case that, if art 6(1) is not infringed, interference with art 8(1) rights is justifiable under art 8(2), and parts of Mr Sales’s submissions under ground 6 have relevance to the Secretary of State’s case in relation to art 8.
[50] That said, I agree with Dyson LJ for the reasons he gives in paras [110]–[117] of his judgment (below), which I have seen in draft, that if, as he considers, the provisions for provisional listing are an unfair and disproportionate means of addressing the problem of provisional action, s 82(4)(b) should be interpreted by virtue of s 3(1) of the 1998 Act as requiring the Secretary of State to give workers the right to make representations before she makes a decision under sub-s (b) unless she reasonably considers that the resultant delay would place a vulnerable adult at risk of harm. Such an interpretation would accord broadly with the way in which the Secretary of State has in practice operated s 82(4)(b) in the sense that she has not in many cases taken the provisional decision without seeking information additional to that given in the reference.
Ground 1
[51] Mr Sales submits that the European Court of Human Rights has consistently held that art 6 does not apply to interim orders or other provisional measures adopted before the proceedings on the merits, because they do not as a general rule involve the determination of civil rights and obligations. He refers to X v UK (1981) 24 DR 57 at 61; Jaffredou v France App No 39843/98
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(15 December 1998, unreported); APIS as v Slovakia App No 39754/98 (13 January 2000, unreported); Moura Carreira v Portugal App No 41237/98 (6 July 2000, unreported); Lamprecht v Austria App No 71888/01 (25 March 2004, unreported); and Dogmoch v Germany App No 26315/03 (8 September 2006, unreported). There is little difficulty with this submission, if the interim or provisional decision indeed does not determine anything irreversibly, but merely holds the ring pending a final determination of the merits. Typically this would apply to an interim injunction preventing a party from dissipating assets, especially when it is supported, as in this jurisdiction it usually would be, by an undertaking as to damages. The court in Dogmoch v Germany, reiterating the general position with interim orders or provisional measures, nevertheless noted that the court had exceptionally accepted the possibility of art 6 applying to an interim decision, and cited Markass Car Hire Ltd v Cyprus App No 51591/99 (11 June 2002, unreported). This was an admissibility decision, where the applicant complained about the length of the proceedings to set aside an ex parte interim order. There had been conspicuous delay. The decision was that the combined effect of the order and its duration caused irreversible prejudice to the applicant’s interests and drained to a substantial extent the final outcome of the proceedings of its significance. Article 6 applied because the interim decision in effect partially determined the right of the parties. The overlay of conspicuous delay in progressing the application to set aside the interim order was the main determining factor.
[52] Mr Sales submits that the decision to include a care worker provisionally in the POVA list should properly be considered as an interim decision which does not prejudice the final decision. That so far as it goes is correct. He submits that there will be few cases where, by virtue of s 89, there will be irreversible prejudice and that the four claimants have not individually shown such prejudice. Penelope Smith is not a claimant. The claimants are not, he says, entitled to a declaration of incompatibility because it is not open to a claimant, in whose case art 6 does not apply, to say that there may be an extreme case (not his own) in which art 6 might apply, and to ask for a declaration of incompatibility for the other hypothetical case. Mr Sales relies on Lancashire CC v Taylor (Secretary of State for the Environment, Food and Rural Affairs intervening) [2005] EWCA Civ 284 at [38]–[44], [2005] 2 EGLR 17 at [38]–[44], [2005] 1 WLR 2668. The essence of this part of the court’s decision was that a 1998 Act claimant must be a victim within s 7 of the Act; that members of the public should not use the Act or the convention to attempt to have changed legislation which they consider to be incompatible, but which they are not adversely affected by; and that in any event the court’s power to make a declaration of incompatibility is discretionary. I am not sympathetic with the further reaches of this submission in the present case. The claimants are, to the extent that they are, representative. Mr Spencer tells us that no objection was taken before the judge to the case of Penelope Smith being regarded as illustrative of cases which the claimants represent. The facts of her case at least show that the structure of provisional listing might in an individual case result in irreversible prejudice, although I am not convinced that her case actually does show this. The claimants may show that art 6 is capable of applying in some real, not hypothetical, cases. I am more sympathetic to a submission that, if in those cases art 6 would be infringed (which remains for consideration), that should nevertheless not result as a matter of discretion in a blanket declaration of incompatibility.
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[53] In Zlínsat Spol SRO v Bulgaria App No 57785/00 (15 June 2006, unreported), which the judge found helpful, the performance of a contract for the privatisation of a hotel was suspended on the order of the Sofia Public Prosecutor’s Office. The court held that the civil limb of art 6 applied, because the suspension of the performance of the contract and the eviction of the applicant company from the hotel had a clear and decisive effect on its ability to use and operate it, which was undoubtedly the exercise of a civil right. Mr Sales submits that this decision was akin to a final order. Provisional listing under the 2000 Act is, he says, more akin to a true interim decision.
[54] In my view, the judge was right to conclude that, at least in some cases, art 6 may be capable of applying to the scheme for provisional listing under s 82(4) of the 2000 Act. As part of the process of determining whether the care worker should be included in the POVA list, provisional listing is an interim measure which does not finally or irreversibly determine the question whether the worker should be included in the list. But provisional listing may have other consequences in some cases. Care workers who are, when they are provisionally included in the list, employed in a care position will lose that employment. That would be a determination of civil rights and obligations. Mr Sales accepted in his reply that art 6 applied in the case of Mary Quinn.
[55] As I understand the facts, Penelope Smith does not come within this category. She had been suspended from her job eight months before she was told that she was provisionally included in the POVA list and she was engaged in proceedings in the employment tribunal. Workers who are not employed in a care position when they are included in the list provisionally do not lose their existing employment. They are not wholly prevented from seeking employment, although the employment they may undertake is restricted. In some extreme cases, that may make them unemployable, but I do not understand any of the claimants to be or represent such a person. Further, any difficulty in obtaining employment may derive from the fact that they have an employment history of alleged s 82(2)(a) misconduct, not from their provisional inclusion in the list. I am not clear exactly where Penelope Smith would stand in this part of the decision. Between February and July 2006, she was legally disentitled from obtaining employment in a care position because she was provisionally on the POVA list. But it is not clear whether that was the true cause of her unemployment during that period. However that may be, it seems to me on a rather fine balance that the restrictions in s 89 of the 2000 Act from obtaining employment in a care position during provisional listing could in some cases be a determination of civil rights and obligations.
Grounds 2 and 3
[56] Mr Sales submits that it is well established that decisions which determine civil rights and obligations may be taken initially by the executive, provided that they are subject to review by an independent and impartial tribunal which exercises full jurisdiction; and that decisions by administrative authorities whether a person is a fit and proper person to pursue a particular activity come within the scope of this principle. The principle, he says, applies in the present case, so that judicial review constitutes sufficient compliance with art 6, if that article applies. The practical scope of judicial review may be limited, but that derives from the nature of the decision and its statutory substance.
[57] Bryan v UK (1996) 21 EHRR 342 was a planning case in which an inspector’s decision about an enforcement notice had been reviewed by the High Court. The
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applicant complained that the review was insufficient to comply with art 6(1). The European Court of Human Rights held that the impugned planning decision involved a determination of the applicant’s civil rights within art 6(1); that the proceedings before the inspector ensured the applicant a fair hearing; but that the inspector was not an independent and impartial tribunal. However, there is no violation of art 6(1) if proceedings before an adjudicatory body are subject to control by a judicial body that has full jurisdiction. The appeal to the High Court did not embrace all aspects of the inspector’s decision. There was no rehearing and the court could not substitute its own decision on the merits. But the full range of grounds upon which judicial review might be granted was available. It was also necessary to have regard to such matters as the subject matter of the decision appealed against, the manner in which it was arrived at and the content of the dispute including the desired and actual grounds of appeal. In the circumstances, the scope of review by the High Court was sufficient to comply with art 6(1).
[58] Bryan v UK was extensively considered and applied in R (on the application of Alconbury Developments Ltd) v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions [2001] UKHL 23, [2001] 2 All ER 929, [2003] 2 AC 295, where the House of Lords held that judicial review of planning decisions by the Secretary of State in a called-in application or a recovered appeal was sufficient to ensure compatibility with art 6(1) even though there was no review of the merits. Lord Slynn of Hadley said ([2001] 2 All ER 929 at [45], [2003] 2 AC 295 [at 45]) that judgments of the European Court of Human Rights show that the question whether there is sufficient jurisdictional (sc judicial) control by a judicial body which has full jurisdiction is not a mechanical one. It all depends on the circumstances. Lord Hoffmann said (at [87]) that European authority shows that ‘full jurisdiction’ does not mean full decision-making power. It means full jurisdiction to deal with the case as the nature of the decision requires (see also per Lord Clyde at [154]).
[59] In Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] UKHL 5, [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430, the House of Lords held that the county court’s appellate jurisdiction under s 204 of the Housing Act 1996, exercising the normal judicial review jurisdiction of the High Court, was sufficient to satisfy the requirements of art 6(1) in respect of an administrative internal review by an officer of the council under s 202 of the 1996 Act. The court applied Bryan v UK (1996) 21 EHRR 342 and Kingsley v UK (2001) 33 EHRR 288 and (2002) 35 EHRR 177, a case which reaffirmed Bryan v UK (see 35 EHRR 177 at 187 (para 32), quoting from the decision of the chamber of the European Court of Human Rights), although the actual decision was that art 6(1) was infringed for other reasons. Lord Bingham of Cornhill referred ([2003] 1 All ER 731 at [11], [2003] 2 AC 430 at [11]) to a number of Strasbourg cases in relation to the requirements of art 6(1) as showing a degree of flexibility in the court’s search for just and workmanlike solutions. Lord Hoffmann said (at [43]) that utilitarian considerations have their place when it comes to setting up, for example, schemes of regulation and social welfare; and that in determining the appropriate scope of judicial review of administrative action, regard must be had to democratic accountability, efficient administration and the sovereignty of Parliament. Lord Hoffmann said (at [53]) with reference to ‘the great principle which [Bryan v UK] decided’ (see [51]) that in cases such as that before the House a limited right of review on questions of fact was sufficient. He noted (at [56]) that Bryan v UK and Kingsley v UK described cases in which a limited review of the facts was sufficient as ‘specialised areas of the law’ and ‘classic exercise of administrative discretion’. The notion of a specialised area of law should not be taken too literally. He considered that what the court had in mind
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was those areas of law such as regulatory and welfare schemes in which decision-making is customarily entrusted to administrators; and, as in Kingsley v UK, cases in which the ultimate decision was whether Mr Kingsley was a fit and proper person for a gaming licence. He referred (at [57]) to the need for adequate judicial review, for which purpose Bryan v UK and Kingsley v UK make clear that limitations on practical grounds on the right to a review of findings of fact will be acceptable. Lord Millett expressed the opinion (at [105]) that the subject matter of the decision and the content of the dispute demanded that the decision be made by an administrative officer with experience of local housing conditions, subject to a proper degree of judicial control; and that a right of appeal to the court on law only was sufficient for this purpose.
[60] Essentially the same principles have been applied by the European Commission of Human Rights in cases where the issue was whether the applicant was a fit and proper person to practice as a doctor (Stefan v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 130) or as a chief executive of an insurance company (X v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 88).
[61] Mr Sales points out that the judge in the present case did not refer to the possibility of judicial review of a decision of the Secretary of State on an application under s 81(3), nor to Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430. By contrast, in R (on the application of Malik) v Waltham Forest Primary Care Trust [2006] EWHC 487 (Admin), [2006] 3 All ER 71, [2006] ICR 1111, Collins J held that, if art 6 had applied to the suspension of a doctor, the principle in Runa Begum’s case was applicable so as to render the doctor’s suspension compatible with art 6. The interim suspension was akin to an administrative act designed to hold matters pending final determination, and judicial review may suffice to make the procedure compliant with art 6. This is particularly so where there is no requirement to find facts, but only to be satisfied that there is credible material which justifies the interim suspension. The reviewing court would interfere if the primary care trust could not properly have decided as it did.
[62] The circumstances in Malik’s case are reasonably close to those in the present case. Although, as Stanley Burnton J said, it would not be possible at the provisional listing stage for the care worker to obtain a speedy judicial determination of the underlying facts, the statutory scheme does not envisage or require such a determination at that stage. Mr Sales submits that, once it is appreciated that the substantive statutory test at this stage is precautionary and akin to that of reasonable arguability, the practical limits to the role of a reviewing or appellate court are not to the point. The court still has full power and jurisdiction to see that the appropriate statutory substantive test has actually been applied.
[63] Mr Spencer relied on the admissibility decision of the European Court of Human Rights in Tsfayo v UK [2007] LGR 1 as indicating that the Bryan v UK ((1996) 21 EHRR 342) composite approach was inappropriate in the present cases. The applicant’s claim for back-payment of housing benefit was rejected because the council’s Housing Benefit Review Board found that she had failed to show good cause why she had not claimed benefit earlier. She was refused leave to apply for judicial review in part because the court considered that the review board’s decision was neither unreasonable nor irrational. The European Court of Human Rights did not review the merits of the finding. The court held that her rights under art 6(1) were infringed because the review board was not independent and the High Court had no power to investigate the facts. The Bryan v UK line of cases was distinguished on the basis that the issue was one of fact requiring no specialised
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professional knowledge or experience nor the exercise of administrative discretion pursuant to wide policy aims. Mr Spencer submits that the present case is closer to Tsfayo v UK than those relied on by the Secretary of State. I do not think so. The submission assumes that the decision at the stage of provisional listing is one of fact required to be taken upon full contested evidence. But it is not. It goes no further than a judgment whether there is a reasonably arguable case.
[64] Mr Spencer points to the fact that three of the claimants and Penelope Smith were not confirmed on the list. Judicial review, he says, is not adequate because, even if the claim for judicial review succeeds, provisional listing can have an immediate effect. There will still have been a period during which the care worker was banned from working in a care position. He says that there is inherent unfairness because the threshold for provisional listing is low. If the threshold is reached, provisional listing is obligatory. It is mandatory for a care provider to refer all cases which fall within the wide statutory definition. The system catches all cases, not just the serious ones. The decision is taken without the worker having an opportunity to be heard.
[65] Mr Spencer submitted in writing that, if the three claimants whose listing was not confirmed and Penelope Smith had been able to make representations at an art 6 compliant hearing, it must be supposed that they would all have shown that there was insufficient evidence to justify provisional listing. But that presupposes a full hearing to determine the merits, which a precautionary provisional scheme cannot accommodate and which the statutory provisional test would not address. Mr Spencer accepts that precautionary steps must be taken at least for serious cases and that a system of POVA listing has a legitimate purpose and might be proportionate. This scheme was not proportionate because it did not distinguish between the serious and the trivial. He was inclined to suggest that serious cases would take care of themselves, for example by means of the criminal law.
[66] Mr Sales responded to these submissions by saying that the scheme comprises a reasonable precautionary approach. Section 82(2)(a) misconduct is by definition serious, and no such conduct will be trivial. Although all relevant cases need to be referred, the test in s 82(4) provides a filter both in law and in the way in which it is in fact operated, so that only the reasonably arguable serious case results in provisional listing.
[67] In my judgment, Mr Sales’s submissions, with reference to the authorities to which I have referred, are persuasive, although they do not alone entirely dispose of the claimants’ art 6 case. In so far as art 6(1) may apply in a particular case, the statutory test in s 82(4) does not require a final determination of facts. Judicial review of a s 82(4) decision or of an adverse decision under s 81(3) is available. The court upon such a claim for judicial review would have ‘full jurisdiction’ in the sense discussed in the authorities and it would be no objection to this that the court could not review the facts on their merits. The court would be fully able to decide whether the statutory test had been properly applied. To this extent, the statutory scheme does not infringe art 6 because the care worker is entitled to a sufficient public hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal.
[68] It remains to consider whether the scheme is fair even though the care worker is not entitled to be heard or make representations to the Secretary of State at this provisional stage. Mr Sales submits that art 6(1) is concerned with procedural fairness, not fairness of substantive law; and that art 6(1) does not guarantee any content to legal rights and imposes no obligation on the state to confer any particular civil right. He refers to Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB
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[2006] EWCA Civ 1140 at [36], [2007] QB 415 at [36], [2006] 3 WLR 839 and Matthews v Ministry of Defence [2003] UKHL 4 at [3], [2003] 1 All ER 689 at [3], [2003] 1 AC 1163, which justify these propositions. Accordingly in considering procedural fairness under art 6(1), the court must take the relevant statutory substance as it is. The relevant statutory substance is that the Secretary of State has to apply the test in s 82(4) of whether it may be appropriate for the worker to be included in the list, that is whether there is a reasonably arguable case to that effect. This being the nature of the decision, the question then is whether the decision can fairly be taken without the care worker being heard at this stage. The context is that derived from s 82(2) or (3), that the worker has been dismissed etc on the grounds of s 82(2)(a) misconduct, or that a former employer has formed the opinion on subsequently acquired information that, had he known, he would have dismissed the worker on such grounds. In these circumstances, I am not persuaded that the procedure is unfair because, at this provisional stage, the care worker has no right to be heard. The care worker has access to the court if the provisional decision is unsustainable in judicial review terms. That access is broadly equivalent to the ability of the recipient of an ex parte injunction to apply to the court for the injunction to be discharged. The fact that it may be supposed that such applications may succeed only rarely derives from the nature of the statutory test, not from the fact that the worker did not at that stage have a right to be heard. I again note that Penelope Smith appears to have succeeded in having her name removed from the POVA list after she had succeeded in the employment tribunal, not because she would before that have been able to demonstrate, if she had had the opportunity, that she should not have been on the list in the first place.
[69] Compliance with or infringement of art 6 in particular seems to me to require a composite judgment. Dissecting it into parts may be helpful for analytic presentation, but the eventual judgment is an amalgam of the parts and their relevant considerations. A precautionary approach is obviously necessary in the present case and in the round justified. The test for provisional listing enacted by Parliament, more substantive than procedural, is an appropriate precautionary test for the provisional stage. It is open to the provisionally listed care worker to challenge the provisional listing by judicial review, or to apply to the Secretary of State under s 81(3) to remove their name from the list and to apply for judicial review of an adverse decision, if they have a knock-out reason for saying that the provisional listing should not have been made. The fact that the procedure as a whole does not entitle the worker to make submissions at the provisional listing stage may be seen as fair. A provisionally listed worker who can quickly establish mistaken identity or who can show that their dismissal was judged to be unfair by an employment tribunal (as with Penelope Smith) does have an independent judicial remedy. Those who may not have this remedy are those against whom there is a reasonably arguable case that they have perpetrated s 82(2)(a) misconduct and for whom there is a real prospect that the Secretary of State will after due process confirm their inclusion on the list. The adverse consequences of this result from the proper need to adopt a precautionary provisional approach and from the statutory test which Parliament within its proper margin of discretion has decided should result in provisional precautionary safeguards for vulnerable adults.
[70] For these composite reasons, I conclude that the claimants do not establish that the structure of s 82(4) is incompatible with art 6(1) of the convention. I would therefore not make a general declaration of incompatibility with art 6(1) and I think the judge was wrong to do so. I take into account in reaching this conclusion
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that there are other broadly comparable statutory schemes, referred to in the judge’s appendix, which have a different structure. But, as Mr Sales submits, the existence of different schemes does not by itself make this scheme incompatible; and the scheme for care workers is very similar to the scheme for the protection of children.
Grounds 5 and 6
[71] Mr Sales submits that art 8(1) is not applicable; or that, if it is, it is not infringed. I have already indicated that I do not see how the claimants can readily succeed to resist justification under art 8(2), if they fail under art 6(1). Their case is that any interference with their private lives is unnecessary and disproportionate in a democratic society because the procedure which denies them a right to be heard at the provisional listing stage is unfair. As Mr Spencer wrote with reference to art 8, the issue at stake is whether provisional listing in the manner provided for in the 2000 Act is necessary in a democratic society, there being no dispute but that it pursues a legitimate aim and is in accordance with the law. Central to that issue is whether the measure is proportionate to the aim it seeks to pursue, and in particular whether the decision-making process is fair. If the respondents’ rights under art 6 are infringed, it is almost inevitable, he says, that their rights under art 8 have also been breached. The judge upheld the respondents’ resistance to art 8(2) justification because he had found in their favour under art 6(1) (see [2007] 1 All ER 825 at [66])
[72] In my view, a scheme for the protection of vulnerable adults from the risk of care workers who have been guilty of s 82(2)(a) misconduct is plainly necessary in a democratic society in art 8(2) terms. Mr Spencer does not submit otherwise. There are no features of the 2000 Act scheme which are put forward as being unfair or disproportionate other than the procedural matters which I have discussed, and the consequences of provisional listing for which s 89 provides. If I am correct that the scheme for provisional listing is procedurally fair so as to comply with art 6(1), the structure of the legislation as a whole is that a necessary and proportionate scheme for provisional listing embracing a fair procedure which complies with art 6(1) results in vulnerable adults being protected by the mechanism in s 89 from care workers against whom there is a reasonably arguable case of s 82(2)(a) misconduct. The only point then available to the claimants would be that obligatory termination of their employment in a care position (if they are so employed at the time of listing) would be unnecessary and disproportionate, when suspension would be less draconian. I have already indicated scepticism whether legislation could require a private care organisation to suspend a care worker. However that may be, it seems to me to be well within the margin of parliamentary discretion to put in place the s 89 provisions rather than something slightly less intrusive. As I said in relation to art 6, in many cases adverse employment consequences will already have occurred, if the care worker is dismissed etc on the grounds of s 82(2)(a) misconduct. These consequences may well not result, if they do result, from the provisional listing.
[73] If therefore art 8(1) were to apply to the facts of any individual case, there would be justification under art 8(2) and a declaration of incompatibility should not be made under that article. It is not therefore in my view necessary to determine whether art 8 applies—or, to put it shortly, whether this is a case more akin to Sidabras v Lithuania [2004] ECHR 55480/00 or to Turek v Slovakia [2006] ECHR 57986/00.
[74] For these reasons, I would allow the appeal and quash the judge’s order.
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DYSON LJ.
[75] As interpreted and applied by the Secretary of State, s 82(4)(b) of the Care Standards Act 2000 requires him to include a care worker in the protection of vulnerable adults (POVA) list (if it appears from the information submitted with a reference under sub-s (1) that it may be appropriate to do so) without first giving the worker an opportunity to make representations. Before the judge, it was not disputed that this is the correct interpretation, but he held that the denial of the opportunity to make representations renders the statute incompatible with art 6 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998).
[76] In disagreement with May LJ, I consider that art 6 is engaged in all cases when a worker is included provisionally in the POVA list; and the denial of the right to make representations is a breach of the worker’s art 6 rights, which is not made good by the fact that there is an opportunity (i) to seek to persuade the Secretary of State to remove the worker from the list under s 81(3) of the 2000 Act; (ii) to seek judicial review of a decision to include the worker in the list or a refusal to remove the worker from the list; and (iii) to appeal to the tribunal under s 86.
[77] I agree with May LJ (although for different reasons) that the judge was wrong to grant a declaration of incompatibility under s 4 of the 1998 Act. I consider that the 2000 Act can and should be read and given effect in a way which is compatible with art 6 so as to require the Secretary of State to give the care worker an opportunity to make representations before he or she is included in the POVA list, unless to give such an opportunity would expose vulnerable adults to the risk of harm.
IS ARTICLE 6 ENGAGED?
[78] This issue turns on whether the provisional inclusion of a worker in the POVA list is a determination of civil rights within the meaning of art 6(1) of the convention. Mr Philip Sales QC concedes that the inclusion of Mary Quinn was such a determination because, by virtue of s 89(2) of the 2002 Act, the effect of the provisional inclusion in the list in her case was that she lost her employment. None of the other three claimants was in employment at the time of being provisionally included in the list. By virtue of s 89(1)(b), the effect of inclusion in their case was that they could not be offered employment in a care position mentioned in s 80(2)(a) or (c) while they remained on the list. Mr Sales accepts that the termination of employment is a determination of civil rights, but submits that a decision whose effect is that an unemployed person may not be offered a particular type of employment is not.
[79] At first sight, this seems an unpromising distinction. From the point of view of the worker, the critical consequence of being included in the list is that he or she is not allowed to work as a care worker in a particular care position. The decision to include a worker in the list determines his or her ability to work as a carer whilst included in the list.
[80] The response of Mr Sales is that the case law of the European Court of Human Rights shows that art 6 does not apply to proceedings relating to interim orders or other provisional measures adopted prior to proceedings on the merits, since the very provisional or temporary nature of such measures as a general rule cannot be regarded as involving the determination of civil rights and obligations within the meaning of art 6. Thus, submits Mr Sales, the determination of Ms Quinn’s employment is a determination of her civil rights, because the determination is once and for all: it is not an interim or provisional measure. On
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the other hand, a decision whose effect is to deny the care worker the opportunity of working in a care position whilst included in the list is an interim measure pending a final determination under s 82(5)–(7).
[81] The general rule that a provisional decision does not involve a determination of civil rights is not in doubt. It has been asserted in a number of cases, such as X v UK (1981) 24 DR 57 at 61; Jaffredou v France App No 39843/98 (15 December 1998, unreported); APIS as v Slovakia App No 39754/98 (13 January 2000, unreported); and Moura Carreira v Portugal App No 41237/98 (6 July 2000, unreported). But if an interim decision has or is capable of having a seriously detrimental effect on the party affected by it, then it may involve a determination of civil rights. Whether it has this effect is a question of degree. Thus, in Markass Car Hire Ltd v Cyprus App No 51591/99 (11 June 2002, unreported), the European Court of Human Rights said that the interim decision ‘partly coincided with the main action and, unless reversed by the appeal court within a short time-limit, was to affect, as it did for a substantial period, the legal rights of the parties’. The court could not overlook the ‘drastic character of the interim decision’. The combined effect of the measure and its duration caused ‘irreversible prejudice’ to the applicant’s interests and drained to a substantial extent the final outcome of the proceedings of its significance.
[82] In Zlínsat Spol SRO v Bulgaria App No 57785/00 (15 June 2006, unreported), the European Court of Human Rights held that a decision by the Sofia City Prosecutor’s Office to suspend the performance of a privatisation contract and the eviction of the applicant company from a hotel ‘had a clear and decisive impact on its capability to use and operate it’ (see para 72 of the judgment). For that reason, the decision was a determination of civil rights so as to engage art 6.
[83] There is no doubt that a final decision to suspend a person from a position is a determination of civil rights. In Le Compte v Belgium (1981) 4 EHRR 1, the European Court of Human Rights held (at 18 (para 49)) that the suspension for three months of a medical practitioner did involve a determination of civil rights. It constituted a ‘direct and material interference with the right to continue to exercise the medical profession’. The fact that the interference was temporary did not prevent it from impairing that right.
[84] In R (on the application of Malik) v Waltham Forest Primary Care Trust [2006] EWHC 487 (Admin), [2006] 3 All ER 71, [2006] ICR 1111, there was a challenge by a general medical practitioner to the lawfulness of his suspension from practice for six months. He claimed that the suspension had been effected in breach of art 6. Collins J decided that art 6 was not engaged. He distinguished Le Compte v Belgium on the grounds that the suspension in that case was a final order. More fundamentally, he held that a crucially important point was that the claimant in the case before him was suspended on full pay. It was for that reason that the general rule that interim measures do not engage art 6 should prevail (see [2006] 3 All ER 71 at [32], [2006] ICR 1111 at [32]).
[85] As I have said, the existence of the rule that interim decisions generally do not engage art 6 is not in doubt. The paradigm case is an order which preserves the status quo pending the final determination of a dispute between litigants. But from the point of view of the doctor who is suspended from practice, it makes no practical difference whether he or she is suspended for three months pending a final decision or is simply suspended from practice for three months. Either way, the doctor cannot practice for three months. It would be strange if art 6 were to be engaged in the one case and not in the other. The fact that it was held in Le Compte v
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Belgium that a three-months’ suspension does engage art 6 suggests that a three-months’ suspension pending a final determination would also engage art 6.
[86] In my view, the judge was right to conclude that a decision to include a worker in the POVA list engages art 6 in all cases. The consequences of being provisionally included in the POVA list can be seriously detrimental for the care worker. Whilst on the list, he or she may not be offered employment in a relevant care position and if employed in such a position, his or her employment is not even suspended, still less suspended on pay: it is terminated immediately. There is no requirement that, if at the stage of final determination, the care worker is removed from the list, he or she must be offered the previous employment. In my judgment, the provisional inclusion of a care worker in the list can have a clear and decisive effect on the worker. To use the language of Markass Car Hire Ltd v Cyprus App No 51591/99 (11 June 2002, unreported), the decision to include in the list is potentially one of a drastic character which may cause irreversible prejudice to the worker.
[87] In determining the effect of the provisional inclusion of a care worker in the list, it is necessary to have in mind that the 2000 Act does not impose any time limit within which the Secretary of State must make the final determination under s 82(4)(a) and the worker may not appeal against his or her provisional inclusion in the list for nine months (s 86(2)), although I accept that the possibility of an application to remove under s 81(3) and judicial review should not be overlooked. The appeal process may take some time. It follows that there is inherent in the statutory scheme the real possibility that a care worker may be provisionally included in the list for more than nine months and unable to take on work in a care position during that period. It is true that they may be able to take on other work during the period, although it is likely that their prospects of obtaining employment whilst they are included in the POVA list will be reduced by the very fact of their inclusion in the list.
[88] I accept that the degree of prejudice caused to the care worker will depend on the facts of the individual case. Relevant factors will include whether the worker has been able to obtain suitable alternative employment in the meantime and the time taken to obtain a final decision from the Secretary of State or the tribunal. But in my judgment, the inclusion of a worker in the POVA list has the potential to cause serious prejudice to a worker in all cases. The amount of prejudice caused in any individual case may not become clear for some time and until after (possibly time-consuming) investigations have been conducted. In my judgment, the question whether art 6 is engaged should not be decided by examining on a case by case basis the actual effect of provisional listing on an individual worker. The better approach is to recognise that provisional listing has the obvious potential to cause serious prejudice to workers in all cases and to hold that art 6 is engaged in all cases.
BREACH OF ARTICLE 6(1)
[89] The next question is whether a failure by the Secretary of State to give the worker the right to make representations before he or she is included in the POVA list amounts to a breach of art 6(1). The critical issue here is whether the requirement that there be a ‘fair and public hearing’ is infringed. It is axiomatic that the right to a fair hearing usually requires that a person affected by the decision to be made should be given a reasonable opportunity to deal with the case that is put against him or her. I do not understand this to be controversial.
[90] Mr Sales relies on the well established principle that decisions which determine civil rights and obligations may be taken at first instance by the executive, provided that the decisions are subject to a fair and public review by an
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independent and impartial tribunal which exercises ‘full jurisdiction’ (see Bryan v UK (1996) 21 EHRR 342, R (on the application of Alconbury Developments Ltd) v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions [2001] UKHL 23, [2001] 2 All ER 929, [2003] 2 AC 295 and Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] UKHL 5, [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430).
[91] He relies in particular on the line of cases in which decisions by administrative authorities on the question whether a person is a fit and proper person to pursue a particular activity or calling have been held by the Strasbourg organs to fall within the scope of the principle in Bryan v UK. In Stefan v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 130, the European Commission of Human Rights held that the availability of an appeal to the Privy Council on the grounds of an error of law provided sufficient compliance with art 6(1) in a case concerned with findings by the Health Committee of the General Medical Council (GMC) that the fitness of the applicant to practise as a doctor was seriously impaired. The GMC was not itself an independent and impartial tribunal. The nature of the applicant’s challenge to the findings of the decision-making body was no impediment to the application of the Bryan v UK composite approach.
[92] In X v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 88, the European Commission of Human Rights held that the availability of judicial review provided sufficient compliance with art 6(1) in a case concerning an order imposed by the Secretary of State preventing a chief executive of an insurance company taking up his post, on grounds that he was not a fit and proper person, after a hearing by civil servants on the Secretary of State’s behalf, which addressed accusations made by the Secretary of State against the individual and went into issues of contested fact. The Commission concluded (as in Stefan v UK) that the complaint of breach of art 6(1) was manifestly unfounded even though the decision made by the civil servants related primarily to issues of disputed fact rather than policy considerations. They did, however, describe the subject matter of the decision appealed against as a ‘classic exercise of administrative discretion’.
[93] The decision on which Mr Sales places particular reliance is Kingsley v UK (2001) 33 EHRR 288 and (2002) 35 EHRR 177. The Gaming Board proposed to cancel the applicant’s ‘certificates of approval’ to run a casino on the grounds that he was not a ‘fit and proper person’ to hold one. The applicant complained that he had been deprived of a hearing before the board, and that the review by the High Court could not remedy the matter because of the restricted nature of judicial review. An important feature of the case was that one member of the Gaming Board had already, in advance of hearing the applicant’s case, publicly expressed the view that the applicant was not a fit and proper person and it transpired that privately all members of the board had committed themselves to this view before the hearing. The applicant’s certificates of approval were revoked. He sought judicial review. The application was dismissed because the doctrine of necessity applied so as to tie the hands of the reviewing courts. The European Court of Human Rights held that there had been a violation of art 6(1) because the courts were unable to remedy the decision although the applicant had established a real risk of bias on the part of the board. But in the context of a case turning on disputes of fact, the court confirmed the applicability of the Bryan v UK composite approach. Once again the subject matter of the decision appealed from was described as a ‘classic exercise of administrative discretion’. But for the problem created by the doctrine of necessity, there would have been no breach of art 6(1). In particular, the fact that the court on an application for judicial review cannot substitute its own findings of fact for those of the body whose decision it is reviewing does not matter
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even in cases which turn on disputes of fact. In that case, the question whether or not the applicant was a fit and proper person turned entirely on the truth of allegations by the board that he had been involved in various undesirable practices.
[94] The scope of the Bryan v UK principle was considered in detail by the House of Lords in Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430. The applicant rejected housing accommodation as being unsuitable because the area was characterised by drug problems and racism, she had been attacked by two youths shortly after viewing the property and her estranged husband frequently visited the building. An internal review was conducted by a local housing officer, who concluded that the accommodation was suitable. She was satisfied that there were no serious drug or racial problems in the area and was not persuaded that the applicant had been the victim of the alleged robbery or that her relationship with her husband made it intolerable that she should risk meeting him in the vicinity of the property. The applicant appealed to the county court on a point of law. It was argued that an appeal on a point of law did not give the court ‘full jurisdiction’ and that for that reason there was a breach of art 6. Lord Hoffmann gave the leading opinion. He said:
‘[42] A finding of fact in this context seems to me very different from the findings of fact which have to be made by central or local government officials in the course of carrying out regulatory functions (such as licensing or granting planning permission) or administering schemes of social welfare such as Part VII. The rule of law rightly requires that certain decisions, of which the paradigm examples are findings of breaches of the criminal law and adjudications as to private rights, should be entrusted to the judicial branch of government. This basic principle does not yield to utilitarian arguments that it would be cheaper or more efficient to have these matters decided by administrators. Nor is the possibility of an appeal sufficient to compensate for lack of independence and impartiality on the part of the primary decision-maker (see De Cubber v Belgium (1985) 7 EHRR 236).
[43] But utilitarian considerations have their place when it comes to setting up, for example, schemes of regulation or social welfare.’
[95] Lord Hoffmann said (at [52]) that in that case the subject matter of the decision was the suitability of accommodation for occupation by the applicant: ‘the kind of decision which the Strasbourg court has on several occasions called a “classic exercise of an administrative discretion”’.
[96] Mr Sales submits that these observations have real application in the present case. The decision whether or not it ‘appears from the information submitted to him . . . that it may be appropriate for the worker to be included in the list’ (see s 82(4) of the 2000 Act) is a classic exercise of administrative discretion of the kind customarily entrusted to those who are charged with performing regulatory functions. He submits that any provisional findings of fact (for example, about misconduct) are merely what Lord Bingham of Cornhill described in Runa Begum’s case as ‘staging posts on the way to the much broader judgments which the authority has to make.’ (See [2003] 1 All ER 731 at [9](2), [2003] 2 AC 430 at [9](2)). The fact that in judicial review proceedings the court does not have power to substitute its own findings of fact in such cases does not mean that it does not have ‘full jurisdiction’.
[97] Mr Sales submits that the decision made by the Secretary of State provisionally to include a care worker in the list is analogous to the decisions made
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in cases such as Stefan v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 130, X v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 88 and Kingsley v UK (2001) 33 EHRR 288 and (2002) 35 EHRR 177. He also submits that Collins J was right to say (obiter) in R (on the application of Malik) v Waltham Forest Primary Care Trust [2006] 3 All ER 71, [2006] ICR 1111 that examined as a whole, the procedure in that case was compliant with art 6(1). Collins J relied on Runa Begum’s case, to hold that the availability of judicial review sufficed to make the procedure compliant, particularly in a case where there is no requirement to find facts, but only to be satisfied that there is credible material which will justify an interim suspension. The decision of the Secretary of State that it may be appropriate for the care worker to be included in the list is a classic exercise of administrative discretion.
[98] Stanley Burnton J dealt with the inadequacy of judicial review as a remedy satisfying the requirements of art 6 (see [2007] 1 All ER 825 at [46]–[48]). He said that the only ground for judicial review was likely to be that the Secretary of State could not properly come to the conclusion that ‘it may be appropriate for the care worker’ to be listed and the burden on the listed person is substantial. What the listed person could not do was obtain a speedy judicial determination of the underlying facts: did he commit the misconduct alleged?
[99] In my view, the authorities relied on by Mr Sales show that the judge was wrong to regard this as a sufficient reason for holding that the court does not have ‘full jurisdiction’. In Runa Begum’s case, the court did not have the power to decide whether the facts relied on by the applicant were true, but that did not mean that the county court, whose power was limited to considering points of law, did not have full jurisdiction. Similarly, in Stefan v UK, X v UK and Kingsley v UK.
[100] Nor do I consider that the judge was justified in reaching his conclusion on the grounds that the threshold for provisional inclusion in the list is low and the burden on the listed person correspondingly high. As Mr Sales points out, it was impermissible for the judge to found his conclusion of breach of art 6 on this feature of the statute, because it is a product of the substantive legal test in s 82(4), rather than any procedural default which would properly engage art 6. Article 6 is concerned with procedural fairness, not the fairness of the substantive law (see, for example, Matthews v Ministry of Defence [2003] UKHL 4 at [3], [2003] 1 All ER 689 at [3], [2003] 1 AC 1163 and Secretary of State for the Home Dept v MB [2006] EWCA Civ 1140 at [66], [67], [2007] QB 415 at [66], [67], [2006] 3 WLR 839). The second of these cases is instructive. Section 2 of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 provides that it is a precondition to the making of a control order that the Secretary of State has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the controlled person is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity. The judge treated this ‘standard of proof’ as an aspect of the court’s procedure that fell to be examined when considering whether it satisfied art 6. This court held that the judge confused substance, which is relevant to the substantive articles of the convention, and procedure, which is relevant to art 6.
[101] But the fact that, as interpreted and applied by the Secretary of State, the 2000 Act does not provide that the care worker should be given an opportunity to make representations before a decision is made to provisionally include him or her in the POVA list is an aspect of procedure and not a matter of substance. The question that arises is whether this apparent breach of art 6(1) at the first stage of the process is made good by the process when viewed as a whole. Mr Sales points to the following features of the process which, he submits, make good the absence of an opportunity for the care worker to make representations before the decision to include him or her in the list is made. First, there is the opportunity to apply to the
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Secretary of State at any time to remove the worker from the list under s 81(3). Secondly, there is the right to seek judicial review at any time of the original decision to include the worker in the list and a refusal to remove the worker from the list. Thirdly, there is the right of appeal which can be exercised after nine months.
[102] It is clear from the Strasbourg jurisprudence that, in deciding whether a breach of art 6 at the first stage of the process can be cured by a later stage of the process, it is necessary to have regard to the nature of the first stage breach. A good illustration of this is to be found in Tsfayo v UK [2007] LGR 1. The applicant for housing and council tax benefit failed to submit her benefit renewal form in time. Her claim was rejected by the council because she had failed to show ‘good cause’ why she had not claimed benefits earlier. Her appeal to the Housing Benefit Review Board was dismissed. She sought judicial review inter alia on the grounds that the board was not an independent and impartial tribunal within the meaning of art 6(1).
[103] The European Court of Human Rights reviewed the authorities. The court gave two reasons for deciding that there had been a violation of art 6(1) despite the availability of judicial review. First, the decision-making process was significantly different from that considered in cases such as X v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 88, Stefan v UK (1998) 25 EHRR CD 130, Kingsley v UK (2001) 33 EHRR 288, Bryan v UK (1996) 21 EHRR 342 and Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430. In those cases, the issues to be determined required a measure of professional knowledge or experience and the exercise of administrative discretion pursuant to wider policy aims. In the instant case, the board was deciding a simple question of fact, namely whether there was ‘good cause’ for the applicant’s delay in making a claim. Unlike in the other cases, the factual finding could not be said to be merely incidental to the reaching of broader judgments of policy or expediency which it was for the democratically accountable authority to take.
[104] The second reason was that the board was not merely lacking in independence from the executive, but was directly connected to one of the parties to the dispute, since it included five councillors from the local authority which would be required to pay the benefit if it was awarded. The safeguards built into the board’s procedure were ‘not adequate to overcome this fundamental lack of objective impartiality’ ([2007] LGR 1 at [46]). The court contrasted the case with that of the department’s decision-making process in R (on the application of Alconbury Developments Ltd) v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions [2001] 2 All ER 929, [2003] 2 AC 295 which—
‘offered a number of procedural safeguards, such as an inspector’s inquiry with the opportunity for interested parties to be heard and these safeguards, together with the availability of judicial review . . . was sufficient to comply with the requirement for “an independent and impartial tribunal” in art 6(1)’. (See [2007] LGR 1 at [27]).
[105] The second reason is important because it shows that, in deciding whether the court has full jurisdiction on a judicial review, it is relevant to have regard to the nature of the breach in the first stage of the process. The more serious the failure to accord a hearing by an independent and impartial tribunal, the more likely it is that a breach in the first stage of the process cannot be cured at the second stage. Thus, in Runa Begum’s case Lord Bingham said ([2003] 1 All ER 731 at [9], [2003] 2 AC 430 at [9]) that, although the reviewer was not independent of his or her
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employing authority, the statutory scheme provided safeguards that the review would be fairly conducted. These included that the reviewer had to be senior to the original decision-maker and must not have been involved in the making of the original decision. In the Alconbury Developments case, it was accepted that the planning inspector was not independent of the Secretary of State. But it was considered by the House of Lords to be relevant that the inspector was an experienced professional whose report provided ‘an important filter before the Secretary of State takes his decision . . .’ ([2001] 2 All ER 929 at [46], [2003] 2 AC 295 at [46] per Lord Slynn of Hadley). Lord Hoffmann said ([2001] 2 All ER 929 at [110], [2003] 2 AC 295 at [110]) that—
‘in deciding the questions of primary fact or fact and degree which arose in enforcement notice appeals, the inspector was no mere bureaucrat. He was an expert tribunal acting in a quasi-judicial manner and therefore sufficiently independent to make it unnecessary that the High Court should have a broad jurisdiction to review his decisions on questions of fact’.
Thus, where the lack of impartiality at the first stage was of a somewhat formal and technical nature, the breach of art 6 was taken to be cured by the availability of judicial review. But if the lack of impartiality at the first stage had real practical content, then it infected the whole process and could not be cured by judicial review.
[106] In my view, there are two reasons why the failure to afford the worker the opportunity to make representations before being included in the POVA list is a breach of art 6 which cannot be cured by any of the three means suggested by Mr Sales. First, the denial of the right to make representations is not a mere formal or technical breach. It is a denial of one of the fundamental elements of the right to a fair determination of a person’s civil rights, namely the right to be heard. And the denial is total. The worker is not given an opportunity even to make the briefest of comments. Judicial review does not afford full jurisdiction, since it cannot make good the consequences of the denial of the opportunity to make representations at the earlier stage.
[107] Secondly, none of the three means suggested by Mr Sales can make good the serious detriment suffered by the care worker as a result of being included in the POVA list. Section 81(3) does afford the worker a remedy of sorts. In some cases, he or she will be able to make a successful application under s 81(3) within a short time of being included in the list. But even in such cases, there is the potential for serious and irreversible prejudice to the worker by being included in the list in the first place. The former employer may offer to restore the care worker to his or her employment, but that is unlikely where the employer dismissed, suspended or provisionally transferred the worker on the grounds of misconduct. As for judicial review, proceedings are likely to take some time, and even if successful are unlikely to result in the restoration of the worker to his or her former employment. The same applies in relation to an appeal to the tribunal which cannot be determined until the worker has been in the list for nine months. It is the (often irreversible) detrimental effect of the inclusion in the list that makes the breach of art 6 at the first stage of the process incurable by any of the means suggested by Mr Sales.
RIGHT TO MAKE REPRESENTATIONS IN ALL CASES?
[108] The essential defect in the first stage of the process lies in the fact that, as interpreted by the Secretary of State, the 2000 Act does not allow the care worker
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in any circumstances to make representations before being provisionally included in the list. Although for the reasons given earlier, I consider that art 6 is engaged in all cases, it does not follow that a worker should be given the right to make representations in all cases. The parliamentary intention of protecting vulnerable adults from the risk of harm from care workers must be respected. The right to a fair determination of a worker’s civil rights does not require that the worker be accorded the right to make representations in all cases. Fairness requires a proportionate approach. A balance must be struck between the need to protect vulnerable adults from the risk of physical and psychological harm and the art 6 rights of care workers. There will be cases where the allegations of misconduct are so serious that, if they are true, the care worker is potentially a serious danger to vulnerable adults. In such circumstances, the paramount need to protect vulnerable adults from real danger may require the care worker to be included in the list provisionally without being given an opportunity to meet the case against him or her before that step is taken. It will be a matter for the judgment of the Secretary of State to decide whether it is necessary to include a worker in the POVA list without giving him or her an opportunity to make representations. In making this judgment, the Secretary of State must take into account all the circumstances of the case, but in particular the gravity of the allegations. We were told that in many cases the care worker is not included in the list until the lapse of a considerable time after the date of the reference under s 82(1). This provides some support for the view that unsurprisingly a significant number of references do not raise issues which call for urgent and immediate decision. No reason has been advanced on behalf of the Secretary of State to justify the blanket denial to workers of an opportunity to make representations in all cases.
[109] I agree with the judge who said (at [52]) that the provisions of the 2000 Act as to provisional listing are unfair and a disproportionate means of addressing the problem of provisional action. I should add that I do not accept that the fact that provisional listing is a ‘precautionary approach’ which entails a low standard of proof (viz: ‘it may be appropriate for the worker to be included in the list’) is a sufficient reason for denying the worker the right to make representations. It may be more difficult for the worker to persuade the Secretary of State not to include him or her in the list in the first place than to persuade him not to confirm the inclusion at the later stage. But the difficulty of the task cannot be a reason for denying the worker the opportunity of attempting to achieve it.
SHOULD A DECLARATION OF INCOMPATIBILITY BE GRANTED?
[110] If the 2000 Act is construed in accordance with orthodox domestic law principles, there is a powerful case for holding that s 82(4)(b) does not permit the Secretary of State to afford workers the opportunity to make representations before they are included in the POVA list. The words in s 82(4) ‘. . . from the information submitted with a reference under subsection (1) . . .’ suggest that there is no room at the provisional listing stage for the Secretary of State to have regard to any information other than that submitted with a reference. Moreover, the express obligation imposed on the Secretary of State by s 82(5)(a) to invite observations from the worker in connection with the final determination under s 82(4)(a) gives rise to the inference that Parliament did not intend that observations should be invited at the provisional listing stage.
[111] For the reasons that I have given, I consider that, if construed so as to deny to workers the right to be heard in all cases, s 82(4)(b) of the 2000 Act is incompatible with art 6(1). But s 3(1) of the 1998 Act requires the court, so far as it
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is possible to do so, to read and give effect to legislation in a way which is compatible with convention rights. This is ‘a powerful tool whose use is obligatory. It is not an optional canon of construction. Nor is its use dependent on the existence of ambiguity.’ (Re S (children: care plan), Re W (children: care plan) [2002] UKHL 10 at [37], [2002] 2 All ER 192 at [37], [2002] 2 AC 291 per Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead).
[112] Orthodox domestic canons of statutory construction must give way to the strong obligation imposed by s 3(1) of the 1998 Act. The role of the court is not (as in traditional statutory interpretation) to find the true meaning of the provision, but to find (if possible) the meaning which best accords with convention rights (see Lester and Pannick Human Rights Law and Practice (2nd edn, 2004) pp 33–34 (para 2.3.2)). This can be done by reading in necessary safeguards to protect such rights.
[113] In my view, s 82(4)(b) can be read and given effect so as to be compatible with art 6. First, the statute does not expressly accord or deny to a worker an opportunity to make representations at the provisional listing stage: it is silent on the subject. Secondly, to accord an opportunity to make representations in the qualified way that I have suggested respects the intention of Parliament that vulnerable adults should be protected from harm at the hands of dangerous care workers. Thirdly, the use of s 3 for this purpose does not produce a result which departs substantially from a fundamental feature of the 2000 Act, such that it could fairly be characterised as amendment rather than interpretation. It does not go against the grain of the statute.
[114] I would, therefore, interpret s 82(4)(b) as requiring the Secretary of State to give workers the right to make representations before he makes a decision under para (b) unless he reasonably considers that the resultant delay would place a vulnerable adult at risk of harm.
ARTICLE 8
[115] In view of the conclusions that I have reached in relation to art 6, I do not find it necessary to deal with the art 8 issues.
THE RETROSPECTIVITY ISSUE
[116] I agree with May LJ that the judge reached the right conclusion on this issue.
CONCLUSION
[117] For the reasons that I have given, I would allow the appeal to the extent of quashing the declaration of incompatibility. I would grant a declaration as to the true interpretation of s 82(4)(b) of the 2000 Act which reflects the terms of this judgment. I would invite counsel to attempt to agree the wording of the declaration.
JACOB LJ.
[118] I was going to write my own judgment, but the more I read Dyson LJ’s judgment in draft, the more I found that I completely agreed with it. I see no point in saying the same thing in words which probably would have less clarity.
Appeal allowed in part. Appeal on respondents’ notice dismissed.
Jade Campbell Barrister
Welsh v Stokes and another
[2008] 1 All ER 921
[2007] EWCA Civ 796
Categories: ANIMALS
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): DYSON, THOMAS AND RICHARDS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 20 JUNE, 27 JULY 2007
Animal – Animal not belonging to dangerous species – Strict liability for damage due to characteristics not normally found in same species except at particular times or in particular circumstances – Meaning of ‘normally’ – Whether conforming to type – Proof of keeper’s knowledge of animal’s characteristic – Animals Act 1971, s 2(2)(b).
The defendants were experienced in keeping horses and the claimant was a 17-year-old trainee at their yard. She was riding a ‘sensible’ horse with no history of misbehaviour or vice. The horse reared at a crossroads, the claimant fell off the horse, and the horse fell backwards onto her. She suffered a serious head injury. Under s 2(2)a of the Animals Act 1971, where damage was caused by an animal which did not belong to a dangerous species, a keeper of the animal was liable for the damage if (a) the damage was of a kind which the animal was likely to cause or which, if caused by the animal, was likely to be severe, and (b) the likelihood of the damage or of its being severe was due to characteristics of the animal which were not normally found in animals of the same species or were not normally so found except at particular times or in particular circumstances, and (c) those characteristics were known to that keeper. The claimant brought proceedings for damages on the ground that the defendants were strictly liable to her under s 2(2) of the 1971 Act. The judge found, in relation to the first limb of s 2(2)(a), that the damage had not been of a kind which the horse had been likely to cause as it was a docile animal and the defendants had no reason to believe it would rear in the way that it had, but that the second limb was satisfied in that personal injury arising from an accident where a horse reared and its rider fell onto a tarmac road was likely to be severe, the more so where the horse fell backward onto the rider. He found, in relation to sub-s (2)(b) that rearing up was not a normal characteristic for the horse because the meaning of characteristic suggested that that was behaviour which occurred regularly or repetitively, but that the horse was capable of rearing up at particular times and particular circumstances when he did not want to go forward and was ridden by a rider who was unable to handle him and give him confidence in the situation (the particular circumstances). In relation to sub-s (2)(c) the judge found that the defendants, as experienced keepers of horses, would have known that the horse, like any horse of his kind, was capable of rearing in certain situations if not handled properly. He therefore held that strict liability under s 2(2) was established. The defendants appealed, contending, inter alia, (i) that the judge had found that the likelihood of severe damage was due to the rider falling on a tarmac road or the horse falling on her, and that those were not characteristics of the horse within the meaning of s 2(2)(b) of the 1971 Act; (ii) that the judge had adopted the wrong approach to s 2(2)(b) because he had considered whether rearing was behaviour of which the horse was capable, rather than whether it was a characteristic normally found in particular circumstances; and (iii) that his decision in relation to s 2(2)(c) had been
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wrong because he had considered whether the defendants knew that horses in general had the characteristics he found in the horse rather than whether they knew that the horse had those characteristics.
Held – (1) The link between the likelihood of severe damage and the characteristic found by the judge was obvious; if a horse reared in the particular circumstances and the rider fell from the horse she was likely to suffer severe damage. Once the judge had found that the damage caused was likely to be severe and that the horse had the characteristic of rearing, it was inevitable that he would find that the likelihood of the damage being severe was due to that characteristic (see [40], [76], [77], below).
(2) The core meaning of ‘normal’ was ‘conforming to type’. If a characteristic of an animal was usual, then it would certainly be normal. The best evidence that a characteristic conformed to the type of animals of a species was that the characteristic was usually found in those animals. There was nothing in the context of s 2(2)(b) to suggest that Parliament had not intended ‘normally’ to bear that core meaning. It was difficult to see why Parliament should have intended to exclude from the ambit of s 2(2)(b) cases where the relevant characteristic was natural, although unusual, in the animal which had caused the damage. In the instant case, there had been ample evidence to support the judge’s finding that it was a normal characteristic of the horse to rear up in the particular circumstances (because it was natural for horses to do so from time to time) although it was not normal for the horse generally to rear up (see [46], [47], [58]–[61], [76], [77], below); Mirvahedy v Henley [2003] 2 All ER 401 considered.
(3) A keeper’s knowledge that a horse had the characteristic of normally behaving in a certain way in particular circumstances could be established by showing that the keeper knew that horses as a species normally behaved in that way in those circumstances. In the instant case, therefore, the judge had been entitled to find on the evidence that the defendants had had the requisite knowledge under s 2(2)(c). Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [70], [71], [75]–[77], below); Mirvahedy v Henley [2003] 2 All ER 401 considered.
Notes
For injuries caused by animals, see 2(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 619, 620.
For the Animals Act 1971, s 2, see 2 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2007 reissue) 303.
Cases referred to in judgments
Breeden v Lampard (21 March 1985, unreported), CA.
Cummings v Grainger [1977] 1 All ER 104, sub nom Cummings v Granger [1977] QB 397, [1976] 3 WLR 842, CA.
Ferdinand Retzlaff, The [1972] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 120.
Mirvahedy v Henley [2003] UKHL 16, [2003] 2 All ER 401, [2003] 2 AC 491, [2003] 2 WLR 882.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
Polanski v Condé Nast Publications Ltd [2005] UKHL 10, [2005] 1 All ER 945, [2005] 1 WLR 637.
Shell Co of Australia Ltd v Nat Shipping Bagging Services Ltd, The Kilmun [1988] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 1, CA.
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Appeal
The defendants, MJ Stokes and GJ Stokes, appealed with permission of Rix LJ from the decision of Judge Tyzack QC in the Plymouth County Court on 19 October 2006 in proceedings brought by the claimant, Aimee Welsh, against the defendants, that the defendants were strictly liable to her pursuant to s 2(2) of the Animals Act 1971. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dyson LJ.
Richard Stead (instructed by Lyons Davidson) for the defendants.
Susan Rodway QC (instructed by Beachcroft LLP) for the claimant.
Judgment was reserved.
27 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
DYSON LJ.
OUTLINE OF THE CASE
[1] On 31 July 2001, the claimant was riding a nine-year-old horse called Ivor on a road near Sticker in Cornwall. She was 17 years of age at the time. She fell off the horse and suffered a serious head injury. She has no memory of the accident. She had been working as a trainee at the defendants’ yard since October 2000. The judge found that, although there were some doubts as to her riding abilities, she was competent to ride a ‘sensible’ horse on her own. Ivor was a ‘sensible’ horse with no history of misbehaviour or vice of any kind. The accident occurred at a crossroads. There were two motorists in the vicinity at the time. Mr Wragg, who gave evidence, was one. The other was an unidentified man, who failed to remain at the scene or leave his name and address. Mr Wragg (and his wife who was travelling with him) did not see the accident. But he said that the other motorist had told him that he had seen the accident. In his second statement, Mr Wragg said that the other man had said that ‘the horse had reared up, then the girl had fallen off and the horse had fallen onto her’.
[2] The claimant issued these proceedings alleging that the accident was caused by the negligence of the defendants. Further and alternatively, she alleged that the defendants were strictly liable to her pursuant to s 2(2) of the Animals Act 1971.
[3] There was a trial on the issues of liability. In a judgment given on 19 October 2006, Judge Tyzack QC dismissed the claim in negligence. But he found that strict liability was established under s 2(2) of the 1971 Act. An essential element of his reasoning was his decision under the Civil Evidence Act 1995 to give weight to, and accept the reliability of, the hearsay evidence given by Mr Wragg. Without that evidence, the claimant could not have proved how the accident had occurred and the judge would have been bound to dismiss the claim.
[4] The defendants appeal with the permission of Rix LJ. There are two principal issues. The first is whether the judge was right to give weight to the hearsay evidence. The second is whether the judge correctly applied s 2(2) of the 1971 Act.
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THE HEARSAY EVIDENCE ISSUE
The 1995 Act
[5] So far as material, the 1995 Act provides:
‘1. Admissibility of hearsay evidence.—(1) In civil proceedings evidence shall not be excluded on the ground that it is hearsay.
(2) In this Act—(a) “hearsay” means a statement made otherwise than by a person while giving oral evidence in the proceedings which is tendered as evidence of the matters stated; and (b) references to hearsay include hearsay of whatever degree.
(3) Nothing in this Act affects the admissibility of evidence admissible apart from this section.
(4) The provisions of sections 2 to 6 (safeguards and supplementary provisions relating to hearsay evidence) do not apply in relation to hearsay evidence admissible apart from this section, notwithstanding that it may also be admissible by virtue of this section . . .
Safeguards in relation to hearsay evidence . . .
4. Considerations relevant to weighing of hearsay evidence.—(1) In estimating the weight (if any) to be given to hearsay evidence in civil proceedings the court shall have regard to any circumstances from which any inference can reasonably be drawn as to the reliability or otherwise of the evidence.
(2) Regard may be had, in particular, to the following—(a) whether it would have been reasonable and practicable for the party by whom the evidence was adduced to have produced the maker of the original statement as a witness; (b) whether the original statement was made contemporaneously with the occurrence or existence of the matters stated; (c) whether the evidence involves multiple hearsay; (d) whether any person involved had any motive to conceal or misrepresent matters; (e) whether the original statement was an edited account, or was made in collaboration with another or for a particular purpose; (f) whether the circumstances in which the evidence is adduced as hearsay are such as to suggest an attempt to prevent proper evaluation of its weight.’
The judgment
[6] The judge said (para 34) that the hearsay evidence had led to the ‘greatest difficulty in this case’. One of the difficulties was that there were differences between Mr Wragg’s first and second statements. In his first statement, he said that the unidentified man had said: ‘Apparently, the horse had stepped backwards and then the young girl had fallen off and the horse had fallen onto her.' The claimant’s solicitors asked for amplification of this statement. One of the questions asked was: ‘What exactly the untraced driver said to you about the circumstances of the accident. Did he say that the horse reared, or did he say that it stepped back?' In response, Mr Wragg said in his second statement: ‘Apparently the horse had reared up and then the young girl had fallen off and the horse had fallen onto her.’
[7] At para 36 of his judgment, the judge referred to the ‘obvious danger and concern’ that the questions had influenced Mr Wragg or led him to change his statement. But in his oral evidence Mr Wragg was ‘adamant that he was told that
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the horse was being encouraged to go forward, it did not want to, and so it reared and fell back with the claimant’.
[8] At para 42, the judge turned to the provisions of s 4(2) of the 1995 Act and considered each of paras (a)–(f) in turn. He found that it would not have been reasonable or practicable for the claimant to have produced the unidentified maker of the original statement (para (a)). The original statement was made reasonably contemporaneously with what had happened (para (b)). Mr Wragg’s evidence did not involve multiple hearsay (para (c)). There was no evidence that any of the circumstances stated in paras (d), (e) or (f) applied.
[9] The judge said that he had to consider all the facts and determine whether any inferences could reasonably be drawn from them. In deciding which version of the hearsay evidence to accept, the judge also had regard to the evidence of the claimant’s father (see paras 46, 47). Mr Welsh said in his statement that he had spoken to Mr Wragg a few weeks or months after the accident and that Mr Wragg had told him that the unidentified man had said: ‘the horse stepped back—went backwards. The horse reared and the girl fell off. The horse fell backwards onto her.' As the judge said, this was secondhand hearsay. But it was consistent with the account given by Mr Wragg in his second statement.
[10] There was expert evidence on the question of whether Ivor was likely to ‘rear’. At para 36 of his judgment, the judge said:
‘Mr Meade [the claimant’s expert] said that, for a horse like Ivor, rearing would not be an option and, moreover, it would be unlikely to happen on one isolated occasion. A horse that naps and rears would be likely to manifest those vices or manifestations of bad behaviour on other occasions, and here there is no such evidence. He was prepared to consider a half rear, which was more credible, but even this, he said, was unlikely. Mr Mackie [the defendants’ expert], on the other hand, thought that the description being given of the horse being encouraged to go forward, refusing or napping and then rearing, causing the claimant to fall, pulling the horse down with her, was a credible account and could explain how the claimant became injured. Furthermore, in his written answers, Mr Mackie said this (at p 125). He was asked the question:
“Is it a normal characteristic for horses in particular circumstances, namely when spooked by something in front of them, or when agitated or frightened by something in front of them to nap and rear?
Answer: In my view rearing comes within the parameters of normal equine behaviour in certain circumstances. However, many experts will say it can just as well be said it is abnormal behaviour except in certain circumstances. It is not the usual reaction of all horses to rear when spooked by something in front of them, or when agitated or frightened by something in front of them because a horse will usually baulk or nap and if not ridden correctly, attempt to turn and run from the perceived threat rather than to rear.”’
[11] The judge set out his conclusions of fact at para 48:
‘Applying my mind to these principles, what inferences can properly be drawn from all the evidence I have heard? I find as follows:
1. The claimant was a reasonably proficient rider at the time of her accident, but there were some deficiencies in her ability, as the assessment report of 16 June 2001 demonstrates. Also when she fell off Tabitha Twitch
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the impression I have is that she panicked, which perhaps explains why she fell. And the fact that she was referred on 16 June in the Duchy College assessment must also indicate that there were still question marks over her riding competence. In her particulars of claim she paints a picture of her ability which I find to be too pessimistic, but it is, I find, significant that she does paint that picture.
2. I find that the defendants knew that there were question marks over her competence.
3. She was riding a sensible, nine-year-old horse with no history of misbehaviour or vice of any kind.
4. Ivor had been ridden along the route in question on two previous occasions, but this was the first time for the claimant.
5. The claimant came off Ivor at a crossroads, landing on the Sticker-bound carriageway, sustaining serious injuries.
6. Ivor remained at the scene, standing near the injured claimant for a significant time until approached by Mr Wragg, whereupon he left at quite a speed and found his way back to the defendants’ yard. I find that he probably stayed where he was because he was no longer being urged to go forward. However, when he was approached by a person unfamiliar with catching a loose horse, he did what I find was completely normal behaviour, namely made off at a fast pace.
7. On a balance of probabilities, Mr Wragg was told by the unidentified motorist something like this: that he had seen the accident happen and the rider was trying to get the horse to go forward, but it stepped back and went backwards, it then reared up and the claimant fell off. The horse fell backwards onto her.
8. Avoiding speculation and surmise, as I must, the most likely and credible inference is that Ivor encountered a situation in which, for some reason, he did not want to go forward. I do not infer that he necessarily spooked, but rather that he napped.
9. I find that the rearing was due to a combination of Ivor being unwilling to go forward plus the claimant’s inabilities as a rider to handle this situation. Mrs Stokes fairly conceded that she had not specifically taught the claimant how to deal with a rear, because it would be too dangerous to get a horse deliberately to rear up. This I quite understand. But the fact remains that the claimant was likely to be inexperienced in that respect and that this was known to the defendants. Precisely what caused Ivor to nap is impossible to know and it would be quite wrong to speculate about it as all sorts of possible reasons could be put forward.’
[12] It can be seen, therefore, that the judge gave weight to the hearsay evidence. It was the essential basis for his crucial finding that the claimant fell from Ivor when the horse reared because it was unwilling, for some reason, to go forward and the claimant was unable to handle the situation.
The claimant’s submissions on the hearsay point
[13] Miss Rodway QC submits that the claimant’s case depended entirely on the reported statements of an unidentified witness. She (correctly) concedes that the hearsay evidence was admissible. But she submits that, as a matter of law, the uncorroborated and untested hearsay evidence of the unknown motorist carried insufficient weight to allow a court to make specific findings of fact based upon
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it. The general rule is that any fact that needs to be proved by the evidence of a witness should be proved by oral evidence (see CPR 32.2(1)(a)).
[14] The ‘tick-box’ approach to s 4(2) of the 1995 Act adopted by the judge should not have automatically led to the hearsay evidence being accorded sufficient weight to decide the central issues of fact in the case. The claimant was unable to test the evidence. She was unable to explore issues such as how good a view the unidentified motorist had of the accident, precisely what he saw, whether he saw only part of the incident, whether his eye was drawn to the accident before, during or after the accident, whether he was telling the truth and whether he was involved in the accident in some way.
[15] The judge was in error in failing to consider the credibility and reliability of the unknown motorist. He appears simply to have taken his account at face value because it was ‘credible’. Miss Rodway criticises the judge for placing any weight on the evidence of Mr Mackie that the account given by the unknown motorist was ‘credible’. She submits that the opinion of Mr Mackie was based on the assumption that the unknown motorist did in fact see what Mr Wragg reported. She relies on the following exchange in the course of her cross-examination of Mr Mackie:
‘Q. We have to have a basis where we can rely upon the accuracy of what the unknown motorist said before you can come to your conclusions as to the cause of the accident?
A. Yes, for sure.
Q. Because anything could have happened to cause the Claimant to fall. She could have simply lost an iron and tipped off herself, could she not?
A. Certainly. I am basing this on Mr. Wragg’s second statement where the motorist said the horse reared.
Q. We do not know and you do not know and Mr. Wragg was fair enough to say we have no way of knowing whether the motorist is telling the truth or not?
A. Sure.
Q. And we have no way of testing what the motorist actually saw?
A. There is no way at all, except that it is consistent in my view.
Q. If Aimee was lying on the ground beside a horse in the middle of the road, that is in itself consistent with her falling for any number of other reasons, is it not, you would agree?
A. Yes.’
[16] In her skeleton argument, Miss Rodway refers to a number of authorities to support her submission that hearsay evidence should not be relied on to prove the central issues in a case unless supported by other evidence, although in her oral submissions she showed less enthusiasm for them. In The Ferdinand Retzlaff [1972] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 120, the plaintiff shipowners claimed damages for detention following a collision with the defendants’ ship. There was an issue as to how long the ship repairs would have taken if they had been done at Bremen. The defendants adduced evidence on this point in the form of an exchange of letters. In considering what weight to give to the letters under s 6(3) of the Civil Evidence Act 1968, Brandon J identified a number of circumstances to which he had regard. Apart from these matters, he said (at 127) that it was necessary to take account of the fact that the evidence was unsworn and could not be tested by cross-examination. This was particularly important where the evidence related
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to hypothetical rather than actual facts. He then made this general observation on which Miss Rodway relies:
‘My view is quite simply that matters of this importance, in a case of this kind, should be proved by oral evidence, and that letters obtained at the time and in the way that these were obtained should have little weight attached to them. I cannot think that the Civil Evidence Act, 1968, was intended, in general, to change the long-established system by which seriously disputed central issues in civil cases are tried on oral evidence, given on oath and capable of being tested by cross-examination, and to substitute for it a system of trial on unsworn documents brought into existence by parties to the proceeding post litem mortam, and I do not think the Act should be used, or rather abused, so as to produce such a result.’
[17] In Shell Co of Australia Ltd v Nat Shipping Bagging Services Ltd, The Kilmun [1988] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 1, Leggatt J said (at 6) that, although giving evidence by way of statements under the 1968 Act was convenient, ‘it is obvious that it is not a satisfactory way of resolving disputed issues of fact’.
[18] In Polanski v Condé Nast Publications Ltd [2005] UKHL 10, [2005] 1 All ER 945, [2005] 1 WLR 637, Baroness Hale of Richmond said (at [78]):
‘. . . It might be grossly unjust to the other party, even contrary to his right to a fair trial under art 6 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998), to decide a claim principally on the untested evidence of a party who has not been subject to cross-examination of any sort . . .’
Conclusion on the hearsay evidence issue
[19] I would dismiss this ground of appeal substantially for the reasons given by Mr Stead. The judge directed himself properly in his consideration of the weight to be accorded to the hearsay evidence. He had regard to each of the factors in s 4(2) of the 1995 Act. He was entitled to do so and Miss Rodway does not criticise his assessment of the factors. His approach to s 4(2) did not ‘automatically’ lead him to giving the hearsay evidence critical weight. He satisfied himself that Mr Wragg’s second statement gave an accurate account of what had been said by the unidentified motorist. He carefully considered whether the second statement had been influenced by the solicitors’ questions and concluded for rational reasons that it had not been. He was able to assess Mr Wragg as a witness and also took into account the evidence of Mr Welsh which was consistent with Mr Wragg’s second statement.
[20] The judge was plainly alive to the difficulty of assessing the reliability of the account given by the unidentified witness. But he did have expert evidence to the effect that the account was ‘credible’. I take ‘credible’ to mean ‘plausible’. That was important evidence which the judge was entitled to take into account in deciding to give weight to the evidence. I accept that the defendants were unable to explore the reliability of the account or to raise issues of the kind that Miss Rodway would have wished to canvass in cross-examination. But there was no doubt that the claimant fell off Ivor and as a result sustained a head injury. In these circumstances, there was a limited number of plausible explanations for the accident. Miss Rodway suggested to Mr Mackie in cross-examination that the claimant might simply have lost an iron and tipped off herself. Another
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possibility was that the horse could have reared causing her to fall off as the judge found. No doubt there are other possibilities too, but Miss Rodway did not suggest any in the course of argument. In these circumstances, the expert evidence that the account attributed by Mr Wragg to the unidentified witness was ‘credible’ assumed particular significance. I do not accept that the opinion of Mr Mackie that the account given by the unknown motorist was credible was in any way dependent on the truth of that account. All that Mr Mackie was saying was that the account given by the motorist provided a plausible explanation of how the claimant came to be injured.
[21] In my judgment, therefore, the judge was entitled to infer that the hearsay evidence was reliable and conclude that he should give it weight. He reached a conclusion that was reasonable and well within the ambit of conclusions that were reasonable for a court to reach.
[22] Even if the hearsay evidence were the only evidence on which the claim was based, I would not accept that this was necessarily a reason for giving it no weight. It would depend on all the circumstances. I accept that there will be cases where it is so unfair to hold a defendant liable solely on the basis of hearsay evidence that a court should place little or no weight on the evidence. Consideration of the factors stated in s 4(2) will point the way, but will not necessarily be determinative. In some cases the defendant may be able to adduce evidence to contradict, or at least cast doubt on, the hearsay evidence. But there will also be cases, like the present, where the defendant is not in that position. Apart from the unidentified motorist and the claimant, there were no witnesses to the accident. In such a case, there may be said to be unfairness to the defendant in having to face hearsay evidence which he cannot directly challenge. On the other hand, there would be unfairness to the claimant to place no weight on the hearsay evidence, since without it her claim would inevitably fail.
[23] The decision what weight (if any) to give to hearsay evidence involves an exercise of judgment. The court has to reach a conclusion as to its reliability as best it can on all the available material. Where a case depends entirely on hearsay evidence, the court will be particularly careful before concluding that it can be given any weight. But there is no rule of law which prohibits a court from giving weight to hearsay evidence merely because it is uncorroborated and cannot be tested or contradicted by the opposing party. I do not consider that the statements in the authorities relied on by Miss Rodway in her skeleton argument support such an extreme proposition.
[24] In The Ferdinand Retzlaff [1972] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 120, before making the general comment relied on by Miss Rodway referred to at [16], above, Brandon J had given (at 126–127) four reasons (specific to the facts of that case) to which regard should be had in judging the weight to be attached to the statements in the letters. He also said that it was particularly important that the unsworn and untestable evidence related to hypothetical rather than actual facts. Nor was there any reason to suppose in that case that the makers of the statements could not have been called to give oral evidence. That is the context in which the observations made by Brandon J fall to be considered. It is important to note that they were general observations: viz ‘I cannot think that the Civil Evidence Act, 1968, was intended, in general, to change the long-established system . . .' It is clear from the passage that he thought that the Act was being ‘abused’ by the defendants in that case.
[25] I do not consider that the brief statement of Leggatt J in The Kilmun provides any support for the broad statement of principle for which Miss Rodway
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contends. The same may be said of the passage in opinion of Baroness Hale in Polanski v Condé Nast Publications Ltd [2005] 1 All ER 945, [2005] 1 WLR 637. Baroness Hale was not considering a case where the maker of the statement cannot be subjected to cross-examination, nor was she addressing the question of how the court should estimate the weight to be given to hearsay evidence under s 4 of the 1995 Act. She referred (at [74]) to the 1995 Act and said that the principal safeguard to the opposing party who is unable to cross-examine the witness is the weight to be given to a statement which has not been tested by cross-examination: ‘. . . The court is to be trusted to give the statement such weight as it is worth in all the circumstances of the case.’
[26] For these reasons, I would dismiss the appeal in so far as it is based on the hearsay point.
THE 1971 ACT ISSUE
Section 2 of the 1971 Act
[27] So far as material, s 2 provides:
‘2. Liability for damage done by dangerous animals.—(1) Where any damage is caused by an animal which belongs to a dangerous species, any person who is a keeper of the animal is liable for the damage, except as otherwise provided by this Act.
(2) Where damage is caused by an animal which does not belong to a dangerous species, a keeper of the animal is liable for the damage, except as otherwise provided by this Act, if—(a) the damage is of a kind which the animal, unless restrained, was likely to cause or which, if caused by the animal, was likely to be severe; and (b) the likelihood of the damage or of its being severe was due to characteristics of the animal which are not normally found in animals of the same species or are not normally so found except at particular times or in particular circumstances; and (c) those characteristics were known to that keeper or were at any time known to a person who at that time had charge of the animal as that keeper’s servant or, where that keeper is the head of a household, were known to another keeper of the animal who is a member of that household and under the age of sixteen.’
The judgment
[28] The judge correctly directed himself that all three conditions in s 2(2) had to be proved before strict liability could be established. As regards the first limb of sub-s (2)(a), he found (at para 51) that the damage was not of a kind which, unless restrained, Ivor was likely to cause. Ivor was a docile animal and the defendants had no reason to believe that he would rear up in the way that he did.
[29] As regards the second limb of sub-s (2)(a), he said (at para 52):
‘The starting point here is the accident itself. In other words, Ivor rearing up and causing the claimant to fall off onto the road. In my judgment, this requirement is satisfied here, because personal injury arising from such an accident is likely to be severe. Anyone falling off a horse that has reared up and falling onto a tarmac road is likely, in my judgment, to suffer severe injury; still more so is this likely to be the case, in my judgment, if the horse falls backwards onto the rider. Thus, I find the second part of requirement (a) is satisfied.’
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[30] In relation to sub-s (2)(b), the judge said (at para 53) that the likelihood of the damage being severe was ‘possibly’ due to characteristics of Ivor which were not normally found in other horses, because horses do not normally rear up and fall on their riders. He continued:
‘But rearing up in the way I find Ivor did was not a normal characteristic for him because the meaning of “characteristic” suggests that this is behaviour which occurs regularly or repetitively, and this was not the case. However, I do find that Ivor was capable of rearing up at particular times or in particular circumstances when, as happened here, he did not want to go forward and, in addition, he had a rider on board like the claimant who was unable to handle him and give him confidence in that situation.’
[31] At para 54 he said:
‘It is at this point that I prefer the evidence of Mr Mackie to Mr Meade. However good a horse is, no owner or keeper can ever rule out that in a particular situation he will not go forward. An experienced rider will know how to deal with this and may be able to surmount the problem, especially with a horse which is usually sensible. But a rider who is not experienced with that situation and who has shown in the past a tendency to panic or become frightened, as had the claimant, can easily get into difficulty. Mr Mackie found that the hearsay evidence of the unidentified motorist a credible account in the sense that it was a situation that was consistent with all the facts presented to him. I accept his evidence on this. Accordingly, I find the second part of (b) met.’
[32] As regards sub-s (2)(c), the judge said (at para 55) that the ‘characteristics’ that were to be known to ‘that keeper’ were the characteristics proved in (b), namely that Ivor does not normally rear save in particular circumstances. The judge continued:
‘What did the defendants know? They certainly knew, as I have found, that there were concerns over the claimant’s riding skills, and in my judgment they did know that, if she was faced with a situation where skills beyond her competence were required, she could find herself in difficulty, as she had in the past. They knew that the recent assessment had not totally allayed these concerns. Moreover, I find that once (b) is met on the basis I find, it must follow logically that (c) is also met.
56. I have come to the conclusion that the defendants, as experienced keepers of horses, would have known that Ivor, like any horse of his kind, was capable of rearing in certain situations if not handled properly. I accept Mr Mackie’s evidence about that. Ivor was normally a safe and sensible horse, but in my judgment anyone who has any reasonable experience of horses knows perfectly well that they are unpredictable animals with minds of their own and, however good they usually are, they are quite capable of behaving in an unpredictable way, especially if they are being ridden by someone who lacks the necessary skills to handle a crisis situation. It follows that I find (c) met as well.’
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The issues arising on the 1971 Act
[33] Miss Rodway does not challenge the judge’s finding that the damage was of a kind which, if caused by Ivor, was likely to be severe, ie that the second limb of sub-s (2)(a) was satisfied.
[34] Her challenges to the judge’s conclusions in relation to sub-s (2)(b) have fluctuated and I confess that I have not found them altogether easy to follow. In para 11 of her grounds of appeal, she contended that the judge erred in law in finding that sub-s (2)(b) was satisfied for the reasons set out in para 9 of the grounds. Paragraph 9 stated that the judge’s findings ‘of the circumstances of the accident were inconsistent with his other findings in the case and the weight of the evidence’. Particulars of these other findings were then given. In short, they were the judge’s findings that Ivor had never previously ‘misbehaved’. Yet at paras 3 and 4 of her skeleton argument for the appeal dated 4 December 2006, Miss Rodway said that the issues arising under the 1971 Act were ‘concerned with the correct approach to the interpretation of sections 2(2)(a) and 2(2)(c) of the Act upon which there is little direct authority’: there is no reference to sub-s (2)(b) here. But she said (para 39) that she would seek to persuade the court that the judge was wrong to find that sub-s (2)(b) was satisfied because he did not have sufficiently cogent evidence before him to make such a finding.
[35] In the course of her oral argument, she submitted that the judge’s decision in relation to sub-s (2)(b) was flawed because he did not direct himself correctly as to the causal link between the kind of damage that Ivor was likely to cause (sub-s (2)(a)) and the characteristics found in sub-s (2)(b). Save in this limited respect, she made no complaint that the judge had misdirected himself as to the meaning of sub-s (2)(b).
[36] During the course of Mr Stead’s submissions, the question was raised by the court as to whether ‘normally’ in sub-s (2)(b) means ‘usually’ or ‘naturally’. We invited counsel to make written submissions on this one point and we received these after the completion of the oral argument. In her written submissions, Miss Rodway argued for the first time that the judge had adopted the wrong approach to sub-s (2)(b) because, instead of considering whether rearing was a characteristic normally found in horses in particular circumstances, he considered whether rearing was behaviour of which Ivor was ‘capable’.
[37] It is unsatisfactory that the appellant’s case on sub-s (2)(b) should have developed in this way. Nevertheless, since Mr Stead has been able to respond to all of Miss Rodway’s arguments, I shall attempt to deal with all of them in this judgment.
[38] Miss Rodway also submits that the judge’s decision in relation to s 2(2)(c) was wrong because he considered whether the defendants knew that horses in general had the characteristics he found in Ivor rather than whether they knew that Ivor had those characteristics.
Section 2(2)(b): the link argument
[39] The relevant particular circumstances for the purposes of the second limb of sub-s (2)(b) are that, for some reason, the horse did not want to go forward and had a rider on board who was unable to handle him and give him confidence in the situation (see para 53). I shall refer to these as ‘the particular circumstances’. As I understand her argument, Miss Rodway submits that the judge found that the likelihood of severe damage was due to the rider falling on a tarmac road or the horse falling on her and that these are not characteristics of the horse within the meaning of sub-s (2)(b).
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[40] The basis for this submission is the penultimate sentence of para 52 (see [29], above). But in that sentence the judge was considering the likelihood of severe damage by reference to the specific facts of this case, ie as a result of Ivor rearing and causing the claimant to fall on a tarmac road and the horse falling on her. In my view, the link between the likelihood of severe damage and the characteristic found by the judge was obvious. If a horse rears in the particular circumstances and the rider falls from the horse, she is likely to suffer severe damage. That may be because she falls on a hard surface (which need not be a tarmac road) or because the horse falls on her or in some other way. I do not understand Miss Rodway to challenge this. It seems to me that, once the judge found that the damage that was caused was likely to be severe and that Ivor had the characteristic of rearing, it was inevitable that he would find that the likelihood of the damage being severe was due to that characteristic. I would, therefore, reject this criticism of the judgment.
Section 2(2)(b): the meaning of ‘normally’
[41] The meaning of s 2(2)(b) has been authoritatively explained by the House of Lords in Mirvahedy v Henley [2003] UKHL 16, [2003] 2 All ER 401, [2003] 2 AC 491. The claimant suffered injury when the car he was driving collided with the defendants’ horse which had panicked and escaped with others from its field. It was not clear what had frightened the horses. The House held by a majority of three to two that the defendants were liable under s 2(2). To bolt was a characteristic of horses which was normal ‘in the particular circumstances’, these being some sort of fright or other external stimulus. The main issue concerned the true meaning of the second limb of sub-s (2)(b). The majority adopted that favoured by the Court of Appeal in Cummings v Grainger [1977] 1 All ER 104, sub nom Cummings v Granger [1977] QB 397. Thus the fact that an animal’s behaviour, although not normal behaviour generally for animals of the species, is nevertheless normal behaviour for the species in the particular circumstances does not take the case outside s 2(2)(b).
[42] Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead noted of the Cummings v Grainger interpretation that:
‘. . . it is not easy to conceive of circumstances where dangerous behaviour which is characteristic of a species will not satisfy requirement (b). A normal but dangerous characteristic of a species will usually be identifiable by reference to particular times or particular circumstances. Thus the Cummings interpretation means that requirement (b) will be met in most cases where damage was caused by dangerous behaviour as described in requirement (a). Requirement (b) will be satisfied whenever the animal’s conduct was not characteristic of the species in the particular circumstances. Requirement (b) will also be satisfied when the animal’s behaviour was characteristic of the species in those circumstances.’ (See [2003] 2 All ER 401 at [43].)
[43] The question of what is meant by ‘normally’ was not in issue in Mirvahedy v Henley (or any other case that has been cited to us). There are passages in the opinions of their Lordships which, it might be said, suggest that they considered that ‘normally’ means ‘usually’, rather than ‘conforming to type’ or ‘naturally’. The clearest is at para [3], where Lord Nicholls said that the behaviour of the horse in that case was ‘usual in horses when sufficiently alarmed by a threat’. He also said (at [23]) that the horse ‘was not behaving differently from the way any
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normal horse would have behaved in the circumstances’ (my emphasis). But since the meaning of the word ‘normally’ was not in issue, these statements do not provide a secure basis for deciding precisely what it means. In any event, it is plain that, if it is usual for horses to bolt when sufficiently alarmed, it is also natural and conforming to type for horses to bolt in such circumstances. But it does not necessarily follow that, if it is unusual for horses to bolt when sufficiently alarmed, it is abnormal for them to bolt in such circumstances.
[44] The Oxford English Dictionary provides a definition of ‘normal’ as being ‘according to or squaring with a norm; constituting, conforming to, not deviating from a type or standard; regular, usual 1828’. A ‘norm’ is defined as a ‘rule or authoritative standard’. ‘Abnormal’ is defined as ‘Deviating from the . . . type; contrary to rule or system . . . unusual [1835 . . .]’. Depending on the context, therefore, ‘normal’ can mean ‘conforming to a type’ or ‘usual’. The latter meaning connotes a greater degree of regularity or frequency of occurrence than the former. But even the former must connote some frequency of occurrence. If a characteristic is rarely found in animals of the same species, it may be difficult to say that the characteristic conforms to the type of animal in question.
[45] In some contexts, it is clear that the word ‘normally’ means ‘usually’. If I say: ‘I normally travel to work on the No 18 bus,’ I am saying that I usually travel to work on that bus. I may occasionally travel to work by different means, but that is an exception to my usual practice. In other contexts, however, the position is different. It is a proper use of language to say ‘horses will most often turn and flee when faced with a frightening stimulus, but it also normal for them to rear in such circumstances’. It is normal for horses to rear when frightened in such circumstances, because it is natural for them to do so, although rearing may be a less usual response than turning and fleeing. Another way of making the same point is to say that it is not abnormal (even if it is unusual) for horses to rear when frightened.
[46] It seems to me that the core meaning of ‘normal’ is ‘conforming to type’. If a characteristic of an animal is usual, then it will certainly be normal. The best evidence that a characteristic conforms to the type of animals of a species is that the characteristic is usually found in those animals.
[47] I can find nothing in the context of sub-s (2)(b) to suggest that Parliament did not intend ‘normally’ to bear this core meaning. It is difficult to see why Parliament should have intended to exclude from the ambit of sub-s (2)(b) cases where the relevant characteristic is natural, although unusual, in the animal which has caused the damage. There is no need for such a narrow interpretation because a claim will not succeed unless the knowledge requirement in sub-s (c) is also satisfied. To adopt the language of Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe in Mirvahedy v Henley [2003] 2 All ER 401 at [157], [2003] 2 AC 491, if s 2(2)(b) is interpreted in this way, there is nothing unjust or unreasonable, as between the keeper (who can decide whether ‘to run the unavoidable risks involved in keeping horses’ and whether or not to insure against those risks) and the victim of the horse’s behaviour, in requiring the keeper to bear the loss.
The judge’s approach to s 2(2)(b)
[48] There was evidence directed to the question of whether, and if so in what circumstances, it was normal for horses to rear. I have already referred to Mr Mackie’s written answer quoted by the judge at para 36 of his judgment that rearing in the particular circumstances comes within the parameters of ‘normal
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equine behaviour’ (see [10], above). In his oral evidence, Mr Mackie said (p 3) that fear generally causes horses to stop:
‘A horse will tend to try to run from any fear. That will be its initial reaction. It is when it cannot run that it is likely to rear . . . If the rider controls the horse, particularly in a slightly overbearing way, not necessarily, but very commonly, the horse cannot go forwards, cannot run round and run away, and so it will rear.’
He said this was ‘very common’. At p 4 the following exchange took place:
‘Q. To what extent is that type of rear we are talking about, not wanting to go forwards, normal or abnormal behaviour for horses?
A. It is within a horse’s normal range of behaviour. One would not say it was normal in that it is a thing a horse does all the time in answer to certain situations, but it is within that range of behaviour and horses will do it sometimes. So you can either say it is normal behaviour in certain circumstances, or it is not normal behaviour except in certain circumstances.
Q. And those circumstances being?
A. Being the things we have talked about—fear, a horse trying to nap, wanting to go forwards and not being allowed to go forwards, coming up in the air.’
[49] At p 7, Mr Mackie said that a three-day test such as that to which Ivor was subjected when first acquired by the defendants would certainly rule out any vices or bad habits, ‘but of course that does not rule out the possibility of the horse behaving unpredictably in a particular circumstance’. At p 16 he said:
‘It is perfectly possible for a horse to react on a single occasion in a single way, and it is dependent on how the rider holds the reins. A horse usually rears in a full rear like that when the rider hangs on with the reins. An experienced rider will know how to lean forward, release the weight and kick the horse to make it go forwards, and it will not do it again probably.’
[50] At p 17, Mr Mackie was asked about the passage in his report where he had stated: ‘Rearing, bucking and kicking are normal behaviour for horses which they do in certain circumstances . . .' He explained that he was saying that ‘rearing is within the range of a horse’s natural behaviour’. A little later, he said:
‘You come to this thing in the Animals Act of whether it is normal behaviour in certain circumstances, or abnormal behaviour except in certain circumstances. I don’t really draw a distinction. I would agree with you that it is not normal behaviour for horses to rear every day.’
[51] Finally, in re-examination, Mr Mackie said that horses can react in a number of ways to different circumstances. They ‘can rear under the sort of circumstances I have already described’.
[52] Mr Stokes was also asked about the circumstances in which horses may rear. He has worked with horses all his life and has run a business dealing in horses for eighteen to twenty years. He accepted (p 10) that horses may rear, although it was not a ‘natural move’. He said that horses do not usually tend to rear at the first sign of something frightening them. ‘They’ll probably just whip away quick.' Or ‘they will step back from what they’re not liking’. In answer to the question whether, ‘if they are pushed on, ridden on at that moment, it is a characteristic of some of them to rear’, Mr Stokes said: ‘I’ve seen some horses
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rear, yes.' He agreed that it is their way of avoiding what is frightening them. He said (at p 20) that he could count on his hand the number of times horses have reared up with him when frightened and not wanting to go forward.
[53] It was on the basis of this evidence that the judge said that Ivor was ‘capable’ of rearing in the particular circumstances. He used the word again in para 56 when dealing with the question of knowledge: like any horse of his kind, Ivor was ‘capable’ of rearing. A little later in the same paragraph, the judge said that horses are ‘unpredictable’ animals which are ‘quite capable of behaving in an unpredictable way, especially if they are being ridden by someone who lacks the necessary skills to handle a crisis situation’.
[54] Miss Rodway criticises the judge in two principal respects. First, she submits that the sole basis for the judge’s conclusion that sub-s (2)(b) was satisfied was that rearing in the particular circumstances was something of which Ivor, like any horse, was ‘capable’: that is not the statutory test. The second limb of the subsection is directed at behaviour which is normally found in animals of the same species in particular circumstances, not behaviour of which animals of the same species are capable in such circumstances.
[55] Secondly, Miss Rodway submits that a conclusion that rearing was behaviour normally found in horses in the particular circumstances was inconsistent with other central findings made by the judge. In particular, the judge found (at para 51) that rearing was not likely or foreseeable and that the defendants had no reason to believe that Ivor would rear up in the way that he did. Furthermore, the judge said (at para 53) that ‘rearing up in the way I find Ivor did was not a normal characteristic for him’.
[56] She also relies on a number of detailed findings by the judge which she submits are inconsistent with a finding that Ivor was capable of rearing in the particular circumstances. Thus, the judge found (at para 12) that the claimant was ‘a sufficiently competent, confident and experienced rider to ride different horses on the roads and lanes near the defendants’ yard, both accompanied and unaccompanied’ and that Mrs Stokes ‘thought the claimant was both a competent and confident rider’. As against that, however, the judge also found in the same paragraph that this—
‘needed to be balanced by the undoubted facts that she did fall off Tabitha Twitch about five months before the accident, largely due to inexperience, and did not pass the assessment on 16 June 2001 in respect of riding a schooled horse.’
[57] Miss Rodway also points to para 14 where the judge described the experiences of Ivor without any sign of a problem before the accident. The judge said (at para 20) that the defendants had sold Ivor on and that they had had ‘good reports and no complaints’ from the purchasers. He said (at para 21) that there had been no evidence that Ivor had ever misbehaved before the accident by rearing or in any other way and there had been no evidence that he had manifested any vices since the accident. The judge said (at para 24) that the experts were agreed that three days of testing ‘was sufficient to discover whether he had any bad habits such as napping, spooking or rearing’ and none had been shown.
[58] I cannot accept any of Miss Rodway’s criticisms of the judgment. As regards her first criticism, it is true that sub-s (2)(b) is not concerned with behaviour of which an animal may be capable. The second limb is concerned with characteristics not normally found in animals of the same species except in
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particular circumstances. But in my view the judge did not apply the wrong test. Paragraph 53 is the critical paragraph (see [30], above). Having said that rearing generally was not a normal characteristic for Ivor because he did not rear regularly or repetitively, the judge said: ‘However, I do find that Ivor was capable of rearing up . . . in [the] particular circumstances . . .' In my view, it is clear in this context that, by saying that Ivor was capable of rearing up in the particular circumstances, the judge meant that it was a normal characteristic of Ivor to rear up in such circumstances (because it was natural for horses to do so from time to time). The word ‘however’ shows that the judge was explaining why, although it was not normal for Ivor generally to rear up, it was normal for him to do so in the particular circumstances.
[59] There was ample evidence to support such a finding. I refer to paras [48]–[52], above. Particularly striking was the evidence of Mr Mackie that it was ‘very common’ for horses to rear if ridden by a person who does not allow the horse to run away from a source of fear but insists on riding forwards, and his reference to rearing in the particular circumstances being within the parameters of ‘normal equine behaviour’. I also refer to his statement that ‘rearing is within the range of a horse’s natural behaviour’.
[60] The answer to the second criticism is that it is nothing to the point that there was no evidence that Ivor had ever reared in this way before. The relevant question is whether rearing was a characteristic normally found in horses as a species in the particular circumstances. It may be that, so far as the evidence went, Ivor had never been exposed to the particular circumstances, so that his response to them had never been tested. The relevant question was not whether Ivor tended to rear generally, but whether he had the characteristic of rearing in the particular circumstances. I do not accept that the judge made inconsistent findings. When he said that Ivor was not likely to rear up and that rearing up was not a normal characteristic ‘for him’, he was saying no more than that Ivor had no track record of rearing. He was not saying that it was not normal for horses as a species to rear up in the particular circumstances.
[61] It is implicit in his reasoning that the judge considered that ‘normally’ means ‘conforming to type’ and not ‘usually’. For the reasons given at [41]–[47], above, in my view he was right to do so. For these reasons, I would reject all of Miss Rodway’s submissions in relation to sub-s (2)(b).
Knowledge of the characteristic
[62] Miss Rodway submits that the judge failed to direct himself correctly as to the need for the claimant to establish that the defendants had specific knowledge that Ivor had the characteristic of rearing in the particular circumstances. The knowledge found by the judge in paras 55 and 56 was knowledge of horses in general. Thus, for example, the judge said: ‘the defendants as experienced keepers of horses would have known that Ivor, like any horse of his kind, was capable of rearing . . .’ (my emphasis).
[63] Miss Rodway submits that what is required is specific knowledge on the part of the keeper of the allegedly dangerous propensity of the specific animal. Knowledge that animals of the species in general have the relevant propensity is insufficient. She relies on the decision of this court in Breeden v Lampard (21 March 1985, unreported). She also seeks to rely on the debates in Parliament when the Animals Bill was being discussed. Finally, she seeks to derive support from Professor North’s The Modern Law of Animals (1972).
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[64] In Breeden v Lampard, the plaintiff had been injured by a horse in a riding accident. The judge found that the defendant’s horse was young but not a ‘kicker’, since it had not kicked before and there was no evidence to suggest that it was anything more than a normal five-year-old horse. The judge held that there was no breach of s 2 of the 1971 Act. The plaintiff appealed. The first judgment was given by Sir George Waller. Although he said that sub-s (2)(c) had no application to the case, it seems clear that he in fact decided the appeal on the basis of that subsection as well as on the basis that sub-s (2)(b) was not satisfied. He said that sub-s (2)(c) required that the characteristics should be known to the defendant and the judge’s finding of knowledge was correct. Lloyd LJ said that the short answer to the claim under s 2(2) was that, even if sub-s (2)(b) was satisfied, the judge accepted the defendant’s evidence that she did not know that the horse possessed the particular characteristic.
[65] It will be seen, therefore, that both Sir George Waller and Lloyd LJ decided that sub-s (2)(c) was not satisfied because the judge was entitled to find on the evidence that the defendant did not have the necessary knowledge. Neither of them considered what the requirement of knowledge entailed. Oliver LJ said that he agreed that the appeal should be dismissed for the reasons given by the other members of the court. At p 11, however, he added the following:
‘In relation to a characteristic which is not infrequently, although not invariably, found in domestic animals of a particular species in particular circumstances, so that the exhibition of that characteristic in those circumstances cannot be said to be abnormal in the species, it is still necessary in my judgment to show that the keeper knew of the existence of that characteristic in the particular animal in those particular circumstances. In my judgment it is not sufficient to say that the behaviour complained of is behaviour which, in the particular circumstances, is sufficiently common to put the keeper on notice that because the animal belongs to the relevant species there is a risk that in the particular circumstances it may prove (there having been no previous knowledge on the part of the keeper that the particular animal is prone so to behave) to be one of those animals which does in those circumstances behave in that way.’
[66] It is significant that Oliver LJ said that it was not sufficient to establish knowledge to show that the relevant behaviour is sufficiently common in the relevant species to put the keeper ‘on notice’ that the particular animal had the characteristic. I make two points about this. First, it is not clear whether Oliver LJ was saying anything more than that constructive knowledge is insufficient: the phrase ‘on notice’ is perhaps significant. Secondly, these observations were obiter, since the judge accepted the defendant’s evidence that she did not know of the particular characteristic. That must have been a reference to her actual knowledge.
[67] It follows that the decision in Breeden v Lampard does not resolve the question at issue.
[68] As regards the debate in Parliament, Miss Rodway drew our attention to a number of passages in Hansard which she submits show that, with regard to non-dangerous animals, the intention of Parliament was that knowledge of a specifically dangerous characteristic in the particular animal was required. A keeper is not, therefore, liable for ‘one-off’ circumstances, but is only liable if he knows of the ‘mischievous propensity’ as distinct from the general possibility that
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the animal may behave in a certain way in particular circumstances. Thus, for example, at the second reading before the House of Lords on 29 October 1970 the Lord Chancellor clarified the intention of the Bill. He said that under the common law—
‘Where you are keeping, for instance, a horse, which is an animal mansuetae naturae . . . you are not responsible unless you know its particular proclivity . . . That is the law as it is, and broadly speaking that is what we intend to continue.’ (See 312 HL Official Report (5th series) cols 842–843.)
When the Bill came before the Second Reading Committee on 27 January 1971, the Attorney General said:
‘It is in Clause 2 and Clause 5 that there are differences from the 1969 Bill. Clause 2 provides that where an animal has mischievous propensities, the keeper is liable only for such damage as is due to such propensities. This was a change because, in the 1969 Bill, a perfectly harmless animal but one which might be capable of doing damage would render the owner liable. For instance, a very large dog might be capable of causing damage—say, knocking over a child—by reason of its very size, or a horse might be capable of causing damage if it were suddenly frightened; obviously it is capable of kicking out and causing damage. Therefore, the change which is made in the Bill is that the keeper shall be liable only for the mischievous propensity of which the owner must know. That is suggested as an improvement on the previous Bill and is welcomed by the promoters of the 1969 Bill.’
[69] I do not consider that sub-s (2)(c) is ambiguous or obscure. Nor does the interpretation adopted by the judge lead to absurdity. I do not, therefore, consider that any of the conditions for recourse to Hansard prescribed by the House of Lords in Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593 is present. But even if I am wrong about that, I do not consider that the statements made in the House of Lords cast light on the question at issue. They do not show that it was intended that knowledge of the relevant characteristic could not be acquired by knowing how animals of the same species normally behave in the particular circumstances. None of the passages relied on by Miss Rodway deals with the question of what knowledge is required or how it may be proved.
[70] It is not in dispute that sub-s (2)(c) requires it to be shown that the keeper knew that the particular animal which caused the damage had the characteristics found to satisfy sub-s (2)(b). The only question is how that knowledge can be proved. Miss Rodway submits that it can only be proved by showing that the keeper knew that the particular animal had previously behaved in that way.
[71] I do not agree. I do not see why a keeper’s knowledge that a horse has the characteristic of normally behaving in a certain way in particular circumstances cannot be established by showing that the keeper knows that horses as a species normally behave in that way in those circumstances. Indeed, Mirvahedy v Henley [2003] 2 All ER 401, [2003] 2 AC 491 shows that sub-s (2)(b) may be satisfied where the characteristic is displayed by the animal in the same particular times or circumstances as by other animals of the same species. It is a general characteristic of horses to bolt in the particular circumstances of the facts of Mirvahedy v Henley or to rear in the particular circumstances of the present case. It makes no sense to require a keeper, if aware of that general characteristic, to have some additional and more particular knowledge.
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[72] As regards Professor North’s book, Miss Rodway cites from pp 58–61. Professor North identifies a number of ways in which he says that the requirement of knowledge may be satisfied. These include proof that the animal has, to the knowledge of the keeper, actually caused this kind of damage before, that the animal has attempted to do the harm in question but, so far, without success, and proof that the keeper knows that the animal has a vicious characteristic even though it has not yet attempted to cause any injury.
[73] But Professor North does not consider the particular issues raised by the second limb of sub-s (2)(b) and, of course, did not have the benefit of the elucidation provided in Mirvahedy v Henley. Nor is there any discussion of the particular issue of whether knowledge of the characteristic found in the particular animal in particular circumstances can be acquired by knowledge that the characteristic is to be found generally in the particular circumstances in animals of the same species.
[74] In my judgment, therefore, the judge was entitled to find on the evidence that the defendants had the knowledge required by sub-s (2)(c).
CONCLUSIONS
[75] For the reasons that I have given, I would dismiss this appeal.
RICHARDS LJ.
[76] I agree.
THOMAS LJ.
[77] I also agree.
Appeal dismissed.
Vanessa Higgins Barrister.
Pitts v Jones
[2008] 1 All ER 941
[2007] EWCA Civ 1301
Categories: COMPANY; Shareholders, Other
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WARD, SMITH AND WILSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 25 OCTOBER, 6 DECEMBER 2007
Indemnity – Guarantee distinguished – Oral promise by majority shareholder to purchase minority shareholdings if not bought by prospective purchaser of majority shareholding – Whether enforceable – Whether indemnity or guarantee – Statute of Frauds (1677), s 4.
The claimants were employees of and minority shareholders in a company (the company) of which the defendant was the managing director and majority shareholder. The company’s articles of association provided for rights of pre-emption. In November 2002 the defendant agreed provisionally that A would buy his shares for £500,000. The defendant told the claimants of his intention to sell his shares and reminded them of their right to pre-emption. He told them that he had negotiated a deal under which A would buy the claimants’ shares at the same price as the defendant’s shares. The claimants agreed to sign waivers of their rights to pre-emption. It transpired that the purchase was to be made in the name of a company, B, and the purchase price of the defendant’s shares was to be paid by instalments from January to April 2003 because A wanted B to borrow the purchase price from the company rather than using his own funds to pay for the shares. Such an arrangement would have been contrary to the Companies Act 1985 unless the appropriate resolutions were carried at an extraordinary general meeting (EGM) of the company. Completion of the sale of the defendant’s shares was scheduled to take place on 7 January 2003. On that day the claimants were summoned unexpectedly and at short notice to a meeting at the company’s offices because it was intended that there should be the necessary EGM that day and as the requisite notice had not been given the claimants would have to agree to the convening of an EGM. The claimants did not then know that their consent to short notice was necessary before an EGM could be convened. The defendant’s solicitor told the claimants that the defendant’s shares were to be purchased by instalments and that the options by which they could require B to purchase their shares could not be exercised until June 2003. He warned them that they would have no security and that, if B became insolvent before their shares had been bought and paid for, the options would be worthless. The claimants were unwilling to sign the option agreements. After discussion the defendant gave an oral undertaking that if B did not pay the claimants for their shares, he would do so. His solicitor advised that if the undertaking were put into writing there would be adverse tax implications for the defendant. Eventually, each claimant signed an option agreement and also signified agreement to the abridgement of the notice period for holding the EGM. The defendant sold his shares. He received part payment of £386,000. The remainder was not paid because of a bad debt to the company. B went into liquidation in December 2003, and the claimants received nothing for their shares. They looked to the defendant pursuant to his undertaking, which he denied having given although he offered to share the money he had received on a pro rata basis. The claimants refused and commenced proceedings against the
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defendant claiming damages for breach of contract. The recorder dismissed their claim, holding that the defendant’s undertaking was not a contractual promise because it was unsupported by consideration, the claimants having given no thought to refusing to sign the abridgments of notice; and that, in any event, the claim would fail because, if there were a contract between the parties, it was a contract of guarantee and unenforceable under s 4a of the Statute of Frauds (1677), since it was not in writing signed by or on behalf of the guarantor. The claimants appealed, submitting, inter alia, that the contract was one of indemnity, not of guarantee, and so fell outside s 4. They argued that the test for deciding whether a contract was a guarantee or an indemnity was whether or not the promisor had had any interest in the transaction, that the relevant transaction was the defendant selling his shares to B (with the concurrence of the claimants who had waived their pre-emption rights) and the claimants taking option agreements in respect of their own shares in respect of which the defendant had promised to pay the purchase price if B failed to pay, and that the defendant was plainly interested in that transaction.
Held – (1) The defendant’s undertaking was supported by consideration and was, therefore, a contractual agreement. The natural inference from the clear chronological link between the defendant’s offer of the undertaking and the claimants’ willingness to sign the option agreement documents and the consents to the abridgement of time was that the two were directly connected; the claimants’ co-operation had been given in return for the defendant’s undertaking, and that was good consideration notwithstanding the fact that the claimants had not consciously realised that by signing the documents they were subjecting themselves to a detriment and were giving consideration for the defendant’s undertaking (see [18], [41], [42], below).
(2) Where the court had to distinguish between an oral contract of guarantee and one of indemnity under the Statute of Frauds it should ask what the object of the contract or transaction was; if the promisor’s obligation to pay had arisen as an incident to the central object of the contract or transaction, that obligation would be an indemnity but if it was the central obligation of the contract or transaction it would be a guarantee. The question to be asked was not whether or not the promisor had had any interest in the transaction because not every interest in the transaction would serve to take the promise out of the statute; there had to be a real interest in the subject matter. If the promisor had no real interest in the subject matter of the contract but only a motive for offering his promise, the promise would be a contract of guarantee. In the instant case, although the transactions which had taken place were linked with each other they were not one transaction and there was no larger contract of which the defendant’s undertaking was a part. His undertaking had been given solely to support the claimants’ share options and the defendant had had no role or interest in those transactions other than that of promising to pay the claimants if B failed to do so. His promise was, therefore, a guarantee within s 4 of the Statute of Frauds. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [24]–[32], [36]–[38],
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[40]–[42], below); Harburg India Rubber Comb Co v Martin [1902] 1 KB 778 applied; Sutton & Co v Grey [1894] 1 QB 285 explained.
Notes
For contracts within or outside the Statute of Frauds, see 20(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 146–151.
For the Statute of Frauds (1677) s 4, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 351.
Cases referred to in judgments
Couturier v Hastie (1852) 8 Exch 40; rvsd (1853) 22 LJ Ex 299, 156 ER 43, [1843–60] All ER Rep 280, CA; affd (1856) 5 HL Cas 673, 10 ER 1065, [1843–60] All ER Rep 280, HL.
Forth v Stanton (1669) 1 Wms Saund (1871 edn) 226.
Guild & Co v Conrad [1894] 2 QB 885, CA.
Harburg India Rubber Comb Co v Martin [1902] 1 KB 778, CA.
Sutton & Co v Grey [1894] 1 QB 285, CA.
Appeal
Anthony Pitts, John Kenny and Chris Morgan appealed with permission given by Sir Henry Brooke from the order of Mr Recorder Prosser in the Dewsbury County Court on 7 July 2006 dismissing their claims against Andrew Jones for damages for breach of contract. The facts are set out in the judgment of Smith LJ.
Peter Cherry (instructed by Chadwick Lawrence, Huddersfield) for the appellants.
Darren Finlay (instructed by Lupton Fawcett, Leeds) for the respondent.
Judgment was reserved.
6 December 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
SMITH LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Ward LJ).
INTRODUCTION
[1] This is an appeal from the order of Mr Recorder Prosser made in the Dewsbury County Court on 7 July 2006 when he dismissed the appellants’ claims against the respondent, Andrew Jones, for damages for breach of contract. Permission to appeal was given by Sir Henry Brooke. The facts of the case were to some extent in dispute before the Recorder but there is no appeal against any finding of fact and the appeal relates only to two issues of law.
THE FACTS
[2] The appellants were employees of and minority shareholders in a company called HM Shopfitting Ltd (hereafter referred to as ‘the company’) of which the respondent was the managing director and majority shareholder. The respondent held 700 shares. Of the appellants, Mr Anthony Pitts and Mr John Kenny held 50 shares each and Mr Chris Morgan held 25.
[3] In November 2002, the respondent, who wished to sell his shares in the company, reached a provisional agreement with a Mr Simon Allso that Mr Allso would buy his shares for £500,000. The agreement had to be provisional because, pursuant to the articles of association of the company, the appellants had a right of pre-emption.
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[4] On 9 December 2002, the respondent told the appellants of his intention to sell his shares in the company and reminded them of their right of pre-emption. He told them how much they would have to raise if they were to exercise this right; they would have to pay him £714·29 per share. He also told them that he had negotiated a deal with the purchaser whereby their shares would be bought at the same price. On hearing that, the appellants agreed to sign waivers of their rights of pre-emption. Messrs Kenny and Morgan signed theirs that day; Mr Pitts signed his on 2 January 2003. At the time, the appellants believed that all the proposed share transactions would be for cash.
[5] After the meeting of 9 December, it appears that the respondent had further meetings with Mr Allso and his advisers and the details of the sale were worked out. The purchase was to be made in the name of a company called W G Birch Ltd (Birch) and the purchase price of his shares was to be paid by instalments, spread over the period January–April 2003. The reason for this appears to have been that Mr Allso did not intend to use his own funds to pay for the shares; he wanted Birch to borrow the purchase price from the company. Such an arrangement would be contrary to s 151 of the Companies Act 1985 unless the appropriate resolutions (the whitewash procedure) were carried at an extraordinary general meeting (EGM) of the company. It appears that the major portion of the company’s assets took the form of book debts and the instalments were to be paid when it was expected that these debts would be paid. The respondent had also arranged security for payment of the purchase price of his shares. The company was to give a guarantee to the respondent in respect of Birch’s obligations to pay for the respondent’s shares and was also to grant a debenture over the company’s assets in favour of the respondent. The purchase of the appellants’ shares was to take place later; the options by which they could require Birch to purchase their shares could not be exercised until June 2003. Completion of the sale of the respondent’s shares was scheduled to take place on 7 January 2003.
[6] On 7 January, the appellants were summoned unexpectedly and at short notice to a meeting at the company’s offices. They were needed because it was intended that there should be an EGM that day and the requisite notice had not been given. If the deal were to proceed, the appellants would have to agree to the convening of an EGM at short notice. Section 369 of the 1985 Act requires that the holders of at least 95% of the shares consent to holding the meeting without due notice. If either Mr Pitts or Mr Kenny had refused to co-operate, the meeting could not have been held. Also, the option agreements for the purchase of the appellants’ shares were ready for signature.
[7] Attending at the offices that day, in addition to the appellants, were the respondent, together with Mr Paul Forster, his solicitor, and representatives of the purchaser. The appellants were, of course, not accompanied by a solicitor or other professional adviser.
[8] Initially, Mr Forster spoke to the three appellants together in the absence of any other person. He told them that the respondent’s shares were to be purchased by instalments and also that the options for the purchase of their own shares could not be exercised until June 2003. He warned them that they would have no security and that, if Birch became insolvent before their shares had been bought and paid for, the options would be worthless. When the appellants heard this, they were worried and were unwilling to sign the option agreements. It does not appear that at that stage anything had been said about them consenting to the abridgment of time for the EGM. Mr Forster went to fetch the respondent,
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who then came in. There followed a discussion, the content of which was disputed at trial. The Recorder found that, when the appellants had expressed their concern about their own position, the respondent undertook that, if Birch did not pay them for their shares, he would do so.
[9] The Recorder also found that Mr Morgan asked for this undertaking to be put in writing. However, Mr Forster advised against this, apparently on the ground that there would be adverse tax implications for the respondent. Eventually, all the appellants said that they trusted the respondent’s word and the undertaking was not put in writing. The Recorder said that he was satisfied that neither the respondent nor any of the appellants was aware of the provisions of s 4 of the Statute of Frauds (1677).
[10] Soon after the respondent had given this undertaking, each of the appellants signed an option agreement for the purchase of his shares by Birch and also signified his agreement to the abridgment of the notice period for holding the EGM. The EGM took place later that day. The company approved the proposal that it should lend money to Birch and the sale of the respondent’s shares went through.
[11] The respondent received part payment to the extent of £386,000. The remainder was not paid because of a bad debt to the company, by reference to which the respondent agreed to at least part of that reduction. Two of the appellants, Mr Kenny and Mr Morgan sought to exercise their options; Mr Pitts did not. However, in the event nothing turns on that. By late 2003, Birch was insolvent and went into liquidation in December 2003. The appellants received nothing for their shares. They looked to the respondent pursuant to his undertaking. He denied that he had given any undertaking but offered to share the money he had received from Birch with the appellants on a pro rata basis. The appellants refused and sued for the full amount of £714·29 per share which they claimed the respondent had promised to pay if Birch did not do so.
THE RECORDER’S JUDGMENT
[12] Apart from the factual issues, which are no longer in contention, the Recorder had to decide two issues of law, which are the subject matter of this appeal. He held first that the respondent’s undertaking to pay the appellants £714·29 per share if Birch failed to pay was not a contractual promise; it was unsupported by consideration and was of no legal effect. That disposed of the appellants’ claim. However, the Recorder held that, even if he were wrong about the question of consideration, the appellants’ claim would still fail because, if there was a contract between the respondent and the appellants, it was a contract of guarantee and unenforceable under the Statute of Frauds. It was not evidenced in writing signed by or on behalf of the guarantor.
THE APPEAL
[13] In this court, Mr Peter Cherry, on behalf of the appellants seeks to overturn the Recorder’s decision on both points. Success on one will not help; the appellants must win on both points if they are to recover the sums claimed.
WAS THE RESPONDENT’S PROMISE SUPPORTED BY CONSIDERATION?
[14] Mr Cherry submitted that the Recorder was wrong to hold that the respondent’s promise was unsupported by consideration. At the trial, the appellants had argued that they had given consideration for the promise. Mr Cherry accepted that the appellants were not in a position altogether to prevent the respondent from selling his shares to Birch. Indeed, he accepted that
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the appellants were not in a strong bargaining position. However, the respondent wanted the transaction to go through that day and, at the very least, the appellants’ agreement was required if the EGM were to be held that day. Without the EGM, the transaction would be unlawful. If the EGM were not held that day, with the appellants’ consent, it could not be held until two weeks later, when due notice had been given. By that time, the purchaser might have thought better of the deal; one of the company’s debts was due by then and, if it were not paid, the purchaser might have backed out. But, submitted Mr Cherry, the appellants held a rather more powerful card than refusing to agree to the abridgment of time. They could have withdrawn the waivers of their rights of pre-emption. If the waivers were withdrawn, the sale of the respondent’s shares might well have been in real jeopardy. It might not have been possible to proceed for a substantial period of time and the deal might well have gone off. Mr Cherry submitted that it was to ‘buy’ the appellants’ co-operation that day that the respondent gave his undertaking.
[15] In holding that the undertaking had not been supported by consideration, the Recorder relied heavily on the evidence of the appellants, that they had never given any thought to refusing to sign the documents as requested on 7 January. That being so, said the Recorder, they had not given their co-operation in return for the undertaking. There was no consideration.
[16] Mr Cherry submitted that the Recorder was wrong. The fact that the appellants had not given any active thought to withholding their co-operation was irrelevant. The respondent had made his promise in order to secure their co-operation and the co-operation had been given as a result. That was enough.
[17] Mr Darren Finlay for the respondent submitted that the Recorder had been right. He accepted that the court would never look at the adequacy of consideration but he submitted that here there was no consideration at all. The appellants could not give consideration subconsciously; they had to make positive decisions that they would act in a particular way (agreeing to the abridgment of time or deciding not to withdraw their pre-emption waivers) as the result of the promise the respondent had offered. The Recorder had held that they never gave any thought to the possibility of refusing to sign the documents on 7 January. By implication, he had also found that they had never thought of withdrawing the waivers of their pre-emption rights—even assuming that they could do so. Accordingly, the respondent’s undertaking had been a bare promise, unsupported by consideration.
[18] For my part, I am persuaded by Mr Cherry’s arguments on this issue. It seems to me that the Recorder was wrong to place such emphasis on the appellants’ conscious thought processes. I accept that, as a rule, a party to a contract will be consciously aware of what consideration he is giving for the promise he is accepting. But here, it seems to me, the course of events was such that the Recorder ought to have held that the appellants gave consideration even though they did not consciously work out exactly what it was that they had given. The position was that the options to purchase the appellant’s shares had been arranged by the respondent as an inducement to encourage the appellants not to exercise their pre-emption rights. They signed their waivers in the belief that they would be paid cash for their shares. When Mr Forster spelled out the true nature of the deal they were being offered, the appellants were unhappy about it. At that stage, they did not articulate their stance that they would not co-operate over the signing of documents that day unless their position was improved. But that appears to have been their position, as understood by
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Mr Forster, who immediately went to fetch the respondent. No one knows what the appellants would have done if the respondent had not then come in and given his undertaking. They never had either the need or the time to consider what they would do in that situation. They might have said that they were not prepared to sign anything until they had consulted a solicitor. On the other hand, they might have decided that there was nothing they could do about their position and they would sign all the documents even though they were unhappy. One or other of them might have taken a different stance from the others. But they never had to decide what to do because the respondent came in and offered the undertaking. The appellants were united in accepting it and, after discussion about whether or not it should be put in writing, they were all content with the arrangements and immediately signed the option agreements and consent to the abridgment of time for convening the EGM. It seems to me that there was so clear a chronological link between the respondent’s offer of the undertaking and the appellants’ willingness to sign the documents that the natural inference to draw was that the two were directly connected. I would hold that the appellants’ co-operation was given in return for the respondent’s undertaking. I would also hold that that was good consideration notwithstanding the fact that the appellants did not consciously realise that by signing the documents they were subjecting themselves to a detriment and were giving consideration for the respondent’s undertaking. For those reasons I would hold that the respondent’s undertaking was supported by consideration and was therefore a contractual agreement.
WAS THE RESPONDENT’S UNDERTAKING ENFORCEABLE?
[19] The Recorder held that, even if the respondent’s undertaking were supported by consideration and was therefore a contractual agreement, it was unenforceable because it was a contract of guarantee. Under s 4 of the Statute of Frauds, a contract of guarantee is not enforceable unless it is in writing signed by or on behalf of the guarantor. This contract of guarantee was not in writing.
[20] The argument advanced by Mr Cherry before the Recorder and rejected by him was that this contract was not in fact a contract of guarantee but was an indemnity. Mr Cherry renewed this argument before this court, with vigour and ingenuity.
[21] Although it was common ground that a contract of guarantee is a type of indemnity, it is important to distinguish between the two because s 4 of the Statute of Frauds applies only to contracts of guarantee. It was also common ground that there are many types of indemnity and the term merely connotes the right of one party to look to another to satisfy his losses and may arise under a contract (for example under a contract of insurance) or by operation of law. A guarantee, on the other hand, is a specific type of indemnity whereby the guarantor promises to answer for the debt or default of another person. A typical contract of guarantee arises where A promises or has already promised to pay B a sum of money and C then promises or ‘guarantees’ that, if A fails to pay B that sum of money, C himself will pay B.
[22] Mr Cherry conceded that the pleading of the appellants’ claim against the respondent used words suggestive of a contract of guarantee, although had not applied that label to the transaction. At para 7 of the particulars of claim, it was pleaded that, at the meeting on 7 January 2003, the respondent Mr Jones had said that ‘if the purchasing company, HM Birch Ltd, did not pay the amount due under the option agreement, he would pay the claimants himself’. Mr Cherry
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also conceded that the Recorder’s finding of fact reflected that pleading. However, he pointed out that the task for the court in deciding whether the words used were a guarantee or an indemnity was to look at the substantial meaning of the words rather than their form and to examine the substance in the relevant factual context.
[23] Mr Cherry submitted that the Recorder had failed to take account of an authority cited to him, namely Sutton & Co v Grey [1894] 1 QB 285 which clarified and explained the distinction between an indemnity and a guarantee. That was a case in which the plaintiff firm of stockbrokers had agreed with the defendant that he would introduce business to them which they would conduct on the stock exchange. If any profit were made it would be shared equally; if losses resulted, the defendant would be liable to the plaintiff for half. The agreement was oral and the court held that the agreement was not a guarantee caught by s 4. The defendant had an interest in the transaction. Mr Cherry placed particular reliance on a passage (at 288) where, after citing from Couturier v Hastie (1852) 8 Exch 40, Lord Esher MR summarised the test for distinguishing between a contract of guarantee and one of indemnity as follows:
‘There the test given is, whether the defendant is interested in the transaction, either by being the person who is to negotiate it or in some other way, or whether he is totally unconnected with it. If he is totally unconnected with it, except by means of his promise to pay the loss, the contract is a guarantee; if he is not totally unconnected with the transaction, but is to derive some benefit from it, the contract is one of indemnity, not a guarantee, and s. 4 does not apply.’
[24] Mr Cherry submitted that, if that test is applied to the facts of the present case, it is seen that the respondent was clearly interested in the transaction. He submitted that ‘the transaction’ was the whole package whereby the respondent sold his shares to Birch (with the concurrence of the appellants who waived their pre-emption rights) and the appellants took option agreements in respect of their own shares, in respect of which the respondent promised to pay the purchase price if Birch failed to pay. The respondent was plainly interested in that transaction. He negotiated the option agreement for the purchase by Birch of the appellants’ shares. He was central to the transaction and was not introduced into it merely to promise to make good the appellants’ loss if Birch failed to pay.
[25] Mr Finlay submitted that the Sutton case was not of general application and should be confined to its own facts. In the alternative, he argued that, if the test outlined in the Sutton case is applied to the facts of this case, the conclusion must be that the respondent had no interest in the share option agreements which his undertaking went to support and that the undertaking was therefore a guarantee.
[26] The court spent some time looking at the facts of the Sutton case and of Couturier v Hastie. We also considered the case of Harburg India Rubber Comb Co v Martin [1902] 1 KB 778. In that case, the Court of Appeal considered whether a promise given orally by the defendant was a guarantee (unenforceable on account of the Statute of Frauds) or a contract of indemnity, as contended by the plaintiff. The facts briefly stated were that the defendant was a member of a company (described in the report as a syndicate) which owed money to the plaintiff. The plaintiff obtained judgment against the syndicate and tried (unsuccessfully) to execute a writ of fi fa. The defendant then gave an oral
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promise that, if the plaintiff would desist in execution, he would issue bills of exchange to satisfy the syndicate’s liability.
[27] Vaughan Williams LJ (with whom the other Lords Justices agreed) said (at 783) that the question for the court was whether on the facts of the case the bargain was ‘a promise to answer for the debt of another’ within s 4 of the Statute of Frauds or, on the other hand a contract of indemnity. The court held that it was a contract of guarantee.
[28] Vaughan Williams LJ then considered the authorities and in due course formulated a general proposition as to the distinction between a contract of guarantee and one of indemnity. He said (at 784, 785):
‘. . . I wish to mention one other class [of case], which . . . I think, does not come within the section [that is s 4] at all. I mean the cases which have been spoken of as “indemnity cases.” Of course in one sense all guarantees, whether they come within s. 4 or not, are contracts of indemnity. But the difference between those indemnities which come within the section and those which do not is very shortly thus expressed in the notes to Forth v. Stanton [(1669) 1 Wms Saund (1871 edn) 226 at 234]: “These cases establish that the statute applies only to promises made to the person to whom another is already or is to become answerable”.’
That to my mind is an accurate definition of a guarantee of indemnity which comes within s 4 of the statute, as distinguished from an original liability which is not within the section, and which has reference to the debt of another, but creates a new liability which is undertaken by the promisor, and has been called in the course of argument a contract of indemnity.’
[29] Vaughan Williams LJ then referred with approval to Guild & Co v Conrad [1894] 2 QB 885 where Davey LJ had said (at 896):
‘In my opinion, there is a plain distinction between a promise to pay the creditor if the principal debtor makes default in payment, and a promise to keep a person who has entered, or is about to enter, into a contract of liability indemnified against that liability independently of the question whether a third person makes default or not.’
[30] Finally, Vaughan Williams LJ returned to consider in greater detail the cases in which the court had held that an undertaking which sounded like a guarantee was not caught by the statute but was in truth an indemnity. One such case was the Sutton case. He said this (at 786):
‘. . . it seems to me that in each of them the conclusion arrived at really was that the contract in question did not fall within the section because of the object of the contract. In each of those cases there was in truth a main contract—a larger contract—and the obligation to pay the debt of another was merely an incident of the larger contract. As I understand those cases, it is not a question of motive—it is a question of object. You must find what it was that the parties were in fact dealing about. What was the subject-matter of the contract?’
[31] Vaughan Williams LJ then gave several examples of the type of contract he had in mind where the object of the contract was some ‘larger matter’ and continued:
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‘That [the larger matter] being the object of the contract, the mere fact that as an incident to it—not as the immediate object, but indirectly—the debt of another to a third person will be paid, does not bring the case within the section.’
[32] As I understand it, Vaughan Williams LJ was here suggesting another, slightly different, rationale for the result which the court had reached in cases such as Sutton & Co v Grey. Instead of asking whether or not the promisor had had any interest in the transaction, the court should ask what was the object of the contract or transaction and if the promisor’s obligation to pay arose as an incident to the central object of the contract or transaction, that obligation would be an indemnity, whereas if it was the central obligation of the contract or transaction, it would be a guarantee. This distinction appears to have been related to the court’s concern about the use by other judges (including Lord Esher MR) of the term ‘interest’ when seeking to distinguish between a contract of indemnity and one of guarantee. In short, it appears that the court in Harburg India Rubber Comb Co v Martin was saying that Lord Esher MR’s formulation should not be taken literally. Not every interest in the transaction would serve to take the promise out of the statute; there had to be more than a motive for offering the promise; there had to be a real interest in the subject matter of the contract. If the promisor had no real interest in the subject matter of the contract but only a motive for offering his promise, the promise would be a contract of guarantee. On the facts of the Harburg India Rubber Comb case, the defendant promisor had ‘an interest’ in the contract or transaction between the syndicate and the plaintiff in that he wanted the plaintiff to forbear to execute judgment against the syndicate. That was his motive for offering his promise. However, his promise was not an incident to the main contract or transaction and he did not have the kind of legal interest in the subject matter of the main contract which would make his promise an indemnity.
[33] After that consideration of the authorities, I turn to apply these principles to the facts of the present case.
[34] First, looking at the matter in the round, it appears to me that the respondent did in fact promise to satisfy the liability of Birch if Birch failed to pay for the appellants’ shares after they had exercised their options. That looks like a guarantee. There would be no liability on the respondent unless Birch failed to pay under its agreements with the appellants. The respondent had no potential liability and no potential benefit under those share option agreements other than the liability I have just described. The promise does not look like an indemnity.
[35] However, it has been submitted, in effect, that this was a case such as those discussed in Harburg India Rubber Comb Co v Martin in which there was a larger subject matter in which the respondent’s undertaking was an incident of the main object of the contract. What was the subject matter of the transaction or contract in which the respondent’s promise was made? Mr Finlay submits that it was just the appellants’ share purchase options. Mr Cherry submits that the transaction embraced both the appellants’ share options and the sale of the respondent’s shares to Birch.
[36] Although I can see that the transactions which took place on 7 January were linked with each other, they were not, in my view, one transaction. The main transaction which took place on that day was the sale of the respondent’s shares to Birch with the attendant resolutions of the company which enabled the company to lend Birch the purchase price. I will call that transaction X. The
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respondent’s undertaking to the appellants was not part of that transaction. A little earlier that day, the appellants had signed their share option agreements with Birch (transactions Y). The respondent undertook that, if they exercised their options and Birch did not pay for the shares, he would do so. Although the respondent had negotiated the share options, he had no interest in them in the sense that he could not possibly derive any benefit from them. The respondent’s interests and all his potential benefits arose solely from transaction X.
[37] The respondent concerned himself with transactions Y only as a means of persuading the appellants to co-operate in the mechanics of transaction X. His motive in offering his undertaking was to persuade the appellants to co-operate. In that way and to that extent only, transaction X was linked to transactions Y. I have held that that linkage comprised the consideration for the respondent’s undertaking. However, that linkage does not mean that transactions X and Y were all one transaction. In my view, they were not; they were separate transactions.
[38] I conclude therefore that there was no larger contract of which the respondent’s undertaking was a part. The respondent’s undertaking was given solely to support the appellants’ share options and the respondent had no other role or interest in those transactions than that of promising to pay the appellants if Birch failed to do so. I conclude therefore that the respondent’s promise was a guarantee within s 4 of the Statute of Frauds and, as such, was unenforceable.
[39] I reach that conclusion with some reluctance as it appears to me that there is much general merit in the appellants’ case. They were unrepresented on 7 January, having been quite unaware prior to that day that any important events were to take place. They extracted an undertaking from the respondent and asked for it to be put in writing. For reasons which were not explained to this court, Mr Forster advised against that course. On the face of it, the respondent’s stance was most unattractive. It was for that reason that Mr Cherry told us, in fairness to the respondent, that the respondent had offered to share his proceeds with the appellants on a pro rata basis. It is a thousand pities that that sensible and fair offer was not accepted.
[40] For the reasons I have given, I would dismiss this appeal.
WILSON LJ.
[41] I agree.
WARD LJ.
[42] I also agree.
Appeal dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
ED & F Man Sugar Ltd v Lendoudis
[2008] 1 All ER 952
[2007] EWHC 2268 (Comm)
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (COMMERCIAL COURT)
Lord(s): CHRISTOPHER CLARKE J
Hearing Date(s): 24 SEPTEMBER, 10 OCTOBER 2007
Claim form – Service – Service out of the jurisdiction – Arbitration awards becoming executable as foreign judgment – Claim form served outside the jurisdiction seeking enforcement of awards or registration of foreign judgment under statutory and procedural provisions – Claim form defective – Whether claimant able to rely on same claim form to bring action at common law for enforcement of foreign judgment – Whether claim form open to amendment to enable inclusion of claim at common law.
The parties entered into a contract for the provision of a vessel by the defendant, to carry a cargo of sugar belonging to the claimant, from Poland to Jedda. The contract contained an arbitration clause providing for disputes to be settled by arbitration in London. The claimant brought arbitration proceedings in relation to the contract, obtained an award and a supplementary award, and was granted an order by a Greek court declaring the awards to be executable in Greece (the Greek judgment). It then issued a claim form under CPR Pt 8 in the form of an arbitration application, which was served out of the jurisdiction, seeking an order pursuant to the CPR and the Arbitration Act 1950 to enforce the awards as a judgment, and in the alternative to register the Greek judgment for enforcement. In response to that application the judge, inter alia, made an order giving permission: (i) to enforce the arbitration awards with judgment to be entered for $295,461·39; and (ii) for the Greek judgment turning the awards into a Greek executable title to be registered for enforcement in England and Wales. Both parties applied for that order to be set aside and the claimant also applied for judgment to be entered in the sum of $317, 731·10. Each limb of the claimant’s application was found to be defective in respect of its compliance with the procedural and statutory requirements, however the claimant argued that it should be allowed to enforce the Greek judgment at common law despite the fact that it had not pleaded such a claim because it was sufficient to have pleaded the existence of the Greek judgment and it did not have to plead points of law. In the alternative it applied for permission to amend the claim form so as to include a claim at common law.
Held – Pre-CPR authority provided that where a pleading, which was intended to be served out of the jurisdiction, could be reasonably understood as being presented under a particular head of claim on one specific legal basis only, the claimant could not be permitted to contend that that head of claim could also be justified on another legal basis unless the alternative basis had been specifically referred to in his witness statement. Further the court would not allow an amendment to the claim or grant retrospective permission to serve the amended claim form out of the jurisdiction as the court would have lent its aid to a circumvention of the procedure for granting permission to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction. Those principles remained applicable under the CPR as the new rules did not reduce the desirability of preventing any circumvention of the proper procedure. The position could be different if there was no basis upon
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which the defendant could hope to resist the grant of permission but that was not the situation in the instant case. The claimant would have avoided the fact that the judge had not been apprised, either by the claim form or the witness statement in support, of any intention on its part to bring an action on the Greek judgment nor, until a matter of days before the instant application, was the defendant apprised of the true nature of the claim which he had to meet. For the claimant to seek to amend its claim at a later stage so that it became an action on the judgment would be to introduce a new cause of action and a new basis of claim. Accordingly the order of the judge would be set aside (see [17]–[27], below).
Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14, Grupo Torras SA v Al Sabah [1995] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 374, ABCI (formerly Arab Business Consortium International Finance & Investment Co) v Banque Franco-Tunisienne [2003] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 146 considered.
Notes
For the procedure relating to the enforcement of an arbitration award see 2(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 72 and for the enforcement of a foreign judgment generally see 8(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 139.
Cases referred to in judgment
ABCI (formerly Arab Business Consortium International Finance & Investment Co) v Banque Franco-Tunisienne [2003] EWCA Civ 205, [2003] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 146.
ASM Shipping Ltd v TTMI Ltd [2007] EWHC 927 (Comm), [2007] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 155.
DSQ Property Co Ltd v Lotus Cars Ltd [1990] CA Transcript 589, (1990) Times, 28 June.
East India Trading Co Inc v Carmel Exporters and Importers Ltd [1952] 1 All ER 1053, [1952] 2 QB 439.
ED & F Man Sugar Ltd v Haryanto [1996] CA Transcript 877, (1996) Times, 9 August.
Grupo Torras SA v Al Sabah [1995] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 374; affd [1996] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 7, CA.
International Alltex Corp v Lawler Creations Ltd [1965] IR 264, IR HC.
Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14, [1990] 1 QB 391, [1989] 3 WLR 563, CA.
National Justice Cia Naviera SA v Prudential Assurance Co Ltd, The Ikarian Reefer [1999] 2 All ER (Comm) 673, [2000] 1 WLR 603, CA.
Nouvion v Freeman (1889) 15 App Cas 1, HL.
Stolp & Co v Browne & Co [1930] 4 DLR 703, Ont SC.
Vandervell’s Trusts (No 2), Re, White v Vandervell Trustees Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 205, [1974] Ch 269, [1974] 3 WLR 256, CA.
Applications
The claimant ED & F Man Sugar Ltd (by an application dated 7 August 2007) and the defendant Kryton Lendoudis (by an application dated 19 September 2007) applied to set aside the order of David Steel J made on 24 May 2007, inter alia, granting the claimant permission to enforce an arbitration award dated 16 March 1994, and a supplementary award dated 14 April 1996, made in favour of the claimant, and ordering the registration of a Greek court judgment turning
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the awards into a Greek executable title, to be registered for enforcement in England and Wales. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Stephen Robins (instructed by Jackson Parton) for the claimant.
SJ Phillips and Jessica Sutherland (instructed by Swinnerton Moore) for the defendant.
Judgment was reserved.
10 October 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
CHRISTOPHER CLARKE J.
[1] I have before me two applications. The first is an application of 7 August 2007 by Mr Kryton Lendoudis (the defendant) to set aside an order of David Steel J made on 24 May 2007 whereby he ordered, inter alia, (i) that ED & F Man Sugar Ltd (the claimant), should have permission to enforce an arbitration award of 16 March 1994 and a supplementary award dated 14 April 1994 (the awards); (ii) that judgment be entered in terms of the awards for $295,461·39; (iii) that the defendant should pay interest on the judgment debt at 8% from 16 March 1994 until payment; and (iv) that a Greek court judgment turning the awards into a Greek executable title should be registered for enforcement in England and Wales.
[2] The second application was made on 19 September 2007 by the claimant, also seeking to set aside paras 1–4 of the order of 24 May 2007, and asking for judgment to be entered for the claimant for $317,731·10.
[3] The reason for this paradoxical state of affairs, where both the claimant and the defendant seek to set aside an order that the claimant obtained, lies in the chequered history behind the two applications.
[4] On or about 5 November 1987 the claimant entered into a contract with the defendant for the provision by him of a vessel to carry a cargo of 12,000 mt of sugar from Poland to Jedda. The contract, which was evidenced, by a conline booking note, named the carrier as Aquarius Red Sea Line. It contained an arbitration clause providing for disputes to be settled by arbitration in London.
[5] The claimant claimed that the defendant was liable under the contract and had breached it. It began arbitration proceedings against the defendant and appointed Mr Christopher Moss as its arbitrator. The defendant challenged the validity of the arbitration proceedings and the jurisdiction of the arbitrator on the grounds that he was not a party to the contract.
[6] The claimant believed that the proper party to the contract was the defendant or, alternatively, a company of his named Evalend Shipping Co SA (Evalend). On 20 January 1988 the claimant applied to the High Court for declarations to give effect to those contentions and for a declaration that the arbitrator had jurisdiction to settle any dispute.
[7] After a contested hearing, at which the defendant was represented and during which he was cross-examined, Evans J concluded that he was party to the contract, and made a declaration to that effect. He also declared that Mr Moss had jurisdiction as sole arbitrator to settle any dispute between the claimant and the defendant arising under the contract. The defendant did not appeal that order.
[8] On 16 March 1994 the arbitrator made the first of the awards in which he held that the claimant’s claim succeeded in full. He awarded and adjudged that
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the defendant should pay $171,268·62 to the claimant together with interest and costs. He corrected a typographical error in the first award by a supplemental award of 14 April 1994. The defendant did not seek to appeal the awards, although he continues to deny any liability.
[9] The claimant then took steps to enforce the awards in Greece. On 12 May 1995, following a hearing on 30 March 1995, in judgment 2976/1995 the Court of First Instance in Athens considered an application by the claimant asking ‘for the recognition, and declaration as executable in Greece’ of the awards. The dispositive part of the judgment records that the court—
‘Accepts the application
Recognises and declares as executable in Greece the London arbitration award of 16-3-1994 as amended by the supplementary award of 14-4-94 of the arbitrator Christopher Moss . . .’
[10] The defendant appealed against judgment 2976/1995. On 25 May 1999, the Athens Court of Appeal dismissed the appeal. The defendant then appealed to the Greek Supreme Court of the Areopagus. On 27 June 2001 that court dismissed the appeal to it.
[11] On 23 May 2007, less than six years after the decision of the Supreme Court, but more than six years after the decision of the Court of First Instance, the claimant issued a claim form under CPR Pt 8 in the form of an arbitration application. In it the claimant sought an order pursuant to CPR 62.18(1)(c) and s 26 of the Arbitration Act 1950 granting permission to enforce the awards as a judgment and further or alternatively sought, pursuant to CPR 74.3(1)(c), to register the judgment of the Court of First Instance, as upheld by the Court of Appeal and the Supreme Court. In this respect the claimant relied on Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 (on jurisdiction and the recognition and enforcement of judgments in civil and commercial matters) (OJ 2001 L12 p 1) (the Judgments Regulation) alternatively the Brussels Convention on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgments in Civil and Commercial Matters 1968 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982) (the Brussels Convention). The arbitration application was supported by the first witness statement of Mr Nicholas Parton of 23 May. On 24 May David Steel J made the order to which I have referred.
[12] The order provided for service of the order, the arbitration application and Mr Parton’s witness statement by first-class post or courier at the offices of Evalend in Athens. Service took place in accordance with the order. The defendant applied to set aside service of the order within the time limit specified in it.
[13] Each limb of the application was, as the claimant now accepts, defective. The application under s 26 of the Act had become barred pursuant to s 7 of the Limitation Act 1980 which provides that an action to enforce an award, where the submission is not by an instrument under seal, shall not be brought more than six years after the date when the cause of action accrued. The application to enforce the judgment of the Court of First Instance was misplaced. That judgment was a judgment giving judicial recognition to the awards and thus fell within art 1(2)(d) of the Judgments Regulation (‘This Regulation shall not apply to . . . (d) arbitration’) alternatively art 1(4) of the Brussels Convention. Neither of these matters was drawn to the judge’s attention.
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[14] Faced with this problem, the claimant now contends that it is entitled to enforce the judgment of the Court of First Instance, as twice confirmed on appeal, at common law; and that it is entitled to summary judgment.
[15] Neither the claim form nor Mr Parton’s first witness statement in support of it gave any indication that the claimant was seeking to enforce the Greek first instance judgment at common law by an action on the judgment. What was sought was leave to enforce the award under s 26 and recognition of the first instance judgment pursuant to the Judgments Regulation alternatively the Brussels Convention.
[16] In his skeleton argument Mr Stephen Robins for the claimant submitted that this does not matter. The claim is an arbitration claim under CPR Pt 8: see r 62.3(1). Although the claim form did not plead a claim at common law, it did plead the existence of the Greek judgments. But points of law do not have to be pleaded. If, as he put it, ‘the Defendant persists in this line of argument’ (that the common law claim had not been pleaded) the claimant would seek the court’s permission to add the words ‘or alternatively judgment at common law’. Mr Robins indicated in his oral submissions that he was making such an application, if it was necessary for him to do so.
[17] In Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14, [1990] 1 QB 391 the defendant applied to set aside an order for service of the writ out of the jurisdiction. The Court of Appeal, as the headnote reveals ([1990] 1 QB 391), held that, on the submission by the plaintiffs that they had a claim against the defendants for maliciously instituting legal proceedings, the court would assume in their favour that there was such a tort and the plaintiffs could be said to have instituted such proceedings, but it would reject the submission on the ground that the issue could not be raised in the Ord 11 proceedings as the plaintiffs had neither raised nor identified the issue in their pleadings.
[18] The reasoning of the court is set out in the judgment of Slade LJ in which he referred to the observations of Lord Denning MR in Re Vandervell’s Trusts (No 2), White v Vandervell Trustees Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 205 at 213, [1974] Ch 269 at 321:
‘It is sufficient for the pleader to state the material facts. He need not state the legal result. If, for convenience, he does so, he is not bound by, or limited to, what he has stated.’
[19] He went on to say ([1989] 3 All ER 14 at 24, [1990] 1 QB 391 at 436):
‘We respectfully agree with this statement as a general proposition. However, it was not made in the context of a pleading intended to be served out of the jurisdiction, to which we think rather different considerations apply. In our judgment, if the draftsman of a pleading intended to be served out of the jurisdiction under Ord 11, r 1(1)(f) (or indeed under any other sub-paragraph) can be reasonably understood as presenting a particular head of claim on one specific legal basis only, the plaintiff cannot thereafter, for the purpose of justifying his application under Ord 11, r 1(1)(f), be permitted to contend that that head of claim can also be justified on another legal basis (unless, perhaps, the alternative basis has been specifically referred to in his affidavit evidence, which it was not in the present case). With this possible exception, if he specifically states in his pleading the legal result of what he has pleaded, he is in our judgment limited to what he has pleaded, for the purpose of an order 11 application. To permit him to take a different course
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would be to encourage circumvention of the Order 11 procedure, which is designed to ensure that both the court is fully and clearly apprised as to the nature of the legal claim with which it is invited to deal on the ex parte application, and the defendant is likewise apprised as to the nature of the claim which he has to meet, if and when he seeks to discharge an order for service out of the jurisdiction.’
[20] On the assumption that those observations have continuing validity under the CPR regime, the claimant in the present case is in a similar difficulty to that which faced the plaintiff in the Metall und Rohstoff case and also in DSQ Property Co Ltd v Lotus Cars Ltd [1990] CA Transcript 589, (1990) Times, 28 June.
[21] Mr Robins submits that that difficulty can be circumvented by the grant of permission to amend the claim form. There will then be no discrepancy between the pleaded claim and the basis upon which the claimant seeks to justify its claim to judgment. In this respect the claimant may pray in aid the fact that it is open to the court, at least in some cases, to give retrospective permission to serve a document out of the jurisdiction, if permission for such service is required: see National Justice Cia Naviera SA v Prudential Assurance Co Ltd, The Ikarian Reefer [1999] 2 All ER (Comm) 673, [2000] 1 WLR 603—a case that was not cited in argument. In that case the document was a summons against a third party for an order under s 51 of the Supreme Court Act 1981 that he should pay the applicant’s costs of an action. The primary basis for the court’s decision that the service of a summons was not caught by the Brussels Convention was that the application did not involve ‘suing’ ie pursuing a substantive cause of action at all.
[22] In Grupo Torras SA v Al Sabah [1995] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 374 at 392–393 Mance J, as he then was, had to consider the circumstances in which points of claim could be amended when proceedings had been served out of the jurisdiction in accordance with leave given for that purpose, but an application had been made to set aside the order giving leave to serve. He recognised that in those circumstances a plaintiff could not amend his pleading to introduce a new cause of action but rejected the submission that a plaintiff could not make ancillary amendments which did not do so. The decision of the Court of Appeal in ABCI (formerly Arab Business Consortium International Finance & Investment Co) v Banque Franco-Tunisienne [2003] EWCA Civ 205, [2003] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 146 at 154 similarly confirms the rule against amending to introduce a new cause of action during the currency of a challenge to the order giving permission to serve out.
[23] Mr Robins also contends that the judgment of the Court of First Instance only became final and conclusive when the Greek Supreme Court dismissed the defendant’s appeal from the Court of Appeal. An action upon the judgment brought in May would have been commenced less than six years after the date of the Supreme Court’s judgment and thus would not be caught by s 24 of the 1980 Act, which provides that no action shall be brought upon any judgment after the expiration of six years from the date on which the judgment became enforceable. An action brought now would be one brought after the expiry of that period. An amendment to the May Pt 8 claim would, therefore, involve adding a cause of action after the expiry of the limitation period. But the case falls plainly within CPR 17.4(2) which provides that, even where the limitation period has expired—
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‘[t]he court may allow an amendment whose effect will be to add or substitute a new claim, but only if the new claim arises out of the same facts or substantially the same facts as a claim in respect of which the party applying for permission has already claimed a remedy in the proceedings.’
[24] The defendant, Mr Robins submits, has always had full knowledge of the awards and judgments that have been made against him. He has no defence on the merits and should not be allowed to escape enforcement of the Greek judgments because of a failure to state in the claim form the correct legal basis for enforcing the judgment against him.
[25] I accept that the circumstances fall within r 17.4(2). But the course that Mr Robins invites me to take seems to me to be inconsistent with the principles set down by the Court of Appeal in the Metall und Rohstoff case, and those confirmed in the Grupo Torras case and the ABCI case. If permission is now granted to the claimant to amend his claim form the court will have lent its aid to a circumvention of the procedure for granting permission to serve proceedings out of the jurisdiction—the very mischief at which the court’s judgment was directed. The claimant will have got round the fact that David Steel J was never apprised, either by the claim form or the witness statement in support, of any intention on its part to bring an action on the Greek judgment nor, until a matter of days before the present application, was the defendant apprised of the true nature of the claim which he had to meet. The claim form and the witness statement in support can only be reasonably understood as presenting a claim on the two specific legal bases referred to in it, namely s 26 of the 1950 Act and the Judgments Regulation alternatively the Brussels Convention. Mr Parton’s first witness statement made no reference to any part of r 6.20, let alone r 6.20(9) which applies where ‘a claim is made to enforce any judgment or arbitral award’. For the claimant now to seek to amend its claim so that it becomes an action on the judgment would be to introduce a new cause of action and a new basis of claim.
[26] The question remains whether or not the approach laid down in the Metall und Rohstoff case is applicable under the CPR. The CPR regime is, of course, a set of new rules, albeit modelled on the former Rules of the Supreme Court. The court is to seek to give effect to the overriding objective of dealing with cases justly in interpreting the rules: see r 1.1(1) and 1.2(b).
[27] It seems to me, however, that the principles to which I have referred remain applicable. The new rules do not reduce the desirability of preventing any circumvention of the proper procedure. I can see the force of a suggestion that, if permission to serve out can be granted retrospectively, the first mischief that the Metall und Rohstoff case was designed to preclude—that the court is not ‘fully and clearly apprised as to the nature of the legal claim with which it is invited to deal’—will still arise since, in those circumstances, the court will never have considered the question of service out. But it does not seem to me right on that account now to ignore the principles laid down in the Metall und Rohstoff case and confirmed in the Grupo Torras case and the ABCI case.
[28] The position might be different if there was no basis upon which the defendant could hope to resist the grant of permission. Mr Robins submits that this is such a case. Mr Phillips for the defendant submits that there are two grounds for resisting an order for service out on a new basis. The first is that the claimant says (see para 23 of Mr Parton’s witness statement) that it has been unable to find any assets of the defendant in the United Kingdom in the
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defendant’s name (but Mr Parton expresses a strong belief that he has taken all possible steps to avoid having any assets in his name in the United Kingdom or Greece). The second is that there is or may well be a limitation point available to the defendant.
[29] The first point appears to me to be weak, although it derives some assistance from a passage in Briggs and Rees Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments (4th edn, 2005) p 563 (para 7.56), which observes that the question of whether England is the proper place in which to bring the claim is extremely unlikely to be a significant issue ‘unless the defendant can show the absence of assets, and the predictable continuing absence of assets, within the jurisdiction’. A footnote (no 500) then adds: ‘And even if he can, it is far from clear that this would lead to a denial of permission to serve out . . .' The latter is, however, a point of substance, with which I deal below, and upon which more evidence is needed.
[30] In those circumstances there seems to me nothing unjust in applying the principle in the Metall und Rohstoff case. On the contrary I regard it as appropriate to do so. Accordingly I decline to allow the amendment sought or to grant retrospective permission to serve the amended claim form out of the jurisdiction.
[31] I am conscious that the effect of the refusal of an amendment may be that any fresh action may be time barred. I do not, however, accept that that should cause the court to take a different approach. An approach designed to discourage circumvention of the procedure for obtaining permission should not be jettisoned simply because, in a particular case, the effect of refusing an amendment means that an action to enforce is time-barred.
[32] In case I am wrong on that I turn to consider whether the claimant is entitled to summary judgment. The conditions under which a foreign judgment may be enforced in England and Wales are set out in rule 35 of Dicey, Morris and Collins on The Conflict of Laws (14th edn, 2006) vol 1, pp 574–575. The judgment must be—
‘(a) for a debt, or definite sum of money (not being a sum payable in respect of taxes or other charges of a like nature or in respect of a fine or other penalty); and (b) final and conclusive.’
[33] Many legal systems, including our own, distinguish between a court judgment which orders the payment of a sum of money to the claimant in the amount of an award, and one which allows the claimant to execute an award as if it was a judgment. In England the distinction is contained in s 26 of the 1950 Act and ss 66(1) and (2) and 101(2) and (3) of the Arbitration Act 1996. The distinction reflects the different provenance of the court’s powers. Section 66(1) is derived from s 12 of the Arbitration Act 1889. Section 66(2) is derived from s 13 of the Arbitration Act 1934. The distinction between the two may be critical, eg as to whether or not a person subject to the order is in contempt: see ASM Shipping Ltd v TTMI Ltd [2007] EWHC 927 (Comm), [2007] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 155. An order allowing the claimant to execute an award as if it was a judgment is comparable to an exequatur as applicable in civil law systems: see Dicey, vol 1, p 775 (para 16-160).
[34] It is not obvious that the judgment of the Court of First Instance falls into the former as opposed to the latter category. In form it ‘recognizes and declares as executable in Greece’ the awards. Taking the words at face value they signify that the court is ordering that execution may take place on the awards in the same manner as a judgment as opposed to the court itself giving judgment for a money sum.
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THE EVIDENCE OF MR SOTIRIADIS
[35] In this respect there is a conflict of evidence between the Greek law experts. Mr Constantinis Sotiriadis for the claimant expresses the opinion that the awards have been ‘turned into a Greek executable title’ by virtue of the judgment of first instance as confirmed by the two appellate judgments; and that the first instance judgment simply recognised the awards and declared them enforceable but did not actually set out the calculations, the amount due being set out in a judgment (the detention judgment) rendered in 1997, to which I refer below, in which the defendant was ordered to be detained in prison for non-payment of the amount due. He goes on to say that—
‘when a foreign court judgment or arbitration award is declared enforceable in Greece what happens is that the Greek judgment and the foreign judgment/award merge into one. In practice this means that the source of the parties’ rights is still the foreign judgment/award, but not in its original state: it acquires legal effect in Greece to the extent that the Greek judgment has allowed this.’
THE EVIDENCE OF MR VERNICOS
[36] On the other hand Mr Vassilis Vernicos, instructed by the defendant, draws attention to art 904 of the Greek Code of Civil Procedure entitled ‘Executable Titles’ which provides that ‘Executable Titles’ are: ‘(f) The foreign titles that have been declared enforceable’. Article 406 provides that ‘the foreign arbitral awards are declared enforceable in accordance with article 905, para 1, if the conditions of article 903 are met’.
[37] From this Mr Vernicos concludes that it is clear that the foreign arbitral award does not turn into a Greek executable title:
‘Greek Courts merely declare that a foreign arbitral award is executable in the Greek jurisdiction. To that extent the Greek procedure is similar to that of an exequatur.’
The foreign arbitral award is always the executable title, by virtue of which the compulsory execution procedure can be effected by the claimant within Greek jurisdiction. He says that it is incorrect to submit that the Greek and the foreign judgment/award merge. In consequence the first instance judgment is not for a ‘debt or definitive sum of money’ but only a judgment declaring the award enforceable in Greece.
THE DETENTION JUDGMENT
[38] The detention judgment was given by the Court of First Instance on 30 April 1997. By that judgment the defendant was ordered to be detained in prison ‘as a means of necessary execution’ of the awards. The defendant appealed. In 1998 his appeal was allowed on the basis that the provisions for detainment of a merchant were abolished in Greece on 5 August 1997. In March 2000 the claimant appealed against the judgment setting aside the detention order and in 2001 the Court of Appeal confirmed the validity of the detention order. The defendant then issued a further appeal against the detention order on fresh grounds. In 2003 the Court of Appeal held that the law providing for the detention of a merchant had not been entirely abolished. The court invited the production of further evidence, which has happened, and the decision of the Court of Appeal is pending.
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[39] The detention judgment records the submission of the claimant that the defendant should be detained as a means of execution of the award which was adjudged enforceable by ‘decision 2976/1995 final decision of the court of first instance of Athens and by which the defendant was ordered to pay $267,976·27 and £30,466·35 sterling with interest until payment’. The judgment, which was decided in the absence of the defendant and which records that as a result of the defendant’s absence the contents of the claimant’s court documents were deemed to be admitted, orders the personal detention of the defendant as a means of execution of the awards, which it describes as ‘executable in Greece’ by reason of the first instance judgment and goes on to say ‘and the defendant was ordered to pay $267,976·27 etc’.
JUDGMENT FOR A MONEY SUM?
[40] Mr Robins relies on that as an indication that the decision of the Court of First Instance constituted a money judgment. That may be so but, in the light of the fact that it was a judgment in default on deemed admissions and in view of the opinion of Mr Vernicos I cannot be satisfied that it is. In addition the detention judgment has, itself, been successfully appealed, then restored, and is now under appeal again. It would not be right to grant summary judgment without sight of any of the subsequent judgments.
[41] Mr Robins also submitted that assistance was to be derived from three authorities, the first of which is Stolp & Co v Browne & Co [1930] 4 DLR 703. In that case, in the Ontario Supreme Court, Logie J, was concerned with an award made pursuant to the rules of the Netherlands Flour Trade Association. The award was deposited by one of the arbitrators in the Chancery office of the Arrondissement Tribunal in Amsterdam with a request that it be made executory. The judgment records that the award was—
‘duly made executory or a judgment of the Arrondissement Tribunal . . . whereupon, it was alleged by the plaintiffs, the same acquired the same executory force as a judgment of the Arrondissement Tribunal . . .’
[42] The question for the court was expressed by the judge to be whether the judgment of the Arrondissement Tribunal could be sued on in Ontario. The argument for the defendants was that the judgment was not in reality a judgment of the court and that the order made was merely an order for execution.
[43] The order of the Arrondissement Tribunal was appended to the award, which contained, inter alia, the arbitral sentence. The order was that ‘this sentence shall be executed after its form and contents and in the ordinary way of execution’. Logie J had before him an opinion on Dutch law from a Dutch barrister who said that by virtue of the order the arbitral sentence ‘acquired the same executory force as a judgment of the Arrondissement Tribunal’.
[44] Logie J held (at 708) that the order of the Arrondissement Tribunal was a final judgment that might be sued upon in Canada. In so doing he relied on a passage then in Piggott’s Foreign Judgments and Jurisdiction (1908) to the effect that—
‘an award of an arbitrator abroad does not come within the definition of a foreign judgment until it is made an order of Court; it is then merged in that order, which is in effect the judgment of the Court in the matter.’
[45] I am not wholly convinced that the judgment in the Stolp case adequately marks the distinction between an order permitting a claimant to enforce an
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award as a judgment and a judgment by the court for a monetary sum. I note also that, whilst the passage in Piggott relied on in the Stolp case was in similar terms to the evidence of Mr Sotiriadis, that evidence is disputed by Mr Vernicos. I also note that the current edition of Dicey contains in rule 64 the following paragraph (p 775 (para 16-160)):
‘Where, as is often the case, the foreign judgment upon the award has the character of an exequatur, a formal order giving leave to enforce the award comparable to an order under s. 66 of the Arbitration Act 1996, that which is enforced in England will probably always be the award and not the order. It has been seen above that where a foreign judgment has been obtained on the award it is a matter of some doubt whether the award may be enforced. But the distinction between enforcing the award and enforcing the order declaring an award enforceable may be insubstantial.’
[46] I do not therefore regard the Stolp case as a case which compels the conclusion that the order of the Court of First Instance was a judgment for a definite sum of money.
[47] The two other cases upon which Mr Robins relied were East India Trading Co Inc v Carmel Exporters and Importers Ltd [1952] 1 All ER 1053, [1952] 2 QB 439 and International Alltex Corp v Lawler Creations Ltd [1965] IR 264. In each of these cases, however, the action was brought on what was unquestionably a judgment of the foreign court for a money sum.
[48] There is a further reason why summary judgment would be inappropriate. If a foreign judgment is to be enforceable it must be ‘final and conclusive’. But it need not be non-appealable. The position is explained in the speech of Lord Watson in Nouvion v Freeman (1889) 15 App Cas 1 at 13:
‘. . . in order to [have] its receiving effect here, a foreign decree need not be final in the sense that it cannot be made the subject of appeal to a higher Court; but it must be final and unalterable in the Court which pronounced it; and if appealable the English Court will only enforce it, subject to conditions which will save the interests of those who have a right of appeal.’
[49] If, therefore, the decision of the Court of First Instance is to be regarded as final and conclusive, the six-year limitation period will have begun when it became so. If that was on 12 May 1995 the limitation period expired in May 2001, six years before the order of David Steel J in May 2007. The limitation period would also have expired if the decision of the Court of First Instance only became capable of execution when the detention judgment was given. The expert evidence before me does not address this point with sufficient specificity. Mr Sotiriadis’ statement of 10 May 2007 observed that the Supreme Court judgment is ‘final, unappealable and enforceable’ and that the enforceability in Greece of the award ‘which has been turned into a Greek executable title by virtue of’ the first instance judgment cannot be further challenged. This begs the question as to when the first instance judgment became enforceable as opposed to unappealable.
[50] I have considerable difficulty in understanding how the judgment of the Court of First Instance, or at the very least, that judgment taken with the detention judgment, was other than final and conclusive in the sense that that test is understood in English law. The judgment does not, on its face, indicate that it was stayed or suspended. (The detention judgment records that ‘according to the summons there is no appeal/objection being considered’.) On the basis of
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it the defendant was sentenced to imprisonment. The Court of Appeal and the Supreme Court dismissed the appeals to them on the grounds that they had been filed out of time and the defendant had not established that the claimant had not followed the appropriate procedure for service of the proceedings before the Court of First Instance or had acted deceitfully.
[51] In those circumstances I am far from persuaded that there is no limitation point available to the defendant. On the contrary it seems to me inherently likely that there is one.
[52] Accordingly, even if I had granted permission to amend and given retrospective permission to serve the amended claim form out of the jurisdiction, I would not have given summary judgment. The fact that the basis of any claim to enforce the Greek judgment by action rests on what may be shaky foundations because of the limitation position confirms me in my refusal of the permissions to which I have referred. This is a case which cries out for being dealt with in a proper and orderly way; and not in circumstances where, because of the claimant’s necessary volte-face the claimant has come evidentially unprepared to deal adequately with the very real limitation problems and the defendant has had precious little time to do so. If an application for leave to serve out had been made without notice upon the basis that the claimant was pursuing an action to enforce the judgment, then, on my present understanding of the material, I would have been reluctant to grant permission without an adequate explanation as to why the limitation period did not begin to run until the judgment of the Supreme Court when execution in the form of imprisonment could take effect in 1997.
PUBLIC POLICY
[53] Mr Phillips submits that it would be contrary to public policy to give effect to an action on the judgment. To do so would, he submits, circumvent s 7 of the 1980 Act which precludes the bringing of an action to enforce an award more than six years after the date when the cause of action accrued. I am not persuaded that this is so. The 1980 Act provides a six-year limitation period (in most cases) for claims under an original cause of action, claims to enforce an award, and claims to enforce a judgment. It makes no provision that an action on a judgment may not be brought within six years of the judgment if the judgment is one which gives effect to an award. Nor do I think that the court should be astute to produce the same result, when Parliament did not choose to do so, particularly when the reason for actions being brought on judgments or awards giving effect to causes of action is likely to be that a defendant, who owes money, has neither made compensation for the original breach, nor honoured the resulting award, nor satisfied the subsequent judgment.
[54] That that is the correct view appears to me to be established by the decision of the Court of Appeal in ED & F Man Sugar Ltd v Haryanto [1996] CA Transcript 877, (1996) Times, 9 August. The facts were that the present claimant had in 1989 obtained a judgment in the High Court giving effect to an arbitration award in its favour. That award itself ordered the payment of sums due but unpaid under a settlement agreement in 1986 in respect of causes of action which arose in 1982. In 1995 the claimant brought a fresh action on the 1989 High Court judgment. The defendant contended unsuccessfully before Longmore J, that the court had no jurisdiction to entertain an action on an earlier judgment of the court. On appeal it was contended that any supposed right to a
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second judgment would circumvent the 1980 Act, and open the prospect of an indefinite series of further actions on the judgments that had gone before.
[55] The Court of Appeal held that the bringing of an action on a former judgment was a matter of right. As Leggatt LJ put it:
‘Suing on a judgment, at all events for the first time, cannot be said to defeat legislative policy. That is plain from the very language of section 24 of the Limitation Act 1980 . . . Here the second action was, of course brought within [the] limitation period.’
The effect of the court’s decision was that the original award would be enforced by an action on a judgment well beyond six years after the accrual of the cause of action on which the award was based.
CONCLUSION
[56] In the result I propose to do no more than to set aside the order of David Steel J.
Order accordingly.
Martyn Gurr Barrister.
Seaga v Harper
[2008] 1 All ER 965
[2008] UKPC 9
Categories: TORTS; Defamation
Court: PRIVY COUNCIL
Lord(s): LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE, LORD CARSWELL, LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY AND SIR HENRY BROOKE
Hearing Date(s): 30 JANUARY 2008
Libel and slander – Privilege – Qualified privilege – Common law privilege – Responsible journalism – Politician making statement defaming public official – Whether politician protected by qualified privilege – Whether defence of responsible journalism limited to press and broadcasting media.
The defendant was the leader of the opposition in Jamaica. His party organised a meeting which was open to the public at which representatives of the press and broadcasting media were present. He spoke about the impending appointment of a Commissioner of Police and made a statement about the claimant who was one of the Deputy Commissioners. The defendant’s speech was published widely throughout Jamaica in the press and on television and radio. The claimant issued proceedings for slander. In his defence the defendant pleaded qualified privilege, stating that issues arising from the leadership of the police force were matters of general public interest upon which he as a member of Parliament, leader of the opposition and leader of a political party had an interest or duty in making communication to the general public and on which members of the public had a corresponding interest in receiving communication. The judge held that the Reynolds defence of ‘responsible journalism’ (see Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] All ER 609) was available to the defendant and after holding that the words complained of were defamatory of the claimant examined the publication of those words in the light the guidelines in Reynolds. He considered the evidence in detail and concluded, however, that the defendant’s publication was not protected. The defendant appealed. The Court of Appeal of Jamaica agreed with the judge that the defendant had not shown requisite care to found qualified privilege but they considered that the Reynolds defence was available only to the press and broadcasting media. They dismissed the appeal and the defendant appealed to the Privy Council.
Held – The Reynolds defence was not available only to the press and broadcasting media but extended to publications made by any person who published material of public interest in any medium so long as the conditions applicable to ‘responsible journalism’ were satisfied. In the instant case the Court of Appeal had been incorrect to hold that the Reynolds approach did not apply. However, the judge had been correct in holding that on the evidence the defendant’s publication of the words was not protected by qualified privilege; the defendant had failed to take sufficient care to check the reliability of the information he had disseminated. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [11], [13]–[16], below).
Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609 and dicta of Lord Hoffmann in Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL [2006] 4 All ER 1279 at [54] and of Lord Scott of Foscote in Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL [2006] 4 All ER 1279 at [118] applied.
Kearns v General Council of the Bar [2003] 2 All ER 534 considered.
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Notes
For the defence of qualified privilege, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 109.
Cases referred to in judgment
Adam v Ward [1917] AC 309, [1916–17] All ER Rep 157, HL.
Allbutt v General Medical Council (1889) 23 QBD 400, CA.
Blackshaw v Lord [1983] 2 All ER 311, [1984] QB 1, [1983] 3 WLR 283, CA.
Chapman v Lord Ellesmere [1932] 2 KB 431, [1932] All ER Rep 221, CA.
Cox v Feeney (1863) 4 F & F 13.
Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL [2006] UKHL 44, [2006] 4 All ER 1279, [2007] 1 AC 359, [2006] 3 WLR 642.
Kearns v General Council of the Bar [2003] EWCA Civ 331, [2003] 2 All ER 534, [2003] 1 WLR 1357.
Lange v Australian Broadcasting Corp (1997) 189 CLR 520, [1997] 4 LRC 192, Aus HC.
London Artists Ltd v Littler [1968] 1 All ER 1075, [1968] 1 WLR 607.
Loutchansky v Times Newspapers Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1805, [2002] 1 All ER 652, [2002] QB 783, [2002] 2 WLR 640.
Perera v Peiris [1949] AC 1, PC.
Purcell v Sowler (1877) 2 CPD 215, CA.
Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609, [2001] 2 AC 127, [1999] 3 WLR 1010, HL.
Webb v Times Publishing Co Ltd [1960] 2 All ER 789, [1960] 2 QB 535, [1960] 3 WLR 352.
Appeal
Edward Seaga (the appellant) appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal of Jamaica (Harrison P, Smith JA and McCalla JA (Ag)) from the decision of the Court of Appeal dismissing his appeal from the decision of Brooks J in proceedings for slander brought against the appellant by Leslie Harper (the respondent) that the appellant had not been protected by qualified privilege. The facts are set out in the opinion of the board.
RNA Henriques (of the Jamaica Bar) and Raymond Clough (instructed by Davis Solicitors) for the appellant.
Lord Gifford QC and Heather Rogers QC (instructed by Finer Stephens Innocent) for the respondent.
30 January 2008. The following judgment of the Board was delivered.
LORD CARSWELL.
[1] The appellant, Edward Seaga, is an experienced Jamaican politician, who at the material time was leader of the Jamaica Labour Party (JLP) and leader of the opposition. As such he was well acquainted with making statements for public consumption and using the media for obtaining the necessary publicity to give such statements wide circulation. On 2 October 1996 he made a statement at a meeting about the respondent, Leslie Harper, one of the Deputy Commissioners of Police, which was widely reported by representatives of the media who were present at the meeting. The respondent issued these proceedings for slander. The trial judge, Brooks J, who heard the action without
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a jury, held that the words complained of were defamatory of the respondent in his office of Deputy Commissioner of Police, and this finding has not been in issue before the Board. The words spoken have not been justified nor is there a plea of fair comment. The sole defence put forward is that they were spoken on an occasion of qualified privilege. There is no plea of malice. The judge held that the appellant was not protected by qualified privilege and made an award of damages of $3,500,000. On appeal the Court of Appeal (Harrison P, Smith JA and McCalla JA (Ag)) dismissed the appellant’s appeal on the issue of privilege but reduced the award of damages to $1,500,000. The appellant has appealed to the Privy Council, with the leave of the Court of Appeal, on the issue of liability.
[2] The JLP organised a meeting, open to the public, to be held on 6 March 1996 at the Wyndham Hotel, Kingston. Representatives of the press and broadcasting media were present. They regularly attended such meetings and the appellant accepted in cross-examination that his party would have alerted them to the holding of this meeting. One of the topics on which the appellant spoke was the impending appointment of a Commissioner of Police in succession to the retiring Commissioner, which appointment would be made by the party in government, the People’s National Party (PNP). In the course of his speech he said:
‘Part of the strategy is to get rid of the present Commissioner of Police, and to put in place someone whose credentials as a PNP activist are impeccable, reliable, solidly supported—a distinguished supporter of the PNP. The only difference being that he is in uniform. Mr. Harper who is considered to be the person to replace Trevor McMillan is someone who we cannot and never will be able to support, because it is re-creating the conditions of 1993 when a similar type of Commissioner was in the post who did everything to turn a blind eye in that election.’
The speech was published widely throughout Jamaica in the press and on television and radio. As the appellant accepted in his answer to the thirteenth interrogatory administered to him, he knew when he made the speech that the media representatives were present. In his answer to the eleventh interrogatory he said that it was his duty as leader of the parliamentary opposition ‘to communicate directly with the people of this island’ his party’s objection to the respondent becoming Commissioner of Police. In the course of his evidence the appellant said that his intention was to perform his duty as leader of the opposition and ‘to inform the country of the danger of appointing Mr Harper as Commissioner of Police’.
[3] The appellant gave the following particulars in support of the plea of qualified privilege in his defence:
‘The integrity, impartiality and independence from political influence of the police force, particularly its leadership and the conduct of the Plaintiff, a senior police officer and one of its leaders as also the importance to the holding of free and fair elections under the Constitution of vigilant and impartial enforcement of the law by the leadership of the police force including the Plaintiff, are matters of general public interest upon which the Defendant, as a Member of Parliament, Leader of the Opposition and Leader of the Jamaica Labour Party, had an interest or duty in making communication to the general public and on which members of the public had a corresponding interest in receiving communication.’
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In addition to his answer to the eleventh interrogatory, the appellant said in para 9 of his written witness statement:
‘As Leader of the Opposition I considered it my duty to tell the people of Jamaica of my fears in that regard [viz that the respondent was a strong supporter of the PNP], and I had every reason to believe that the people of this country were interested in receiving that information.’
He repeated this averment in his oral evidence, when he said in cross-examination:
‘My intention was to perform my duty of Leader of the Opposition and to inform the country of the danger of appointing Mr Harper as Commissioner of Police . . .’
It is in their Lordships’ view clear that the appellant knew and intended at the time of publication that his words should receive such wide publicity.
[4] The appellant was cross-examined in some detail about the inquiries he had made before making the statement to ascertain the correctness of his facts. He said that he had received information from senior members of his party, and that many people had telephoned him to warn him that the respondent was biased towards the PNP. He accepted their word and did not seek to question them about the foundation of their information. He declined to name his informants, as he said that the information was given to him in confidence. He did not attempt to go beyond their findings. He did not ask the Commissioner Colonel McMillan, as that would have been inappropriate, nor did he contact the respondent himself. He did not report his concerns to the Police Services Commission, as he and his party had no faith in it.
[5] The defence of qualified privilege, like so many other doctrines of the common law, developed over a period of time, commencing in the nineteenth century, and is still in the process of development. The history is conveniently summarised in the judgment of Dunn LJ in Blackshaw v Lord [1983] 2 All ER 311 at 332–333, [1984] QB 1 at 33–34 drawing on the argument of Sir Valentine Holmes KC in Perera v Peiris [1949] AC 1 at 9. By the time of the decision of the Court of Appeal in Purcell v Sowler (1877) 2 CPD 215 it was assuming its recognisable modern form. It is founded upon the need to permit the making of statements where there is a duty, legal, social or moral, or sufficient interest on the part of the maker to communicate them to recipients who have a corresponding interest or duty to receive them, even though they may be defamatory, so long as they are made without malice, that is to say, honestly and without any indirect or improper motive. It is the occasion on which the statement is made which carries the privilege, and under the traditional common law doctrine there must be a reciprocity of duty and interest: Adam v Ward [1917] AC 309 at 334, [1916–17] All ER Rep 157 at 170, per Lord Atkinson. The development of the law is accurately and conveniently expressed in Duncan and Neill on Defamation (2nd edn, 1983), p 93 (para 14.04):
‘From the broad general principle that certain communications should be protected by qualified privilege “in the general interest of society”, the courts have developed the concept that there must exist between the publisher and the publishee some duty or interest in the making of the communication.’
[6] The law has been slow to accept that a communication to the world at large, such as in a newspaper, is protected by qualified privilege. It has
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traditionally been held either that there is no duty on the part of the maker to publish it so widely or that the breadth of the class of recipients is too wide for them all to have an interest in receiving it: see, eg, Chapman v Lord Ellesmere [1932] 2 KB 431, [1932] All ER Rep 221; and cf Gatley on Libel and Slander (10th edn, 2004) pp 384, 452 (paras 14.6, 14.81). The submission has been advanced from time to time that the law should recognise the existence of a species of qualified privilege founded upon a duty on the part of the maker of the statement to publish it to the world at large. This received some support from Pearson J in Webb v Times Publishing Co Ltd [1960] 2 All ER 789 at 804, [1960] 2 QB 535 at 568 and from Cantley J in London Artists Ltd v Littler [1968] 1 All ER 1075 at 1085, [1968] 1 WLR 607 at 619, but in Blackshaw v Lord [1983] 2 All ER 311, [1984] QB 1 the Court of Appeal was cautious about accepting it as a general rule, while being prepared to acknowledge the existence of occasional exceptions (the examples usually given are Cox v Feeney (1863) 4 F & F 13, Allbutt v General Medical Council (1889) 23 QBD 400 and Webb v Times Publishing Co Ltd). The germ of the idea of a privilege for reports to a wide range of readers or listeners where the circumstances warrant a finding of sufficient general public interest may, however, be seen in Blackshaw v Lord, a decision which merits more attention than it has hitherto received. To recognise such a defence in some form would be consonant with the principle underlying the defence of privilege, that it is in the public interest that such statements should be made, notwithstanding the risk that they may be defamatory of the subjects of the statements. Nevertheless, although attempts were made to move the law in this direction, it could not be said until the decision of the House of Lords in Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609, [2001] 2 AC 127 that a defence on these lines was available to those who published defamatory statements to the world at large.
[7] The plaintiff Mr Albert Reynolds is a former Irish Taoiseach, concerning whom a report was published in the British mainland edition of the Sunday Times containing allegations which the jury held were untrue. He was awarded nominal damages, and the judge held after legal submissions that the defence of qualified privilege failed. The Court of Appeal allowed Mr Reynolds’ appeal and ordered a new trial. They also held that the defendants would not be able to rely on the defence of qualified privilege. The publishers appealed to the House of Lords, where their counsel argued in favour of a new category of qualified privilege, applicable to occasions of dissemination of political information (a term and a category of privilege accepted by the High Court of Australia in Lange v Australian Broadcasting Corp (1997) 189 CLR 520, [1997] 4 LRC 192). The House rejected this submission, but unanimously agreed that the traditional ambit of qualified privilege should be extended somewhat. The basis on which their Lordships did so and the extent of the change in the law have been the subject of some debate since the decision was given, but these matters have become rather more clear since the House returned to the subject in Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe SPRL [2006] UKHL 44, [2006] 4 All ER 1279, [2007] 1 AC 359.
[8] Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead, who gave the main speech, considered the essential factors of freedom of expression, the importance of the role of the media in the expression and communication of information and comment on political matters, and the reputation of individuals as an integral and important part of their dignity. He concluded that the necessary balance between these factors could be achieved, while liberating the law to some extent from the traditional duty-interest concept of qualified privilege. He considered that the established common law approach remained essentially sound. What he proposed, with
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which the other members of the appellate committee agreed, was a degree of elasticity, adapting the common law test to afford some protection to what he described as ‘responsible journalism’. The court is to have regard to all the circumstances when deciding whether the publication of particular material was privileged because of its value to the public.
[9] Lord Nicholls set out ([1999] 4 All ER 609 at 626, [2001] 2 AC 127 at 205) a number of matters to be taken into account in coming to that decision. He made it clear that the list was not exhaustive, but was illustrative only, and the weight to be given to those and other relevant factors would vary from case to case. They were to include the following:
‘(1) The seriousness of the allegation. The more serious the charge, the more the public is misinformed and the individual harmed, if the allegation is not true. (2) The nature of the information, and the extent to which the subject matter is a matter of public concern. (3) The source of the information. Some informants have no direct knowledge of the events. Some have their own axes to grind, or are being paid for their stories. (4) The steps taken to verify the information. (5) The status of the information. The allegation may have already been the subject of an investigation which commands respect. (6) The urgency of the matter. News is often a perishable commodity. (7) Whether comment was sought from the plaintiff. He may have information others do not possess or have not disclosed. An approach to the plaintiff will not always be necessary. (8) Whether the article contained the gist of the plaintiff’s side of the story. (9) The tone of the article. A newspaper can raise queries or call for an investigation. It need not adopt allegations as statements of fact. (10) The circumstances of the publication, including the timing.’
[10] Several matters have been the subject of debate since the decision in Reynolds was given, but the issues have to a large extent been resolved, particularly since the decision in Jameel’s case. The first is the juridical status of the extension of privilege effected in Reynolds’s case. Some have described it as ‘a different jurisprudential creature from the traditional form of privilege from which it sprang’: see Loutchansky v Times Newspapers Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1805 at [35], [2002] 1 All ER 652 at [35] per Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers MR, with whom Lord Hoffmann agreed in Jameel’s case [2006] 4 All ER 1279 at [46]. Both Lord Phillips in Loutchansky’s case [2002] 1 All ER 652 at [33] and Lord Hoffmann in Jameel’s case [2006] 4 All ER 1279 at [46] adopted the view that the privilege in such cases attaches to the publication itself rather than, as in traditional privilege cases, to the occasion on which it is published. Others take the view that the Reynolds privilege is built upon the foundation of the duty-interest privilege, an opinion adopted by Lord Bingham of Cornhill, Lord Hope of Craighead and Lord Scott of Foscote in Jameel’s case. For the purposes of the present appeal the precise jurisprudential status of the Reynolds privilege is immaterial. What is significant is that it is plain in their Lordships’ opinion that the Reynolds decision was based, as Lord Bingham of Cornhill said in Jameel’s case (at [35]), on a ‘liberalising intention’. It was intended to give, and in their Lordships’ view has given, a wider ambit of qualified privilege to certain types of communication to the public in general than would have been afforded by the traditional rules of law.
[11] The second disputed matter, which is germane to the present appeal, is whether the Reynolds defence is available only to the press and broadcasting
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media or whether it is of wider ambit. In Kearns v General Council of the Bar [2003] EWCA Civ 331, [2003] 2 All ER 534 the Court of Appeal expressed the view that it was confined to media publications. That was not, however, necessary to the decision and their Lordships are unable to accept that it is correct in principle. They can see no valid reason why it should not extend to publications made by any person who publishes material of public interest in any medium, so long as the conditions framed by Lord Nicholls as being applicable to ‘responsible journalism’ are satisfied. Lord Hoffmann so stated categorically in Jameel’s case [2006] 4 All ER 1279 at [54] and his opinion was supported by Lord Scott of Foscote (at [118]) and, by inference at least, by Baroness Hale of Richmond (at [146]).
[12] The third matter debated since Reynolds’s case, and now specifically dealt with by the House of Lords in Jameel’s case, is how the factors set out by Lord Nicholls in describing responsible journalism in Reynolds’s case are to be handled. They are not like a statute, nor are they a series of conditions each of which has to be satisfied or tests which the publication has to pass. As Lord Hoffmann said in Jameel’s case (at [56]), in the hands of a judge hostile to the spirit of Reynolds’s case, they can become ten hurdles at any of which the defence may fail. That is not the proper approach. The standard of conduct required of the publisher of the material must be applied in a practical manner and have regard to practical realities (see [56]). The material should, as Lord Hope of Craighead said (at [107]–[108]), be looked at as a whole, not dissected or assessed piece by piece, without regard to the whole context.
[13] The trial judge in the present case held that it was governed by the Reynolds principles. He stated:
‘The scenario in which Mr Seaga made his comments, that is, at a hotel, at a meeting open to the public and attended by the news media raises the question of the type of publication that it was. It is my view that in this context the publication is to the world at large. The national coverage afforded by media with island-wide circulation takes the occasion of this communication out of the realm of communication between persons in a specific relationship. Mr. Seaga was no longer speaking just to members of his party or to members of the public who had attended the meeting; he was addressing through the media, at least an island-wide audience. In this context it may be that a special approach is required (see [Kearns v General Council of the Bar [2003] 2 All ER 534, [2003] 1 WLR 1357]. This approach is outlined in the case of [Reynolds v Times Newspapers Ltd [1999] 4 All ER 609, [2001] 2 AC 127]. The Reynolds case dealt with a publication by a newspaper. In the Kearns case Simon Brown LJ asserted (at 536) that the Reynolds case applies only to media publications. I find however, that the Reynolds case does apply to the instant case bearing in mind the presence in the audience of the media and Mr Seaga’s realized expectation that his utterances were more than likely to be quoted to the public by the media.’
In the Court of Appeal Harrison P and Smith JA held that the Reynolds principles could only apply to publications by the media. McCalla JA held that the judge was not correct in applying those principles, because publication by the media ought not to have been attributed to him. For the reasons which they have given, their Lordships consider that the Reynolds approach did apply to the present case and that the judge was right and the Court of Appeal incorrect in this respect.
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[14] The judge went on to examine the publication in the light of the guidelines set out by Lord Nicholls in Reynolds’s case. He considered the evidence in detail under all ten heads and concluded that in the circumstances Mr Seaga’s publication of the words was not protected by qualified privilege. He was of opinion in particular as follows: (a) the information brought to him did not rise above mere rumour; (b) as he was unaware of the sources of the information the court was prevented by that lack of knowledge from determining whether or not they were reliable sources; (c) merely to rely on the conclusions of the thought processes of other people without demonstrating the validity of those conclusions was ‘inadequate at best’; (d) the matter was not so urgent that it could not await a sitting of the House of Representatives, since Mr Seaga was unhappy with the other official channels. The Court of Appeal agreed with the judge that Mr Seaga had not shown the requisite care to found qualified privilege. They so held on the basis that the Reynolds principles did not apply, but that the quality of the information was such that the appellant did not have a duty to report it to the public.
[15] Mr Henriques QC argued on behalf of the appellant before the Board that the case did not fall within the Reynolds principles but was governed by the doctrines of traditional qualified privilege. Their Lordships consider that this was a misconceived argument. The Reynolds test is more easily satisfied, being a liberalisation of the traditional rules, and it is more difficult to bring a case within the latter. They are satisfied that the publication was not covered by traditional qualified privilege, for the element of reciprocity of duty and interest was lacking when the appellant knowingly made it to the public at large via the attendant media. If privilege was to be successfully claimed, it could only be under the Reynolds principles and, as they have said, those principles applied to the case. For the reasons given by the judge, however, with which their Lordships agree, the appellant failed to take sufficient care to check the reliability of the information which he disseminated and is unable to rely on the defence.
[16] In agreement with the conclusions reached by the judge on liability, rather than those of the Court of Appeal, their Lordships consider that the appeal must fail. They will humbly advise Her Majesty that it should be dismissed with costs and the award of damages, as reduced by the Court of Appeal to $1,500,000, affirmed.
Appeal dismissed.
Marie-Thérèse Groarke Barrister.
R (on the application of Madan) v Secretary of State for the Home Department;
R (on the application of Kapoor) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
[2008] 1 All ER 973
[2007] EWCA Civ 770
Categories: IMMIGRATION: PRACTICE DIRECTIONS
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR, BUXTON AND LAWRENCE COLLINS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 11, 25 JULY 2007
Immigration – Deportation – Judicial review applications against removal directions – Principles – Guidance.
CPR PD 54.18 makes provision for the hearing of judicial review applications in the Administrative Court against removal from the jurisdiction. Such applications must be made promptly on the intimation of a deportation decision, and not await the actual fixing of removal arrangements. The detailed statement required by PD 18.2(c) must include a statement of all previous applications made in respect of the applicant’s immigration status and indicate how the present state of the case differs from previous applications. Counsel or solicitors attending ex parte before the judge in the administrative court are under professional obligations (a) to draw the judge’s attention to any matter adverse to their client’s case, including in particular any previous adverse decisions; and (b) to take a full note of the judge’s judgment or reasons, which should then be submitted to the judge for approval. Those contemplating thereafter applying to the Court of Appeal should remember that they are most unlikely to succeed unless they can identify an error of law on the part of the judge. The Court of Appeal has no jurisdiction to entertain any application for ancillary relief, such as an injunction against removal, unless an application has been made for permission to appeal against the decision of the Administrative Court. Any application for injunctive relief should either (a) only be made after an application for permission to appeal has been issued; or (b) in cases of real urgency, where the court office is not open, against an undertaking to issue the application (and pay the appropriate fee) at the first opportunity. The Treasury Solicitor should be promptly informed of the intention to apply for injunctive relief, in case he is able to and wishes to attend. The applicant should put before the Lord Justice (a) the papers that were before the judge in the Administrative Court, including the detailed statement required by PD 18.2(c); (b) counsel or solicitors’ note of the reasons or judgment of the judge in the Administrative Court, stating whether or not it has been approved by the judge; (c) a succinct statement of the error or errors alleged to have been committed by the judge in the Administrative Court, general claims that the judge erred in fact or law in taking a particular view, or in his decision as a whole, not being acceptable; and (d) where there has been any delay in bringing the matter before either the Administrative Court or the Court of Appeal, an explanation of that delay. Counsel will remember that where the
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application is made ex parte there is a particular obligation to draw the court’s attention to relevant authority, including in particular country guidance cases. Failure to adhere to the above principles may lead to professional sanctions (see [2], [16], [17], below).
Notes
For judicial review in the immigration context, see 4(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2002 reissue) para 195.
Cases referred to in judgment
BR (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, MD (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 198, [2007] 3 All ER 318, [2007] 1 WLR 2278.
R (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 982, [2005] All ER (D) 384 (Jul).
SL (Returning Sikhs and Hindus) Afghanistan CG [2005] UKIAT 00137.
Judicial review
R (on the application of Madan) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
Harmit Singh Madan entered the United Kingdom in 2003 and his immediate claim for asylum was dismissed. The Secretary of State accepted representations as a fresh claim in August 2005 and that claim was rejected in April 2006. A further fresh claim was rejected in June 2007 and Mr Madan’s solicitors were notified of removal directions for 26 June 2007. Further representations were made and rejected on 22 June 2007. An application for judicial review of the deportation decision was issued on 26 June 2007 and an application for an injunction preventing removal pending the judicial review was made. Mitting J refused the application and refused permission to appeal. On application to a single Lord Justice the deportation order was stayed until the permission application could be considered by the full court. At the consequent hearing counsel for the Secretary of State suggested that the merits of the case could be considered at an expedited hearing of the application for judicial review and undertook to suspend action on the deportation order until the application was discharged. The Court of Appeal therefore made no order on the application against the Secretary of State’s undertaking and the undertaking by Mr Madan’s solicitors to promote the judicial review proceedings with all despatch. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R (on the application of Kapoor) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
Barat Kapoor entered the United Kingdom in March 2000. He was refused asylum but granted exceptional leave to remain. In June 2006 Mr Kapoor made a fresh claim which was rejected by the Secretary of State. Mr Kapoor then made an application for indefinite leave to remain. In January 2007 the Secretary of State invited representations in relation Mr Kapoor’s deportation. Those representations were rejected as was Mr Kapoor’s application for indefinite leave to remain. A deportation order was served on 14 March 2007. An application for judicial review of the deportation decision was issued on 26 June 2007 and an application for an injunction preventing removal pending
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the judicial review was made. Mitting J refused the application and refused permission to appeal. On application to a single Lord Justice the deportation order was stayed until the permission application could be considered by the full court. At the consequent hearing counsel for the Secretary of State suggested that the merits of the case could be considered at an expedited hearing of the application for judicial review and undertook to suspend action on the deportation order until the application was discharged. The Court of Appeal therefore made no order on the application against the Secretary of State’s undertaking and the undertaking by Mr Kapoor’s solicitors to promote the judicial review proceedings with all despatch. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Amanda Jones (instructed by Malik & Malik) for Mr Madan and Mr Kapoor.
Lisa Giovannetti (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Judgment was reserved.
25 July 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
BUXTON LJ.
THE NATURE OF THESE PROCEEDINGS
[1] Mr Madan and Mr Kapoor are both citizens of the Republic of Afghanistan. Mr Madan is a Sikh. Mr Kapoor appears to be a Hindu, though at one stage of the immigration process it seems to have been claimed that he also was a Sikh. Both claim to fear persecution on grounds of their respective religions if returned to Afghanistan. Both are unlawfully in this country, and the Secretary of State has made deportation orders against both of them. On 26 June 2007 the solicitors to both men issued judicial review proceedings seeking to challenge those deportation orders, and at the same time applied to Mitting J for injunctions preventing their removal pending those proceedings. Mitting J refused those applications and refused permission to appeal to this court. On application to a single judge of this court the deportation orders were stayed until the permission applications could be considered by the full court. After some discussion with the court at the consequent hearing counsel for the Secretary of State suggested that the merits could be more properly considered at an expedited hearing of the judicial review applications and the Secretary of State undertook to suspend any action on the deportation orders until those applications were discharged. We agreed to that course, albeit with some considerable reluctance, not least because it became apparent as the hearing proceeded that the material before us did not equip us to reach a proper decision ourselves.
[2] We therefore made no order on the applications, against that undertaking and an undertaking by the applicants’ solicitors to promote the judicial review proceedings with all despatch. This whole episode has, however, pointed to some wider issues on which the court needs to give guidance, which we do in this judgment. First, however, but purely in order to render the rest of what we say intelligible, we say something briefly about the nature and history of the two cases.
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MR KAPOOR
[3] Mr Kapoor was apprehended attempting to enter the United Kingdom clandestinely in March 2000. He was refused asylum, but granted exceptional leave to remain until 26 February 2006 under the then policy with regard to persons coming from Afghanistan. In October 2005 the Immigration Appeal Tribunal issued a country guidance determination, SL (Returning Sikhs and Hindus) Afghanistan CG [2005] UKIAT 00137, which held that Sikhs and Hindus returning to Afghanistan do not face a threat of persecution per se, but that religion was a factor that could be taken into account in individual cases. In June 2006 Mr Kapoor’s solicitors made a fresh claim, apparently for asylum, on the basis of an expert report about Afghanistan (not shown to us, and no longer relied on); but also claiming relief under art 8 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). That application was rejected, and in September 2006 Mr Kapoor withdrew his appeal against the rejection, his solicitors having given unfavourable advice as to the prospects of success. Rather, Mr Kapoor made an application for indefinite leave to remain, on the basis of his previous exceptional leave, by then expired.
[4] On 18 January 2007 the Secretary of State informed Mr Kapoor that he was considering his deportation, and invited representations. The solicitors replied on Mr Kapoor’s behalf. On 19 February 2007 the Secretary of State informed the solicitors that those representations had been rejected, and on 21 February 2007 wrote to Mr Kapoor rejecting his application for indefinite leave to remain. A deportation order was served on 14 March 2007, and copied to the solicitors on 21 March 2007. They told us that thereafter they wrote to Mr Kapoor on a few occasions, but had no response. They did nothing about further challenge to the deportation order.
[5] Miss Jones, who held a difficult brief with considerable resource, told us that the solicitors were justified in their inaction because no decision had been made on the application for indefinite leave to remain. That was wrong, on two grounds. First, a decision had been made, and communicated to Mr Kapoor in the letter of 21 February 2007. We were told that Mr Kapoor had never received the letter. We do not accept that. It was sent to him at the Dover Removal Centre where he was then detained, and in the short time available to her to address this allegation the Secretary of State was able to show us the office record of that despatch. Second, however, whether or not the decision had been made or notified to Mr Kapoor, if the deportation order was to be resisted because of pending leave proceedings it was necessary to take that point immediately on the order being made, and not to leave things, as they were left in this case, until removal was imminent.
[6] With removal immediately pending, on 24 June 2007, as already described, the solicitors commenced judicial review proceedings challenging the decision to deport. That was based on two heads. First, Mr Kapoor’s claims, previously abandoned, under art 8. Second, a claim that it was now unsafe in any event for Sikhs or Hindus to be returned to Afghanistan, that claim being based on a report of a Dr Ballard, produced for the first time in these proceedings on 25 June 2007.
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MR MADAN
[7] Mr Madan entered the United Kingdom unlawfully in 2003, an immediate claim for asylum being dismissed. The Secretary of State accepted representations as a fresh claim in August 2005, but that was rejected in April 2006. No application was made for statutory review, but a month after the decision further representations, again alleged to be a fresh claim, were submitted to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State responded in early June 2007, rejecting the application and notifying the solicitors that removal directions had been set for 20.40 hrs on 26 June 2007. Yet further representations were made, and rejected on 22 June 2007. An application for judicial review of the decision to deport was then issued on 26 June 2007, the very day of the proposed removal, and again relying on the report of Dr Ballard, which again only made its appearance at that stage of the proceedings.
[8] We mention now one unsatisfactory feature of both of these cases, which is that serial applications were made for reconsideration on the basis of changed circumstances. Advisers need to consider very carefully before making such an application (which is very demanding on public resources) whether the application is justified. It will amount to professional misconduct to make an unjustified application with a view to postponing the implementation of a previous decision.
[9] Looking at the cases more generally, it will be convenient first to explain what appears to be in issue in the two cases, and why this court adopted the course described above.
MR KAPOOR’S ARTICLE 8 CLAIM
[10] Any court considering this claim will wish to bear in mind that although the relationship with a Ms Adams on which in part the claim is based is said to be of five years’ duration, the claim formulated on Mr Kapoor’s behalf on 25 July 2006 made no mention of that or any other relationship, but placed the claim not on Mr Kapoor’s family life but on his own private life; a claim under art 8 was withdrawn on advice in September 2006; Mr Kapoor stated in his application for indefinite leave to remain in November 2006 that he had lost contact with the mother of the child (not Ms Adams) on the basis of whom he now places part of his claim; and above all that the Secretary of State regards Mr Kapoor’s removal as necessary for the maintenance of proper immigration control, not least because during the period when he had exceptional leave to remain here he was convicted on 17 occasions, including one offence of robbery, one offence of racially aggravated assault, two offences of possession of controlled drugs and three offences of assault on a police constable; and had committed a further offence after his leave to remain expired.
[11] Nevertheless, it is not possible for this court, having envisaged that the judicial review proceedings should continue, to make any order as to their contents. It will therefore be open to Mr Kapoor to pursue this complaint if, on mature consideration, his advisers think that a proper course.
COUNTRY GUIDANCE CASES
[12] Dr Ballard’s report is relied on to offset the country guidance case of SL (Returning Sikhs and Hindus) Afghanistan, and thus to cause the Administrative Court to set aside the deportation orders, on the grounds that
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Afghanistan is no longer safe for Sikhs or Hindus irrespective of their individual circumstances. The Administrative Court is really a wholly unsuitable tribunal for that purpose. Country guidance cases have a special status, failure to attend properly to them being recognised by this court as an error of law even though country guidance cases deal only with fact: see R (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 982 at [27], [2005] All ER (D) 384 (Jul) at [27]. They have that special status because they are produced by a specialist court, after what at least should be a review of all of the available material. And that in particular involves a judicial input from a background of experience, not least experience in assessing evidence about country conditions, that is not available to judges such as sit in the Administrative Court and in this court. A judge hearing a judicial review application will therefore wish to tread carefully before finding that a country guidance case is unreliable just on the basis of one or two subsequent reports. The parties appearing before him will in particular wish to ensure that he is aware of any decisions in the Asylum and Immigration Tribunal subsequent to the country guidance case in which that case has been considered.
[13] These general considerations are over and above the cogent criticisms that Miss Giovannetti was able to make of the provenance and range of Dr Ballard’s report itself, which again the administrative judge will wish to take carefully into account.
HOW THIS MATTER CAME BEFORE THE COURT
[14] We have seen that the process with which Mitting J was concerned was initiated, and brought before the judge, on the very day on which removal was to take place, despite the solicitors having known, in the case of Mr Kapoor for several months, that deportation had been ordered. Mitting J concluded that the delay was deliberate, in order to make it impossible for proper judicial consideration to be given to the underlying merits. He was quite right to say that proper consideration could not be given to the merits: hence, in part, this court being obliged, reluctantly, to remit the matter to the Administrative Court. It is also wholly understandable that on the material and submissions made to him the judge thought that the applications were an abuse. We have now received from the solicitors a 120-paragraph witness statement which, although revealing a most unsatisfactory state of affairs, denies any deliberate misleading of the court. We accept that denial at face value, but set out how in other ways these matters were conducted unsatisfactorily.
[15] Mitting J said that in any event an application should have been made to the court, if at all, as soon as it was known that deportation had been ordered. As Mitting J pointed out, in the case of Mr Madan that was 11 June 2007. He did not know, but we now know, that in the case of Mr Kapoor the solicitors had been informed of the order as long ago as 14 March 2007. The failure to act promptly inevitably led to the difficulties that faced Mitting J and this court. As to the evidence of Dr Ballard, which is now said to be the thing that solves everything, the solicitors told us that they were not aware of Dr Ballard or his ability to help until they initiated the present proceedings, when they were told about him by Miss Jones. A report by Dr Ballard had in fact been used to persuade Langstaff J to grant permission for judicial review in another Afghanistan case, R (on the application of
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Pagalug) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (CO/2864/2007) on 11 May 2007, in which Miss Jones was instructed, but by different solicitors. We again accept what the solicitors tell us, but we are bound to note that they also told us that they have a prominent position in asylum work, including in particular cases involving Afghanistan. If Dr Ballard and his work are indeed as significant as is now claimed, it is very surprising that such solicitors had never heard of him. The result of this process was that Dr Ballard’s report was almost literally thrown across the table at Mitting J, so that the judge was understandably very reluctant to give weight to it. And it is far from clear that it was expressly stated to the judge that Dr Ballard’s report was in conflict with a country guidance case, with the implications indicated above.
[16] In the hope of avoiding a repetition of the unsatisfactory course of this case, we now set out some principles that must be followed in future. We do so against this background. In immigration matters the court is usually reluctant to follow the usual course of visiting faults of advisers upon their clients, for the reasons that were explored in the judgments in this court in BR (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, MD (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 198, [2007] 3 All ER 318, [2007] 1 WLR 2278. But, as the same case makes clear, that does not exempt the professional advisers from sanctions should they be responsible for impeding the efficient work of the courts.
PRINCIPLES TO BE FOLLOWED
[17] These are set out in no special order. All of them are important. Failure to adhere to them may lead to professional sanctions.
(i) CPR 54 PD 18 makes provision for the hearing of judicial review applications in the Administrative Court against removal from the jurisdiction. Such applications must be made promptly on the intimation of a deportation decision, and not await the actual fixing of removal arrangements.
(ii) The detailed statement required by PD 18.2(c) must include a statement of all previous applications made in respect of the applicant’s immigration status, and indicate how the present state of the case differs from previous applications.
(iii) Counsel or solicitors attending ex parte before the judge in the Administrative Court are under professional obligations (a) to draw the judge’s attention to any matter adverse to their client’s case, including in particular any previous adverse decisions; and (b) to take a full note of the judge’s judgment or reasons, which should then be submitted to the judge for approval.
(iv) Those contemplating thereafter applying to this court should remember that they are most unlikely to succeed unless they can identify an error of law on the part of the judge.
(v) This court has no jurisdiction to entertain any application for ancillary relief, such as an injunction against removal, unless an application has been made for permission to appeal against the decision of the Administrative Court. Any application for injunctive relief should either (a) only be made after an application for permission to appeal has been issued; or (b), in cases of real urgency, where the court office is not open, against an undertaking to issue the application (and pay the appropriate fee) at the first opportunity.
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(vi) The Treasury Solicitor should be promptly informed of the intention to apply for injunctive relief, in case he is able to and wishes to attend.
(vii) The applicant should put before the Lord Justice (a) the papers that were before the judge in the Administrative Court, including the matter referred to in sub-para (ii) above; (b) counsel or solicitors’ note of the reasons or judgment of the judge in the Administrative Court, stating whether or not it has been approved by the judge; (c) a succinct statement of the error or errors alleged to have been committed by the judge in the Administrative Court, general claims that the judge erred in fact or law in taking a particular view, or in his decision as a whole, not being acceptable; (d) where there has been any delay in bringing the matter before either the Administrative Court or the Court of Appeal, an explanation of that delay.
(viii) Counsel will remember that where the application is made ex parte there is a particular obligation to draw the court’s attention to relevant authority, including in particular country guidance cases.
The court made no order.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R (on the application of Paul and another) v Inner West London Assistant Deputy Coroner
[2008] 1 All ER 981
[2007] EWCA Civ 1259
Categories: CRIMINAL; Other: PROFESSIONS; Other
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WALLER, LATHAM AND DYSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 23, 26, 28 NOVEMBER 2007
Coroner – Inquest – Practice and procedure – Evidence – Documentary evidence – Power of coroner to admit documentary evidence – Witnesses from outside the jurisdiction unwilling to attend inquest – Whether coroner having common law power to admit hearsay evidence – Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552, r 37.
Diana, Princess of Wales, F, her companion, and the driver of their car had died in Paris in a car accident. An inquest was held into the deaths of the Princess and F. A number of witnesses to the deaths would not attend the inquest and there was no power, as they were not resident in England and Wales, to compel them to attend. Many of the witnesses had given statements which were in documentary form, including statements of witnesses made in proceedings in France and statements made to the Metropolitan Police in the course of its investigation into allegations that the deceased had been murdered in a criminal conspiracy. Rule 37a of the Coroners Rules 1984 applied to documentary evidence. Under r 37(1) the coroner could admit at an inquest documentary evidence relevant to the purposes of the inquest which in his opinion was unlikely to be disputed unless a ‘properly interested person’ objected and under r 37(2) documentary evidence so objected to could be admitted if in the opinion of the coroner the maker of the document was unable to give oral evidence within a reasonable period. The coroner ruled that in exercise of his common law power to admit hearsay evidence he could read the witness statements to the jury and that r 37 had no application to them. The interested parties, who were the family of the driver and the employer of the driver, applied for judicial review of the coroner’s decision arguing that documentary evidence could only be put in evidence directly by the coroner if it fell within r 37. The Divisional Court decided that the statements could not be read to the jury without calling witnesses and the coroner appealed. He contended that r 37 did not restrict his common law power as to the way in which he was entitled to introduce hearsay evidence or that if r 37 applied so as to restrict his power then a purposive construction had to be applied to the 1984 rules to enable the coroner to put such documents in evidence without calling any witness. He submitted, inter alia, that the phrase ‘unlikely to be disputed’ in r 37(1) could be construed as meaning ‘unlikely to be challenged in oral proceedings by interested persons’ rather than ‘uncontroversial’.
Held – Rule 37 of the 1984 Rules was a complete code dealing with all documentary evidence. In the instant case therefore, documents which did not
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fall within r 37 could not simply be read to the jury by the coroner. A witness had to be called to give the hearsay evidence. Moreover, r 37 could not be purposively construed so as to entitle the coroner to form the view that because the maker of the document would not come to give evidence that therefore the evidence was unlikely to be challenged within r 37(1) thus requiring the coroner then, if objection were taken by the interested parties and the documents were admitted as such, to have to form the opinion under r 37(2) that the makers of the documents were unable to give evidence within a reasonable period. The phrase ‘unlikely to be disputed’ plainly referred to documentary evidence that an interested party did not accept and wished to dispute. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [22]–[33], [35], [38]–[41], below).
R v Southwark Coroner, ex p Hicks [1987] 2 All ER 140, McKerr v Armagh Coroner [1990] 1 All ER 865 and Devine v A-G for Northern Ireland, Breslin v A-G for Northern Ireland [1992] 1 All ER 609 considered.
Notes
For inquests: evidence, see 9(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 1020.
For the Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552, r 37, see 5(1) Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (2007 issue) 570.
Cases referred to in opinions
Devine v A-G for Northern Ireland, Breslin v A-G for Northern Ireland [1992] 1 All ER 609, [1992] 1 WLR 262, HL.
McKerr v Armagh Coroner [1990] 1 All ER 865, [1990] 1 WLR 649, HL.
R v Divine, ex p Walton [1930] 2 KB 29, [1930] All ER Rep 302, DC.
R v North Humberside and Scunthorpe Coroner, ex p Jamieson [1994] 3 All ER 972, [1995] QB 1, [1994] 3 WLR 82, CA.
R v South London Coroner, ex p Thompson (1982) 126 SJ 625, DC.
R v Southwark Coroner, ex p Hicks [1987] 2 All ER 140, [1987] 1 WLR 1624, DC.
Appeal
The Assistant Deputy Coroner of Inner West London appealed from the decision of the Divisional Court (Thomas LJ and Aikens J) on 20 November 2007 ([2007] EWHC 2721 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 310 (Nov)) in judicial review proceedings brought by Jean Paul, Giselle Paul and The Ritz Hotel Ltd, as persons interested in the inquests into the deaths of Diana, Princess of Wales and Emad El-din Mohamed Abdel Moneim Fayed, of the decision of the coroner that statements made by witnesses resident outside the jurisdiction should be read by the coroner to the jury without the witnesses being called. The Metropolitan Police Commissioner appeared as a person interested in the inquests. The facts are set out in the judgment of Waller LJ.
Michael Beloff QC and Tom de la Mare (instructed by Barlow, Lyde and Gilbert) and Richard Keen QC and Robert Weekes (instructed by Stuart Benson & Co, Reading) for the claimants.
Ian Burnett QC and Jonathan Hough (instructed by Field Fisher Waterhourse) for the coroner.
Edmund Lawson QC and Duncan Macleod (instructed by Edward Solomons) for the Metropolitan Police Commissioner.
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26 November 2007. The court announced that the appeal would be dismissed for reasons to be given later.
28 November 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
WALLER LJ.
[1] This appeal is concerned with the way in which certain hearsay evidence can be given at an inquest. The point arises in the context of the inquests at present taking place into the death of the late Diana, Princess of Wales and the late Dodi Al Fayed. Their deaths, as is well known, occurred in a car crash in the Alma Underpass in Paris on 31 August 1997. A number of witnesses are resident outside the jurisdiction and cannot be compelled to attend the inquests. Many of those witnesses have given statements in documentary form and the question that arose at the inquests was whether the coroner could simply read those statements to the jury, or whether a witness had to be called in order to put the statements in evidence before the jury.
[2] On 7 November 2007 the assistant deputy coroner, Scott Baker LJ, ruled that the statements should simply be read by him and that there was no necessity to call a witness to put the statements in evidence. In so ruling he expressed the view that r 37 of the Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552, had no application to the statements with which he was concerned and that he was simply exercising his common law power to admit hearsay evidence.
[3] The interested parties, the family of the driver and those representing the Ritz Hotel, sought a judicial review of that decision and the matter was brought, as a matter of urgency, before the Divisional Court, who heard argument on Friday 16 November 2007. On 20 November 2007 they handed down a written judgment, under which they granted permission to judicially review the coroner’s decision and set that decision aside, holding that the statements could not be read to the jury without calling witnesses ([2007] EWHC 2721 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 310 (Nov)).
[4] As a matter of urgency, this court arranged for the hearing of an appeal from that decision. The appeal was heard on Friday 23 November and we gave our decision on Monday 26 November that the appeal would be dismissed for reasons to be given later. These are my reasons.
THE FACTUAL BACKGROUND
[5] I can take this from the Divisional Court’s judgment:
‘[4] The car in which the deceased were travelling was being driven by the late Henri Paul who was employed by the Ritz Hotel Ltd. This application for judicial review was brought by his parents Jean and Giselle Paul and also by the Ritz Hotel. They are both “Interested Persons” in the inquests. As is well known, the car carrying the deceased was being followed by members of the paparazzi.
[5] In the hours following the accident, officers of the French Brigade Criminelle began to take statements from witnesses; many were interviewed several times by officers and by examining magistrates. As is usual in France and other similar legal systems, a dossier was assembled into which the statements and other documents were added as they were obtained. At the conclusion of the judicial investigation, on the application of the State Prosecutor, the examining magistrates, Judges Stephan and Devidal issued a
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notice of dismissal on 3 September 1999. Mr Mohamed Al Fayed, the father of Dodi Al Fayed, appealed against Judge Stephan’s notice of dismissal; that appeal took some time to complete, but the notice of dismissal was ultimately confirmed. Further proceedings remain pending in France.
[6] In January 2004 the inquests into the deaths of the deceased were formally opened. Prior to that the coroners who had jurisdiction had written an international letter of request to Judge Stephan as a result of which, over a period of time, the dossier was made available to the coroners. The inquests were adjourned pending an investigation by the Commissioner of Police for the Metropolis, known as Operation Paget, into an allegation made by Mr Al Fayed that the deceased had been murdered in a criminal conspiracy. The report of that investigation was produced in December 2006. A separate report for the coroner was produced in early 2007.
[7] On 2 October 2007 the inquests commenced before the coroner. A timetable has been devised with the objective of concluding the inquests within six months. In accordance with that timetable, the jury has visited Paris and heard evidence from 32 witnesses who saw the journey of the car, the crash and its aftermath.
[8] It was intended that the paparazzi should give evidence between 29 October and 5 November 2007, but only one, Stéphane Darmon, attended in response to a summons.
[9] An arrangement made with the judicial authorities in France was that French witnesses were to be summoned by the French police to give evidence via a video link from the Palais de Justice in Paris. Over the summer, international letters of request had been sent on behalf of the coroner to ask for summonses to be served; it had not been possible to serve all of these because witnesses were not resident at known addresses; inquiries are being made to try and serve such witnesses.
[10] On 24 and 25 October 2007, the coroner asked the French authorities to compel the paparazzi to attend the Palais de Justice. On 29 October 2007 the French authorities stated they were not prepared to accede to this request, relying on the provisions of art 694 of the French Code of Criminal Procedure, which provides that such a request may be refused on the basis of interest of “l’ordre public”.
[11] The claimants contend that the paparazzi witnesses are of critical importance to the jury being able to answer the question of how the deceased met their deaths. They contend that there are serious doubts as to the truthfulness of the documentary evidence of the paparazzi witnesses contained in the statements and serious concerns as to the scope and rigour of the French investigation in which that evidence was obtained.
[12] The position therefore is, at present, that a number of important witnesses to the deaths of the deceased will not attend and there is no power, as they are not resident in England and Wales, to compel them to attend, the French authorities having declined to exercise such powers as exist.’
[6] The issue arises in respect of four categories of statement, all of which are in documentary form. They are: (i) statements of witnesses made in proceedings in France; (ii) statements of witnesses made to the Metropolitan Police, in the course of its Operation Paget; (iii) interviews of witnesses to the media, which were recovered by the Metropolitan Police Service or in the course of
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proceedings against the television company, Channel 4; and (iv) books written by witnesses.
[7] As the Divisional Court judgment made clear, and in relation to which there is no issue, at common law the coroner has the power to admit hearsay evidence and no one suggests that the above statements cannot be admitted in evidence. This appeal is not thus about the admission of hearsay evidence, it is about the way in which that hearsay evidence can be placed before the jury. It is the claimants’ argument that, so far as documentary evidence is concerned, that can only be put in evidence directly by the coroner if it falls within the provision of r 37 of the 1984 rules. Those representing the coroner seek to support his ruling that r 37 does not deprive him of his power to put hearsay evidence before the jury by any method he chooses, including simply by reading from a document. In the alternative they seek to argue that the provisions of r 37 read ‘purposefully’ allow the coroner to read the statements without calling a witness.
[8] Rule 37 of the 1984 rules provides as follows:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (2) to (4), the coroner may admit at an inquest documentary evidence relevant to the purposes of the inquest from any living person which in his opinion is unlikely to be disputed, unless a person who in the opinion of the coroner is within Rule 20(2) [a “properly interested person”] objects to the documentary evidence being admitted.
(2) Documentary evidence so objected to may be admitted if in the opinion of the coroner the maker of the document is unable to give oral evidence within a reasonable period.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), before admitting such documentary evidence the coroner shall at the beginning of the inquest announce publicly—(a) that the documentary evidence may be admitted, and (b) (i) the full name of the maker of the document to be admitted in evidence, and (ii) a brief account of such document, and (c) that any person who in the opinion of the coroner is within Rule 20(2) may object to the admission of any such document, and (d) that any person who in the opinion of the coroner is within Rules 20(2) is entitled to see a copy of any such documentary evidence if he so wishes.
(4) If during the course of an inquest it appears that there is available at the inquest documentary evidence which in the opinion of the coroner is relevant to the purposes of the inquest but the maker of the document is not present and in the opinion of the coroner the content of the documentary evidence is unlikely to be disputed, the coroner shall at the earliest opportunity during the course of the inquest comply with the provisions of paragraph (3).
(5) A coroner may admit as evidence at an inquest any document made by a deceased person if he is of the opinion that the contents of the documents are relevant to the purposes of the inquest.
(6) Any documentary evidence admitted under this Rule shall, unless the coroner directs otherwise, be read aloud at the inquest.’
[9] The argument of the claimants in simple terms is that r 37 is a complete code as to when documents can be put directly in evidence without the calling of a witness and, they submit, that documents which do not fall within the provisions of r 37 cannot be read to the jury by the coroner. They submit that
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these statements are, in the opinion of the coroner, ‘likely to be disputed’ and thus cannot be introduced under r 37. They would add that if it were possible for the coroner to form the opinion that the documents were ‘unlikely to be disputed’, it could in any event not be the opinion of the coroner that the makers of the documents were ‘unable’ to give oral evidence within a reasonable period or at all, since all witnesses were ‘able’ but simply unwilling to come and give evidence.
[10] Importantly, the claimants accept that the contents of the documents can be proved by the calling of a witness—not necessarily the maker of the document nor indeed the person who took the statements but by any witness giving, if necessary, double or more than double hearsay evidence. They add, however, that they rely on point (14) of Sir Thomas Bingham MR’s judgment in R v North Humberside and Scunthorpe Coroner, ex p Jamieson [1994] 3 All ER 972 at 991, [1995] QB 1 at 26, where he said:
‘It is the duty of the Coroner, as the public official responsible for the conduct of inquests, whether he is sitting with a jury or without, to ensure that the relevant facts are fully, fairly and fearlessly investigated.’
It is their submission that it is in the result the duty of the coroner to call those witnesses as close to the original maker as possible, and they submit thus that it would be an unacceptable device if the coroner simply called the solicitor to the inquiry to produce all the statements and then considered what further evidence to call. The question of what the coroner’s duty is in this regard is not a point argued out before us on this appeal. I make no further comment about it save to say that I find it difficult to contemplate that there can be any variation in the scope of whatever the duty to call further witnesses is, depending on whether the statements were put in directly or were put in in some other way.
[11] The argument of those representing the coroner is, shortly, as follows. If r 37 is intended to apply to documents containing statements which are likely to be disputed, then a purposive or imaginative construction must be applied to the rules to enable the coroner to admit such documents, where the coroner cannot compel the maker of the statements to give evidence. They submit that the duty of the coroner is to inquire into deaths and, if the coroner has documentary evidence which would assist him or a jury in that task, where the maker of the document is overseas and non-compellable, it would be contrary to the whole purpose of the inquest to hold that such documentary evidence could not be put in evidence by the coroner. That same argument applies to the alternative submission on behalf of the coroner which is to the effect that, if r 37 does not apply so as to allow the admission in evidence of controversial statements in documents when the maker is non-compellable, then the rule should not apply at all to such documents. They further submitted that the answer of those representing the claimants, ie that the coroner can always call some witness, leads to a rather absurd result and a waste of time, requiring the quite unnecessary step of someone having to prove the hearsay statements, even if formally.
[12] The coroner in his ruling preferred the route that r 37 did not apply so as to restrict his common law power to introduce hearsay evidence. He also expressed the view that, if necessary, he would have construed r 37 so as to allow him to read the statements.
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THE BACKGROUND TO RULE 37
[13] The background is set out in the Divisional Court’s judgment from [21] through to [40]. That summary deals with certain points which I would emphasise. First, it emphasises the inquisitorial nature of a coroner’s inquest, citing from the judgment of Lord Lane CJ in R v South London Coroner, ex p Thompson (1982) 126 SJ 625, where he said:
‘Once again it should not be forgotten that an inquest is a fact-finding exercise and not a method of apportioning guilt. The procedure and rules of evidence which are suitable for one are unsuitable for the other. In an inquest it should never be forgotten that there are no parties, there is no indictment, there is no prosecution, there is no defence, there is no trial, simply an attempt to establish facts. It is an inquisitorial process, a process of investigation quite unlike a criminal trial where the prosecutor accuses and the accused defends, the judge holding the balance or the ring, whichever metaphor one chooses to use.’
[14] That said, however, the citation from Talbot J’s judgment in R v Divine, ex p Walton [1930] 2 KB 29 at 36, 37, [1930] All ER Rep 302 at 308, 309 demonstrates that evidence at an inquest will normally be sworn evidence. Talbot J said:
‘Again it is clear that a coroner’s inquest is not bound by the strict law of evidence . . .
No doubt a coroner has considerable latitude as to the way in which he may conduct the inquest; he is not fettered by detailed rules of procedure; but on the other hand, the proceedings are formal, they are conducted on lines which are now established by long usage, and the public and those more particularly interested have a right to expect that the verdict will be given upon the sworn evidence heard at the inquest and upon nothing else.’
However, it is right to point out that the issue in that case was the correctness or otherwise of the coroner inspecting a car with the foreman of the jury.
[15] Before us Mr Keen QC, representing one of the interested parties, developed an argument to the effect that all evidence before a coroner prior to 1953 had to be via sworn oral evidence. He did not accept the proposition that, prior to 1953, there was some general power exercised by coroners to put documents before the jury or before themselves containing hearsay statements, without those documents or their contents having been sworn to by a witness. He referred to s 11(2) of the Coroners Act 1988, which he told us was in the same terms as the corresponding section of the Coroners Act 1887. It provides:
‘The coroner shall, at the first sitting of the inquest, examine on oath concerning the death all persons who tender evidence as to the facts of the death and all persons having knowledge of those facts whom he considers it expedient to examine.’
[16] Mr Burnett QC answered this point by referring to a passage in Lord Goff of Chieveley’s judgment in Devine v A-G for Northern Ireland, Breslin v A-G for Northern Ireland [1992] 1 All ER 609 at 612–613, [1992] 1 WLR 262 at 266, which will appear in a citation to be quoted below where Lord Goff seemed to confirm that the common law power of coroners would have included the power to admit documents to establish hearsay evidence. He also submitted that if
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Mr Keen were right and that by statute all evidence was required to be by sworn oral evidence, the Coroners Rules 1953, SI 1953/205, as well as the 1984 rules would have been ultra vires.
[17] So far as the power of the coroner is concerned, I would not accept Mr Keen’s submission. What, however, I would accept is that it was rarely, if ever, the practice of coroners to admit documentary evidence without the calling of a witness. In particular, it is difficult to think that coroners would have been inclined to admit statements of witnesses in documentary form even when those witnesses were unavailable for some reason. Support for the view that coroners were disinclined to admit documentary evidence is provided by the report of the Broderick Committee (Report of the Committee on Death Certification and Coroners (1971) (Cmnd 4810)), on passages which, again, I shall quote hereafter. Perhaps some support for the reluctance of the coroner simply to put documents in evidence is supplied by what in fact happened in Devine’s case before the coroner, who, having ruled that statements were admissible by virtue of r 17 of the Coroners (Practice and Procedure) Rules (Northern Ireland) 1963, SR & O (NI) 1963/199, proved those statements via witnesses.
[18] It was in 1953 that rules were made to cover the conduct of an inquest and r 28 of the 1953 rules related to documentary evidence in these terms:
‘(1) Documentary evidence as to how the deceased came by his death shall not be admissible unless the coroner is satisfied that there is good and sufficient reason why the maker of the document should not attend the inquest.
(2) If such documentary evidence is admitted at an inquest, the inquest shall be adjourned to enable the maker of the document to give oral evidence if the coroner or any properly interested person so desires.’
[19] Important aspects of that rule, as it seems to me, are twofold. First, it expressly made documentary evidence not admissible unless the rule applied. No one before us suggested that this rule did not apply to all documents, controversial and uncontroversial. Thus the rule did, on its face, limit the power of the coroner to admit documentary evidence.
[20] But the second important aspect is that at the same time as imposing the above restriction, it did allow documents to be admissible if the coroner was satisfied that there was ‘good and sufficient reason’ for the maker of the statement not to attend. It is this second point which led the Divisional Court to say rightly that, under the 1953 rules, the coroner could have simply read the statements with which the coroner in this case was concerned, without calling a witness to establish the contents.
[21] The change from the old r 28 into a rule in the present form of r 37 came about in 1980, by an amendment to the 1953 rules. That followed the report of a Home Office Committee chaired by Judge Broderick QC. The recommendation of that committee in relation to written evidence was contained in paras 16.62–16.67 of the report. Paragraph 16.62 reflects the then rule, ie r 28 of the 1953 rules. Paragraph 16.63 stated as follows:
‘It is understandable that hitherto the law has placed a certain emphasis on the value of oral evidence: the inquest is, and is intended to be, a public enquiry to serve the public interest. We are satisfied, however, that provided the “public” features of the inquest are preserved, there is nothing to be lost and much to be gained by allowing the coroner greater discretion to accept
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written evidence. It often happens that the evidence of a particular witness, although essential to the coroner’s enquiries, is uncontroversial, appears unlikely to be disputed and is not, in the event, questioned. If the attendance of every such witness has to be arranged in every case the whole process of convening and conducting the enquiry is unnecessarily made more complicated, burdensome and productive of delay. Accordingly, we recommend that, subject to the same right of objection for properly interested persons as exists under the present law, (see Rule 28, Coroners Rules 1953), coroners should in future have a general discretion to accept documentary evidence from any witness at an inquest.’
[22] In July 1976 a working party was set up to consider the Broderick Committee report. It will be noted from the last sentence of the above quotation that the recommendation, that coroners should have a general discretion to accept documentary evidence, seemed to relate to all documents, not simply documents in relation to which there would be no dispute. The working party, when it came to consider the matter, made clear however that it was their view that any discretion granted to the coroner should be limited. In para 19 of their recommendation they referred to the recommendation that ‘Coroners should in future have a general discretion to accept documentary evidence from any witness at an inquest’ and then stated:
‘We are of the opinion that this discretion should be limited to documentary evidence (including witnesses’ statements), which is relevant to the purpose of the inquest and which in the coroner’s opinion is uncontroversial and unlikely to be disputed.’
This recommendation forms the genesis of what became r 37. It was a deliberate decision to confine the discretion of the coroner to uncontroversial documents. But, it seems reasonably clear that in concentrating on non-controversial documents the draftsman overlooked the second aspect of former r 28 of the 1953 rules, under which any document could be admitted in evidence if there was ‘good and sufficient reason why the maker of the document should not attend the inquest’.
[23] The most significant authority so far as the arguments of both the coroner and the interested parties are concerned is the decision of the House of Lords in Devine v A-G for Northern Ireland, Breslin v A-G for Northern Ireland [1992] 1 All ER 609, [1992] 1 WLR 262. That decision was not concerned with a rule in the same terms as r 37 of the 1984 rules but is said by those representing the coroner to demonstrate the proper attitude that the court should take to the construction of a similar rule. Lord Goff, who gave the leading speech with which the others agreed, adopted an ‘imaginative’ construction of ‘unnecessarily’ and it is suggested that the court should be equally creative in relation to the construction of r 37. Those representing the interested parties, however, submit that the authority supports their position. They submit that however imaginative the court might be in its construction of r 37 there is no construction that would allow the coroner to put the statements directly in evidence. They submit that Devine’s case simply supports their position that the way to prove the contents of the documents as hearsay is by calling a witness as had happened before the coroner in Devine’s case.
[24] In Devine’s case the coroner had held an inquest into the deaths of three persons who had been shot by soldiers. The coroner had admitted statements
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made by the soldiers under r 17 of the 1963 rules. Those statements had been produced in evidence by the officers who had taken the statements. Rule 17 provided:
‘(1) A document may be admitted in evidence at an inquest if the coroner considers that the attendance as a witness by the maker of the document is unnecessary and the document is produced from a source considered reliable by the coroner.
(2) If such a document is admitted in evidence at an inquest the inquest may, at the discretion of the coroner, be adjourned to enable the maker of the document to give oral evidence if the coroner or any properly interested person reasonably so desires.’
The coroner held that the attendance of the soldiers was ‘unnecessary’ because they were not compellable witnesses, and that the documents containing their evidence, which consisted of statements to the police, were reliable and there was no point in adjourning the hearing because the witnesses could not be compelled to attend. On that decision being judicially reviewed, Carswell J held that r 17 did not apply but held that, since under common law, the statements could be produced by the witnesses who were called, the application for judicial review should be dismissed. That view of the matter was upheld by the Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland. The judgment of Lord Hutton CJ is, however, of importance in that he adopted an approach to the ambit of r 17 akin to that which those representing the coroner in this appeal would seek to persuade us to follow.
[25] Lord Hutton CJ said:
‘We accept counsel’s submissions that for the two reasons which he advanced the statements of soldiers A, B and C do not come within the ambit of r 17. But we reject his other submission that r 17 applies to all documentary evidence and that as the statements do not fall within it the rule prohibits their admission in evidence. We consider that r 17 only applies to the type of document described in para (1) viz a document where “a coroner considers that the attendance as a witness by the maker of the document is unnecessary” . . . In other words the document appears to the coroner to be formal and uncontroversial. The statements of A, B and C are clearly not such documents and therefore r 17 does not apply to them. Accordingly, r 17 does not abrogate the ordinary rule that it was open to the coroner to admit the statements, notwithstanding that they were hearsay.’
[26] When Devine’s case reached the House of Lords, the leading speech, as I have said, was given by Lord Goff who upheld the view of Carswell J and the Court of Appeal in Northern Ireland but did not, as I see it, follow the reasoning of Lord Hutton CJ. Lord Goff also held, by a purposive construction of the word ‘unnecessary’ that the coroner had in any event the right to admit the documents on the proper construction of r 17. In upholding the view of the Court of Appeal, Lord Goff said:
‘The function of r 17, which was first introduced in the 1963 rules, is to regulate the circumstances in which a coroner in Northern Ireland may simply admit a document in evidence, without requiring the maker of the document to attend the inquest and give oral evidence. If the document is admitted as such in evidence under the rule, the contents of the document can no doubt be treated as evidence in the same way as the evidence of the
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maker of the document given orally to the like effect would have been so treated. In the absence of r 17 there would, so far as I am aware, have been nothing to restrict the power of the coroner (who in the conduct of an inquisition has historically not been bound by the strict rules of evidence applicable in litigation: see R v Divine, ex p Walton [1930] 2 KB 29 at 36, [1930] All ER Rep 302 at 307 per Talbot J) to admit a document in evidence in this way. It was for this reason that, in McKerr v Armagh Coroner [1990] 1 All ER 865 at 870–871, [1990] 1 WLR 649, 657–658, I referred to r 17 (as substituted by amendment in 1980) as an example of a rule of practice or procedure which restricts the power of a coroner, and described the rule as one which defines the power of a coroner to admit documentary evidence.
But, in agreement with both Carswell J and the Court of Appeal, I cannot see that r 17 has the effect of excluding evidence which may otherwise be admissible, even if it is in documentary form. In particular, I cannot see that the rule excludes the power of a coroner to admit hearsay evidence otherwise proved simply because such evidence has been reduced to documentary form. The evidence in the present case consists of statements made by soldiers A, B and C to police officers, which were proved to have been so given by the police officers in question. Had these statements not been recorded in writing, r 17 would obviously have been irrelevant, and it would have been open to the coroner to admit the statements in evidence, although the evidence was in such circumstances hearsay. As it was, the statements were recorded in writing; but it would be absurd that this fact should render such evidence inadmissible. I cannot see that r 17, even on the assumption that the written statements were not admissible simply as documentary evidence under the rule, has the effect of excluding the statements as proved by the police officers in the present case. On this basis, the conclusion of the courts below on the admissibility of the evidence is, in my opinion, fully supportable.’ (See [1992] 1 All ER 609 at 612–613, [1992] 1 WLR 262 at 266.)
[27] He then also went on to consider the proper construction of r 17. He reasoned first that the statements of the soldiers would have been admissible under the previous r 17 and suggested that it would have been surprising if the r 17 with which the coroner was concerned had imposed a fetter which was not there previously. Indeed, he suggested that when comparison was made between the old r 17 and the new rule the basic intention was to enlarge rather than restrict the powers of the coroner. This led him to re-examine the possible construction of the old rule and the word ‘unnecessary’ used in that rule. In the result he gave an imaginative construction to that word as contained in the old rule and that enabled him to give a similar imaginative construction to the word ‘unnecessary’ in the new rule. He held that—
‘the attendance of a witness could properly be regarded by the coroner as unnecessary where he considered that there was no need for him to attend for the purpose of giving oral evidence. This could, of course, be so where the witness’s oral evidence would, if given, be formal and uncontroversial. But it could also be so in other circumstances, for example where the witness was available to attend the inquest but his attendance would be futile, as where (as in the present case) he was not compellable to give evidence, or he may be otherwise incapacitated from doing so, for example by insanity, or, a
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fortiori, where the witness was not available to attend, for example because he had died or because he was ill or overseas. Only in this way, in my opinion, can the first two paragraphs of the old r 17 be sensibly reconciled as forming consistent parts of the same rule. Furthermore, the construction of the new substituted r 17 can properly be considered against this legislative background; and, on this basis, consistently with the rule in its previous form, the word “unnecessary” in the new r 17(1) should be given the same effect as should have been given to it in the original r 17(1). Such a construction is, moreover, consistent with the evident intention to enlarge the powers of the coroner under the new r 17, and avoids the manifest absurdity of construing the new rule as intended to impose a new and substantial fetter upon his power of the kind which would otherwise result.’ (See [1992] 1 All ER 609 at 615, [1992] 1 WLR 262 at 269.)
[28] I would make the following points on Devine’s case in both the Court of Appeal and the House of Lords. First, it will be seen that Lord Hutton CJ was not accepting that r 17 was a complete code in relation to the admission of documents. In so doing he had to deal with Lord Goff’s view of r 17 as expressed in McKerr v Armagh Coroner [1990] 1 All ER 865 at 870871, [1990] 1 WLR 649 at 658, where Lord Goff said:
‘Nor, in my opinion, does the mere fact that a rule restricts the power of a coroner as to the evidence which he may call prevent the rule in question from being one which regulates practice or procedure. In this connection, r 17, concerned with documentary evidence at inquests, provides an apt illustration. I have already set out the text of that rule (as amended). A similar, though not identical, rule applies in relation to documentary evidence at coroners’ inquests in England and Wales: see r 37 of the Coroners Rules 1984, SI 1984/552. The general rule is that a coroner, who is conducting an inquisitorial process concerned to elicit certain facts, is not bound by the strict rules of evidence. Yet here in r 17 we find a rule which defines the power of a coroner to admit documentary evidence. I cannot, for my part, see why that fact should prevent the rule from being described as a rule which regulates practice or procedure at a coroner’s inquest. It plainly does, in that it regulates the manner in which the coroner shall, at an inquest, set about his task of eliciting the relevant facts.’
Lord Hutton CJ expressed the view that Lord Goff was not defining the power of the coroner to admit documentary evidence. He accordingly placed a construction on r 17 which placed controversial documents outside it altogether. That is much the same line as Mr Burnett would submit we should take in relation to r 37 of the 1984 rules.
[29] It is, however, apparent that Lord Goff in the House of Lords in Devine’s case did not accept Lord Hutton CJ’s construction of r 17 of the 1963 rules. He adhered to the view he expressed in McKerr’s case (see the first paragraph of the quotation above). Furthermore, it would have been unnecessary to place the imaginative construction that he did on r 17 if he was agreeing with Lord Hutton CJ that it did not define exhaustively the power of the coroner to admit documentary evidence.
[30] It is also highly relevant that he held both that the statements of the soldiers were admissible at common law and that r 17 applied to them. It seems to me that the fact that he could hold the statements admissible at common law
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and that they were covered by r 17 demonstrates that so far as the common law power is concerned he was dealing with oral evidence as to the contents of the statements proving the same, whereas so far as r 17 was concerned he was dealing with the documents being put in evidence to establish the contents of the same.
[31] It is also important that Lord Goff was of the view in McKerr’s case that r 37 of the 1984 rules was similar to r 17 of the 1963 rules. Applying his reasoning to r 37 it seems to me that his view would have been firstly that the rule did not prevent the proving of hearsay evidence by oral evidence, even if that hearsay evidence has been reduced to documentary form. But, secondly, if the hearsay evidence was sought to be proved by a document alone, his view would have been that that could only be done if r 37 allowed it. In my view, Lord Goff’s reasoning supports the view that so far as seeking to prove hearsay simply by the production of a document is concerned, the provisions of r 37 would have to apply.
[32] Support for the view, that so far as documentary evidence is concerned r 37 is a complete code, is gained from authorities cited by Mr Beloff QC in his skeleton argument and cited by the Divisional Court in their judgment at [2007] All ER (D) 310 (Nov) at [46]. In particular the view of Croom Johnson LJ in R v Southwark Coroner, ex p Hicks [1987] 2 All ER 140 at 143, [1987] 1 WLR 1624 at 1629 was that the admission of documentary evidence was controlled by r 37 and that the use of and reference to documents was narrowly circumscribed.
[33] In my view, accordingly, it is likely to be impossible to take the route that the coroner chose in making his ruling but I will come back finally to that question after considering the proper construction of r 37.
CONSTRUCTION OF RULE 37
[34] The question is whether an imaginative construction can be placed on r 37. If the coroner were to be entitled to prove the contents of the statements simply by placing the written documents before the jury under r 37 an imaginative construction of that rule would have to be applied in two distinct places. First, in para (1), Mr Burnett suggests that ‘unlikely to be disputed’ means ‘unlikely to be challenged in oral proceedings by interested persons’, as opposed to ‘uncontroversial’. If the words could be so read, the coroner (he submits) would be entitled to form the view that because the witnesses would not come to give evidence, therefore the evidence was unlikely to be challenged and para (1) of r 37 would have been satisfied. He would then, if objection were taken by the interested parties and if the documents were to be admitted as such, have to form the opinion under para (2), that the makers of the documents were ‘unable to give evidence’ within a reasonable period. No one disputes that such a phrase would cover someone who through sickness could not attend. It would also cover someone who was overseas but forbidden by the authorities of the overseas’ state to come to England or Wales. The claimants contend, however, that the phrase does not cover a person overseas who is physically able to come and not prohibited from coming, but yet cannot be compelled to come by the coroner.
[35] I am quite unable to accept that the words ‘unlikely to be disputed’ can be read as ‘unlikely to be challenged in oral proceedings by interested persons’. The phrase ‘likely to be disputed’ plainly refers to documentary evidence that an interested party does not accept and wishes to dispute.
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[36] This makes it unnecessary to consider the meaning of the word ‘unable’. For my part, I could see ways of placing a wider construction than that favoured by the Divisional Court on that word if one had answered the previous question differently, but it is not fruitful to explore that aspect further.
FINAL VIEW ON THE COMMON LAW
[37] Once one reaches the view that r 37 of the 1984 rules does not allow the admission of a document, even where the maker is unable to attend and appreciates once again that under r 28 of the 1953 rules the coroner would have had the power to admit such a document, one returns for a moment to consider whether it is really right that r 37 applies to controversial documents. I admit that I have been tempted to take the route adopted by Lord Hutton CJ in the Court of Appeal in Devine’s case in relation to r 17 of the 1963 rules. In one sense the argument is more powerful in relation to r 37 than it was in relation to the r 17. The argument on Lord Hutton CJ’s reasoning would be that r 37 is dealing with uncontroversial and not with controversial documents. In the case of r 37 that argument can be said to gain support from the fact that para (2) of r 37 gives power to the coroner to admit in evidence only uncontroversial documents where the witness is unable to attend. Paragraph (2) is not free-standing and does not apply to all documents. The rule maker (so the argument would go) cannot have intended to take away the power given by old r 28 in relation to all documents to admit in evidence such documents where the coroner was satisfied there was good and sufficient reason why the maker should not attend. But, as tempting as it is to adopt that route, it seems to me that Lord Goff’s view of r 17 clearly rejected the above process of reasoning. Furthermore, identifying precisely what tests should be applied when exercising a discretion in relation to admitting a document where a witness was unavailable would involve, in effect, legislating and choosing between the word ‘unable’ or the words of r 28, or some other test, and that simply is not the function of the court.
[38] The fact is r 37 replaced a rule dealing with all documents. The heading to r 37 is ‘Documentary Evidence’ in quite general form. Rule 37(5) deals with a maker who is deceased and applies to all documents. It is simply impossible to hold otherwise than that r 37 was intended to be a complete code and that by some error the draftsman failed to put in the saving provision that would have applied under r 28.
[39] Thus, with reluctance, I would dismiss the appeal.
LATHAM LJ.
[40] I agree.
DYSON LJ.
[41] I also agree.
Appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Albon (trading as NA Carriage Co) v Naza Motor Trading Sdn Bhd (No 5)
[2008] 1 All ER 995
[2007] EWHC 2613 (Ch)
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): LIGHTMAN J
Hearing Date(s): 29 OCTOBER, 9 NOVEMBER 2007
Practice – Adjournment of proceedings – Dealing with cases justly – Defendant applying for order setting aside interlocutory judgments before orders giving effect to judgments entered – Witness for defendant becoming seriously ill – Defendant standing down legal team and other witnesses, failing to lodge skeleton argument and seeking adjournment – Matters relevant to exercise of court’s discretion to adjourn – CPR 1.1.
The claimant brought an action against the defendant, a Malaysian company, claiming that pursuant to an oral agreement between them there had been dealings between them relating to the import into England of motor cars from Malaysia and the export of motor cars from England to Malaysia such that there was a substantial sum due from the defendant to the claimant. The defendant disputed the terms of the oral agreement and contended that the parties had entered in Malaysia into a joint venture agreement which provided for the arbitration of all disputes between the parties in Malaysia. The claimant contended that the joint venture agreement was forged. In three judgments between January and March 2007 the judge dismissed the defendant’s application to set aside the grant of permission to serve the proceedings on the defendant in Malaysia, dismissed the defendant’s challenge to an order authorising the method of service and held that it was for the English court to determine the authenticity of the joint venture agreement. The court orders in respect of those three judgments were not drawn up. In April 2007 the defendant applied for an order setting aside the three judgments on the grounds that certain documents had come to light including a contract in writing between the parties which governed the export of cars by the claimant to the defendant. The claimant contended that the contract was a forgery. The hearing date was eventually fixed for 29 October with an allotment of five days. On 19 October the defendant’s representative in London learned that one of the defendant’s witnesses was very ill. She received a medical certificate on 24 October. On that day the defendant directed its legal team and witnesses to stand down and take no further action in respect of the application. No skeleton argument was lodged. On 29 October the defendant applied for an adjournment on the basis that the defendant was in no position to proceed with the application. It relied on guidance in cases decided prior to the CPR submitting that it was entitled to the adjournment sought. CPR 1.1a
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provided that the overriding objective of the CPR was that of enabling the court to deal with cases justly.
Held – The exercise of the court’s discretion whether to grant an adjournment was governed by the terms of the CPR and in particular the overriding objective. The considerations held critical in pre-CPR authorities were relevant, but they were not decisive. It was necessary, if the court was to deal with cases justly, for it to consider the allotment of the appropriate share, and no more than the appropriate share, of the court’s resources and that parties and their solicitors acted justly, responsibly and in accordance with any directions of the court. In the instant case the defendant had obtained an allotment of five days of the court’s time which had been wasted because of the defendant’s decision to stand down counsel, solicitors and witnesses. The defendant and its solicitors were to be seriously criticised for failing to comply with the direction for lodging and exchanging its skeleton argument and for unnecessarily and unreasonably standing down counsel and witnesses ahead of and regardless of any decision of the court whether to grant an adjournment and precluding the court from determining the merits of the application. The court could not countenance such actions by which the defendant had prevented the court, were it to decide not to grant the adjournment, from proceeding with a hearing and in effect had put pressure on the court to grant the adjournment by facing it with the bare alternative of dismissing the substantive application. On the material before the court, the application, if tried on its merits, would fail. Moreover, if the law had remained as set out in the pre-CPR authorities, the application for an adjournment would have failed. Accordingly, an adjournment would be refused and the application would be dismissed (see [14], [18], [19], [21], [22], below).
Dick v Piller [1943] 1 All ER 627 and R v Sevenoaks General Comrs, ex p Thorne [1989] STC 560 considered.
Notes
For the overriding objective, see 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 60.
Cases referred to in judgment
Barrell Enterprises, Re [1972] 3 All ER 631, [1973] 1 WLR 19, CA.
Dick v Piller [1943] 1 All ER 627, [1943] KB 497, CA.
R v Sevenoaks General Comrs, ex p Thorne [1989] STC 560.
Application
Naza Motor Trading Sdn Bhd, the defendant in proceedings brought by the claimant, Nigel Peter Albon (trading as NA Carriage Co), had applied on 25 April 2007 for an order setting aside (i) the judgment of Lightman J dated 23 January 2007 ([2007] EWHC 9 (Ch), [2007] 2 All ER 719) dismissing an application by the defendant to set aside the grant of permission to the claimant to serve the proceedings on the defendant in Malaysia; (ii) the judgment of Lightman J dated 9 March 2007 ([2007] EWHC 327 (Ch), [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 813) dismissing the defendant’s challenge to an order authorising service of the proceedings by the claimant on the defendant by a method not permitted by the CPR; and (iii) the judgment of Lightman J dated 29 March 2007 ([2007] EWHC 665 (Ch), [2007] 2 All ER 1075) holding that the English court should determine the validity of a joint venture agreement. The court orders in respect of the
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judgments had not been drawn up. The hearing of the application was fixed for 29 October 2007. On that date the defendant applied for an adjournment. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Neil Kitchener (instructed by Finers Stephen Innocent) for the defendant.
Robert Anderson QC and Andrew George (instructed by Sheridans) for the claimant.
Judgment was reserved.
9 November 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
LIGHTMAN J.
INTRODUCTION
[1] At issue in this action is whether the defendant Naza Motor Trading Sdn Bhd a Malaysian Company substantially owned and controlled by Tan Sri Dato Nasimmudin Amin (Mr Nasim) is indebted to the claimant Mr Albon (a resident of England) in respect of transactions between them relating to the export of cars by the defendant from Malaysia to the claimant in England and the export of cars by the claimant from England to the defendant in Malaysia.
[2] The background facts to this dispute are set out in four judgments which I have given in this action and to which I shall subsequently refer. In short the claimant claims that pursuant to an oral agreement with the defendant there were dealings between the parties relating to the import into England of cars from Malaysia and the export of cars from England to Malaysia and that in respect of those dealings there is a substantial sum due from the defendant to the claimant. The larger part of that sum relates to the export of cars from England. The defendant admits that there was an oral agreement for the import of cars into England, but denies that it covered the export of cars from England to Malaysia and the defendant also disputes the terms of the oral agreement alleged by the claimant. Going beyond this the defendant contends that the parties entered in Malaysia into a Joint Venture Agreement (the JVA) which provided for arbitration of all disputes between the parties in Malaysia. The claimant contends that the JVA is a forgery.
[3] By the first of my four judgments dated 23 January 2007 ([2007] EWHC 9 (Ch), [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 795, [2007] 1 WLR 2489) (the first judgment) I dismissed an application by the defendant to set aside the grant of permission to the claimant to serve these proceedings on the defendant in Malaysia. By the second judgment dated 9 March 2007 ([2007] EWHC 237 (Ch), [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 813) (the second judgment) I dismissed the defendant’s challenge to an order authorising service of these proceedings by the claimant on the defendant by a method not permitted by the CPR. By the third judgment dated 29 March 2007 ([2007] EWHC 665 (Ch), [2007] 2 All ER (Comm) 513) (the third judgment) I held that the English court rather than the persons purportedly appointed arbitrators under the JVA (the arbitrators) should determine the authenticity of the JVA. The court orders in respect of the three judgments have not yet been drawn up. By the fourth judgment dated 31 July 2007 ([2007] EWHC 1879 (Ch), [2007] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 420) (the fourth judgment), in the face of a refusal by the defendant to agree that the arbitrators should have no jurisdiction to determine the authenticity of the JVA unless and until the third
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judgment was reversed, I granted an injunction restraining the defendant from pursuing the arbitration proceedings pending determination by the court of the authenticity of the JVA. On Wednesday 24 October 2007 the Court of Appeal heard an appeal against the fourth judgment and reserved judgment and on 6 November dismissed the appeal ([2007] EWCA Civ 1124, [2008] 1 All ER (Comm) 351).
[4] The present application (the application) issued on 24 April 2007 is a form of application commonly referred to as a ‘Barrell application’ (see Re Barrell Enterprises [1972] 3 All ER 631, [1973] 1 WLR 19) whereby in exceptional circumstances a party may apply for an order setting aside a judgment before the order giving effect to that judgment has been entered. The application in this case seeks an order setting aside the first, second and third judgments on the grounds that there have come to light: (a) certain documents and in particular a contract in writing between the parties dated 3 November 2000 (the CSA agreement) which governed the export of cars by the claimant to the defendant and that the claimant wrongly failed to disclose the CSA to the court on the application for permission to serve in Malaysia or thereafter; and (b) certain written communications between the parties which (the defendant contends) do not accord with the claimant’s case as to the terms of the oral contract between the parties. The claimant contends that the CSA (like the JVA) is a forgery.
[5] The defendant has contended since the date of the application that this court could not and should not determine the issue of the authenticity of the JVA until the outcome of the application is known for, if the defendant succeeds on the application, these proceedings and the grant of permission to the claimant to serve these proceedings in Malaysia will be set aside, these proceedings will be brought to a close and there will be no occasion for this court to decide the issue. There is force in this contention, but it underlines the need for a speedy trial of the application. The continued existence of the application bars the claimant from prosecuting his claim in these proceedings, but has left the defendant free (unless and until restrained by this court) to continue to proceed before the arbitrators.
[6] On 23 April 2007 I gave directions for the hearing of the application with a hearing date in June or July 2007. The date was subsequently fixed through the normal channels for 9 July 2007. The claimant has at all times been in some financial difficulties and these difficulties were particularly acute around that time. These difficulties led to the non-payment of fees due to the claimant’s solicitors and for this reason they ceased to act. At a hearing on 29 June 2007, by reason of the loss to the claimant of the services of their solicitors I vacated the hearing date of 9 July 2007. A further directions hearing took place on 9 July 2007 when I directed that the application should be re-fixed with an estimate of five days and that witnesses attend for cross-examination. In the course of the hearing I stated to Mr Nathan QC, counsel for the defendant, that I had provisionally fixed the hearing for five days on 15 October 2007 and the directions which I should give would include that I must get the skeleton arguments and documents by the first day of the next term (ie by 1 October 2007, 14 days before the date of trial). I explained that I wanted to do the bulk of the pre-reading during the first week because I would be abroad for the bulk of the second week. Mr Nathan assented to that course. The court order (quite properly) accordingly directed that skeleton arguments
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should be exchanged and lodged 14 days before the date of hearing. Later in the course of the hearing it became apparent that the hearing could not proceed on 15 October 2007, and through the usual channels the date of commencement was fixed at 29 October 2007.
[7] Both parties proceeded to prepare for trial and trial bundles were prepared and lodged with the court and agreed. A dispute arose regarding disclosure by the defendant of Malaysian customs declarations relating to the import of cars into Malaysia made by the defendant to the Malaysian customs authorities. The relationship between the prices of the cars exported to Malaysia as shown in the CSA and in such declarations appeared to be relevant to the issue whether the CSA was a genuine document. I ordered their disclosure, but later on the application of the defendant stayed that order pending the service by the claimant of further information of the relevant Malaysian customs law and practice relied on by the claimant. After service of that further information the claimant made an application for the lifting of the stay, but when this application was opposed on 18 October 2007 (most particularly to save the trial date which might otherwise be placed in peril) the claimant notified the defendant that it would not proceed with the application. When at this hearing the relevance of the declarations was being debated I asked whether the defendant would confirm that the prices shown in the declarations were the same as those shown in the CSA. The defendant declined to do so. Any divergences are of considerable potential significance.
[8] On 12 October 2007 the claimant’s solicitors wrote to the court requesting an extension of time for filing skeleton arguments until 4 pm on 24 October 2007. The claimant in fact lodged his skeleton on 22 October 2007. The defendant failed to lodge a skeleton at any time, in disregard of the order to do so.
[9] On 18 October 2007 the defendant emailed the claimant’s solicitors stating that the defendant’s witnesses were already booked to attend in London for the hearing of the application.
[10] According to the fourth witness statement of Ms Amin, the defendant’s representative in London, on 19 October 2007 whilst endeavouring to finalise arrangements for the attendance of witnesses in London for the hearing of the application, she learnt that one of the defendant’s witnesses, Ms Yatimah, had been and was away from work and was very ill, and on 22 October 2007, having pursued inquiries learnt that Ms Yatimah was incapacitated from work and was being committed for surgery as soon as practicable. She went on to say that she instructed the defendant’s solicitors in London to approach the claimant’s solicitors about the problem and ‘to foreshadow’ that the hearing of the application could not proceed on 29 October 2007 and that the defendant would need an adjournment. She concluded:
‘14. It remains Naza’s intention to pursue the Barrell Application as soon as Ms [Yatimah] is fit. We have hope and faith for her full recovery in due course, however we are unable presently to confirm when that date may be, but it would certainly require an adjournment of a minimum of perhaps three months.’
[11] A medical certificate in respect of Ms Yatimah was received by Ms Amin on 24 October 2007. This certificate was exhibited to Ms Amin’s witness statement. The same day the defendant directed its legal team and witnesses
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to stand down and take no further action in respect of the application. The instructions extended to preparation of the skeleton argument. The legal team and witnesses complied.
[12] The court was first informed of any doubt about the trial taking place on the due date on 24 October 2007 after my clerk had pursued in vain efforts to obtain the defendant’s skeleton argument. My clerk was told (as was the Court of Appeal on the appeal against the fourth judgment) that an application for an adjournment would be made on 29 October 2007 and that, if the adjournment was not granted, the application would be abandoned. It is the duty of parties and their legal representatives to inform the court as soon as they become aware of any real prospect that a hearing will not proceed on a fixed hearing date so as to enable the court to ensure that its resources are at all times used to best advantage. Only at 6.15 pm on 25 October 2007 did the defendant’s solicitors inform the claimant’s solicitors that its witnesses had been stood down.
[13] On 29 October 2007 the defendant instructed Mr Kitchener (who until this time had been led by Mr Nathan) to apply for an adjournment. He was not instructed to familiarise himself further with the facts or merits of the application. The substance of his application was that the defendant was in no position to proceed with the application. He was not instructed or able to do so, and all his witnesses had been stood down. In the circumstances he submitted that justice required that he should have an adjournment. The justification he gave for the decision of the defendant to stand down the legal team and witnesses and for the grant of adjournment was that an important witness Ms Yatimah was too sick to travel to England for the trial, that there would be no prejudice to the claimant if the adjournment was granted which could not be compensated for in costs, and that the indulgence was fair since the claimant had obtained the like indulgence of an adjournment of the trial date of the application on 9 July 2007. The claimant objected to the adjournment. The claimant’s counsel Mr Anderson QC described the defendant’s actions in: (a) failing to prepare for and attend with its witnesses; (b) failing to fully instruct counsel on 29 October 2007; and (c) seeking an adjournment as effectively trying to put a gun to the head of the court and compelling the court to accede to the application for an adjournment.
DECISION
[14] Mr Kitchener referred me to a number of authorities decided prior to the CPR providing guidance to the court on how it should approach an application for an adjournment of a trial made on the grounds that the illness of a witness prevents that witness attending the trial, and in particular to the cases of Dick v Piller [1943] 1 All ER 627, [1943] KB 497 and R v Sevenoaks General Comrs, ex p Thorne [1989] STC 560. These authorities established that an adjournment should be granted if four conditions were satisfied. The first was that the witness was unable to attend on grounds of ill-health. The second was that the witness’s evidence was reasonably necessary if the party’s case was to be properly presented. The third was that there was a reasonable prospect that the witness would be able to attend an adjourned hearing at a specific reasonable future date. The fourth was that the other party would suffer no injustice which cannot be remedied by an award of costs or otherwise. Mr Kitchener submitted that the law as so stated remained the law and that as
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four of these conditions were satisfied in this case, he was entitled to the adjournment sought. If the law indeed remained as set out in these authorities, in my view this application for an adjournment must fail.
[15] The first condition is satisfied: a doctor’s certificate establishes Miss Yatimah’s illness and inability to work and travel here. But the other conditions are not. The second condition clearly is not satisfied. The absence of Miss Yatimah does not preclude her evidence from being adduced at the trial (unlike the position in Ex p Thorne). Her witness statement is already before the court and can and should stand as evidence on the application, whether or not she is cross-examined. The absence of cross-examination would go, not to admissibility, but to weight. In any event cross-examination could proceed by video link. The doctor’s certificate does not suggest that she is unfit to be cross-examined. In any event, as it seems to me, her evidence on this application is of very much secondary importance. The defendant’s case must turn on the evidence of Mr Nasim and Mr Nasira, the defendant’s primary witnesses. It should be noted that in her evidence Miss Yatimah (who was the personal assistant of Mr Nasim), states how limited was her knowledge and how vague was her recollection of the relevant events referred to in her witness statement.
[16] The third condition is likewise not satisfied. The date when she will (if ever) be able to attend trial is left uncertain and in the circumstances of this case the postponement necessitated by the adjournment sought is unreasonable. The claimant should not be precluded from proceeding with his claim for a further three months.
[17] The fourth condition is likewise not satisfied. As has been the situation throughout this case, the claimant is in financial straits, but the defendant is a substantial wealthy company. The claimant urgently needs this case to be concluded and with that conclusion the end to the need to incur substantial costs in this action and receipt of the recoveries to which he claims entitlement. No effective further step in this action can be taken so long as the application remains on foot. I add that his reputation (as is that of Mr Nasim and the defendant) is at stake. The defendant is claiming that the claimant has been guilty of fraud: indeed that is at the root of the application and the action itself. The claimant has a need to see the issues between the parties resolved as soon as possible.
[18] In my judgment however the exercise of the court’s discretion whether to grant an adjournment is governed, not by these authorities, but by the terms of the CPR and in particular the overriding objective set out in CPR 1.1. No doubt considerations held critical in the authorities cited are relevant, but not decisive.
[19] As it seems to me, dealing with this case justly requires me to refuse the adjournment. Beyond the considerations pointing to the conclusion set out above applicable prior to the CPR, there are (amongst others) the following further considerations: (i) it is necessary to have in mind the allotment to this case and most particularly the application of the appropriate share, and no more than the appropriate share, of the court’s resources. The defendant obtained an allotment of five days of the court’s time for the hearing of the application which has been wasted by reason of the defendant’s decision to stand down counsel, solicitors and witnesses on the abortive hearing on 29–30 October 2007. An adjournment would require a further allotment of five
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days which is totally inappropriate; (ii) it is necessary, if the court is to deal with cases justly, that the parties and their solicitors act justly, responsibly and in accordance with any directions of the court. The defendant and its solicitors are to be seriously criticised for: (a) failing to comply with the direction for lodging and exchanging its skeleton argument; (b) in unnecessarily and unreasonably standing down counsel and witnesses ahead of and regardless of any decision of the court whether to grant an adjournment and precluded the court from determining the merits of the application; (iii) the court cannot and should not countenance the actions of the defendant which Mr Anderson fairly described as ‘holding a gun to the court’. The defendant has prevented the court, if it decides not to grant the adjournment, from proceeding with a hearing and in effect has put pressure on the court to grant the adjournment by facing it with the bare alternative of dismissing the application.
[20] I should add that: (1) I do not think the fact the claimant obtained an adjournment on 9 July 2007 in the circumstances that then prevailed afforded the defendant and its solicitors a ‘free pass’ deliberately to conduct themselves as they have done in respect of the hearing of 29 October 2007 immune from the ordinary consequences; and (2) the allegations which rely on the newly disclosed faxes take the defendant nowhere. They are capable of explanation and have been explained by the claimant in his skeleton.
[21] In the ordinary case a factor which may be relevant on an application for an adjournment is the court’s view of the merits of the applicant case which he is seeking to adjourn. The defendant has deliberately disabled me from hearing any submissions by counsel on its behalf on the merits of the application. So far as the merits may be relevant, I should say that I carefully examined as best I can the merits on the material before me and concluded that the application, if tried on its merits, would fail. It is sufficient to say: (1) that it would be highly unsatisfactory to try the issues of fraud and forgery on the application and on the evidence now before the courts. There has been no disclosure. The defendant has refused to agree that the parties’ experts should exchange reports, prepare a joint report and attend for cross-examination, on the issue of the authenticity of the JVA at the same time as that of the CSA. There are practically identical issues in relation to both documents and in particular whether the defendant forged them both; (2) it is remarkable that the defendant (and in particular Mr Nasim) only ‘remembered’ that the CSA had been executed in April 2007. The evidence explaining by whom, how and why instructions were then for the first time given which led to the discovery of the document in 2007 is deficient and unsatisfactory; (3) at the least the parties appear never to have proceeded on the basis that their rights and obligations were governed by the CSA. Mr Nasim apparently never had the document in mind from the moment it was executed; (4) there are grounds supporting the claimant’s claim that the claimant’s signature may have been incorporated in the document to mislead the Malaysian custom authorities. In this context it is relevant that the defendant’s ‘reason’ for abandoning the application appears to be so insubstantial and so disproportionate to the relief sought that it is in my judgment to be categorised as a ‘pretext’ rather than a genuine reason and the inference may be drawn that the defendant is anxious that the court should not decide (as it otherwise would be free to decide) the authenticity of the CSA; (5) it would in my view be a complete waste of costs and court time, as well as unfair on the claimant, that the experts and the court should have to decide the
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authenticity of the CSA in isolation from consideration of the authenticity of the JVA.
CONCLUSION
[22] Taking account of all the circumstances, faced with the application for an adjournment, justice requires that the court should refuse an adjournment and dismiss the application. I should add that to facilitate the court in deciding expeditiously (when the decision comes to be made) whether the CSA and the JVA are authentic, it is appropriate that one or both parties (indeed if necessary the court) immediately write or writes to the Malaysian customs authority enclosing a copy of this judgment, a copy of the CSA and a copy of customs declarations requesting the authority to assist the court as best it can on the issue of authenticity and the prices declared by the defendant to the authority. The defendant has no ground for concern if (as he states) the CSA is authentic.
Adjournment refused. Application dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Ross River Ltd and another v Cambridge City Football Club Ltd
[2008] 1 All ER 1004
[2007] EWHC 2115 (Ch)
Categories: CONTRACT: TORTS; Other
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): BRIGGS J
Hearing Date(s): 23–27, 30, 31 JULY, 19 SEPTEMBER 2007
Misrepresentation – Fraudulent misrepresentation – Rescission – Duty of good faith – Bribery – Parties entering contract – Parties subsequently negotiating second contract for sale of asset whose value depending on first contract – Payment made to managing director of negotiating company – Managing director disclosing payment to one other director – Whether first contract creating duty of good faith – Whether agent making fraudulent misrepresentations – Whether payment to director bribery – Whether company having knowledge of payment – Whether rescission available in relation to first contract.
The defendant was the freehold owner of a football ground and stadium (the ground). The ground was subject to a restrictive covenant and was accessed only by a single right of way. There were a number of occupying tenants. The defendant entered into agreements with the claimants (the sale agreements) for the conditional sale of the ground for £1·3m. The ground was to be developed to include residential units. The increase in the value of the ground attributable to the obtaining of vacant possession and planning permission (the overage) was to be shared between the defendant and the claimants. The sale agreements provided for the grant of a lease-back to the defendant for a term of five years with provision for early termination when planning permission had been obtained. The sale agreements contained obligations of mutual co-operation in relation to the maximisation of the value of the ground by the obtaining of planning permission and vacant possession, obligations on the claimants to consult with and to obtain the approval of the defendant in relation to the development scheme and to the planning application and an obligation to obtain the best value and/or the lowest cost in incurring expenditure in connection with the scheme in circumstances where that expenditure was to constitute a deduction against the amount payable to the defendant as its share of the overage. The sale was completed but the financial position of the defendant was such that it started negotiations with the claimants for the sale of its share of the overage. In the course of the negotiations the defendant’s advisor asked the first claimant’s agent for information about the position the claimants had reached in relation to planning, density of occupation, access, etc in order to form an opinion as to value. The agent’s replies understated his view as to the number of dwellings for which planning permission could be obtained, concealed favourable advice which he had received and, although he had relevant reports, denied that he had any. The defendant however did not accept the claimants’ first offer of £500,000 for its share of the overage. The sum of £900,000 was later agreed and the sale of the overage was completed in October 2005. During the course of negotiating the overage agreement the claimants had made payment of £10,000 to the managing director of the defendant who had been conducting the negotiations and he had disclosed the payment to only one of his fellow directors.
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In November 2005 the claimants gave notice terminating the defendant’s lease. The defendant registered a notice against the claimants’ title to the ground at HM Land Registry and the claimants issued proceedings for the purpose of removing it. The defendant by its counterclaim applied to rescind or set aside the sale agreements, the overage agreement and the lease. It contended that it was entitled to rescind for misrepresentation in that (i) there had existed a duty of disclosure upon the first claimant when negotiating the purchase of the defendant’s share of the overage by reason of the relationship between the parties created by the sale agreements; (ii) the first claimant’s agent had made fraudulent misrepresentations of fact; (iii) the payment by the claimants to the negotiating director had been bribery, being a payment to the defendant’s agent, with whom they were dealing, without the knowledge or consent of the defendant; and (iv) the right of rescission could extend so as to bring about the unwinding of a transaction prior in time to the payment constituting the relevant bribe, so allowing rescission of the sale agreements as well as the overage agreement. The claimants argued, inter alia, (i) that as the defendant had not relied on the first claimant’s agent’s statements, they could not have been an inducement to enter the overage agreement; and (ii) that as the defendant was a limited company the payment to the negotiating director had been sufficiently disclosed so as to deprive it of the character of a bribe by that director disclosing it to another director.
Held – (1) In the analysis of the relationship created by a contract an appraisal of the manner in which rights, powers, duties and discretions were allocated by the contract; of the contract’s particular commercial or business setting; and of the self-serving actions lawfully open to a party both under, and not withstanding, the contract would, as a rule, indicate decisively whether the role and reason of a party in the contract, or in a discrete part of it, could properly be said to serve his own interests, the parties’ joint interests, or the interests of the other party. In the instant case the project for the realisation of the development value of the ground constituted by the mutual obligations of the parties set out in the sale agreements had had enough about it in the nature of a joint venture to require the parties to conduct themselves with mutual good faith in relation both to the carrying out of their various obligations and in relation to any negotiations for a buy-out of either party’s share in the overage. The rights, powers, duties and discretions given to the first claimant under the sale agreements indicated decisively that the role of the first claimant in taking steps and obtaining information for the purpose of developing the scheme, obtaining the planning permission and satisfying the development conditions could properly be said to have been for the purpose of serving the parties’ joint interests. The first claimant had had a duty of good faith and that obligation had required it, once its agent had been asked to provide that information to enable the defendant to be advised, after the negotiation for the buy-out of its interest had started, either to provide the information, or to state in unambiguous terms that the request was being refused. By purporting to respond positively, while in fact concealing critical parts of the information, the first defendant by its agent had committed a grave breach of the obligation of good faith (see [199], [229]–[235], below).
(2) It was established, in cases of fraudulent misrepresentation, that it was not enough for the representor to show that the representee would have still entered into the contract even if the representation had not been made; it was sufficient for the representee to show that the misrepresentation was actively present in his
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mind. Where, as in the instant case, fraudulent material misrepresentation had been deliberately made with a view improperly to influence the outcome of the negotiation of the contract in favour of the maker and his principal, by an experienced player in the relevant market, there was the most powerful inference that the maker had achieved his object, at least to the extent that his fraud was actively present in the mind of the recipient when the contract came to be made. That inference, in the instant case, had not been displaced by the evidence. It followed that the defendant was entitled to rescind the overage agreement (see [202], [236]–[246], below); Edgington v Fitzmaurice [1881–5] All ER Rep 856 applied.
(3) A payment by a person dealing with a company to a director of the company charged with negotiation on the company’s behalf was only disclosed to the company by that director if the disclosure was made to all its directors or to a properly convened board meeting attended by a sufficient quorum because the disclosure was required so as to enable the company to make an informed decision whether to permit its agent to do something giving rise to a potential conflict of interest and such a decision could in general be made only by the company’s board. In the instant case the disclosure made by the payee director to one other board member had therefore been insufficient to bring the existence of the payment to the knowledge of the company. The claimants could not avoid rescission of the overage agreement by asserting their absence of knowledge that the payment had not been properly disclosed or approved as it was established that a payer who left it to an agent to inform the principal of the payment did so at his own risk (see [213], [214], [251], below); Logicrose Ltd v Southend United Football Club [1988] 1 WLR 1256 and Hurstanger Ltd v Wilson [2007] 4 All ER 1118 applied; El Ajou v Dollar Land Holdings plc [1994] 2 All ER 685 considered; Jafari-Fini v Skillglass Ltd [2007] EWCA Civ 261, [2007] All ER (D) 504 (Mar) distinguished.
(4) The court’s findings in relation to misrepresentation and bribery did not give it jurisdiction to set aside the sale agreements. The just consequence of the claimants’ misconduct was that the defendant should be given a further opportunity to consider whether it was in its interests to affirm the overage agreement free from the disadvantages of having had their advisor deliberately misled and having had the undivided loyalty of their chief negotiator undermined (see [222]–[228], [252]–[254], below); Panama and South Pacific Telegraph Co v India Rubber, Gutta Percha and Telegraph Works Co (1875) 10 Ch App 515 explained.
Notes
For relations between principal and agent: secret profits and bribes, see 2(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 118–121, and for fraudulent misrepresentation and for claims for rescission, see 31 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2003 reissue) paras 755–761, 812–835.
Cases referred to in judgment
Blisset v Daniel (1853) 10 Hare 493, 68 ER 1022.
Edgington v Fitzmaurice (1885) 29 Ch D 459, [1881–5] All ER Rep 856, CA.
El Ajou v Dollar Land Holdings plc [1994] 2 All ER 685, CA.
Hospital Products Ltd v United States Surgical Corp (1984) 55 ALR 417, (1984) 156 CLR 41, Aus HC.
Hurstanger Ltd v Wilson [2007] EWCA Civ 299, [2007] 4 All ER 1118, [2007] 1 WLR 2351.
Page 1007 of [2008] 1 All ER 1004
Jafari-Fini v Skillglass Ltd [2007] EWCA Civ 261, [2007] All ER (D) 504 (Mar).
Johnson v EBS Pensioner Trustees Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 164, [2002] Lloyd’s Rep PN 309.
Logicrose Ltd v Southend United Football Club [1988] 1 WLR 1256.
MAN Nutzfahrzeuge AG v Freightliner Ltd [2005] EWHC 2347 (Comm), [2005] All ER (D) 357(Oct).
Meridian Global Funds Management Asia Ltd v Securities Commission [1995] 3 All ER 918, [1995] 2 AC 500, [1995] 3 WLR 413, PC.
Panama and South Pacific Telegraph Co v India Rubber, Gutta Percha and Telegraph Works Co (1875) 10 Ch App 515, CA in Ch.
Parker v McKenna (1874) 10 Ch App 96, [1874–80] All ER Rep 443, DC.
Reading’s Petition of Right, Re [1949] 2 All ER 68, sub nom Reading v R [1949] 2 KB 232, CA.
Runciman v Walter Runciman plc [1992] BCLC 1084.
Stokes v Cambridge Corp (1961) 13 P & CR 77.
Claim and counterclaim
The defendant, Cambridge City Football Club Ltd (the club), registered a unilateral notice on 24 October 2006 at HM Land Registry against the title of the claimants, Ross River Ltd (Ross River) and Blue River LP, to a football ground and stadium in Cambridge (the ground). The claimants issued proceedings for the purposes of securing the removal of the notice and declarations of non-liability, possession of the ground upon the termination of a lease dated 21 June 2006 granted by Ross River to the club (the 2006 lease) and damages for breach of statutory duty under s 77 of the Land Registration Act 2002. In its defence and counterclaim the defendant applied to rescind or have set aside (i) the sale of the club’s freehold interest in the ground to Ross River for £1·3m and a share in the overage attributable to the obtaining of residential planning permission under a conditional agreement dated 3 February 2005 completed on 29 April 2005; (ii) the sale by the club to Ross River for £900,000 of its share in the overage on 7 October 2005; and (iii) the 2006 lease. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Jonathan Seitler QC and Andrew Mold (instructed by Field Fisher Waterhouse) for the claimants.
Nicholas Davidson QC and Alexander Hall-Taylor (instructed by Ince & Co) for the club.
Judgment was reserved.
19 September 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
BRIGGS J.
INTRODUCTION
[1] This judgment follows the liability only trial of a claim by the defendant Cambridge City Football Club Ltd (the club) to rescind or have set aside three related transactions with the claimants Ross River Ltd (Ross River) and Blue River LP (Blue River) providing for the sale and lease-back of its football ground and stadium in Cambridge (the ground). The first of those transactions consisted of the sale of the club’s freehold interest in the ground to Ross River for £1·3m plus a share in the overage attributable to the obtaining of residential planning
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permission (the overage), pursuant to a conditional agreement dated 3 February 2005, completed on 29 April 2005. The second consisted of a sale by the club to Ross River of its share in the overage for £900,000 on 7 October 2005 (the overage agreement). The third was a contracted-out lease of the ground by Ross River to the club dated 21 June 2006, for a term which expired on 31 May 2007, following which the club has continued in occupation, pending the outcome of this litigation. That lease replaced two earlier consecutive lease-backs of the ground dated respectively 29 April and 7 October 2005.
[2] The club claims to be entitled to have those three transactions set aside on two distinct grounds. The first arises from payments made in June and November 2005 and January 2006 by agents on behalf of Ross River to Mr Arthur Eastham, the then chief executive of the club, who took the lead in the negotiation of the three transactions on behalf of the club, which the club characterises as having constituted bribes. The second basis is that the club claims to have been induced to enter into the second and the predecessor of the third of those transactions by reason of fraudulent misrepresentations made on behalf of Ross River by a Mr Paul Harney of Waveley Project Management Ltd (Waveley) to a Mr Edwin Lee of the club’s surveyors Cheffins in a letter dated 25 May 2005.
[3] The claimants admit that the payments to Mr Eastham and the statement to Mr Lee were made on behalf of Ross River. As to the payments, they allege that the first of these consisted of the discharge in part of the club’s liability to pay consultancy fees to Mr Eastham, known to and requested by the club at a time when it lacked the funds to make the payment itself. The remaining payments are said to be for work done by Mr Eastham for Ross River after the sale of the club’s share in the overage. As to the representations, the claimants’ defence is in outline that they were honest and accurate expressions of the claimants’ belief and (to the extent factual) of the underlying facts, but that the club did not rely upon them in any event.
[4] The apparent oddity that the claims in this litigation are made by the defendant against the claimants arises from the fact that the immediate casus belli consisted of the club’s registration of a unilateral notice on 24 October 2006 against the claimants’ title to the ground at HM Land Registry, leading to the claimants issuing the present proceedings for the purposes of securing the removal of the notice, and declarations of non-liability, possession of the ground upon the termination of the 2006 lease, and damages for breach of statutory duty under s 77 of the Land Registration Act 2002. The claims with which in substance this litigation is primarily concerned were then made by the club in its defence and counterclaim.
THE WITNESSES
[5] The claimants called eight witnesses, seven of whom were cross-examined. Mr Brian Peter York gave evidence first. He and his family beneficially own and control the claimants. He was neither a particularly satisfactory nor obviously unreliable witness. The most noticeable feature of his attitude towards giving oral evidence was that he appeared to have schooled himself, (there was no suggestion that he had been schooled), into a too easy inability to recall matters about which he was being cross-examined. In particular, he tended to confuse the question whether he could recall an event with the question whether he could remember a particular document in which that event had been referred to or described. An understandable lack of
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recollection of the document led him all too often to assert that he had forgotten all about the described event as well. For that reason, amounting in substance to a disinclination to engage fully or co-operatively with cross-examination, I found it necessary to treat his evidence, and in particular his witness statements, with caution. As will appear, I have not found it possible to accept an important part of his evidence about the £10,000 payment to Mr Eastham in June 2005.
[6] He was followed by Mr Eastham. By contrast with Mr York, he was articulate, and talkative to the point of being garrulous. He did not help himself by prefacing answers to sometimes straightforward questions by lengthy self-justificatory speeches. But when regard is had to the fact that following his departure from the club he was subjected to criticism of the most serious kind in the local press, I gained the impression that his speech making was more to do with him seeking to set the record straight, as he saw it, rather than as a means of evasion.
[7] It was apparent before the trial started that, when asked to return a substantial amount of club documentation after his resignation, Mr Eastham chose not merely to retain that documentation for a time, but to show it, or copies of it, to Mr Paul Harney, Mr York’s principal property adviser in connection with the ground, in order, as he put it in cross-examination, to enable him to piece together an account of events at the outset of the present dispute. Quite apart from the breach of fiduciary duty involved in that use of the club’s documents, which included privileged communications with its solicitors, the involvement of Mr Harney in Mr Eastham’s attempt to put together his account of his stewardship of the club’s affairs gives rise to the need to treat the product of that collaboration with considerable reserve, for reasons connected with Mr Harney’s own lack of credibility and the lack of integrity demonstrated by his behaviour in connection with the matters in issue, which I shall describe in due course.
[8] Nonetheless, I did not form the impression when listening to Mr Eastham that he was seeking deliberately to mislead the court. On the contrary, he engaged fully with the cross-examination and, on occasion, made some significant realistic admissions. As will appear however, I have not been able to accept certain important parts of his evidence about the circumstances in which he accepted payment from the claimants in 2005. In important respects, the combination of his desire to justify his conduct and the assistance of Mr Harney in recreating his account of what happened led to him giving a significant amount of evidence which I have found myself obliged to disbelieve.
[9] Mr Harney himself followed Mr Eastham, and was subjected to a sustained cross-examination designed to portray him as the villain of the piece. He is a highly intelligent and experienced player in the property business, both as a project manager for others, including Mr York, and on his own account. He plainly has above average powers of recollection, and gave an articulate and, on occasion, highly detailed account of his participation in the relevant events. For the most part, his evidence appeared at first sight to be well reasoned and plausible, until subjected to a comparison with the contemporaneous documents, in particular those created by Mr Harney himself, when assessed in their proper context. That comparison, which was carried out by Mr Davidson QC for the club in cross-examination at length and with rigour, persuaded me that the critical parts of Mr Harney’s evidence were a meticulously prepared and sophisticated attempt by him to disguise the fact that he had, in 2005, set out deliberately to mislead Mr Lee, the club’s surveyor, about the
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progress of the project to obtain residential planning permission for the ground. I have therefore been forced to conclude that Mr Harney was no more to be trusted as a witness than as a professional colleague.
[10] At an early stage in his cross-examination, Mr Harney was caught red-handed in a blatant attempt in a letter to deceive the Cambridge City Council’s Planning Authority into thinking that a generous planning permission would assist the club in realising the value of its interest in the ground, at a time when, in January 2006, the club had already parted with the whole of its interest in the residential development of the ground, by reason of the overage agreement made in October 2005. By that date, the only beneficiaries of any generosity on the part of the City Council in its attitude to the grant of planning permission were (subject to the club’s claims in this litigation, which had not by then been adumbrated), the claimants and Mr Harney’s own company which, as project manager, was to be remunerated solely by a share in Mr York’s companies’ profit. Rather than admit the inevitable, Mr Harney wriggled and evaded with imagination but without candour, and this became the hallmark of his evidence in cross-examination, all the more so in relation to more directly relevant events.
[11] In the result, I did not find Mr Harney’s evidence to be of any assistance to the court, save in the sense that he demonstrated the truth of that which the club sought to prove as to the lack of integrity with which he participated in relevant events.
[12] The remaining witness called by the claimants from among their own stakeholders and advisers was Mr Derek Carr, a chartered tax adviser and partner in the firm of Peters Elworthy & Moore. He was at the material time Mr York’s personal tax adviser, and formed a link in the chain by which Mr York gave instructions or expressed wishes to the managers of his Isle of Man companies. Although briefly cross-examined, no significant attack, still less inroad, was made upon his honesty or credibility. Beyond that, his appearance in the witness box was too brief for me to form any more detailed assessment of his value as a witness, beyond concluding that he was determined to assist the court with his recollection of events, both in writing and orally.
[13] Leaving aside Mr Eastham himself, two of the other three directors of the club at the material time gave evidence voluntarily for the claimants. The first was Mr Jeremy (Jez) George, a former player for the club, a full-time member of its staff, and the person who persuaded Mr York himself briefly to become a director of the club, so as to assist it with his experience in the property business. Apart from Mr Eastham, he was more closely involved in the affairs of the club than any of the others who gave evidence.
[14] Although unsophisticated (or perhaps because of it), I found Mr George to be a most impressive and valuable witness. His integrity was in my judgment beyond question. He gave a detailed and entirely credible account of the awfulness of the club’s financial predicament throughout the relevant period, and of the reasons why constantly recurring emergencies prevented the board from conducting its transactions with due formality, or even with any satisfactory minutes of its decisions. He readily acknowledged that, while he was a member of it, the board had not in many respects covered itself in glory, with the result that his evidence was not, like Mr Eastham’s, adversely affected by any desire for self-justification.
[15] There are certain significant respects in which I have not accepted Mr George’s evidence in full, where the evidence as a whole has compelled me
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to a conclusion at variance with his. In those respects I have concluded that his evidence was incorrect through defects in the accuracy of what he was told at the time, or from imperfections in his understanding and recollection, rather than from any lack of a sincere desire on his part to assist the court, which in my judgment he demonstrated in abundance.
[16] The other director was Mr Martin Murray, who was called by both sides as a witness of truth, having given successive witness statements to each. His involvement with the club’s day-to-day affairs during the material period was by no means as close or detailed as that of either Mr Eastham or Mr George, and although I have no doubt of his desire to assist the court with his recollection, it proved in certain respects to be seriously at variance with some of the facts which, reviewing the evidence as a whole, I have concluded occurred. That does not mean that I have rejected the whole of his evidence. In certain particular respects, for example in his assertion that the directors did not as a body agree upon a specific amount to be paid to Mr Eastham in addition to his normal salary, and in his lack of knowledge of the June 2005 payment to Mr Eastham, I found that his evidence was both valuable and correct.
[17] The claimants also called the club’s surveyor at the time, Mr Edwin Lee of Cheffins. He was a straightforward, helpful and perceptive witness, who made no attempt to exaggerate his powers of recollection. Although not called as an expert, I found his analysis of the extent to which a full and frank response by Mr Harney to his enquiries as to the progress of the project in 2005 would have assisted him in advising the club in relation to its negotiation of the overage agreement to be compelling. In short, he was an experienced, realistic and intelligent surveyor, seeking honestly but without exaggeration to assist the court.
[18] In one respect however I have concluded that his recollection, which he admitted involved an element of inference, was not entirely correct, in particular when compared with the contemporaneous documents. This concerned the basis upon which the directors agreed that Mr Eastham was to receive additional remuneration for his work in realising the development value of the ground, during negotiations with Mr York’s companies in 2004. Mr Lee acknowledged that this was not his area of responsibility, and his understandable lack of concern about this matter at the time may have contributed to a less than perfect recollection of it.
[19] Finally, the claimants relied upon the witness statement of Giulio De Simone, the proprietor of restaurant premises at the ground, in connection with the circumstances in which he agreed, for a substantial premium, to vacate it so as to facilitate its redevelopment. His evidence was accepted without cross examination, so that, to the limited extent relevant, I have treated it as reliable.
[20] The defendant’s main witness was the remaining director at the material time, Mr Kevin Satchell. He was a man of relatively few words, and, like Mr York, appeared to have schooled himself to take refuge in apparent shortcomings in his recollection in relation to virtually all points about which he had not already provided detail in his two witness statements. Again, like Mr York, he had an axe to grind in the litigation. Having been the recipient of a substantial (to a considerable extent unexpected) part of the proceeds of the sale of his family’s business which occurred almost at the same time as the making of the overage agreement in late 2005, Mr Satchell has since become a principal financial supporter of the club, and a substantial contributor to the club’s costs of this litigation.
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[21] He was subjected to a searching test of his powers of recollection by Mr Seitler QC for the claimants in cross-examination, in which he performed without distinction. Again like Mr York, I did not find him to be either an impressive or obviously unsatisfactory witness. The corner-stone of his evidence was that he had neither known of nor approved any negotiation by Mr Eastham for a payment of remuneration from Mr York or his companies, or been informed that Mr Eastham had in fact obtained such payment in June 2005. Although if unsupported, I might not have placed much weight upon the absence of recollection of a witness with apparently limited powers of recall, I concluded in the end, as will appear, that his evidence on this point accorded with the probabilities of the matter, having regard to the evidence as a whole.
[22] Next in importance among the defendant’s witnesses was Mrs Jennifer Warren, a partner in the defendant’s solicitors Taylor Vinters, responsible for the conduct of the detailed drafting and execution of the agreement for the sale of the ground, and of the club’s share of the overage. She readily acknowledged in cross-examination her less than total powers of recall. I found her interpretation of her own files to be compelling, and she was frank, engaging and transparently honest. I have however concluded that her recollection failed her in one important respect, namely whether an additional payment to Mr Eastham was mentioned at a drafting meeting which she attended in 2004. The virtual unanimity of the other attendees that it was mentioned prevailed over her evidence that, although she could not be sure, it was not.
[23] The defendants did not in the event call Mr Crangle, who became a director of the club only after the relevant period. Their other two witnesses, Mr Davidson and Mr Young, were not cross-examined, so that their evidence was accepted in full, albeit of limited relevance.
THE FACTS
The parties
[24] The club was incorporated on 14 August 1973 as a private company limited by shares to take over the assets, liabilities and business of its predecessor the Cambridge City Football Sports Club Ltd. It appears that a football club bearing the name Cambridge City can trace its existence back approximately 100 years. It is one of two prominent football clubs in Cambridge, the other being known as Cambridge United. It has been a regular competitor in the FA Cup, and competes in the Conference South league.
[25] By late 2002, despite success from time to time on the field, the club was commercially insolvent, although the value of its assets still exceeded its liabilities, due entirely to the potential for residential development of the ground.
[26] At all times prior to the adoption of new articles of association in 2006 the club’s constitution provided, by art 14 as follows;
‘A Director shall not be entitled to receive any remuneration in respect of his office as Director or as an employee of the club. The Directors may be paid all travelling, hotel and other expenses properly incurred by them in attending and returning from meetings of the Directors or any committee of the Directors or general meetings of the Company or in connection with the business of the Company’
[27] In late 2002, at the beginning of the events which I must describe, the club’s directors were Stuart Hamilton, Kevin Satchell and a Mr and Mrs Rolph.
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Mr Hamilton was the Chairman, and handled the day-to-day affairs of the club, subject to the (not very close) supervision of the board.
[28] The claimants are both offshore vehicles, formed for the purposes of the transactions in issue in these proceedings, and ultimately beneficially owned by Mr York and his family. Blue River is an Isle of Man limited partnership, and Ross River is its general partner. The York family’s beneficial interest in the claimants is held under a trust which is a limited partner in Blue River.
[29] Mr York is a businessman with substantial interests in and around Cambridge, in particular in connection with building and property development, including projects for a number of Cambridge University colleges.
Re-constitution of the club’s board
[30] It became apparent to the club’s then directors in late 2002 that the deteriorating state of its affairs was getting beyond their control. Mr Hamilton’s wife had recently died. He had become reticent about the club’s day-to-day affairs, and preliminary attempts to put together a relocation plan which would permit the ground to be sold so as to improve the club’s finances had made no progress. Mr George, a former player and full-time employee of the club, was brought onto the board to avoid losing him, and he was instrumental in persuading both Mr York and Mr Eastham to contribute their considerable business experience towards turning the club around, as directors. I have described Mr York’s background. Mr Eastham’s experience lay in sales, having in particular been a sales director for the telecommunications company NTL. Both had, as may be expected, a keen interest in football. In addition, another former player for the club, Martin Murray, was also recruited to the board.
[31] A search at Companies House shows that all four new directors were appointed on 4 February 2003, although the oral evidence suggested that they were invited to join the board in December 2002.
Taking Control
[32] The appointment of the new directors coincided with the issue by the Football Association of a report on the club, on 12 February 2003, based upon work carried out in September 2001 and a draft report was issued in December 2001, upon which the then directors had been invited to comment. The report noted (at para 4.4) that despite the prohibition in the club’s articles upon remuneration of directors (whether as directors or employees) the club’s then chief executive Mr Hamilton received a salary, and recommended that art 14 be amended. The report also noted the parlous financial position of the club, and the board’s intention to resolve it by a sale of the ground, coupled with relocation of the club’s activities. The report noted the expectation of the then board of receiving about £7·5m net for the sale of the ground, and recorded the directors’ intention to seek shareholders’ approval for a relocation before any decision was made. The evidence of the new directors was, regrettably, that none of them read the FA’s report, having in their view much more urgent crises to deal with. Article 14 was not amended.
[33] Attempts by the new directors to appraise themselves of the up-to-date financial position of the club at a series of board meetings in early 2003 met with a lack of co-operation from Mr Hamilton, which culminated in a decision on 6 May 2003 that he should ‘step aside’ while Mr Eastham carried out a review of the books and records. Mr Hamilton then resigned on about 12 May 2003 and, upon Mr Eastham’s discovery of large amounts of unopened correspondence,
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including unpaid bills, in Mr Hamilton’s office, an urgent investigation of the club’s finances was commissioned by the board from Peters Elworthy & Moore, a local firm of accountants. They reported in writing on 23 May 2003, advising that the club was commercially insolvent (ie unable to pay its debts as they fell due), that it had short-term liabilities to creditors in excess of its overdraft facility in the amount of £122,000, that it was losing about £12,000–£15,000 a month, and that cash of approximately £250,000 would be needed to meet liabilities to creditors over the following six months. The report noted that the ground represented an asset of significant but uncertain value, noting a recent valuation prepared for its bankers of £750,000 to £1m, but a possibly much higher development value, subject to major uncertainties which needed to be investigated.
[34] The club had no money with which to pay Peters Elworthy & Moore for their work. Mr York arranged for his company York Construction (Cambridge) Ltd (York Construction) to pay the bill of some £15,000 odd, and the payment was treated as an unsecured loan by York Construction to the club.
[35] The board’s immediate response to the discovery of the financial crisis facing the club was to appoint Mr Eastham as chief executive in the place of Mr Hamilton. Although there is no documentary record of this, the oral evidence of the directors persuades me that, at the outset, Mr Eastham’s fellow directors agreed that he should be paid £2,500 per month (or £30,000 pa) for his services as chief executive, a slight increase on the £25,000 pa which Mr Hamilton had been receiving. The club’s shareholders had neither been asked to consent to, nor informed of the payment of a salary to Mr Eastham, and since the board ignored the Football Association’s advice to amend art 14, the board had no authority to commit the club to the making of any salary agreement or salary payments to Mr Eastham.
Selling the ground
[36] As is recorded in the minutes of the board meeting on 4 February 2003, at which the new directors were appointed, the sale of the ground and consequential relocation of the club’s activities was a cardinal item of company policy from the moment of their appointment. The minutes noted interest by four property companies, and recorded a decision that each of them should be invited to make offers for the ground by 4 March. As an experienced property developer himself, Mr York was asked by the other directors to advise the club, alongside Mr Hamilton, in connection with the sale of the ground.
[37] It rapidly became apparent to Mr York that, notwithstanding the optimistic figures which had been suggested to the Football Association, the realisation of the development value of the ground was likely to be seriously impeded by practical difficulties, which may be grouped under the following four headings: (1) Restrictive covenant; (2) Access; (3) Occupying tenants; (4) Mortgages. I will deal with each of these in turn.
Restrictive Covenant
[38] The ground was affected by a restrictive covenant contained in a conveyance dated 28 October 1929 in favour of St John’s College, Cambridge, which limited the use of the ground to a sports or athletic ground, and prohibited the erection of any building thereon, other than a pavilion or similar building for sporting use. The club had not by early 2003 taken any legal advice as to the
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enforceability of this covenant, or entered into any negotiations with the college for its release.
Access
[39] The only access to the ground lay though the neighbouring Westbrook Centre pursuant to a right of way enjoyed by the club. By early 2003 the club had taken no advice either upon the question whether its existing right of way would be sufficient for a residential development upon the ground, whether the route of the access road was suitable in planning and highway safety terms, or whether the road was suitable for adoption as a public highway. It was believed that a potential alternative means of access was subject to a ransom strip owned by the City Council.
Occupying Tenants
[40] There were a number of occupying tenants, all or some of whom would be likely to require the payment of substantial premia for early surrender. They were the Cambridgeshire Football Association, under a 99-year lease from 1 May 2001 relating to office premises within an existing building on the ground. Secondly, Tipacre Ltd had a lease of the majority of the car park on the ground expiring in January 2007. Thirdly, Crown Castle UK Ltd had erected a mobile telephone transmitter station and mast on part of the ground under a lease for 20 years from 11 October 1995. Lastly the De Simone family were tenants of a restaurant at the ground under a lease for ten years from December 2001, having been tenants since 1985.
[41] By early 2003, the club had not commenced negotiations with any of its occupying tenants with a view to obtaining early possession, and had little idea whether, and if so for what surrender payments, each of them would be prepared to vacate.
Mortgages
[42] The ground was, in early 2003, subject to two charges, the first in favour of the club’s bankers to secure its substantial overdraft, limited at that time to £395,000. Upon a sale therefore, the club would have to be able to continue trading with a much reduced (if any) overdraft. Secondly, Cambridgeshire FA had a charge to secure a loan to the club in excess of £150,000.
[43] The combined effect of these difficulties meant that, as became apparent when interested purchasers submitted written offers, the club had no prospect of an early sale of the ground on terms which would realise its development potential by a significant immediate monetary payment. For example, David Wilson Homes only offered to pay £100,000 for a five-year option to purchase. Bovis Homes made an offer which, although substantial, at £7·46m, was conditional upon the receipt of planning permission for which in early 2003 the club had not even applied, offering only a £50,000 deposit in the meantime.
[44] Faced with unsatisfactory offers and an increasingly desperate need for cash in the short term, the directors began to focus upon Mr York as a potential lender and, in due course, buyer of the ground. Mr Hamilton asked Mr York whether he could provide £100,000 as short term funding pending sale but this was not pursued before he resigned. I have already described how Mr York arranged for York Construction to lend money to pay for the investigation by Peters Elworthy & Moore.
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[45] At a board meeting in June 2003 Mr York was asked by Mr Murray and Mr Satchell whether he would be interested in purchasing the ground on terms which would provide for the club both a share in its development potential and cash in the short term. Mr York agreed to think about it and, having decided that he was interested, informed his colleagues in July of his intention to resign as a director, as he eventually did by letter dated 4 September. By then he had at Mr Eastham’s request made two unsecured loans to the club, each of £50,000, on 7 and 15 August.
[46] In the meantime the board arranged for professional advice in connection with the sale of the ground. Taylor Vinters, a Cambridge based firm of solicitors, were retained to provide legal advice on 23 May, and Cheffins, a Cambridge based firm of chartered surveyors, were retained to provide valuation and marketing advice in August.
[47] Mr York’s first move towards acquiring the ground consisted of a proposed agreement pursuant to which, in return for increasing his companies’ lending to the club from £100,000 to £200,000, his company York Developments Cambridge Ltd (York Developments) would receive first, a debenture by way of security, and secondly an option exercisable within 12 years (or longer if there was a pending planning appeal) to purchase the ground at a formula price consisting of half the difference between the market value of the ground at the time of exercise and indexed linked planning and development costs (as defined). Any outstanding lending secured by the debenture at the time of exercise of the option was to be deducted from the amount payable to the club.
[48] Mr Lee of Cheffins advised the club against the proposed agreement but the directors nonetheless executed the proposed option agreement on 1 September 2003, on terms making it conditional upon shareholder consent. Whether the board’s decision to execute the option agreement was a measure of the then extremity of the club’s financial predicament or of the lack of business acumen on the part of its directors was not explored in evidence, and need not be decided, because at an extraordinary general meeting of the club on 26 September 2003 the shareholders declined to provide the necessary consent, with the consequence that the option agreement never became unconditional, and lapsed. Although the shareholders’ meeting was merely adjourned, and the shareholders told that it (or a further meeting) would be re-convened to discuss varied proposals, the shareholders were not thereafter either invited to, nor did they, take any further part in the disposal of the ground.
[49] Following the shareholders’ meeting, there ensued almost exactly one year’s negotiations between the club and a small group of interested purchasers, before the club signed a contract for the sale of the ground to York Developments (the 2004 sale agreement) together with an associated loan agreement, on 28 September 2004. For the most part, that course of negotiations gives rise to no factual controversy, and is of limited relevance to the issues which I have to decide. It may for present purposes sufficiently be summarised as follows.
[50] Five potential developers were in competition with each other, albeit never all at the same time. They were Ashwell Group plc, the Burford Group Ltd (which owned the adjacent Westbrook centre), Conygar Investment Company plc, Yorkshire Ventures Ltd, and York Developments itself. The club managed to avoid financial collapse by borrowing from two of the competitors, Mr York’s companies (as already described) and Conygar. From time to time each lender sought to use its status as such to improve its bargaining position in the negotiations. On 11 May 2004 the club was obliged to secure repayments of
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its borrowing from York Construction by the grant of a debenture for what was described therein as an advance of £176,000 odd. The evidence suggests that this amount was rather larger than the actual debt of the club to York Construction at the time, but the debenture was drafted on the assumption that York Construction would lend the additional amount necessary to enable the club to repay its loan from Conygar, which it did in July.
[51] With the assistance of Taylor Vinters and Cheffins, the club’s directors led by Mr Eastham played off the various competing purchasers with considerable skill. As late as the day before the 2004 sale agreement, the club was still in active negotiations with Yorkshire Ventures. At the same time, the club was facing constant pressure from creditors, including both HM Customs and Excise and the Inland Revenue, and struggling to pay the necessary players and staff wages required to enable it to continue with its sporting programme.
[52] Despite being advised by Cheffins to do so, the club did not however pursue the detailed investigations and negotiations which were required to enable the various difficulties in the way the successful development of the ground to be either evaluated or surmounted. To do so would have been beyond the club’s financial and administrative resources at the time. The result was that in seeking to identify the most attractive bidder for the ground, the club was obliged to proceed very much in the dark as to the true development value of the ground.
[53] It is nonetheless no part of the club’s case that it was induced to make the 2004 sale agreement with York Developments by reason of any misrepresentation by that company, or any breach of fiduciary duty by Mr Eastham or any of its directors. Furthermore, the evidence (both oral and documentary) shows that the 2004 sale agreement, and the head of terms between the same parties which preceded it, were the subject of vigorous and detailed negotiation, both between the representatives of the parties (principally but not only Mr Eastham and Mr York) and their professional advisors. It was, in summary, a hard fought arms’ length commercial deal.
[54] Although the course of that year’s negotiations is in general neither contentious nor relevant, there is one important and highly contentious issue of fact relating to this period, namely whether during the negotiations between the club and York Developments there was made any agreement for the provision of additional remuneration for Mr Eastham (beyond his basic salary), and if so between which parties, involving which of those parties’ representatives, and upon what terms both as to entitlement and method of payment. That issue is of central relevance to the club’s case that Mr Eastham was bribed, but I have found it easier to make my findings of fact about the bribery issue as a whole, rather than stage by stage in its precise chronological position in the story.
THE 2004 SALE AGREEMENT
[55] The 2004 sale agreement consisted in essence of a conditional sale of the ground by the club to York Developments for £1·3m, of mutual promises by each party to co-operate with the other in the obtaining of vacant possession and of planning permission for the development of the ground, and of the sharing between them on a broadly 50/50 basis of the increase in the value of the ground attributable to the obtaining of vacant possession and planning permission. At the same time, the agreement provided for the grant of a contracted-out lease of the ground by York Developments back to the club for a term of five years (from completion) at a rent of £70,000 per annum, with provision for earlier
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termination at any time after 10 May 2006, provided that a satisfactory planning permission had by then been obtained. I shall refer (as have the parties) to the increase in the value of the ground as ‘the overage’.
[56] The club’s share of the overage is defined in the agreement as the ‘Additional Consideration’ pursuant to a formula for its calculation described in Sch 5, para 1, as follows: ‘(i) A – (B + C) D – (E + F + G) = AC.’
[57] Schedule 5 then explains that algebraic formula by reference to the definitions to be found in a 14-page definition section in the agreement. For brevity, but at the expense of precise accuracy, the formula is explicable as follows.
[58] A is either the gross sale proceeds (if the ground is sold to a third party buyer with planning permission and vacant possession) or the market value (as defined) of the ground in certain stated events at least five years after the making of the agreement. B is the aggregate of the planning and development costs plus interest. I shall have to return to the definition of planning and developments costs. C is the original sale price of £1·3m increased by indexation. D is 50 per cent. E is the amount of the York advances and York loans (as defined) as at the calculation date (defined as the sale date) plus interest. The York advances was the £180,000 owing by the club to York Construction (or its associates) at the date of the agreement. The York loans was an additional £135,000 advanced to the club, together with all other monies due by the club to York Construction or York Developments by the sale date. F is the amount of any outstanding rent at the sale date, plus interest. G is the amount paid by the York companies to obtain termination of the Cambridgeshire Football Association lease and the release of St John’s College restrictive covenant in excess of £450,000 and £75,000 respectively.
[59] With that explanation, it will be apparent that the club’s share of the overage was to be half the net increase in the value of the ground in excess of the £1·3m purchase price, net of planning and development costs, from which was to be deducted various amounts by then owing by the club to any of the York companies. It was the purchase by the claimants of the club’s share of the overage in October 2005 for £900,000 which has given rise to this litigation.
[60] I have described the 2004 sale agreement as a conditional sale. The conditions precedent, subject to waiver by York Developments, were: (i) The obtaining of an agreement with Cambridgeshire Football Association for the vacation of its office premises at the ground on or before the termination of the club’s lease, in defined terms. (ii) The obtaining of an agreement with St John’s College for the release of the restrictive covenant affecting the ground, again on defined terms. (iii) The obtaining of restrictive covenant indemnity insurance, again on defined terms. All the conditions precedent were satisfied or waived by April 2005.
[61] There is (because it was in writing) no dispute as to the express terms of the 2004 sale agreement, but there is an important issue as to its legal effect. Although it contained an express declaration against partnership, the club claims that the agreement constituted, or included, a sufficient element of joint venture so as to give rise to mutual obligations of good faith as between its parties, and in particular to an obligation of the purchaser to give full and fair disclosure to the club of all information relevant to the value of the club’s share of the overage, in connection with any negotiations between the parties for the purchase of that share. I shall deal with the legal principles relevant to that issue later in this
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judgment. At this stage, it is necessary only to summarise the provisions of the agreement upon which the claim is based.
[62] Paragraph 1.1 of Sch 3 required York Developments, as soon as reasonably practicable after completion, and after taking all necessary advice, considering all relevant matters, and making all necessary investigations, to produce a draft scheme for the development and maximisation of the value of the ground, for approval by the club, not to be unreasonably withheld or delayed. The scheme was to be produced in any event not later than 12 months after completion.
[63] By para 1.2 of Sch 3, the scheme was to be followed by the production by York Developments of a draft planning application, again for approval by the club. By para 1.5.1 York Developments was to keep the club informed, at reasonable intervals, of the progress of the planning application, and to give the club an opportunity to make reasonable representations in respect both of the scheme and planning application, and to notify and obtain the approval of the club in relation to any material variations (as defined).
[64] By Schs 4 and 6, provision was made for the obtaining of vacant possession of the ground, and the obtaining of planning permission, the obtaining of all necessary types of access for the purposes of the scheme, and for the removing or the releasing of the restrictive covenant and other encumbrances. Those are defined in Sch 6 as the development conditions.
[65] Paragraph 1.1.1 of Sch 4 provides as follows:
‘After Completion the Vendor shall co-operate with the Purchaser and take all reasonable action required by the Purchaser from time to time to secure vacant possession of the Property by the Lease Termination Date and satisfy the Development Conditions . . .’
[66] By para 1.1.2 the club was protected from having to incur third party costs in relation to any aspect of its co-operation required by the purchaser, unless and until the purchaser agreed to pay for them.
[67] By para 1.2 the purchaser was obliged to use all reasonable endeavours to obtain the planning permission and satisfy the development conditions taking into consideration ‘(b) the obligation to obtain best value . . .' By para 1.2.1, where payments were to be made or costs or liabilities (as defined) incurred by the purchaser within the meaning of planning and development costs, the purchaser was to use reasonable endeavours to achieve the lowest cost or best value.
[68] ‘Costs’ was broadly defined. ‘Planning and Development Costs’ was defined as meaning for the cost and/or compensation reasonably and properly due or incurred by the purchaser or any associated companies (at any time) in relation to those matters set out or referred to in Sch 7. That Schedule set out an exhaustive list of planning and development costs which included all duties and taxes payable, the cost of the satisfaction of the conditions precedent, all professional fees, the cost of purchasing any necessary additional land and the cost of satisfying the development conditions.
[69] In summary therefore, the agreement contained within it obligations of mutual co-operation in relation to the maximisation of the value of the ground by the obtaining of planning permission and vacant possession, obligations of the purchaser to consult with and obtain the approval of the club in relation the scheme and to the planning application, and an obligation to obtain the best value and/or the lowest cost in incurring expenditure in connection with the scheme
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in circumstances where that expenditure was to constitute a deduction against the amount payable to the club as its share of the overage.
[70] Although the inclusion of express provisions providing for the early purchase by York Developments of the club’s share of the overage was contemplated during negotiations, no such provisions of any kind were ultimately included within the 2004 sale agreement. It therefore contains no express terms regulating the conduct of the parties toward each other in the event of any negotiation for such a purchase.
[71] The loan agreement made between York Construction and the club at the same time as the 2004 sale agreement provided for the loan of an additional £135,000 to the club, secured by the May 2004 debenture. The immediate cash requirements of the club pending completion of the 2004 sale agreement were thereby provided for.
THE ISLE OF MAN COMPANIES
[72] Shortly after the making of the September 2004 transactions, Mr York was advised that tax savings could be achieved for himself and his family if York Developments’ part in the scheme contemplated by the 2004 sale agreement was carried out instead by an offshore corporate structure. Accordingly the Ross River and Blue River entities were set up in the Isle of Man in the manner which I have already described, as the vehicles for this and other development projects. The club was persuaded that the substitution of the Isle of Man entities for York Developments was not adverse to its interests, and this was achieved by two agreements each made on 3 February 2005. The first was a termination agreement between the club and York Developments, which simply provided for the termination for the 2004 sale agreement. The second was a fresh sale agreement in substantially identical terms to the 2004 sale agreement, but now between the club and Ross River, on behalf of Blue River. I shall refer to it as ‘the 2005 sale agreement’, and to the 2004 and 2005 sale agreements as ‘the sale agreements’.
COMPLETION
[73] As contemplated by cl 4 of the sale agreements, the first requirements for the realisation of the development of the ground consisted of satisfying the conditions precedent, for which the club was to use all reasonable endeavours, but in relation to which the purchaser was to be entitled to conduct all relevant discussions and negotiations with Cambridgeshire Football Association and St John’s College, so as to procure agreement with them on the best terms reasonably available.
[74] Agreement was reached with St John’s College for the release of the restrictive covenant on 10 January 2005, for the release fee of £75,000 index linked until completion, which was to be a date chosen by the owner from time to time of the ground not later than the fifth anniversary of the date of the agreement.
[75] Agreement was reached with Cambridgeshire Football Association for the surrender of its lease and the release of its mortgage on 8 April 2005, pursuant to which the owner for the time being of the ground was entitled to obtain vacant possession from Cambridgeshire Football Association in May of each of 2006–2009 inclusive, for a surrender premium of between £450,000 and £500,000-odd depending on the date.
[76] I assume (but the evidence does not describe) that the condition precedent in the obtaining of restrictive covenant insurance was either satisfied
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or waived. Completion of the 2005 sale agreement took place on 29 April 2005, whereupon the ground was transferred by the club to Ross River and leased back to the club on the terms which I have already briefly described. In order to give good title, the Cambridgeshire Football Association mortgage and the club’s bank’s charge had to be, and were, redeemed. A letter from Taylor Vinters to Mr Eastham dated 29 April 2005 shows how the £1·3m odd purchase money was applied. £472,000 odd was needed to redeem the bank’s charge. Just under £400,000 was required to redeem the Cambridgeshire Football Association mortgage. Taylor Vinters’ fees slightly exceeded £100,000. After other deductions consisting of professional fees, an outstanding judgment debt, an insurance premium tax on the new lease, the club received only £249,000 odd, of which the letter described £220,500 as being the VAT element of the sale price. Accordingly, although the completion of the sale of the ground discharged a substantial amount of the club’s outstanding liabilities, it did little of substance to provide it with ongoing cash flow to satisfy the demands of its loss-making activities. It comes as no surprise therefore that even before completion, discussions commenced between the club and Ross River with a view to the purchase by Ross River of the club’s share of the overage. Before describing those discussions, it is convenient first to describe the process by which initially York Developments but later Ross River set about preparing the scheme and the planning application, and discharging their obligations to satisfy the development conditions pursuant to the sale agreements.
PURSUING THE DEVELOPMENT PROJECT
[77] Mr York had as early as mid-2004 approached Mr Harney of Waveley for advice in connection with his intended acquisition of the ground. In July and October 2004 respectively, Mr Harney interviewed Bidwells and Savills as potential valuers and planning consultants to the project. Savills signed a confidentiality undertaking in relation to the project on 29 October 2004, and were formally retained after a fee proposal made by them by letter of 17 March 2005.
[78] In order to address the problem of obtaining a satisfactory means of access to the developed site, Mr Harney approached Rutherfords, a Cambridge based firm of highway planning consultants, who signed a confidentiality undertaking on 21 February 2005. He also arranged for Williams & Co, a Cambridge based firm of solicitors, to be instructed on behalf or Ross River, for the purposes of obtaining the advice of Mr Robin Purchas QC in connection with the access issue. Instructions were sent to Mr Purchas on 11 April with a view to him advising in consultation on 13 April.
[79] Each of Messrs Savills, Rutherfords, Williams & Co and Mr Purchas were retained for the benefit of the project, ie in order to enable Ross River to formulate the scheme and the planning application pursuant to Sch 3 of the sale agreements, and to work towards satisfying the development conditions in co-operation with the club, pursuant to Sch 4. Their professional fees would all constitute planning and development costs pursuant to Sch 7, to be shared, in effect, equally between Ross River and the club pursuant to the formula in Sch 5.
[80] The position of Waveley is less straightforward. Prima facie, as project manager, Waveley might be supposed to have fallen into the same category, for the purposes of analysis of its role in relation to the project and liability for its fees, as the other professionals to whom I have referred. In particular, (although this was not explored in evidence) the club may reasonably have supposed that
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Waveley was retained for the benefit of the project, and therefore the mutual benefit of Ross River and the club, in the same way as those other professionals. Mr Harney disputed this position, in cross-examination, by reference to the terms upon which Ross River engaged Waveley. By letter of 25 January 2005 Tenon (the Isle of Man managers of Ross River and Blue River) requested Waveley to act on behalf of Blue River as project manager of the proposed development of the ground, and on 22 February Mr Harney replied on Waveley’s behalf enclosing a signed agreement to act as requested, stating for the record that fees had been agreed at £6,000 per month for nine months commencing December 2004 followed by a payment of 10 per cent of the gross profit realised by Blue River, acknowledging that an interim payment of £10,000 had already been received in December 2004. On 8 March Tenon replied to ‘clarify’ Waveley’s terms of appointment, on the basis that its fee was to be 10 per cent of the net rather than gross profit on the development payable once realised, and that the interim payments of £6,000 per month were to be treated as an advance of the profit share rather than an addition to it. By then, £24,000 had been paid on account.
[81] Mr Harney said that because his firm was to be paid purely by way of a share in Blue River’s net profit from the project, he did not regard his fees as falling within the meaning of planning and development costs pursuant to the sale agreements. In his view, Waveley was ‘part of’ the project in the sense of having a share in Blue River’s part of it, rather than an advisor to the project, for the benefit of all its participants. In the events which have happened, this question has not had to be resolved. Mr Harney’s attitude to Waveley’s role is however of relevance to the issue of misrepresentation which I have to decide. It is sufficient for those purposes to say that the basis of Waveley’s remuneration was not, so far as the evidence goes, ever explained to the club, with the consequence that the club and its professional advisors, including in particular Mr Lee of Cheffins, were entitled to assume that Waveley and Mr Harney had been retained for the benefit of the project, and therefore for the mutual benefit of the club and Ross River and its participants, such that they could look to Waveley for reasonable co-operation, and for the disclosure of information, to the extent contemplated by the terms of the sale agreements. Whether the club and Mr Lee entertained any such expectation in fact is a quite different question.
[82] Mr Harney was nonetheless well aware that the sale agreements imposed obligations of co-operation and disclosure, initially on York Construction and thereafter on Ross River. This much is apparent from the two-page outline of a two-phase campaign for the realisation of the ground’s development value which he prepared on 19 October 2004. In relation to both phases (being respectively before and after completion of the purchase of the ground) the document expressly contemplated that it would be necessary to ‘liaise with CCFC seeking and obtaining their agreement where appropriate’.
[83] In cross-examination, Mr Harney said that he was well aware that the sale agreements required both the scheme and planning application to be submitted to the club for consultation and approval, but that in his view, it was entirely a matter for his clients’ (the River entities’) choice when within the period of 12 months from completion to initiate a process of consultation with the club, for the purposes of obtaining its approval to the scheme. In this respect, in my judgment, Mr Harney recognised neither the spirit nor the letter of the sale agreements. Paragraph 1.1 of Sch 3 required the purchaser ‘as soon a reasonably practicable after Completion . . . but in any event not later than 12 months from
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the date of Actual Completion to produce a draft Scheme for approval by the Vendor . . .’
[84] It will be recalled that Ross River and Blue River were Isle of Man entities managed by corporate managers in the Isle of Man who had no experience of property development. All major decisions were ultimately formulated by Mr York whose family were the ultimate beneficial owners of the River entities, and decisions were communicated to the directors of the River entities via Mr York’s tax adviser Mr Carr of the same firm of Peters Elworthy & Moore whom Mr York had paid to carry out the investigation of the club’s affairs, in early 2003. Mr Carr normally passed on Mr York’s instructions (no doubt expressed as non-binding wishes, for reasons of tax efficiency) to Tenon.
[85] Nonetheless, for most practical purposes, the person in day-to-day charge of the River entities’ part in the realisation of the development value of the ground pursuant to the sale agreements was Mr Harney. The evidence, both from Mr Harney, Mr York and in an internal memorandum by Savills, is that Mr Harney’s particular skill lay in the realisation of the development value of property, whereas Mr York’s skill and experience lay more in the carrying out of developments as a builder. The consequence of this differentiation of skill and experience was that Mr York did not merely look to Mr Harney for advice from time to time, but largely left the conduct of the project (or rather his companies’ role in the project) to Mr Harney under the broadest possible de facto delegated authority.
[86] Mr Harney’s recruitment of planning, highways and legal professional advisers in the manner which I have described had not begun to bear fruit in terms of the receipt of useful advice by the time when, in February or March 2005, discussions began between Ross River and the club with a view to Ross River’s purchase of the club’s share of the overage. I shall, for clarity, describe that process separately in due course. It is however important to note Mr Harney’s evidence as to the consequence of the existence of such discussions upon his and Ross River’s responsibilities under the sale agreements. He said that, from the moment those negotiations in relation to the club’s share in the overage commenced, he regarded the club and Ross River as having become arms’ length opposing parties in an ordinary commercial property negotiation, and his role as being strictly limited to the advancement of Ross River’s interests in that negotiation. The advancement of the project, in terms of the preparation of the scheme, the planning application and the satisfaction of the development conditions, with all its attendant obligations of cooperation, consultation and disclosure were, in his view, in suspension, from the moment when that negotiation commenced.
[87] By the time Mr Harney gave that evidence, he had of course the benefit of hindsight in knowing that the negotiations had led to a successful conclusion, much later in 2005, pursuant to which his client acquired the whole of the club’s continuing interest in the ground, (save for short term rights as occupying tenant), thereby putting an end to the regime of mutual co-operation for the maximisation of its development value contemplated by the sale agreements. Furthermore, although this was not explored in evidence, I have little doubt that both Mr Harney and Mr York regarded the continuing urgent requirement of the club for cash as a factor which would, sooner or later, be bound to force the club into a sale of its share of the overage to Mr York’s companies, it being unable to wait for the realisation of the value of its share by the detailed working out of the
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processes of obtaining planning permission, and satisfying the development conditions.
[88] I have no hesitation in accepting Mr Harney’s evidence that his conduct from the outset of those negotiations was the product of a perception that his role from then on was to maximise his client’s interest, regardless of the interests of the club. Waveley was, after all, a sharer in Ross River’s net profit, such that his own company’s interest lay in minimising the amount paid to the club by Ross River for the purchase of the club’s share of the overage.
[89] Ross River’s obligations under the sale agreements were, of course, not suspended merely because of the commencement of negotiations for the purchase of the club’s share of the overage. Such a suspension could have been agreed, but it was not, and it is not to be implied merely from the fact that such negotiations commenced. Furthermore, the process of the preparation of a scheme for the realisation of the development value of the ground, of preparing for a planning application, and of satisfying the development conditions did not in fact stop. On the contrary, Mr Harney proceeded with vigour to obtain the advice of the planning, highways and legal professionals whom he had retained, and although the first planning application for the residential development of the ground was not made until 2006, its preparation was well advanced by the time when the club’s share in the overage was acquired by Ross River, on 7 October 2005. For clarity, I will describe the continuation of that process of preparation down to that date, before describing the course of the negotiations, and the representations made in connection with it.
[90] By the end of March 2005, Mr Harney had instructed Rutherfords to carry out a highway traffic survey, had prepared an outline of instructions to be given to Mr Purchas, had a preliminary meeting with Savills, with a view to their preparation of a preliminary planning appraisal, and had instructed Camal, a Cambridge firm of architects, to prepare, among other things, a preliminary schedule of accommodation.
[91] The documentary evidence shows that, from the outset, Mr Harney intended to apply for planning permission for approximately 250 residential units or, putting it more broadly, for a number between 200 and 300 units. This is apparent first from Camal’s schedule of accommodation prepared in March 2005, which provides for 194 private units and 54 units of affordable housing. Secondly, the instructions to Mr Purchas which Mr Harney saw and approved in advance, required Mr Purchas to advise on the basis on an assumed density estimate ‘somewhere between 200–300 residential units’.
[92] Of course, an intention to apply for planning permission for 200–300 units does not, as Mr Harney was at pains to point out, mean that he regarded this as a safe assumption upon which to value the ground. But it is a fair inference that Mr Harney did not regard the prospect of achieving planning permission at that level of density as fanciful, having regard to the substantial cost (including the fees) associated with the making of a planning application on that scale.
[93] Relevant advice began to flow in during April 2005. On 4 April Rutherfords reported that the access way though the Westbrook Centre had been designed and constructed with a view to eventual adoption, and that both in terms of quality of construction and layout, the existing road exceeded that normally to be expected of a purely private road. Rutherfords’ only reservation was that at its junction with Milton Road, the private road over the Westbrook Centre used kerb radii well below the normal requirement of ten metres. But Rutherfords’ opinion was that this had probably been pre-agreed at the stage of
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the planning application for the Westbrook Centre so that this apparent shortfall in layout specification might well not constitute an obstacle to adoption.
[94] Mr Purchas’s advice, given in consultation on 13 April, was equally encouraging. His opinion was that the right of way reserved over the Westbrook Centre land for the benefit of the ground was sufficiently widely drawn to permit access to and from a residential development of the ground along the existing access route, and that Burford (the owner of the Westbrook Centre) would be unlikely to be able to impose a ransom as the price of permitting the adoption of the existing access way as a public highway.
[95] Mr Harney obtained a draft preliminary planning appraisal from Savills on or shortly before 12 April. It noted that the applicable Regional Planning Policy Structure Plan had called for significant increases in the supply of housing within Cambridge, and identified the ground as a potential site for residential development, with an optimal density of 99 dwellings, but with the possibility of more intensive development. Various constraints on density were mentioned, such as the preservation of the Cambridge skyline, and the loss of existing open space, and Savills warned that the existing policy on affordable housing calling for a 30 per cent element of that type in any redevelopment was in due course to be replaced by a 50 per cent requirement when the re-deposited local plan achieved adoption, and that the planning authority would be likely to place increasing weight upon that percentage increase as adoption of the local plan drew nearer.
[96] Savills commented on initial drawings prepared by Camal Architects (not available at the trial) showing a development including 248 units, with a 21 per cent element of affordable housing. This was described by Savills ‘Clearly at odds with the current Brief for the site and also the policies adopted by the City Council’. Their main concerns were first, that progress needed to be made with the relocation of the club before a planning application for the development of its existing ground was submitted; secondly that more attention need to be given to the requirement for open space, either on-site or by a contribution towards the acquisition of open space elsewhere; thirdly that 21 per cent affordable housing fell below the current requirement of 30 per cent, rising to 50 per cent in due course; and fourthly that although the proposed scale of the development fitted well with the adjacent Westbrook Centre, some modification of scale might be needed to harmonise with residential properties to the north and south. Nonetheless, Savills’ overall conclusion was that there was a good prospect of achieving a beneficial planning permission on the site, once those specific issues had been addressed.
[97] Mr Harney commented on the draft Savills’ appraisal by letter of 12 April, making it clear in passing, even prior to receiving Mr Purchas’ opinion, that his aim was to secure access via the existing roadway, which he described as having been built to an adoptable standard and as therefore being suitable for public use. Savills then issued their formal preliminary planning appraisal on an unspecified date in April, substantially in the same form as the draft, but with advice on Mr Harney’s comments. In particular, the final version offered advice as to how their specific concerns which I have summarised from the draft appraisal might be satisfactorily addressed within the context of the proposed 248-unit scheme. In particular, Savills took on board Mr Harney’s point that although in terms of numbers of units the affordable housing element was below the current requirement, it was in fact 40 per cent of the total in terms of area. By reference to an appendix to the appraisal (not available at trial) Savills noted that the council regarded the access route over the Westbrook Centre as satisfactory, but warned
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that the highway authority might consider that a second access would be necessary for a development of the density contemplated by the proposal.
[98] Mr Harney’s reaction to the Savills appraisal appears from a note of a meeting which he had with Mr Popoff of Savills on 6 June, the accuracy of which Mr Harney confirmed in evidence. His view was that the ground would accommodate a scheme of 200 units of which 30 per cent would be affordable. He expected to achieve planning permission for a total of 160,000 sq ft of accommodation, of which 38,000 sq ft would be public sector. Mr Popoff’s note records his view that ‘through experience . . . Paul will maximise the development potential from this site at planning’.
[99] Although the planning application for the ground was not submitted by Waveley until 2006, it is evident from its enclosures that a substantial part of the plans used for it had been drawn by Camal by September 2005. They showed a density of 230 units, with 66 of them being affordable (being a unit to unit ratio of 28·7 per cent). The evidence therefore discloses a consistent plan by Mr Harney to seek planning permission for a development of at least 200 units. If Ross River had ever complied with its obligation to submit a scheme to the club pursuant to Sch 3 of the sale agreements, I have no doubt that such a scheme would have consisted of a project for the residential re-development of the ground at a density of, or exceeding, 200 units.
NEGOTIATIONS FOR THE PURCHASE OF THE CLUB’S SHARE OF THE OVERAGE
[100] The evidence does not reveal precisely when these negotiations started, but they were certainly on foot by 7 March 2005, when Mr Harney prepared a ‘Proposal for Early Payment of the Additional Consideration to Facilitate CCFC’s Proposed Ground Share with CUFC’. This was not intended to be a document shared with the club, but rather one used internally by Mr Harney in advising Mr York as to the level of offer which might be made by Ross River. In outline, it assumed a residual land value of £7·8m, acquisition and development costs of £6m, overage of £1·8m (land value—costs), the club share of £900,000, and a deduction of 35 per cent for early settlement, interest and risk, leading to an offer of £585,000.
[101] The residual land value was arrived at upon the basis of assumptions that there would be 150 units, of which 40 per cent would be affordable, and would only contribute £480,000 to the land value. The development costs included an assumption that a ransom of 30 per cent of the land value (ie £2·4m) would have to be paid to secure access, but a marginal note suggested that there was potential for a significant rise in that cost assumption.
[102] Mr Harney prepared a second version of this document on 27 May 2005. This assumed a contribution to value by a 40 per cent provision of affordable units of £132,000 and only 80 private units, (the total density being reduced from 150 to 135 units), but the land value was still assumed to be £7·8m. Costs were increased by a rounded-up £100,000 to £6·1m and the discount for early settlement, interest and risk was raised to 40 per cent, giving rise to an offer of £510,000.
[103] Mr Harney described these documents as the basis of his honest opinion provided to Mr York of the value of the overage, basing himself, as he said a bank’s valuer would do, strictly upon what could be achieved with certainty, rather than speculative possibilities of a more beneficial development. In my judgment, Mr Harney believed throughout the process of the negotiation of the purchase of the club’s share of the overage that its value was substantially greater
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than that reflected in either of those two documents. The documents were in my judgment designed to justify a pessimistic appraisal of the value of the overage, for the purpose of supporting an offer designed to leave the lion’s share of the overage in the hands of Ross River at the end of the transaction, a share from which, of course, Waveley was to derive the whole of its remuneration from its management of the project. My reasons for that conclusion are as follows.
[104] First, the two most important variables in Mr Harney’s calculations were the residual land value of £7·8m, and the amount to be paid for access, of £2·4m or more. Both of these were in my opinion based upon much more pessimistic assumptions than Mr Harney actually made at the time. The land value was based upon an assumed total density of 150, revised down to 135 units, whereas within ten days of the second of those documents, Mr Harney was expressing his confidence in obtaining planning permission for 200 units, after considering Savills’ advice. The consequence of those different densities is reflected in the fact that at his meeting with Savills on 6 June the 200 unit density assumption was calculated as leading to a consequential land value of £13·1m.
[105] Secondly, as for the amount needed to secure access, the whole tenor of the advice of Rutherfords and of Mr Purchas was to the effect that it was probable, albeit not certain, that the existing access through the Westbrook Centre could be used for the purposes of the proposed development, without the need to pay a ransom to anyone. It is plain that, by April 2005, Mr Harney intended to seek planning permission on the basis of a single access through the Westbrook Centre. While the risk that the Highway Authority might require either a second access, or alterations to the existing access which might give Burford a ransom claim, could not be wholly disregarded, I consider notwithstanding his evidence to the contrary, that Mr Harney confidently expected to be able to obtain access for the proposed development at substantially less than the conventional Stokes v Cambridge amount of 30 per cent of the land value (see Stokes v Cambridge Corp (1961) 13 P & CR 77), rather than 30 per cent or more, as reflected in his offer calculations.
[106] I do not mean to imply by those conclusions that Mr Harney set out to mislead Mr York. In advising as to the offer to be made for the club’s share of the overage Mr Harney was perfectly entitled to propose a basis designed to maximise the interests of Ross River, by the use of the most pessimistic assumptions for the purposes of quantifying the two most important variables in the calculation. But, as would appear, Mr Harney then allowed his approach to the maximisation of the interests of Mr York’s companies in the project to lead him into grievous error in his dealings with the club’s representative Mr Lee, when he asked Mr Harney for information about the progress of the project, so as to enable him to advise the club.
CORRESPONDENCE WITH MR LEE
[107] Mr Lee wrote seeking information from Mr Harney on 22 April 2005, shortly after Mr Harney had received the advice from Savills, Rutherfords and Mr Purchas which I have described. By that time, Mr York had raised Ross River’s offer for the club’s share of the overage from £250,000 to £500,000. Mr Lee’s letter followed a meeting with Mr Harney, and began as follows:
‘Further to our meeting last Tuesday, I note that Brian would like to purchase the overage for £500,000. There would appear to be some misunderstanding. I am not asking you to justify or provide a valuation but, obviously, in order to consider the proposal, need a fairly detailed analysis of
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where you are with regard to the various negotiations such as planning, densities, access, public open space, highways etc in order to form an opinion and advise the club accordingly. Without such information I am, obviously, not able to offer an opinion as to whether the proposal is a favourable one or not. Would you, therefore, please supply me with further details.’
[108] Mr Harney replied on 29 April as follows, after referring to Mr Lee’s letter:
‘In assessing the offer of an early settlement of Additional Consideration, Ross River Limited, as General Partner of Blue River Limited Partnership, have taken the following planning policies, planning obligations, development costs, compensation costs, and site constrains into consideration.’
There then follow references to the various regional and local planning policies to which Savills had referred in their appraisal. In relation to open space, Mr Harney added that 40 per cent of the total site area would be needed. In relation to the proposed increase of the affordable housing requirement from 30 per cent to 50 per cent, Mr Harney added that the 50 per cent provision had already been agreed on at least three significant developments within the city. In relation to density he said that the 99 dwellings anticipated by the council in the relevant development brief assumed more land available than merely the ground, so that number would have to be reduced.
[109] In relation to development costs Mr Harney provided the following bullet point: ‘Securing an acceptable right of access or securing an alternative access to the site either capable of adoption by the Highway Authority—Minimum 30% of land value.' The letter concluded:
‘I understand the offer from Ross River will be withdrawn if they do not receive a response by 31 May 2005. Therefore your early consideration is important to both parties and if I can be of any further assistance please do not hesitate to contact me.’
[110] Mr Harney’s letter made copious references to information such as planning policies already in the public domain, with which, as he no doubt appreciated, Mr Lee would already have been familiar. But he provided no analysis or even information about where he had reached with regard to preparation of the scheme, mentioning none of the advice received from the various professionals which I have described, save that part of Savills’ advice which referred to publicly available planning policies. That this is how Mr Lee regarded it is apparent from the following paragraph of a letter he wrote on 3 May to Mr Eastham, enclosing Mr Harney’s letter of 29 April:
‘Paul Harney’s letter is, to say the least, of limited value. Bearing in mind Brian’s previous mantra about there being an open book between him and the club and for the transaction to be of mutual benefit, it will be interesting to see what further information, if any, is forthcoming from Paul Harney. I am not, to be frank, holding my breath. Without the information requested, it is, obviously, difficult to advise on the overage clause. The information supplied in Paul’s letter is basically no more or less than we knew already.’
[111] Mr Lee replied on 6 May to Mr Harney. The following are relevant extracts:
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‘The information, with respect, is of a somewhat standard nature known to us at the time of entering into the transaction and does not, from a valuation point of view, assist to any great extent in quantifying the potential value of the site and thus an appropriate overage payment.
I note that the Urban Capacity has identified the site for up to 99 dwellings. Do you, as yet, have any indication as to the gross and net areas of the development proposed, the mix and type of units and also a layout plan?
Are you anticipating 30% or 50% of affordable housing? If so, does this form part of the 99 dwellings? Is there also likely to be a requirement for key worker housing? Please clarify.
With regard to access, please clarify whether access will be via Burford land or, alternatively, County Council land, the state of negotiations to date and the anticipated cost of such access. Your reference to 30% is somewhat of a standard payment and I would have thought, with the benefit of alternative access, could be reduced.’
‘. . . Would you also please supply any other relevant reports, etc. as may be available that will assist me in forming a view on the overage payment and advising the club accordingly.’
He concluded by suggesting that, after provision of the information requested, he and Mr Harney have a further meeting in mid/late May.
[112] After Mr Lee had chased for a response by further letters on 17 and 20 May, Mr Harney replied on 25 May. Since this is the letter upon which the club’s misrepresentation in cases is based, I must set it out in full:
‘Dear Edwin
RE: Cambridge City Football club
I refer to your letters dated 6, 17 and 20 May 2005 and your email received today.
I can confirm that the offer made by Ross River Limited was based solely on assessment of the information provided to you in my letter on 29 April 2005.
The implications of applying all current and emerging planning policies to the development are particularly onerous and these, together with the development costs, access, timescales and risk are factors taken into consideration and on which the offer was made.
Since my letter to you a preliminary meeting has been held with the Planning Authority whose officer reaffirmed that it was their intention to ensure that all relevant planning policies and the objectives of the Mitchams Corner Area Strategic Planning and Development Brief be delivered on this site.
Below, where I can, I have answered the various questions you raise in the order that you raise them:
The Urban Capacity study does suggest that up to 99 dwellings could be accommodated on this allocated site. However the density is based on all of the identified land and this includes the County Council owned car park area and school land. The football club site is approximately 0.7 acres smaller than the allocated site. Nevertheless I have taken a more robust view and consider that taking all relevant site constraints into account that up to 130 dwellings could be achieved within the land available. This total assumes that up to 130 dwellings could be achieved within the land available. This
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total assumes that the development would be up to 4 storeys in height, that only part of the required public open space is provide on site (balance by commuted sum) and a mixed development where at least 75% of the dwellings are flats.
It would be prudent at this stage to base the provision of affordable housing on the proposed Local Plan, ie. 50%, however the final total will be depend on timing of the planning application and the status of the Local Plan at that time and of course the weight the Local Authority are giving to its emerging policy. The affordable housing requirement will include key worker and shared equity and is based on either a percentage of the developable land area or on the total number of dwellings. The type and mix of affordable housing will depend upon local need and the advice/requirements of the Housing Authority.
At least 30% of the total land value should be allowed for the cost of providing a suitable access. The Highway Authority has advised the Planning Authority that the existing access is, in their opinion, unsuitable. I am also aware that the County Council retained ransom strips around the boundaries of the former Milton Road School site. The County have also restricted development of that site to all a new access to the City ground off Gilbert Road. Initial approaches have also been made to owners of other properties in Gilbert Road, but at this stage and until such time as this matter is resolved, it is essential that a substantial budget is set aside to achieve a satisfactory access.
The initial survey work for the traffic impact assessment has been carried out and I await the report. I do not consider that contributions for improvements to Mitchams Corner or to the Northern Area Transport Policy will be necessary as I anticipate a nett reduction in the overall trip rates.
I have not commissioned a development brief as the Local Authority have already produced the Mitchams Corner Area Strategic Planning and Development Brief which forms the basis of their planning policy for this area. However, a design and planning statement will be produced as part of the planning application. I have taken specialist planning advice, the substance of which, was included in my letter to you dated 29 April.
There have been no negotiations with the Desimones although I am in the process of seeking further legal advice and intend taking up this matter in the near future.
I will not be progressing matters in respect of the communication mast until an overall planning, development and design strategy is in place. Although I do not anticipate significant costs associated with relocation within the site I am advised that this installation will have significant negative impact on sales values. Off site relocation, if possible, is the preferred option.
I do not have any reports, either relevant or otherwise, that would assist you further in advising your clients.
I look forward to our meeting tomorrow afternoon when we can discuss this matter in more detail.
Yours sincerely
Paul Harney’
[113] The bulk of Mr Harney’s letter purported to provide answers to the questions raised by Mr Lee in his letter of 6 May. That letter was not seeking a
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justification of any valuation of the site by Mr Harney, but information about the essential features of the proposed development for which in due course Mr Harney would be applying for planning permission. That much is plainly apparent from Mr Lee’s letter of 6 May, in particular when read in the context of his original letter of 22 April. Furthermore, in asking for any relevant reports, Mr Lee was plainly seeking copies of professional advice obtained by Mr Harney for the purpose of preparing the scheme and the planning application, pursuant to Ross River’s obligations under the sale agreements. Mr Harney acknowledged that this was the fair reading of Mr Lee’s letters, in cross-examination. In my judgment Mr Harney well understood that when he prepared his reply on 25 May.
[114] In my judgment, viewed as a response to Mr Lee’s enquiries, Mr Harney’s letter contained the following material misrepresentations. First, in stating that he had taken a ‘more robust view . . . that up to 130 dwellings could be achieved within the land available’ he deliberately understated his true view which, as recorded by Savills’ note of their meeting with Mr Harney on 6 June, was that he believed that 200 units could be accommodated on the site.
[115] Mr Harney did not suggest that his view had changed between 29 May and 6 June, but he sought to explain the difference by suggesting that he had gilded the lily when speaking to Savills out of a desire of maximise the importance of the ground as part of a much larger possible development including the Westbrook Centre and other land, which he was seeking to put together. I do not believe that explanation. In my judgment 200 units was Mr Harney’s ‘robust view’ at the material time.
[116] Secondly, Mr Harney plainly implied that he was working on a proposal to include 50 per cent of affordable housing, although reserving the possibility of including a lower percentage. By contrast, on 6 June he expressed to Savills the view that he expected to be able to limit the affordable housing to 30 per cent.
[117] Thirdly, Mr Harney seriously misrepresented what he intended to include within the scheme with regard to access. It is apparent, as I have already described, that Mr Harney firmly intended to use the Westbrook Centre road as the means of access to the development, but the relevant passage of his letter of 25 May implied that the existing access had already been ruled unsuitable by the Highway Authority, that he was expecting to have to pay ransom money either to the County Council or to property owners in Gilbert Road (ie to have to obtain an access other than through the Westbrook Centre). While I accept Mr Harney’s evidence that access through the Westbrook Centre without having to pay a ransom to Burford (for example for altering the radii) could not be regarded as certain, in my judgment Mr Harney’s expectation as to access by late May 2005 was that it probably could be obtained without making a full 30 per cent Stokes v Cambridge arrangement. Furthermore, Mr Harney deliberately concealed the favourable advice which he had by then received in that respect both from Rutherfords and from Mr Purchas, advice obtained at a cost which, should there be no buy-out of the club’s share of the overage, would be payable as to half by the club itself under the formula in Sch 5 of the sale agreements.
[118] Fourthly, in stating on the first page of the letter that ‘whenever I can, I have answered the various questions you raised . . .' Mr Harney clearly implied, falsely, that he had no information beyond that provided in the rest of his letter by way of answer to the specific requests in Mr Lee’s letter of 6 May. He therefore implied that, for example, he had no available indication as to gross and
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net areas of the development, or of the mix and type of units. This was untrue because he had all that information. Savills’ appraisal included (in para 3.10) advice about the appropriate mix and type of affordable accommodation. The Camal specifications already obtained by Mr Harney contained precisely such information, and on 6 June Mr Harney was able to inform Savills of his expectation as to the square footage of the developable area, and the split of that square footage between private and public sector housing.
[119] Fifthly, Mr Harney’s statement that the substance of the specialist planning advice which he had taken was included in his letter on 29 April was untrue. He had included those parts of Savills’ advice which were in the public domain, but none of the further advice. It is in my judgment no coincidence that the parts of Savills’ advice which he included in his earlier letter were the most pessimistic, so far as concerns the added value to be obtained from the proposed development.
[120] Finally, and most blatantly of all, Mr Harney’s final bullet point (‘I do not have any reports, either relevant or otherwise, that would assist you further in advising your clients’), was a complete falsehood. Mr Harney had by that time Savills’ appraisal (in draft and final form), Rutherfords’ report and had received, at that stage only orally, Mr Purchas’s advice. All of them had been obtained at the ultimate joint expense of Ross River and of the club. Mr Lee first saw the Savills’ appraisal, Rutherfords’ report and a note later signed by Mr Purchas confirming Williams & Co’s attendance note of the consultation shortly before giving evidence. He told me that he regarded them as of the highest relevance to the task of evaluating the clubs’ share of the overage, and I believe him.
[121] Mr Harney stoutly maintained throughout his evidence that in communicating with Mr Lee he did no more nor less than provide his honest opinion as to the matters relevant to a valuation of the club’s share of the overage, omitting nothing that he had taken into account himself, and nothing which he had himself communicated to Mr York, or otherwise to Ross River. Again, I have come to the conclusion that this stance of Mr Harney is itself a sophisticated falsehood. It is literally true that the information communicated by Mr Harney broadly reflects the matters specifically referred to in his two assessments of the amounts which should be offered for the club’s share of the overage, but as I have already concluded, those assessments did not represent Mr Harney’s real expectation of the value of the overage, or therefore of the club’s share of it, but rather a pessimistic basis for a minimum valuation based upon taking account only of that which could be regarded as certain, and ignoring all that for which Mr Harney was planning, hoping, and indeed to a substantial extent (as reported to Savills on 6 June), expecting to achieve. Furthermore, in response to my enquiry, Mr Harney admitted at the end of his evidence that he had probably shown Mr York the Savills’ appraisal and the Rutherfords report and explained Mr Purchas’s opinion, albeit that he entertained no expectation that Mr York had the experience or the will to understand the implications of that information in depth.
[122] In my judgment the misrepresentations contained in Mr Harney’s letter of 25 May to Mr Lee were both deliberate and dishonest. I use the adjective dishonest in both its objective and subjective sense. Mr Harney was the most sophisticated, careful and intelligent of all the witnesses who gave evidence at the trial. His conduct in revealing all information detrimental to the value of the overage and concealing the rest, however far motivated by a desire to maximise the interest of his Ross River clients and Mr York (but also of course his own
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interest as a profit sharer with them), was not honest conduct by the standards of honest and reasonable people. While acknowledging that the property world could be something of a jungle, Mr Harney readily acknowledged his understanding that property negotiators are expected and required to tell the truth when negotiating with each other. He therefore fell short of his own professed standard, since he cannot have been ignorant of the respects in which, as I have described, his letter of 25 May contained falsehoods.
[123] Mr Harney’s falsehoods did not however induce the club to accept Ross River’s offer of £500,000 for its share of the overage. Negotiations dragged on, and on 7 July the club’s solicitors and valuers stated at a meeting attended by Mr York and Mr Harney that the club wanted closer to £1m for its share of the overage. This led to a walk-out by Mr Harney and Mr York. Eventually, in September, a figure of £900,000 was agreed. Before completing the relevant sale agreement, on 7 October, the club sought final advice from Mr Lee, who responded in a letter on that same day which included the following passage:
‘It is very possible that the club would secure a greater financial benefit as and when the site is subsequently sold for development as opposed to accepting the payment of £900,000 offered for the extinguishment of the overage at the present time.
It is, however, obviously, very difficult to give accurate advice on this without having the benefit of a draft development brief, to include density, off-site improvement works, etc. or at least an indication of such. From our previous experience with Paul Harney it is unlikely that such information or assistance would be given, as at best he is obstructive and worst objectionable.
If, however, as discussed, the club can make better use of a cash payment now as opposed to a future payment, acceptance of the sum offered, subject to the remaining terms being acceptable, merits serious consideration. From what you say, a payment to the club now would enable the Customs & Excise to be paid and prevent a winding up procedure and also strengthen the club’s position with regard to negotiations for a new ground, etc.
I am, therefore, obviously, not able to advise you as to whether or not the club should accept the payment suggested for the release of the overage, although if such payment can be used to a better advantage now for the club it, obviously, merits serious consideration providing that the club is aware that it is more than likely that a greater figure than that currently offered might be achieved as and when the overage provision originally agreed is triggered.’
[124] The agreement made on 7 October included a surrender of the club’s existing lease (which could only be terminated early after the obtaining of planning permission) in exchange for a new lease terminable by Ross River by six months’ notice expiring on 31 May in any year of the term. Like its predecessor, it was contracted out.
[125] On 14 September 2005 Waveley had, in a letter to the club offering £900,000, said:
‘It is Ross River’s intention to retain the Football Club on site for as long as possible and at least until such time as a satisfactory planning permission has been achieved and all other development issues resolved . . .
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However Ross River reserve the right to gain vacant possession at any time following the end of 2005/2006 season (May 2006).’
In fact, on 29 November 2005, Waveley gave notice on behalf of Ross River terminating the lease on 31 May 2006.
PAYMENTS BY ROSS RIVER TO MR EASTHAM
[126] It is common ground that, funded by Ross River, Mr Harney caused Waveley to pay Mr Eastham the sum of £10,000 on 20 June 2005, roughly half way in terms of time through the negotiations for the purchase of the club’s share of the overage. It is also common ground that, following the conclusion of the sale of the club’s share in October 2005, the club paid Mr Eastham a further £40,000 out of the proceeds of sale. Thereafter Mr Eastham also received two further payments of £4,000 from Waveley in December 2005 and January 2006 respectively. These payments were all made in addition to Mr Eastham’s ordinary salary of £2,500 per month, which the directors had agreed that he should be paid when, once the true financial predicament of the club had become apparent on Mr Hamilton’s departure, Mr Eastham agreed to take the lead in attempting to secure its survival, as chief executive.
[127] Beyond this bare outline, there is no common ground. One of the perplexities of this part of the case is that not even the claimants’ witnesses put forward a single coherent account of the circumstances in which these payments were made. In two successive witness statements Mr Eastham himself gave different accounts, both which he purported to verify under oath, without any apparent consciousness of their divergence.
[128] I shall begin by summarising the alternative explanations for these additional payments to Mr Eastham, before addressing the question which, or which combination, of those versions I should conclude is the most probable.
[129] The first (version one) was that in or shortly before September 2004 it was agreed that the club should pay Mr Eastham an additional £50,000 in recognition of his contribution to the sale then being negotiated pursuant to heads of terms already signed, to be paid on completion of the sale when it was assumed that the club would be in funds to do so, as the club’s cost of the negotiations, rather than as a development cost. Completion of the sale in April 2005 did not leave the club with funds sufficient for that purpose, so Mr Eastham asked Mr York for help, and Mr York agreed that Ross River would pay him £2,500 per month for his ongoing work in relation to the project, to be treated as a development cost (so that the burden would be shared equally between the River companies and the club). Upon completion of the overage agreement the £900,000 was treated as inclusive of any obligation towards Mr Eastham in relation to the project, so that he was obliged to, and did look to the club for the balance of £40,000. Finally, the £8,000 later paid by Ross River to Mr Eastham after the making of the overage agreement was simply part of a consultancy fee paid for Mr Eastham’s contribution to the reaching of an agreement with the De Simones (owners of the restaurant), for providing vacant possession, having nothing to do with the club at all, which had by then sold the entirety of its financial interest in the ground.
[130] Version 1 was contended for by Mr York in his evidence, and by Mr Eastham in the second of his witness statements to be prepared, which on 13 June 2007 became the first which he signed. I shall refer to it as his second witness statement. Mr Eastham said that his fellow directors, Messrs George, Murray and Satchell had suggested that he approach Mr York for payment when,
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upon completion, it became apparent that the club lacked the resources to pay him. Mr York confirmed that this is what he had been told at the time.
[131] By version 2, the board agreed in or about September 2004 that Mr Eastham should receive an additional £50,000, but at the sole cost of Mr York’s companies, who would pay the additional amount to the club, which would then be paid by the club on to Mr Eastham ‘for transparency’. Then, in or about March 2005 it is said that it was agreed both by the board and by Mr York that his companies should pay up to £50,000 direct to Mr Eastham as consultancy fees at the rate of £2,500 per month for his work on the project, but set against the originally agreed £50,000 at the end of the day. Under version 2 therefore, Mr Eastham received £10,000 simply for acting as consultant to Ross River, but with an obligation to account for any such receipt against what had originally ‘for transparency’ been agreed to be paid to him by the club, from monies received from Mr York’s companies. Version 2 deals with the additional payment of £8,000 in the same way as version 1. This is the version to which Mr Eastham subscribed in his first witness statement, prepared in March 2007 and, according to him, delivered unsigned to both sides in this dispute. I shall refer to it as Mr Eastham’s first witness statement, although it remained unsigned and was not even included in the trial bundles. It first came to my attention when Mr Eastham was asked to verify it, still unsigned, at the commencement of his examination in chief, following which, after a brief adjournment for him to re-read it, he signed it.
[132] Mr George supplied a slight variation on version 2, which I will call version 2A. In his recollection, there was never a stage at which additional payments to Mr Eastham coming from Mr York’s companies were to be routed through the club, whether for transparency or otherwise. Mr York’s companies were to pay Mr Eastham any additional remuneration above the basic salary of £2,500 per month. In his mind, the £10,000 was simply an advance payment of money which Mr Eastham would otherwise have received from Mr York’s companies at the end of the development project.
[133] Under version 3, it was always agreed from approximately mid-2004 that Mr Eastham should obtain additional remuneration for his work on the development project, the necessary cash for which would be provided by whichever developer was chosen as the club’s joint venture partner, but accounted for at the end of the day as a development cost, and therefore shared 50/50 between the club and the chosen developer. This version derives from Mr Lee’s recollection, to which he adhered and upon which he expanded in his cross-examination. Mr Lee did not however testify to any knowledge of the June 2005 payment of £10,000, or to having been aware of the amount of extra remuneration which it was agreed that Mr Eastham should receive.
[134] The final version (version 4) discernable from the claimants’ evidence came from Mr Murray. He said that the directors had been in agreement from the outset that, in order to retain Mr Eastham’s services for a sufficient period to enable him to see through the sale of the ground and the realisation of its development value to a satisfactory conclusion, it was necessary that Mr Eastham should receive more than his basic salary. Since the club lacked the money with which to deal with that requirement, it would have to be satisfied by Mr York or his companies, so the directors left it to Mr Eastham to negotiate additional remuneration with Mr York, both as to amount and as to the timing of payments. This process was agreed by the board during the negotiation of the 2004 sale agreement when it appeared that the interests of the club and Mr York’s companies would be wholly aligned toward the maximisation of the
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development potential of the ground. There was, said Mr Murray, then no problem of conflict of interest involved in leaving the club’s chief executive to negotiate additional remuneration with Mr York.
[135] In a second witness statement provided to the club, Mr Murray said he was unaware of the £10,000 received by Mr Eastham in June 2005, having been neither consulted nor informed about it at the time.
[136] The defendant’s evidence exhibited less variation, if only because the club called only two witnesses on this issue, in addition to relying on Mr Murray’s second statement. Mr Satchell was the club’s main witness on this issue. His evidence was that while he recalls a recognition on the part of the board that it would be necessary to pay Mr Eastham an additional lump sum from the proceeds of any successful sale of the ground, he could not recall any specific sum being agreed, still less any agreement that Mr York or his companies should play any part in making that additional payment available, whether by providing the money or incurring part of the burden of its provision as a matter of joint venture accounting. Mr Satchell denied being either informed of, still less consenting to the June 2005 payment to Mr Eastham, and said that he would have opposed any such arrangement at the time when Mr Eastham was negotiating for the club for the sale of its share of the overage to Mr York’s companies, because of the conflict of interest to which any such payment would give rise.
[137] The club’s other witness on this issue was Mrs Warren of Taylor Vinters. Her evidence was that she could not recall any mention of payment to be made to Mr Eastham by Mr York’s companies. Her recollection, supported as will be seen from her files, was that at the stage of negotiating the heads of terms with York Developments’ solicitors in 2004, she attempted to obtain a commitment by York Developments to treat the club’s internal costs (including Mr Eastham’s salary) as part of the shared development expenses, but was rebuffed.
[138] Those being the alternative explanations put forward by the parties and their witnesses, I turn first to the relevant surviving documents. Their most striking feature is their paucity. There are no agreements, no board minutes or other notes recording the basis upon which Mr Eastham was to be paid. He does not even appear as a salaried employee on the club’s books because, despite being forced by the financial plight of the club to work full time to ensure its survival, and working for no one else, Mr Eastham arranged to be paid gross, as a self-employed consultant, an arrangement which is, unsurprisingly, the subject of a continuing challenge by Revenue & Customs, who regard the club as having failed to comply with its PAYE and NIC obligations in relation to the employment of Mr Eastham.
[139] It might have been expected that Mr Eastham would have produced documents, such as tax returns, relevant to the receipt of the £10,000 in June 2005 as a self-employed consultant. No such documents were produced, and the unchallenged evidence of Mr Robert Young, who had been assisting the club with certain of its financial affairs from January 2007, is that it appears from a conversation he had with a Mr Moseley, an accountant dealing with Mr Eastham’s personal tax affairs, that Mr Eastham had not by the beginning of March 2007 disclosed his receipt of that payment to Mr Moseley.
[140] With that unpromising introduction, the relevant documents are as follows. I have already referred to the club’s articles of association, which at all material times prohibited the payment of any remuneration to a director,
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whether as director or employee, and to the attention drawn to that provision in the Football Association’s February 2003 report.
[141] The next relevant document consists of the exchange of emails passing between Mrs Warren of Taylor Vinters and a Mr Philip Wheater, a partner in Forbes Wheater, Mr York’s solicitors, concerning the negotiation of the heads of terms in late June and early July 2004. A first draft of the heads of terms had been discussed at a meeting between the two firms, together with Mr Lee, Mr Eastham and Mr York on 30 June. On 1 July the travelling draft was sent by email by Forbes Wheater to Taylor Vinters with a comment by Mr Wheater in relation to cl 31.2 that: ‘the buyer will pay third party costs, but not internal expenses or other salary costs etc., and accordingly this provision reflects that.' In its context, this observation plainly meant, and was understood to mean, that Mr York’s companies were not prepared as part of the joint venture then being negotiated, to take responsibility for any part of what the club had to pay its own staff in connection with its role in the project.
[142] In a reply e-mail dated 2 July, Mrs Warren responded as follows,
‘It is not agreed that where my clients are required to cooperate with your clients in satisfying the development conditions their own costs and expenses should not be recoverable. For example they might be required to attend meetings at some distance away or incur other expenses and I can see no reason why these should not form part of development costs.’
[143] Mr Wheater’s response, on 6 July, was that:
‘I do not think we have a problem about third party expenses or expenses reasonably incurred, but we cannot agree internal salaries or costs which should not be charged.’
[144] In an e-mail to Mr Eastham and Mr Lee of the same date, Miss Warren advised that:
‘I think we could compromise by agreeing that internal salaries would not be charged but that all expenses and costs should be recoverable—they will form part of Development Costs in any event so whatever happens CCFC will effectively be bearing half of these costs.’
Later the same day, she responded to Mr Wheater as follows:
‘I think my client would accept that internal salaries would not be charged as long as all costs and fees and expenses incurred in assisting your client werecovered.’
[145] On the next day, in a further e-mail to Mr Eastham and Mr Lee, Mrs Warren said:
‘In Clause 12 relating to the club’s obligations please note that you are allowed recovery of third party costs. I think we should accept this now in order to make progress.’
On the following day, Mr Lee wrote to Miss Warren to the effect that:
‘. . . a further outstanding point was that the developer, while indemnifying the club for third party costs, would not indemnify the club for their own costs. I have spoken with Arthur on this and agreed that the
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proposed wording is satisfactory. He is not concerned about recouping of the club’s costs, etc.’
There, according to the documents (and Mrs Warren’s recollection) that issue rested.
[146] I have already referred to the provisions in the sale agreements about costs and planning and development costs, and to para 1.1.2 of Sch 4 where the concept of the club’s third party costs re-appeared. The exclusion of internal (as opposed to third party) costs of the club from the ambit of planning and development costs is not as clear in the sale agreements as it is in the e-mail correspondence concerning negotiation of the heads of terms, but there is no documentary evidence that this point, once clearly settled as it was in July 2004, was ever re-negotiated between the parties’ solicitors.
[147] An attempt was made by the claimants and specifically by Mr Eastham in his evidence to suggest that a passage in an e-mail from Taylor Vinters to him, copied to Mr Lee, dated 28 September 2004 provided contemporaneous documentary evidence that an additional payment to him of £50,000 had been agreed and disclosed to the club’s solicitors. This e-mail was sent on the very day of the exchange of the 2004 sale agreement. The typed versions of the sale agreement and of the contemporaneous loan agreement defined ‘The York Loans’ as meaning the sum £75,000 paid to the club on exchange. But in both, that sum has been changed in manuscript to £135,000.
[148] In para 5 of the e-mail, sent at 14.22 hrs on the day of exchange, Mrs Warren said this:
‘The York Loans are now stipulated to be £125,000 paid on or before the date of exchange. I have no idea whether this figure is correct but it needs to be checked and amended if not. I had intended the figure to relate only to the £75,000 paid on completion.
ARTHUR—Have you received a further £50,000 on top of this?’
[149] It needed no assistance from Mrs Warren’s evidence for it to be clear that the paragraph which I have quoted had nothing whatsoever to do with an agreed additional remuneration payable to Mr Eastham personally of £50,000. It was concerned entirely with the question whether the amount of the York Loans typed as being £75,000 was to be increased in manuscript (as presumably Forbes Wheater were then suggesting) to £125,000 ie £50,000 greater than the amount originally contemplated and, no doubt, the amount due to pass later that day between the respective solicitors’ client accounts. In the event, the amount actually inserted was £10,000 greater, at £135,000, for reasons which have not survived in documents or in the recollection of any witnesses. By the expression ‘ARTHUR—have you received . . .’ in an e-mail addressed to Mr Eastham and Mr Lee, Mrs Warren obviously meant to inquire whether the club have received a further sum, not due to be transmitted between solicitors that day, sufficient to justify an acknowledgment of receipt then proposed to be £50,000 greater than that which appeared on the typed engrossment.
[150] Mrs Warren, not a witness to overstate the firmness with which she could recall past events, was emphatic that this natural interpretation of that paragraph was indeed the correct one, albeit that she accepted having become slightly confused between exchange and completion in the passage which I have quoted, as the result of earlier correspondence with Forbes Wheater. This
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document therefore affords no assistance in resolving the issues as to the remuneration agreed for Mr Eastham.
[151] There then follows a documentary silence until June 2005. In passing, I have looked to see whether Mr Harney’s calculations for deciding the amount to be offered to the club for its share of the overage sheds any light on this issue. In both of them he included a round sum of £450,000 for ‘fees’, which provides no assistance either way.
[152] Three relevant documents survive from June 2005. The first is the office copy of Mr Harney’s letter to Mr Eastham dated 20 June enclosing ‘three cheques in the sum of £5,000, £2,500 and £2,500 in respect of your consultancy fees in the above matter’. The letter looked forward to receiving Mr Eastham’s invoices to cover those payments in due course. It may be inferred, as Mr Eastham confirmed, that he received and banked the three cheques in those amounts.
[153] The second document is an e-mail from Vanessa Roberts at Tenon (the River entities’ Isle of Man managers) to Derek Carr on 22 June, notifying Mr Carr of the receipt of correspondence from Mr Harney in relation to counsel’s fees and Williams and Co’s fees in respect of the consultation with Mr Purchas, and seeking Mr Carr’s comments. While that e-mail is of no particular relevance, Mr Carr’s reply of the next day was as follows:
‘Vanessa,
As discussed, these fees can be paid.
In addition can you please transfer £10,000 this afternoon to Waveley Project Management as a contribution to the professional fees incurred by CCFC. This is in anticipation of a successful conclusion to agreeing a buy out of CCFC’s 50% share of the development profit.’
It is common ground that the £10,000 to which Mr Carr referred was the aggregate of the sums paid by cheque by Mr Harney to Mr Eastham.
[154] Mr Carr was, as I have described, Mr York’s tax adviser, through whom he was accustomed to communicate his instructions or wishes to the managers of this Isle of Man entities. In his first witness statement Mr Carr said that he was aware of an agreement which he described as a ‘Fee Agreement’ pursuant to which Ross River was to make monthly instalments of £2,500 on behalf of the club to Mr Eastham. His understanding was that the monthly payments were to be paid to Mr Eastham for consultancy work that he was carrying out in respect of ‘the joint development of the ground by Ross River and CCFC’ under the terms of what he described as the overage agreement between them (which I interpret to mean the sale agreements). He said that the fee agreement was to start from March 2005 and that the £2,500 per month payments were ‘brought up to date in June 2005’ because Ross River anticipated that the overage sale negotiations would be concluded shortly, and wanted to get the payments up to date before the sale took place. He also said that ‘it was not considered appropriate for Ross River to continue making payments to Arthur Eastham while he was involved in these negotiations’. In cross-examination he said that the information upon the basis of which he had composed his e-mail to Vanessa Roberts came either from Mr Harney from Mr York.
[155] In response to an enquiry from me at the beginning of the trial as to how the £10,000 payment to Mr Eastham had been dealt with in Ross River’s books (there being no relevant disclosure in the trial bundles), Mr Carr made a further witness statement in which he referred to a note on Ross River’s copy bank statements to the effect that the £10,000 was a ‘Cont to CCFC fees’ and explained
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that ‘Cont’ meant ‘contribution’. He acknowledged in cross-examination that, although Ross River may not have kept conventional books, e-mails were often used to provide accurate and transparent paper trails in relation to transactions, in order to ensure that the planned tax effectiveness of the use of Isle of Man entities was in due course satisfactorily secured.
[156] On or about 2 September 2005, in anticipation of the successful conclusion of the overage agreement then in the sum of £950,000, Mr Harney composed a draft e-mail to the club in which he described the net sum payable of £683,500 (after deductions for rent and an outstanding loan) as being intended: ‘to include £100,000 consultancy fee payable to Arthur Eastham.' Mr Harney said that this was the result of a mistaken understanding on his part. The final version of this document received by the club contained no such reference. Neither the draft nor the final version made any mention of the £10,000 already paid.
[157] Mr Eastham did not provide invoices in respect of the £10,000 ‘in due course’ or at all, prior to the completion of the overage agreement. Rather, he prepared four invoices each dated 1 November 2005, the first three of which acknowledged receipt of each of the three cheques sent to him in June, describing the payments as ‘Consultancy fees in regards to work done at Cambridge City FC’. The fourth invoice related to his anticipated receipt of the £4,000 which he described as relating to his effort to secure an agreement with the De Simones, and included exactly the same text. The invoices are numbered 1 to 4 consecutively in a series prefixed ‘205/’ and, as might be expected, Mr Eastham acknowledged that they were the first invoices of any kind which he had prepared that year. He explained that his ability to remember the way in which the £10,000 had been made up arose from having photocopied the three cheques received in June, before banking them.
[158] Finally, there is documentary evidence recording Mr Eastham’s receipt of £40,000, including an invoice numbered 207/12 and dated 1 March 2006 recording as ‘monies already received’ £40,000 for:
‘Consultancy fees in regards to work done at Cambridge City FC—bonus in Chief Executive role for services rendered in sale of ground to enable Club to pay off creditors. Bonus agreed by board of CCFC, advisors Cheffins, Taylor Vinters and all tendering parties, and covered by monies paid to the club by ground purchasers.’
[159] The £40,000 was in fact received by Mr Eastham on 30 November 2005, according to his unchallenged evidence on this point. Although the timing of the invoice was not explored in oral evidence, it seems to me from the lengthy and rather self-serving content which I have quoted above, that it was in all probability prepared after the present dispute had arisen, or at least in anticipation of it.
[160] In its accounts for the year ending 30 June 2005, approved by the Board on 21 August 2006 and signed by Mr Satchell, note 2 disclosed the payment of directors’ fees in that year of £48,492. This was broken down in note 8 as £32,000 to Mr Eastham and £16,491 to Mr George, payments being made under consultancy contracts. The club’s accounts do not therefore appear to have treated the £10,000 paid in June 2005 as part of Mr Eastham’s receipts from or on behalf of the club.
[161] I must now state my conclusions on the issues relating to payment from Mr Eastham. First, I am satisfied that Mr Eastham’s basic salary of £2,500 per month was both agreed and paid with the knowledge and approval of all the
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club’s directors. They appear to have been blithely unconcerned about the prohibition upon such payments in the company’s articles, and equally impervious to the advice of the Football Association, whose report appears not to have been studied by any of the directors at the time. In any event, they told me that they placed compliance with the requirements of what one of them described as a ‘fluffy’ organisation like the Football Association as well down their list of priorities, compared with ensuring, if possible, the survival of the club. In their defence, it may be said that the restriction in question was a rule by then more favoured in the breach than in the observance, and that the shareholders have not, since the club’s accounts recording those payments were laid before them, protested at the remuneration either of Mr Eastham, or of his predecessor Mr Hamilton.
[162] In my judgment none of the payments which the directors purported to agree should be paid at the club’s expense to Mr Eastham were duly authorised by the club, either at the time they were made, or subsequently, save in so far as the shareholders may have ratified them by approving the accounts. Authority would have required either unanimous shareholder approval or an amendment to the articles by a resolution at an appropriately constituted general meeting.
[163] I am in that context wholly unpersuaded by Mr Seitler’s submissions to the effect that the payments were within the board’s power to authorise because they were consultancy payments rather than remuneration to Mr Eastham as an employee, or because he was also the club’s secretary and in principle entitled to be paid as such. The directors well knew that Mr Eastham needed to work full time for the club to have any prospect of ensuring its survival, and that he would not be able to work for anyone else at the same time. He was in my judgment an employee rather than a consultant, and his remuneration could not be purportedly authorised by being misdescribed as consultancy payments. Nor on any view did he receive his payments for performing the modest official duties of a company secretary.
[164] Secondly, I am also persuaded that it is probable that the directors all appreciated the need for, and agreed that in principle Mr Eastham should be paid, additional remuneration over and above his basic salary to ensure that he continued to work for the club for the whole of the period necessary to turn into money the perceived potential development value of the ground. I am also persuaded that in 2004 they agreed that Mr Eastham should be paid a substantial sum once the proceeds of the realisation of that development value provided the club with sufficient funds to do so, and that those directors who gave the matter any thought expected that this would occur upon the completion of the sale agreements, rather than at the later date when the club’s share in the overage was realised. The directors’ witness statements left the anticipated timing of that additional payment unclear, but the evidence of those who were asked about it in cross examination was (slightly to my surprise) that it was, in 2004, expected to be possible upon completion of the sale agreement.
[165] Implicit in that conclusion is a finding that the directors expected throughout 2004 that Mr Eastham’s additional payment would fall to be made to him by the club, once in funds do so, rather than by any of Mr York’s companies, albeit that of course the source of funds with which the club was to make payment was to be payments by Mr York’s relevant company under the sale agreement (once made) or by any other developer that might beat Mr York and his companies to the finishing line as the club’s chosen joint venture partner,
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during the period prior to October 2004 when the club was playing off rival bidders against each other.
[166] I am not persuaded that the directors as a body entertained any uniform, clear or consistent understanding at any time as to the incidence of the burden of the additional payment to be made to Mr Eastham, as a matter of joint venture accounting.
[167] By contrast, I consider it probable, and therefore find, that at no time prior to March 2005 did Mr York or any of his companies agree to be responsible for any additional payment for Mr Eastham, either in terms of cash flow or in terms of being responsible for, or even sharing, the ultimate burden as part of the costs of the project. In that respect, Mr York’s evidence coincides with the documentary evidence concerning the negotiation of that point in July 2004 between the parties’ solicitors, with Mrs Warren’s evidence and, albeit not perhaps as clearly, with the terms of the sale agreements themselves. Such a payment would not on any reasonable analysis have been a third party payment so far as the club was concerned.
[168] A substantial part of the evidence of the relevant witnesses was focussed upon what was said to have been mentioned at a negotiating or drafting meeting in or shortly before September 2004 at the offices of Taylor Vinters, attended by Mr York, Mr Harney, Mrs Warren, Mr Lee and Mr Eastham. All those attending other than Mrs Warren gave evidence that they could recall it being discussed at the meeting that, in principle, Mr Eastham should receive an additional payment for his work in progressing the project, and that Mrs Warren had advised that if so, it should be recorded in the sale agreement, but that Mr Eastham responded that, since this was a private matter between him and the club, he would prefer that it was not so recorded. Mrs Warren could recall none of this, and said that, had it occurred, she would have expected to have made a note of it, which she did not.
[169] In my judgment, something of the kind probably was said at the meeting, but not in terms that involved the placing of any obligation upon Mr York’s companies in relation to the additional payment, nor in terms which even identified any specific amount. In my judgment the discussion went no further than acknowledging that in principle, the club was to pay an additional amount to Mr Eastham. Had the discussion involved the imposition of any obligations upon Mr York’s companies in connection with it, it would undoubtedly have required inclusion in the sale agreement, all the more so because any such responsibility had been expressly rejected in the negotiations between the parties’ solicitors leading to the signing of the heads of terms. Were any such responsibility to be placed on Mr York or his companies, the additional payment would not have been a ‘private matter’ between Mr Eastham and the club. I can well understand how, being responsible for the accurate drafting of an agreement recording the mutual responsibilities of Mr York’s companies and the club in relation to the development of the ground, Mrs Warren may have forgotten about the mention of this private matter, not least because, despite her undoubted integrity and realism as a witness, her powers of recollection of past events were not, as she would be the first to concede, of the highest order.
[170] I have on balance also come to the conclusion that it is less than likely that the directors had, as a body, resolved upon the amount to be paid to Mr Eastham by way of additional payment, upon the successful completion of the sale of the ground, either in 2004, or indeed, at any significantly earlier time than when payment to Mr Eastham of the £40,000 was actually made in
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November 2005. In this respect, the evidence was, taken as a whole, vague and unsatisfactory. Mr Eastham said that a sum of £50,000 had been agreed at a board meeting towards the end of September 2004, although his first witness statement suggested that it was in 2005, that being what Mr Eastham described as an error, which was only corrected during his cross-examination. Mr George’s written and oral evidence ascribed no date at all to the fixing of £50,000 as the amount of the additional payment. His witness statements merely assumed that it had been agreed by November 2005 without describing when or how. In cross-examination Mr George was constrained to admit to the possibility that Mr Satchell had not known of or been involved in fixing Mr Eastham’s additional payment at £50,000.
[171] Mr York’s evidence was only that he was told ‘some time after’ September 2004 that Mr Eastham’s additional payment was ultimately agreed to be £50,000. Mr Murray’s recollection was that the fixing of the amount and timing of any additional payment for Mr Eastham was a matter between him and the chosen developer, since the club could not pay anything. Mr Satchell denied any involvement in a board decision to fix the amount, or any contemporaneous knowledge that Mr Eastham had been paid either £40,000 by the club, or an additional £10,000 by Ross River.
[172] I recognise that in concluding that there was no board decision fixing Mr Eastham’s additional payment at £50,000 I am departing from the evidence of Mr Eastham himself, and from the gist of the recollection of Mr George who, as I have said, was generally a most impressive witness. I have not done so lightly. My reasons for doing so are first, the absence of any unanimity or even particularity among any of the claimants’ witnesses as to how or when this was agreed; secondly the fact that two out of the four directors were firm in their evidence that it was not, albeit that their evidence was less impressive than that of Mr George; and thirdly because the directors had by then become so accustomed to dealing with the never ending stream of emergencies affecting the club’s survival by informal processes, that it is easy to see how the need to sit down together, preferably in the absence of Mr Eastham, and decide carefully what he should be paid for his undoubted services, was overlooked.
[173] I note in passing that as late as 2 September 2005 Mr Harney was able to sit in front of his computer and draft a letter to the club purporting to record that a £100,000 consultancy fee was payable to Mr Eastham, until subsequent discussion with Mr York caused him to delete that sentence. The fact that Mr Harney was at that late stage apparently unaware of any agreement that Mr Eastham should be paid £50,000 is a slight, but by no means decisive, pointer towards the conclusion which I have reached on balance.
[174] The sum total of my conclusions on this issue so far means that, as completion of the sale agreements approached in April 2005, and the directors came to appreciate that the club would have insufficient funds from the completion monies with which to make a substantial additional payment to Mr Eastham, all that had been agreed between them was the principle that he should receive a substantial payment as soon as the club was in a position to make it, out of moneys flowing to the club from Mr York’s companies in connection with the project, but that no specific amount had been agreed, nor any requests made to Mr York that his companies should bear the burden, either in terms of cash flow or expense sharing.
[175] Mr York’s evidence was that this changed ‘in late February/early March 2005’, when the club suggested that, with no resources of its own, Mr Eastham
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should approach Ross River as purchaser ‘to see if it would be willing to pay (some of) the Consultancy Fees on its behalf’. I take this quotation from Mr York’s first witness statement, the phrase in brackets having been added by him in cross-examination. Mr Eastham confirmed the timing of that approach in his second witness statement, and said that the other directors of the board had suggested that he approach Ross River.
[176] Mr George’s evidence was only that Mr Eastham had told him in June 2005 that he had asked Mr York for some financial help with his daughter’s wedding costs, and that, in October 2005, Mr Eastham had told Mr George to deduct the £10,000 received by him in June from the £50,000 which was otherwise to be paid to him as a result of the successful conclusion of the overage agreement.
[177] In cross-examination Mr Eastham could no longer recall when between September 2004 and June 2005 a direct payment to him by Ross River was first mooted, but he acknowledged that the impetus for that change came about because of the impending marriage of his eldest daughter, due to take place on 7 August 2005, and the understandable pressure from his wife to demonstrate a better financial return for all his hard work at the club than had so far been represented by the payment of a modest £2,500 per month.
[178] Mr Satchell absolutely denied any knowledge of, still less invitation by him to Mr Eastham to seek, payments direct from Ross River. Mr Murray’s evidence was that as far as he was concerned the question of additional payments was, from first to last, a matter between Mr Eastham and Mr York, with which the club was not involved. While I accept that this may have been Mr Murray’s personal view of the matter in 2004, during the negotiation of the heads of terms and the sale agreements, this is not what either the board or Mr York and his companies had agreed. There is no compelling evidence that Mr Murray re-considered whether this was appropriate in or after March 2005, when the commencement of negotiations for the sale of the club’s share of the overage meant that there was for the first time (after September 2004) a risk of conflict between the club’s and Ross River’s interests. Mr Murray’s own evidence was that he knew nothing of the June 2005 payment, and I believe him.
[179] I find that Mr Eastham probably approached Mr York nearer to June than February/March 2005, and that he did so because of the financial embarrassment threatened by his daughter’s wedding, without any invitation to do so by any of his colleagues on the club’s board. I find that the payment of £10,000 was structured as if it were arrears of monthly consultancy fees of £2,500 per month due in respect of consultancy services starting to be provided in March 2005, and that both Mr York and Mr Eastham expected it to be taken into account in any final settlement between the parties to the project, whether under the terms of the sale agreement or as part of any earlier purchase by Ross River of the club’s share in the overage.
[180] For present purposes, the question is not whether the artificial attribution of the payment of £10,000 to arrears of monthly third party fees was itself dishonest, but whether the payment was deliberately concealed from the club until after the conclusion of the negotiations for the purchase of the club’s share of the overage.
[181] In support of a conclusion that it was deliberately concealed is the fact that Mr Eastham’s invoices in respect of the £10,000 were not prepared or sent until November 2005, after the making of the overage agreement, in circumstances where the club and Ross River had by then finally severed the
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relationship constituted by the sale agreements. The invoices, and therefore the underlying payment, would be unlikely ever to have been drawn to the club’s attention, and no reference was made to the payment in either the draft or final versions of Mr Harney’s letter to the club in early September 2005. In fact, it appears that the club found out about the invoices only because a disaffected member of Mr Harney’s staff later made them available, together with other relevant documents, to the club’s solicitors retained for the purposes of this dispute.
[182] Against that conclusion is the evidence of Mr George, that Mr Eastham told him about the £10,000 when, or soon after, it was paid, and that he invited him to deduct it from the £50,000 which Mr George was otherwise minded to arrange for the club to pay Mr Eastham after the conclusion of the overage agreement. I have considered but rejected the submission that Mr Carr’s email to Miss Roberts referring to the £10,000 as payable in anticipation of the successful outcome of the overage negotiations points one way or the other. In my judgment, taken as a whole, it is neutral, not least because Mr Carr appears to have been told that it was a payment on account of CCFC’s (rather than Ross River’s) professional fees.
[183] I have decided that the June 2005 payment of £10,000 was not actively or deliberately concealed by Mr Eastham from the club. My reasons now follow.
[184] It was in my judgment in the highest degree improper for Mr Eastham as the chief executive of a company engaged in tough negotiations with Mr York’s companies to seek, let alone obtain, a payment from Mr York or from one of his companies. By doing so, he put himself into Mr York’s debt, morally speaking, and plainly committed a breach of the fundamental obligation of a fiduciary not to place himself in a position of potential conflict between his duties and his interest. Anyone more aware than Mr Eastham of his fiduciary responsibilities would have had the strongest temptation to conceal that conduct from his principal, and I have rejected Mr Eastham’s explanation that his fellow directors invited him to approach Mr York for assistance.
[185] Mr Eastham’s evidence that he did not conceal the payment is however supported by Mr George, a most impressive witness of complete honesty, and a loyal and devoted supporter and servant of the club. There is no suggestion from Mr George that Mr Eastham asked him to keep that information to himself. Furthermore, both Mr Eastham and Mr George’s evidence shows that, if believed, Mr Eastham invited Mr George to deduct £10,000 from that which Mr George would otherwise have been prepared to pay him once the club was funds after the conclusion of the overage agreement.
[186] More broadly, Mr Eastham’s own record speaks for itself as a diligent and determined fighter for the club’s survival, at considerable personal expense and financial embarrassment to himself. After a shaky start, he secured the sale agreements by the skilful playing-off of rival developers, despite the crippling financial trouble of the club, which would have driven many similarly challenged companies into administration or liquidation. After receiving the June 2005 payment, he continued vigorously to fight the club’s corner against Mr York’s companies in the overage negotiations, ultimately leaving to a deal at figure 80 per cent higher than that on offer in June.
[187] I bear in mind also Mr Eastham’s demeanour as a witness. Although I have not accepted the whole of his evidence, and although he did himself no favours by his tendency to make speeches rather than answer questions directly, he did not strike me as a subtle or deceitful witness. I have not ignored his
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decision, again contrary to his duty, to make a quantity of the club’s confidential documents, including privileged documents, available to the claimants. It was another plain breach of duty by someone with a great deal to learn about fiduciary responsibilities, but it was in my judgment an exercise of misguided self-defence rather than dishonesty.
[188] Finally, on this most serious allegation, Mr Eastham is entitled to the benefit of the doubt, albeit that he owes it mainly to Mr George’s evidence rather than to his own that I have concluded in his favour on this issue.
[189] The question whether, as I have found, Mr Eastham’s disclosure of his receipt of £10,000 in June 2005 to Mr George means that his principal the club must be taken to have had knowledge of it, in circumstances where, as I have also found, neither Mr Murray nor Mr Satchell, still less the club’s legal or valuation advisers knew about it, is a question of law to which I shall shortly return.
[190] The next factual question raised by this issue is whether in assisting Mr Eastham to commit a serious breach of his fiduciary duties to the club by making him a payment of £10,000 in June 2005, Ross River did so either knowingly, or dishonestly. I have rejected the evidence that Mr Eastham was in fact asked by his fellow directors to approach Mr York for financial assistance in 2005. For the avoidance of doubt, I also reject both Mr Eastham’s and Mr York’s evidence that Mr Eastham made any such suggestion to Mr York. It is not suggested that Mr York, his companies, or advisors made any independent attempt of their own either to inform the club of the payment, or to find out whether any such payment was known or approved by the club. For my part, I doubt whether anyone on Mr York’s side gave the matter a moment’s thought.
[191] The most rudimentary appreciation of the nature of fiduciary duties should have suggested to those on Mr York’s side that a payment to the chief executive of the club during the course of the overage negotiations would involve a commission by him of a breach of fiduciary duty, in the absence of the clearest possible informed consent to such a payment by those, other than Mr Eastham, responsible for the club’s affairs. In my judgment the proper conclusion as to the state of mind to be attributed to the claimants in this respect is that they simply did not care whether the payment had been disclosed to or been approved by the club. I do not however conclude that the payment was made with the intent of procuring an improperly favourable attitude towards the claimants in Mr Eastham’s further conduct of the overage negotiations, or with the intent that it be deliberately concealed.
[192] Finally, I broadly accept the claimants’ case and their witnesses’ evidence as to the circumstances of the making of the further payments each of £4,000 in December 2005 and January 2006. It was not even suggested that this had in any way been promised or hinted at in advance of the conclusion of the overage agreement. Accordingly, the making and receipt of them can be of no relevance to the club’s claim to set aside that agreement. The question whether in obtaining those further payments Mr Eastham made use of his position as a fiduciary of the club, so that he ought to be accountable to the club in respect of it, is not raised by these proceedings, and I say nothing further about it.
THE LAW
Rescission for misrepresentation
[193] The making by one contracting party to another of a material misrepresentation of fact which induces that other to make the contract gives
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that other the right to rescind the contract, qualified in cases of innocent or negligent misrepresentation by the court’s statutory discretion to award damages in lieu, but not so qualified where, as here, the misrepresentation is fraudulent.
[194] Although silence as to the material facts is not in general capable of constituting a misrepresentation, it may do so where the defendant is under a positive duty of disclosure, for example when negotiating a species of contracts regarded as uberrimae fidei, or where an existing relationship between the parties, such as a fiduciary relationship, imposes an obligation of disclosure.
[195] In the present case, the contentious issues of legal analysis are, first, whether there existed a duty of disclosure upon Ross River when negotiating the purchase of the club’s share of the overage, by reason of the relationship between the parties created by the sale agreements, and secondly, whether Mr Harney’s misrepresentations made on Ross River’s behalf were material, and if so, such as to induce the club to enter into the overage agreement.
[196] As to the first of those issues, it is well settled that the duty of good faith which subsists between partners extends to any process, whether by negotiation or otherwise, designed to bring about the termination of that relationship: see Blisset v Daniel (1853) 10 Hare 493, 68 ER 1022.
[197] In relationships falling short of partnership, but having in them elements of joint enterprise or joint venture, there is no hard and fast rule as to the existence or otherwise either of a duty of good faith, a fiduciary duty or a duty of disclosure. Each case will turn on its own facts, but if the relationship is regulated by a contract, then the terms of that contract will be of primary importance, and wider duties will not lightly be implied, in particular in commercial contracts negotiated at arms’ length between parties with comparable bargaining power, and all the more so where the contract in question sets out in detail the extent, for example, of a party’s disclosure obligations: see more generally Hospital Products Ltd v United States Surgical Corp (1984) 55 ALR 417 at 454–455, (1984) 156 CLR 41 at 97, where Mason J said this:
‘That contractual and fiduciary relationships may co-exist between the same parties has never been doubted. Indeed, the existence of a basic contractual relationship has in many situations provided a foundation for the erection of a fiduciary relationship. In these situations it is the contractual foundation which is all-important because it is the contract that regulates the basic rights and liabilities of the parties. The fiduciary relationship, if it is to exist at all, must accommodate itself to the terms of the contract so that it is consistent with, and conforms to, them. The fiduciary relationship cannot be superimposed upon the contract in such a way as to alter the operation which the contract was intended to have according to its true construction.’
[198] There are however well-known badges or hallmarks of a fiduciary relationship, such as:
‘whenever the plaintiff entrusts to the defendant a job to be performed, for instance, the negotiation of a contract on his behalf or for his benefit, and relies on the defendant to procure for the plaintiff the best terms available . . .’ (See per Asquith LJ in Re Reading’s Petition of Right [1949] 2 All ER 68 at 70, sub nom Reading v R [1949] 2 KB 232 at 236.)
[199] I was invited by Mr Seitler for the claimants to take note of the following passage in Paul Finn’s essay ‘Fiduciary Law in the Modern Commercial World’ collected in McKendrick on Commercial aspects of fiduciary obligation (1992):
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‘An appraisal (i) of the manner in which, and the apparent purpose for which rights, powers, duties and discretions are allocated by the contract; (ii) of the contract’s particular commercial or business setting, and (iii): of the self-serving actions lawfully open to a party both under, and not withstanding the contract will, as a rule, indicate decisively whether the role and reason of a party in the contract (or in a discrete part of it) can properly be said to be to serve his own interests, the parties’ joint interests, or the interests of the other party.’
I shall adopt that guidance, in analysing the relationship created by the sale agreements.
[200] Turning to the issues of materiality and inducement, there is a material misrepresentation where the false part of a statement is objectively likely to have constituted an inducement to the recipient to enter the contract, not in the sense of being the sole or the predominant cause but merely one of the inducing causes.
[201] Once the misstatement is shown to have been material, then there is ‘a fair inference of fact’ that the recipient was induced by the statement: see Chitty on Contracts (29th edn, 2004) p 449 (para 6-035) and the numerous cases cited in note 162.
[202] In cases of fraudulent misrepresentation a more rigorous rule is applied, sometimes described as being by way of deterrence: see Chitty at pp 448–449 (para 6-034). It is not enough for the representor to show that the representee would, even if the representation had not been made, still have entered the contract. It is sufficient for the representee to show that the misrepresentation ‘was actively present to his mind’ (per Bowen LJ in Edgington v Fitzmaurice (1885) 29 Ch D 459 at 483, [1881–5] All ER Rep 856 at 483).
Bribery
[203] Bribery is committed where one person makes, or agrees to make, a payment to the agent of another person with whom he is dealing without the knowledge and consent of the agent’s principal. Where a contract ensues from those dealings, the principal is entitled to rescission if he neither knew nor consented to the payment. If he knew of it, but did not give his informed consent, the court may award rescission as a discretionary remedy, if it is just and proportionate to do so: see Hurstanger Ltd v Wilson [2007] EWCA Civ 299 at [47]–[51], [2007] 4 All ER 1118 at [47]–[51], [2007] 1 WLR 2351 per Tuckey LJ, following Johnson v EBS Pensioner Trustees Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 164, [2002] Lloyd’s Rep PN 309.
[204] The essential vice inherent in bribery is that it deprives the principal, without his knowledge or informed consent, of the disinterested advice which he is entitled to expect from his agent, free from the potentially corrupting influence of an interest of his own : see Logicrose Ltd v Southend United Football Club [1988] 1 WLR 1256 at 1260–1261 per Millett J, who continued:
‘It is immaterial whether the agent’s mind had been affected or whether the principal has suffered any loss as a result: “the safety of mankind requires that no agent shall be able to put his principal to the danger of such an inquiry as that”: [Parker v McKenna (1874) 10 Ch App 96 at 124–125, [1874–80] All ER Rep 443 at 456] . . . The principal, having been deprived by the other party to the transaction of the disinterested advice of his agent, is entitled to a further opportunity to consider whether it is in his interests to affirm it.’
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[205] The liability of the payer to having the ensuing contract rescinded is based upon him having been an accessory to the agent’s breach of fiduciary duty to his principal: see Hurstanger Ltd v Wilson [2007] 4 All ER 1118 at [35], [2007] 1 WLR 2351. But the payer will not merely by paying his counterparty’s agent incur liability as an accessory, unless the payer actually knows that, or is wilfully blind to the question whether the agent has concealed the payment from his principal: see again per Millett J in Logicrose Ltd v Southend United Football Club [1988] 1 WLR 1256 at 1261–1262, where he said:
‘Parties to negotiations do not owe each other a duty to act reasonably, but only to act honestly. In the present context, the principal’s right is a right to rescind for fraud, not negligence. There is in my judgment a close parallel with the cases on knowing assistance in a breach of trust . . . In my judgment, the difference between the two lines of authority (that is to say the “bribery” cases and the “knowing assistance” cases) lies not in the factual background but in the remedy sought; and the state of mind necessary to make the other party liable ought to be the same whether claim is for an account of the money which he helped the agent to misappropriate or rescission of the transaction itself.
My one reservation, which I make for the sake of completeness, is this. It is clear that, where one party to a transaction takes what Collins L.J. described as “the hazardous course” of making a payment for the personal benefit of the other’s agent, and does not disclose it to the principal, he cannot afterwards defend the transaction by claiming that he believed the agent to be an honest man who would disclose it himself . . . Where, therefore, knowing that the agent has an interest of his own he does not himself disclose it to the other party, then in the words of Collins L.J. . . . “he must at least accept the risk of the agent’s not doing so.”’
[206] None of these principles were in dispute between the parties before me. The real bone of legal contention lay in the analysis of what, in the context of a limited company such as the club, constitutes knowledge and, separately, consent. In particular, would any disclosure to directors other than to the whole board, and consent by directors other than the whole board, be sufficient in the event that, as I have found, Mr Eastham failed to disclose his receipt of £10,000 in June 2005 to all his colleagues on the board, and did not receive the consent of all of them?
[207] I was originally disposed to think that, in the context of a company with articles of association which prohibited the provision of any remuneration to its directors, whether as directors or employees, nothing short of disclosure to, and consent from, the shareholders would suffice. On further reflection however, I have concluded (without opposition from Mr Davidson) that it is the directors, rather than the shareholders whose knowledge and consent matters. This is because, on any view, they rather than the shareholders were seized of the question whether and on what terms to sell the club’s share in the overage, and it was to them, rather than to the shareholders that for practical purposes Mr Eastham was to be expected to provide disinterested advice, as the director with primary delegated responsibility for the conduct of the negotiations with Ross River.
[208] Mr Seitler did not seriously challenge the proposition that for the club to be said to have given its informed consent to a payment by Ross River to Mr Eastham, it would be necessary to show that all the then directors approved
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of it. I accept his submission that such approval need not have been resolved upon at a formal meeting attended by all of them at the same time: see Runciman v Walter Runciman plc [1992] BCLC 1084.
[209] Much more difficult is the question whether disclosure by Mr Eastham to one of his colleagues on the board, namely Mr George, constituted disclosure to the club. I was referred to the unreported decision of the Court of Appeal in Jafari-Fini v Skillglass Ltd [2007] EWCA Civ 261, [2007] All ER (D) 504 (Mar), in which the question was whether the payment of a bribe to an agent of the defendant had come to the attention of a limited company ‘PAL’ so as to trigger PAL’s obligation as the borrower under a debenture to make disclosure of it to its lender Skillglass. It was proved that one of PAL’s directors, a Mr Webster, knew of the bribe, but the evidence showed that he did not communicate it to his colleagues on PAL’s board.
[210] Moore-Bick LJ (with whom the other members of the court agreed) said this (at [98]):
‘. . . The question in the present case is whether information which comes to the attention of one director, but which he has not shared with the rest of the board, is to be treated as information in the possession of the company. In MAN Nutzfahrzeuge AG v Freightliner Ltd [2005] EWHC 2347 (Comm), [2005] All ER (D) 357 (Oct) I expressed the view that where the board of directors is properly to be regarded as the directing mind and will of the company in relation to a particular transaction the knowledge of each is to be attributed to the company. That case, however, was concerned with the liability of the company for a false statement made in a written contract which the board as a whole had resolved that the company should enter into. The present case differs in as much as it is concerned with the acquisition by the company of information, but there are nonetheless certain similarities arising from the fact that the members of the board can generally be regarded as collectively representing the company. In general, therefore, I think that information relevant to the company’s affairs that comes into the possession of one director, however that may occur, can properly be regarded as information in the possession of the company itself. In my view that presumption informs the present contract and points to the conclusion that information in the possession of Mr Webster relating to the bribe is to be regarded as information in the possession of [the second defendant company] itself . . .’
[211] Mr Davidson submits that the decision in Jafari-Fini’s case was as a matter of general principle distinguishable from the present case, because of the different purpose for which the company needed the information. There, the information was ‘needed’ only in the sense that it triggered the company’s obligation to report it to its lender under the debenture. In the present case the club needed the information so as to enable it to make an informed decision whether to permit Mr Eastham to be paid by Ross River, while leading the club’s negotiations for the sale to Ross River of the club’s share of the overage. He referred me to Meridian Global Funds Management Asia Ltd v Securities Commission [1995] 3 All ER 918, [1995] 2 AC 500 as authority for the proposition that in discerning the appropriate ‘special rule of attribution’ the question whose act or knowledge was intended to count as the act or knowledge of the company depended upon the purpose for which it is necessary to make that decision. I consider that the passage in Lord Hoffmann’s well-known judgment on this point
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(see [1995] 3 All ER 918 at 922–923, [1995] 2 AC 500 at 507) supports Mr Davidson’s submission.
[212] The application of that purposive principle to the question whether a payment to the agent of a limited company has been sufficiently disclosed to deprive it of the character of a bribe is confirmed by the following passage in the judgment of Tuckey LJ in Hurstanger Ltd v Wilson [2007] 4 All ER 1118 at [35], [2007] 1 WLR 2351:
‘What amounts to sufficient disclosure for these purposes? [Bowstead and Reynolds on Agency (18th edn, 2006)] says:
“6-057 Consent of the principal is not uncommon. But it must be positively shown. The burden of proving full disclosure lies on the agent and it is not sufficient for him merely to disclose that he has an interest or to make such statements as would put the principal on inquiry: nor is it a defence to prove that had he asked for permission it would have been given.
I think this is an accurate statement of the law. Whether there has been sufficient disclosure must depend upon the facts of each case given that the requirement is for the principal’s informed consent to his agent acting with a potential conflict of interest.”’
[213] Tuckey LJ’s analysis was concerned not with the question whether disclosure to one director rather than to the whole board was sufficient, but with the quantity or quality of the information communicated. Accordingly, Hurstanger Ltd v Wilson does not in terms answer the question in issue in this case. But in my judgment it points the way to the answer. A payment to the agent of a company is by the law relating to bribery required to be disclosed to the company so as to enable it to make an informed decision whether to permit the agent to do something giving rise to a potential conflict of interest. Such an informed decision can in general be made only by the company’s board. Contrary therefore to the general rule propounded by Moore Bick LJ in Jafari-Fini’s case I conclude therefore that a payment by a person dealing with a company to a managing director of the company charged with the negotiation on the company’s behalf is only disclosed to the company by the director if that disclosure is made to all its directors or to a properly convened board meeting attended by a sufficient quorum.
[214] In the present case the question is as to the disclosure required to be made by the director himself, where the payer took no steps to make the disclosure, leaving it to the payee director. It may be that a less stringent rule is to be applied where the payer makes the disclosure. For example, Mr Davidson conceded that disclosure by Ross River to the company’s solicitors would have sufficed. But where (as here) the only disclosure made by the payee director was to one of his colleagues on the board, that was in my judgment insufficient to bring the existence of the payment to the knowledge of the company.
[215] It may also be that where the payee is not the managing director or (as here) the chief executive, the payee may make sufficient disclosure by telling the MD or CEO. As Mr Davidson put it in closing: ‘If you disclose to someone who is the leader, that is good enough. But if you are the leader, merely disclosing in a vague way to a follower is not good enough.’
[216] That analysis may be tested by reference to Mr Seitler’s submission that the club approved the payment by acquiescence, once Mr George knew of it, on
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the basis that Mr George’s knowledge was to be attributed to the club. That would be a result at variance with the reality, because the board neither knew nor approved of the payment, by acquiescence or otherwise. The flaw in the submission lies not in the notion that knowledge followed by acquiescence signifies consent, but rather in the proposition that Mr George’s knowledge is to be attributed to the club.
[217] I have considered whether my conclusion on this issue conflicts with El Ajou v Dollar Land Holdings plc [1994] 2 All ER 685 where, reversing Millett J, the Court of Appeal held that the knowledge of one of Dollar Land Holdings plc’s directors (a Mr Ferdman) was to be attributed to the company for the purposes of a claim against it based upon knowing receipt. In my judgment it does not conflict. There, the appeal succeeded not because Mr Ferdman was a director, but because, in relation to the relevant transaction, he had sufficient individual authority from the company to require his mind to be identified for that purpose as the company’s governing mind and will. No such classification can here be applied to the mind of Mr George, the only director whom Mr Eastham informed about the June 2005 payment.
[218] Despite its emotive label, it has never been an essential part of the cause of action in bribery to prove that the payer or the agent had a consciously improper motive or intent. Bribery is established wherever the payment brings about the requisite conflict of interest which is not disclosed to, or consented to by, the principal. It follows that in a case of non-disclosure bribery may be established even where both the payer and the agent were unaware that they were doing anything wrong. Nonetheless, in cases where there has been disclosure to, but not informed consent by, the principal, questions of improper motive and intent may be relevant to the exercise of discretion.
[219] The final legal issue under this heading concerns the question whether the right of rescission, or the court’s discretion to award rescission, can extend so as to bring about the unwinding of a transaction prior in time to the payment or agreement for payment constituting the relevant bribe so as, in this case, to enable the club to seek the rescission not merely of the overage agreement, but of the 2005 sale agreement as well.
[220] For that purpose, Mr Davidson advanced two alternative submissions. The first, based upon a well-known decision of a two judge Court of Appeal in Panama and South Pacific Telegraph Co v India Rubber, Gutta Percha and Telegraph Works Co (1875) 10 Ch App 515 at 527, was that ‘if you find a case where, in the contemplation of this Court, a principal is conspiring with the servant of the other principal to cheat his master in the execution of a contract, then in common sense, common justice, common honesty, and in this Court, the master is entitled to say, “I will have nothing more to do with the business”’ (per James LJ).
[221] In that case, it was shown that shortly after the plaintiff contracted with the defendant for the laying of a cable, the plaintiff’s certifying engineer secretly subcontracted with the defendant to lay the cable himself. As James LJ put it ‘a surreptitious sub-contact with the agent [the engineer] is regarded as a bribe to him for violating or neglecting his duty’. On discovery of the subcontract, the plaintiff was entitled to terminate the cable laying contract with the defendant, and to receive back money already paid to the defendant pursuant to its terms. He described the relief afforded to the plaintiff as being by way of rescission of the cable laying contract, notwithstanding that it was earlier in time than the subcontract between the defendant and the plaintiff’s certifying engineer.
[222] As part of the justification for his conclusion, James LJ said this (at 526):
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‘If a man hired a vetturino to take him from one place to another, and found that the vetturino, after he had accepted the hiring, had conspired with his servant to rob him on the way, he would be entitled to get rid both of the vetturino and the servant.’
I would with great respect regard that in modern terms as an illustration not of rescission in the strict sense but of an accepted anticipatory repudiatory breach putting an end to the contract.
[223] Mellish LJ put the matter more cautiously. First (at 530) he drew the inference from the facts that, although the sub-contract shortly followed the cable-laying contract between the parties, the engineer had it in mind to make the sub-contract from the outset. It was not therefore a simple case of a bribe being agreed after the making of the contract sought to be rescinded.
[224] Nor did Mellish LJ treat the case as one of rescission. This appears from the following passages (at 531–532):
‘I am not quite certain that I go the full length to which the Lord Justice has gone in thinking that because a person has been a party to fraudulent act of this kind after the contract was made, the mere fact of him having been guilty of such fraudulent conduct, supposing that a full remedy for the fraud could be otherwise obtained, would entitle the other party to say, “Because you acted fraudulently, therefore I will having nothing more to do with you, and I will not carry out my contract with you.” I am not aware of any authority which has gone to that extent. As far as I know, the consequence of fraud is, that the Court will see that the party defrauded obtains, as far as can be given, full redress for the fraud, and I may thought it, therefore, necessary on this part of the case to consider whether the Plaintiffs could be relieved from the consequences of this fraud by any thing short of the relief which the Vice-Chancellor has given to them . . . Now, the way in which the question arises in the present case is really this: The contract has been broken, and it seems to be clear on the facts that, independently of the question which is raised before us, it has been broken by the Plaintiffs, and so long a time has elapsed that neither party is bound to the other to complete the contract. The only question, then, is, whether the Defendants ought to keep the £40,000, and besides that, ought to be allowed to sue at law for any damages they may have sustained on the grounds of the Plaintiffs not having completed the contract.’
Then (at 533):
‘It seems to me that it would be in the highest degree inequitable to allow the Defendants to keep the £40,000. The contract having been broken, and having come to an end, is it to be treated as having been broken by the default of the Plaintiffs, or by the default of the Defendants? It appears to me clearly that the Defendants have deprived the Plaintiffs of the advice of the engineer, and having by improper conduct deprived them of his advice the contract clearly must be treated as having been broken off through the default of the Defendants; and having been broken off through their default and misconduct, it follows that the Plaintiffs are entitled to have £40,000 paid back . . .’
[225] Making due allowance for subsequent changes in the language of contractual analysis, it seems to me that Mellish LJ was indeed treating the case
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as one of termination by an accepted repudiatory breach, and the repayment of the £40,000 as appropriate monetary relief in the respect of the fraud which had been committed. Accordingly, the Panama case affords no assistance to Mr Davidson in seeking the rescission of the 2005 sale agreement. If further performance of it were to be excused by the club accepting Ross River’s repudiatory breach, the consequence would nonetheless be to leave the ground in the possession of Ross River, with consequential monetary compensation for breach.
[226] Mr Davidson’s alternative submission was that since the sale agreements constituted the club and Ross River joint venturers in a project requiring mutual good faith and co-operation, the court should not by stopping short at rescission of the overage agreement leave the parties bound to each other under the sale agreement to a mutually self destructive future in seeking to realise the development value in the ground while in a relationship of hostile distrust. Rescission of the sale agreements was therefore an appropriate solution to that unsatisfactory state of affairs, with appropriate accounts and enquiries to ensure restitutio in integrum.
[227] Mr Davidson’s difficulty was to find any basis for the court having or exercising such a jurisdiction. In the analogous example of partnership, the court could of course decree a dissolution of the partnership upon proof of an irretrievable breakdown in trust and confidence between the parties. But no comparable jurisdiction exists in relation to joint ventures falling short of partnership. Furthermore, dissolution would not be designed to achieve, nor would it achieve anything approaching rescission of the 2005 sale agreement, any more than the dissolution of a partnership is intended to restore the parties to the status which existed prior to the making of the partnership agreement.
[228] It follows that I have been unable to discern any basis whereby the court could give effect either to the club’s desire to recover the ground free from the terms of the 2005 sale agreement, or to the perhaps understandable wish of the club not to have to continue in an obviously unsatisfactory relationship with Ross River in the future, pursuant to the sale agreement, in the event that the overage agreement was set aside.
CONCLUSIONS
Duty of disclosure
[229] In my judgment the project for the realisation of the development value of the ground constituted by the mutual obligations of the club and Ross River set out in the sale agreements had enough about it in the nature of a joint venture to require the parties to conduct themselves with mutual good faith in relation both to the carrying out of their various obligations, and in relation to any negotiations for a buy-out of either party’s share in the hoped-for overage. Clearly, the project was to be carried out for their mutual benefit, as sharers in the anticipated profit, and the costs of the exercise (as planning and development costs) were in substance to be shared by way of deduction before distribution of profits, albeit that the club assumed no liability for those costs if the project merely broke even or made a loss. In my judgment, neither party entertained any serious apprehension that there might be no overage at all.
[230] Furthermore, for the parties’ mutual benefit, the sale agreements clearly imposed upon Ross River in its conduct of the lion’s share of the work necessary to realise the overage, obligations to obtain best value and to minimise costs.
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Adapting the words of Professor (later Justice) Finn’s analysis which I have quoted above, my appraisal of the rights, powers, duties and discretions given to Ross River under the sale agreements indicates decisively that the role of Ross River in taking steps and obtaining information for the purpose of developing the scheme, obtaining the planning permission and satisfying the development conditions can properly be said to have been for the purpose of serving the parties’ joint interests, rather than simply the separate interests of Ross River, to the extent that they might diverge from the interests of the club.
[231] In particular, I accept Mr Davidson’s submission that it makes no sense at all to conclude (as Mr Harney appears to have done) that, when it came to a negotiation of a buy-out of the club’s financial interest in the project, Ross River was at liberty to use, conceal or otherwise deal with information which it had obtained from outside professionals at an expense which was to be shared by the parties as a deduction from their profits, purely for the separate interests of Ross River.
[232] I prefer to describe that duty as being a duty of good faith, by analogy with the well-known obligation that subsists between partners, than as a fiduciary duty, albeit that it has an element of fiduciary obligation embedded in it.
[233] I am not however persuaded that the sale agreements, and the relationship thereby created between the parties, imposed a positive obligation upon Ross River to volunteer disclosure of all the information which it had gained in discharging its function under the sale agreements, once a negotiation for a buyout of the club’s interest started. The sale agreements made detailed provision for the stages in the project at which, either expressly or by necessary implication, Ross River was to make disclosure to the club. Those stages were (i) the time of the submission to the club of the scheme, (ii) the time of the submission to the club of the draft planning application, (iii) routinely thereafter, by way of report on the progress of the planning application (iv) upon seeking to sell the ground to an independent third party after satisfying the development conditions, and (v) upon any calculation of the additional consideration payable to the club, for example after five years, in the event that the club should serve a sale notice and Ross River should elect to pay the club its share of the overage.
[234] Although it may be said that a duty at all times, and in connection with any matter relevant to the project, to make disclosure of relevant information to the club would add little to the detailed regime for disclosure set out in the sale agreements, the fact remains that after considering whether to do so, the parties deliberately declined to make any provision (whether express or otherwise) in circumstances that, prior to five years or prior to a sale of the ground to an independent third party, they should wish to negotiate a purchase by one of them of the other’s share of the overage. This is in my judgment a case in which the specific obligations to volunteer information were exhaustively set out in the sale agreements, such that the identification of any wider or more general obligation of disclosure would conflict with those detailed provisions by rendering them unnecessary.
[235] Nonetheless, the obligation of good faith did in my judgment require Ross River, once its agent Mr Harney was asked to provide precisely that information to enable Mr Lee to advise the club, either to provide it or, if not, to state in the most unambiguous terms that the request was being refused. By purporting to respond positively, while in fact concealing the critical parts of the information by then received most favourable to an optimistic view of the value of the overage (and therefore of the club’s share in it in the buyout negotiations)
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Ross River by Mr Harney committed a grave breach of that obligation of good faith. He took the narrow and misguided view that, because the deadline for submission to the club of a draft scheme had not yet arrived, he was entitled in negotiations for the purchase of the club’s share of the overage to have single-minded regard to Ross River’s (and of course his own) interests, and to treat the provisions of the sale agreements as, for that purpose, in suspense.
Misrepresentation
[236] It will be apparent from my findings of fact that I have concluded that Mr Harney made dishonest and therefore fraudulent misrepresentations of fact when responding to Mr Lee’s enquiries in May 2005. In doing so he acted as Ross River’s authorised representative, and it has not been suggested that Ross River is otherwise than fully responsible for his misconduct, even though I make clear that the evidence did not show Mr York to have been an active participant in it.
[237] It is equally clear in my judgment that Mr Harney’s misrepresentations were material, despite his denial that they were, and despite Mr Seitler’s submissions that they were not.
[238] Mr Lee’s task, as he clearly explained to Mr Harney, was to advise the club about the value, including the commercial value, of its share in the overage, having regard in particular to the type of scheme being prepared on Ross River’s behalf for the parties’ mutual benefit. His task was not simply to value the ground at the time of the negotiations. Regardless whether other valuers might take a different course, Mr Lee made it clear to Mr Harney that his approach to an appraisal of the net present value of the club’s share of a future as yet unrealised overage, required him to gain an understanding as far as he could of the type of scheme and associated planning application which was in due course planned to be made. Of course the appraisal of present value would require the value attributable to any proposed scheme to be discounted by reference to its prospects of success. But that by no means reduces an attempt to understand and appraise the proposed scheme to the status of irrelevance. On the contrary, Mr Lee made it clear that he regarded it as essential, and in due course his advice to the club was that he could offer no useful appraisal of value, not having obtained that information.
[239] The question of materiality may be tested by asking what effect upon Mr Lee’s advice to the club would have been occasioned by Mr Harney telling him the truth as to his preparations for the planning application, rather than the falsehoods which he actually told, and providing the third party professional reports, the existence of which he falsely denied. To that analysis there can in my judgment only be one answer, namely the answer given by Mr Lee in cross-examination, to the effect that had he been told the truth, he would have been able to advise the club in much clearer terms of the added value which they might forgo if resolved to settle in 2005 for a cash payment in advance of the realisation of the overage pursuant to the machinery contained in the sale agreements.
[240] The sheet anchor of the claimants’ case in relation to misrepresentation was that, even if material, and even if intended to induce a buyout of the overage on terms favourable to the claimants, Mr Harney’s statements to Mr Lee were not in fact an inducement, because Mr Lee did not rely upon them in any respect. Further, Mr Seitler submitted that it was the mere refusal of Mr Harney to provide information about his plans and third party professional reports that led Mr Lee to advise the way he did, rather than Mr Harney’s lies about his plans (for
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example in relation to density) or his denial of the existence of any relevant reports. He pointed to Mr Lee’s view, clearly expressed in October 2005 that ‘it is unlikely that such information or assistance would be given, as at best he [Mr Harney] is obstructive and at worst objectionable’.
[241] The claimants’ submissions on inducement are of real force, and I have found this issue to be by no means easy to resolve. In the end, I have not been persuaded by them for the following reasons. First and foremost, in a case where fraudulent material misrepresentations have been deliberately made with a view (as I find) improperly to influence the outcome of the negotiation of the contact in favour of the maker and his principal, by an experienced player in the relevant market, there is the most powerful inference that the fraudsman achieved his objective, at least to the limited extent required by the law, namely that his fraud was actively in the mind of the recipient when the contract came to be made. For present purposes, the relevant mind is that of Mr Lee when giving his final advice to the club before it entered into the overage agreement.
[242] Secondly, although Mr Lee’s evident belief was that Mr Harney was obstructive and objectionable, he did not suggest either in his witness statement or in cross examination, when called by the claimants to give evidence, that his lack of regard for Mr Harney at the time went so far as extending to a belief that he had lied to him. In my judgment Mr Lee only appreciated that he had been lied to, when for the first time outside court just before giving his evidence, he saw the third party professional reports, the existence of which Mr Harney had denied, and the evidence of Mr Harney’s real intentions in relation to density, when seeking planning permission.
[243] Thirdly, as has been frequently emphasised, analysis of misrepresentation, particularly in relation to materiality and inducement, requires a comparison to be carried out between the statement actually made, and the truth, rather than between the statement made and silence, ie no statement. That this is the correct approach is in my judgment all the more apposite when the maker of the statement is, as was the representative of Ross River in this case, under an obligation of good faith, even if that obligation falls short of a strict duty of disclosure.
[244] Fourthly, I reject the submission that the club would have been forced to complete the overage agreement at the price offered by Ross River in any event, due to its financial predicament. It is certainly true that the club’s lack of working capital led it into the overage negotiations, and that it was facing ever increasing pressure from its creditors by October 2005. The question for the club was undoubtedly whether to take the bird in the hand rather than wait for the possibility of two in the bush, but its choice was made on the basis of Mr Lee’s inability to offer useful advice as to what the overage might in due course prove to be worth in circumstances where Mr Lee would have been able to provide worthwhile advice, had he been told the truth by Mr Harney. Pressed though the club was by its creditors, Mr Satchell was at the very same time coming into possession of substantial funds with which he was prepared to assist the club. Furthermore, as Mr Eastham very frankly acknowledged in cross-examination, if Mr Lee had been able to proffer some valuation advice about the overage, the club might have been able to obtain some alleviation of its cash flow crisis by borrowing against its share, having paid off the bulk of its previous borrowing upon completion of the sale of the ground in April that year.
[245] It follows in my judgment that the natural inference that the deception practised by Mr Harney achieved its objective in affecting the outcome of the
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overage negotiations in favour of himself and Ross River has not been displaced by the evidence. In my judgment, Mr Harney’s fraud was still actively present in the club’s mind, in the sense which I have described, when the overage agreement was made.
[246] It follows that the club is entitled to rescind the overage agreement, and having been induced to make it by a fraudulent misrepresentation for which the claimants are responsible, rescission is not subject to the court’s statutory discretion to award damages in lieu. No equitable bar to rescission (such as delay) was advanced by the claimants.
[247] It is therefore unnecessary for me to decide whether, separately from misrepresentation, the club would have been entitled in any event to rescind the overage agreement by reason of the plain breach of the claimants’ duty of good faith constituted by Mr Harney’s conduct towards Mr Lee. In my judgment, again by analogy with settled law in relation to the partnership, such a breach of duty would have given rise to a discretion in the court to grant equitable relief, including the setting aside of any agreement for the termination of that relationship obtained by breach of duty while it was subsisting. But since the only circumstances in which I might have concluded that the club’s case in misrepresentation failed would have been if I had found that Mr Harney’s lies played no part in inducing the overage agreement, I consider it unlikely that I would have reached a different and positive conclusion in relation to the exercise of that discretion. Since the question does not need to be decided, I say no more about it.
Bribery
[248] My findings of fact necessitate the conclusion that Mr Eastham received from Ross River a payment of £10,000 in June 2005, of which two of the clubs four directors were not informed, and to which the club did not give its informed consent.
[249] Mr Seitler tried hard to pursuade me that since the payment was simply a response to Mr Eastham’s request of Mr York to assist in his funding of his daughter’s wedding, it had nothing to do with the negotiations concerning the club’s share of the overage, and therefore gave rise to no conflict of interest, so that the vice inherent in a case of bribery was wholly absent. I reject that submission. While there would in my judgment have been no conflict of interest occasioned by Ross River providing additional remuneration to Mr Eastham during the course of the progression of the project contemplated by the sale agreements in the absence of any negotiation to buy out the club’s share, the position was inevitably different once those negotiations commenced, and until they reached their conclusion.
[250] True it is that the payments were not in any sense conditional upon Mr Eastham taking any particular attitude in the negotiations, or even conditional upon their successful outcome. But the ways in which the single-minded loyalty of a fiduciary to his principal can be undermined are by no means limited to such crude methods. Just as Mr York obtained leverage in the negotiations leading to the sale agreements by lending to the club and then, at critical moments, threatening to call in his loans, he gained at the very least by doing Mr Eastham the favour of making £10,000 available to him to save him financial embarrassment, the prospect of calling in that favour at some later date. I make it clear that there is no evidence that Mr York ever intended or attempted
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to do so, between June and October 2005. But it is the propensity for doing so created by the making of such a payment that undermines the fiduciary’s loyalty.
[251] Having decided as a matter of law that disclosure by Mr Eastham to one rather than all of his colleagues on the club’s board was insufficient to constitute disclosure of the £10,000 payment to the club, the question remains whether the claimants can avoid rescission by asserting the absence of knowledge on their part that the payment had neither been properly disclosed to, nor approved by the club. I have concluded as a matter of fact that the claimants (in reality Mr York and Mr Harney) probably gave no thought one way or the other to the question whether the payment had been properly disclosed to or approved by the club. It is unnecessary for me to conclude whether this constituted willful blindness on the claimants’ part (that is, being conscious of a risk of an improper failure to disclose and not caring one way or the other) because, on any view, the claimants made no attempt of their own either to notify the club of the payment, or to obtain the club’s approval of it. Mr Davidson acknowledged that this might have been achieved had the club’s solicitors been informed by Ross River, but I have found as a fact that they were not. In those circumstances, following as I do the decision of Millett J in Logicrose Ltd v Southend United Football Club [1988] 1 WLR 1256 that if the payer leaves it to the agent to inform the principal of the payment, he does so at his own risk, the claimants therefore fail to establish the necessary basis for avoiding the consequence that, in order to give the club a second opportunity to consider the wisdom of the transaction, the claimants must submit to the rescission of the overage agreement.
Rescission of the sale agreements
[252] It will be apparent from my above analysis of the applicable legal principles that, while reluctant to leave the parties to re-forge the relationship necessary to make a success out of the continued performance of their mutual obligations under the sale agreements, in the light of what has so far occurred, I do not consider that my findings in relation to misrepresentation and bribery give me jurisdiction to accede to the club’s invitation to set aside the sale agreements. Nor would I have done so even if I considered that I had jurisdiction to award such relief by way of equitable discretion. Nothing in this trial has begun to persuade me that there was any impropriety in the hard fought arms’ length commercial negotiation which led to the making of the sale agreements, and therefore to the conferring upon the claimants of the valuable opportunity to realise the development value of the ground for a benefit to be shared between them and the club (and others such as Waverley with whom they chose to sub-divide their share). It would, to my mind, be a positive injustice to the claimants to require them now to transfer the ground back to the club, even if they were to obtain restitutio in integrum.
[253] No claim has been advanced that the club is entitled to treat the sale agreements as terminated by accepted repudiation, notwithstanding the claimants’ breach of their duty of good faith. I can well understand why not. That would leave the ground in the hands of the claimants, and the club compensated merely in damages for any shortfall occasioned by the breach of duty in their realisation of the value of their share of the overage.
[254] In my judgment, the just consequence of the claimants’ misconduct which I have identified is precisely that, in the words of Millett J in Logicrose Ltd v Southend United Football Club, the club should be given a further opportunity to consider whether it is in its interests to affirm the overage agreement free from
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the debilitating disadvantages of having had their advisor Mr Lee deliberately misled by Mr Harney, and having had the undivided loyalty of their chief negotiator Mr Eastham undermined by his receipt of a payment from the claimants during the course of those negotiations, without the club’s knowledge or consent.
[255] It by no means follows from the justice of the club being given that opportunity, that the overage agreement was necessarily a bad agreement in October 2005, but, taking matters as a whole, it seems to me eminently just that the club should be entitled to reconsider what it wishes to do with its overage rights.
[256] It follows from the setting aside of the overage agreement that the club is entitled to be restored to its position as lessee under the lease which was surrendered as part of this arrangement, under a lease which is not terminable by the claimants in advance of their obtaining planning permission. I will hear submissions as to how that aspect of restoring the status quo ante is to be achieved, consistent with the requirements of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954, as amended.
[257] Furthermore, the inevitable price of rescission is that the club must restore to the claimants the £900,000 which it received by reason of the overage agreement together with any other relevant benefit thereunder. Again, I will hear submissions as to the question of interest, and as to the form of any necessary order to achieve that result.
[258] Finally, the claimants’ claims for possession of the ground and under the Land Registration Act 2002 must be addressed. The claim for possession must be dismissed. The rights of the club recognised by this judgment do not extend as far as those asserted in the unilateral notice registered on its behalf in relation to the ground. I will hear submissions as to how that disparity should be dealt with.
Order accordingly.
Martyn Gurr Barrister.
Fleming (trading as Bodycraft) v Revenue and Customs Commissioners;
Condé Nast Publications Ltd v Revenue and Customs Commissioners
[2008] 1 All ER 1061
[2008] UKHL 2
Categories: TAXATION; VAT & Customs and Excise
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD, LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY
Hearing Date(s): 12–14 NOVEMBER 2007, 23 JANUARY 2008
Value added tax – Input tax – Claim for deduction of input tax – Late claim for repayment of under-claimed input tax – Time limit – Transitional provisions – Principle of effectiveness – Time limit for claim for repayment of under-claimed input tax introduced without transitional provisions – After time limit introduced taxable person making claim for repayment for period earlier than time limit – Whether time limit to be disapplied for transitional period – Value Added Tax Regulations 1995, SI 1995/2518, reg 29(1A).
Section 80a of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 made provision for claims by taxable persons for the recovery of value added tax (VAT) paid but not due and reg 29b of the Value Added Tax Regulations 1995 made provision for claims for the repayment of input tax that could have, but had not been, claimed by a taxable person in a previous accounting period. During 1996 the commissioners expected that as a result of litigation then before the Court of Justice of the European Communities they would be faced with claims for repayment of large amounts of VAT, some of it going back for many years. With effect from July 1996 an amendment to s 80 of the 1994 Act reduced the previous six year time limit for the recovery of overpaid tax to three years and removed the previous exemption in relation to mistake. There was no transitional provision. Regulation 29 of the 1995 Regulations had not subjected claims to any time limit; with effect from May 1997 reg 29 was amended by the insertion of para (1A) which imposed a three year time limit within which claims for the repayment of input tax had to be made. The three year period ran from the date by which the VAT return for the accounting period in which the claim to deduct the input tax ought to have been included had to be made. There was no transitional provision. The effect of the amendment to reg 29 was that on 1 May 1997 input tax which had been paid earlier than 1 May 1994 and in respect of which valid repayment claims could have been made became irrecoverable and that in respect of claims for the repayment of input tax which had been paid between 1 May 1994 and 1 May 1997 the period within which they could be brought would, depending on when the input tax had been paid, be progressively less than three years from 1 May 1997. Following a decision of the Court of Justice on
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11 July 2002 in which the court decided that the amendment of s 80 of the 1994 Act infringed the principle of effectiveness and was in breach EU law the commissioners announced on 5 August 2002 in a Business Brief a transitional regime for s 80 covering a period of nearly four months, from 4 December 1996 to 31 March 1997. On 24 September 2002 the Court of Justice gave a judgment which related to adequate transitional periods. The commissioners then published in another Business Brief an alteration to the transitional regime for s 80 the effect of which was to substitute 30 June 1997 for 31 March 1997 and to extend the period within which claims could be made to 30 June 2003. The Business Briefs did not affect the period for making late claims under reg 29(1A) and no similar transitional provisions were introduced in relation to such claims. F had made a claim under reg 29 on 23 October 2000 for repayment of input tax paid on the acquisition of three specialist sports cars some ten years earlier. His claim was refused and his appeal to the Value Added Tax and Duties Tribunal was dismissed, as was his appeal to the High Court. The Court of Appeal reversed the judge’s decision, the majority holding that no transitional period could be read into reg 29(1A) and that under EU law it had to be disapplied generally to all claims in respect of payments of VAT before the regulation had come into force. CN made a claim on 27 June 2003 for input tax paid on staff entertainment during the preceding 30 years. The High Court held that CN had not made a claim within a reasonable time from, at the latest, 5 August 2002, the date of the first Business Brief. The Court of Appeal, considering itself bound by the majority decision in F’s case, allowed CN’s appeal. In both cases the commissioners appealed to the House of Lords. It was common ground that the unmodified time limit in reg 29(1A) of the 1995 Regulations was incompatible with EU law because it was retrospective and because it made no provision for any transitional arrangements and that legislation that was incompatible had to be disapplied. The commissioners’ primary case was that the appropriate period of disapplication should be equivalent to the transitional period which the legislature ought to have included under EU law. They contended, inter alia, basing their argument on the reasoning of the Court of Justice in the transitional periods case, that the period ought to be six months or alternatively, six months from the date on which an average taxpayer would or should have been aware that EU law required a reasonable transitional period.
Held – (Lord Walker dissenting but concurring in the result in F’s case for different reasons) It was for Parliament or the commissioners, if they chose to do so by means of an announcement disseminated to all taxpayers, to introduce prospectively an adequate transitional period. The primary responsibility for giving a clear indication to taxpayers as to where they stood with regard to the making of claims despite the retrospective introduction of the time limit lay with the legislature and the executive. Until an adequate transitional period was announced the three year time limit had to be disapplied in the case of all claims for deduction of input tax that had accrued before the introduction of the time limit. In the situation where, as in the instant cases, there had been originally no time limit for the making of claims at all and no transitional arrangements had been included in the measure that introduced one, the guiding principle was that of effectiveness and account had also to be taken of the principle of protection of legitimate expectations. It was established that the principle of legitimate expectations was infringed by the retrospective introduction of a time limit for
Page 1063 of [2008] 1 All ER 1061
the making of claims retrospectively but that that would not be in breach of EU law so long as transitional arrangements were included which allowed an adequate period for the lodging of claims which persons had been entitled to submit under the original legislation; sufficient notice of those transitional arrangements had to be given to ensure that the exercise of those accrued rights was not rendered virtually impossible or excessively difficult which would be a breach of the principle of effectiveness. The situation disclosed by the instant cases did not lend itself to the court reaching its own decision as to what would be a reasonable time for the making of claims and rejecting claims that had been made after a period which it held to be reasonable as the issue was not one of statutory interpretation, for which the court had to accept responsibility, rather, there was a gap in the legislation which was unfilled. Accordingly, the appeals would be dismissed (see [5]–[7], [9], [11]–[13], [21]–[23], [70], [75], [77], [78], [80], [81], [88], [98]–[104], [109], below); Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036 and Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-68/96 [1998] ECR I-3775 applied.
(Per Lord Walker) Regulation 29(1A) should be disapplied by the court for a period of six months from the date on which an average taxpayer would or should have been aware that EU law required a reasonable transitional period, which was 11 January 2003 being six months after the judgment of the Court of Justice on 11 July 2002 (see [51], [62], [69], [70], below).
Notes
For claims for input tax; in general, see 49(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2005 reissue) para 274
For the Value Added Tax Regulations 1995, SI 1995/2518, reg 29, see 22 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (2007 issue) 109.
Cases referred to in opinions
Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629, ECJ.
Aprile Srl (in liquidation) v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato (No 2) Case C-228/96 [2000] 1 WLR 126, [1998] ECR I-7141, ECJ.
Argos Distributors Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C–288/94 [1996] STC 1359, [1997] QB 499, [1997] 2 WLR 477, [1996] ECR I-5311, ECJ.
Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2005] UKHL 54, [2005] 4 All ER 1141, [2006] 1 AC 118, [2005] 3 WLR 339; rvsg [2004] EWCA Civ 680, [2004] 3 All ER 957, [2005] 1 WLR 52.
BLP Group plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-4/94 [1995] All ER (EC) 401, [1996] 1 WLR 174, [1995] ECR I-983, ECJ.
Denkavit Internationaal BV v Kamer van Koophandel en Fabrieken voor Midden-Gelderland Case C-2/94 [1996] ECR I-2827, ECJ.
Deutsche Morgan Grenfell Group plc v IRC [2006] UKHL 49, [2007] 1 All ER 449, [2007] 1 AC 558, [2006] 3 WLR 781.
Dilexport Srl v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato Case C-343/96 [2000] All ER (EC) 600, [1999] ECR I-579, ECJ.
EC Commission v French Republic Case C-197/96 [1997] ECR I-1489, ECJ.
Page 1064 of [2008] 1 All ER 1061
EC Commission v Italian Republic Case C-358/98 [2000] ECR I-1255, ECJ.
EC Commission v Italian Republic Case C-145/99 [2002] ECR I-2235, ECJ.
EC Commission v United Kingdom Case C-33/03 [2005] STC 582, [2005] ECR I-1865, ECJ.
Elida Gibbs Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C–317/94 [1996] STC 1387, [1997] QB 499, [1996] ECR I-5339, [1997] All ER (EC) 53, ECJ.
Emmott v Minister for Social Welfare and Attorney-General Case C-208/90 [1991] IRLR 387, [1991] ECR I-4269, ECJ.
Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692, [1990] 2 AC 85, [1989] 2 WLR 997, HL.
Fantask A/S v Industriministeriet (Erhvervministeriet) Case C-188/95 [1998] All ER (EC) 1, [1997] ECR I-6783, ECJ.
Ghaidan v Godin-Mendoza [2004] UKHL 30, [2004] 3 All ER 411, [2004] 2 AC 557, [2004] 3 WLR 113.
Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-68/96 [1998] ECR I-3775, ECJ.
Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-255/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 176, [2002] ECR I-8003, ECJ.
Imperial Chemical Industries plc v Colmer (Inspector of Taxes) [2000] 1 All ER 129, [1999] 1 WLR 2035, HL.
Litster v Forth Dry Dock & Engineering Co Ltd (in receivership) [1989] 1 All ER 1134, [1990] 1 AC 546, [1989] 2 WLR 634, HL.
Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs [1997] V&DR 85, [1998] V&DR 93, [1998] V&DR 235; affd [1999] STC 205; affd in part [2000] STC 16, CA (referring question to ECJ) Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036, [2003] QB 866, [2003] 2 WLR 665, [2002] ECR I-6325, ECJ; (affd in part following return of referred question) [2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1; (rvsd in part, further question referred to ECJ ) [2005] UKHL 53, [2005] STC 1254.
Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584, [1986] QB 401, [1986] 2 WLR 780, [1986] ECR 723, ECJ.
Metallgesellschaft Ltd v IRC; Hoechst A-G v IRC Joined cases C-397/98 and C-410/98 [2001] All ER (EC) 496, [2001] Ch 620, [2001] 2 WLR 1497, [2001] ECR I-1727, ECJ.
Optigen Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs; Fulcrum Electronics Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs; Bond House Systems Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Joined cases C-354/03, C-355/03 and C-484/03 [2006] STC 419, [2006] Ch 218, [2006] ECR I-483, ECJ.
Pickstone v Freemans plc [1988] 2 All ER 803, [1989] AC 66, [1988] 3 WLR 265, HL.
Stichting ‘Goed Wonen’ v Staatssecretaris van Financiën Case C-376/02 [2006] STC 833, [2005] ECR I-3445, ECJ.
Thin Cap Group Litigation (Test Claimants in the) v IRC Case C-524/04 [2007] STC 906, [2007] ECR I-2107, ECJ.
University of Sussex v Customs and Excise Comrs [2001] STC 1495; affd [2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1.
Page 1065 of [2008] 1 All ER 1061
Cases referred to in list of authorities
Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v SpA San Giorgio Case 199/82 [1983] ECR 3595, [1985] 2 CMLR 658, ECJ.
Baines & Ernst Ltd v Revenue and Customs Comrs [2006] EWCA Civ 1040, [2006] STC 1632.
Berkeley v Secretary of State for the Environment [2000] 3 All ER 897, [2001] 2 AC 603, [2000] 3 WLR 420, HL.
CILFIT Srl v Ministry of Health Case 283/81 [1982] ECR 3415, ECJ.
Connect Austria Gesellschaft für Telekommunikation GmbH v Telekom-Control-Kommission Case C-462/99 [2003] ECR I-5197, ECJ.
Finanzamt Gladbeck v Edith Linneweber Case C-453/02 [2005] ECR I-1131, ECJ.
Firma A Racke v Hauptzollamt Mainz Case 98/78 [1979] ECR 69, ECJ.
Gemeente Leusden v Staatssecretaris van Financien Cases C-487/01 and C-7/02 [2007] STC 776, [2004] ECR I-5337, ECJ.
Grundstückgemeinschaft Schloßstraße GbR v Finanzamt Paderborn Case C-396/98 [2000] ECR I-4279, ECJ.
Johnson v Medical Defence Union [2007] EWCA Civ 262, (2007) 96 BMLR 99.
Kapniki Michaïlidis AE v Idryma Koinonikon Asfaliseon (IKA) Cases C-441/98 and C-442/98 [2000] ECR I-7145, ECJ.
Local Authorities Mutual Investment Trust v Customs and Excise Comrs [2003] EWHC 2766 (Ch), [2004] STC 246.
MacDonald v Advocate General for Scotland; Pearce v Governing Body of Mayfield School [2003] UKHL 34, [2004] 1 All ER 339, HL.
Marleasing SA v La Comercial Internacional de Alimentacion SA Case C-106/89 [1990] ECR I-4135, ECJ.
Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (No 2) Case C-271/91 [1993] 4 All ER 586, [1994] QB 126, [1993] 3 WLR 1054, [1993] ECR I-4367, ECJ.
Ministero delle Finanze v IN CO GE ‘90 Srl Cases C-10/97 and C-22/97 [1998] ECR I-6307, ECJ.
Pirelli Cable Holding NV v IRC [2006] UKHL 4, [2006] 2 All ER 81, [2006] 1 WLR 400.
R v Secretary of State for Employment, ex p Equal Opportunities Commission [1994] 1 All ER 910, [1995] 1 AC 1, [1994] 2 WLR 409, HL.
R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd (No 2) [1991] 1 All ER 70, [1991] 1 AC 603, [1990] 3 WLR 818, HL.
R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd (No 2) Case C-213/89 [1991] 1 All ER 70, [1991] 1 AC 603, [1990] 3 WLR 818, [1990] ECR I-2433, ECJ.
Revenue and Customs Comrs v IDT Card Services Ireland Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 29, [2006] STC 1252.
Rewe-Zentralfinanz GmbH v Landwirtschaftskammer für Saarland Case 33/76 [1976] ECR 1989, ECJ.
Santex SpA v Unità Socio Sanitaria Locale n 42 di Pavia C-327/00 [2004] All ER (EC) 640, [2003] ECR I-1877, ECJ.
Scottish Equitable plc v Revenue and Customs Comrs (2006) VAT Decision 19418.
Trent Taverns Ltd v Sykes (1999) Times, 5 March, CA.
Page 1066 of [2008] 1 All ER 1061
Walker-Fox v Secretary of State for Work and Pensions [2005] EWCA Civ 1441, [2005] All ER (D) 397 (Nov), (2005) Times, 8 December.
Webb v EMO Air Cargo (UK) Ltd [1992] 4 All ER 929, [1993] 1 WLR 49, HL.
Westzucker GmbH v Einfuhr- und Vorratsstelle für Zucker Case 57/72 [1973] ECR 321, ECJ.
Woolwich Equitable Building Society v IRC [1992] 3 All ER 737, [1993] AC 70, [1992] 3 WLR 366, HL.
Appeals
Fleming (trading as Bodycraft) v Revenue and Customs Commissioners
The Revenue and Customs Commissioners (formerly the Commissioners of Customs and Excise) appealed with permission of the Court of Appeal (Ward, Arden and Hallett LJJ) given on 18 March 2006 from the decision of the court on 15 February 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 70, [2006] STC 864) allowing the appeal of Michael Fleming, trading as Bodycraft, from the decision of Evans-Lombe J on 25 February 2005 ([2005] EWHC 232 (Ch), [2005] STC 707) upholding on different grounds the decision of the Value Added Tax and Duties Tribunal (chairman: John F Avery Jones) released on 23 April 2004 ([2004] V&DR 172) dismissing his appeal from the decision of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise to refuse to repay input tax paid on three new Aston Martin cars purchased in 1989 and 1990 on which he had paid value added tax. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Walker.
Condé Nast Publications Ltd v Revenue and Customs Commissioners
The Revenue and Customs Commissioners (formerly the Commissioners of Customs and Excise) appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 27 November 2006 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Chadwick, Arden and Smith LJJ) on 11 July 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 976, [2006] STC 1721) allowing the appeal of Condé Nast Publications Ltd from the decision of Warren J on 10 June 2005 ([2005] EWHC 1167 (Ch), [2005] STC 1327) affirming the decision of the Value Added Tax and Duties Tribunal (chairman: Dr David Williams) dated 7 December 2004 ((2004) VAT Decision 18869) dismissing Condé Nast’s appeal against a decision of the Commissioners of Customs and Excise contained in a letter dated 31 October 2003 by which the commissioners refused to pay to Condé Nast part of the sums claimed by it in a voluntary disclosure claim dated 27 June 2003. The claim related to amounts of input tax in respect of expenditure on staff entertainment which Condé Nast had failed to deduct when accounting for value added tax in past periods. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Walker.
Alison Foster QC and Adam Robb (instructed by the Solicitor for Revenue and Customs) for the commissioners in the Fleming appeal.
David Southern and Denis Edwards (instructed by Hepburns) for Mr Fleming.
Christopher Vajda QC and Valentina Sloane (instructed by the Solicitor for Revenue and Customs) for the commissioners in the Condé Nast appeal.
Jonathan Peacock QC and Jolyon Maugham (instructed by Forbes Hall) for Condé Nast.
Page 1067 of [2008] 1 All ER 1061
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
23 January 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD
[1] My Lords, I am grateful to my noble and learned friend, Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe, for his comprehensive description of the legislative and factual background to these appeals and his analysis of the competing arguments, and to my noble and learned friend, Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury, for his further examination of the issues that are before us in this case. I agree with both of them that the commissioners’ appeal should be dismissed in relation to Mr Fleming’s claim. I agree with Lord Neuberger, for the reasons he gives, that the commissioners’ appeal in relation to Condé Nast’s claim should also be dismissed.
[2] As Lord Walker has explained, claims for overpayment of output tax and previously unclaimed deduction of input tax are provided for by s 80 of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 and reg 29 of the Value Added Tax Regulations 1995, SI 1995/2518. As originally enacted, s 80 provided that no amount paid by way of value added tax (VAT) which was not due to the commissioners could be claimed after the expiry of six years from the date on which it was paid unless an amount had been paid by reason of a mistake, in which event a claim could be made at any time within six years from the date on which the claimant discovered the mistake or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it: s 80(4) and (5). In the ordinary course input tax should be claimed as a deduction on the return for the accounting period to which it relates. As originally drafted, reg 29 which permits claims for a deduction to be made later did not subject those claims to any time limit.
[3] An amendment to s 80(4) of the 1994 Act was enacted by s 47 of the Finance Act 1997 with effect from 18 July 1996. It reduced the six year time limit for the recovery of overpaid tax to three years and removed the exception in relation to cases of mistake. No provision was made for a transitional period during which a claim could be made in cases where a right to recovery of overpaid tax already existed. A new reg 29(1A) was inserted into reg 29 by the Value Added Tax (Amendment) Regulations 1997, SI 1997/1086 with effect from 1 May 1997. It provided that the commissioners were not to allow a claim for deduction of input tax made more than three years after the date of the return for the relevant period. In the case of this amendment too there was no transitional period.
[4] Following the decisions of the Court of Justice of the European Communities (ECJ) in Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036, [2003] QB 866, [2002] ECR I-6325 (Marks and Spencer II) and Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-255/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 176, [2002] ECR I-8003 (Grundig II) steps were taken by the commissioners, by means of announcements contained in Business Briefs, to introduce a transitional period for the making of claims for the recovery of overpaid tax under s 80. At first there was a transitional period of six months from 4 December 1996, when the amendment to s 80 was enacted to 31 March 1997, and taxpayers were given until 31 March 2003 to submit claims. Then, following the decision in Grundig II, the transitional period was extended by three months to 30 June 1997 and the period within which claims could be made was extended to 30 June 2003. The period for the making of late claims under reg 29 for
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deduction of input tax was not affected by these announcements. No similar transitional provisions have ever been introduced or announced with regard to those claims.
[5] There is no doubt that, if the time limit introduced by reg 29(1A) was to be modified in the light of the decisions in Marks and Spencer II and Grundig II by the introduction of a transitional period, the initiative lay with the commissioners and that this initiative was not taken. As Lord Walker has explained, the breach of EU law lay in the provisions of reg 29(1A) itself, not—as in the case of s 80—in charging tax contrary to EU law in the first place. The situation was complicated by the view which was insisted upon by the commissioners until a relatively late stage that claims for the deduction of input tax fell within s 80 because they were claims for amounts paid by way of VAT which were not VAT due. Whatever the reason may be, it is plain that the unmodified time limit in reg 29(1A) is incompatible with EU law because it is retrospective and because it makes no provision for any transitional arrangements: Marks and Spencer II ([2002] STC 1036 at 1046, [2003] QB 866 at 876, para 38 of the judgment); Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8027–8028, para 37 of the judgment). This much was common ground in these appeals.
[6] The question which your Lordships must resolve is how to apply the guidance that was given in Marks and Spencer II and Grundig II in order to make good the lack of a transitional period for the application of reg 29 to accrued claims resulting from a failure to deduct input tax. Legislation that is incompatible with EU law must be disapplied. But can the court go further and make good the defect which has led to its disapplication? The problem is far from easy, as the division of opinion in the courts below and in this House so clearly demonstrates. The possible choices were identified by Mr Vajda QC’s (counsel for the commissioners) helpful analyses, which Lord Walker has set out in [50]–[53] of his opinion. Underlying these possible choices is a more fundamental point, which I would express in this way. Where national legislation is defective because it lacks the transitional arrangements that are necessary under EU law, is it for the national court to make good the deficiency by devising such transitional arrangements as it may regard as appropriate? Or must this be left to the legislature or, following the example of what was done in regard to s 80 by means of announcements in Business Briefs, to the commissioners?
[7] Two situations can, I think, be distinguished, although there is no difference in principle between them. One is where transitional arrangements have been included in a measure that reduces a pre-existing time limit for the making of claims but those arrangements are found to be inadequate because the period allowed is too short. The other, which is this case, is where there was originally no time limit for the making of claims at all and no transitional arrangements have been included in the measure that introduces one. In both cases the retrospective time limit is unenforceable as there is no adequate transitional period. But there is a difference in degree between them which affects the ability of the court to make good the defect.
[8] The decision in Grundig II deals with the first situation. It tells us that the fact that the national court has found that a transitional period fixed by the legislature is insufficient does not necessarily mean that the reduced period for initiating claims cannot be applied at all (see [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029, para 41 of the judgment). The national court cannot apply the inadequate transitional period to claims made with regard to rights accrued
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before the entry into force of the legislation which introduced the time limit. But it is open to the court, as the ECJ did in that case, to make its own assessment of what in accordance with EU law is an adequate transitional period during which the new time limit is not to be applied retrospectively. The reasoning in para 41 shows that the ECJ was satisfied that the making of a relatively modest adjustment to the prescribed period was not inconsistent with the principle of effectiveness.
[9] The other situation is that which applies in the case of these two appeals. Here too the guiding principle is that of effectiveness. Account must also be taken of the principle of protection of legitimate expectations: see Marks and Spencer II ([2002] STC 1036 at 1047, [2003] QB 866 at 877, para 47 of the judgment). The principle of legitimate expectations is infringed by the retrospective introduction of a time limit for the making of claims retrospectively. But this will not be in breach of EU law so long as transitional arrangements are included which allow an adequate period for the lodging of claims which persons were entitled to submit under the original legislation: Marks and Spencer II ([2002] STC 1036 at 1046, [2003] QB 866 at 876, para 38 of the judgment). Sufficient notice of these transitional arrangements must be given to ensure that the exercise of those accrued rights is not rendered virtually impossible or excessively difficult. Unless this is done there will be a breach of the principle of effectiveness.
[10] I would not rule out the possibility, in a suitable case, of the court reaching its own decision as to what would be a reasonable time for the making of claims and rejecting claims that were made after a period which it held to be reasonable. But I do not think that the situation disclosed by these appeals lends itself to that treatment. In my opinion this is a step too far for the court to take. The issue is not one of statutory interpretation, for which the court must accept responsibility. There is a gap in the legislation which is unfilled. The infringement of EU law in this respect cannot be said to have been comparatively minor or inadvertent, such as would enable greater weight to be attached to State’s need for legal certainty in matters of taxation: see Fantask A/S v Industriministeriet (Erhvervministeriet) Case C-188/95 [1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 19–20, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6810, para 69 of the opinion of Advocate General Jacobs. The primary responsibility for giving a clear indication to taxpayers as to where they stood with regard to the making of claims despite the retrospective introduction of the time limit lay with the legislature and the executive.
[11] To be compatible with EU law, taxpayers were entitled to be told in advance of any transitional arrangements that would enable them to submit late accrued claims for the deduction of input tax despite the introduction of the time limit. They were entitled to be given sufficient notice to familiarise themselves with the new regime, including the period of grace that was to be allowed for the submission of accrued claims during a transitional period: Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028, para 40 of the judgment). This was necessary to give effect to the principle of effectiveness. Not all taxpayers affected by a system whose reach is as wide as VAT can be assumed to have been aware of the development of the relevant case law or, even if they were aware of the case law, to have understood the effect of it. Some may have appreciated that they could claim a period of disapplication, but some might not. Such indications as were available to them through the Business Briefs suggested that, in most cases, any such claims would be rejected by the commissioners. I do not think
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that the gap in the legislation can be made good on a case by case basis. The nature of the defect is such that a single solution is required that can reasonably be applied to all taxpayers.
[12] For these reasons, and for those explained more fully by Lord Neuberger, I would hold that the period has not yet begun and that it is for Parliament or the commissioners, if they choose to do so by means of an announcement disseminated to all taxpayers, to introduce prospectively an adequate transitional period. Until that is done the three year time limit must be disapplied in the case of all claims for the deduction of input tax that had accrued before the introduction of the time limit. I would apply that reasoning to Mr Fleming’s case as well as that of Condé Nast. I would dismiss both appeals.
LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE
[13] My Lords, I have had the very great advantage of reading in advance the opinions on these appeals of my noble and learned friends, Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe and Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury. They have set out comprehensively the legislative and factual background to the appeals and, leaving aside the critical issue as to what courts in this jurisdiction can properly do to remedy a breach brought about by national legislation, primary or secondary, of rights of individuals and companies under European law, I find myself in complete and respectful agreement with the conclusions they have expressed. On that critical issue, where the conclusions of my noble and learned friends diverge, I am, subject to one minor qualification, in agreement with Lord Neuberger. I would, therefore, dismiss the appeals of the commissioners both in the Fleming appeal and in the Condé Nast appeal. In the circumstances I can confine myself in this opinion simply to addressing that critical issue.
[14] It was held by the Court of Appeal in University of Sussex v Customs and Excise Comrs [2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1 (University of Sussex), dismissing an appeal against the judgment of Neuberger J (as my noble and learned friend then was) (see [2001] STC 1495), that claims for the repayment by the commissioners of input tax that could have, but had not, been claimed by the taxpayer in a previous accounting period had to be made under reg 29(1) of the Value Added Tax Regulations 1995, SI 1995/2518 (the 1995 Regulations) rather than under s 80 of the Value Added Tax Act 1994. The significance of this was that whereas claims under s 80 for the recovery of value added tax (VAT) paid but not due were subject to a six year time limit (s 80(4)), claims under reg 29(1) were not subject to any time limit at all. They could be brought no matter how long ago the input tax had been paid by the claimant. The commissioners did not apply to this House for leave to appeal against the Court of Appeal’s decision and have not challenged it in these appeals.
[15] On 18 July 1996 the government announced that the time limit for claims under s 80 to recover overpaid VAT would be reduced from six to three years. The amendment was made by s 47 of the Finance Act 1997 with effect from 18 July 1996. There was no transitional provision. Similarly reg 29 of the 1995 Regulations was amended by the addition of para (1A) which imposed a three year time limit within which claims for the repayment of input tax had to be made (see the Value Added Tax (Amendment) Regulations 1997, SI 1997/1080). The three years would run from the date by which the VAT return for the accounting period in which the claim to deduct the input tax in question ought to have been included had to be made. Regulation 29(1A) came
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into force on 1 May 1997 and here, too, there was no transitional provision. The effect of this amendment was that, on 1 May 1997, input tax that had been paid earlier than 1 May 1994, and in respect of which valid repayment claims could have been made, became immediately irrecoverable and that in respect of claims for the repayment of input tax that had been paid between 1 May 1994 and 1 May 1997 the period within which they could be brought would be, depending on when the input tax had been paid, progressively less than three years from 1 May 1997. There would, for example, be one month only after 1 May 1997 within which a claim for repayment of input tax paid on 1 June 1994 could be claimed.
[16] Challenges to the reduction of the time limit for s 80 claims from six to three years and to the introduction of the three year time limit for reg 29 claims followed. The challenges were not to the three year time limits as such but to the absence of any transitional periods. The challenge regarding the reduction of the s 80 time limit from six years to three years was considered by the Court of Justice of the European Communities (ECJ) in Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036, [2003] QB 866, [2002] ECR I-6325 (Marks and Spencer II). The ECJ held that the reduction of the time limit without an adequate transitional provision was ‘incompatible with the principle of effectiveness and the protection of legitimate expectations’ (see [2002] STC 1036 at 1047, [2003] QB 866 at 877, para 47 of the judgment). In para 38 the ECJ said ([2002] STC 1036 at 1046, [2003] QB 866 at 876) that transitional arrangements allowing an adequate period for lodging claims for repayment which persons would have been entitled to submit under the original legislation—
‘are necessary where the immediate application to those claims of a limitation period shorter than that which was previously in force would have the effect of retroactively depriving some individuals of their right to repayment, or of allowing them too short a period for asserting that right.’
And the ECJ said that, in order to serve the purpose of legal certainty, ‘limitation periods must be fixed in advance’ (see [2002] STC 1036 at 1046, [2003] QB 866 at 876, para 39 of the judgment).
[17] It is not in dispute that a consequence of the ECJ decision in Marks and Spencer II to which I have referred was that in the absence of any transitional provisions neither the reduced time limit applicable to s 80 claims nor the introduction of the time limit for reg 29 claims could be retrospectively applied to claims for repayments that had accrued before these changes had come into effect. It is common ground, also, that it is for individual member states and not for the ECJ to prescribe the means by which Directives are to be carried into effect in national law (see [2002] STC 1036 at 1045, [2003] QB 866 at 875, para 34 of the judgment—cited by Lord Walker at [29] of his opinion). The ECJ can rule as to whether that has been properly done and can provide guidance as to what is required, but it is for member states to decide how to do it. Some guidance as to what might be required to remedy the deficiencies in the amended s 80 and reg 29 that the ECJ’s Marks and Spencer II decision had disclosed is to be found in the ECJ’s judgment on 24 September 2002 in Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-255/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 176, [2002] ECR I-8003 (Grundig II), referred to by Lord Walker at [44] of his opinion. In para 41 of the judgment ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029, cited by Lord Walker) the ECJ concluded that, for the purposes of Italian legislation extending the
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scope of a five year limitation period, a transitional period of six months would have been adequate.
[18] The commissioners’ reaction to these ECJ decisions was to publish two Business Briefs. The first, Business Brief 22/02, published on 5 August 2002, allowed an extra period of about four months within which certain categories of s 80 claims could be made; the second, Business Brief 27/02, published on 8 October 2002, added a further three months for these claims to be brought. Neither of these Business Briefs made any reference to reg 29.
[19] The commissioners’ contention on the appeals now before the House, based on para 41 of the ECJ’s Grundig II judgment, is that ‘Community law requires only that the time limit be disapplied to claims brought within a reasonable period from the introduction of the time limit’. They contend that if a claimant ‘does not make a claim until several years after the imposition of the time limit, then the time limit can be applied to the claim in the interests of finality and certainty’ (see para 20 of their written case). These contentions cannot, in my opinion, be accepted. Immediately prior to the addition of para (1A) to reg 29, both Mr Fleming and Condé Nast had rights to recover input tax from the commissioners without any time limit for the bringing of their claims. That was part of the VAT regime that United Kingdom national law had put in place. The addition of para (1A) purported to invalidate those claims forthwith, with no prior notice or warning given. At first sight there would seem to be no answer to the contention advanced by Mr Fleming and Condé Nast that in relation to their respective claims para (1A) must therefore be disapplied. The commissioners accept that, in relation to input tax paid before 1 May 1997, para (1A) must be disapplied to some, but not all, reg 29 claims. A distinction, they contend, must be drawn between claims made within a reasonable time after 1 May 1997 and claims not made within that reasonable time. Only in relation to the former must para (1A) be disapplied. Mr Vajda QC, counsel for the commissioners, has put before your Lordships two alternatives for the purpose of determining what that reasonable time would be. His first alternative was that the reasonable period should be six months from 1 May 1997. This was based on the six months extra that the two Business Briefs had allowed for certain s 80 claims. Mr Vajda’s second alternative was that the period should be six months from the date on which a taxpayer could be expected to have become aware of the ECJ’s Marks and Spencer II judgment.
[20] My Lords, I would, for my part, reject the premise on which these two alternatives are based. The United Kingdom instituted a VAT scheme for the repayment by the commissioners of input tax that enabled claims for repayment to be made without limit of time. That was a surprising, and perhaps unintended, feature of the scheme but was a lawful feature. There is no suggestion that the scheme failed properly to implement EC Council Directive 77/388 of 17 May 1977 on the harmonisation of the laws of the member states relating to turnover taxes—common system of value added tax: uniform basis of assessment (the Sixth Directive). The scheme was then amended by the introduction of a three year time limit that was to apply not only prospectively but also retrospectively with no transitional period during which those, like Mr Fleming and Condé Nast, who had been sitting on their claims, would be able to take into account the change in the law and bring their claims before they became time barred. Whether a reasonable transitional period for claims to be brought that on 1 May 1997 were already at least three years old should have six
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months, twelve months or some other period from 1 May 1997 is open to argument but is not in point. The important fact is that there was no transitional period. The VAT regime is not judge made and is not made by the commissioners. It is a statutory scheme consisting of primary legislation made by Parliament and secondary legislation made by others under powers conferred by Parliament. The commissioners have management powers conferred by Parliament but these powers do not extend to enabling the commissioners to amend the statutory scheme. The Business Briefs published by the commissioners can properly be regarded as published pursuant to the commissioners’ management powers but are not a means enabling the commissioners to amend the VAT regime made by primary and secondary legislation. The two Business Briefs, to which reference has been made in this opinion, contained provisions purporting to extend the period within which certain s 80 claims which had accrued to the taxpayers before the amendment to s 80(4) came into effect could be brought. These provisions have been described as ‘concessions’. They are, my Lords, nothing of the sort. If European law does not recognise the validity of a United Kingdom statutory limitation period in relation to a certain class of VAT claim it is not a ‘concession’ for those charged with the management of the scheme to purport to amend the scheme by allowing some of those whose claims would be barred by the invalid provision to have some additional period to bring their claims. In EC Commission v United Kingdom, another VAT case, the ECJ said (see Case C-33/03 [2005] STC 582 at 596, [2005] ECR I-1865 at 1891–1892, para 25 of the judgment):
‘it is settled case law that the incompatibility of national legislation with Community provisions can be finally remedied only by means of national provisions of a binding nature which have the same legal force as those which must be amended. Mere administrative practices cannot be regarded as constituting the proper fulfilment of obligations under Community law . . .’
The United Kingdom’s obligation is to put in place a legal scheme for the bringing of claims for repayment of input tax. Regulation 29 constitutes the legal scheme. If, as is the case, para (1A) cannot, consistently with Community law, be applied against a certain class of taxpayers, into which class both Mr Fleming and Condé Nast fall, the defect cannot, in my opinion, be cured by ‘mere administrative practices’. The Business Briefs fall, in my opinion, under that heading.
[21] It is argued, alternatively, that the court can and should fix the duration of an extra period, a transitional period, that must be allowed to claimants whose pre-1 May 1997 claims would otherwise be barred by para (1A). It is, to me, a surprising proposition that the court can, by judicial legislation, add a transitional period in order to cure the invalidity of a statutory provision that would not otherwise comply with European law and be enforceable against certain claimants. There are, to my mind, several objections to the proposition. First, it is not the function of judges to legislate. Second, the principle that people must be expected to know the law and conduct their affairs in accordance with the law can hardly apply to a judicial amendment to primary or secondary legislation that, until it is made known in the judge’s pronounced judgment, is held in pectore. The objection to retrospective legislation would apply here too. Third, the important principle of certainty can hardly be satisfied. The terms of
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the judicial amendment might change as the case travelled up the appellate chain. And the ability of this House to depart from previous decisions would need to be kept in mind.
[22] The notion that a court can add a transitional provision to reg 29(1A), and thereby avoid the need to disapply the paragraph in relation to reg 29 claims based on some pre-1 May 1997 input tax payments, appears to derive from language used by the ECJ in paras 40 to 43, but particularly para 41, of the judgment in Grundig II (see [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191–192, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028–8029). These paragraphs are set out in Lord Walker’s opinion (see [44]). In para 41 of the judgment the ECJ said that the fact that a national court had held a transitional period fixed by its national legislature to be insufficient did not necessarily mean that the new limitation period could not be applied retrospectively at all, and continued (see [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191–192, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029):
‘The principle of effectiveness merely requires that such retroactive application should not go beyond what is necessary in order to ensure observance of that principle. It must, therefore, be permissible to apply the new period for initiating proceedings to actions brought after expiry of an adequate transitional period, assessed at six months in a case such as the present, even where those actions concern the recovery of sums paid before the entry into force of the legislation laying down the new period.’
My Lords, the ECJ in this passage was dealing with the principle of effectiveness. But that is not the only principle in play. The principle of certainty, too, must be taken into account. Taxpayers are entitled to know from the statutory scheme what input tax repayment claims they can bring under reg 29. In the absence of any statutory transitional provision, how are they to know whether pre 1 May 1997 claims that are more than three years old can be brought or, as to claims based on input tax paid between 1 May 1994 and 1 May 1997, within what period they can be brought? It is no answer to the requirement of certainty to be told that the claims can be brought within ‘an adequate transitional period.' There is also the constitutional point, which may or may not apply to judges sitting in Italian courts. It is the function of judges sitting in United Kingdom courts to construe primary and secondary legislation. It is the function of judges sitting in United Kingdom courts to disapply United Kingdom legislation that is inconsistent with Community law. It is not the function of judges sitting in United Kingdom courts to amend United Kingdom legislation that is inconsistent with Community law. Moreover, the passage I have already cited from the ECJ judgment in EC Commission v United Kingdom seems to me pertinent here too (see [2005] STC 582 at 596, [2005] ECR I-1865 at 1891–1892, para 25 of the judgment):
‘incompatibility of national legislation with Community provisions can be finally remedied only by means of national provisions of a binding nature which have the same legal force as those which must be amended.’
‘Mere administrative practices’ cannot do this. Nor can judges.
[23] Accordingly, I would dismiss both appeals.
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LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE
DISAPPLICATION OF NATIONAL LEGISLATION
[24] My Lords, it is a fundamental principle of the law of the European Union (EU), recognised in s 2(1) of the European Communities Act 1972, that if national legislation infringes directly enforceable Community rights, the national court is obliged to disapply the offending provision. The provision is not made void but it must be treated as being (as Lord Bridge of Harwich put it in Factortame Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [1989] 2 All ER 692 at 701, [1990] 2 AC 85 at 140):
‘without prejudice to the directly enforceable Community rights of nationals of any member state of the EEC.’
The principle has often been recognised your Lordships’ House, including (in the context of taxes) Imperial Chemical Industries plc v Colmer (Inspector of Taxes) [2000] 1 All ER 129 at 133–134, [1999] 1 WLR 2035 at 2041 per Lord Nolan, and recently Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2005] UKHL 54 at [16]–[17], [2005] 4 All ER 1141 at [16]–[17], [2006] 1 AC 118, per Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead.
[25] Disapplication is called for only if there is an inconsistency between national law and EU law. In an attempt to avoid an inconsistency the national court will, if at all possible, interpret the national legislation so as to make it conform to the superior order of EU law: Pickstone v Freemans plc [1988] 2 All ER 803, [1989] AC 66; Litster v Forth Dry Dock & Engineering Co Ltd (in receivership) [1989] 1 All ER 1134, [1990] 1 AC 546. Sometimes, however, a conforming construction is not possible, and disapplication cannot be avoided. Disapplication of national legislation is an essentially different process from its interpretation so as to conform with EU law. Only in the most formal sense (because of the terms of s 2(4) of the European Communities Act 1972) can disapplication be described as a process of construction. In these two appeals it is common ground, at least in your Lordships’ House, that the national court is concerned with disapplication, not with trying to find a conforming construction. This important distinction has been to some extent overlooked in the Court of Appeal.
[26] The admitted infringement of directly enforceable Community rights occurred when, by a series of legislative steps taken between July 1996 and May 1997, Parliament and the Commissioners of Customs and Excise (now the Commissioners for Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs—‘the commissioners’) took action to reduce severely the time within which taxpayers could make claims for repayment of value added tax (VAT). These steps (which I shall describe collectively as ‘the 1996–7 amendments’) are described in more detail below. For present purposes their most significant feature is that they applied to claims in respect of amounts of VAT already paid, as well as to future payments; and (with one trifling exception on which the commissioners place no reliance) they contained no transitional provisions. So a taxpayer might, at the beginning of July 1996, have had until July 1998 to make a claim for repayment of VAT overpaid in July 1992; the changes appeared to deprive him of any possibility of recovering the tax since there was no transitional period, however brief, for putting in a last-minute claim. There was a further complication, which I shall have to come back to, as to whether the taxpayer should, if his claim was for repayment of input tax, have made his claim under s 80 of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 or under reg 29 of the Value Added Tax Regulations 1995, SI 1995/2518.
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[27] In order to explain why the 1996–7 amendments infringed EU law it is necessary to refer to EC Council Directive 77/388 of 17 May 1977 on the harmonisation of the laws of the member states relating to turnover taxes—common system of value added tax: uniform basis of assessment (the Sixth Directive). The Sixth Directive has now been consolidated in EC Council Directive 2006/112 of 28 November 2006 on the common system of value added tax (the Principal VAT Directive) but it is convenient to refer to its provisions in the same way as in the judgments below. The 1994 Act and the 1995 Regulations (and other regulations not material to these appeals) represent the transposition into national law of the Sixth Directive (and other EU legislation relating to VAT). Articles 17 and 18 of the Sixth Directive are in Title XI, dealing with deductions. These two articles provide the legislative foundation for one of the essential features of VAT, that is the passing on of input tax, to be credited against output tax, along a chain of traders (for instance a supplier of components, a manufacturer, a wholesale distributor and a retailer) until the final output tax is borne by the ultimate consumer. Generally a trader’s credit for input tax is obtained by deduction from his output tax, but some traders with a large turnover in zero-rated goods (such as most foodstuffs) may be ‘repayment traders’—that is, they regularly or occasionally pay amounts of input tax which exceed their output tax, so as to entitle them to a repayment of input tax. By contrast ‘payment traders’ will as a rule simply deduct input tax on making their regular quarterly returns under reg 25 of the 1995 Regulations.
[28] These points are discussed and explained in much more detail in the judgments in University of Sussex v Customs and Excise Comrs of Neuberger J (as he then was) (see [2001] STC 1495 at 1500–1514, paras [11]–[72]) and Auld LJ (see [2003] EWCA Civ 1448 at [108]–[152], [2004] STC 1 at [108]–[152]). For present purposes it is enough to set out the relevant parts of art 18 of the Sixth Directive (as amended by EC Council Directive 91/680 of 16 December 1991 supplementing the common system of value added tax and amending directive 77/388/EEC with a view to the abolition of fiscal frontiers):
‘1. To exercise his right of deduction, a taxable person must:
(a) in respect of deductions pursuant to Article 17(2)(a) [ordinary input tax], hold an invoice drawn up in accordance with Article 22(3) . . .
2. The taxable person shall effect the deduction by subtracting from the total amount of value added tax due for a given tax period the total amount of the tax in respect of which, during the same period, the right to deduct has arisen and can be exercised under the provisions of paragraph 1 . . .
3. Member States shall determine the conditions and procedures whereby a taxable person may be authorised to make a deduction which he has not made in accordance with the provisions of paragraphs 1 and 2 . . .
4. Where for a given tax period the amount of authorised deductions exceeds the amount of tax due, the Member States may either make a refund or carry the excess forward to the following period according to conditions which they shall determine.’
It is common ground that art 18 gives taxpayers directly enforceable Community rights. The United Kingdom has opted (under art 18(4)) to permit refunds; and it has carried out its task, under art 18(3), of laying down the ‘conditions and procedures’ for obtaining credit for input tax which is not dealt with by the
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normal, regular procedure in paras (1) and (2) of art 18 (that is, by having a proper tax invoice as a voucher and by deducting the input tax from output tax payable in respect of the same quarterly accounting period).
[29] In the United Kingdom the ‘conditions and procedures’ authorised by art 18(3) included, before the 1996–7 amendments, time limits which did not offend EU law. EU law recognises that time limits for claims are permissible so long as they do not infringe the principles of equivalence and effectiveness, which are basic principles of EU law. The Court of Justice of the European Communities (ECJ) stated in Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036 at 1058, [2003] QB 866 at 889–890, paras 34–36 of the judgment (Marks and Spencer II):
‘The principle of effectiveness
34. It should be recalled at the outset that in the absence of Community rules on the repayment of national charges wrongly levied it is for the domestic legal system of each member state to designate the courts and tribunals having jurisdiction and to lay down the detailed procedural rules governing actions for safeguarding rights which individuals derive from Community law, provided, first, that such rules are not less favourable than those governing similar domestic actions (the principle of equivalence) and, second, that they do not render virtually impossible or excessively difficult the exercise of rights conferred by Community law (the principle of effectiveness) (see, inter alia, Aprile Srl (in liquidation) v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato (No 2) (Case C-228/96) [2000] 1 WLR 126, para 18, and the judgments in Dilexport Srl v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato [1999] ECR I-579, para 25, and Metallgesellschaft Ltd and ors v IRC and Attorney General; Hoechst AG and anor v IRC and Attorney General (Joined cases C-397/98 and C-410/98) [2001] All ER (EC) 496, [2001] Ch 620, para 85).
35. As regards the latter principle, the court has held that in the interests of legal certainty, which protects both the taxpayer and the administration, it is compatible with Community law to lay down reasonable time limits for bringing proceedings (see Aprile Srl (in liquidation) v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato (No 2) (Case C-228/96) [2000] 1 WLR 126, para 19, and the case law cited therein). Such time limits are not liable to render virtually impossible or excessively difficult the exercise of the rights conferred by Community law. In that context, a national limitation period of three years which runs from the date of the contested payment appears to be reasonable (see, in particular, Aprile, para 19, and Dilexport Srl v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato [1999] ECR I-579, para 26).
36. Moreover, it is clear from the judgments in Aprile Srl (in liquidation) v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato (No 2) [2000] 1 WLR 126, para 28 and Dilexport Srl v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato [1999] ECR I-579, paras 41–42 that national legislation curtailing the period within which recovery may be sought of sums charged in breach of Community law is, subject to certain conditions, compatible with Community law. First, it must not be intended specifically to limit the consequences of a judgment of the court to the effect that national legislation concerning a specific tax is incompatible with Community law. Secondly, the time set for its application must be sufficient to ensure that the right to repayment is effective. In that
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connection, the court has held that legislation which is not in fact retrospective in scope complies with that condition.’
[30] In Marks and Spencer II the ECJ held that one part of the 1996–7 amendments (that is the amendment of s 80 of the 1994 Act) did infringe EU law. These appeals are concerned with the admitted infringement caused by the other part of the amendments, those affecting reg 29 of the 1995 Regulations. It is unfortunately necessary to make a digression from the main course in order to address this complication.
Section 80 and reg 29
[31] Before the 1996–7 amendments s 80 of the 1994 Act provided as follows:
‘(1) Where a person has (whether before or after the commencement of this Act) paid an amount to the Commissioners by way of VAT which was not VAT due to them, they shall be liable to repay the amount to him.
(2) The Commissioners shall only be liable to repay an amount under this section on a claim being made for the purpose.
(3) It shall be a defence, in relation to a claim under this section, that repayment of an amount would unjustly enrich the claimant.
(4) No amount shall be claimed under this section after the expiry of 6 years from the date on which it was paid, except where subsection (5) below applies.
(5) Where an amount has been paid to the Commissioners by reason of a mistake, a claim for the repayment of the amount under this section may be made at any time before the expiry of 6 years from the date on which the claimant discovered the mistake or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.
(6) A claim under this section shall be made in such form and manner and shall be supported by such documentary evidence as the Commissioners prescribe by regulations; and regulations under this subsection may make different provision for different cases.
(7) Except as provided by this section, the Commissioners shall not be liable to repay an amount paid to them by way of VAT by virtue of the fact that it was not VAT due to them.’
Thus there was a six year period for claims, capable of extension where a mistake had been made. Section 80 was directed, it should be emphasised, to a payment ‘which was not VAT due to [the commissioners]’.
[32] Before the amendments reg 29, so far as material, provided as follows:
‘Claims for input tax
29(1) Subject to paragraph (2) below, and save as the Commissioners may otherwise allow or direct either generally or specially, a person claiming deduction of input tax under section 25(2) of [the 1994 Act] shall do so on a return made by him for the prescribed accounting period in which the VAT became chargeable.
(2) At the time of claiming deduction of input tax in accordance with paragraph (1) above, a person shall, if the claim is in respect of—(a) a supply from another taxable person, hold the document which is required to be provided under regulation 13 . . .’
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There was no time limit other than the commissioners’ discretion in cases outside s 25(2). Section 25(2) provided for the normal procedure by which a ‘payment trader’ claimed credit for input tax by means of deduction on the making of his quarterly return. It was not therefore obvious (to say the least) that reg 29 was providing for the less normal case of a payment trader claiming credit otherwise than under s 25(2), still less for a ‘repayment trader’ claiming a refund of input tax. Indeed the commissioners’ considered view was that reg 29 did not apply to those cases. That was the point that was litigated as far as the Court of Appeal in the University of Sussex case (see [2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1). The commissioners did not attempt to bring University of Sussex on appeal to this House but its determined stance as far as the Court of Appeal is a significant complication in these appeals.
[33] In order to illustrate how the problem was perceived in 2001, and at the risk of excessive raking through ashes that are now cold, I set out the thoughts of Neuberger J in University of Sussex (see [2001] STC 1495 at 1506–1507):
‘[42] The issue does not appear to me to be straightforward. There is obvious force in the commissioners’ simple point that, whether caused by too high a figure for output tax or too low a figure for input tax, a consequential payment by a tax payer to the commissioners is “an amount . . . by way of VAT which was not VAT due . . .”. In other words, where a payment trader pays a sum to the commissioners, that sum is arrived at by taking into account both his output tax and his input tax for the relevant period, and the net figure is the VAT he pays, and in so far as that figure is too high, he is entitled to reclaim it, pursuant to, and subject to the provisions of, s 80.
[43] So far as repayment traders are concerned, it is common ground that they cannot fall within s 80; that is because by definition, they will not have “paid the Commissioners . . . VAT”. The 1994 Act does not appear specifically to consider repayment traders who have under-claimed input tax. Sections 25(2) and 26(1) provide that a taxpayer is liable to take into account input tax in his return for the period during which the supplies were actually provided (see in particular the bracketed words in section 26(1)). The 1994 Act contains no provision equivalent to s 80 so far as repayment traders are concerned. However, s 25(1)—echoed in the opening words of s 25(2)—indicates that it is contemplated that regulations will or may be introduced to deal with cases where inputs are not claimed for the relevant period in accordance with s 26(1).
[44] When one turns to the 1995 regulations, it seems to me, indeed it appears to be common ground, that reg 29 does enable a repayment trader, who has understated his input tax, to make a late claim for under-claimed input tax, albeit in terms which are pretty unspecific, particularly when contrasted with s 80. Regulation 29(1) appears to make it clear that the input tax should in principle be claimed in the return relating to the period in which the relevant goods or services were provided. However, the words “save as the Commissioners may otherwise allow” indicate that this does not represent an absolute requirement. That point appears to me to be supported by the provisions of s 25(1) and reg 25(5), and indeed by art 18(3) of the Sixth Directive. Accordingly, at least until reg 29(1A) was introduced, the commissioners enjoyed a relatively unfettered discretion as to whether,
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and if so how, to accommodate a repayment trader whose original return understated the input tax, and who subsequently claimed a credit or payment in respect of that input tax.’
[34] Neuberger J went on to conclude, in his judgment given on 10 October 2001, that s 80 did not cover a late claim to deduct input tax, observing (see [2001] STC 1495 at 1511–1512, para [63])—
‘although the taxpayer could have paid less VAT pursuant to the earlier return if he had claimed all his input tax, that fact does not render any of the VAT so paid “VAT [not] due to the Commissioners”.’
The Court of Appeal (Auld and Chadwick LJJ and Newman J) upheld that decision in a judgment given on 21 October 2003 (see [2003] EWCA Civ 1448 at [107] ff, [2004] STC 1, at [107] ff). It had been hoped that the appeal would be heard sooner but it was listed with the second Court of Appeal hearing in Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs [2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1 (Marks and Spencer III) following the decision of the ECJ in Marks and Spencer II. This delayed the disposal of the appeal in University of Sussex.
[35] In the course of the part of his judgment dealing with University of Sussex, Auld LJ observed ([2004] STC 1 at [134]) that the issue was essentially a matter of United Kingdom law; as a matter of EU law, in transposing arts 17 and 18 of the Sixth Directive, s 80 could have been framed so as to fit either of the competing views. But that does not mean that on the national legislation as actually enacted, the unjustified refusal of a s 80 claim and the unjustified refusal of a reg 29 claim can be assumed to be equally serious breaches of EU law. In some of the s 80 claims the breach consisted, not merely of curtailing the taxpayer’s right to obtain a refund of VAT, but of charging the VAT in the first place, as the result of official misinterpretation or misapplication of the VAT legislation. The VAT which was considered by the ECJ in Marks and Spencer II was unlawfully exacted in the first place. It was always ‘VAT not due’. So for Marks and Spencer the 1996–7 amendments were an exacerbation of an existing breach. In these appeals, by contrast, the amendments themselves were the only breach.
The 1996–7 amendments
[36] During 1996, partly because of the Marks and Spencer litigation described below and partly, perhaps, because of the opinions given by Advocate General Fennelly on 27 June 1996 in Argos Distributors Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C–288/94 [1996] STC 1359 at 1361, [1997] QB 499 at 515 and Elida Gibbs Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C–317/94 [1996] STC 1387 at 1389–1390, [1997] QB 499 at 545 (both cases about vouchers), the commissioners expected to be faced with claims for repayment of large amounts of output tax, some of it going back for many years. On 18 July 1996 the Paymaster General announced in the House of Commons that s 80 of the 1994 Act would be amended from that date for past as well as future overpayments of tax. This proposal became effective on 3 December 1996 under the Provisional Collection of Taxes 1968, and was enacted by s 47 of the Finance Act 1997, which received the Royal Assent on 19 March 1997. Section 80(4) was amended so as to provide:
‘The Commissioners shall not be liable, on a claim made under this section, to repay any amount paid to them more than three years before the making of the claim.’
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Section 47(2) of the Finance Act 1997 provided that this amendment:
‘shall be deemed to have come into force on 18th July 1996 as a provision applying, for the purposes of the making of any repayment on or after that date, to all claims under section 80 of [the 1994 Act], including claims made before that date and claims relating to payments made before that date.’
[37] Regulation 29 was amended by the Value Added Tax (Amendment) Regulations 1997, SI 1997/1086. The amending regulations were made on 25 March 1997, laid before Parliament (subject to negative resolution) on the following day, and announced in a Business Brief published by the commissioners on the day after that. They came into force on 1 May 1997. They inserted a new reg 29(1A):
‘The Commissioners shall not allow or direct a person to make any claim for deduction of input tax in terms such that the deduction would fall to be claimed more than 3 years after the date by which the return for the prescribed accounting period in which the VAT became chargeable is required to be made.’
The Business Brief (9/97) reflected the restrictive view which the commissioners took, at that time, as to the scope of reg 29.
THE MARKS AND SPENCER LITIGATION
[38] The amendment made by s 47 of the 1997 Act was challenged by Marks and Spencer in very complex litigation commenced by two separate notices of appeal against the refusal of repayment claims, one (in respect of tea cakes) given on 17 August 1995 and the other (in respect of vouchers) given at the end of October 1996, just after the ECJ judgment in Argos Distributors Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs (Case C–288/94) [1996] STC 1359, [1997] QB 499. That litigation is still going on, since in July 2005 your Lordships’ House reluctantly made a second reference to the ECJ (see Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs [2005] UKHL 53, [2005] STC 1254 (Marks and Spencer IV)) in which a summary of the whole litigation will be found at [27]–[50]. A much shorter summary will suffice for present purposes.
[39] In defining the main stages of the litigation I have adopted the system of designation used in the printed case for the respondent Condé Nast Publications Ltd (Condé Nast), the respondent in the second appeal. This system passes over the linked appeals heard successively by the Value Added Tax and Duties Tribunal ([1997] V&DR 85, [1997] V&DR 344, [1998] V&DR 93, [1998] V&DR 235) and Moses J ([1999] STC 205) and designates the first hearing by the Court of Appeal (Stuart-Smith, Ward and Schiemann LJJ) ([2000] STC 16) as Marks and Spencer I. In its judgment delivered on 14 December 1999 the Court of Appeal decided to make a reference to the ECJ on part only of one of the appeals, that is the so-called ‘early vouchers’ claim. The ECJ gave judgment on this reference on 11 July 2002 (see Marks and Spencer II Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036, [2003] QB 866). Its judgment covered a wider field than the narrow question referred by the Court of Appeal, and the ECJ was rather critical of the narrowness of the reference. I have already referred to the second hearing before the Court of Appeal (Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs [2004] STC 1) (Marks and Spencer III) and the further reference to the ECJ in Marks and Spencer IV ([2005] STC 1254). For present purposes the most material part of the judgment
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in Marks and Spencer II is the decision that the amendment of s 80 of the 1994 Act infringed the principle of effectiveness and was in breach of EU law. I have already quoted paras 34–36 of the judgment, which are central to the decision. The ECJ held that s 80 was also in breach of the principle of the protection of legitimate expectations (see [2002] STC 1036, [2003] QB 866, paras 43–46 of the judgment).
[40] The commissioners responded to the judgment by granting an extension of time for making s 80 claims. The extension was however, as explained below, itself retrospective. It was announced by Business Brief 22/02 (BB 22/02) published on 5 August 2002. This announcement did not have any specific statutory force, but it has not been suggested that it was not within the commissioners’ general powers of care and management of VAT under s 58 of, and Sch 11 to, the 1994 Act.
[41] The ‘transitional regime’ announced by the commissioners was a period of nearly four months, from 4 December 1996 to 31 March 1997. It covered three categories of case: (1) where a claim had been made before 31 March 1997, but had been capped by the amending legislation; (2) where a claim had been made and paid before 31 March 1997, but had been clawed back by a recovery assessment (under s 84A of the 1994 Act); and (3) where a mistake had been discovered before 31 March 1997, though no claim had been made. In each case the overpayment of tax must have been made before 4 December 1996.
GRUNDIG ITALIANA
[42] The commissioners’ response to Marks and Spencer II was soon overtaken by further events in Luxembourg. On 24 September 2002 the ECJ gave judgment in Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-255/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 176, [2002] ECR I-8003 (Grundig II). This was the sequel to Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-68/96 [1998] ECR I-3775 (Grundig I) in which the ECJ (in a judgment delivered on 17 June 1998) held that an Italian consumption tax, introduced by a law of 30 December 1982, was contrary to EU law as infringing art 95 of the Treaty, since it differentiated between home-produced and imported audiovisual and photo-optical products.
[43] Grundig II was concerned with the legality under EU law of the Italian law no 428 of 29 December 1990. That law extended the scope of a statutory five year limitation period (applicable to customs duties) so as to apply to all claims and actions for the refund of sums paid in connection with customs operations, including the consumption tax considered in Grundig I. It further directed that that limitation period should be reduced to three years as from the 90th day following the coming into force of the law (27 January 1991). Grundig Italiana, which had from 1983 to 1992 made payments of the wrongly-charged consumption tax, brought a claim for repayment on 22 July 1993.
[44] Grundig II was a sort of rerun of the earlier case of Aprile Srl (in liquidation) v Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato (No 2) Case C-228/96 [2000] 1 WLR 126, [1998] ECR I-7141 (Aprile II), mentioned in paras 34–36 of the ECJ’s judgment in Marks and Spencer II. The decision in Aprile II was inconclusive because it was based on a misunderstanding of the degree to which, under Italian law, law no 428 was retrospective. Grundig II seems not to have been entirely free from the same difficulties (see [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 190, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8026, para 32 of the judgment) but paras 36 to 41 of the judgment set out the ECJ’s conclusions:
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‘36 Given that the detailed rules governing the recovery of national taxes levied though not due are a matter for the national legislature, the question whether such rules may apply retroactively is equally a question of national law, provided that any such retroactive application does not contravene the principle of effectiveness.
37 In that regard, whilst national legislation reducing the period within which repayment of sums collected in breach of Community law may be sought is not incompatible with the principle of the effectiveness, this is subject to the condition not only that the new limitation period is reasonable but also that the new legislation includes transitional arrangements allowing an adequate period after the enactment of the legislation for lodging claims for repayment which persons were entitled to submit under the original legislation. Such transitional arrangements are necessary where the immediate application to those claims of a limitation period shorter than that which was previously in force would have the effect of retroactively depriving some individuals of their right to repayment, or of allowing them too short a period for asserting that right (Case C-62/00 Marks & Spencer [2002] ECR I-6325, paragraph 38).
38 Thus, the transitional period must be sufficient to allow taxpayers who initially thought that the old period for bringing proceedings was available to them a reasonable period of time to assert their right of recovery in the event that, under the new rules, they would already be out of time. In any event, they must not be compelled to prepare their action with the haste imposed by an obligation to act in circumstances of urgency unrelated to the time-limit on which they could initially count.
39 A transitional period of 90 days prior to the retroactive application of a period of three years for initiating proceedings in place of a ten- or five-year period is clearly insufficient. If an initial period of five years is taken as a reference, 90 days leaves taxpayers whose rights accrued approximately three years earlier in a position of having to act within three months when they had thought that almost another two years were still available.
40 Where a period of ten or five years for initiating proceedings is reduced to three years, the minimum transitional period required to ensure that rights conferred by Community law can be effectively exercised and that normally diligent taxpayers can familiarise themselves with the new regime and prepare and commence proceedings in circumstances which do not compromise their chances of success can be reasonably assessed at six months.
41 However, the fact that the national court has found that a transitional period fixed by its national legislature such as that in issue in the main proceedings is insufficient does not necessarily mean that the new period for initiating proceedings cannot be applied retroactively at all. The principle of effectiveness merely requires that such retroactive application should not go beyond what is necessary in order to ensure observance of that principle. It must, therefore, be permissible to apply the new period for initiating proceedings to actions brought after expiry of an adequate transitional period, assessed at six months in a case such as the present, even where those actions concern the recovery of sums paid before the entry into force of the legislation laying down the new period.’ (See [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8027–8029.)
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These paragraphs, and especially the last, have been the subject of closely-reasoned argument before your Lordships’ House.
[45] The commissioners responded to Grundig II in a further Business Brief, 27/02 (BB 27/02), published on 8 October 2002. Its effect was to substitute 30 June 1997 for 31 March 1997 in the three categories of claim covered by BB 22/02. Claims were to be made by 30 June 2003 (that is, there was a similar three-month extension). BB 27/02 did not expressly refer to s 80 of the 1994 Act or to s 47(2) of the 1997 Act (as BB 22/02 had done). But it was framed simply as an extension of the BB 22/02 and it contained no reference to reg 29 of the 1995 Regulations. At that time appeals to the Court of Appeal in Marks and Spencer III and University of Sussex were still pending. There had however been one reference, in Business Brief 4/02 published on 22 February 2002, to the possibility that the Court of Appeal would dismiss the appeal in University of Sussex.
THE TWO APPEALS IN OUTLINE
[46] The facts relevant to the two appeals are considered separately at the end of this opinion. For the moment it is enough to say that Mr Fleming, the respondent in the first appeal, made a claim on 23 October 2000 for repayment of input tax paid on the acquisition of three specialist sports cars some ten years before. Condé Nast made a claim on 27 June 2003 for input tax paid on staff entertainment during the preceding 30 years.
[47] The Value Added Tax and Duties Tribunal ([2004] V&DR 172) dismissed Mr Fleming’s appeal on grounds which the commissioners did not seek to support. Evans-Lombe J ([2005] EWHC 232 (Ch), [2005] STC 707) dismissed Mr Fleming’s appeal on other grounds, that is (applying the principle in Grundig II) that Mr Fleming had failed to bring his claim within a reasonable time after the 1996–7 amendments. The Court of Appeal ([2006] EWCA Civ 70, [2006] STC 864) allowed Mr Fleming’s appeal, the majority (Ward and Hallett LJJ) on the ground that no transitional period could be read into the legislation, and that it must be disapplied generally to all claims in respect of payments of VAT made before the legislation came into force. Arden LJ reached the same conclusion (contrary to the headnote, she did not dissent) but by a different route. She correctly observed that the issue was disapplication of national law (although at one point in her judgment she seems to have confused this with conforming interpretation). She took the view that reg 29(1A) must be disapplied in the case of anyone who made a claim within a reasonable time from the delivery of the ECJ judgment in Marks and Spencer II (11 July 2002).
[48] In reaching that conclusion Arden LJ considered at length the judgment of Warren J ([2005] EWHC 1167 (Ch), [2005] STC 1327), who had heard Condé Nast’s appeal from the tribunal ((2004) VAT Decision 18869) before the Court of Appeal heard Mr Fleming’s appeal. The tribunal had held that Condé Nast must be able to show that, had there been an adequate transitional period in the amending legislation, it would have made a claim within it (this has been referred to in argument before your Lordships as the ‘could have/would have’ issue). Warren J ([2005] STC 1327) rejected this argument but dismissed the appeal on other grounds, that is that Condé Nast had not made a claim within a reasonable time from (at latest) 5 August 2002, the date of BB 22/02 following the judgment of the ECJ in Marks and Spencer II (I must add that this bald summary does not do justice to Warren J’s clear and fully-reasoned judgment). The Court of Appeal (in a judgment of Chadwick LJ, with which Arden and Smith LJJ
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agreed) ([2006] EWCA Civ 976, [2006] STC 1721) was clearly troubled by the majority decision in Mr Fleming’s appeal, but considered that it was bound to follow the decision. It considered making a reference to the ECJ but decided not to, partly because the Court of Appeal had itself given Mr Fleming leave to appeal to this House.
Four possible analyses (with variants)
[49] The commissioners have throughout this litigation accepted, in the light of Marks and Spencer II, that the 1996–7 amendments infringed EU law. They must be disapplied to the extent that they improperly deprived taxpayers of directly enforceable Community rights, but no further. The process of disapplication does not involve reading words into the national legislation (that would be, as already noted, to confuse it with conforming interpretation). It involves the identification of the class or classes of taxpayers who are so circumstanced that the offending provisions must not be invoked against them, either in particular cases or at all.
[50] Both sides agree that the amendment of s 80 of the 1994 Act must be disapplied in respect of taxpayers who made unsatisfied claims before 18 July 1996, or between that date and 4 December 1996. Mr Vajda QC (for the commissioners) also concedes that the amendments of s 80 and reg 29 must be disapplied to some taxpayers who made claims during a limited period after the dates of those respective enactments, provided that the claims related to payments of VAT made before those respective dates. But (according to Mr Vajda’s primary argument, which broadly corresponds to the policy underlying BB 22/02 and BB 27/02) the appropriate period for reg 29 claims was six months (the period mentioned in Grundig II) from 1 May 1997.
[51] That is Mr Vajda’s analysis A. His analysis B is six months from the date on which an average taxpayer would or should have been aware that EU law required a reasonable transitional period. Mr Vajda suggested as candidates for that date (in descending order of preference from the commissioners’ point of view): (1) six months from the judgment of the ECJ Marks and Spencer II (giving a final date of 11 January 2003); (2) six months from the publication of BB 22/02 (giving a final date of 5 February 2003); and (3) the final date for claims under BB 27/02 (30 June 2003).
[52] Mr Vajda’s analysis C (for which he showed no enthusiasm at all, but which he mentioned because it is the primary case for Condé Nast) was that the period is still running and will continue to run until there is either (1) primary or secondary legislation or (2) a formal official announcement of an adequate ‘claim period’ for capped reg 29 claims.
[53] Finally there is analysis D. This differentiates between taxpayers, not merely by reference to (i) when they paid the relevant VAT and (ii) when they actually made their repayment claim, but also (iii) whether, if the amending legislation had included an adequate transitional period from its inception, they would (on a subjective test) have made claims during that period. In other words the court is to ask (not as an alternative to the appropriate analysis on the first two points, but as an additional requirement) whether the particular taxpayer would have made a claim during whatever is the correct period.
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ECJ JURISPRUDENCE
[54] The practicalities of disapplication of national legislation are matters for the national court, subject to guidance from the ECJ as to the principles to be applied. Some guidance can be obtained from the judgments of the ECJ and the opinions of the Advocates General in Marks and Spencer II, Grundig II and Fantask A/S v Industriministeriet (Erhvervministeriet) Case C-188/95 [1998] All ER (EC) 1, [1997] ECR I-6783, but the guidance is limited. Marks and Spencer II ([2002] STC 1036 at 1058, [2003] QB 866 at 889–890, paras 34–36 of the judgment, quoted above, and also [2002] STC 1036 at 1058–1059, [2003] QB 866 at 890–891, paras 37–39 of the judgment) shows that limitation periods must be of reasonable duration, and fixed in advance. Any curtailment of existing limitation periods must have an adequate transitional period. Its adequacy must be judged by reference to its purpose, that is (as the ECJ said in Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028, para 38 of the judgment)):
‘to allow taxpayers who initially thought that the old period for bringing proceedings was available to them a reasonable period of time to assert their right of recovery in the event that, under the new rules, they would already be out of time. In any event, they must not be compelled to prepare their action with the haste imposed by an obligation to act in circumstances of urgency unrelated to the time-limit on which they could initially count . . .’
And ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028, para 40):
‘to ensure that rights conferred by Community law can be effectively exercised and that normally diligent taxpayers can familiarise themselves with the new regime and prepare and commence proceedings in circumstances which do not compromise their chances of success . . .’
The reference to ‘normally diligent taxpayers’ suggests the need for a single objective test. The degree of curtailment of an existing limitation period is also material (paras 39 and 40).
[55] In Grundig II the ECJ went on to observe (in [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029, para 41, already quoted):
‘The principle of effectiveness merely requires that such retroactive application should not go beyond what is necessary in order to ensure observance of that principle. It must, therefore, be permissible to apply the new period for initiating proceedings to actions brought after expiry of an adequate transitional period, assessed at six months in a case such as the present, even where those actions concern the recovery of sums paid before the entry into force of the legislation laying down the new period.’
But in paras 40 and 42 the period of six months was qualified as the minimum period. In my opinion the ECJ cannot have been intending to lay down a mandatory rule, or to do more, in these paragraphs, than offer guidance of the most general sort. Advocate General Colomer had in para 27 of his opinion stated:
‘It is not possible to determine whether or not a 90-day transitional period, such as that in the present case, complies with the principle of effectiveness without having regard to all the factual and legal requirements, both procedural and substantive, which the domestic legal order imposes for the
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bringing of actions for recovery. Only with that overview, which the Italian courts alone have, is it possible to give a definitive answer.’
That is, with respect, obviously right and the ECJ cannot have intended to contradict it. Nothing is known, your Lordships were told, of the ultimate disposal of the Grundig Italia litigation.
[56] In these circumstances Grundig II cannot in my opinion be taken to establish much more than the general proposition that the principle of effectiveness requires that national legislation which curtails a limitation period, and does so in a way that infringes EU law, must be disapplied for an adequate period. It gives little, if any, reliable guidance as to the duration of the period. Neither Evans-Lombe J ([2005] STC 707) nor Warren J ([2005] STC 1327) understood it as laying down any rule about a six-month period: see the judgment of the former at [24] and [25] and the judgment of the latter at [38] (especially the last sentence) and [45]–[54].
[57] Fantask A/S v Industriministeriet (Erhvervministeriet) Case C-188/95 [1998] All ER (EC) 1, [1997] ECR I-6783 was cited at length to your Lordships. For present purposes its main significance is, in my opinion, in showing what factors are not relevant to the national court’s task in disapplying national law. The case was concerned with whether official charges for the registration of Danish companies exceeded what was permitted by EU law (questions one to five referred to the ECJ) and with the consequences of the charges being excessive and unlawful (questions six to eight). The most material question was the seventh, that is whether, when a member state has failed to transpose a Council Directive correctly, EU law prevents that member state from relying on a national limitation period to resist an action for the recovery of charges levied in breach of the Directive, and continues to do so as long as the transposition has not been correctly effected. The ECJ rejected that argument, holding ([1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 35, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6839, para 51 of the judgment) that its earlier decision in Emmott v Minister for Social Welfare and Attorney-General Case C-208/90 [1991] IRLR 387, [1991] ECR I-4269 had not laid down any general rule, but depended on its particular (and extreme) facts. The ECJ reaffirmed ([1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 35, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6839, para 52 of the judgment) that the principle of effectiveness was the critical test.
[58] Fantask is also notable for a very illuminating general discussion in the opinion of Advocate General Jacobs. It steps back, as it were, and looks at the whole problem in context. The whole opinion merits attention but I restrict quotation to five paragraphs (see [1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 19–20, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6810–6811):
‘68. The governments’ arguments concerning the financial consequences of Emmott also raise an important point of principle. As they correctly observe, the Emmott ruling, if read literally, would expose member states to the risk of claims dating back to the final date for implementing a Directive . . .
69. Moreover, such liability would arise even in the event of a minor or inadvertent breach. Such a result wholly disregards the balance which must be struck in every legal system between the rights of the individual and the collective interest in providing a degree of legal certainty for the state. That applies particularly to matters of taxation and social security, where the
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public authorities have the special responsibility of routinely applying tax and social security legislation to vast numbers of cases.
70. The scope for error in applying such legislation is considerable. Regrettably that is particularly so in the case of Community legislation, which is often rather loosely drafted . . . The recent cases of Argos Distributors Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-288/94 [1996] ECR I-5311 and Elida Gibbs Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-317/94 [1997] All ER (EC) 53, [1996] ECR I-5339 provide a further example of how huge repayment claims can arise from a comparatively minor error in implementing a Community tax directive. In those cases the court found that the fiscal treatment accorded by the United Kingdom to voucher transactions—used extensively in that member state as a business promotion technique—was not in accordance with Council Directive (EEC) 77/388. The resultant repayment claims are reported to be between £200 and £400 m . . .
71. It might be objected that it is not unreasonable to require member states to refund overpaid charges given that they were not entitled to collect them in the first place. However, that view disregards the need for states and public bodies to plan their income and expenditure and to ensure that their budgets are not disrupted by huge unforeseen liabilities. That need was particularly clear in Denkavit Internationaal BV v Kamer van Koophandel en Fabrieken voor Midden-Gelderland Case C-2/94 [1996] ECR I-2827 in which repayment was sought of the annual levies imposed by the Netherlands Chambers of Trade and Industry in order to finance their activities. As I noted in my opinion in that case, retrospective claims of up to 20 years would have had catastrophic effects on their finances.
72. In short, therefore, my main reservations about a broad view of the Emmott ruling are that it disregards the need, recognized by all legal systems, for a degree of legal certainty for the state, particularly where infringements are comparatively minor or inadvertent; it goes further than is necessary to give effective protection to directives; and it places rights under directives in an unduly privileged position by comparison with other Community rights. Moreover a broad view cannot be reconciled with the court’s subsequent case law on time limits.’
The Advocate General also noted ([1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 20–21, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6812, paras 73–75) that there are different types of time limit in national legislation, and that they may call for different treatment. The ECJ did not comment expressly on these parts of the Advocate General’s opinion, but its judgment was not inconsistent with the Advocate General’s thinking. The importance of maintaining stability in public finances was acknowledged by the ECJ in Marks and Spencer II (see [2002] STC 1036 at 1059, [2003] QB 866 at 891, para 41 of the judgment).
[59] Three other points of EU jurisprudence were raised and relied on by counsel for the respondents (Mr Southern for Mr Fleming and Mr Peacock QC for Condé Nast). The first point is the general principle that a member state cannot rely on its own wrong. That principle does in a sense underlie the whole doctrine of directly enforceable rights (see Marshall v Southampton and South West Hampshire Area Health Authority (Teaching) Case 152/84 [1986] 2 All ER 584 at 600, [1986] QB 401 at 421–422, paras 46 and 47 and also para 5 of the opinion of Advocate General Slynn (see [1986] 2 All ER 584 at 588, [1986] QB 401 at 405)).
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But it has been relied on, in the particular context of unlawfully exacted taxes, in Metallgesellschaft Ltd v IRC; Hoechst AG v IRC and Attorney General Joined cases C-397/98 and C-410/98 [2001] All ER (EC) 496 at 537, [2001] Ch 620 at 667, paras 105–106, and again recently in Test Claimants in the Thin Cap Group v IRC Case C-524/04 [2007] STC 906, [2007] ECR I-2107, paras 124–126 of the judgment. In each of those cases the United Kingdom was unable to rely on the fact that the taxpayer had not made a particular claim (in one case, to a group income election, and in the other case for clearance of a payment of interest to another group company) in circumstances where, under national law, the claim was certain to be refused.
[60] In my opinion that principle does not help the respondents in these appeals. Metallgeselschaft and Thin Cap were cases in which the United Kingdom was seeking to rely on a technicality in order to avoid liability for a serious breach of EU law. In this case, by contrast, there is no antecedent breach exacerbated by the imposition of a new time limit with no transitional period. The only breach is in the absence of the transitional period, and it is in its nature transient. The correct principle is to be found in Grundig II. To apply the ‘own wrong’ principle in this case would be contrary not only to Grundig II but also to the general tenor of Fantask, which limits the effect of Emmott to extreme cases.
[61] The second point is the general principle that if a member state is in breach of a Council Directive, its breach must be remedied by proper legislation, and not merely by administrative action. The ECJ said in EC Commission v United Kingdom Case C-33/03 [2005] STC 582 at 596, para 25 of the judgment:
‘it is settled case law that the incompatibility of national legislation with Community provisions can be finally remedied only by means of national provisions of a binding nature which have the same legal force as those which must be amended. Mere administrative practices cannot be regarded as constituting the proper fulfilment of obligations under Community law (EC Commission v France (Case C-197/96) [1997] ECR I-1489, para 14; EC Commission v Italy (Case C-358/98) [2000] ECR I-1255, para 17, and EC Commission v Italy (Case C-145/99) [2002] ECR I-2235, para 30).’
However that principle does not in my opinion apply here, for similar reasons to those mentioned in the last paragraph. The issue in this case is not the continuing non-transposition (or incorrect transposition) of a Council Directive; neither counsel put his case that way. Any action to be taken by the United Kingdom government to define a deferred transitional period for claims under reg 29 (whether in the form of legislation, or the announcement of an official administrative policy) is relevant, not as a transposition of any part of the Sixth Directive, but as bearing on the duration of the ‘adequate transitional period’ referred to in Grundig II.
[62] The third point, closely associated with the second, is whether the definition of an adequate transitional period is properly a matter for the national court (that is, in these appeals, for your Lordships’ house in its judicial capacity) and not for the legislature. My Lords, in my opinion that task is not merely within your Lordships’ power but is your Lordships’ plain duty under EU law. The disapplication of offending legislation is the duty of the national court, even if it involves action which would otherwise be alien to the strong judicial instinct not to intrude on the province of the legislature. Jurisprudence under s 3 of the Human Rights Act 1998 (such as Ghaidan v Godin-Mendoza [2004] UKHL 30,
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[2004] 3 All ER 411, [2004] 2 AC 557) is in this context irrelevant and misleading. The guiding principles are those set out in the seminal judgment of the ECJ in Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629 at 644, paras 20–24 of the judgment. The importance and binding nature of these principles has recently been explained by Peter Gibson LJ in Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2004] EWCA Civ 680 at [22]–[25], [2004] 3 All ER 957 at [22]–[25], [2005] 1 WLR 52. The authority of those remarks is not diminished by the decision of this House (Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2005] UKHL 54, [2005] 4 All ER 1141, [2006] 1 AC 118); see especially the observations of Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead (at [17]), referring to formal statutory requirements being ‘disapplied or moulded’ and later referring to ‘adapting’ national provisions.
Disapplication of reg 29(1A)
[63] My Lords, having set out the background to these appeals at (I fear) tedious length I can state my opinion fairly shortly (especially as I am, I understand, differing from the majority of your Lordships).
[64] I would unhesitatingly reject analysis D, which Mr Vajda regarded as his last-ditch position. The essence of a limitation period is that it operates impartially (arbitrarily, even) in the interests of finality and certainty. (The fact that some national legal systems make special provision for cases of disability or mistake does not alter the general principle.) It would be contrary to legal certainty, and administratively unworkable, for the extent of disapplication to depend not only on the duration of the transitional period but also on an hypothetical question to be answered by reference to the circumstances and states of mind of particular taxpayers. It would be unworkable regardless of whether the burden of proof lay on the commissioners or on the taxpayer. The ECJ observed in Optigen Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs; Fulcrum Electronics Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs; Bond House Systems Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Joined cases C-354/03, C-355/03 and C-484/03 [2006] STC 419 at 440, [2006] Ch 218 at 240:
‘45. As the Court of Justice held in [BLP Group plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-4/94 [1995] All ER (EC) 401 at 415, [1996] 1 WLR 174 at 199 (para 24)], an obligation on the tax authorities to carry out inquiries to determine the intention of the taxable person would be contrary to the objectives of the common system of VAT of ensuring legal certainty and facilitating application of VAT by having regard, save in exceptional cases, to the objective character of the transaction in question.’
[65] The ‘would have’ test might be thought to obtain some support from the decision of this House in Deutsche Morgan Grenfell Group plc v IRC [2006] UKHL 49, [2007] 1 All ER 449, [2007] 1 AC 558, which involved an inquiry as to the state of mind of in-house legal advisers in the taxpayer bank. But Deutsche Morgan Grenfell was a case in which the taxpayer was claiming a refund of unlawfully exacted corporation tax and was relying on a provision in national legislation—s 32(1)(c) of the Limitation Act 1980—in support of a restitutionary claim for overpaid tax going back more than six years. There had been a mistake and there was an issue as to when the mistake was, or could with reasonable diligence, have been discovered. If that sort of issue is relevant to the appeals at all, it must be as part of the objective assessment of an adequate transitional period under analysis B.
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[66] I would also reject analysis C as going beyond what the principle of effectiveness requires, and as being contrary to the guidance (general though it is) given by the ECJ in Grundig II. Claims under reg 29 are not for tax unlawfully exacted, but for a refund of input VAT which the taxpayer has (for one reason or another) not claimed promptly. The only breach of EU law lies in the failure to provide transitional provisions as part of the 1996–7 amendments. The problem might have been resolved (and would have been better resolved) by further primary or secondary legislation, but Parliament and the commissioners chose not to take that course. In these circumstances disapplication is, for the reasons stated in Amministrazione delle Finanze dello Stato v Simmenthal SpA Case 106/77 [1978] ECR 629, a task which the national court has both the power and the obligation to undertake, and Grundig II shows that disapplication for an adequate transitional period is the appropriate response.
[67] It does not follow, however, that a period which would have been adequate, if clearly fixed in advance by transitional provisions, will be adequate for the purposes of Grundig II. If you know the time of the last bus or tube you are in a much better position to organise your evening than if you do not know when public transport stops. The 1996–7 amendments were the equivalent of abruptly telling some taxpayers that there was no more public transport for them that day. It would take most of them some time to realise that the authorities had no right to act in that way.
[68] In Grundig II the Italian amending law did provide a transitional period (90 days) but it was inadequate. The fact that there was some transitional period on the face of the legislation may have made it marginally more likely that the average payer of the Italian consumption tax would grasp the idea that EU law might require a longer transitional period. That would suggest the need for an even longer transitional period where the legislation does not give the taxpayer that clue. But that is only a minor reason for rejecting, as I would, analysis A. Much the more important reason is that where no adequate transitional period has been fixed in advance, so giving legal certainty, the resulting uncertainty requires that taxpayers should be given longer to work out where they stand. To that limited extent, therefore, I would apply the principle that the commissioners cannot benefit from their own breach of EU law.
[69] In my opinion the correct answer lies within the range covered by analysis B. Well-informed taxpayers would have been aware, by the end of 1999 if not before, that Marks and Spencer was making a determined challenge to the lawfulness of the 1996–7 amendments, and that a reference was being made to the ECJ. But not all traders registered for VAT are large enterprises with ready access to expert advice. Moreover (especially for those wishing to make late claims for input tax) the University of Sussex litigation (if they were aware of it) provided a further complication. Mr Vajda rightly did not contend for an earlier date under analysis B than 11 January 2003 (six months after the judgment of the ECJ in Marks and Spencer II). In my opinion that date best fits the guidance given in Grundig II. BB 22/02 and BB 27/02 were, with hindsight, ill-advised, but I do not think that the claims period should be prolonged because of them.
Mr Fleming’s claim
[70] Mr Fleming claimed a refund of input tax of about £127,000. His claim was made 23 October 2000 in a letter by way of voluntary disclosure. He had not made a claim sooner, it seems, for a variety of reasons, including the fact that he
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did not have a proper tax invoice. For the reasons set out above, which are very different from the majority of the Court of Appeal, I would dismiss the commissioners’ appeal in his case.
Condé Nast’s claim
[71] Condé Nast claimed a refund of input tax of about £115,000 in respect of sums spent on staff entertainment. The claim was made on 27 June 2003 in a letter by way of voluntary disclosure. The input tax went back as far as the introduction of VAT in 1973. It had not been claimed by way of credit and deduction over 30 years or more of quarterly returns, apparently because the trouble and expense of identifying and vouching the items of expenditure. In my view the claim was made more than a reasonable time after a taxpayer of average diligence would have been aware that reg 29(1A) could be disapplied. I would therefore allow the commissioners’ appeal and restore the decision of the tribunal (though for very different reasons than those on which the tribunal relied).
Disapplication of s 80
[72] Neither appeal is concerned with a claim under s 80 of the 1994 Act. Mr Vajda told your Lordships that the commissioners hoped that the determination of these appeals would also settle the position in relation to claims under s 80. I rather doubt whether the House should go that far, since some s 80 claims (unlike reg 29 claims) involve a serious antecedent breach of EU law as well as the imposition of the 1996–7 amendments without adequate provisions. Arguably different considerations would apply in such cases. I express no view on that. But I consider that routine s 80 claims call for the same treatment as reg 29 claims.
LORD CARSWELL
[73] My Lords, I have had the benefit of reading in draft the opinions prepared by my noble and learned friends Lord Hope of Craighead, Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe and Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury. Lord Walker has set out the facts, law and issues with such clarity that it would be altogether superfluous if I were to attempt to repeat any of those matters.
[74] In respect of the commissioners’ appeal in the case of Mr Fleming (trading as Bodycraft) ([2006] EWCA Civ 70, [2006] STC 864) I entirely agree with Lord Walker’s reasons and conclusions and have nothing to add.
[75] In respect of the commissioners’ appeal in the case of Condé Nast Publications Limited ([2006] EWCA Civ 976, [2006] STC 1721), I agree with Lord Hope and Lord Neuberger that the appeal should be dismissed. It seems to me that two issues arise out of this case. The first, which relates to the individual taxpayer (and others in like situations) is whether the commissioners can be permitted in the circumstances of the case to refuse Condé Nast’s claim for repayment of input tax which had not been earlier deducted when they paid the output tax. The second, which is of more general import, is whether the commissioners or the legislature have taken sufficient steps to specify a transitional period for submitting claims for the deduction of input tax despite the introduction of the time limit by the added reg 29(1A) of the Value Added Tax Regulations 1995, S1 1995/2518.
[76] In order to comply with the principle of effectiveness, it was necessary for taxpayers to have sufficient information for them to know that they could submit
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claims for deduction of input tax after the introduction of the time limit. No transitional period was afforded by the legislature when reg 29(1A) was passed into law. The commissioners could not properly have refused to accept such claims if a reasonable transitional period had not elapsed after reg 29(1A) came into operation on 1 May 1997. They had notified taxpayers in a series of Business Briefs that they would until 30 June 2003 accept claims under s 80 of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 for repayment of overpaid value added tax (VAT). They maintained that late claims for refund of under-deducted input tax were governed by s 80 of the 1994 Act. Neuberger J (as he then was) ruled in a judgment given on 10 October 2001 in University of Sussex v Customs and Excise Comrs [2001] STC 1495 that this contention was incorrect and that they were governed by reg 29 of the 1995 Regulations. The commissioners appealed, still contending that s 80 applied to such claims, but their appeal was eventually dismissed by the Court of Appeal on 21 October 2003 ([2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1). Until the last-mentioned date a taxpayer in the situation of Condé Nast was faced with the commissioners’ insistence that his claim fell not within reg 29 but within s 80, in respect of which claims were to be accepted up to 30 June 2003. No doubt with an eye to this date, Condé Nast’s advisers lodged their claim on 27 June 2003. In my opinion it would have been wholly unreasonable to expect a taxpayer to have to divine that the commissioners’ appeal would be dismissed and that he should submit his claim on some earlier date than 30 June 2003, such as six months after 11 July 2002, the date on which the Court of Justice of the European Communities (ECJ) gave its decision in Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036, [2003] QB 866, or 24 September 2002, the date on which the ECJ gave its decision in Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-255/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 176, [2002] ECR I-8003. If the case were to be decided on this issue, I should have been prepared to hold that a reasonable transitional period extended later than 27 June 2003.
[77] For the reasons given by Lord Hope and Lord Neuberger, I do not consider that this is the determinative issue. I agree with them that it is for Parliament or for the commissioners—who must disseminate the information sufficiently to all value added tax payers—to introduce prospectively an adequate transitional period which will apply to all claims for the deduction of input tax that had accrued before the introduction of the time limit. That was not done before 27 June 2003 and indeed has not yet been effected. When such a step is taken, the time limit applied by reg 29(1A) of the 1995 Regulations must be disapplied. Like Lord Hope, I would apply that reasoning to Mr Fleming’s appeal as well as to that of Condé Nast. I would dismiss both appeals.
LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY
[78] My Lords, I have had the privilege of reading in draft the opinions of my noble and learned friends, Lord Hope of Craighead and Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe. Lord Walker has set out and explained with admirable clarity the relevant facts, statutory and Community law provisions, case law and arguments, and accordingly they need no repetition from me. While I agree with him that the commissioners’ appeal should be dismissed in relation to Mr Fleming’s claim, I would also dismiss their appeal in relation to Condé Nast’s claim.
[79] It appears to me that the following relevant propositions can be derived from well-established principles of Community law and, more specifically, from
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the reasoning of the Court of Justice of the European Communities (the ECJ) in Marks and Spencer plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-62/00 [2002] STC 1036, [2003] QB 866 (known as Marks and Spencer II) and Grundig Italiana SpA v Ministero delle Finanze Case C-255/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 176, [2002] ECR I-8003 (known as Grundig II): (a) it is open to the legislature of a member state to impose a time limit within which a claim for input tax must be bought: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1058, [2003] QB 866 at 890, para 35 of the judgment; (b) it is further open to the legislature to introduce a new time limit, or to shorten an existing time limit, within which such a claim must be brought, even where the right to claim has already arisen (an ‘accrued right’) when the new time limit (a ‘retrospective time limit’) is introduced: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1058–1059, [2003] QB 866 at 890, paras 37 and 38 of the judgment; (c) any such time limits must, however, be ‘fixed in advance’ if they are to ‘serve their purpose of legal certainty’: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1059, [2003] QB 866 at 890–891, para 39 of the judgment; (d) where a retrospective time limit is introduced, the legislation must include transitional provisions to accord those with accrued rights a reasonable time within which to make their claims before the new retrospective time limit applies: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1058–1059, [2003] QB 866 at 890, para 38 and Grundig II [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028, para 38 of the judgment; (e) in so far as the legislature introduces a retrospective time limit without a reasonable transitional provision (as in Grundig II) or without any transitional provision (as in Marks and Spencer II), the national courts cannot enforce the retrospective time limit in relation to accrued right, at least for a reasonable period; otherwise, there would be a breach of Community law: Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2005] UKHL 54 at [16]–[17], [2005] 4 All ER 1141 at [16]–[17], [2006] 1 AC 118; (f) the adequacy of the period accorded by the transitional provision (the transitional period) is to be determined by reference, inter alia, to the principles of effectiveness and legitimate expectation: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1058 and 1060, [2003] QB 866 at 889–890 and 891, paras 34 and 46, and Grundig II [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028, para 40; in particular, it must not be so short as to render it ‘practically impossible or excessively difficult’ for a person with an accrued right to make a claim: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1058, [2003] QB 866 at 889–890, para 34, and Grundig II [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 190, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8026, para 33; (g) it is primarily a matter for the national courts to decide whether the length of any transitional period is adequate, although the ECJ will give a view if the transitional period is ‘clearly’ so short as to be inconsistent with Community law: Grundig II [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028, paras 39 and 40; (h) the absence of a transitional period of adequate length is not, however, automatically fatal to the enforcement of the retrospective time limit: Grundig II [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029, para 41; (i) where there is no adequate transitional period, it is for the national court to fashion the remedy necessary to avoid an infringement of Community law: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1058, [2003] QB 866 at 889–890, para 34, Grundig II [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 190–191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8026–8029, paras 33, 36, 40, and 41, Autologic [2005] 4 All ER 1141 at [16]–[17], [2006] 1 AC 118, and the ECJ’s decision in Metallgesellschaft Ltd and ors v IRC and Attorney General; Hoechst AG and anor v IRC and Attorney General; Hoechst AG v IRC and Attorney General Joined cases C-397/98 and C-410/98 [2001] All ER (EC) 496 at 533, [2001] Ch 620 at 663–664, para 85 of the judgment; (j) that remedy would,
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at least normally, be to disapply (perhaps only for a period) the operation of, the retrospective application of the new time limit to claims based on accrued rights: Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1058–1059, [2003] QB 866 at 889–891, paras 34–41, and Grundig II [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028, paras 38–40 and especially (with regard to temporary disapplication) para 41.
[80] On the basis of the arguments addressed to your Lordships’ house and the reasoning of the courts below, I believe that the only controversial aspect of the above analysis centres on propositions (h) and (j). The issue is whether it is open to the court to disapply the retrospective limitation for a limited period (as opposed to permanently) in cases where the legislation imposing a retrospective time limit contains no transitional period (as in the present case and as in Marks and Spencer II). In the Court of Appeal in the Fleming case ([2006] EWCA Civ 70, [2006] STC 864), Ward and Hallett LJJ concluded that the relevant part of the reasoning (and in particular the last sentence) in para 41 of Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029), quoted in Lord Walker’s opinion, only applies where there is an inadequate transitional period (see [2006] STC 864 at [60], [61], [73]–[81]). This view appears to have been based on (a) the fact that the ECJ’s judgment in Marks and Spencer II resulted in a declaration that the absence of any transitional period rendered the retrospective effect of the relevant legislation ‘incompatible’ with Community law, (b) the fact that that judgment had no equivalent to para 41 of the judgment in Grundig II, and (c) the belief that there is a difference in principle between the two types of case.
[81] Despite the arguments on behalf of Mr Fleming in support of this view, I am unpersuaded by any of these three factors. The question for the ECJ in Marks and Spencer II was admittedly relatively widely expressed, and concerned the enforceability of a retrospective time limit introduced without any transitional provisions; the ECJ held that such a time limit was ‘incompatible with the principles of effectiveness and of the protection of legitimate expectations’. However, nothing was said either way as to whether the unlawfulness of not providing for a transitional period was, as it were, permanently fatal to the efficacy of the retrospective time limit. That was a topic on which the ECJ did express a view, albeit that it did not strictly arise from the specific question referred, in Grundig II, [2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029, para 41 of the judgment. As I understand it, the ECJ was there seeking to give guidance to tax authorities, courts, and taxpayers in member states as to the practical consequences where retrospective time limits were imposed without adequate transitional provisions.
[82] At least for present purposes, I can see no difference in principle or in practice between a case where there is an inadequate transitional period and one where there is no transitional period. In each case, there is ‘no adequate transitional period’ to use the ECJ’s words in para 42 of Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 192, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029). In each case, the failure goes to the enforceability of the retrospective time limit. In each case, a person with an accrued right would be equally likely to be unaware of the court’s obligation to disapply the new retrospective time limit, or for how long the period of disapplication might run. In each case, the legislature (or, indeed, in appropriate circumstances, the executive or the courts) could put the position right by effectively creating (or extending an unduly short transitional period into) a valid transitional period. Further, it would seem odd if there was a completely
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different rule in a case where there was a very short (say, three day) inadequate transitional period and one where there was no such period.
[83] In the light of these considerations, it follows from the retrospective effect of reg 29(1A) of the Value Added Tax Regulations 1995, SI 1995/2518, and the absence of any transitional provision, that the duty of the United Kingdom courts is to disapply the regulation in relation to claims based on accrued rights made during an appropriate period. Although the commissioners did not accept that proposition for much of the period of this litigation, they now accept that reg 29(1A) ought to have included a transitional provision in respect of claims based on accrued rights, and that the regulation ought to be disapplied to them by the courts. Accordingly, the issue to be determined is the proper characterisation and duration of the period of disapplication.
[84] It is the commissioners’ primary case that the appropriate period of disapplication should be equivalent to the transitional period which the legislature ought to have accorded under Community law, but failed to do so. That seems to me to be a surprising proposition. On the basis of the limited argument and evidence we have received on the point, it appears to me that the duration of a transitional period required in the present case to satisfy Community law would have been between six and twelve months. Six months was the minimum period thought by the ECJ to be appropriate in Grundig II, where a time limit was retrospectively reduced from five or ten years to three years. At the other extreme, albeit without the benefit of detailed argument, I find it hard to conceive of circumstances which would require a transitional period of more than a year, at least where a time limit is retrospectively created or reduced in relation to commercial tax claims.
[85] On that basis, given that reg 29(1A) came into force on 1 May 1997, people with accrued rights to claim input tax as at that date would have had to put in their claims by 1 May 1998 at the latest. So one reaches this position. The vice in the regulation is that it contains no transitional period to enable persons with accrued rights to make their claims, and the remedy, on the commissioners’ case, is that there is to be a period of disapplication, whose existence would be unknown to any reasonably well-advised person with an accrued right until it had already expired. That would mean that the supposed remedy for the failure to accord a transitional provision would be little more then hypothetical.
[86] In other words, from the perspective of Community law, I consider that the commissioners’ solution to the problem fails on the very grounds that the problem exists, namely that it breaches the principles of effectiveness and legitimate expectation. One year of disapplication expiring in May 1998 would come to an end before, indeed years before, it was established that (a) the absence of a transitional provision meant that there had been a breach of Community law principles (Marks and Spencer II, in July 2002), (b) there was none the less at least the possibility of a period of disapplication (Grundig II, in September 2002), and (c) contrary to the firmly expressed opinion of the commissioners, the claims fell within reg 29 (University of Sussex v Customs and Excise Comrs [2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1, in October 2003). While the third point may not be significant, the first two points establish, at least to my satisfaction that accepting the submission of the commissioners would involve hardly more than paying lip service to the important principles of effectiveness and legitimate expectation.
[87] There is another point about the commissioners’ primary case. Even if the possibility of a period of disapplication had occurred to someone with an
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accrued right to claim input tax as at 1 May 1997, the length of that period would have been a matter of speculation. Despite the commissioners’ arguments to the contrary, I do not accept that, even with wisdom of hindsight, and in particular with the benefit of the reasoning in Grundig II, it would have been possible, or is even now possible, to conclude that the length of the disapplication period would be six months. Although that was the period mentioned by the ECJ, it was, as I have indicated, (a) expressly identified, in para 40 of the judgment ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8028), as a ‘minimum’ (although I acknowledge that it was not so described, in specific terms, at the end of para 41), and (b) related, in para 39, to the reduction in a limitation period to three years from five or ten years. The national court, even in Grundig II itself, could have gone for a longer period than six months, and, in this case, the reduction in the limitation period to three years was from the time that VAT was introduced, and so was from a potential period of 24 years.
[88] This point seems to me to represent a second reason for rejecting the commissioners’ primary case. As I have mentioned, a valid limitation period, must, in order to satisfy Community law, be ‘fixed in advance’—see Marks and Spencer II [2002] STC 1036 at 1059, [2003] QB 866 at 890–891, para 39 of the judgment). In my judgment, the same principle must, as a matter of logic, apply to a transitional period which has to be included when a new retrospective time limit is introduced. After all, the transitional period serves the same function as a limitation period. If that is right, then, as I see it, the period of disapplication envisaged in the last sentence of para 41 of Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029), must also comply with the principle. Again, it serves precisely the same purpose as a limitation period, namely to enable people with a certain type of claim (in this case a claim based on an accrued right) to know within what period they have to bring their claims. Otherwise, where no transitional period has been provided for, persons with accrued claims will not know, or be able to find out, with any confidence by when they have to make their claims. In other words, the Community law requirement of legal certainty would not be met by the commissioners’ primary contention.
[89] I ought to deal with the commissioners’ argument that my reasoning so far is inconsistent with passages in two judgments of the ECJ. First, and most directly in point, it is said that, in the last sentence of para 41 in Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176 at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029), the ECJ effectively indicated that the period of disapplication, in a case where there was no adequate transitional provision, should be co-extensive with (ie equal in duration and commencement to) that of the requisite transitional provision. It seems to me that this argument ignores the fact that it is for the member state, if necessary by reference to the national court, to decide on the appropriate period of disapplication: at best, from the commissioners’ point of view, the ECJ was saying that it might be permissible for a national court to adopt such an approach.
[90] However, I cannot accept that the ‘adequate transitional period’ referred to in that sentence was intended to be one identified on an ad hoc basis, to be applied retrospectively from the date the new limitation period came into force, let alone to start, and even end, in circumstances where the great majority of those who are intended to benefit from it would reasonably be unaware of its existence. Such an interpretation would be quite inconsistent with much of the thrust of the reasoning on the ECJ on the issue actually before it. In my opinion, in the last sentence of para 41 of its judgment in Grundig II ([2003] All ER (EC) 176
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at 191, [2002] ECR I-8003 at 8029), the ECJ was saying that legislation containing a retrospective limitation period without a transitional provision could be retrospectively effective, provided that what amounted to an effective transitional period (such as a period of disapplication) was accorded by the member state, but that it was for that member state to determine how and when it accorded such a period, and what the period was, provided Community law principles, especially those of effectiveness, legitimate expectation, and certainty (as well as equivalence, which is not in issue here), were satisfied.
[91] The commissioners also relied on the reasoning of the ECJ (and of Advocate General Jacobs) in Fantask A/S v Industriministeriet (Erhvervministeriet) Case C-188/95 [1998] All ER (EC) 1, [1997] ECR I-6783. In that case, the ECJ held, that a national five-year limitation period could be relied on by the Danish government to defeat a taxpayer’s claim for repayment of money paid under a charge imposed on the basis of a wrongly transposed Directive, even though time began to run before the government corrected the error. This was justified, at least by the Advocate General (see [1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 19 and 22–23, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6810–6811 and 6814–6815, paras 68–71 and 82–84 of his powerful opinion), on the basis of (a) the right of a member state to organise its finances without the risk of facing very late unexpected and large claims, and (b) it being more appropriate to leave taxpayers in such cases with claims for damages in appropriate cases. The ECJ’s reasons were of a more general nature ([1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 34–35, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6839, paras 47–52 of the judgment).
[92] I do not consider that the reasoning in Fantask calls my conclusions so far into question. In the first place, the nature of the issue was very different. Fantask was a case where the limitation period, which did not offend Community law, had been in force from the inception of the Danish legislation which was intended, but failed fully, to transpose a Directive. The instant cases, however, concern the introduction of a new limitation period, in relation to a directly effective right, viz to claim input tax, and the limitation period is the very item which does offend Community law.
[93] Secondly, the charges in Fantask were, according to the Danish national court, ‘levied in pursuance of rules which had been in force for a long time and had been assumed by all concerned to be lawful’ ([1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 16, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6805, para 53 of the Advocate General’s opinion). By contrast, reg 29(1A) came into force in May 1997, and the possible unlawfulness of not having a transitional provision would have been clear to the commissioners well before December 1999 (when the High Court made the reference in Marks and Spencer II (see [2002] STC 1036 at 1044, [2003] QB 866 at 872–873, para 25 of the opinion in that case)).
[94] Thirdly, the ECJ in Fantask, as in Marks and Spencer II and Grundig II, emphasised that the determination of appropriate limitation periods (and, I add, it must follow, of appropriate periods of disapplication to ensure compliance with Community law) is primarily a matter ‘for the domestic legal system of each member state’ ([1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 34, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6838, para 47). In this case, unlike in Fantask, the limitation period in question undoubtedly infringes Community law, and it is therefore up to the United Kingdom courts, as the relevant arm of ‘the domestic legal system’, to decide on the appropriate means of compliance.
[95] Finally, the court in Fantask also stated that such periods must ‘not render [it] virtually impossible or excessively difficult’ to make a claim in ‘exercise of
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rights conferred by Community law’ ([1998] All ER (EC) 1 at 35, [1997] ECR I-6783 at 6839, para 52). In my opinion, if the period of disapplication in the present case expired in May 1998, it would have been ‘virtually impossible or excessively difficult’ for persons with accrued rights, as a class, to mount their claims in time. In the light of the wording of reg 29(1A), both common sense and expert legal advice (at least before the High Court reference in Marks and Spencer II in December 1999, at the very earliest) would have almost inevitably led to the clear conclusion that it would simply have been a waste of time, money and effort to make the necessary investigations and compilations to mount any claim for input tax after May 1997 based on accrued rights to reclaim.
[96] Having rejected the commissioners’ primary case (on the basis of much of the same reasoning as Lord Walker), it is necessary to consider a number of different possible periods of disapplication which have been identified. However, before considering the appropriate characterisation of the disapplication period in the present case, I must deal with another argument raised by the commissioners. They contend that only those people who could and would have made claims during the transitional period which ought to have been, but was not, accorded in May 1997, should be entitled to raise claims during the period of disapplication, whatever it is determined to be. That appears to me to be both wrong in principle and inconvenient in practice.
[97] The ‘could have’ point goes to whether the person concerned has an accrued right, and is therefore entitled to complain of the absence of a sufficient transitional provision. Accordingly, it appears to me to take matters no further. The ‘would have’ point is in my view simply wrong. A period, whether of transition or disapplication, is intended to be for the benefit of anyone who could take advantage of it. If the legislation fails to accord an effective transitional period, then the member state, through the legislature the executive or the courts, must do so. Quite apart from this, arguments and evidence as to the hypothetical question of whether a particular claim would have been made during a notional transitional period would very often be expensive and time-consuming and likely to lead to uncertainty. While not decisive, such a consideration is not irrelevant. Accordingly, again in agreement with Lord Walker, and also in agreement with the Court of Appeal in the Condé Nast case ([2006] EWCA Civ 976 at [48], [2006] STC 1721 at [48]), I would reject the commissioners’ contention that a person with an accrued right can only take advantage of a period of disapplication if he or she would have made a claim during the transitional period (if there had been one).
[98] A number of different possible dates were suggested as the start of the disapplication period (or, to be strictly accurate, the start of the end of the disapplication period) for the benefit of those with accrued rights as at 1 May 1997. It does not appear to me that it would accord with the principles I have been considering if the appropriate period ran from the publication of any of the decisions in Marks and Spencer II, Grundig II, or, indeed, University of Sussex (assuming in the commissioners’ favour that it is possible for a court decision to operate as the beginning of a period of disapplication). This is for two main reasons. The first is essentially the same as that discussed at [79](c), [87], and [88] above. In each case, it would be impossible for taxpayers with accrued claims to know the length of the period which the court would think it appropriate to determine as being the period of disapplication. As I have already mentioned, after Grundig II well-advised taxpayers might be pretty confident that it would be
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at least six months, but, crucially for present purposes, there was good reason to think that the period of disapplication could well have been longer.
[99] Secondly, it seems to me unrealistic to conclude that taxpayers should have appreciated that time was running prospectively against them (in the form of a period of disapplication) from any one of the decisions in Marks and Spencer II, Grundig II, and University of Sussex. While many large businesses no doubt had access to highly expert legal and accountancy advice, that would not have been true of the great majority of those who may have had accrued claims for input tax in 1997. To expect such people to appreciate the effect of those decisions of the ECJ or the Court of Appeal on their accrued rights to reclaim input tax is, in my opinion, unrealistic.
[100] This point is significantly reinforced by the fact that the commissioners (or their statutory predecessors) were publicly announcing that they were only prepared to accord a concession to a very limited number persons with accrued claims, namely those who could and would have made claims during a specific period immediately after 1 May 1997. This was done through the publication of two Business Briefs, BB 22/02 issued some three weeks after Marks and Spencer II, and BB 27/02 issued about two weeks after Grundig II. Even at the time of the decision of the Court of Appeal in University of Sussex v Customs and Excise Comrs [2003] EWCA Civ 1448, [2004] STC 1, taxpayers were still being led to believe that this was the view of the commissioners, as indeed it was. It seems to me clear that these two Briefs proceeded under the misapprehension discussed earlier, namely that the disapplication period could only be relied on by those who could and would have made claims during a transitional period, if one had been included in the legislation. I do not consider that people with accrued rights can fairly be said to have enjoyed a reasonable period of transition or disapplication if, during that period, they were being told by the commissioners, the relevant branch of the executive, that their claims would be rejected, because only a very limited category of claims would be paid.
[101] Until the Court of Appeal’s decision in University of Sussex, taxpayers with accrued claims for input tax were being told in BB 4/02 by the commissioners that reg 29 did not apply to their claims as they fell within s 80 of the 1994 Act. I was at one time attracted to the notion that that was another reason for rejecting Marks and Spencer II or Grundig II as starting the disapplication period. However, on reflection, I do not think that that is a good point. Whether an accrued claim fell under reg 29 or s 80, it was, in each case, subject to a retrospectively imposed time limit without a transitional provision.
[102] Accordingly, while I agree with the views of Lord Walker, and with the conclusion of Arden LJ in the Fleming case ([2006] EWCA Civ 70 at [51], [52], [2006] STC 864 at [51], [52]), that the reasoning of the ECJ requires the United Kingdom courts to impose a realistic period of disapplication in these two cases, I disagree with them that such a period should run from the ECJ’s decision in Marks and Spencer I ([2000] STC 16), or indeed the decisions in Grundig II or University of Sussex.
[103] I would also reject the notion that the period of disapplication should run from the issue of either of the two Business Briefs to which I have made reference. Although they each identified a specific period, and therefore did not suffer from want of certainty, and although, at least as presently advised, I consider that the latter of the two Briefs very probably gave a sufficient period (nearly nine months), they both limited the concession to a very narrow group of
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those with accrued rights at the date the time limit in reg 29(1A) was introduced. As already indicated, it does not seem to me to be reasonable to hold, that a person who had an accrued right has fairly been given an opportunity of making a claim, when the commissioners, the relevant organ of the executive arm of government, was officially announcing that, if such a claim were made, it would not be allowed. In any event, at least on the evidence available, I rather doubt whether the Business Briefs would have been sufficiently widely disseminated to make it right to conclude that all potential claimants should be treated as having had sufficient notice of the period of disapplication.
[104] In my opinion, the period of disapplication (or, to be strictly accurate, the beginning of the end of the period of disapplication) has not yet arisen. Subject to one point, I would have thought that it would be a matter for Parliament to legislate prospectively for a specific transitional period, or for the commissioners to communicate in clear terms, a final period during which claims for input tax arising before 1 May 1997 could be made. The possibility of legislation speaks for itself. The possibility of the commissioners giving what amounts to an extra-statutory concession was said on behalf of the respondents to be insufficient. I do not agree. Provided that the commissioners allow a sufficiently long period, which is effectively communicated in sufficiently clear terms to those registered for VAT, that would suffice.
[105] I do not see that this conclusion is inconsistent with what the ECJ said in para 25 of its judgment in EC Commission v United Kingdom Case C-33/03 [2005] STC 582 at 596, [2005] ECR I-1865 at 1891–1892, about the insufficiency of ‘tax authority guarantees’ and the need for conforming ‘national legislation’. That was a case in which the member state had not given effect to a Directive. This is a case where the member state has to disapply otherwise conforming legislation so as to comply with Community procedural law requirements. Indeed, as the commissioners argue, my view on this point is consistent with what the ECJ said in Stichting ‘Goed Wonen’ v Staatssecretaris van Financiën Case C-376/02 [2006] STC 833 at 850, [2005] ECR I-3445 at 3478, para 43 of the judgment about taking into account ‘procedures for dissemination of information normally used by the member state’ in a case involving legitimate expectation.
[106] The obligation to allow an appropriate period of disapplication in a case such as this lies with the member state. In principle, provided that an appropriate period of disapplication is properly accorded and communicated, the requirements of Community law would be satisfied. Legislation, whether primary or secondary, must be deemed to be sufficiently communicated by its enactment. There was some discussion before your Lordships’ House as to the ambit of the doctrine that citizens are to be assumed to know the law. In my judgment, that principle would enable the commissioners to contend that, if the legislature had accorded (either at the time reg 29(1A) became law or thereafter) a specific and valid transitional or disapplication period, it would not be open to anyone to contend that he or she was unaware of it.
[107] If, however, a period of disapplication was accorded by way of concession by the commissioners, it would, in my judgment, only be effective if it was properly communicated to those with accrued rights. In this connection, it seems to me that, as already mentioned, communication through the medium of Business Briefs alone may well not be sufficient, as they may come to the attention of only a limited number of taxpayers. However, that should not present problems for the commissioners. Each quarter, every person registered
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for VAT receives a VAT form, which he or she is, of course, bound to complete and return; normally included with the form is a pamphlet with information about recent developments in the law and practice relating to VAT. It would, it seems to me, be only too easy for such a pamphlet to include information about any period of disapplication accorded by the commissioners, and, provided the period was of a proper duration, that, in my opinion, would be quite sufficient. (I refer to Goed Wonen in this context.) It may also (or, even conceivably, alternatively) be appropriate for the commissioners to include this information on their website.
[108] There was no detailed argument as to whether, and if so in what circumstances, a decision of a court in this country could or should operate to commence a period of disapplication of a retrospective time limit which is introduced without a sufficient transitional period. I am prepared to accept that, in an appropriate case, a decision of a United Kingdom court could have that effect. However, in circumstances such as the present, because of the difficulty of ensuring adequate communication (or to use the word in Goed Wonen, dissemination) of a decision of the court to those who might be affected, other than by the commissioners, and the ease and speed with which the commissioners can grant and communicate a concession, I would have thought it unnecessary and inappropriate for a court decision to start time running. The speed with which the concessions contained in the two Business Briefs were made and issued following Marks and Spencer II and Grundig II speaks for itself (although, as I have said, I rather doubt that the Business Briefs alone represent a sufficient communication).
[109] In the event, therefore, for these reasons, and for those given by Lord Hope, all of which are somewhat different from those of the Court of Appeal, I would dismiss these two appeals.
Appeals dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Hamilton
[2008] 1 All ER 1103
[2007] EWCA Crim 2026
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): THOMAS LJ, AIKENS J AND DAME HEATHER STEEL
Hearing Date(s): 15 MAY, 16 AUGUST 2007
Criminal law – Public decency – Act outraging public decency – Common law offence – Act must be committed in public and more than one person must have been able to see it – Whether necessary for more than one person actually to see act where more than one person capable of seeing it.
A search warrant was executed at the defendant’s home and the police seized computer and camera equipment. It transpired that the defendant had used his digital camera to film up the skirts of women shopping in supermarkets by placing the camera in a rucksack with the lens hidden and pointing upwards. None of the women involved had ever seen him filming and neither store detectives nor anyone else had noticed him filming. He was charged, inter alia, with the common law offence of committing an act of outraging public decency. In the course of the trial the judge ruled that there was ample evidence upon which the jury could properly infer that the images were taken in public, that the filming had been capable of being seen by more than one member of the public and that such members of the public would have been outraged by the act of a male filming up a woman’s skirt. The defendant was convicted. He appealed against conviction contending that the common law offence was confined to cases where a lewd act was in fact witnessed by at least one person and at least one other person witnessed or could have seen the act. He argued that as no one had seen him in the act of filming no one had seen a lewd act and as public decency could therefore not have been outraged no offence had been committed.
Held – (1) It was established that the first element of the offence constituted the nature of the act which had to be proved namely that the act was of such a lewd, obscene or disgusting character that it outraged public decency. An obscene act was an act which offended against recognised standards of propriety and which was at a higher level of impropriety than indecency and a disgusting act was one which filled the onlooker with loathing or extreme distaste or caused annoyance. The act had to outrage minimum standards of public decency as judged by a jury in contemporary society. As it was not necessary to establish that any particular member of the public was outraged it followed that the requirement of outrage did not mean that anyone had to see the act whilst it was being carried out. In the instant case the act done by the defendant had been capable of being judged by a jury to be a lewd, obscene or disgusting act; it was the nature of the act that had to be considered and the jury had been entitled to find the act lewd, obscene or disgusting even if no one had seen him doing it (see [30], below); R v Stanley [1965] 1 All ER 1035, R v Choi (7 May 1999, unreported), Knuller (Publishing, Printing and Promotions) Ltd v DPP [1972] 2 All ER 898 applied.
(2) The second element of the offence was the public element, namely, that it had taken place in a public place and had to have been capable of being seen by two or more persons who were actually present. The purpose of that rule was
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to provide a basic requirement that had to be satisfied before it could be said that the offence was of a sufficiently public nature for it to be an offence; it could be satisfied if there were two or more persons present who were capable of seeing the nature of the act, even if they did not actually see it. In most cases there would be no evidence against a defendant unless the act was seen by someone but that did not mean that where an act was in fact done which was lewd, obscene or disgusting and was of a nature that outraged public decency and was done where it was proved that people were present and capable of seeing its nature was not an offence. Accordingly, in the instant case, the appeal against conviction would be dismissed (see [31]–[41], below); Knuller (Publishing, Printing and Promotions) Ltd v DPP [1972] 2 All ER 898 and R v Tinsley [2003] EWCA Crim 3032, [2003] All ER (D) 29 (Nov) considered.
Notes
For outraging public decency, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 764.
Cases referred to in judgment
Knuller (Publishing, Printing and Promotions) Ltd v DPP [1972] 2 All ER 898, [1973] AC 435, [1972] 3 WLR 143, HL.
Ludlow v Metropolitan Police Comr [1970] 1 All ER 567, [1971] AC 29, [1970] 2 WLR 521, HL.
Mirehouse v Rennell (1833) 1 Cl & Fin 527, 6 ER 1015, HL.
R v Barrell (1979) 69 Cr App Rep 250, CA.
R v Bunyan (1844) 1 Cox CC 74.
R v Butler (1834) 6 C&P 368, 172 ER 1280.
R v Choi (7 May 1999, unreported), CA.
R v Christou [1996] 2 All ER 927, [1997] AC 117, [1996] 2 WLR 620, HL.
R v Crunden (1809) 2 Camp 89, 170 ER 1091.
R v Delaval (1763) 3 Burr 1434, 97 ER 913.
R v Elliot (1861) Le & Ca 103, 169 ER 1322, CCR.
R v Farrell (1862) 9 Cox CC 446.
R v Harris (1871) LR 1 CCR 282, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 1308.
R v Holmes (1853) Dears CC 207, 169 ER 697, CCR.
R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App Rep 412, CCC.
R v May (1989) 91 Cr App Rep 157, CA.
R v Mayling [1963] 1 All ER 687, [1963] 2 QB 717, [1963] 2 WLR 709, CCA.
R v Orchard (1848) 3 Cox CC 248.
R v Reed (1871) 12 Cox CC 1.
R v Rouverard (1830, unreported).
R v Rowley [1991] 4 All ER 649, [1991] 1 WLR 1020, CA.
R v Saunders (1875) 1 QBD 15, CCR.
R v Sidley (1663) 1 Sid 168, 82 ER 1036, sub nom Sydlyes’ Case (1663) 1 Keb 620, 83 ER 1146.
R v Stanley [1965] 1 All ER 1035, [1965] 2 QB 327, [1965] 2 WLR 917, CCA.
R v Thallman (1863) 9 Cox CC 388, CCR.
R v Tinsley [2003] EWCA Crim 3032, [2003] All ER (D) 29 (Nov).
R v Walker [1996] 1 Cr App Rep 111, CA.
R v Watson (1847) 2 Cox CC 376.
R v Webb (1848) 1 Den 338, 169 ER 271, CCR.
R v Wellard (1884) 14 QBD 63, [1881–5] All ER Rep 1018, CCR.
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Rose v DPP [2006] EWHC 852 (Admin), [2006] 1 WLR 2626, DC.
Shaw v DPP [1961] 2 All ER 446, [1962] AC 220, [1961] 2 WLR 897, HL.
Appeal
Simon Austin Hamilton appealed with leave of the full court (i) against his conviction on 27 April 2006 in the Crown Court at Canterbury after a trial before Judge Williams and a jury of the common law offence of committing an act outraging public decency; and (ii) his sentence of nine months’ imprisonment consecutive on sentences of three years’ and two years’ imprisonment concurrent following his convictions for possession of indecent images with a view to distribution and making indecent photographs contrary to the Child Protection Act 1978. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Anthony Chinn QC and Trevor Siddle (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
James Townend QC and Andrew Jones (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Judgment was reserved.
16 August 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
THOMAS LJ.
[1] On 30 July 2003 a search warrant was executed at the appellant’s home address in Sussex under s 4 of the Protection of Children Act 1978. The police seized a considerable quantity of computer equipment (including CDs and floppy disks, a Sony digital camera and a briefcase containing eight digital video cassettes). After interviews and analysis of the computers, the appellant was charged and subsequently indicted with a number of offences which can be grouped as follows: (i) Making an indecent photograph of children contrary to s 1(1)(a) of the 1978 Act. There were five offences charged in counts 1, 3, 4, 5, and 8 of the indictment which related to the downloading of indecent images of children from the internet. (ii) Possession of an indecent photograph of a child for show contrary to s 1(1)(c) of the 1978 Act; counts 2, 6 and 9 of the indictment charged three offences related to the distribution of indecent photographs of children. (iii) Taking an indecent photograph of a child contrary to s 1(1)(a) of the 1978 Act. Count 10 of the indictment charged this offence in relation to the taking of a photograph up the skirt of a 14-year-old girl; we refer to the facts in more detail at [7], below. He was also charged with a further offence on count 7, but acquitted on the judge’s direction. (iv) Committing an act of outraging public decency contrary to common law. Counts 11, 12, 13, 14 and 15 of the indictment charged five of these offences which related to occasions in 2001 when it was alleged that the appellant had, in a manner we shall describe in more detail at [5] and [6] below, filmed up adult women’s skirts. The principal issue in the appellant’s appeal relates to whether, on the facts which are not in issue, the appellant’s conduct amounted to the commission of an act outraging public decency.
[2] The appellant was committed to the Crown Court at Canterbury as he was a practising barrister and well known in Sussex. On 4 June 2004 he made an application in person to have the counts relating to outraging public decency dismissed but that application failed. On 5 December 2004 an application was
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made that the offences under the 1978 Act should not be joined in the indictment with the offence of outraging public decency. This submission was rejected. Those applications were renewed at the commencement of the trial but rejected.
[3] On 27 April 2006 the appellant was convicted on all the counts after a trial before Judge Williams and a jury. He was sentenced that same day to a sentence on counts 2, 6 and 9 (possession of indecent images with a view to distribution) to three years’ imprisonment with a sentence of two years’ imprisonment concurrent for the offences of making indecent photographs. He was sentenced to a term of nine months’ imprisonment on count 10 and counts 11–15 in relation to filming up the skirt of the 14-year-old and the adult women; the sentences were concurrent to each other but consecutive to the sentence of three years on counts 2, 6 and 9. The total sentence was one of three years and nine months.
[4] His application for leave to appeal against conviction was refused by the single judge who granted leave to appeal only on sentence. The application for leave to appeal against conviction was renewed to the full court who granted leave on three grounds: (i) Whether on the evidence adduced before the court an offence of outraging public decency had been committed, as no one other than the appellant was shown to be aware of what he was doing when he was filming. (ii) Whether the offences of outraging public decency should properly have been joined with the other counts in the indictment. (iii) If they were properly joined, whether the judge wrongly exercised her discretion by failing to sever those counts from the other counts. Leave was refused on other grounds.
THE OFFENCE OF OUTRAGING PUBLIC DECENCY
The facts
[5] The appellant admitted taking video footage with a camera so positioned by him that he was able to take footage up the skirts of the 14-year-old and the various women who were shopping in supermarkets. He had done so surreptitiously. Before entering the supermarket he placed his Sony digital camera in a rucksack with the lens hidden and pointing upwards and wedged in position; he disabled the indicator light that would have flashed when he was filming. He manoeuvred the rucksack into a position whereby it was pointed up the inside of a woman’s skirt to film her underclothes in the area of her crotch; the camera would automatically focus on what was in the centre of the lens. This was a random method of filming, but he found that one of the best points at which to film was at checkout queues where the woman up whose skirt he was filming was more likely to be stationary. This practice is known as ‘up-skirting’.
[6] None of the women involved had ever seen him filming and none of the adults filmed had been identified; neither the store detectives nor anyone else had noticed what he was doing. What he had done was only discovered when the police found at his house 20 hours of his filming on video cassettes. It was accepted that there had to be a direct line of sight between the lens and the object which was being taken. It was contended by the prosecution that the lens was therefore capable of being seen and so what he was doing could therefore have been seen at the supermarkets. This was disputed by the appellant.
[7] The police identified the female referred to in count 10. She was a schoolgirl who had been filmed wearing a school uniform in the Westgate Leisure Centre in Chichester. She was at the time 14 years and 5 months. The
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appellant had been confident that she was a sixth former and at least 16 years old and had expressed surprise to hear that she was only 14.
[8] The appellant said that he did not believe he had committed a criminal offence in filming adults. He had stopped filming in 2001, partly because he believed that this conduct was covered by s 67 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003.
The proceedings
[9] On 4 June 2004 the appellant in person applied, as we have mentioned, to dismiss the proceedings in relation to the offences of outraging public decency on the basis that the prosecution had to prove there was an element of publication in the activity. It was his submission that there was no evidence that he was seen by anyone, there was no publicity and that his intention was irrelevant. The judge ruled principally in reliance of the decision in R v Mayling [1963] 1 All ER 687, [1963] 2 QB 717 that there was ample evidence upon which a jury could properly infer that the images were taken in public; that the film was capable of being seen by more than one member of the public and that such members of the public would have been outraged by the act of a male videoing up a woman’s skirt.
[10] The application was renewed by counsel on the basis of the Divisional Court’s decision in Rose v DPP [2006] EWHC 852 (Admin), [2006] 1 WLR 2626. The judge rejected the submission on the basis that, whilst there was no evidence of anyone actually seeing the defendant filming women as alleged, the common law requirement was that at least two people must have been able to see the act in question.
[11] The submissions made on that occasion and on 4 June 2004 had included a submission in relation to count 10 as, at that time, that count was also charged as an offence of outraging public decency. Following legal argument, as the count related to a 14-year-old girl, the count was amended to the count to which we have referred above as taking indecent images of a child contrary to s 1(1)(a) of the 1978 Act.
[12] At the close of the prosecution case, it was submitted that on the judge’s own test there was no case to answer since there had been no evidence of any member of the public who had been able to see the filming. The submission was rejected on the basis that it was entirely a matter for the jury.
[13] When the judge summed up the case to the jury she directed the jury as follows:
‘Here the Crown must make you sure of the following ingredients before you convict the defendant. Firstly, that it was committed in public. Well, there is no dispute about that. Secondly, that there existed the real possibility that members of the general public might witness it in the sense that at least two persons must have been able to see the act, namely, the filming. And, thirdly, that the act is of such a lewd, obscene or disgusting character that it constitutes an outrage to public decency. It is those two last ingredients which are in dispute here. It is not necessary for the Crown to prove that the act in fact disgusted or annoyed any person, so the questions you have to ask and answer in respect of counts 11 to 15 are as follows: am I sure that when the defendant did the act, namely the filming, there was a real possibility that members of the public would witness it in the sense that at least two people must have been able to see it? Secondly, am I sure that the act was of such a lewd, obscene or disgusting character so as to constitute an outrage to public
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decency? If your answer to both those questions is yes, then your verdict should be guilty. If your answer to either of those questions is no, then your verdict should be not guilty. The Crown argue here that filming up women’s skirts in a supermarket was in public with the real possibility that members of the public could have witnessed it and that at least two people must have been able to see it if they had looked. Secondly, the act was so obscene as to outrage public decency. The defence argue: not a bit of it. They say that no one did see him. That despite the fact that he filmed, on his own admission, approximately anything between ten to twenty hours’ worth of up-skirting images, no one confronted him or spoke to him and no one saw him and that the act, in any event, is not so obscene as to outrage public decency.’
The arguments
[14] The arguments put forward can be briefly summarised. (i) The appellant contended that the offence of outraging public decency as developed by the nineteenth century cases was confined to cases where a lewd act was in fact witnessed by at least one person; and that the public element was satisfied if in addition at least one other person witnessed or could have seen the act. As no one saw the appellant in the act of filming, no one saw a lewd act; public decency could not have been outraged; therefore no offence was committed. (ii) The prosecution submitted that the offence was committed if three elements were proved: (a) The act was committed in public; (b) The act was of such a lewd, obscene and disgusting character as to constitute an outrage to public decency; (c) The act was either seen or was capable of being seen by two members of the public present at the time of its commission. Each of these elements was satisfied; the fact that no one actually saw the appellant filming did not matter. The act of filming was capable of being seen and could have come to light if store detectives had been more vigilant, or his bag had spilled or someone had heard the sound of the video or been curious as to the appellant’s movements.
[15] Both parties accepted that there was no case which covered the issue in this case; each relied on the decided cases, particularly those decided in the nineteenth century in support of its contentions. It is therefore necessary to examine the authorities and the contentions made about them.
[16] It is, however, convenient to begin by referring to Knuller (Publishing, Printing and Promotions) Ltd v DPP [1972] 2 All ER 898, [1973] AC 435 as it was in that case that the House of Lords made clear that there was still an offence of outraging public decency at common law. The defendants had published a magazine in which advertisements were placed inviting readers to meet for the purpose of homosexual practices; their conviction for conspiracy to outrage public decency was upheld. Lord Simon of Glaisdale considered that the decided cases showed that there was a general rule that conduct which outraged public decency was an offence at common law; this was also the view taken in Russell on Crime (12th edn, 1964) Ch 97, pp 1423–1433.
[17] However, though the offence can be expressed in very general terms in that way, it is clear that the offence of outraging public decency has particular elements that must be established before a person can be convicted. It was common ground that those elements of the offence applicable to the case against the appellant must be distilled from the cases where the relevant principles have
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been set out. This process was described by Parke B in Mirehouse v Rennell (1833) 1 Cl & Fin 527 at 546, 6 ER 1015 at 1023:
‘Our common-law system consists in the applying to new combinations of circumstances those rules of law which we derive from legal principles and judicial precedents; and for the sake of attaining uniformity, consistency and certainty, we must apply those rules, where they are not plainly unreasonable and inconvenient, to all cases which arise; and we are not at liberty to reject them, and to abandon all analogy to them, in those to which they have not yet been judicially applied, because we think that the rules are not as convenient and reasonable as we ourselves could have devised.’
The issue raised in the appeal gives rise therefore not only to an issue as to elements of the common law offence, but also to an issue as to the way in which the principles derived from the cases are to be applied to contemporary standards of behaviour.
The origin of the offence
[18] The early cases established the very general proposition that an offence was committed when public decency was outraged in the presence of people. (i) The earliest case appears to have been R v Sidley (1663) 1 Sid 168, 82 ER 1036; the defendant Sir Charles Sedley showed himself naked on the balcony of a house in Covent Garden in the presence of several people and urinated on them. He was indicted at common law and pleaded guilty; he was told by the justices that:
‘Notwithstanding that there was not any Star Chamber, yet they would leave him to know that the Court of King’s Bench was the custos morum of all the King’s subjects and that it was then high time to punish such profane actions, committed against all modesty, when they were as frequent as if not only Christianity but morality also had been neglected.’ (See (1663) 1 Sid 168 at 168, 82 ER 1036 at 1036.)
(ii) In R v Crunden (1809) 2 Camp 89, 170 ER 1091, the defendant went bathing at Brighton; he could be seen as he undressed and swam in the sea. He was convicted of outraging decency for exposing his naked person in presence of people. The note to the report states that this was the first prosecution of the sort in modern times, the only case resembling it in the books being that of R v Sidley. McDonald CB held that by exposing his naked person he was guilty of a misdemeanour, as it outraged public decency:
‘The law will not tolerate such an exhibition. Whatever his intention might be, the necessary tendency of his conduct was to outrage decency, and to corrupt the public morals.’ (See (1809) 2 Camp 89 at 91, 170 ER 1091 at 1091.)
It was no defence that people had previously bathed there naked before the houses were built: ‘Whatever place becomes the habitation of civilized men, there the laws of decency must be enforced.’ (See (1809) 2 Camp 89 at 91–92, 170 ER 1091 at 1092.)
[19] But the offence was not confined to circumstances where a person exposed himself; for example in R v Delaval (1763) 3 Burr 1434, 97 ER 913, the
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offence was applied to procuring a girl for the purposes of prostitution. The very general nature of the offence was reflected in the mid-nineteenth century books which were cited in the cases where the elements of the offence were further developed. (i) In A Treatise of the Pleas of the Crown (7th edn, 1795) Ch 5, Section 4, p 12 Hawkins described the offence (categorised as an offence against God) as:
‘All open lewdness grossly scandalous; such as was that of those persons who exposed themselves naked to the people in a balcony in Covent-garden with most abominable circumstances.’
(ii) In East A Treatise of the Pleas of the Crown (1803) Ch 1, p 3 under the heading ‘Offences against Religion, Morality and the Church Establishment’, one of the offences was:
‘all scandalous and open breaches of morality exhibited in the face of the people; such as was the conduct of one who exposed himself naked to the public view from a balcony in Covent-Garden.’
(iii) Burn’s Justice of the Peace and Parish Officer (29th edn, 1845) p 1191 under the title ‘Lewdness’, was more detailed:
‘But although lewdness be properly punishable by the ecclesiastical law, yet the offence of keeping a bawdy-house cometh also under the cognizance of the law temporal, as a common nuisance, not only in respect of its endangering the public peace, by drawing together dissolute and debauched persons, but also in respect of its apparent tendency to corrupt the manners of both sexes. (3 Inst 205; 1 Hawk.c.74, Obs.1).
So, in general, all open lewdness grossly scandalous is punishable upon indictment at the common law. (1 Hawk c.5, s.4; and see a form of indictment for open fornication, West, 239; R. v. Delaval, 1 Bla. Rep. 439). An indecent exposure of the person to public view is an indictable offence at common law, (R. v. Crunden), 2 Camp. 89), as in the case of public bathing: as to which see tit. “Bathing,” Vol. I. In R. v. Sir Charles Sedley, Stra.168; Sir C. Sydley’s case, 1 Keb.620 . . .
A count in an indictment charged that a defendant “did attempt to assault” a girl “by soliciting and inducing her” to place herself in an indecent attitude, he doing the like: it was held, that such a count was bad. (R. v. Butler [(1834) 6 C&P 368, 172 ER 1280]).’
(iv) Archbold’s Pleading And Evidence In Criminal Cases (1822) Ch 5, s 3 set out a model indictment for ‘open and notorious lewdness’ in respect of exposure of the naked person. It referred to the defendant—
‘on a certain public and common highway there situate, in the presence of divers liege subjects of our said lord the King, and then and there being, and within sight and view of divers other liege subjects through and on the said highway then and there passing and repassing, unlawfully, wickedly, and scandalously did expose to the view of the said persons so present, and so passing and repassing as aforesaid, the body and person of him the said . . .
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naked and uncovered, for a long space of time, to wit, for the space of one hour: to the great scandal of the said liege subjects . . .’
The nineteenth century cases
[20] A series of cases in the middle of the nineteenth century established the elements of the offence which had to be proved if a conviction was to be obtained. (i) In R v Rouverard (1830, unreported) tried at York (see the report of R v Webb (1848) 1 Den 338 at 344, 169 ER 271 at 273 referred to in sub-para (iv)), the defendant had exposed himself at a window in an attempt to excite a female who lived on the opposite side of the street. Parke B directed the jury that exposure by the defendant to one person was not sufficient to constitute the offence, but if the jury found that the defendant was in such a position that those in the street could have seen him had they happened to look, it was an offence; it did not matter that no one in the street had actually seen him. (ii) In R v Bunyan (1844) 1 Cox CC 74, the two defendants were seen by a servant through the window exposing themselves to each other and committing lewd acts in a parlour room of a public house where they were alone; she summoned others who witnessed the act. The indictment charged the offence as being in the sight and view of the servant and divers others. It was argued that publicity was of the essence of the offence and that therefore it was essential that it be committed in a public place so that the natural consequence of it was that it would be seen by others and that it was actually seen by others. The Recorder of London held that it was not necessary to prove that the public would detect them as the parties would seek as much privacy as they could, but was their position such that there was no reasonable probability of their being discovered? It was sufficient that they exposed themselves in a place where they were likely to be witnessed by others. (iii) In R v Watson (1847) 2 Cox CC 376; the defendant exposed himself to a 12-year-old female in Paddington Churchyard. He was found guilty on an indictment charging him with outraging public decency on the basis of exposing himself in a public place, but only in the presence of the girl. The conviction was challenged on the basis that, although the act was plainly indecent and in a public place, it was no offence in law as only one person was present; the indictment charged the offence as being in the sight and view of the girl, but not others. Lord Denman’s short judgment was (at 377):
‘The general rule is, that a nuisance must be public; that is, to the injury or offence of several. There is no precedent of such an indictment as the present, and we are not inclined to make one.’
There was an offence of exposure under the Vagrancy Act 1824, but he was not charged with that offence. (iv) That decision was followed in the following year in R v Orchard (1848) 3 Cox CC 248 and in R v Webb. In the first case, the relevant part of the indictment charged the defendants with exposure to each other and the commission of lewd acts in a urinal in a market which was alleged to be a public place; no one could see in from the outside. The prosecution argued that if the defendants committed an act in a place where the public could enter and witness what was happening then that was sufficient. It was held by Cresswell J at the Old Bailey that the place was not a public place for the purpose of the offence as everyone who entered had to expose himself and exposure to one
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person was not enough. The second case, R v Webb is the more important; the defendant had exposed himself to a barmaid in the bar of a public house when there was no one else in sight. He was indicted for outraging public decency and found guilty; his conviction was reserved for the opinion of five judges in the Exchequer Chamber, including Cresswell J and Parke B. The argument was made on his behalf that the defendant should not have been convicted of outraging public decency as the indictment averred that he exposed and exhibited himself in the ‘presence’ (as opposed to ‘within sight and view’) of the woman and others; it was essential it be in the sight of the public and the words used in the indictment did not make this clear. In any event the evidence showed that there was indecent exposure in the sight of one woman only and that was not sufficient for the offence of outraging public decency. The prosecution contended that the words in the indictment meant ‘expose to view’. All the judges agreed that, although the indictment averred that he exposed and exhibited himself in the presence of others, the evidence proved only an exposure in the sight of the woman; that was insufficient to prove the offence. Differing views were expressed by the judges in the course of argument and in their judgments on whether it was sufficient to aver exposure in the presence of people rather than averring that it was also in the sight or view of people so that they could see it (as opposed to actually seeing it); Pollock CB observed in the course of argument: ‘This indictment only says, “in the presence of”; and it might be that the defendant took particular care that it should not be seen.’ (See (1848) 2 Car & Kir 933 at 939–940, 175 ER 391 at 394.) The case therefore appears to have left open the point as to whether the act had to be merely in the presence of others or whether it had to be in the presence of others who could have seen the act, but the strong view expressed was that it had to be in the sight of others. The 1849 edition of Archbold (11th edn) Book II, Pt II, Ch V, s 4, p 673 observed in the light of R v Webb: ‘The allegation, that the offence was committed “within sight and view of divers liege subjects,” &c appears to be necessary.’ (v) In R v Holmes (1853) Dears CC 207, 169 ER 697, the defendant exposed himself on a public bus; he was indicted for exposing himself in a public vehicle frequented and used by divers subjects of the Queen ‘to the view of’ them and in a second count for exposing himself in a public place. It was considered by a court of five judges. It was contended that there was no offence because the bus was not a public place so as to constitute a nuisance. Lord Campbell CJ’s judgment was:
‘It would be a disgrace to the law if we had any doubt that both counts are good. The defendant exposed himself in a public omnibus in the New Road, in the presence of several women, and this country would not be fit to live in if this were not an offence.’ (See (1853) Dears CC 207 at 209, 169 ER 697 at 699.)
Parke B simply held that the omnibus was a public place and exposure to more than one person was an offence. (vi) In R v Elliot (1861) Le & Ca 103, 169 ER 1322, the defendants were convicted of exposing themselves on Wandsworth Common under an indictment that charged them with doing so in the ‘sight and view’ of divers others. There was evidence that they had sexual intercourse on the common, but there was no evidence that it was seen by anyone other than a single witness or within the possible sight and view of anyone else who was shown to be there. Though their act could have been seen by others on the common or a public footway or footbridge, there was no evidence that there
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were persons on the common or the footway or footbridge at the time. The jury were directed that they could convict if the acts could be seen without difficulty by others. It was argued for the defendant that the exposure had to be public in the sense of being to the offence or injury of more than one person; the prosecution argued that an indecent exposure was indictable whether seen by others or not, as they exposed themselves where they might have been seen. Although one judge suggested that all open lewdness was indictable as outraging public decency, the argument centred on the question whether a conviction could be upheld, as there was no evidence that anyone other than the single witness was passing at the time and therefore might have seen it. Wightman J noted ((1861) Le & Ca 103 at 108, 169 ER 1322 at 1324): ‘The case depends on this question, Could the parties be convicted, if no one saw them, as, for instance, upon their own confession merely?' The court of five judges disagreed amongst themselves; it was to be reargued, but the report notes that the court subsequently decided that it was not desirable to do so and no judgment was delivered. The note in the report observes that the case left the law uncertain as to position, where the exposure was in a public place and it was actually seen by one person and it could have been seen by passers by. (vii) In the following year the Court of Criminal Appeal in Ireland decided in R v Farrell (1862) 9 Cox CC 446, that indecent exposure seen by one person and capable of being seen by one person only was not an offence. The defendant exposed himself on a public road so that he was seen by one person as there was only one person passing at the time, though he could have been seen by others who might have been passing. The Chief Justice giving the judgment of the court said (at 447–448) in quashing the conviction:
‘. . . but it is not to be taken that we lay it down that if the prisoner was seen by but one person, but there was evidence that others might have witnessed the offence at the time, we would not uphold the conviction; but in this case there is no evidence that any one could have seen the prisoner commit the offence on the 24th September, except the one female. Therefore, all that we say is, that an exposure seen by one person only, and being capable of being seen by one person only, is not an offence at common law. If there had been others in such a situation as that they could have seen the prisoner, there would have been a criminal offence.’
(viii) In R v Thallman (1863) 9 Cox CC 388, the defendant exposed himself on the roof of a house in Albemarle Street, Piccadilly opposite to a window in a house where females lived. He was indicted for doing this in the ‘sight and view’ of those who lived opposite and of those going along the public highway. His actions could not be seen from the street but only from the windows of neighbouring houses. He was convicted, but argued that the exposure was not visible to anyone passing along the street and therefore was not in a public place. The court held in a very short judgment that it was not necessary that the exposure be on a public highway. ‘If it is in a place where a number of the Queen’s subjects can and do see the exposure, that is sufficient’ (at 390). In their very illuminating work Sexual Offences Law and Practice, (3rd edn, 2004) p 412 (para 14.43) Judge Rook QC and Robert Ward consider that this case was an example of the court considering that the requirement that the act must be committed in a public place was falling into disfavour; they rely on dicta in other cases that they suggest support their view.
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[21] In our judgment these cases established that if the offence of outraging public decency was to be proved, it was necessary to prove two elements. (i) The act was of such a lewd character as to outrage public decency; this element constituted the nature of the act which had to be proved before the offence could be established. (ii) It took place in a public place and must have been capable of being seen by two or more persons who were actually present, even if they had not actually seen it. This constituted the public element of the offence which had to be proved. As the cases to which we will refer show, there was still some uncertainty as to what was required. In all the cases the act had in fact been seen by one person, but R v Elliot (1861) Le & Ca 103, 169 ER 1322 left open the point summarised by Wightman J which we have set out.
[22] The cases of the later nineteenth century were largely concerned with an examination of what constituted the public element in the offence. In R v Harris (1871) LR 1 CCR 282, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 1308, the defendants were observed by the police through openings in a urinal exposing themselves to each other and committing acts of lewdness; the Court of Crown Cases Reserved distinguished R v Orchard (1848) 3 Cox CC 248 and held that a urinal open to the public just off a footpath was a public place just as much as a public highway. In R v Reed (1871) 12 Cox CC 1, Cockburn CJ held on assize that a person bathing naked at a place near Chichester could be convicted of indecent exposure if he bathed naked so that he could be seen from a path where the public were likely to go. A similar broad view was taken in R v Saunders (1875) 1 QBD 15; the defendant was a travelling showman who invited persons into a tent on Epsom Downs for payment to see an exhibition that was indecent. The Court for Crown Cases Reserved dismissed the contention that this was not a public place in a very short judgment. In R v Wellard (1884) 14 QBD 63, [1881–5] All ER Rep 1018, the defendant took a group of young girls onto a marsh at a spot away from a public footpath and exposed himself; they were all technically trespassers on the marsh, but the public frequented the spot without anyone trying to stop them. It was argued that it was not a public place. Lord Coleridge said ((1884) 14 QBD 63 at 66):
‘I am of opinion that we should not hold that it is sufficient to prove that, as a matter of law, the place was one to which there was no strict legal right of access in order to make out a defence where the act is in fact committed in the presence of a number of the public, in the presence of a number, that is, of persons. It is, I concede, difficult to define affirmatively what is a public place; this place, however, is clearly so. The public did undoubtedly have access to it. I am by no means sure that at common law the publicity of the place itself is an essential element in the offence, and I am not inclined now to say so: it is not necessary to decide this question. It is, however, obvious that what is a public place may vary from time to time, and what we now have to consider is, was this place at the time public?’ (See also [1881–5] All ER Rep 1018 at 1019–1020.)
He considered that it was, as the public resorted to it. The other judges came to the same conclusion, but they all made it clear that they either thought that the offence could be committed without it being in a public place or were not prepared to rule that out. Huddleston B added ((1884) 14 QBD 63 at 67):
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‘The beach at Brighton is not public property, yet an exposure there is punishable. It seems to be established that, speaking generally, whatever openly outrages decency and is injurious to public morals is a misdemeanour at common law. The act was in a public and open place, and that disposes of the case, but I am by no means satisfied that indecency before several in a private place is not punishable.’ (See also [1881–5] All ER Rep 1018 at 1022.)
The modern cases
[23] That the main elements of the offence were settled by the series of cases in the middle of the nineteenth century to which we have referred was made clear by this court in R v Mayling [1963] 1 All ER 687, [1963] 2 QB 717. That appears to have been the first case where any issue about the nature of the offence arose in the twentieth century. The defendant followed a man into a public lavatory; another man entered the lavatory and came straight out looking disgusted and annoyed. Two policemen then entered the lavatory and found the appellant and another masturbating, but they did not give evidence of their being disgusted at this. It was argued for the appellant that proof was required that more than one person must have been able to see the act in order to establish it was committed in public and proof was also required that those who saw the act were disgusted and annoyed. In giving the judgment of the Court of Criminal Appeal dismissing that argument Ashworth J said ([1963] 1 All ER 687 at 688–689, [1963] 2 QB 717 at 724):
‘In the judgment of this court, it is now well-established that an offence so described is punishable at common law and, indeed, it was not contended on behalf of the appellant that no such offence exists. It is equally well-established that the act complained of must be committed in public if it is to constitute the offence, and in many of the reported cases the main issue was the question what had to be proved in order to show that the act was committed in public.’
Relying on R v Watson (1847) 2 Cox CC 376, R v Webb (1848) 1 Den 338, 169 ER 271 and R v Farrell (1862) 9 Cox CC 446, he concluded that:
‘. . . it is, in the view of this court, clear that more than one person must at least have been able to see the act complained of, if the charge is to be made out . . . So far as the present appeal is concerned, there was undoubtedly evidence that more than one person actually saw the act complained of, namely, the two police officers. Whether the young man who retreated hurriedly from the lavatory also saw it, is not known as he was not called as a witness, but there was material before the jury from which they could infer that he did. However that may be, the requirement that more than one person should have been able to see the act was plainly satisfied. In addition to publicity as previously explained, it is, of course, necessary for the prosecution to establish that the act complained of was an act of indecency or, to use the words in the indictment, an act outraging public decency. On the assumption that the evidence of the police officers about the behaviour of the appellant was accepted by the jury, this requirement also was plainly satisfied.’ (See [1963] 1 All ER 687 at 689, [1963] 2 QB 717 at 724–725.)
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It was not necessary to prove that the act in fact disgusted and annoyed all those who saw it:
‘In the present case, it is to be noted that, in the particulars of offence, the act was described as “of a lewd obscene and disgusting nature and outraging public decency”, and it was incumbent on the prosecution to satisfy the jury not merely that the appellant did the act and did it in public, but also that the act was of the description alleged. The operative words, ie, “of a lewd obscene and disgusting nature and outraging public decency”, may be paraphrased without altering their effect as “such an act of a lewd obscene or disgusting nature as constitutes an outrage to public decency involving great disgust and annoyance of divers of Her Majesty’s subjects”. If the jury were so satisfied the offence was proved and, in the judgment of this court, it was not necessary for the prosecution to go further and prove actual disgust or annoyance on the part of any observer.‘ (See [1963] 1 All ER 687 at 690, [1963] 2 QB 717 at 726.)
[24] Although some reference was made to the nineteenth century cases that established the offence of outraging public decency in Shaw v DPP [1961] 2 All ER 446, [1962] AC 220, it was the decision of the House of Lords in the Knuller case [1972] 2 All ER 898, [1973] AC 435 which not only confirmed the continuing existence of the offence but which clarified elements of the offence. It is only necessary to refer to what Lord Simon of Glaisdale categorised ([1972] 2 All ER 898 at 935, [1973] AC 435 at 494) as the requirement of publicity: he first summarised the decision in R v Mayling which showed—
‘that the substantive offence (and therefore the conduct the subject of the conspiracy) must be committed in public, in the sense that the circumstances must be such that the alleged outrageously indecent matter could have been seen by more than one person, even though in fact no more than one did see it. If it is capable of being seen by one person only, no offence is committed.’
He then answered the prosecution argument that it was immaterial that the act alleged to outrage public decency took place in public provided the public’s sense of decency was outraged.
‘The authorities establish that the word “public” has a different connotation in the respective offences of conspiracy to corrupt public morals and conduct calculated to, or conspiracy to, outrage public decency. In the first it refers to certain fundamental rules regarded as essential social control which yet lack the force of law, in other words when applicable to individuals “public” refers to persons in society. In the latter offences, however, “public” refers to the places in which the offence is committed. This is borne out by the way the rule was framed by my noble and learned friend, Lord Reid, in Shaw’s case . . . in the passage which I have just cited. It is also borne out by what is presumably the purpose of the legal rule—namely, that reasonable people may venture out in public without the risk of outrage to certain minimum accepted standards of decency. On the other hand, I do not think that it would necessarily negative the offence that the act or exhibit is superficially hid from view, if the public is expressly or impliedly invited to penetrate the cover. Thus, the public touting for an outrageously indecent
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exhibition in private would not escape: see R v Saunders ((1875) 1 QBD 15).’ (See [1972] 2 All ER 898 at 936, [1973] AC 435 at 495–496 .)
[25] There are four further decisions of this court to which it may be helpful briefly to refer; all affirm the elements of the offence as established by the nineteenth century cases, but make clear what was meant by the act having to be committed in a public place. (i) In R v May (1989) 91 Cr App Rep 157, the defendant simulated sex in the presence of two boys in a school classroom with a door into a well used corridor that was sometimes open. It was contended that as they were participants, the acts were not committed in the presence of two persons and therefore not in public. The court held (at 159) that the public nature of the offence could be established if it could be proved that more than one person ‘must at least have been able to see the act. If one person is proved to have seen the act and others might have seen it taking place that is enough’. As the boys were not participants and it was possible anyone might have walked into the classroom at any time, there was ample evidence for the jury. (ii) In R v Rowley [1991] 4 All ER 649, [1991] 1 WLR 1020, the defendant had left notes which were offering money to boys who would run errands; although the notes were suggestive, the defendant’s diary provided evidence that the notes were indicative of intended sexual activity with the boys. The judge admitted the diaries into evidence and directed the jury that they were entitled to look at the motive and purpose behind the notes. Taylor LJ giving the judgment of the court held:
‘In our judgment the offence consists in the deliberate commission of an act which is per se of a lewd, obscene or disgusting nature and outraging public decency. The crux of it is therefore the nature and effect of the act itself. Although the ultimate intention of the actor and his motive for his act may be the subsequent performance of lewd, obscene or disgusting acts, his intention and motive cannot, in our judgment, supply lewdness or obscenity to the act if the act itself lacks those qualities. A member of the public is either outraged by the act or not. He will not be affected in his reaction by whether thoughts or fantasies may be in the actor’s mind or his diary. Evidence of those would not be before him. Accordingly, in our view, the learned judge was in error in holding that regard should be paid to what had motivated the appellant in leaving the notes . . . It follows that in our judgment the learned judge was in error in rejecting the submissions that were made to him based upon the notes themselves, because there was nothing in the acts complained of here capable of outraging public decency.’ (See [1991] 4 All ER 649 at 653–654, [1991] 1 WLR 1020 at 1023–1024.)
(iii) In R v Walker [1996] 1 Cr App Rep 111 the defendant exposed himself in the sitting room of a house to a young child. This court affirmed that two people must have been able to witness what happened and the act must have been committed in public in the sense that there was a real possibility that members of the general public might witness what happened, as the purpose for which the offence existed was that people must be able to venture out in public without the risk of outrage to minimum standards of decency. This did not mean that the act had to be done in a place of public resort, but the public must be able to see what happened, such as on a balcony of a private house open to public view. As Rook and Ward state (p 412 (para 14.43)), this decision made clear that the requirement
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that the act take place in a place where it can be seen by the public remained an ingredient of the offence. (iv) In R v Choi (7 May 1999, unreported) the defendant went into a cubicle in a ladies’ lavatory in a supermarket and filmed a lady in the next cubicle; she saw the lens or the mirror attached to the lens and called for help. It was argued unsuccessfully by the defendant that there was no evidence for the jury that the act was lewd or disgusting or that public decency was outraged. No point was taken as to whether the acts were in public or could have been seen by more than one person. The court held, that the prosecution had first to prove the acts took place in public, but there was no issue on that:
‘Next the prosecution would have to establish that those acts were such as to disgust ordinary, right thinking people and third, that those acts were such as they would outrage public decency. The prosecution did not have to prove that there was a bystander who was actually outraged.’
The second and third elements which the prosecution had to establish were issues for a jury as representing the standards of ordinary people. The court should not interfere unless it was unarguable that the acts were not disgusting or would not outrage. It was submitted on behalf of the appellant in this appeal that the point should have been taken that, as the woman who was filmed was the only person who saw the act, the public element of the offence was not satisfied.
[26] The judge was, as we have mentioned, referred to Rose’s case [2006] 1 WLR 2626. The defendant’s girlfriend performed oral sex on him after midnight in the foyer of a bank to which customers of the bank were admitted to use an ATM. The foyer was subject to 24-hour closed circuit television surveillance and the acts of the defendant and his girlfriend were seen the following morning when a bank employee viewed the video. The foyer was well lit and members of the public could have seen what was happening if they chose to look in, but there was no evidence that anyone was passing at the time or tried to enter the foyer. After reviewing the mid-nineteenth century cases, Stanley Burnton J held that the offence of outraging public decency had not been committed as it had not been seen by anyone who was not participating in it and there was no evidence of there being any passers by. He also considered, but did not decide, that the private viewing by the employee of the bank of the video was not sufficient as the original act had not been an offence when committed.
[27] There is only one case where acts very similar to those carried out by the appellant were dealt with in this court on an appeal against sentence after a guilty plea—R v Tinsley [2003] EWCA Crim 3032, [2003] All ER (D) 29 (Nov); the case is therefore of no assistance, though it is important to point out that the defendant had been seen by others, including a security guard at a supermarket where that defendant had filmed, whilst in the act of filming up women’s skirts or using mirrors to look up skirts.
Our conclusion
[28] There was some discussion as to whether s 67 of the 2003 Act covered the acts committed by the appellant; the issue of whether it did or not is not relevant. The actions of the appellant were committed before the 2003 Act came into force and determining whether he might have committed that offence if it had been committed after the 2003 Act came into force is of no assistance in determining the scope of the offence of outraging public decency. It is, however, important to state that ‘voyeurism’ as such was not a criminal offence; as was made clear in
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the Home Office report: Setting the Boundaries (2000) which led to the passing of the 2003 Act (pp 121–122):
‘8.3.1 Voyeurism or “peeping” is an activity which is normally regarded as a nuisance, and in many instances is not criminal in England and Wales . . . We were told of covert observations in changing rooms (both in shops, market stalls and schools), of hidden cameras filming in public changing areas and beaches and of course of the classic “Peeping Tom” looking into houses.
8.3.2 Rather like flashing, our traditional attitude to such activity has been to regard it as unpleasant but a nuisance rather than criminal, possibly because of difficulties in definition . . .’
[29] We therefore turn to apply the two elements of the offence established by the nineteenth century cases which we have set out at [21] above, as elucidated by the more modern cases, to the facts of the present case. It is clear that the point in issue—whether the nature of what was being done was actually seen by someone—is without direct authority and the arguments finely balanced.
[30] The first element is one that constitutes the nature of the act which has to be proved. It has to be proved both that the act is of such a lewd, obscene or disgusting character and that it outrages public decency. (i) An obscene act is an act which offends against recognised standards of propriety and which is at a higher level of impropriety than indecency; see R v Stanley [1965] 1 All ER 1035, [1965] 2 QB 327. A disgusting act is one ‘which fills the onlooker with loathing or extreme distaste or causes annoyance’; R v Choi (7 May 1999, unreported). It is clear that the act done by the appellant was capable of being judged by a jury to be a lewd, obscene or disgusting act. It is the nature of the act that the jury had to consider and it was clear in our view that the jury were entitled to find that it was lewd, obscene or disgusting, even if no one saw him doing it. (ii) It is not enough that the act is lewd, obscene or disgusting and that it might shock people; it must, as Lord Simon made clear in the Knuller case [1972] 2 All ER 898, [1973] AC 435, be of such a character that it outrages minimum standards of public decency as judged by the jury in contemporary society. As was pointed out, ‘outrages’ is a strong word. It is not necessary to establish that any particular member of the public is outraged, as this court said in R v Mayling [1963] 1 All ER 687, [1963] 2 QB 717 and R v Choi; and it must follow that this requirement does not mean that anyone has to see the act whilst it is being carried out.
[31] As to the second element—the public element—its precise ambit was the principal issue discussed in most of the cases. (i) We accept that the public element first requires that the act is done in a place to which the public has access or in a place, as set out in R v Walker where what is done is capable of public view. The filming by the appellant was done in a supermarket—a place to which the public had access—and in a place where what was done was capable of being seen. On either basis this part of the public element was satisfied. (ii) The public element is not, however, satisfied unless the act is capable of being seen by two or more persons who are actually present, even if they do not actually see it (what is conveniently described by Rook and Ward as the two person rule (pp 411–412 (paras 14.40–14.42)). It was the scope of the two person rule that was the subject to which the submissions in this appeal were principally directed.
[32] The prosecution contended that as the cases referred to the act as one which was capable of being seen by two or more persons, this element was
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satisfied, as the appellant could have been discovered filming by a vigilant security guard (as in R v Tinsley) or the contents of his rucksack could have spilled out.
[33] The first step in the prosecution argument was that the requirement of seeing was not to be understood literally. They relied on a passage in Rook and Ward (pp 411–412 (para 14.42)) where the authors referred to a debate in the House of Lords on the Sexual Offences Bill 2003 where the government was resisting the creation of an offence of sexual activity in a public lavatory on the basis that it could be prosecuted as outraging public decency:
‘Some scepticism was expressed in the Lords as to the availability of the common law offence where the act in question takes place behind the closed door of a lavatory cubicle and so is heard but not seen. Lord Falconer, speaking on behalf of the Government, thought the common law was sufficiently flexible to cover this scenario and that an act would be covered if it was witnessed or capable of being witnessed, whether by being seen or heard. We respectfully agree.’
[34] There is no reason why in principle the nature of the act cannot be witnessed in another way such as hearing; we therefore accept the argument of the prosecution that the nature of the act can be capable of being witnessed by means other than seeing. At first sight this conclusion does not advance the argument far in the present appeal, as there was no evidence that the acts of the appellant were seen or heard by anyone. However it is a first step, as it may be an indication that the two person rule is concerned with evidence as to the public requirement in the offence.
[35] The contention did not, however, meet the appellant’s submission that the essence of the two person rule meant exactly what the cases, as the appellant submitted, in fact showed, namely that the nature of the act had been seen by one person and was capable of being seen by others. We accept that in all the cases to which we have referred the nature of the act was visible. Russell on Crime (12th edn, 1964) p 1430 refers to the cases of indecent exposure as cases where exposure in view of several persons constituted the offence. Moreover, it was argued that the reason why this was so was that it had to be shown that a member of the public was in fact outraged; Taylor LJ, as he then was, had referred to the outrage to the member of the public in the passage we have cited from R v Rowley [1991] 4 All ER 649, [1991] 1 WLR 1020 at [25] above; public decency could not be outraged unless the nature of the act was seen by someone.
[36] However in our view the purpose of the two person rule was to provide a basic requirement that had to be satisfied before it could be said that the offence was of a sufficiently public nature for it to be an offence. We have referred to the purpose of the requirement that the act outraged public decency as set out in the speech of Lord Simon of Glaisdale in the Knuller case [1972] 2 All ER 898, [1973] AC 435 which we have cited at [24], above; it was that people should be able to venture out without the risk of outrage to certain minimum acceptable standards of decency. It is clear from this speech that the outrage which the act must bring about is the element of the offence that goes to the nature of the act; the public element, as the speech also makes clear, refers to the place where the act is committed. The two person rule, in our view, also goes to this element.
[37] But as we have said, in all the cases at least one person saw the nature of the act. Is it therefore a rule of law that one person must actually see the nature
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of the act or are the cases in fact all no more than examples where proof by one person was merely an evidential requirement? As we have set out at [20](vi) above, the issue as to whether the nature of the act had actually to be seen was left open in the question posed by Wightman J in R v Elliot (1861) Le & Ca 103, 169 ER 1322.
[38] In the Knuller case, Lord Simon of Glaisdale summarised R v Mayling [1963] 1 All ER 687, [1963] 2 QB 717 by referring to the fact that one person did in fact see it. In R v May (1989) 91 Cr App Rep 157, the court stated as we have set out at [25], above that it was enough if one person saw the act and others might have seen it. The old form of indictment expressly referred to the act being ‘in view of’ and ‘to the view of’. In contrast, the judgments in R v Rouverard (1830, unreported), R v Webb (1848) 1 Den 338, 169 ER 271, R v Farrell (1862) 9 Cox CC 446 and R v Mayling all contain language that suggest that it is sufficient if two or more persons could have seen the act. But a decision based on the precise words used in the cases where the point was not in issue cannot be decisive as in all the cases someone saw the nature of the act and the court was addressing the question as to the public element in the offence. We are not applying a statutory provision, but a rule of law derived from legal principles and judicial precedents.
[39] In our view it is necessary to have regard to the purpose of the two person rule; it goes solely to the necessity that there be a public element in the sense of more than one being present and capable of being affected by it. There is in our view no reason to confine the requirement more restrictively and require actual sight or sound of the nature of the act. The public element in the offence is satisfied if the act is done where persons are present and the nature of what is being done is capable of being seen; the principle is that the public are to be protected from acts of a lewd, obscene or disgusting character which are of a nature that outrages public decency and which are capable of being seen in public. As was pointed out in R v Bunyan (1844) 1 Cox CC 74, a person committing such an act may wish as much privacy as possible, if there is a possibility of them being discovered in public, it would nonetheless be an offence. Looking therefore at the purpose of the two person rule, it can, in our view, be satisfied if there are two or more persons present who are capable of seeing the nature of the act, even if they did not actually see it. Moreover, the purpose of the requirement that the act be of such a kind that it outrages public decency goes, as we have said, to setting a standard which the jury must judge by reference to contemporary standards; it does not require someone in fact saw the act and was outraged. In most cases, there will be no evidence against a defendant unless the act is seen by someone; but that does not mean that where an act is in fact done which is lewd, obscene or disgusting and is of a nature that outrages public decency and is done where it is proved that people are present and capable of seeing its nature, it is not an offence.
[40] Thus in the present case, although no one saw the appellant filming, there was evidence from the videos that there were others present. But was what the appellant was in fact doing capable of being seen, even though no one actually did? It cannot be said, as is clear from R v Tinsley, that this type of filming is incapable of being seen. Whether on the facts of this case the way in which the appellant filmed up the skirts of the women was capable of being seen was a question for the jury. As is clear from the passage in the summing up which we have set out at [13] above, this was an issue expressly left to the jury by the judge. By their verdict of guilty the jury must have concluded that the way the appellant filmed was capable of being seen by those in the supermarket.
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[41] We therefore consider that the jury were entitled to convict the appellant and dismiss the appeal on counts 11–15 on this ground.
Joinder
[42] The appellant contended before the judge that the counts of outraging public decency should not have been joined in the same indictment as they were neither founded on the same facts nor were part of a series of offences of the same or similar character. Applying the test in R v Barrell (1979) 69 Cr App Rep 250, the charges did not have a common factual origin; the only connecting link was that they were discovered at the same search of the appellant’s house; otherwise they covered different periods of time and the subjects of the counts of outraging public decency were adults not children. Nor, applying the principles established in R v Kray (1969) 53 Cr App Rep 412 and Ludlow v Metropolitan Police Comr [1970] 1 All ER 567, [1971] AC 29, was there a sufficient nexus between them; filming adults was quite different to downloading child pornography.
[43] In rejecting the submissions, the judge had held that there was sufficient nexus on the basis that they all involved the acquisition and retention of images for sexual gratification.
[44] We consider that the judge was plainly correct. Both sets of offences involved the acquisition and retention of photographs where it was open to a jury to conclude that they were acquired and retained for the purposes of sexual gratification.
SEVERANCE
[45] It was next contended by the appellant that even if the counts were properly joined in the indictment, the judge had wrongly exercised her discretion in failing to sever the counts. There was severe prejudice to the appellant in defending both in the same trial; his defence to the downloading offences was that this was accidental and, as we have set out, his defence to the offences of outraging public decency, he cannot have outraged public decency as no one had seen him. Reliance was placed on the observations of Lord Taylor of Gosforth CJ in R v Christou [1996] 2 All ER 927 at 937, [1997] AC 117 at 129 where he enumerated some of the factors to be taken into account.
[46] The judge refused in her discretion to sever the indictment as she considered that the evidence in relation to the counts of outraging public decency was admissible in relation to the other counts to rebut the defence of accidental download; there was no improper prejudice.
[47] It was submitted that the judge was wrong in her view on admissibility; the appellant had admitted to downloading adult pornography and the fact that he had filmed up women’s skirts was relevant only to an interest in adult pornography and not to child pornography.
[48] We cannot accept that contention. In our view the evidence was admissible as it was relevant to the issue of accidental download; as to the difference between an interest in adult and child pornography, that was for the jury to consider when deciding the weight to be attached to the evidence. Furthermore count 10 of the indictment related to filming up the skirt of a schoolgirl and the retention of that film. Although the appellant had denied knowing she was under 16, it was a further common link which enabled the prosecution to contend that the retention of this film was evidence that the jury could use in deciding if the child pornography downloaded from the internet was accidental.
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[49] In our judgment the judge was entitled to exercise her discretion to refuse to sever the indictment; she made no error of law and took into account no irrelevant consideration. The decision she made was well within the exercise of her discretion as a trial judge in determining the best way of achieving a fair resolution of the issues.
[50] Nor can any criticism attach to the way in which the judge summed the issues up for the jury; leave was refused by the full court on this issue, but the criticism was renewed before us as the judge had indicated that she would direct the jury in relation to their use of the evidence when making the rulings on joinder and severance. In fact she directed the jury to consider the counts separately. The fact that she gave no separate direction in relation to the evidence in our view was immaterial, as the relevance of the evidence would have been obvious.
SENTENCE
[51] It was contended by the appellant that the sentence for the offences of outraging public decency should not have been made consecutive to the sentence on counts 1–9 and the totality of the sentences on counts 1–9 was in any event too long. His career had been ruined and he would have to begin his life again on release. He had about 7,500 files of still and moving images on his computer, but only 100 were illegal.
[52] However the gravity of the appellant’s conduct in relation to counts 1–9 was shown by the fact that two of the images were at level five and about 49 at level four and there were 28 others of children; he was also convicted of two counts of possession with a view to distribution; one of those related to a level five image. Although we take into account the fact that he had not actually distributed any images, we do not consider that a total sentence of three years on the counts of distribution can be said to be manifestly excessive.
[53] The sentences of nine months for the counts of filming up the skirts of the schoolgirl and the women were made consecutive. This made the overall sentence too long. We will therefore make those sentences concurrent to the other sentences so that the total sentence to be served by the appellant is reduced to three years. To that extent the appeal on sentence is allowed.
Appeal allowed in part.
Gareth Williams Barrister.
Barnstaple Boat Co Ltd v Jones
[2008] 1 All ER 1124
[2007] EWCA Civ 727
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Other: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WALLER, MOORE-BICK AND MOSES LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 4, 17 JULY 2007
Limitation of action – When time begins to run – Accrual of cause of action – Fraud – Deceit – Whether time begins to run when claimant knew it had been defrauded without knowing the elements of the deceit it was alleging – Limitation Act 1980, s 32(1)(a).
Between February 2000 and July 2004 the claimant brought three actions against the defendant alleging dishonest conduct in the course of a business relationship between itself and the defendant’s company. The relationship had terminated acrimoniously in 1998; the claimant had made a complaint to the police about the defendant and the defendant’s company had gone into liquidation. In the first action the claimant successfully alleged that the defendant had fabricated an invoice in pretending to sell a boat when he had not. The second action was dismissed. The third action alleged that the defendant had dishonestly pretended that a 21-foot motor cruiser had been stolen from his yard suggesting the claimant should claim on its insurance. That action was settled for a substantial payment by the defendant. In March 2005 the claimant commenced a fourth action claiming damages for deceit and fraudulent misrepresentations made on dates between December 1996 and August 1998. The first claim concerned a payment made by the claimant to the defendant relying upon representations made by the defendant that there was a motor cruiser for sale, which was fire-damaged, and that a payment of £13,500 would secure the purchase of that boat. The claimant alleged the representations made by the defendant were fraudulent in that he had had no intention of purchasing the boat on behalf of the claimant and he had known the alleged purchase to be a fiction. The claimant pleaded that the fraud had only become known to it when its managing director, T, had inspected the documents held by the liquidator of the defendant’s company in February 2005. The second claim concerned the purchase of six motorcycles. The third claim involved a purchase of a boat for £5,500 by the claimant relying on an oral representation made by the defendant that it was in good working order when it had a non functional engine. The claimant pleaded that it discovered the fraud in September 1999 when T met an engineer who had told him that he had inspected the boat in June 1999, concluded that the engine was beyond economic repair and said that he had been told by the defendant that the boat had been sunk. The defendant applied for the action to be struck out on the basis that it was an abuse of process for the claimant to commence a fourth action against him. He argued that all the actions alleged loss of the claimant’s stock through the defendant’s dishonest activities and there was no reason why they should not all have been brought in one single action. Alternatively he relied on all three claims being statute barred by the six-year limitation period as T had known about those claims in May 1998 when he had complained to the police about the defendant’s activities. The district judge gave summary judgment in favour of the defendant on the basis that he had a complete defence to each of the three claims under s 32(1)(a)a of the Limitation Act 1980 which provided that
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where an action was based upon the fraud of the defendant the limitation period would not begin to run until the claimant had discovered the fraud, concealment or mistake or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it. The claimant appealed. The judge upheld the district judge’s decision in relation to the first two claims and allowed the claimant’s appeal in relation to the third claim. The judge thought it was sufficient for the claimant to know that it had been defrauded without consideration of whether it knew the elements of the fraud it was alleging in its pleading. He was satisfied that T had no idea of the fraud in relation to the third claim until he had spoken with the engineer. He also found that despite the fact that there was no reason why the action should not have been brought much earlier, the claimant’s conduct could not be described as abuse of process. The claimant appealed against the decision that the first claim was barred by limitation and the defendant cross-appealed against the judge’s conclusion on the third claim and his conclusion on abuse. The claimant submitted that as the claims were in deceit it was essential to plead fraud and that could not be pleaded until T had known that the representations had been made without belief in their truth.
Held – (1) Section 32(1)(a) of the 1980 Act contemplated the limitation period running when the claimant obtained knowledge of the fraud, namely knowledge that the deceit which he alleged had been perpetrated. In the instant case, with regard to the first claim, the critical allegations on which the claim was based was that a representation had been made that it was the defendant’s intention to buy a boat with the claimant’s money, which was untrue to the knowledge of the representor, because he never intended to buy that boat. It was strongly arguable that T did not know that the original representation was fraudulent until February 2005 and that the claimant would succeed in showing that it had used reasonable diligence up until that date. As to the third claim, even if T appreciated or should have appreciated that the engine was seized, his evidence was that he did not know that the defendant had known before he sold the boat that the boat had been submerged and the engine did not work. If T had not known that the representation made to him was untrue to the knowledge of the defendant until his chance encounter with the engineer in late 1999, the limitation period did not begin to run until that time as there was no basis for suggesting that there was any failure to use reasonable diligence or that any use of diligence would have brought about the chance meeting earlier. Accordingly, the appeal against the judge’s decision on limitation would be allowed in relation to the first claim. The cross appeal of the defendant as to limitation on the third claim would be dismissed (see [30]–[37], [39]–[41], [45], [48], [49], below).
(2) The approach to abuse of process should be a broad merits based judgment which took account of the public and private interests involved and also took account of all the facts of the case, focusing attention on the crucial question whether in all the circumstances, a party was misusing or abusing the process of the court by seeking to raise before it an issue which could have been raised before. In the instant case the third claim related to a different boat from those which had been the subject of the previous actions and raised a quite different cause of action from those raised in previous proceedings; it was not enough to give a foundation to an abuse argument that an action could have been brought earlier or as part of a previous claim. The judge had been clearly right not to
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accede to the argument that the third claim had been an abuse and it was fully understandable how the first claim had come to be brought separately form the others. The cross appeal in relation to abuse would, therefore, be dismissed (see [42]–[45], [48], [49], below); Johnson v Gore Wood & Co (a firm) [2001] 1 All ER 481 applied.
Notes
For extension or postponement of limitation periods: fraud, deliberate concealment or mistake, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1119–1129.
For the Limitation Act 1980, s 32, see 24 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 786.
Cases referred to in judgments
Beaman v ARTS Ltd [1949] 1 All ER 465, [1949] 1 KB 550, CA.
Howglen Ltd, Re [2001] 1 All ER 376.
Johnson v Chief Constable of Surrey (1992) Times, 23 November, CA.
Johnson v Gore Wood & Co (a firm) [2001] 1 All ER 481, [2002] 2 AC 1, [2001] 2 WLR 72, HL.
Paragon Finance plc v Thackerar & Co, Paragon Finance plc v Thimbleby & Co (a firm) [1999] 1 All ER 400, CA.
Appeal and cross appeal
The claimant, Barnstaple Boat Co Ltd (BB), appealed with permission given by Sir Henry Brooke on 15 January 2007 from the decision of Judge Hughes QC in the Poole County Court dismissing in part BB’s appeal from the decision of District Judge Freeman giving summary judgment in favour of the defendant, Carl Jones (CJ) on the basis that he had a complete defence under the Limitation Act 1980 to the claims in deceit brought against him by the defendant. CJ cross appealed from part of Judge Hughes’s decision and also applied to set aside the permission to appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Waller LJ.
Michael Norman (instructed by Dickinson Manser) for BB.
Geoffrey Weddell (instructed by Jacobs & Reeve) for CJ.
Judgment was reserved.
17 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
WALLER LJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1] On 15 January 2007 Sir Henry Brooke granted permission to bring this second appeal. District Judge Freeman had given summary judgment in favour of the defendant (CJ) on the basis that he had a complete defence to each of three claims in deceit under the Limitation Act 1980. Judge Hughes QC allowed the appeal in relation to one of those claims but dismissed it as to two. The claimant (BB) sought permission to bring a second appeal and Sir Henry Brooke granted permission in the following terms:
‘In the ordinary way I would have considered a second appeal disproportionate, but as the defendant is a convicted fraudster who admits
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that he obtained the sum in question by fraud, I have not allowed matters of proportionality to affect my mind.
The issue here is whether the claimants could, with reasonable diligence, have ascertained before 31 March 1999 that Mr Jones obtained this money by dishonestly representing that he wished to purchase a particular boat, alternatively whether it is sufficient simply for the claimants to have believed that they were defrauded of this money without any knowledge how the fraud was perpetrated.
Given that the judge preferred the latter approach, it seems to me that this does raise a point of principle or practice fit for a second appeal.’
[2] An application was made immediately on behalf of CJ to set aside that permission on the basis that Sir Henry Brooke had misunderstood the position. CJ did not admit any of the frauds alleged and albeit he had been convicted of fraudulent trading on two occasions those convictions did not in anyway relate to the allegations made in this action.
[3] That application should have come on promptly so that the question of whether permission should have been granted could have been considered before costs were incurred preparing for the appeal. Unfortunately that did not happen through an error in the Court of Appeal office and ultimately the appeal having been listed, the delay was such that it was obviously sensible that all matters should come on at the same time.
[4] When the matter came on before us Mr Weddell for CJ very sensibly appreciated that the merits of the appeal would in any event form part of any consideration as to whether permission would be granted on any reconsideration and suggested that the sensible course was to hear the appeal de bene esse. That we did and reserved our judgments.
[5] It is right to consider first the permission aspect. Sir Henry Brooke did in fact misunderstand the position in so far as he thought that CJ admitted the very frauds the subject of the claim. CJ was thus entitled to have reconsidered the question whether permission to bring a second appeal should be granted. It seems to me that two points dictate that permission should be granted and indeed demonstrate that if the true facts had been appreciated Sir Henry Brooke would still have granted permission. First Sir Henry Brooke’s misapprehension only relates to his possible consideration of proportionality. He thought and I agree with him that the case itself raised a point of principle. The judge thought it was sufficient for BB to know that it had been ‘defrauded’ without consideration of whether it knew the elements of the fraud it was alleging in its pleading ie the deceit it was alleging. That raises a point of principle on the proper construction of s 32(1)(a) of the 1980 Act. Second Sir Henry Brooke’s error is to suggest that CJ ‘admits that he obtained the sum in question by fraud’. CJ does not admit that. However CJ was a convicted fraudster having been convicted twice of fraudulent trading. He had also been found to be fraudulent in an action brought by BB. He in addition settled another action brought by BB on terms favourable to BB and from which it was possible to infer some admission of impropriety.
[6] It is difficult to think that having identified a point of principle permission to appeal would have been refused on the grounds of lack of proportionality on a true appreciation of CJ’s position, and I would therefore not set aside the permission to appeal and can now turn to the appeal itself.
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BACKGROUND
[7] BB brought three actions between February 2000 and July 2004 against CJ (joining others but that matters not). In those actions BB alleged dishonest conduct on the part of CJ in the course of a business relationship between BB and CJ’s company Bowhelm Ltd (Bowhelm). That relationship terminated acrimoniously in 1998 and Bowhelm immediately went into liquidation. In the first action relating to a Searay, BB alleged that CJ had in May 1998 fabricated an invoice in pretending to sell the boat when he had not. BB obtained judgment on 27 September 2001. In the second action commenced on 10 January 2002, it was alleged that a Maxum 1700 speedboat had in May 1998 been found to be ‘missing’ and that CJ dishonestly invented that there had been a sale. This action was tried on 12 August 2002 and was dismissed. The third was commenced on 3 July 2004. In this action it was alleged that CJ in or about March 1998 dishonestly pretended that a 21-foot motor cruiser had been stolen from his yard suggesting BB should claim on their insurance; it was alleged that the true position was that the boat had in fact been sold without informing BB and without paying money to BB. This action was settled for a substantial payment by CJ.
[8] On 31 March 2005 BB commenced this fourth action claiming damages for ‘deceit, fraud and fraudulent misrepresentation on dates between December 1996 and August 1998 in relation to the acquisition of a Maxum 32 motor cruiser, six motor cycles and Fletcher Arrow Bolt’. Particulars of claim were ultimately served in January 2006 in which the allegations of fraud were spelt out in the following terms.
Claim one
‘6. The Claimant made the said payment relying upon representations made by the Defendant on behalf of BL that:
6.1 There was a Maxum 32 motor cruiser for sale.
6.2 It was a fire damaged boat which was on its way to the Southampton Boat Show that year and that it was shown in a series of photographs which were then shown by the Defendant to the Claimant.
6.3 The payment of £13,500 would secure the purchase of the said boat.
7. The said transaction was evidenced by BL’s invoice number 20323.
8. The said representations were false in that BL did not purchase on the Claimant’s behalf the Maxum 32 and the purported transaction was a fiction.
9. The said false representations were made by the Defendant fraudulently in that he knew them to be false, he had no intention of purchasing the Maxum 32 on behalf of the Claimant and he knew the alleged purchase to be a fiction.’
Claim two
‘11. On 11th December 1997 the Defendant told the Claimant that BL sold for the Maxum 32 on the Claimant’s behalf for the price of £16,200 and offered to purchase on the Claimant’s behalf for the price of £17,000 6 motorcycles, the details of which are given in the Part 1 of the Schedule.
12. The Claimant agreed to purchase the said motorcycles relying upon the representation by the Defendant that £16,200 was available from the sale of the Maxum 32, leaving a balance to pay of £800. The balance was set off by the Claimant against other monies owed by BL to the Claimant.
Page 1129 of [2008] 1 All ER 1124
13. The purchase of the motorcycles was evidenced by BL’s invoice number 20379.
14. The said representations made by the Defendant were false because the sale of the Maxum 32 was a fiction and there were no monies available from the sale to pay for the said motorcycles, and they were fraudulent because they were made by the Defendant knowing them to be false.’
Claim three
‘17. On or about 4th January 1997 BL purchased on the claimant’s behalf a Fletcher Arrowbolt 21 boat for £5,500. The purchase was evidenced by BL’s invoice number 23535.
18. The Claimant purchased the said boat relying upon the representation made (orally) by the Defendant that it was in good working order . . .
20. The said representation was false because the engine was not functional having been flooded by being submerged) before the purchase of it by BL on the Claimant’s behalf.
21. The said representation was made by the Defendant fraudulently because he knew it not to be true and further because he deliberately decided not to bring to the Claimant’s attention the fact that the engine on the boat had been damaged by flooding. As to knowledge the Claimant will rely on the matters pleaded in paragraph 26.3 below . . .
26.3 The circumstances in which the Claimant discovered the fraud and the deliberate concealment were that Mr Tidmarsh of the Claimant met an engineer named Douglas Day who informed Mr Tidmarsh that he had inspected the boat on or around 15th June 1999 but concluded that the engine was beyond economic repair. Mr Tidmarsh was told by Mr Day that he (Day) had been informed by the Defendant that the boat had been sunk.’
[9] There were thus three claims first to a sum of £13,500 paid out on or about 4 November 1997; second to a sum of £800 set off in or about December 1997; and third to a sum of £5,500 paid out on or about 4 January 1997. BB in its pleading faced up to the fact that a limitation defence might be available to CJ and asserted that each of the three claims was based on the fraud of CJ and asserted (a) as regards claims one and two that the fraud, ie the fact that CJ had fraudulently represented that he intended to buy the Maxum 32 when he had no intention of doing so, only became known to Mr Tidmarsh (managing director of BB), when he inspected the documents held by the liquidator of Bowhelm in February 2005; and (b) as regards claim three that the fraud, ie CJ’s fraudulent representation that the Fletcher Arrowbolt 21 was in good working order when CJ knew that the engine had been submerged and was not functioning, only became known to Mr Tidmarsh when he met an engineer in September 1999 who informed him (i) that he had inspected the boat and found it beyond economic repair in June 1999, and (ii) that he had been told by CJ that the boat had been sunk.
[10] Reliance was being placed on s 32(1) of the 1980 Act which so far as material provides as follows:
‘. . . where in the case of any action for which a period of limitation is prescribed by this Act . . . (a) the action is based upon the fraud of the defendant . . . the period of limitation shall not begin to run until the plaintiff
Page 1130 of [2008] 1 All ER 1124
has discovered the fraud, concealment or mistake (as the case may be) or could with reasonable diligence have discovered it.’
[11] An application was made by CJ to strike out the fourth action. The application was made on two bases first that it was an abuse of process for BB to commence this fourth action. All actions (it was said) allege loss of BB’s stock through CJ’s dishonest activities and there is no reason why they should not all have been brought in one single action. Alternatively reliance was placed on all three claims being statute-barred.
[12] So far as claims one and two were concerned, CJ asserted that Mr Tidmarsh knew of those claims in May 1998 when he complained to the police about CJ’s activities formalised in a statement given to the police in November 1998. It is accepted on CJ’s behalf that that statement does not deal in terms with the Maxum 32 or allege any fraudulent representation in relation to it. It summarises Mr Tidmarsh’s allegations in a paragraph at the end in the following terms:
‘With legal costs added to the above outstanding invoices, my company is owed a figure in excess of £70,000 by Bowhelm Ltd. I can say that I believe that it has been deceived by Carl and Geoffrey JONES and that our stock has been sold by them, without our authorisation or payment for same, thus depriving us of our capital.’
[13] As regards the Fletcher Arrowbolt, CJ asserts that the boat was removed by BB from Bowhelm’s yard on Bowhelm’s collapse in July 1998 and taken to BB’s yard in order to sell it. CJ does not accept that it would take 14 months until September 1999 to discover the condition of the boat. He asserts that the engine would obviously have been turned over and/or that with reasonable diligence the condition would have been discovered shortly after repossessing the boat in July 1998.
[14] Mr Tidmarsh put in a statement dealing with his state of knowledge. He accepted in that statement that in July 1998 he suspected serious wrongdoing so far as stock which had been placed with Bowhelm was concerned and it was in those circumstances that he contacted the police and gave his statement. He asserts that the police investigation took place and that the police at that stage seized all the documents, and that they would not let him see them despite his requests. CJ was charged and convicted of fraudulent trading for which he was sentenced to a term of imprisonment in September 2000, and Mr Tidmarsh hoped he would be able to see the documents at that stage, but he says they were passed to the liquidator of Bowhelm who was initially unwilling to provide him with access to the books and papers. During the third action in 2004 BB made an application for third party discovery against the liquidator, Mr Tidmarsh acting in person for BB. It was it seems a very wide-ranging application. On the application Mr Weddell acting for CJ appeared and argued successfully that the application should be refused, Mr Weddell drawing the court’s attention to Re Howglen Ltd [2001] 1 All ER 376 and the limits on the court’s powers to grant discovery against third parties. That action was then settled in February 2005 in BB’s favour despite the lack of documents. Mr Tidmarsh says that he then still suspected that there were items of stock that had been dishonestly appropriated, and spoke again to the liquidator who was on this occasion more co-operative. Indeed he allowed inspection of the documents in return for a fee which took place on 10 March 2005. On that inspection Mr Tidmarsh says he found
Page 1131 of [2008] 1 All ER 1124
no documentation at all to support a purchase of the Maxum 32, nor any documentation to support a subsequent sale and according to Mr Tidmarsh ‘it became clear in my mind that both sale and the subsequent purchase were fictitious’.
[15] These proceedings were then commenced and the allegation made that the purchase and sale were fictitious and that CJ when obtaining the money from BB did so representing there would be a purchase of the boat when he had no intention of purchasing the same. That is the first claim and is a claim in deceit, to be distinguished from those claims made in previous proceedings which appear either to be claims in conversion (albeit dishonest acts amounting to conversion), or possibly claims against CJ personally for inducing breaches of contract by Bowhelm.
[16] As regards the Fletcher Arrowbolt Mr Tidmarsh spells out the history in some detail. In summary his evidence is that he took the boat back when Bowhelm collapsed in July 1998 delivering it to Swan Marine where it was stored. Swan Marine during 1999 found someone interested in buying it but was having difficulty in getting the engine to ‘do anything’. An engineer inspected and reported the sad state of the engine. When the engineer was visiting a neighbour of Mr Tidmarsh, Mr Tidmarsh engaged him in conversation and was told by the engineer that he had inspected the boat before when it was at Bowhelm and formed the view it was beyond economic repair as the boat had been sunk. The engineer then told Mr Tidmarsh that CJ was well aware that the boat had been sunk and was beyond repair before he sold it to BB.
[17] In this action this was the subject of the third claim which was again a claim in deceit again to be contrasted with the claims made in the previous actions to which I have referred.
DISTRICT JUDGE’S DECISION
[18] He considered the first two claims relating to the Maxum 32 and held first in reliance on the paragraph at the end of Mr Tidmarsh’s statement to the police that BB was owed £70,000 and that stock had been sold without authorisation and that BB ‘knew of the fraud’ (para 7). Thus he held BB ‘knew there was a fraud and what I have to decide is whether they could have found out about it, or found sufficient detail to commence proceedings within the limitation period’. His conclusion was ‘If I look at the question of whether or not [BB] could have discovered the fraud with reasonable diligence, the answer must be yes they could. They could have found out about it long ago’.
[19] In relation to the Fletcher Arrowbolt he was of the view first that there was no reason why it should not have been the subject of one of the earlier actions and second in any event that he was ‘convinced they could have found out about this damage sooner as well’.
[20] The district judge recorded that if he had been of a different view, he would not have found that the action was an abuse of process.
JUDGE HUGHES’S DECISION
[21] Permission was granted to appeal the district judge’s decision and the matter came before Judge Hughes. In his judgment he traced through the history of the collapse of Bowhelm and the three previous actions. On the limitation points he referred to s 32 and the well-known passage in Paragon Finance plc v Thackerar & Co, Paragon Finance plc v Thimbleby & Co (a firm) [1999] 1 All ER 400 at 418 which for convenience I can quote at this stage:
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‘The question is not whether the plaintiffs should have discovered the fraud sooner; but whether they could with reasonable diligence have done so. The burden of proof is on them. They must establish that they could not have discovered the fraud without exceptional measures which they could not reasonably have been expected to take. In this context the length of the applicable period of limitation is irrelevant. In the course of argument May LJ observed that reasonable diligence must be measured against some standard, but that the six-year limitation period did not provide the relevant standard. He suggested that the test was how a person carrying on a business of the relevant kind would act if he had adequate but not unlimited staff and resources and were motivated by a reasonable but not excessive sense of urgency. I respectfully agree.’
[22] He also referred to Johnson v Chief Constable of Surrey (19 October 1992) and the passage in the judgment of Rose LJ which again it is convenient to quote:
‘. . . for my part, I accept Mr Glasgow’s submission that, in considering the section, there was no middle ground between facts and evidence. It may be that the plaintiff’s case following the quashing of the convictions would be evidentially stronger and have a better prospect of success. But I am unable to accept Mr Hytner’s submission that the quashing of the convictions adds anything to the plaintiff’s knowledge of facts relevant to his right of action. Facts which improve prospects of success are not, as it seems to me, facts relevant to his right of action.’
[23] He then referred to Mr Tidmarsh’s efforts to obtain the documents. He referred to the fact that there was ‘no doubt Mr Tidmarsh was aware by May 1998 that [BB’s] stock in Bowhelm was being depleted and that its money was being misapplied by reason of [CJ’s] fraud’ and he refers as did the district judge to the last paragraph of Mr Tidmarsh’s statement to the police.
[24] He records the submissions being made on behalf of BB ie (i) that it was only the discovery that the purchase and sale of the boat was a complete fiction which gave BB through Mr Tidmarsh the knowledge of the fraud on claims one and two and (ii) the submission that this fraud was in fact of a different character to those brought previously.
[25] Then having referred to Mr Weddell’s argument that BB was confusing knowledge with evidence to prove fraud he said this (at para 30):
‘Although Mr Cairnes [then representing BB] argued his case persuasively, I am satisfied that there is a fallacy underlying his point. In 1998 Mr Tidmarsh knew that the claimant had advanced £13,500 to purchase a boat; he knew that subsequently and in addition the claimant had advanced a further £800 to purchase motorcycles and he knew that when Bowhelm collapsed he had been unable to recover the financial investment (£13,500 plus £800) nor the motorcycles apparently representing that investment. Mr Tidmarsh had sufficient information to enable him to plead his case against the defendant.’
[26] Thus he upheld the district judge’s decision in relation to the first two claims.
[27] As regards the third claim he reached a different conclusion. He put the matter this way (in paras 38–40):
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‘38. I am satisfied that taking the particulars of claim as a whole this element of the claim has been properly pleaded as one where the defendant knew that the boat had been sunk and the engine damaged beyond economic repair when he represented to Mr Tidmarsh that it was in good working order.
39. I am satisfied that prior to the conversation with Mr Day, the engineer, in August 1999 Mr Tidmarsh had no idea of the fraud in this case. This is not another instance of stock or monies being misapplied and lies told to cover the defalcations. This was a fraudulent representation as to the condition of a boat. Mr Tidmarsh had no idea that there had been a fraud until, by chance, Mr Day spoke to him.
40. I do not accept the argument that the claimant had ample opportunity to discover the fraud simply by having the boat displayed for sale and that reasonable diligence would have revealed what had happened. I see no reason to doubt the evidence of Mr Tidmarsh that it was not until 1999, when someone was interested in buying the boat, that an unsuccessful attempt was made to get the engine started. It was that failed attempt that led to the instruction of the engineer and to the discovery of the fraud.’
[28] The judge was therefore as regards abuse only concerned with the third claim and he concluded that despite the fact that there was no reason why the action should not have been brought much earlier, BB’s conduct could not be described as abusive or as harassment of CJ.
THIS APPEAL
[29] BB appeal the decision that the first claim is barred by limitation. They do not appeal the second claim (we were told because of its size). CJ appeals the judge’s conclusion on the third claim and his conclusion on abuse submitting that all claims should be struck out on that basis even if the first claim might otherwise not be statute-barred it was an abuse of process not to bring it with the other actions.
SUBMISSIONS
[30] There is no issue as to the proper approach to s 32 so far as the citations quoted from the judge’s judgment are concerned. But there is one point which needs emphasis which Mr Norman would submit undermines both conclusions of the district judge and the judge on claim one, and indeed the submissions of Mr Weddell.
[31] In Beaman v ARTS Ltd [1949] 1 All ER 465, [1949] 1 KB 550 the Court of Appeal in relation to the wording then in s 26 of the Limitation Act 1939, and considering whether an action alleging a ‘dishonest’ conversion was an ‘action based on fraud’ held that it was not because in an action for conversion it was not essential to plead fraud. The section applied only to actions in deceit or actions where the pleading would be defective without an allegation of fraud.
[32] Mr Norman’s submission on the first claim he put very simply. The claim is a claim in deceit where it is essential to plead fraud. That not only distinguished the case from any of the previous actions but was a claim that could not be pleaded until Mr Tidmarsh knew that the representation had been made without belief in its truth. The deceit alleged is a fraudulent representation that CJ intended to buy a boat the Maxum 32 when he in fact had no such intention. Prior to seeing the papers in the hands of the liquidator Mr Tidmarsh had no knowledge that there was no purchase of a boat, and nothing on which to base
Page 1134 of [2008] 1 All ER 1124
an allegation that the representation that CJ intended to buy a boat in order to obtain £13,500 the price thereof was untrue. Thus submits Mr Norman knowledge of the fraud that took place was only gained in February 2005.
[33] Mr Weddell’s response to this aspect of Mr Norman’s submissions is to submit that Mr Tidmarsh knew he was being cheated in July 1998 and indeed knew that amongst the money he had lost was £13,500 paid over for this boat. It was as Mr Weddell powerfully put it ‘blindingly obvious’ in 1998 that CJ had dishonestly obtained money including the £13,500. But that submission fails to distinguish between dishonest acts of conversion or dishonestly interfering with such contract as there was between Bowhelm and BB, where fraud is not a necessary allegation in pleading the case, and, the tort of deceit, where it is.
[34] There is a powerful case to be made for Mr Tidmarsh suspecting that CJ had behaved dishonestly and that the dishonesty had led to the loss of this £13,500 but the subsection contemplates the limitation period running when the claimant obtains knowledge of the fraud ie knowledge that the deceit which he alleges had been perpetrated. The critical allegations on which claim one is based are (i) that a representation was made (that it was CJ’s intention to buy a boat with BB’s money) which (ii) was untrue (iii) to the knowledge of the representor (because he never intended to buy that boat).
[35] Mr Tidmarsh did not know assuming his evidence is accepted what dishonesty had taken place and in particular did not know that a boat had not been purchased and that CJ never intended to purchase one until he saw Bowhelm’s papers in February 2005.
[36] I am clear that so far as knowledge is concerned it is strongly arguable (and that is all that is necessary at the strike out stage) that Mr Tidmarsh did not know that the original representation was fraudulent until February 2005.
[37] But that still leaves the question whether with reasonable diligence he could have found out sooner. The onus is on BB but it seems to me strongly arguable that they will succeed in showing the use of all reasonable diligence. Mr Tidmarsh’s evidence is that he tried to get the documents from the police and was unable to do so even in 2000 once the prosecution was over. He then tried to get them from the liquidator who was unwilling to hand them over. There is little evidence of attempts being made between 2000 and 2004, but as Mr Norman points out even if the finding was that knowledge should have been gained in 2000, that would still mean the proceedings were brought within the limitation period. In fact once Mr Tidmarsh attempted by court proceedings to obtain the documents he was faced with opposition from CJ himself preventing him seeing them in 2004. One must take it that the liquidator was still not willing voluntarily to allow sight of the documents at this stage, and that there was no change of heart by the liquidator until 2005.
[38] Mr Weddell submitted that BB could have started proceedings for an account and thereby ascertained the true position. CJ was not however an accounting party. Even if Bowhelm was, Bowhelm went into liquidation in 1998 and it is understandable that BB would not wish to finance proceedings which could only have had as their aim not the obtaining of documents but the aim of recovering money when there was no realistic prospect of recovery.
[39] I would allow the appeal from the judge’s decision on limitation so far as claim one is concerned. In my view it is arguable that BB did not have knowledge of the deceit until 2005 and that they will succeed in showing that they used reasonable diligence up until February 2005 or in any event up to the year 2000.
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[40] As regards the third claim Mr Weddell submits that Mr Tidmarsh must have been aware that this boat was beyond economic repair either in July 1998 when he took possession of it or in any event before the end of March 1999. But this submission which found favour with the district judge is beside the point. Even if Mr Tidmarsh appreciated or should have appreciated the engine was seized, his evidence is that he did not know that CJ had known before he sold the boat that the boat had been submerged and that the engine did not work. Again as with claim one if he did not know that the representation made to him was untrue to the knowledge of CJ until his chance encounter with the engineer in late 1999, limitation does not begin to run until that time, unless use of reasonable diligence would have enabled him to know earlier. I can see no basis for suggesting that there was any failure to use reasonable diligence or that any use of diligence would have brought about the chance meeting earlier.
[41] The judge was clearly right in his view as to limitation on this third claim, and I would dismiss the appeal of CJ on that aspect.
[42] As to abuse, it is not easy to understand why the third claim should not have been brought much earlier, Mr Tidmarsh learning of the fraud as he alleges in September 1999. But in agreement with the judge I would not hold that there was any abuse in bringing that claim. As Lord Bingham of Cornhill said in Johnson v Gore Wood & Co (a firm) [2001] 1 All ER 481 at 498–499, [2002] 2 AC 1 at 31, when comparing cause of action estoppel with abuse of process, ‘The underlying public interest is the same: that there should be finality in litigation and that a party should not be twice vexed in the same matter’. Even in that context he stressed that—
‘It is . . . wrong to hold that because a matter could have been raised in early proceedings it should have been, so as to render the raising of it in later proceedings necessarily abusive. That is to adopt too dogmatic an approach to what should in my opinion be a broad, merits based judgment which takes account of the public and private interests involved and also takes account of all the facts of the case, focusing attention on the crucial question whether, in all the circumstances, a party is misusing or abusing the process of the court by seeking to raise before it the issue which could have been raised before.’
[43] Claim three relates to a different boat from those the subject of the previous actions, and raises a quite different cause of action from those raised in previous proceedings. It is not enough to give a foundation to an abuse argument that the action could have been brought earlier or as part of a previous action. The judge was clearly right not to accede to the argument that the third claim was an abuse.
[44] As regards the first claim it is fully understandable how that claim came to be brought separately from the others in March 2005. On Mr Tidmarsh’s evidence the fraud was discovered only shortly before. If BB were to lose on the grounds that they did not exercise reasonable diligence that would be one thing, but if they did use reasonable diligence, it is difficult to describe an action as an abuse if it is brought as soon as the claimants know they have a claim.
CONCLUSION
[45] I would allow the appeal in relation to the first claim and dismiss the cross appeal in relation to the third. I would dismiss the cross appeal in relation to abuse.
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[46] An application was made to the district judge, in the alternative to seeking to strike out, for security for costs. In the event he did not have to deal with that application. The judge despite reinstating the third claim on appeal, did not deal with that application saying (as we were informed) that the matter should go back to the district judge. Mr Weddell (somewhat bravely) suggested that despite the view taken by the judge, we should deal with security or make it a term of allowing the appeal that security should be provided.
[47] It would not be right to make the allowing of the appeal conditional on the putting up of security. In any event we do not have the up-to-date position so far as BB are concerned. I agree with the judge that that application should be referred back to the district judge who can deal with an application on up-to-date material. One might hope however that before further costs are incurred a sensible compromise of the case can be reached.
MOORE-BICK LJ.
[48] I agree.
MOSES LJ.
[49] I also agree.
Application to set aside permission to appeal dismissed. Appeal allowed in part. Cross-appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Hertfordshire County Council v National Grid Gas plc;
National Grid Gas plc v Hertfordshire County Council
[2008] 1 All ER 1137
[2007] EWHC 2535 (Admin)
Categories: LEISURE AND LICENSING: LOCAL GOVERNMENT: TRANSPORT; Road
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (DIVISIONAL COURT)
Lord(s): RICHARDS LJ AND OPENSHAW J
Hearing Date(s): 19 OCTOBER, 2 NOVEMBER 2007
Highway – Street – Street works – Execution of street works by utility undertaker – Avoidance of unnecessary delay or obstruction – Duty of undertaker to reinstate – Materials, workmanship and standard of reinstatement – Street authority laying multiple informations alleging breaches of duty on same date relating to standard of reinstatement – Street authority laying informations alleging breaches of duty relating to duty to reinstate – Street authority laying information alleging breach of duty to avoid unnecessary delay – Whether laying of multiple informations abuse of process – Meaning of ‘reinstatement’ – Whether duty to avoid unnecessary delay relating to delays in the carrying out of remedial work – New Roads and Street Works Act 1991, ss 66, 70(2), 71(2).
Part 3 of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 related to ‘street works’ which were defined as works executed in a street, in pursuance of a statutory right or a street works licence, placing apparatus or inspecting, maintaining, adjusting, repairing, altering or renewing apparatus, changing its position or removing it, or works required for or incidental to any such works including, in particular, breaking up or opening the street, or any sewer, drain or tunnel under it, or tunnelling or boring under the street. Section 66a related to the avoidance of unnecessary delay or obstruction in the execution of street works and provided in sub-s (1) that an undertaker executing street works which involved breaking up or opening the street etc ‘shall carry on and complete the works with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable’. Under sub-s (2), failure to do so was an offence. Section 70b contained a duty to reinstate the street and provided in sub-s (2) that the undertaker by whom street works had been executed was to begin the reinstatement as soon after the completion of any part of the street works as was reasonably practicable and was to carry on and complete the reinstatement with all such dispatch as was reasonably practicable. Under s 70(6) failure to comply was an offence. Section 71c related to the materials, workmanship and standard of reinstatement and provided in sub-s (2) that the undertaker was to ensure that the reinstatement conformed to such performance standards as were prescribed, in the case of interim reinstatement, until permanent reinstatement was effected, and in the case of permanent reinstatement, for the prescribed period after the completion of the reinstatement. Under s 71(5) failure to comply was an offence. The
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definition of ‘reinstatement’ read: ‘“reinstatement” includes making good.' The defendant’s predecessor in title carried out street works in 2004 to replace the existing gas main and renew services along both sides of a road which ran around three sides of a large square. The claimant council identified numerous defects in the early part of 2005 some of which remained outstanding until November 2005. The council laid informations against the defendant under the 1991 Act, including 23 informations alleging breaches of the duty under s 71(2); seven of those informations related to one date and the other 16 to another date. There were three informations alleging breaches of the duty under s 70(2) in relation to two different dates on the basis that the council required remedial works to be carried out. A further information alleging breach of the duty under s 66(1) related to a period of ten months. The matter came before the district judge in the magistrates’ court. She held that the facts alleged in the informations charging offences under s 71(2) constituted a single offence, on each of the two dates, and that it was oppressive and an abuse of the process to prosecute each failing separately. She therefore directed that the proceedings under s 71(2) should be restricted to a single information in respect of each date. She rejected a defence submission of no case to answer in respect of s 70(2), holding that the duty under that subsection continued to apply after the defendant had purported to complete the reinstatement and during the period of remedial works subsequently required by the council, so that the proceedings under s 70(2) should continue. However, she upheld a defence submission that there was no case to answer in respect of s 66(1), on the basis that the section was aimed at the street works themselves, and not at the work of reinstatement. The defendant then pleaded guilty to two informations under s 71(2) and the three informations under s 70(2). Both parties appealed by way of case stated, the council against the rulings relating to ss 66 and 71(2) and the defendant against the ruling relating to s 70(2). In relation to s 66 the council contended that while s 70 referred to the need to complete reinstatment with the same degree of dispatch as s 66 did, there was no reason why s 66 could not relate to the work as a whole.
Held – (1) Breach of the duty in s 71(2) of the 1991 Act ‘to ensure that the reinstatement conform to such performance standards as may be prescribed’ constituted a single offence irrespective of the number of individual defects involved. The natural construction of the provision was that the duty was to ensure that the reinstatement conformed to the relevant standards and there would be a failure when the reinstatement did not conform, whether the non-conformity consisted in one defect or a number of defects. It would be a single breach of duty and a single offence. The existence of multiple defects might affect the seriousness of the offence but did not generate multiple offences. Moreover, to treat each and every separate defect as giving rise to a separate failure and therefore a separate offence, would be highly artificial and could not have been the legislative intention. The number of offences then committed would then depend on difficult and potentially arbitrary judgments as to how the individual instances of non-conformity were to be defined. In the instant case therefore it had not been open to the council to lay multiple informations under s 71(2) in relation to a single date and the laying of multiple informations in respect of a single offence had been an abuse of process. Accordingly, the council’s appeal in relation to s 71(2) would be dismissed (see [35], [36], [41]–[43], [69], below).
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(2) The word ‘reinstatement’ had to be given the same meaning in ss 70 and 71 and meant ‘proper reinstatement’, namely a reinstatement meeting the requirements of s 71. Where reinstatement did not meet those requirements, the carrying out of remedial works to correct the defects formed part of the continuing process of reinstatement and was subject to the duty under s 70(2) to carry on and complete reinstatement with all such dispatch as was reasonably practicable. It followed that it had been open to the council to bring a prosecution on the basis that the process of reinstatement continued during the periods specified in the three informations and that reinstatement was not carried on and completed with all such dispatch as was reasonably practicable during those periods. Accordingly, the defendant’s appeal would be dismissed (see [52]–[57], [69], below); British Telecommunications plc v Nottinghamshire CC [1998] All ER (D) 478 followed.
(3) The concepts of ‘street works’ and ‘reinstatement’ were separate; execution of street works was governed by s 66 and the reinstatement of the street was governed by s 70. It was therefore wrong to treat s 66 as encompassing the entire process, from the street works through to reinstatement. It followed that the judge had been correct to rule that there was no case to answer in respect of the alleged contravention of s 66(1), (2). Accordingly, the council’s appeal on that issue would be dismissed (see [62]–[69], below).
Notes
For general requirements as to the execution of street works: avoidance of unnecessary delay or obstruction, and for reinstatement, see 21 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2004 reissue) paras 453, 457–461.
For the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991, ss 66, 70, 71, see 20 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 927, 931, 933.
Cases referred to in judgments
British Telecommunications plc v Nottinghamshire CC [1998] All ER (D) 478, DC.
Camden London BC v Marshall [1996] 1 WLR 1345, DC.
DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497, [1977] AC 1, [1976] 2 WLR 857, HL.
R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67, [1984] 3 WLR 643, DC.
Thames Water Utilities Ltd v Bromley London BC [2000] All ER (D) 459, DC.
Cases stated
Hertfordshire County Council appealed by way of case stated from the decisions of District Judge Allison in the Watford Magistrates’ Court on 12 January 2007 in proceedings under the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 brought by the council against the defendant, National Grid Gas plc, that (i) the laying of seven informations in respect of alleged contraventions by the defendant of s 71(2) of the 1991 Act on 15 September 2005 and the laying of 16 informations in respect of alleged contraventions of s 71(2) of the 1991 Act on 8 November 2005 was an abuse of process; (ii) that there was no case to answer in respect of the alleged contravention of s 66(1), (2) of the 1991 Act between 11 February 2005 and 14 December 2005 on the ground that s 66 did not relate to delays in the carrying out of remedial works in the street. The defendant appealed by way of case stated from the district judge’s decision that there was a case to answer in respect of three alleged contraventions of s 70(2) of the 1991 Act on dates between 11 February 2005 and 8 November 2005 on the ground that s 70(2) could relate to
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delay in commencing remedial works in a street. The questions for the opinion of the High Court are set out at [29], [47], [60], below. The facts are set out in the judgment of Richards LJ.
Matthew Reed (instructed by Andrew Laycock, Stevenage) for the council.
Thomas Bradnock (instructed by Ashfords, Exeter) for the defendant.
Judgment was reserved.
2 November 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
RICHARDS LJ.
[1] On 3 March 2006 Hertfordshire County Council laid a large number of informations against National Grid Gas plc (the defendant) alleging various breaches of duty under the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 in respect of the reinstatement of the street following the replacement of a gas main in Northfield Gardens, Watford. They included 23 informations alleging breaches of the duty under s 71(2) of the Act to ensure that the reinstatement conforms to prescribed performance standards: the date of the alleged breach in seven of those informations was 15 September 2005 and the date in the other sixteen was 8 November 2005. There were three informations alleging breaches of the duty under s 70(2) to begin the reinstatement as soon after the completion of any part of the street works as is reasonably practicable and to carry on and complete the reinstatement with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable: each related to a different period of time in 2005 (11 February–15 September, 15 September–12 October, and 12 October–8 November). There was also one information alleging breach of the duty under s 66(1) to carry on and complete the street works with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable: in that case the period in question was 11 February 2005–14 December 2005.
[2] Those informations gave rise to a number of preliminary issues which were the subject of a written judgment handed down by District Judge Allison, sitting at Watford Magistrates’ Court, on 12 January 2007. She upheld a defence submission in respect of the informations under s 71(2), holding that the facts alleged constituted a single offence, on each of the two dates, of failing to ensure that the reinstatement conformed to the required standard, and that it was oppressive and an abuse of process to prosecute each failing separately. She therefore directed that the proceedings under s 71(2) should be restricted to a single information in respect of each date. She rejected a defence submission in respect of s 70(2), holding that the duty under that subsection continued to apply after the defendant had purported to complete the reinstatement and during the period of remedial works subsequently required by the council, so that the proceedings under s 70(2) should continue. She upheld a defence submission that there was no case to answer in respect of s 66(1), on the basis that the section was aimed at the street works themselves (digging up the road and replacing the gas pipe) and not at the work of reinstatement.
[3] Thereafter the council offered no evidence on the count under s 66(1). It also offered no evidence on 21 of the 23 informations under s 71(2) and amended the remaining two informations so as to include by way of additional particulars the defects identified in the others. The defendant pleaded guilty to those two informations. The defendant also pleaded guilty to the three informations under s 70(2). In addition, the defendant pleaded guilty to two informations that I have
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not otherwise mentioned because they did not feature in the preliminary issues and are not the subject of any appeal. The total fine imposed for all seven informations to which the defendant pleaded guilty was £9,750.
[4] The court now has before it two appeals by case stated. The council appeals against the judge’s ruling in respect of ss 71(2) and 66(1), and the defendant appeals against the judge’s ruling in respect of s 70(2).
THE LEGISLATIVE FRAMEWORK
[5] Part 3 of the 1991 Act relates to street works in England and Wales. ‘Street works’ are defined in s 48(3) as—
‘works of any of the following kinds (other than works for road purposes) executed in a street in pursuance of a statutory right or a street works licence—(a) placing apparatus, or (b) inspecting, maintaining, adjusting, repairing, altering or renewing apparatus, changing the position of apparatus or removing it, or works required for or incidental to any such works (including, in particular, breaking up or opening the street, or any sewer, drain or tunnel under it, or tunnelling or boring under the street).’
[6] Section 54 makes provision for advance notice to be given to the street authority by an undertaker proposing to execute street works in prescribed cases. Notice of the starting date of works must be given in any event under s 55.
[7] Section 66 relates to the avoidance of unnecessary delay or obstruction in the execution of street works. It provides, in material part:
‘(1) An undertaker executing street works which involve—(a) breaking up or opening the street, or any sewer, drain or tunnel under it, or (b) tunnelling or boring under the street, shall carry on and complete the works with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable.
(2) An undertaker who fails to do so commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.’
[8] The duty to reinstate is set out in s 70:
‘(1) It is the duty of the undertaker by whom street works are executed to reinstate the street.
(2) He shall begin the reinstatement as soon after the completion of any part of the street works as is reasonably practicable and shall carry on and complete the reinstatement with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable.
(3) He shall before the end of the next working day after the day on which the reinstatement is completed inform the street authority that he has completed the reinstatement of the street, stating whether the reinstatement is permanent or interim.
(4) If it is interim, he shall complete the permanent reinstatement of the street as soon as reasonably practicable and in any event within six months (or such other period as may be prescribed) from the date on which the interim reinstatement was completed; and he shall notify the street authority when he has done so. . .
(6) Any undertaker who fails to comply with any provision of this section commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction (a) in the case of an offence consisting of a failure to comply with subsection (3) or (4A), to a fine
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not exceeding level 4 on the standard scale; and (b) in any other case, to a fine not exceeding level 5 on that scale.’
[9] Section 71 relates to the materials, workmanship and standard of reinstatement. It provides:
‘(1) An undertaker executing street works shall in reinstating the street comply with such requirements as may be prescribed as to the specification of materials to be used and the standards of workmanship to be observed.
(2) He shall also ensure that the reinstatement conforms to such performance standards as may be prescribed—(a) in the case of interim reinstatement, until permanent reinstatement is effected, and (b) in the case of permanent reinstatement, for the prescribed period after the completion of the reinstatement. This obligation is extended in certain cases and restricted in others by the provisions of section 73 as to cases where a reinstatement is affected by subsequent works . . .
(5) An undertaker who fails to comply with his duties under this section commits an offence and is liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale.’
[10] I have omitted reference to sub-ss (3) and (4) of s 71, which refer to regulations and codes of practice relevant to the matters mentioned in sub-ss (1) and (2). The details are material to the substantive breaches alleged in the various informations in this case but are not needed for the purposes of the issues in the two appeals.
[11] Section 72 confers certain powers on the street authority in relation to reinstatement. It provides:
‘(1) The street authority may carry out such investigatory works as appear to them to be necessary to ascertain whether an undertaker has complied with his duties under this Part with respect to reinstatement. If such a failure is disclosed, the undertaker shall bear the cost of the investigatory works; if not, the street authority shall bear the costs of the investigatory works and of any necessary reinstatement.
(2) Where an undertaker has failed to comply with his duties under this Part with respect to reinstatement, he shall bear the cost of—(a) a joint inspection with the street authority to determine the nature of the failure and what remedial works need to be undertaken; (b) an inspection by the authority of the remedial works in progress; and (c) an inspection by the authority when the remedial works have been completed.
(3) The street authority may by notice require an undertaker who has failed to comply with his duties under this Part with respect to reinstatement to carry out the necessary remedial works within such period of not less than 7 working days as may be specified in the notice. If he fails to comply with the notice, the authority may carry out the necessary works and recover from him the costs reasonably incurred by them in doing so.’
[12] Included within the supplementary provisions of Pt 3 is s 95, concerning offences. It provides:
‘(1) Any provision of this Part imposing criminal liability in respect of any matter is without prejudice to any civil liability in respect of the same matter.
(2) Where a failure to comply with a duty imposed by this Part is continued after conviction, the person in default commits a further offence.’
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[13] Finally, reference should be made to the definition of ‘reinstatement’ in s 105(1), which reads: ‘“reinstatement” includes making good’.
ADDITIONAL FACTUAL BACKGROUND
[14] In the course of 2004 the defendant’s predecessor in title, Transco plc, carried out work to replace the existing gas main and to renew services along both sides of Northfield Gardens. Northfield Gardens runs round three sides of a large square, with houses on each side of the road, but it is not in dispute that the area of the street works fell within a single ‘unique street registration number’ in the relevant gazetteer and that a single statutory notice under s 54 and/or s 55 of the 1991 Act, covering the entirety of Northfield Gardens, was relied upon by the defendant, without objection by the council, each time advance notice was given of where and when street works were to be carried out. We are therefore concerned in this case with a single, albeit substantial, set of street works.
[15] On 7 December 2004 the defendant gave the council notice under s 70(3) that reinstatement of the street was complete (a ‘works closed’ notice).
[16] The council’s evidence was that, as a result of complaints, various inspections were carried out and numerous defects were identified in the early part of 2005. At a joint inspection in March 2005 the defects were recorded and it was determined what remedial works were required. Despite repeated reminder notices, however, numerous defects remained outstanding by 15 September 2005, when a follow-up inspection was carried out. The remedial works had still not been completed to the requisite standard by 12 October 2005, when a further follow-up inspection was carried out. And some defects were found at yet another follow-up inspection, on 8 November 2005. Only on 14 December 2005 was it found on inspection that the defects had all been rectified to an acceptable standard. That brief chronology explains the dates in the various informations.
[17] The first of the seven informations alleging breaches of s 71(2) on 15 September 2005 was in these terms:
‘That you did on 15 September in Watford in the County of Hertfordshire being an undertaker by whom street works were executed in Northfield Gardens Watford fail to ensure that the reinstatement of street works complied with performance standards prescribed pursuant to Section 71(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 in that you failed to reset and grout paving stones outside house numbers 2, 3, 5, 11, 13, 16, 17, 21, 22, 24, 30, 36, 38, 45, 49, 53, 55, 57, 59, 85 and opposite house number 21 and to the side of house number 38 Northfield Gardens using paving stones of incorrect materials and dimensions leaving the paving stones rocking or uneven thereby leaving the footway in a hazardous condition
CONTRARY TO Section 71(2) and (5) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991.’
[18] The allegations in the other six informations relating to the same subsection and same date are summarised as follows in the case stated:
‘1. Failing to replace damaged paving stones outside house numbers 3, 6, 14, 23, 28, 34, 44, 54, 55, 56, 60, 63, 65 and 81 Northfield Gardens.
2. Failing to reset paving stones outside numbers 19, 20, 23 and 34 Northfield Gardens.
3. Failing to re-grout paving stones outside numbers 4, 25, 26, 48, 50, 51 and 67 Northfield Gardens.
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4. Failing to reset kerb stones at the junction between Northfield Gardens and Bushey Mill Lane, Watford to the side of house number 83 and 85.
5. Failed to relay bituminous areas of the footway outside numbers 13, 23, 25 and 55 Northfield Gardens to the correct specification.
6. Failed to replace a damaged dropped kerbstone outside Swanley Court and Parkgate Infants School.’
[19] The position taken in the witness statement of Mr Paul Castleman, the council’s street works strategy manager, was that the number of informations relating to 15 September 2005 could have been far greater, since ‘each defect equates to a separate offence’, but that ‘in order to reduce the number of offences, where the same defect occurred outside a number of properties, these have been collated into one offence’.
[20] The first of the 16 informations alleging breaches of s 71(2) on 8 November 2005 was in these terms:
‘That you did on 8 November in Watford in the County of Hertfordshire being an undertaker by whom street works were executed in Northfield Gardens Watford fail to ensure that the reinstatement of street works complied with the performance standards prescribed pursuant to Section 71(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 in that a 40mm trip hazard was left adjacent to reinstated paving stones outside house number 3 Northfields Gardens leaving the footway in a dangerous condition
CONTRARY TO Section 71(2) and (5) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991.’
[21] The allegations in the other 15 informations relating to the same subsection and same date are summarised as follows in the case stated:
‘1. The surface depression outside house number 12 Northfield Gardens was 12mm leaving the footway in a dangerous condition.
2. Paving stones were left damaged and sunken outside number 6 Northfield Gardens causing a trip hazard.
3. The surface depression outside house number 21 Northfield Gardens was 12mm and paving grouting was ineffectual leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.
4. The kerb at the junction of Bushey Mill Lane and Northfield Gardens was left dislodged leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.
5. The surface depression outside house number 49 Northfield Gardens was left low resulting in a 15mm trip hazard.
6. Damaged paving stone adjacent to the boundary of house number 55 Northfield Gardens had not been replaced and its condition had deteriorated resulting in a 30mm trip hazard.
7. A paving stone outside number 77 Northfield Gardens was not properly secured resulting in a 40mm trip hazard.
8. A paving stone outside number 60 Northfield Gardens was not properly secured leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.
9. The surface depression outside house number 34 Northfield Gardens was left low resulting in a 15 mm trip hazard.
10. The bituminous footway adjacent to reinstated paving stones outside Swanley Court and adjacent to Northfield Gardens had not been replaced and the condition had deteriorated leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.
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11. The paving stones outside number 56 Northfield Gardens had not been replaced and the surface depression was reduced resulting in a trip hazard.
12. Failed to reset paving stones to an acceptable standard outside house number 24 Northfield Gardens leaving the paving stones rocking or uneven thereby leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.
13. Failed to reset paving stones to an acceptable standard outside house number 30 Northfield Gardens leaving the paving stones rocking or uneven thereby leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.
14. Failed to reset paving stones to an acceptable standard outside house number 45 Northfield Gardens leaving the paving stones rocking or uneven thereby leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.
15. Failed to reset paving stones to an acceptable standard outside house number 52 Northfield Gardens leaving the paving stones rocking or uneven thereby leaving the footway in a hazardous condition.’
[22] The witness statement of Mr Castleman gave no explanation for the rather different, more house-specific, approach adopted in relation to 8 November as compared with that adopted in relation to 15 September.
[23] The first of the informations alleging breaches of s 70(2) was in these terms:
‘That you did between 11 February 2005 and 15 September 2005 in Watford in the County of Hertfordshire fail to comply with the requirement prescribed in Section 70(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 in that being an undertaker by whom street works were executed in Northfield Gardens Watford . . . you failed to complete the reinstatement of such works with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable
CONTRARY TO Section 70(2) and 70(6) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991.’
[24] The other two informations under s 70(2) related to later periods of time (15 September–12 October, and 12 October–8 November) and alleged not simply a failure to complete the reinstatement of the works with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable but a failure—
‘to begin the reinstatement as soon after the completion of any part of the street works as is reasonably practicable and carry on and complete the reinstatement with all such dispatch as was reasonably practicable leaving the footway in a dangerous condition.’
[25] Finally, the information alleging breach of s 66(1) was in these terms:
‘That you did between 11 February 2005 and 14 December 2005 at Watford in the County of Hertfordshire fail to comply with the requirement prescribed by Section 66(1) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 in that being an undertaker by whom street works were executed in Northfield Gardens you did not carry on and complete the works with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable
CONTRARY TO Section 66(1) and Section 66(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991.’
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THE SECTION 71(2) ISSUE
[26] The argument for the defendant before the district judge was that it was an abuse of process for the defendant to be charged under s 71(2) and (5) with numerous offences all arising on the same date at the same street location. The works in question were a single set of works. To prosecute each failure was oppressive and was a manipulation of the court process designed to expose the defendant to a far greater fine than that intended by Parliament.
[27] The council contended that it was entitled as a matter of jurisdiction to lay the informations in the way it had, and that the number of informations was a product of the number of breaches of duty which had occurred over a significant period of time. In any given set of works there can be multiple breaches of duty, each of which amounts to a separate offence for the purposes of s 71. The number of informations laid reflected the extent of the breaches and their seriousness.
[28] In the case stated the judge has expressed her conclusions in these terms:
‘I was of the opinion that the facts alleged against [the defendant] on the two dates detailed in the summonses each constitute a single offence of failing to ensure that the reinstatement conformed to the required standard on each of the two dates. It was clear that the alleged breaches all occurred on the same date, in the same location and in furtherance of a single set of street works. I was of the opinion that it was oppressive and an abuse of process to prosecute each failing separately and that to allow the prosecution to continue on these multiple summonses would be unfair to [the defendant], not least because it would expose them to a fine far greater than parliament intended for offending of this kind.’
[29] She has posed two questions for the opinion of this court:
‘1. Was I right to conclude that the laying of seven informations in respect of alleged contraventions of s 71(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 on 15 September 2005 was an abuse of process?
2. Was I right to conclude that the laying of 16 informations in respect of alleged contraventions of s 71(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 on 8 November was an abuse of process?’
[30] Although the judge has asked in those questions whether she was right to conclude that the laying of multiple informations was an abuse of process, the reasons she gave for her decision were twofold—that the facts alleged constituted a single offence, and that it was oppressive and an abuse of process to prosecute each failing separately.
[31] Mr Reed, for the council, submits that both aspects of the judge’s reasoning were wrong. Subsections (2) and (5) of s 71 cannot properly be read as allowing only one offence of failing to conform to performance standards. The standards contained within the statutory guidance are wide-ranging and there may be many breaches of duty in a large set of street works. The legislation appears to comprehend this by referring in sub-s (5) to a failure to comply with ‘duties’ under the section. If, as a matter of jurisdiction, it was open to the council to prosecute multiple offences, there was no proper basis for interfering with the informations unless the judge could properly find that the prosecutions amounted to an abuse of process on the basis of oppressiveness or unfairness. She was not entitled to dismiss the majority of the informations simply because she considered that as a matter of policy the prosecution ought to have been framed
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differently (see DPP v Humphrys [1976] 2 All ER 497 at 510–511, 527–528, [1977] AC 1 at 26, 46).
[32] As to abuse of process, Mr Reed submits that this was a case where the laying of several informations was entirely appropriate. There were significant breaches occurring over a considerable period of time within a large stretch of road. The judge’s view that multiple informations were unfair because they would expose the defendant to a greater fine than Parliament intended was based on her erroneous view that a reinstatement could only be the subject of one offence under s 71(2). A prosecution based on two single charges under s 71(2) for a set of breaches that included safety hazards and took nearly ten months to complete was woefully inadequate and an insufficient deterrent. In any event, if the judge felt it appropriate to limit the defendant’s liability in this case, the proper approach was to reduce the individual fines accordingly. Mr Reed submits further that the judge did not refer to any other matter that might make it oppressive to proceed on the basis of multiple informations. In particular, there was no suggestion that the defendant would be procedurally or evidentially disadvantaged by the number of informations laid.
[33] Thus the council contends that the judge’s decision on s 71(2) should be quashed and that, since the defendant disputed the informations under that subsection only on points of law, convictions should be entered in respect of all the informations (with appropriate amendment, back to their original form, of the two informations which the judge allowed to proceed and to which the defendant pleaded guilty).
[34] Mr Bradnock, for the defendant, seeks to uphold the judge’s conclusion on the basis that this was a reinstatement in respect of a single set of street works and that the failure to ensure that the reinstatement conformed to the prescribed performance standards gave rise to only one offence (though a continuing offence which could be the subject of separate prosecutions at different points in time). By issuing seven informations in relation to alleged defects on one date and 16 informations in relation to alleged defects on another date the council was seeking to prosecute the same offence multiple times in relation to each date. That was impermissible, oppressive and unfair. The council’s stance was akin to charging with 16 burglaries a defendant who stole 16 items in the course of a single burglary. Its approach was a clear attempt to circumvent the maximum fine laid down by Parliament, and as such amounted to an abuse of the process of the court. If delay was a concern, informations could have been laid in respect of additional dates.
[35] In my view the judge was correct to hold that breach of the duty in s 71(2) to ‘ensure that the reinstatement conforms to such performance standards as may be prescribed’ constitutes a single offence under sub-s (5) irrespective of the number of individual defects involved. The duty is to ensure that the reinstatement conforms. There is a failure to comply with that duty when the reinstatement does not conform, whether the non-conformity consists in one defect or a number of defects. It is a single failure—a single breach of duty—and a single offence. The existence of multiple defects may affect the seriousness of the offence but does not generate multiple offences. That seems to me to be the natural construction of the provision.
[36] Moreover, to treat each and every separate defect as giving rise to a separate failure, and therefore a separate offence, would be highly artificial and cannot have been the legislative intention. The number of offences committed would then depend on difficult and potentially arbitrary judgments as to how the
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individual instances of non-conformity were to be defined. The problem is illustrated by the council’s view, referred to above, that the occurrence of the same defect, such as a failure to reset and grout paving stones, outside different houses on 15 September could have been charged as separate offences. If a failure to reset and grout paving stones outside No 2 is a separate offence from a failure to reset and grout paving stones outside No 3, why is a failure to reset and grout one paving stone outside No 2 not a separate offence from a failure to reset and grout another paving stone outside No 2? Indeed, why is the failure to reset not a separate offence from the failure to grout? Mr Reed’s response was that the number of different offences generated by the defects is a matter of fact and degree and subject to the judgment of the prosecutor. But I cannot accept that s 71(2) was intended to operate in such a way.
[37] If the council’s case were correct, it would also follow that many of the individual informations laid in this case were bad for duplicity, since the council ‘collated’ (to use Mr Castleman’s word) a number of separate offences into a single charge.
[38] The reference in s 71(5) to an undertaker’s failure to comply with his ‘duties’ under the section does not assist the council. On any view the section imposes more than one duty: there is a duty under sub-s (1) as well as a duty under sub-s (2). To suggest that, because sub-s (5) refers to ‘duties’, sub-s (2) must be read as imposing multiple duties (and seemingly, on the council’s argument, as many duties as there are instances of non-conformity) is a nonsense.
[39] In British Telecommunications plc v Nottinghamshire CC [1998] All ER (D) 478, the Divisional Court considered an appeal by case stated against a conviction on two informations under s 71(1) and (5). One alleged a failure to comply with the prescribed requirements as to the specification of materials to be used in reinstating the street. The other alleged a failure to comply with the prescribed requirements as to the standards of workmanship to be observed in reinstating the street. Mr Reed sought to rely on this as supporting the council’s case. In my judgment, however, it does no such thing. It may be that s 71(1) creates two separate offences, the one relating to specification of materials and the other relating to standards of workmanship, which would explain the separate informations (though the court was not called upon to decide the question). But the recitation of the facts in the British Telecommunications case shows that each information related to multiple defects: core samples suggesting defects in materials and standards of workmanship had been taken at six separate points. Thus the approach taken by the authority under s 71(1) in that case was consistent with what I consider to be the correct approach under s 71(2). In any event the point falling for decision in the present case was not in issue before the court.
[40] In Thames Water Utilities Ltd v Bromley London BC [2000] All ER (D) 459 the Divisional Court considered an appeal by case stated against a conviction on 16 separate informations alleging offences of failing to complete permanent reinstatement as required by s 70(4). The judgment gives little by way of factual background and, in particular, gives no indication of the number of sets of street works to which the informations related. That is of obvious relevance, since it is possible that separate breaches of the duty to reinstate may arise in relation to separate sets of street works, whereas in the present case we are concerned with the application of the duty to a single set of street works. In any event the present issue was not considered in the Thames Water case and in my view the case gives no assistance on it.
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[41] At the heart of the submissions for the council is a policy argument, that it is only by charging multiple offences that a sufficient financial sanction will be available to deter undertakers from taking a lax approach towards the reinstatement of the street and thereby to reduce the hazards to the public arising from delayed or defective reinstatement. It is submitted that Parliament must have intended larger fines to be available in the case of a large set of street works where there are multiple defects in reinstatement. I am not swayed by that policy argument. The intention of Parliament is to be found in the language of the statute, and I have already explained why in my view s 71(2) is to be construed as creating a single offence rather than multiple offences for a breach of duty such as occurred in this case. If the resulting sanctions are insufficient to operate as a deterrent, the remedy lies not in a distorted construction of the statute but in amending legislation.
[42] The view I have reached on the proper construction of s 71(2) means that it was not open to the council to lay multiple informations under that subsection in relation to a single date (though the defendant has accepted that it was open to the council to lay separate informations in relation to different dates). The laying of multiple informations in respect of a single offence was an abuse of process. The judge was therefore right to rule as she did and to direct that the case should proceed on the basis of a single information in relation to each date, containing all the particulars of non-conformity relied on in respect of that date. It is unnecessary for me to consider whether the laying of multiple informations would have been open to objection as oppressive or in abuse of process if, contrary to my view, each defect had involved a separate offence.
[43] I would therefore give an affirmative answer to each of the questions in the case stated on the s 71(2) issue, upholding the judge’s decision by reference to the first of the reasons she gave, and I would dismiss the council’s appeal on this issue.
THE SECTION 70(2) ISSUE
[44] The defendant’s contention before the judge was that s 70(2) was concerned specifically with the ‘reinstatement’ of street works, whereas the council’s complaint related to ‘remedial works’. The council alleged that the defendant failed to begin remedial works with appropriate dispatch. There was no evidence of reinstatement not taking place as soon as reasonably practicable. Indeed, reinstatement was carried out in 2004 and a ‘works closed’ notice was served. The allegations of defective reinstatement under s 71 could not have been brought were this not the case. The correct section for a prosecution based on the facts alleged would be s 71, as a continuing offence. In respect of s 70(2) and (6) there was no case to answer.
[45] The council submitted that a ‘works closed’ notice did not mean that reinstatement was necessarily complete. It was simply a notice to the council required by s 70(3) to inform the council that the works could thereafter be inspected. Reliance was placed on British Telecommunications plc v Nottinghamshire CC [1998] All ER (D) 478 as supporting the view that there was a continuing duty to reinstate properly and that s 70(2) could therefore be relied on in relation to the remedial works.
[46] In the case stated the judge sets out her conclusion as follows:
‘I was of the opinion that s 70 should be seen to refer to reinstatement to the required standard and would therefore continue to apply after a “works closed” notice has been served if further works are required by the
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authorities following inspection by them. I was of the opinion therefore that the summonses under s 70(2) were properly brought and that the section applied to works required to be done by [the council] after the service of a “works closed” notice; that there was no distinction to be drawn between works done prior to the notice being served and works later required by the authorities and described by [the defendant] as “remedial” works.’
[47] The question she has posed for the opinion of this court is:
‘Was I right to conclude that there was a case for [the defendant] to answer in respect of three alleged contraventions of s 70(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 on dates between 11 February 2005 and 8 November 2005 on the ground that s 70(2) can relate to delay in commencing “remedial” works in the street?’
[48] Before us, Mr Bradnock has repeated the defendant’s submissions to the judge. He says that the council has conflated the two separate concepts of reinstatement and remedial works. Reinstatement refers purely to the act of finishing street works so that the street is left in useable condition: it may be applied to the original works or to remedial works as the case may be. It is an essential part of any street works involving an excavation and cannot exist independently of such works. Remedial works, by contrast, are street works in themselves. They are necessitated by a failure of reinstatement, as s 72(2) makes clear. It is apparent from Mr Castleman’s witness statement that the council’s allegation is that the defendant failed to begin remedial works with appropriate dispatch, not that reinstatement (whether as part of the substantive works or the remedial works) was delayed. Reinstatement of the substantive works was carried out in 2004. Once a purported reinstatement has been completed, as indicated by the filing of a ‘works closed’ notice under s 70(3), the authority is at liberty to inspect it; and if it does not meet the required standard, an offence will have been committed under s 71. That section creates a continuing offence and any delay can be reflected by the authority laying a suitable number of s 71 informations to cover the entire period for which the undertaker fails to remedy the defects in reinstatement.
[49] Mr Bradnock further submits that if the judge’s interpretation of s 70(2) were correct, reinstatement could never be said to be complete until the ‘guarantee’ period (ie the prescribed period under s 71(2)) for the work carried out had expired without further works being required—in the case of failure to meet required performance standards, two years after the ‘works closed’ notice or two years after the authority’s requirement for further works to be undertaken, whichever is the later. Any requirement to carry out further work would prolong the guarantee period and therefore the period of reinstatement. Such an interpretation would render the ‘works closed’ notice meaningless and would make s 71 allegations all but impossible for prosecutors to prove: if street works remained open for the purposes of s 70 even after purported reinstatement had been concluded, an allegation that the relevant standards of workmanship and materials had not been met could be successfully defended by the argument that the defects were merely temporary and reinstatement was not yet complete.
[50] For the council, Mr Reed submits that the judge was right to consider that ‘reinstatement’ means proper reinstatement or reinstatement not requiring remedial works; and if she was right on that, then the defendant’s case falls down, since on that basis delays in remedial works are necessarily delays in the overall
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reinstatement under s 70(2). First, ‘reinstatement’ is defined in s 105(1) as including ‘making good’, which indicates that reinstatement is not achieved until remedial works are carried out. Second, in the British Telecommunications case it was held that ‘reinstate’ means ‘reinstate properly’ (and the same decision undermines the defendant’s argument based on the existence of the guarantee period). Third, the purpose of the section is to ensure that the completion of the relevant works is carried out in a manner to enable the proper use of the street in good time, and it is consistent with that aim that ‘reinstatement’ should include the totality of the works required to be carried out to achieve it. Further, the issue of a ‘works closed’ notice does not mean that reinstatement is completed, which is a question of fact. The requirement to give notice under s 70(3) is simply a mechanism to ensure that the authority is aware of the progress of the works. As to the possibility of a prosecution under s 71 for delays in remedial works, that is a tortuous means of interpreting the legislation so as to achieve a result which can be achieved more simply under s 70(2).
[51] For my part, if I had come to this issue free from existing authority, I would have been doubtful about the correctness of the judge’s decision. In my view there is much to be said for the view that the 1991 Act provides in Pt 3 a staged approach. The first stage, so far as relevant to the present dispute, relates to the execution of the street works of which notice has been given under s 54 or s 55. Where those street works are of a kind mentioned in s 66(1), there is a duty to carry on and complete the works with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable. The next stage is the reinstatement of the street, pursuant to the duty under s 70(1). That duty is engaged as the street works are completed: the undertaker is required by s 70(2) to begin the reinstatement as soon after the completion of any part of the street works as is reasonably practicable, and then to carry on and complete the reinstatement with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable. When the reinstatement is completed, there is a duty to inform the street authority pursuant to s 70(3). The completed reinstatement is required to meet the standards in s 71. If it fails to do so, the undertaker is liable to prosecution under that section. The street authority can carry out the investigatory works referred to in s 72(1), with the costs consequences referred to in that subsection and in s 72(2). By notice under s 72(3) the authority can also require the undertaker to carry out any necessary remedial works; and if the undertaker fails to comply with the notice, the authority can carry out the necessary works and recover from the undertaker the costs reasonably incurred in doing so. On the face of it, that is an intelligible and workable scheme, and it does not require ‘reinstatement’ in s 70 or s 71 to be interpreted as meaning proper reinstatement or reinstatement not requiring remedial works. If the completed reinstatement is defective, remedies are available both in the form of prosecutions and in the form of the street authority’s power to get remedial works carried out.
[52] That is not, however, the approach that has been taken in the decided cases. Of particular importance is British Telecommunications plc v Nottinghamshire CC [1998] All ER (D) 478, in which the essential question for decision was whether the duty to reinstate in accordance with the specification under s 71(1) continues indefinitely so that failure to reinstate in accordance with the specification constitutes a continuing offence for which the undertaker may be prosecuted at any time until the street is reinstated in accordance with the specification. Lord Bingham of Cornhill CJ said that he had found this a difficult question and that his mind had altered more than once in the course of argument.
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On balance, however, he had concluded that there was a continuing offence, for these reasons:
‘It seems to me important that the overriding duty to reinstate in s 70(1) of the Act is expressed in wholly general terms and without any qualification whatever as to time, albeit the undertaker is required to give notice to the street authority. Furthermore, the duty laid on an undertaker in s 71(1) is again an obligation to reinstate properly, there being no limitation of time whatever attached to that duty. Mr Treacy is, I think, entitled to submit that “reinstate” means “reinstate properly”, both because the definition section refers to the street being made good and because the code of practice which is incorporated by reference indicates that compliance with proper standards is inherent in the concept of reinstatement. It does not appear to me that s 71(2) undermines that conclusion since, although it refers to what is in effect a guarantee period, that would be applicable in a case where the work had initially been done properly but had developed defects during the two-year period.
Furthermore it seems to me very difficult, as it seemed to Henry LJ in [Camden London BC v Marshall [1996] 1 WLR 1345], to give any effect to s 95(2) if there is not, in fact, a continuing duty. It was the language of s 376(2) that was the crucial factor leading to his decision. It seems to me difficult to construe s 95(2) on the premise that a duty ends on the completion of reinstatement, even if that reinstatement is defective. It is scarcely possible as it seems to me to envisage any prosecution being begun before purported completion of the reinstatement, but on BT’s argument the duty to reinstate properly would have come to an end on purported completion, yet here in s 95(2) we find reference to a failure to comply with a duty being continued after conviction and that seems to me to point strongly towards the continuation of the duty . . .
I would accordingly conclude that the failure to reinstate in accordance with the Act and prescribed standards and the specification creates a continuing offence which may be the subject of prosecution unless and until the time comes when the reinstatement is properly carried out. If further proceedings are brought after a conviction then the matter is covered by s 95(2).’
[53] Collins J agreed, stating that the duty in s 71(1) is to reinstate properly and that ‘a reinstatement which is not done properly, and in respect of which there is a breach of s 71(1), can be the subject of a prosecution, notwithstanding that the contractor in question has purported to complete the reinstatement’.
[54] In Thames Water Utilities Ltd v Bromley London BC [2000] All ER (D) 459 the undertaker had informed the street authority of the completion of an interim reinstatement but had thereafter done nothing. Informations alleging failure to complete the permanent reinstatement as soon as practicable and in any event within six months, as required by s 70(4), were laid over a year later. The issue was whether they were out of time. The court followed the reasoning in the British Telecommunications case in holding that they were not. A suggestion that Lord Bingham had perhaps overlooked the significance of s 72(3) was rejected, and the reasoning of Lord Bingham in relation to s 95(2) was described as wholly convincing.
[55] In my judgment, the British Telecommunications case is neither irrelevant nor distinguishable, as submitted by Mr Bradnock, and I am satisfied that this
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court should follow the reasoning in it. The doubts I have expressed come nowhere near satisfying the conditions set out in R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240 at 248, [1985] QB 67 at 81, for a departure by one Divisional Court from a prior decision of another Divisional Court. The fact that there are now two prior decisions and that the first of them was by a court which included Lord Bingham, and on an issue that he considered difficult, makes it all the more appropriate that a consistent line should be taken.
[56] On that basis it seems to me that the matters relied on by the council were properly included in informations alleging a breach of the duty under s 70(2). ‘Reinstatement’ must be given the same meaning in s 70 as in s 71, and in each case it must be taken to mean ‘proper reinstatement’, ie a reinstatement meeting the requirements of s 71. The issue of a ‘works closed’ notice under s 70(3) marks the point where the undertaker has purported to complete the reinstatement, but the contractor’s view of the matter tells one nothing about whether there has in fact been a proper reinstatement. The reinstatement will not have been completed for the purposes of the statute unless and until it is a proper reinstatement meeting the s 71 requirements. Where it does not meet those requirements, the carrying out of remedial works to correct the defects forms part of the continuing process of reinstatement and is subject to the duty under s 70(2) to carry on and complete the reinstatement with all such dispatch as is reasonably practicable. It follows that it was open to the council to bring a prosecution on the basis that the process of reinstatement continued during the periods specified in the three informations and that reinstatement was not carried on and completed with all such dispatch as was reasonably practicable during those periods.
[57] I would therefore give an affirmative answer to the judge’s question on s 70(2) and would dismiss the defendant’s appeal on this issue.
THE SECTION 66(1) ISSUE
[58] The defendant’s contention before the judge was that s 66 is designed to catch those who delay completion of existing street works rather than remedial works. The council contended that s 66(1) relates to the amount of time taken to complete the entirety of the works, from their commencement to satisfactory reinstatement.
[59] In the case stated the judge refers to the terms of s 66(1) and s 70(1), and continues:
‘Considering the wording of these two sections I was of the opinion that the use of the word ‘executed’ in s 70 indicates that s 66 applies to the actual work undertaken (ie in this case the digging up of the road and the replacing of the gas pipes) and that s 70 is aimed at the work that is necessary to reinstate the road. I noted that the s 70 summonses [the defendant] faced spanned the identical time frame as the s 66 matter.
I therefore concluded that the prosecution under s 66 was ill founded and that there was therefore no case to answer.’
[60] The question she has posed for the opinion of this court is:
‘Was I right to conclude that there was no case to answer in respect of the alleged contravention of s 66(1) and s 66(2) of the New Roads and Street Works Act 1991 between 11 February 2005 and 14 December 2005 on the
Page 1154 of [2008] 1 All ER 1137
ground that s 66 does not relate to delays in the carrying out of remedial works in the street?’
[61] Mr Reed submits that the judge wrongly interpreted s 66(1) in taking the view that it is restricted in its meaning to the initial street works. ‘Street works’ is defined in s 48(1) by way of the broad purposes of the undertaker’s actions in the street, rather than by way of the particular works to the street. The ‘works’ referred to in s 66(1) must be read in this context. There is no limitation in the subsection as to the section of works to which the requirement in s 66(1) relates. Whilst s 70(1) refers to the need to complete reinstatement with the same degree of dispatch, there is no reason why s 66(1) cannot relate to the works as a whole. Further, the judge was wrong to rely on the point that the s 66(1) offence covered the same time span as the s 70 offences: the s 70 offences did not allege delays through to 14 December 2005, and they related, individually, to only parts of the entire period covered by the s 66(1) offence. The s 66(1) offence was regarded as an overarching offence dealing with the entirety of the works in question. The laying of an information in such terms was accurate and appropriate.
[62] Mr Bradnock supports the judge’s conclusion. He submits that s 66(1) is intended to address the problem of an undertaker who delays completion of existing street works, not an undertaker who delays commencement of remedial works, which was the substance of the allegation against the defendant. The subsection refers to ‘executing’ street works, and it is wholly unrealistic to suggest that the defendant was executing street works in Northfield Gardens throughout the period from 11 February 2005 to 14 December 2005, when the essence of the council’s complaint is that the defendant was repeatedly failing to do so. For much of the period in question there was no notice in force indicating that street works were being undertaken and no apparatus or workers on site. Further, the council has a remedy under s 71 if reinstatement has been inadequately carried out and the commencement of remedial work is delayed: s 66(1) is not needed and is not the appropriate provision for this purpose. Even if the judge was wrong to conclude that s 66(1) is restricted in its scope to ‘the actual work undertaken’ and has no application to the reinstatement of those works, that error would have no bearing on the facts of this case or the question of commencement of remedial works, and the ruling that the defendant had no case to answer was correct.
[63] In my judgment the judge was correct in the conclusion she reached on this issue. As touched upon already in the context of the s 70(2) issue, it seems to me that the execution of the street works and the reinstatement of the street are separate, and that the former is governed by s 66 and the latter by s 70. The duty to reinstate under s 70 is engaged as the street works are completed. It is wrong to treat s 66 as encompassing the entire process, from the street works through to reinstatement (including remedial works): it is concerned only with the street works stage of the process.
[64] That s 66(1) is concerned only with the ‘street works’ is clear from its terms and from its position in the statute (under the sub-heading ‘General requirements as to execution of street works’). The definition of ‘street works’ in s 48(3) does not refer to reinstatement; and the separate definition of ‘reinstatement’ in s 105(1) does not refer to street works. They are separate concepts.
[65] Moreover, there is simply no reason why the statute should be construed in the way suggested by the council. The avoidance of unnecessary delay in the
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carrying on and completion of the street works is secured by the duty under s 66(1), whilst the avoidance of unnecessary delay in the carrying on and completion of the reinstatement is secured by the duty under s 70(1). To construe s 66(1) as encompassing the reinstatement as well as the street works themselves would be to duplicate the effect of the relevant part of s 70(1).
[66] Nothing in the previous decisions compels any different conclusion from that which I have indicated.
[67] Again, therefore, I would give an affirmative answer to the judge’s question and I would dismiss the council’s appeal on this issue.
SUMMARY
[68] In the result, I would uphold the judge’s decision on all three issues and dismiss both appeals.
OPENSHAW J.
[69] I agree.
The council’s appeals dismissed. The defendant’s appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Egan v Motor Services (Bath) Ltd
Note
[2008] 1 All ER 1156
[2007] EWCA Civ 1002
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Other: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WARD, ARDEN AND SMITH LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 3, 18 OCTOBER 2007
Judgment – Handed down judgments – Judgments in advance of hearing – Purpose of providing draft judgments – Reconsidering points of substance.
In the course of delivering a judgment (with which ARDEN and WARD LJJ agreed) dismissing the appeal of Darren Egan from the decision of Judge Rutherford DL in the Bristol County Court on 2 January 2007 dismissing his claim against Motor Services (Bath) Ltd), SMITH LJ said:
‘[49] I wish to add a few words to deprecate the practice which was adopted in this case of counsel writing to the judge, after a draft judgment has been provided, to ask him to reconsider his conclusions. It is a growing practice and in my view it should happen only in exceptional circumstances.
[50] The purpose of the judge providing a draft of the judgment before hand down is to enable the parties to spot typographical, spelling and minor factual errors which have escaped the judge’s eye. It is also to give the parties the opportunity to attempt to reach agreement on costs and to consider whether they wish to appeal. Consideration of such matters before hand down can save costs. Circulation of the draft is not intended to provide counsel with an opportunity to re-argue the issues in the case.
[51] Only in the most exceptional circumstances is it appropriate to ask the judge to reconsider a point of substance. Those circumstances might be, for example, where counsel feels that the judge had not given adequate reasons for some aspect of his/her decision. Then it may be appropriate to send a courteous note to the judge asking him/her to explain the reasons more fully. By way of further example, if the judge has decided the case on a point which was not properly argued or has relied on an authority which was not considered, the appropriate course will be to ask him/her either to reconvene for further argument or to receive written submissions from both sides. Letters such as the one sent in this case, which sought to reopen the argument on a wide variety of points, should not be sent.’
The full text of this judgment, in which Gerard McMeel (instructed by Greenwoods) appeared for the appellant and Louis Weston (instructed by Withy King) appeared for the respondent, can be found in All England Reporter ([2007] All ER (D) 256 (Oct)) on the LexisNexis Butterworths online service.
Rakesh Rajani Barrister
Re M and another (children) (abduction)
[2008] 1 All ER 1157
[2007] UKHL 55
Categories: FAMILY; Children, Family Proceedings
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 21, 22 NOVEMBER, 5 DECEMBER 2007
Minor – Custody – Rights of custody – Wrongful removal or retention – Discretion of court to refuse to order immediate return of child – Exercise of discretion – Mother wrongfully removing children from Zimbabwe – Father applying for return of children – Father delaying in making application – Children being settled in United Kingdom and objecting to return – Whether necessary for case to be exceptional before court could exercise discretion to refuse to return – Principles on which discretion should be exercised – Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, art 12.
Two children were born in Zimbabwe to Zimbabwean parents. They lived there with their father after their parents separated in 2001. In 2005 the mother wrongfully removed the children to the United Kingdom, where she claimed asylum. Since then they had been living in the United Kingdom with their mother. The children objected to being returned to Zimbabwe. More than two years after the children had been removed the father applied for summary return of the children to Zimbabwe under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction 1980 (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33), given effect in domestic law by the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985. Under art 12a of the convention, where a child had been wrongfully removed and at the date of the commencement of the proceedings less than a year had elapsed the judicial authority was to order the return of the child forthwith. Even where the proceedings had been commenced after the one year period the authority ‘shall also order the return of the child unless it is demonstrated that the child is now settled in its new environment.' The judge found that neither the children nor their mother had any lawful right to remain in the United Kingdom and, although settlement had been established under art 12, held that he had a discretion to order their immediate return, and exercised it. The Court of Appeal upheld that decision. The mother appealed. At the date of the House of Lords hearing the children were aged 13 and 10. The following issues, inter alia, arose: (i) whether, once the children were settled, there was a discretion nevertheless to return them under the convention, or whether their return had to be sought and ordered under some other jurisdiction; and (ii) if there was such a discretion, the principles on which it should be exercised and how far, if at all, they differed from the principles which would apply to the court’s power to return them under some other jurisdiction.
Held – (1) (Per Lord Bingham of Cornhill, Lord Hope of Craighead, Baroness Hale of Richmond and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood) On its true
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construction, art 12 of the Hague Convention envisaged that a settled child might be returned within the convention procedures. The words ‘shall . . . unless’ left the matter open. That construction would be consistent with all the other exceptions to the rule of return. It would avoid the separate need for proceedings in the unusual event that summary return would be appropriate in a settlement case. It recognised the flexibility in the concept of settlement, which could arise in a wide variety of circumstances and to very different degrees. It acknowledged that late application might be the result of active concealment of where the child had gone and it left the court with all options open (see [1], [2], [31], [59], below).
(2) (Per Lord Bingham of Cornhill, Lord Hope of Craighead, Baroness Hale of Richmond and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood) It was wrong to import any test of exceptionality into the exercise of discretion under the Hague Convention. The circumstances in which return might be refused were themselves exceptions to the general rule. That in itself was sufficient exceptionality. When a court came to exercise its discretion, it was entitled to take into account the various aspects of the convention policy, alongside the circumstances which gave the court a discretion in the first place and wider considerations of the child’s rights and welfare. It was, however, not the case that the convention objectives should always be given more weight than the other considerations. Sometimes they should and sometimes they should not. The further away one got from the speedy return envisaged by the convention, the less weighty those general convention considerations would be. Furthermore, where a child’s objection was raised, only two conditions needed to be met for such an exception to be brought into play. First, that the child herself objected to being returned and second, that she had attained an age and degree of maturity at which it was appropriate to take account of her views. In the instant case, in the time before the father had brought the proceedings, the children had settled down and got on with making their lives in the United Kingdom, where they were happy and had become fully integrated in their local church and schools. They felt fully settled in the United Kingdom. Against that, the policy of the convention could carry little weight. The delay had been such that its primary objective could not be fulfilled. Accordingly (Lord Rodger of Earlsferry concurring in the result), the appeal would be allowed (see [1], [2], [8], [40], [43], [44], [46], [54], [58], [59], below).
Notes
For return of children, legal proceedings and exceptions to the requirement to order return, see 5(4) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2008 reissue) paras 809–811.
For the Child Abduction and Custody Act 1985, Sch 1, art 12, see 6 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 282.
Cases referred to in opinions
A (minors) (abduction: custody rights), Re [1992] 1 All ER 929, [1992] Fam 106, [1992] 2 WLR 536, CA.
C (abduction: settlement), Re [2004] EWHC 1245 (Fam), [2005] 1 FLR 127, rvsd sub nom Cannon v Cannon [2004] EWCA Civ 1330, [2004] 3 FCR 438, [2005] 1 WLR 32.
C (abduction: settlement) (No 2), Re [2005] 1 FLR 938.
D (a child) (abduction: custody rights), Re [2006] UKHL 51, [2007] 1 All ER 783, [2007] 1 AC 619, [2006] 3 WLR 989.
Page 1159 of [2008] 1 All ER 1157
Director-General of the Community Services v Apostolakis (1996) FLC 92-718.
Director-General of the Community Services v M (1998) FLC 92-829, (1998) 24 Fam LR 178.
Director-General, Dept of Families, Youth and Community Care v Thorpe (1997) FLC 92-785.
Director-General, Dept of Families, Youth and Community Care v Moore (1999) 24 Fam LR 475, (1999) FLC 92-841.
J (a child) (return to foreign jurisdiction: convention rights), Re [2005] UKHL 40, [2005] 3 All ER 291, [2006] 1 AC 80, [2005] 3 WLR 14, HL.
Klentzeris v Klentzeris [2007] EWCA Civ 533, [2007] 3 FCR 580.
L (abduction: pending criminal proceedings), Re [1999] 2 FCR 604.
L (minors) (wardship: jurisdiction), Re [1974] 1 All ER 913, [1974] 1 WLR 250, CA.
M (a minor) (abduction), Re [1995] 3 FCR 99.
M (abduction: child’s objections), Re [2007] EWCA Civ 260, [2007] 3 FCR 631.
N (minors) (abduction), Re [1991] FCR 765.
P v B (No 2) [1999] 4 IR 185, Ir SC.
R (minors) (wardship: jurisdiction), Re (1981) 2 FLR 416, CA.
S (a minor) (abduction), Re [1991] FCR 656, CA.
S (a minor) (abduction), Re [1993] 2 All ER 683, [1993] Fam 242, [1993] 2 WLR 775, CA.
Secretary of State for Justice v HJ [2006] NZSC 97.
Soucie v Soucie 1995 SC 134, Ct of Sess.
State Central Authority v Ayob (1997) 21 Fam LR 567, (1997) FLC 92-746, Aus Fam Ct.
State Central Authority v CR [2005] Fam CA 1050, (2005) 34 Fam LR 354, Aus Fam Ct.
Vigreux v Michel [2006] EWCA Civ 630, [2007] 3 FCR 196.
Z v Z (abduction: children’s views) [2005] EWCA Civ 1012, [2006] 1 FCR 387.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
A (minors) (abduction: acquiescence), Re [1992] 1 All ER 929, [1992] Fam 106, [1992] 2 WLR 536, CA.
AA (Zimbabwe) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 149, [2007] All ER (D) 73 (Mar).
AA v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, LK v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] EWCA Civ 401, [2007] 2 All ER 160, [2007] 1 WLR 3134.
Adams v Wigfield [1993] 11 FRNZ 270 INCADAT HC/E/NZ 89.
Bajrami v Albania [2007] 1 FCR 91, ECt HR.
C (a child) (abduction: settlement), Re [2006] EWHC 1229 (Fam), [2007] 1 FCR 649.
C (abduction) (grave risk of psychological harm), Re [1999] 2 FCR 507, CA.
C (B) (child abduction: risk of harm), Re [1999] 3 FCR 510, CA.
C v C [1989] 2 All ER 465, [1989] 1 WLR 654, CA.
D (Article 13B: Non-return), Re [2006] EWCA Civ 146, [2006] 2 FLR 305.
Director-General, Dept of Families, Youth and Community Care v Bennett (2000) 26 Fam LR 71, [2000] Fam CA 253.
F (minor: abduction: rights of custody abroad), Re [1995] 3 All ER 641, [1995] Fam 224, [1995] 3 WLR 339, CA.
Friedrich v Friedrich (1996) 78 F 3d 1060, US Ct of Apps.
H (children) (abduction), Re [2003] EWCA Civ 355, [2003] 2 FCR 151.
H (minors) (abduction: acquiescence), Re [1996] 3 FCR 425, CA.
Page 1160 of [2008] 1 All ER 1157
H (minors) (abduction: acquiescence), Re [1997] 2 All ER 225, [1998] AC 72, [1997] 2 WLR 563, HL.
HB (abduction: children’s objections) (No 2), Re [1998] 1 FCR 331.
Ignaccolo-Zenide v Romania (2001) 31 EHRR 212, [2000] ECHR 31679/96, ECt HR.
Iosub Caras v Romania [2006] 3 FCR 130, ECt HR.
KS v LS [2003] NZLR 837, Auck HC.
M (abduction: psychological harm), Re [1998] 2 FCR 488, CA.
M (abduction: undertakings), Re [1995] 3 FCR 745, CA.
M v F INCADAT HC/E/FR 274.
M v F INCADAT HC/E/FR 63, Fr CA.
Maire v Portugal [2004] 2 FLR 653, [2003] ECHR 48206/99, ECt HR.
McCall v McCall (1995) FLC 95-551.
O v O 2002 SC 430, Ct of Sess.
O, Re [1995] 1 FCR 721.
Panazatou v Panazatou (1997) No FA960713571S INCADAT HC/E/USs 97, Conn Superior Ct.
Piglowska v Piglowski [1999] 3 All ER 632, [1999] 1 WLR 1360, HL.
R (child abduction: acquiescence), Re [1995] 2 FCR 609, CA.
Richards v Director-General, Dept of Safety [2007] Fam CA 65 INCADAT HC/E/AU 904.
RK v JK (child abduction: acquiescence) [2000] 2 IR 416, IR SC.
Ro v Ro INCADAT HC/E/IL 832.
S (a minor) (abduction: acquiescence), Re [1998] 3 FCR 113, CA.
S (abduction: custody rights), Re [2002] EWCA Civ 908, [2002] 2 FLR 815.
S (minors) (abduction: acquiescence), Re [1994] 2 FCR 945, CA.
S v B (abduction: human rights) [2005] EWHC 733 (Fam), [2005] 2 FLR 878.
S v S [1998] 2 HKC 316 INCADAT HC/E/HK 234.
Singh v Singh 1998 SC 68, Ct of Sess.
Sylvester v Austria [2003] 2 FCR 128, ECt HR.
T (abduction: child’s objections to return), Re [2000] 2 FLR 192.
TB v JB (abduction: grave risk of harm) [2001] 2 FCR 497, CA.
Thomson v Thomson [1994] 3 SCR 551, Can SC.
W v W (child abduction) [1993] 2 FCR 644.
W v W 2004 SC 63, Ct of Sess.
White v Northumberland [2006] NZFLR 1105, Auck CA.
Appeal
The mother appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 24 October 2007 against the decision of the Court of Appeal (Thorpe, Longmore and Moore-Bick LJJ) on 12 September 2007 ([2007] EWCA Civ 992, [2007] 3 FCR 564) whereby it dismissed her appeal from the decision of Roderic Wood J, sitting in the Family Division of the High Court of Justice on 26 July 2007 ([2007] EWHC 1820 (Fam)), on the application of the father, that their two children should be returned to Zimbabwe, where the father was resident and from where the mother had removed them. The children, by their litigation friend, were given permission to intervene. The facts are set out in the opinion of Baroness Hale of Richmond.
Henry Setright QC and Edward Devereux (instructed by Dawson Cornwell as agents for Armitage Sykes LLP, Huddersfield) for the mother.
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Marcus Scott-Manderson QC and David Williams (instructed by Reynolds Porter Chamberlain LLP) for the father.
Teertha Gupta (instructed by Lawrence & Co) for the children.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
5 December 2007. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1] My Lords, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Baroness Hale of Richmond in her opinion, which I have had the advantage of reading in draft and with which I agree, I would allow this appeal and make the order which she proposes.
LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD.
[2] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Baroness Hale of Richmond. For the reasons she gives, I would allow the appeal. I add these brief comments simply to explain why I agree with her that, where it has been demonstrated that the child is settled in its new environment, art 12 nevertheless implies that there is a discretion to return the child within the procedures of the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33) (the convention).
[3] I think that it is reasonably clear, as a matter of language, that art 12 can be read as implying that there is a discretion to return a settled child under the convention. Two situations are envisaged by the article in which there is plainly no discretion. The first is where, at the date of the commencement of the proceedings, a period of less that one year has elapsed from the date of the wrongful removal or retention. In that situation the first paragraph states that the authority concerned ‘shall’ return the child forthwith. The second is where the proceedings have commenced after the expiration of one year and it has not been demonstrated that the child is settled in its new environment. In that situation the second paragraph states that the authority ‘shall also’ order the return the child. Then there is the coda to that paragraph, which is introduced by the word ‘unless’. The coda does not say in terms what is to be done where it applies. But there are only three possibilities: (a) that return of the settled child must be ordered, (b) that return of the settled child must not be ordered and (c) that there is a discretion to return the child.
[4] The coda would be pointless if (a) applied, as it would lead to exactly the same result as the main part of that paragraph. The consequence, if (b) applied, would be the complete opposite. This risks requiring the relevant authority to do something which may not be in the interests of the child. So one would have expected it to be spelled out expressly if this was nevertheless what was intended. The absence of any such words is a clear indication against this alternative. This leaves (c) as the only remaining possibility. The absence of a direction that the settled child ‘shall not’ be returned, in contrast to the direction ‘shall’ in the main part of the paragraph, indicates that in the situation to which the coda refers there is nevertheless a discretion to return the child under the convention. At the very least, the matter is left open by the wording of the article.
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[5] The argument in favour of there being a discretion under the convention as a mere matter of language is reinforced by the fact that this reading of art 12 is consistent with arts 13 and 20, both of which expressly confer a discretion on the relevant authority. The policy of the convention as a whole is to ensure that full weight can be given in a variety of circumstances to the interests of the child, to which paramount importance must always be attached. The argument is reinforced too by the other factors that are referred to by Baroness Hale. In particular, in contrast to the exercise of powers outside the convention which are referred to in art 18, it ensures that the general policy considerations of the convention will continue to be relevant.
LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[6] My Lords, I have had the privilege of considering in draft the speech which is to be delivered by my noble and learned friend, Baroness Hale of Richmond. She sets out the arguments both for and against the construction, which she has come to prefer, of art 12 of the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction (The Hague, 25 October 1980; TS 66 (1986); Cm 33) (the convention) as containing a discretion to return a settled child within the convention procedures.
[7] Having regard to the purpose of the convention and to the language of arts 12 and 13, I prefer the competing view that, once a child has become settled, precisely because the purpose of the convention to promote speedy return can no longer be achieved, the convention ceases to play a role. Then, as art 18 envisages, the court is to have resort to its powers outside the convention. Those powers fall to be exercised in accordance with the guidance given by the House in Re J (a child) (return to foreign jurisdiction: convention rights) [2005] UKHL 40, [2005] 3 All ER 291, [2006] 1 AC 80. It would serve no useful purpose, however, for me to elaborate the point since Baroness Hale has fully rehearsed the relevant arguments, which are very largely those which appealed to Singer J in Re C (abduction: settlement) [2004] EWHC 1245 (Fam), [2005] 1 FLR 127. Happily, for the reasons which she gives, it may not make very much difference in practice whether the discretion is exercised under or outside the convention.
[8] On all the other matters I agree with Baroness Hale’s reasoning. I would accordingly allow the appeal and make the order which she proposes.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[9] My Lords, the question before us is whether two girls, now aged 13 years and 3 months and 10 years and 6 months, should be summarily returned to Zimbabwe under the Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction 1980 (the convention), given effect in United Kingdom law by the Child Abduction Act 1985. The trial judge held that they should be returned: [2007] EWHC 1820 (Fam). The Court of Appeal upheld his decision: [2007] EWCA Civ 992, [2007] 3 FCR 564. There is no dispute that the children were brought here in breach of their father’s custody rights. The dispute is as to the scope and application of the exceptions to the duty to return them and in particular the proper approach to the exercise of discretion once one or more of those exceptions has been established.
[10] The judge heard a great deal more evidence than is usual in child abduction cases and made full and careful findings of fact. We need repeat only the bare essentials. The girls were born in Zimbabwe to Zimbabwean parents
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and lived there with their father after their parents separated early in 2001. In March 2005, while on a visit to their mother, they were brought secretly to this country, where their mother claimed asylum. Since then they have been living in this country with their mother and her partner, who arrived here shortly after they did. From at least September 2005 the father has known where the children are. He did not notify the Zimbabwean central authority of his claim until September 2006. The English central authority did not receive notification from them until January 2007. These proceedings were not issued until May 2007, more than two years after the children had been removed. The mother’s asylum claim was refused in April 2005 although she has since been advised to make a fresh one. The family remain here because of a moratorium on the return of failed asylum seekers to Zimbabwe.
THE CONVENTION AND THE ISSUES
[11] The convention is an admirably clear and simple instrument. Its twin objects are set out in art 1:
‘(a) to secure the prompt return of children wrongfully removed to or retained in any Contracting State; and (b) to ensure that rights of custody and of access under the law of one Contracting State are effectively respected in the other Contracting States.’
However, as the explanatory report of Professor Elisa Perez-Vera (April 1981, paras 16 and 17) points out, as to rights of custody, the second object is attained only indirectly, through the first.
[12] But it should not be thought that the convention is principally concerned with the rights of adults. Quite the reverse. The preamble explains that the contracting states are ‘[f]irmly convinced that the interests of children are of paramount importance in matters relating to their custody’ and ‘[d]esiring to protect children internationally from the harmful effects of their wrongful removal or retention and to establish procedures to ensure their prompt return to the State of their habitual residence, as well as to secure protection for rights of access’. These two paragraphs, as Professor Perez-Vera explains (para 24)—
‘reflect quite clearly the philosophy of the Convention in this regard. It can be defined as follows: the struggle against the great increase in international child abductions must always be inspired by the desire to protect children and should be based upon an interpretation of their true interests. Now, the right not to be removed or retained in the name of more or less arguable rights concerning its person is one of the most objective examples of what constitutes the interests of the child.’
However (para 25):
‘the Convention recognizes the need for certain exceptions to the general obligations assumed by States to secure the prompt return of children who have been unlawfully removed or retained. For the most part, these exceptions are only concrete illustrations of the overly vague principle whereby the interests of the child are stated to be the guiding criterion in this area.’
Hence the convention is designed to protect the interests of children by securing their prompt return to the country from which they have wrongly been taken,
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but recognises some limited and precise circumstances when it will not be in their interests to do so.
[13] The basic obligation to return the child is spelled out in art 12:
‘Where a child has been wrongfully removed or retained in terms of Article 3 and, at the date of the commencement of the proceedings before the judicial or administrative authority of the Contracting State where the child is, a period of less than one year has elapsed from the date of the wrongful removal or retention, the authority concerned shall order the return of the child forthwith.
The judicial or administrative authority, even where the proceedings have been commenced after the expiration of the period of one year referred to in the preceding paragraph, shall also order the return of the child, unless it is demonstrated that the child is now settled in its new environment.’
As Professor Perez-Vera points out, art 12 and art 18 are complementary, despite their different character (para 106). Article 18 reads: ‘The provisions of this Chapter do not limit the power of a judicial or administrative authority to order the return of the child at any time.’
[14] Thus one of the exceptions to the duty of return is contained within art 12 itself. If the proceedings are begun within a year of the removal, there is a duty to return ‘forthwith’. Even if they are begun more than a year later, there is still a duty to return, but not ‘forthwith’, unless the child is now settled in its new environment. These proceedings were begun more than two years after the children had been removed. Notwithstanding the precarious immigration position, the trial judge found that ‘overall and on fine balance’ the children were now settled in their new environment. Hence there is no duty under art 12 to return them.
[15] This gives rise to the two most important issues in the case: (1) once the children are settled, is there a discretion nevertheless to return them under the convention or must their return be sought and ordered under some other jurisdiction; and (2) if there is such a discretion, on what principles should it be exercised and how far, if at all, do they differ from the principles which would apply to the court’s power to return them under some other jurisdiction?
[16] Three further exceptions are spelled out in art 13:
‘Notwithstanding the provisions of the previous Article, the judicial or administrative authority of the requested State is not bound to order the return of the child if the person, institution or other body which opposes its return establishes that—
(a) the person, institution or other body having the care of the person of the child was not actually exercising the custody rights at the time of removal or retention, or had consented to or subsequently acquiesced in the removal or retention; or
(b) there is a grave risk that his or her return would expose the child to physical or psychological harm or otherwise place the child in an intolerable situation.
The judicial or administrative authority may also refuse to order the return of the child if it finds that the child objects to being returned and has attained an age and degree of maturity at which it is appropriate to take account of its views.’
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[17] As to the third of these exceptions, the judge found that the children did object to a return to Zimbabwe. He also found that they were of an age and maturity which made it appropriate to take account of their views. Nor could he find that they had been coached in the views they had expressed to the Children and Family Court Advisory and Support Service (CAFCASS) officer. But he bore in mind the overall context, living with a mother and her new partner who did not wish to return and who were more likely than not to have given the children comparatively negative views about Zimbabwe. He did not regard the children’s views as sufficiently strong to be determinative. If wrong about that he would still have exercised his discretion to return them. This raises issue (3): the proper approach to the consideration of the children’s objections under art 13.
[18] The judge rejected the mother’s allegations that the father had consented to or acquiesced in the children’s removal within the meaning of art 13(a). That allegation has not been pursued. The judge also rejected the mother’s allegations that the particular risks which she and her partner would face on return to Zimbabwe, and/or the general situation prevailing in that country, would put the children at grave risk of physical or psychological harm or otherwise place them in an intolerable situation for the purpose of art 13(b). Despite the difficulties of life in Zimbabwe, he held that it was not a ‘failed state’ and their father would be able to insulate them from the risks and privations suffered by other Zimbabweans. The mother still pursues the allegation, thus raising issue (4): whether the judge should have held the art 13(b) exception made out on the facts of this case; and issue (5) the proper approach to the exercise of the court’s discretion in such cases.
[19] The final exception is provided for in art 20:
‘The return of the child under the provisions of Article 12 may be refused if this would not be permitted by the fundamental principles of the requested State relating to the protection of human rights and fundamental freedoms.’
Unlike all the other articles quoted above, art 20 did not become part of United Kingdom law by virtue of s 1(2) of and Sch 1 to the 1985 Act. But in Re D (abduction: rights of custody) [2006] UKHL 51 at [65], [2007] 1 All ER 783 at [65], [2007] 1 AC 619, this House pointed out that, under the Human Rights Act 1998, it is now unlawful for the court as a public authority to act incompatibly with the human rights and fundamental freedoms guaranteed by the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act). This applies in a Hague Convention case just as in any other. Article 20 has thus been given domestic effect by a different route. Hence a final issue is whether a return would be incompatible with the convention rights.
SETTLEMENT AND DISCRETION
[20] On one view, adopted by Singer J in Re C (abduction: settlement) [2004] EWHC 1245 (Fam), [2005] 1 FLR 127, where the second paragraph of art 12 applies, a finding that the children are now settled in their new environment takes the case outside the convention altogether. Article 12 defines the scope of the duty to return. It contemplates that that duty may continue indefinitely, provided that the proceedings have begun in time. It also contemplates that the duty will continue even if the proceedings have not begun in time. But the latter duty only applies ‘unless’ the children have become settled. Article 12 thus tries
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to draw a principled line between the claimant who does bring proceedings in time, who should not be prejudiced by delays in the system, and the claimant who does not, who should not succeed under the convention once the child has become settled. As Professor Perez-Vera explains (para 107):
‘in so far as the return of the child is regarded as being in its interests, it is clear that after a child has become settled in its new environment, its return should take place only after an examination of the merits of the custody rights exercised over it—something which is outside the scope of the Convention.’
The rule while ‘perhaps arbitrary’ was the ‘least bad’ solution to the problem.
[21] Furthermore art 12 does not expressly contemplate a residual discretion to return. Its wording is different from the qualifications in art 13. Article 18 does not confer any new power to order the return of the child, but simply provides that the provisions of the convention do not limit any other power which the court may have to order the child’s return. It is contemplating powers conferred by the ordinary domestic law rather than by the convention itself. As Professor Perez-Vera explains (para 112):
‘This provision . . . which imposes no duty, underlines the non-exhaustive and complementary nature of the Convention. In fact, it authorises the competent authorities to order the return of the child by invoking other provisions more favourable to the attainment of this end. This may happen particularly in the situations envisaged in the second paragraph of article 12, i.e. where, as a result of an application being made to the authority after more than one year has elapsed since the removal, the return of the child may be refused if it has become settled in its new social and family environment.’
[22] Support for this view can therefore be drawn both from the wording of the convention itself and from the explanatory report. It is also the view taken by those academic commentators who have considered the matter. In an early article on the convention, ‘International Child Abduction by Parents’ (1982) 32 Univ of Toronto LJ 281, p 314, John Eekelaar states that if the abductor succeeds in showing that the child is settled, ‘the court will be free to decide the case on a full review of its merits’. It is also supported by Paul Beaumont and Peter McEleavy The Hague Convention on International Child Abduction (1999) p 209, who suggest that art 18 should be ignored entirely in this context, as ‘an unfortunate example of a provision having been accepted only by a wafer-thin majority at the drafting stage’, and by Nigel Lowe, Mark Everall and Michael Nicholls International Movement of Children: Law, Practice and Procedure (2004) p 304 (para 17.33). It was certainly the view of the late Professor Peter Nygh, formerly Nygh J of the Family Court of Australia, in the passage cited at [28], below.
[23] Judicial support can be found in the observations of Kay J in the Family Court of Australia in State Central Authority v Ayob (1997) 21 Fam LR 567, (1997) FLC 92-746 and again in State Central Authority v CR [2005] Fam CA 1050, (2005) 34 Fam LR 354. On the other hand, other Australian cases had assumed the existence of a discretion: see Director-General of the Community Services v Apostolakis (1996) FLC 92-718 and Director-General, Dept of Families, Youth and Community Care v Thorpe (1997) FLC 92-785. The point was, however, left open in two cases before the full court: see Director-General of the Community Services v M (1998)
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24 Fam LR 178, (1998) FLC 92-829 and Director-General, Dept of Families, Youth and Community Care v Moore (1999) 24 Fam LR 475, (1999) FLC 92-841.
[24] The contrary view was taken by the Court of Appeal in Cannon v Cannon [2004] EWCA Civ 1330, [2004] 3 FCR 438, [2005] 1 WLR 32, on appeal from Singer J in Re C. On this view, art 12 merely establishes when the mandatory duty to return exists. What is to happen when it does not is left to implication. The wording ‘shall also order the return of the child, unless’ is just as capable of supporting the inference of a discretion thereafter as is the wording ‘is not bound’ and ‘may also refuse’ in art 13. Each article limits or qualifies the duty of return and if the one imports a discretionary power of return into the convention then the other can do so too. Article 18 is as capable of referring to powers arising under the convention as it is to powers arising from other sources. Indeed, the wording ‘at any time’ may be more consistent with powers arising under the convention, because art 16 expressly precludes the courts of the requested state from deciding ‘on the merits of rights of custody until it has been determined that the child is not to be returned under this Convention’.
[25] Before Re C there were dicta to this effect in cases where the one-year time limit had been exceeded but settlement had not been found: see Re S (a minor) (abduction) [1991] FCR 656 at 676, per Purchas LJ, Re N (minors) (abduction) [1991] FCR 765 at 768, per Bracewell J, and also obiter but for different reasons in Re M (a minor) (abduction) [1995] 3 FCR 99 at 106, per Thorpe J and in Re L (abduction: pending criminal proceedings) [1999] 2 FCR 604 at 613, per Wilson J
[26] In Scotland, the Inner House, in Soucie v Soucie 1995 SC 134, cited Re N and assumed that a discretion would have arisen under art 18 had settlement been found. In Ireland, the Supreme Court, in P v B (No 2) [1999] 4 IR 185, also cited Re N, but found settlement and declined to return the child. In the United States, the authorities reviewed by Singer J in Re C suggest that the debate has centred around whether the one-year period in the second paragraph of art 12 should be extended by a principle known as ‘equitable tolling’ so as to ignore the passage of time while the child’s whereabouts have been actively concealed from the claimant parent. In New Zealand, the convention has been given effect, not by scheduling the relevant articles to an implementing Act, but by translating its provisions into domestic legislation. The Care of Children Act 2004, in s 106(1), provides that the court ‘may refuse’ to make an order for the return of the child in each of the situations provided for in arts 12 and 13; thus:
‘It is clear from the language of these provisions that although a court is not obliged to return a child who is settled in New Zealand if application for return has been made more than a year after the child’s wrongful removal, it may nevertheless do so if it thinks it appropriate.’ (See Secretary of State for Justice v HJ [2006] NZSC 97 at [9] per Elias CJ.)
This indicates, therefore, the view of the New Zealand legislature rather than the New Zealand judiciary as to the meaning of art 12.
[27] This is as far as the comparative researches of counsel have taken us. It would be putting it too high to say that there is a strong tide of international judicial opinion in favour of a discretion in settlement cases. On the other hand, Kay J in Australia and Singer J in England are the only judges to have expressed a contrary view. When the decision of Singer J was reversed and the case sent back for the issues of settlement and the exercise of discretion to be decided afresh, Kirkwood J found that the child was settled here and in the exercise of his
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discretion refused to order her return: see Re C (abduction: settlement) (No 2) [2005] 1 FLR 938. There appears to be no case until this in which the return of a settled child has been ordered.
[28] That, therefore, is how things stand in the United Kingdom, unless your lordships accede to the invitation of both Mr Henry Setright QC on behalf of the mother and Mr Teertha Gupta on behalf of the children to overrule the decision in Cannon’s case. We have not been invited to overturn the long line of authority holding that, once one of the exceptions in art 13 has been made out, there remains a discretion to return the child under the convention rather than under the ordinary law. However, our attention has been drawn to the contrary view expressed by Professor Nygh, in The International Abduction of Children, in Children on the Move, How to Implement their Right to Family Life, edited by the distinguished team of Jaap Doek, Hans van Loon (Director of the Hague Conference on Private International Law) and Paul Vlaardingerbroek (1996) p 42:
‘There is no doubt that the court in such a case is not bound to keep the child within the requested state. The question is: can it order the removal of the child in a summary proceeding without consideration of the merits of the dispute?
The English Court of Appeal has taken the view that there does arise a residual discretion upon a ground of opposition to return being established which must be exercised before the court can proceed with the hearing of the merits of the custody dispute. This discretion must be exercised balancing the interests of the child, which should not be treated as paramount for these purposes, against the intention of the Convention that children who have been unlawfully removed or retained should be returned promptly to the country of habitual residence. This practice appears to be contrary to the assumption in para 107 of the Perez-Vera Explanatory Report that in such a case the child’s return “should take place only after an examination of the merits of the custody rights exercised over it.” The better view may well be that a decision upholding a ground of opposition means that the court of the requested State should assume jurisdiction to deal with the merits of the custody dispute.’
[29] In theory at least, therefore, there are three solutions: (1) once any ground of opposition has been made out, so that there is no duty to return the child, the court must consider whether to use other powers, outside the convention, to return the child; or (2) the arts 13 and 20 grounds, being permissive only, contain within them a discretion nevertheless to return the child, but the art 12 ground, not being so limited, does not; or (3) all of the grounds contain within them a discretion to return nonetheless.
[30] Despite its attractive simplicity and the distinction of its source, solution (1) can be rejected. A discretion not to return is imported into the words of art 13 itself. The passage cited from Professor Perez-Vera is taken, as already seen, from her discussion of arts 12 and 18; when discussing arts 13 and 20, she states (para 113):
‘In general, it is appropriate to emphasise that the exceptions in these two articles do not apply automatically, in that they do not invariably result in the child’s retention; nevertheless, the very nature of these exceptions gives judges a discretion—and does not impose upon them a duty—to refuse to return a child in certain circumstances.’
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Thus art 13 clearly envisages that the discretion may result in a decision to return within the convention procedures. Those procedures, involving as they do the central authorities of each contracting state and, in this country at least, favourable legal aid for the claimants, are different from those of the ordinary law. The same applies to art 20.
[31] The choice between solutions (2) and (3) is much more difficult. As judges at all levels have acknowledged, there is much to be said for either view. However, I have reached the conclusion, not without considerable hesitation, that art 12 does envisage that a settled child might nevertheless be returned within the convention procedures. The words ‘shall . . . unless’ leave the matter open. It would be consistent with all the other exceptions to the rule of return. It would avoid the separate and perhaps unfunded need for proceedings in the unusual event that summary return would be appropriate in a settlement case. It recognises the flexibility in the concept of settlement, which may arise in a wide variety of circumstances and to very different degrees. It acknowledges that late application may be the result of active concealment of where the child has gone. It leaves the court with all options open. Furthermore, the difference between the two solutions is by no means as great as is sometimes assumed. This depends upon the scope of the discretion to be exercised both within and without the convention procedures.
DISCRETION UNDER THE ORDINARY LAW AND UNDER THE CONVENTION
[32] The difference between the two was summed up thus by Thorpe LJ in Cannon’s case [2004] 3 FCR 438 at [38]:
‘For the exercise of a discretion under the Convention requires the court to have due regard to the overriding objectives of the Convention whilst acknowledging the importance of the child’s welfare (particularly in a case where the court has found settlement), whereas the consideration of the welfare of the child is paramount if the discretion is exercised in the context of our domestic law.’
There has been a tendency in some quarters to take each of these approaches further than they should properly be taken, thus exaggerating the differences between them.
[33] On the one hand, it is sometimes suggested that, outside the convention, the court is bound to conduct a full merits inquiry into the dispute between the parties; not only will the welfare of the child be the paramount consideration, but the checklist of factors relevant to that consideration, set out in s 1(3) of the Children Act 1989, will have to be fully considered. In the words of Mr Scott-Manderson QC, appearing for the father, it operates as a ‘fetter on the court’s discretion’, limiting it to the welfare of the child and excluding independent consideration of the policy of the convention, including the policy that the merits of the parental dispute should be decided in the courts of the child’s home country.
[34] On the other hand, it has sometimes been suggested that in convention cases the policy of the convention requires that the discretion be exercised in favour of return in all save the most exceptional cases. When discussing discretion in this case, the trial judge cited the recent case of Z v Z (abduction: children’s views) [2005] EWCA Civ 1012, [2006] 1 FCR 387, where at [18] Thorpe LJ described the following passage from the judgment of Balcombe LJ in
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Re S (a minor) (abduction) [1993] 2 All ER 683 at 691, [1993] Fam 242 at 251–252, as ‘authoritatively stat[ing] the proper approach’:
‘The scheme of the Hague Convention is that in normal circumstances it is considered to be in the best interests of children generally that they should be promptly returned to the country whence they have been wrongly removed, and that it is only in exceptional cases that the court should have a discretion to refuse to order an immediate return. That discretion must be exercised in the context of the approach of the convention—see Re A (minors) (abduction: acquiescence) [1992] 1 All ER 929 at 942, [1992] Fam 106 at 122 per Lord Donaldson MR.’
However, the judge also referred, under the heading of discretion, to Vigreux v Michel [2006] EWCA Civ 630, [2007] 3 FCR 196, in which ‘the Court of Appeal further emphasised the exceptional nature of the case that would be required to fall outside the return net’ (at [53]). He may well have had in mind the observation of Wall LJ at [66]:
‘Following Re S, the first question I have to ask myself is, I think: what is it about this case which renders it exceptional and requires the court to exercise its discretion not to return PM to France?’
Earlier, when summarising the law relating to child’s objections, the judge referred (at [49]) to the observations of the Court of Appeal in Klentzeris v Klentzeris [2007] EWCA Civ 533, [2007] 3 FCR 580—
‘for a recent reaffirmation that non-return is appropriate only in cases which fall into “a most exceptional category”, in that case the court basing its decision upon “the extraordinary strength of the evidence of the CAFCASS officer”.’
[35] When it came to the actual exercise of his discretion, the judge clearly indicated that he considered that he had to find something exceptional in the case, over and above the two grounds of opposition which he had found established, before he could refuse to order a return:
‘[119] . . . I have gone on to consider whether or not this case is an exceptional case such that I should exercise my discretion to refuse to order an immediate return . . .
[120] Having set out at length the facts as I find them to be, I can find nothing in this case which would qualify it as exceptional, and thus decline to exercise my discretion against a return . . . Ultimately, there is nothing exceptional about this case on any view.’
[36] Mr Setright points out that it is scarcely surprising that the judge took this view, in the light of certain passages from the most recent Court of Appeal cases, Z v Z (abduction: children’s views), Vigreux’s case and Klentzeris’s case. He further points out that, although both Thorpe LJ ([2007] 3 FCR 564 at [12]) and Longmore LJ (at [27]) in this case considered the judge’s use of the word ‘exceptional’ as ‘descriptive rather than prescriptive’, Moore-Bick LJ, having canvassed the recent authorities, concluded (at [38]) that:
‘in deciding whether there are sufficient grounds for not returning a child, the court must take account of the underlying policy of the Convention with
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the result that, in order to justify exercising its discretion against returning the child, it must be satisfied that viewed overall the case can properly be described as exceptional.’
The most recent passage cited by Moore-Bick LJ was from the judgment of Sir Mark Potter P in Re M (abduction: child’s objections) [2007] EWCA Civ 260 at [80], [2007] 3 FCR 631 at [80]:
‘That leaves only the question of whether the objection of M is such that this is one of the “exceptional” cases justifying the court in using its discretion to refuse to order an immediate return.’
[37] Those passages leave one in little doubt that a view has crept in that ‘exceptional’ is not merely a description, to be applied to the small number of exceptions in which the court has power to refuse to order a return, but also an additional test to be applied, after a ground of opposition has been made out, to the exercise of the court’s discretion.
[38] In my view, each of the extreme positions outlined above is incorrect. In the recent rather oddly entitled case of Re J (a child) (return to foreign jurisdiction: convention rights) [2005] UKHL 40, [2005] 3 All ER 291, [2006] 1 AC 80, this House made clear the approach to be adopted in wrongful removal or retention cases falling outside the convention. The child’s welfare is indeed the paramount consideration. But the court does have the power to order the immediate return of the child to a foreign jurisdiction without conducting a full investigation of the merits. As Ormrod LJ put it in Re R (minors) (wardship: jurisdiction) (1981) 2 FLR 416 at 425:
‘“Kidnapping”, like other kinds of unilateral action in relation to children, is to be strongly discouraged, but the discouragement must take the form of a swift, realistic and unsentimental assessment of the best interests of the child, leading, in proper cases, to the prompt return of the child to his or her own country, but not the sacrifice of the child’s welfare to some other principle of law.’
[39] Thus there is always a choice to be made between summary return and a further investigation. There is also a choice to be made as to the depth into which the judge will go in investigating the merits of the case before making that choice. One size does not fit all. The judge may well find it convenient to start from the proposition that it is likely to be better for a child to return to his home country for any disputes about his future to be decided there. A case against his doing so has to be made. But the weight to be given to that factor and to all the other relevant factors, some of which are canvassed in Re J, will vary enormously from case to case. No doubt, for example, in cases involving convention countries the differences in the legal systems and principles of law of the two countries will be much less significant than they might be in cases which fall outside the convention altogether.
[40] On the other hand, I have no doubt at all that it is wrong to import any test of exceptionality into the exercise of discretion under the convention. The circumstances in which return may be refused are themselves exceptions to the general rule. That in itself is sufficient exceptionality. It is neither necessary nor desirable to import an additional gloss into the convention.
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[41] But there remains a distinction between the exercise of discretion under the convention and the exercise of discretion in wrongful removal or retention cases falling outside the convention. In non-convention cases the child’s welfare may well be better served by a prompt return to the country from which she was wrongly removed; but that will be because of the particular circumstances of her case, understood in the light of the general understanding of the harm which wrongful removal can do, summed up in the well-known words of Buckley LJ in Re L (minors) (wardship: jurisdiction) [1974] 1 All ER 913 at 925–926, [1974] 1 WLR 250 at 264:
‘To take a child from his native land, to remove him to another country where, maybe, his native tongue is not spoken, to divorce him from the social customs and contacts to which he has been accustomed, to interrupt his education . . . are all acts . . . which are likely to be psychologically disturbing to the child, particularly at a time when his family life is also disrupted.’
[42] In convention cases, however, there are general policy considerations which may be weighed against the interests of the child in the individual case. These policy considerations include, not only the swift return of abducted children, but also comity between the contracting states and respect for one another’s judicial processes. Furthermore, the convention is there, not only to secure the prompt return of abducted children, but also to deter abduction in the first place. The message should go out to potential abductors that there are no safe havens among the contracting states.
[43] My Lords, in cases where a discretion arises from the terms of the convention itself, it seems to me that the discretion is at large. The court is entitled to take into account the various aspects of the convention policy, alongside the circumstances which gave the court a discretion in the first place and the wider considerations of the child’s rights and welfare. I would, therefore, respectfully agree with Thorpe LJ in the passage quoted at [32], above, save for the word ‘overriding’ if it suggests that the convention objectives should always be given more weight than the other considerations. Sometimes they should and sometimes they should not.
[44] That, it seems to me, is the furthest one should go in seeking to put a gloss on the simple terms of the convention. As is clear from the earlier discussion, the convention was the product of prolonged discussions in which some careful balances were struck and fine distinctions drawn. The underlying purpose is to protect the interests of children by securing the swift return of those who have been wrongfully removed or retained. The convention itself has defined when a child must be returned and when she need not be. Thereafter the weight to be given to convention considerations and to the interests of the child will vary enormously. The extent to which it will be appropriate to investigate those welfare considerations will also vary. But the further away one gets from the speedy return envisaged by the convention, the less weighty those general convention considerations must be.
[45] By way of illustration only, as this House pointed out in Re D [2007] 1 All ER 783 at [55]:
‘it is inconceivable that a court which reached the conclusion that there was a grave risk that the child’s return would expose him to physical or
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psychological harm or otherwise place him in an intolerable situation would nevertheless return him to face that fate.’
It was not the policy of the convention that children should be put at serious risk of harm or placed in intolerable situations. In consent or acquiescence cases, on the other hand, general considerations of comity and confidence, particular considerations relating to the speed of legal proceedings and approach to relocation in the home country, and individual considerations relating to the particular child might point to a speedy return so that her future can be decided in her home country.
[46] In child’s objections cases, the range of considerations may be even wider than those in the other exceptions. The exception itself is brought into play when only two conditions are met: first, that the child herself objects to being returned and second, that she has attained an age and degree of maturity at which it is appropriate to take account of her views. These days, and especially in the light of art 12 of the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (New York, 20 November 1989; TS 44 (1998); Cm 1976), courts increasingly consider it appropriate to take account of a child’s views. Taking account does not mean that those views are always determinative or even presumptively so. Once the discretion comes into play, the court may have to consider the nature and strength of the child’s objections, the extent to which they are ‘authentically her own’ or the product of the influence of the abducting parent, the extent to which they coincide or are at odds with other considerations which are relevant to her welfare, as well as the general convention considerations referred to earlier. The older the child, the greater the weight that her objections are likely to carry. But that is far from saying that the child’s objections should only prevail in the most exceptional circumstances.
[47] In settlement cases, it must be borne in mind that the major objective of the convention cannot be achieved. These are no longer ‘hot pursuit’ cases. By definition, for whatever reason, the pursuit did not begin until long after the trail had gone cold. The object of securing a swift return to the country of origin cannot be met. It cannot any longer be assumed that that country is the better forum for the resolution of the parental dispute. So the policy of the convention would not necessarily point towards a return in such cases, quite apart from the comparative strength of the countervailing factors, which may well, as here, include the child’s objections as well as her integration in her new community.
[48] All this is merely to illustrate that the policy of the convention does not yield identical results in all cases, and has to be weighed together with the circumstances which produced the exception and such pointers as there are towards the welfare of the particular child. The convention itself contains a simple, sensible and carefully thought out balance between various considerations, all aimed at serving the interests of children by deterring and where appropriate remedying international child abduction. Further elaboration with additional tests and checklists is not required.
THIS APPEAL
[49] My lords, I cannot share the opinion of the majority of the Court of Appeal that the trial judge was using the term ‘exceptional’ simply to describe the overall characteristics of a case in which it would be appropriate to refuse a return. He regarded it as a test to be applied in the exercise of his discretion. For the reasons already given, he is not to be blamed for this. But it is open to us,
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therefore, to set aside the exercise of discretion in the courts below and to reach our own conclusions.
[50] The judge specifically referred to the following factors in deciding whether this was an exceptional case (at [121]):
‘I have considered the nature and seriousness of the wrongful removal, including the many layers of deception deployed by the mother in bringing about that wrongful removal, keeping the children at an address unknown to the father for many months; wrongly refusing to return the children to Zimbabwe when the father so requested . . . that on the father’s proposals the mother (and her new husband) could return to Zimbabwe with the children to care for them; and that even if the mother and or her new husband declined to accompany the children, they would be properly cared for in the home of their father; that their cultural and social roots (including their wider paternal and maternal family) are all still in Zimbabwe. I have also considered the children’s objections.’
[51] In the Court of Appeal, Moore-Bick LJ considered that the judge should at this point have weighed the competing factors: in particular the fact that the children were settled here, that they objected to return, and the economic conditions in Zimbabwe. However, both he and Thorpe LJ would have exercised the discretion in the same way, adding to the factors mentioned by the judge the precariousness of the family’s position in this country, of which the children may be unaware, and the strength of their relationship with their father.
[52] My Lords, in this court we have had the benefit of counsel’s representations on behalf of the children themselves, who have also been with us for some of the hearing. Mr Gupta argues powerfully on their behalf that the ‘child-centric’ exceptions of settlement and objection have been analysed more from the parents’ perspective than from the children’s. The comparative moral blameworthiness of mother and father has had an effect upon the judgments in both of the courts below. But from the children’s point of view, they have had to suffer all the upset of being brought to this country secretly. They were unsettled at first and in September 2005 the older child sent her father an e-mail asking for him to come and take them home. But, as counsel puts it, ‘the father’s responses to this plea both in his e-mailed responses and in his actions were minuscule’. For whatever reason, he did not come and fetch them home; he did not start proceedings until more than a year later. When he did start the ball rolling in Zimbabwe, the central authorities between them took more than eight months before the proceedings were brought. What were the children to do during all this time? They settled down and got on with making their lives here, where they are happy and have become fully integrated in their local church and schools. They feel fully settled here whatever the courts may think. Their views have changed from wanting to go home to objecting to this further disruption in their short lives. Not only this, their father’s e-mails have given them the impression that he has moved to Zambia. Although he now states that he was only spending some of his time there on business and would restrict his visits there should the children return, they are understandably confused about the position. They certainly do not want to be left in the care of their father’s new partner. In short, having been the victims of one international relocation contrary to their wishes, they stand to be the victims of another should the father’s application succeed.
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[53] To all of these powerful child-centric considerations might be added the uncertainties and volatilities of life in Zimbabwe, to put it no higher than that. Their mother and her partner claim that they will be at risk of persecution if they return. So far this claim has been rejected, but their reluctance to return is understandable. What is certain is that, if they do return to Zimbabwe, they will not be readmitted to the United Kingdom. If both they and the children are in Zimbabwe there will be no question of the family being allowed to return here for the children to complete their schooling. These are powerful considerations in favour of any dispute on the merits between the parents being conducted here rather than in Zimbabwe.
[54] Against all this, the policy of the convention can carry little weight. The delay has been such that its primary objective cannot be fulfilled. These children should not be made to suffer for the sake of general deterrence of the evil of child abduction worldwide. I would therefore allow the appeal and dismiss the father’s convention proceedings, without prejudice of course to his right to bring any other proceedings to resolve his dispute with the mother.
OTHER ISSUES
[55] It is unnecessary therefore to express a view on the other issues in the case. I would not, however, have set aside the judge’s conclusions on the art 13(b) exception. It is not disputed that the initial threshold in such cases is a high one. The judge considered all the material before him very carefully. He eschewed any ‘knee-jerk’ condemnation of Zimbabwe as a failed state. He had good reasons to conclude that this father, whom he had had the unusual benefit of hearing give oral evidence, would be able to provide properly for his children in Zimbabwe despite the current difficulties. I do not accept Mr Setright’s argument that the moral and political climate in Zimbabwe is such that any child would be at grave risk of psychological harm or should not be expected to tolerate having to live there. I might add that the father’s business in Zambia and elsewhere suggests that he has the means to remove his children from trouble should the need arise.
[56] Nor do I think that art 20 and the European Convention on Human Rights take matters any further in this case. All of the parties have the right to respect for their homes and family lives. The father has a family life with his children, whom he loves and who love him, just as the children have a home and family life with their mother. Returning the children against their will would be a graver interference with their rights than failing to do so would be with the rights of the father. Calculating the proportionality of interfering with his rights against the proportionality of interfering with the rights of the mother and the children would lead to the same result.
[57] I would finally comment that, ‘exceptional’ or not, this is a highly unusual case. Cases under the second paragraph of art 12 are in any event very few and far between. They are the most ‘child-centric’ of all child abduction cases and very likely to be combined with the child’s objections. As pointed out in Re D, it is for the court to consider at the outset how best to give effect to the obligation to hear the child’s views. We are told that this is now routinely done through the specialist CAFCASS officers at the Royal Courts of Justice. I accept entirely that children must not be given an exaggerated impression of the relevance and importance of their views in child abduction cases. To order separate representation in all cases, even in all child’s objections cases, might be to send
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them the wrong messages. But it would not send the wrong messages in the very small number of cases where settlement is argued under the second paragraph of art 12. These are the cases in which the separate point of view of the children is particularly important and should not be lost in the competing claims of the adults. If this were to become routine there would be no additional delay. In all other cases, the question for the directions judge is whether separate representation of the child will add enough to the court’s understanding of the issues that arise under the convention to justify the intrusion, the expense and the delay that may result. I have no difficulty in predicting that in the general run of cases it will not. But I would hesitate to use the word ‘exceptional’. The substance is what counts, not the label.
[58] For the reasons given earlier, therefore, I would allow this appeal and dismiss the convention proceedings.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[59] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Baroness Hale of Richmond and for the reasons she gives, with which I entirely agree, I too would allow this appeal and make the order proposed.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Islamic Republic of Iran v Barakat Galleries Ltd
[2008] 1 All ER 1177
[2007] EWCA Civ 1374
Categories: CONFLICT OF LAWS
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD PHILLIPS OF WORTH MATRAVERS CJ, WALL AND LAWRENCE COLLINS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 9, 10 OCTOBER, 21 DECEMBER 2007
Conflict of laws – Foreign law – Enforcement – Patrimonial rights of foreign state – Foreign law providing for state’s entitlement to antiquities – State seeking to recover antiquities in England – Whether state having title under foreign law – Whether state having immediate right to possession under foreign law – Whether foreign law penal or other public law – Whether state’s claim patrimonial claim.
The claimant foreign state brought an action for conversion or wrongful interference with goods to recover antiquities which it considered formed part of its national heritage. It claimed that the antiquities originated from recent excavations in Iran which had been unlicensed and unlawful under the law of Iran. The defendant had a gallery in London and had the antiquities in its possession. It contended that it had acquired good title to the antiquities under the laws of the countries where it had acquired them. Preliminary issues were ordered to be tried: (i) whether under the provisions of Iranian law, the state could show that it had obtained title to the antiquities as a matter of Iranian law and, if so, by what means; and (ii) if the state could show that it had obtained such title under Iranian law, whether the court should recognise and/or enforce that title. The state argued that Iranian law had vested in the state a proprietary title entitling it to recover the antiquities in England and, alternatively, that it had an immediate right to present possession of the antiquities which would found a claim for conversion. The defendant successfully challenged both contentions and the judge answered the first preliminary issue in the negative. He went on to consider the second and, applying the rule that the English courts had no jurisdiction to entertain an action for the enforcement, either directly or indirectly, of a penal, revenue or other public law of a foreign state, concluded that the relevant Iranian law was both penal and public in character. The state appealed. The Court of Appeal considered (i) the state’s interest in the antiquities under Iranian law; (ii) whether that interest founded a cause of action in conversion under English law; (iii) the nature of the characterisation of a law as penal; (iv) the category of ‘other public law’; and (v) patrimonial claims and reduction into possession.
Held – (1) In the instant case the judge had been wrong to find that under Iranian law the state had not shown that it was the owner of the antiquities which were the subject matter of the action. It enjoyed both title and an immediate right to possession of the antiquities under the law of Iran. If it had not so concluded, the court would have concluded that the state enjoyed an immediate right to their possession under the law of Iran which would of itself suffice to found a claim in conversion in the domestic jurisdiction. The state was entitled to immediate possession of any antiquities found, for the finder was required to hand them over as soon as possible and there was no dispute that once the antiquities were
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handed over they became the property of the state. If they were not handed over but were transferred by the finder to a third party, the third party would get no title and the antiquities would be subject to seizure. Antiquities discovered in the course of an illegal excavation would be subject to seizure by the state whether they remained in the possession of the finder or were transferred to a third party. Apart from the right of an accidental finder to a reward no one enjoyed any rights in relation to antiquities found accidentally or as a result of illegal excavation except the state and the rights the state enjoyed were essentially the rights of ownership (see [74], [75], [84], [86], below).
(2) In the instant case the judge had held that the provisions by which the state acquired title by compulsory process of law which overrode the right of any individual who might otherwise have become or remained owner, with sanctions including imprisonment and confiscation not only of the cultural property but also the excavation equipment, were properly characterised as penal. But the fact that some of the provisions of the enactment imposed penalties did not render penal all the other provisions of the enactment. The changes that it made in relation to the ownership of antiquities were not penal or confiscatory; they did not take effect retroactively; they did not deprive anyone who already owned antiquities of their title to them. They altered the law as to the ownership of antiquities which had not yet been found, with the effect that all these would be owned by the state, subject to the entitlement of the chance finder to a reward. Those were not penal provisions and the claimant’s claim did not fail on the ground that it was not justiciable in England because it was founded on a penal law (see [108]–[111], below).
(3) In relation to ‘other public law’, regarding which English courts had no jurisdiction to entertain an action, authority established only the category of laws which involved the exercise or assertion of a sovereign right or sought to enforce governmental interests. A helpful practical test for the application of the rule was whether the central interest of the state in bringing the action was governmental in nature. Although it was possible that export restrictions might fall within the category, the claim in the instant case was not an attempt to enforce export restrictions but to assert rights of ownership (see [117], [118], [125], [126], [131], below); A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1983] 2 All ER 93, President of the State of Equatorial Guinea v Royal Bank of Scotland International [2006] 3 LRC 676, Mbasogo v Logo Ltd [2007] QB 846 and King of Italy v de Medici Tornaquinci (1918) 34 TLR 623 considered.
(4) The distinction between the two categories of cases, those where a foreign state would be able to claim its property in England even if it had not reduced it into its possession, and those where it could not claim unless it had done so, depended on the way in which the state had acquired ownership. If it had acquired title under public law by confiscation or compulsory process from the former owner then it would not be able to claim the property in England from the former owner or his successors in title unless it had had possession; if it had taken the property into its possession then its claim would be treated as depending on recognition and if it had not had possession it would be seeking to exercise its sovereign authority. However, in the instant case, the state did not assert a claim based on compulsory acquisition from private owners but a claim based on title to antiquities which formed part of the state’s national heritage. That was a patrimonial claim, not a claim to enforce a public law or to assert sovereign rights, and it did not fall within the category of case where recognition of title or the right to possess under foreign law depended on the state having
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taken possession. Moreover, if the court were wrong, and the claim in the instant case was a claim to enforce public law, the claim should not be precluded by any general principle that actions whose object was to enforce the public law of another state would not be entertained; there were positive reasons of policy why a claim by a state to recover antiquities which formed part of its national heritage and which otherwise complied with the requirements of private international law should not be shut out by that general principle. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed (see [133]–[138], [143], [147], [148], [149], [151], [154], [164], [165], below); City of Gotha v Sotheby’s, Germany v Sotheby’s (9 September 1998, unreported), King of Italy v de Medici Tornaquinci (1918) 34 TLR 623, A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1983] 2 All ER 93, King of Two Sicilies v Willcox (1851) 1 Sim NS 301, Aksionairnoye Obschestvo AM Luther v James Sagor & Co [1921] All ER Rep 138, Princess Paley Olga v Weisz [1929] All ER Rep 513 and Brokaw v Seatrain UK Ltd [1971] 2 All ER 98 considered.
Per curiam. Where the owner of goods who had an immediate right to possession of them, albeit that they were in the possession of a third party, by agreement transferred his title to a new owner, the new owner could bring a claim in conversion against the person in whose possession they were. Where the owner of goods with an immediate right to possession of them by contract transferred the latter right to another, so that he no longer had an immediate right to possession, but retained ownership, it would seem right in principle that the transferee should be entitled to sue in conversion. All the more so if the contract provided that when the transferee entered into possession, ownership would be transferred to him (see [30], below); Jarvis v Williams [1955] 1 All ER 108, International Factors Ltd v Rodriguez [1979] 1 All ER 17 and MCC Proceeds Inc v Lehman Brothers International (Europe) [1998] 4 All ER 675 considered.
Notes
For conflict of laws: exclusion of foreign law, see 8(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 30–34, and for conversion: right of possession and property, see 45(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 559.
Cases referred to in judgment
A-G (UK) v Heinemann Publishers Australia Pty Ltd (No 2) (1988) 78 ALR 449, (1988) 165 CLR 30, Aus HC.
A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1983] 2 All ER 93, [1984] AC 1, [1983] 2 WLR 809, HL; affg [1982] 3 All ER 432, [1984] AC 1, [1982] 3 WLR 570, CA; rvsg [1982] 3 All ER 432, [1982] QB 349, [1982] 2 WLR 10.
Aksionairnoye Obschestvo AM Luther v James Sagor & Co [1921] 3 KB 532, [1921] All ER Rep 138, CA.
Austria (Emperor of ) v Day and Kossuth (1861) 3 De GF & J 217, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 1597.
Banco de Vizcaya v Don Alfonso de Borbon y Austria [1935] 1 KB 140, [1934] All ER Rep 555.
Brokaw v Seatrain UK Ltd [1971] 2 All ER 98, [1971] 2 QB 476, [1971] 2 WLR 791, CA.
Bumper Development Corp Ltd v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1991] 4 All ER 638, [1991] 1 WLR 1362, CA.
Cable (Lord), Re, Garratt v Waters [1976] 3 All ER 417, [1977] 1 WLR 7.
Camdex International Ltd v Bank of Zambia (No 2) [1997] 1 All ER 728, [1997] 1 WLR 632, CA.
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City of Gotha v Sotheby’s, Germany v Sotheby’s (9 September 1998, unreported), QBD.
Evans v European Bank Ltd (2004) 61 NSWLR 75, [2004] NSWCA 82, NSW CA.
Government of India, Ministry of Finance (Revenue Division) v Taylor [1955] 1 All ER 292, [1955] AC 491, [1955] 2 WLR 303, HL.
Haiti (Republic of) v Duvalier 1991 Clunet 137, 1991 Rev Crit 386, Cour de Cass (Fr).
Huntington v Attrill [1893] AC 150, PC.
International Factors Ltd v Rodriguez [1979] 1 All ER 17, [1979] 1 QB 351, [1978] 3 WLR 877, CA.
Italy (King of) v de Medici Tornaquinci (1918) 34 TLR 623.
Jarvis v Williams [1955] 1 All ER 108, [1955] 1 WLR 71, CA.
Kunstsammlungen Zu Weimar v Elicofon (1982) 678 F 2d 1150, US Ct of Apps (2nd Cir).
Kuwait Airways Corp v Iraqi Airways Co [1995] 3 All ER 694, [1995] 1 WLR 1147, HL.
Kuwait Airways Corp v Iraq Airways Co (No 3) [2002] UKHL 19, [2002] 3 All ER 209, [2002] 2 AC 883, [2002] 2 WLR 1353.
Mbasogo v Logo Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1370, [2007] QB 846, [2007] 2 WLR 1062.
MCC Proceeds Inc v Lehman Brothers International (Europe) [1998] 4 All ER 675, CA.
Olga (Princess Paley) v Weisz [1929] 1 KB 718, [1929] All ER Rep 513, CA.
R v Tokeley-Parry [1999] Crim LR 578, CA.
Regazzoni v KC Sethia (1944) Ltd [1956] 2 All ER 487, [1956] 2 QB 490, [1956] 3 WLR 79, CA.
Schemmer v Property Resources Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 451, [1975] Ch 273, [1974] 3 WLR 406.
Spain (Kingdom of) v Christie, Manson & Woods Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 28, [1986] 1 WLR 1120.
State of Equatorial Guinea (President of) v Royal Bank of Scotland International [2006] UKPC 7, [2006] 3 LRC 676.
State of Norway’s Application, Re (Nos 1 & 2) [1989] 1 All ER 745, [1990] 1 AC 723, [1989] 2 WLR 458, HL.
Two Sicilies (King) v Willcox (1851) 1 Sim NS 301, 61 ER 116.
Union of Soviet Republics v Belaiew [1925] All ER Rep 369.
US v Schultz (2003) 333 F 3d 393, US Ct of Apps (2nd Cir).
USA v Inkley [1988] 3 All ER 144, [1989] QB 255, [1988] 3 WLR 304, CA.
USA v McRae (1869) LR 8 Eq 69.
USA v Prioleau (1865) 35 LJ Ch 7.
USA v Wagner (1867) 2 Ch App 582, CA in Ch.
Webb v Ireland [1988] IR 353, Ir HC.
Williams & Humbert Ltd v W & H Trade Marks (Jersey) Ltd, Rumasa SA v Multinvest (UK) Ltd [1986] 1 All ER 129, [1986] AC 368, [1986] 2 WLR 24, HL.
Appeal
The claimant, the government of the Islamic Republic of Iran, appealed with permission of Gray J from his decision on 29 March 2007 ([2007] EWHC 705 (QB), [2007] All ER (D) 477 (Mar)) in a trial of the preliminary issues (set out at [6], below) in Iran’s action against the defendant, Barakat Galleries Ltd, in conversion or wrongful interference with goods. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
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Sir Sydney Kentridge QC, Norman Palmer and David Scannell (instructed by Withers LLP) for Iran.
Philip Shepherd QC and David Herbert (instructed by Lane & Partners LLP) for Barakat.
Judgment was reserved.
21 December 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
LORD PHILLIPS OF WORTH MATRAVERS CJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1] This is the judgment of the court, to which all of its members have contributed, on an appeal from a judgment of Gray J dated 29 March 2007 on a trial of two preliminary issues in an action brought by the appellant (Iran) to recover antiquities alleged to form part of Iran’s national heritage. Gray J decided those issues in favour of the respondent (Barakat) (see [2007] EWHC 705 (QB), [2007] All ER (D) 477 (Mar)). His findings are fatal to the claim. He gave permission to appeal because of the importance of the issues not only to Iran but to other countries seeking the return of valuable antiquities that form part of their national heritage.
[2] The unlawful excavation and trafficking of antiquities has become very big business. In 1970 the signatories to the UNESCO convention on the means of prohibiting and preventing the illicit import, export and transfer of ownership of cultural property 1970 (Paris, 14 November 1970; 823 UNTS 231) (ratified by the United Kingdom in 2002) recognised not only that it was incumbent on every state to protect the cultural property within its borders against the dangers of theft, clandestine excavation and illicit export, but also that it was essential for every state to become alive to the moral obligations to respect the cultural heritage of all nations and that the protection of cultural heritage could only be effective if organised both nationally and internationally among states working in close co-operation (recitals 3, 4 and 7). In the Supreme Court of Ireland, Finlay CJ said that it was universally accepted that one of the most important national assets belonging to the people is their heritage and the objects which constituted keys to their ancient history; and that a necessary ingredient of sovereignty in a modern state was and should be an ownership by the state of objects which constitute antiquities of importance which were discovered and which had no known owner (see Webb v Ireland [1988] IR 353 at 383).
[3] On this appeal Iran seeks to assert its ownership of antiquities which are almost 5,000 years old. The appeal raises questions which were left unsettled by A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1983] 2 All ER 93, [1984] AC 1; [1982] 3 All ER 432, [1984] AC 1 on the recognition or enforcement of foreign national heritage laws. Since the decisions of the Court of Appeal in 1982 and of the House of Lords in 1983, the United Kingdom has ratified the UNESCO convention of 1970.
[4] The antiquities consist of 18 carved jars, bowls and cups made from chlorite (the objects). Iran alleges that they date from the period 3000 BC to 2000 BC and originate from recent excavations in the Jiroft region of Iran which were unlicensed and unlawful under the law of Iran. The origin of the antiquities is denied by Barakat, but Iran’s allegations are assumed to be correct for the purpose of the preliminary issues.
[5] Barakat has a gallery in London, from which it trades in ancient art and antiquities from around the world. It has the antiquities in its possession in
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London. It claims to have purchased them in France, Germany and Switzerland under laws which have given it good title to them. Iran does not accept this. For the purpose of the preliminary issues Iran can advance no title to the antiquities other than that of their possession.
[6] The preliminary issues that were ordered to be tried were as follows: (i) Whether under the provisions of Iranian law pleaded in the amended particulars of claim, the claimant can show that it has obtained title to the objects as a matter of Iranian law and if so by what means, and (ii) If the claimant can show that it has obtained such title under Iranian law, whether this court should recognise and/or enforce that title.
[7] The first question reflected the fact that it was common ground between the parties that the question of title to the antiquities fell to be determined according to Iranian law, as being the lex situs of the antiquities at the time of derivation of such title. Iran’s primary case was that Iranian law vested in Iran a proprietary title to the antiquities that entitled Iran to recover them in proceedings in England. It developed, however, an alternative case that Iranian law gave Iran an ‘immediate right to possession’ of the antiquities that founded a claim in England for conversion or wrongful interference with the goods. Barakat successfully challenged both contentions. Accordingly the judge answered the first question in the negative ‘with some regret’ (at [59]).
[8] The second question reflected Barakat’s contention that, if Iranian law did confer any right upon Iran in relation to the antiquities, such law was a penal or public law and thus one that was not enforceable in this jurisdiction. As the judge had answered the first question in the negative, this question proved to be academic. The judge nonetheless gave it brief consideration. He concluded that the relevant Iranian law relied upon by Iran was both penal and public in character and that, accordingly, it could not be enforced in this country or relied upon to found Iran’s claim to relief. This also was a conclusion which the judge described (at [100]) as ‘a regrettable one’, and added (presumably not having been informed that the United Kingdom had ratified the UNESCO convention) that the answer might be the one given by Lord Denning MR in the Ortiz case, namely an international convention on the subject.
[9] The judge heard evidence from two experts on Iranian law. Professor Muhammad Taleghany gave evidence for Iran and Mr Hamid Sabi for Barakat. They were agreed as to the relevant statutory provisions of Iranian law but differed as to their effect. Professor Taleghany stated that they reflected the fact that the antiquities were owned by Iran. Mr Sabi stated that they did not. The judge concluded that Mr Sabi’s opinion was to be preferred to that of Professor Taleghany. He concluded, accordingly, that Iran had no proprietary title to the antiquities. The judge went on to hold that Iranian law gave Iran an immediate right to possession of the antiquities, but that as this was not a proprietary right it could not found a claim for conversion or wrongful interference with the goods.
[10] By this appeal Iran contends that the judge wrongly failed to hold that Iran has a proprietary title to the antiquities that entitles Iran to recover them. Alternatively, Iran contends that its immediate right to possession of the antiquities can properly found a claim for conversion or wrongful interference with goods. Barakat seeks to uphold the judge’s decision for the reasons that he gave save that, by a respondent’s notice, it challenges the judge’s finding that Iranian law gives Iran an immediate right to possession of the antiquities.
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[11] We propose to approach the issues raised by this appeal in the following order: (i) What is the interest in moveable property that a claimant must show in order to found a claim in conversion in this jurisdiction? (ii) What, if any, interest in the antiquities does Iran enjoy? (iii) Does that right found a cause of action in conversion under English law?
WHAT INTEREST IN MOVEABLE PROPERTY FOUNDS A CAUSE OF ACTION IN CONVERSION UNDER ENGLISH LAW?
[12] Iran’s claim is brought in conversion, as preserved by the Torts (Interference with Goods) Act 1977. Section 1 of that Act provides:
‘Definition of “wrongful interference with goods”.—In this Act “wrongful interference” or “wrongful interference with goods”, means—(a) conversion of goods (also called trover), (b) trespass to goods, (c) negligence so far as it results in damage to goods or to an interest in goods, (d) subject to section 2, any other tort so far as it results in damage to goods or to an interest in goods . . .’
[13] Section 2 of the Act provides:
‘Abolition of detinue.—(1) Detinue is abolished. (2) An action lies in conversion for loss or destruction of goods which a bailee has allowed to happen in breach of his duty to his bailor (that is to say it lies in a case which is not otherwise conversion, but would have been detinue before detinue was abolished).’
[14] The 1977 Act recognises that it is possible to enjoy different interests in goods. Thus s 7 provides:
‘Double liability.—(1) In this section “double liability” means the double liability of the wrongdoer which can arise—(a) where one or two or more rights of action for wrongful interference is founded on a possessory title, or (b) where the measure of damages in an action for wrongful interference founded on a proprietary title is or includes the entire value of the goods, although the interest is one of two or more interests in the goods.
(2) In proceedings to which any two or more claimants are parties, the relief shall be such as to avoid double liability of the wrongdoer as between those claimants.’
[15] The 1977 Act does not define ‘possessory title’ or ‘proprietary title’ and difficulty in this area of the law arises because of an overlap between the two. Originally the common law did not differentiate between possessory title and proprietary title. Possession of a chattel gave title to it. Where there was an involuntary transfer of possession, as a result for instance of loss or theft of the chattel, the person who had first possessed the chattel would have a superior title to the subsequent possessor. The subsequent possessor would have good title against all the world, save the earlier possessor. Each possessor could assert against a third party who interfered with the chattel that he enjoyed an immediate right to possession.
[16] Interests in a chattel can be shared and it is this fact that has given rise to the distinction between proprietary and possessory title. Thus where an earlier possessor (the bailor) grants possession to a subsequent possessor (the bailee) on terms that reserve to the bailor a reversionary interest in the chattel, the bailor can be said to enjoy a ‘proprietary title’ and the bailee a ‘possessory title’ in the
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chattel. Wrongful interference with the chattel can then be detrimental to the interests of both.
[17] Wrongful interference with a chattel used to give rise to two different causes of action, which were largely concurrent. Detinue, which was an interference with the proprietary right of the claimant and conversion, which was an interference with the possessory right of the claimant. Where goods in possession of a bailee were lost or destroyed as a result of breach of his duty to the bailor, the appropriate claim, before the 1977 Act, lay in detinue rather than conversion. Where, however, the claim was brought by the possessor against a third party wrongdoer a claim would lie either in detinue or in conversion.
[18] A person in possession of a chattel can bring an action in conversion against a person who wrongfully deprives him of that possession.
[19] Controversy exists as to the position where ‘A’ who is in possession of a chattel, or who is entitled to immediate possession of the chattel, agrees that another (B) may enter into possession of the chattel. Can B rely upon his contractual right to immediate possession to found an action in conversion against C who wrongly interferes with the chattel? If by the agreement A has transferred to B not merely the right to enter into possession, but the ownership that A enjoyed, so that B enjoys both proprietary title and an immediate right to possession, he will be entitled to sue in conversion. If, however, A has retained his proprietary title, it is not clear that B can rely on his contractual right to enter into immediate possession to found a claim in conversion. It is Iran’s case that he can; it is Barakat’s case that he cannot.
[20] Paragraph 559 in 45(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) states:
‘Right of possession and property. To sue in conversion a claimant must show that he had either possession, or an immediate right to possession, of the chattel at the time of the act in question. Either relationship with the chattel affords the necessary possessory title to sustain a claim for conversion. If either is shown, the claimant need not be the owner of the chattel in order to succeed in conversion; indeed an owner can be liable in conversion to a person who had either possession or the immediate right of possession at the time of the owner’s act . . .
560. Contractual right of possession. It appears that a mere contractual right to possess will suffice to sue in conversion, and that the claimant’s right of possession need not derive from a proprietary interest in the chattel . . .’
[21] These propositions receive support from the following statements in textbooks covering the subject: (1) Salmond & Heuston on the Law of Torts (21st edn, 1996) p 108: ‘Whenever goods have been converted, an action will lie at the suit of any person in actual possession or entitled at the time of conversion to the immediate possession of them.’ (2) Winfield and Jolowicz Tort (17th edn, 2006) p 762 states that a claimant can maintain conversion if at the time of the defendant’s act he had an immediate right to possess the goods ‘without either ownership or actual possession’. (3) Markesinis and Deakin Tort Law (5th edn, 2003) p 436: ‘[i]n order to be able to sue [in conversion] the plaintiff must have the right to any one of ownership, possession, or the immediate right to possess.’ (4) FH Lawson Remedies of English Law (2nd edn, 1980) p 122: ‘In ejectment and conversion [the claimant] must prove his title, that is to say that he has a right to the immediate possession of the land or chattel.’
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[22] These unqualified statements that an immediate right to possession will suffice to found a cause of action in conversion are to be contrasted with the view of the editors of Clerk & Lindsell on Torts (19th edn, 2006) p 1034 (para 17-59):
‘Claimant’s right must be proprietary For these purposes, it seems that the immediate right to possession on which the owner relies must be a proprietary right; a mere contractual right will not do.’
Two authorities are cited in support of this proposition, Jarvis v Williams [1955] 1 All ER 108, [1955] 1 WLR 71; International Factors Ltd v Rodriguez [1979] 1 All ER 17, [1979] 1 QB 351. The judge considered these authorities and held that they supported the passage in Clerk & Lindsell. He concluded ([2007] All ER (D) 477 (Mar) at [71]):
‘For these reasons I am satisfied that Iran is required in the present case to establish the proprietary nature of its right to possession of the antiquities which is required in order for an action in conversion or for wrongful interference with goods to succeed. For the reasons which I have already given, this is something which Iran is unable to do.’
[23] Jarvis v Williams involved a claim in detinue. Paterson ordered some bathroom fittings from the plaintiff, Jarvis. At his request Jarvis delivered them to the premises of the defendant Williams. Paterson did not pay for the goods and agreed that Jarvis could take them back. Williams refused to permit Jarvis to collect the fittings and Jarvis brought an action against him. The judge held that he had a good claim. The Court of Appeal reversed this finding.
[24] After reference to the relevant part of the judgment at first instance, Lord Evershed MR held ([1955] 1 All ER 108 at 111, [1955] 1 WLR 71 at 74):
‘I take that to mean that the contractual right which Jarvis had vis-à-vis Paterson to go and collect these goods from Paterson’s agent was a right of a sufficient character to enable Jarvis to bring an action in detinue against the agent of the owner of the property in these goods. But, with all respect to the learned county court judge, I am unable to accept that as a good proposition of law. Certain classes of persons like bailees have, no doubt, a special right to sustain actions in trover and detinue, but the general rule is, I think, correctly stated in the text of 33 Halsbury’s Laws (2nd Edn) 62, para 98.
“In order to maintain an action of trover or detinue, a person must have the right of possession and a right of property in the goods at the time of the conversion or detention; and he cannot sue if he has parted with the property in the goods at the time of the alleged conversion, or if at the time of the alleged conversion his title to the goods has been divested by a disposition, which is valid under the Factors Act, 1889.”’
[25] After reference to authority, Lord Evershed continued:
‘Although it is, no doubt, true in a sense, and certainly in its original medieval conception, that when one speaks of property in chattels one has in mind the right to their immediate possession, nevertheless the sense of property in chattels is now well understood. It is, of course, involved in the Sale of Goods Act, 1893, itself. Even though, by contract between himself and Paterson, Jarvis may have had a right which, if infringed, could form the subject-matter of an action for breach of contract, and although he had a right to go and possess himself of these goods, nevertheless, until he had
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done so, according to my construction of the arrangement, there was in him no proprietary interest in the goods in the sense in which that term is now commonly understood. That being so, it seems to me that he had not, on the authorities that I have mentioned, the necessary foundation on which to sustain an action for detinue against the defendant. He, no doubt, could sue Paterson either for the price of the goods or for damages for breach of this arrangement for the return of the goods when the defendant refused to deliver them over, but I think that the rights of the plaintiffs, Jarvis, as regards these goods were not such as entitled him to bring an action in detinue against the defendant, in whose possession they were, as agent, at the time, of the person in whom the property in the goods was then vested.’
[26] In their skeleton argument, counsel for Iran sought to distinguish this case on the basis that it referred to a claim in detinue, not a claim in conversion. Lord Evershed’s citation from Halsbury’s Laws suggests that he was drawing no such distinction. Jarvis v Williams is a difficult case to analyse. Both the County Court Judge and the Court of Appeal were prepared to proceed on the basis that the plaintiff had a contractual right to collect the goods from the defendant, but the precise nature of the contract is not spelled out. If a contractual analysis is appropriate, we think that the contract was a conditional contract under which it was agreed that, if the plaintiff recovered possession of the goods, he would receive them in discharge of Paterson’s obligation to pay for them. It was not a contract under which Paterson purported to transfer to the plaintiff his immediate right to the possession of the goods. While the passage that we have quoted from the judgment of Lord Evershed certainly supports Barakat’s case, we do not consider that, when the facts of the case are considered, it can safely be treated as binding precedent for the proposition that a contractual right to immediate possession can never found a claim in conversion.
[27] Iran’s skeleton argues that, in so far as Lord Evershed’s reasoning extended to the tort of conversion, it should not be followed because it is in conflict with more recent authorities. We turn to consider some of these.
[28] Sir David Cairns purported to follow Jarvis v Williams when giving the leading judgment in International Factors Ltd v Rodriguez [1979] 1 All ER 17, [1979] 1 QB 351. That case involved a factoring agreement under which the plaintiffs had purchased the book debts of a company of which the defendant was a director. The agreement provided that if any cheque was paid to the company rather than to the plaintiffs, it should be held in trust for the plaintiffs and transferred to them. In breach of this agreement the defendant caused four such cheques to be paid into the company’s bank account. The plaintiffs’ action in conversion succeeded. Sir David held that Jarvis v Williams established that a claimant in conversion had to show not merely an immediate right to possession but a proprietary interest in the subject matter of the claim. This requirement was, however, satisfied by the plaintiffs’ equitable interest in the cheques. Bridge LJ stated that he agreed. Buckley LJ held, however, that the contractual right of the plaintiffs to demand immediate delivery of the cheques sufficed to found a claim in conversion, whether or not an immediate trust attached to the cheques.
[29] International Factors Ltd v Rodriguez received consideration by all three members of the Court of Appeal in MCC Proceeds Inc v Lehman Brothers International (Europe) [1998] 4 All ER 675. The relevant issue was whether an equitable title in share certificates could found a claim in conversion. The court
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held that it could not, and disapproved the significance that Sir David Cairns appeared to have attached to the plaintiffs’ equitable interest in the cheques in that case. Mummery LJ expressed the view that this was not necessary to the decision. Pill and Hobhouse LJJ agreed. The latter observed (at 700, 701):
‘Buckley LJ decided the case on the basis of a common law possessory title as bailee giving the immediate right to possession . . .
For a plaintiff to succeed in an action in conversion he must show that in law he had the requisite possessory title, either actual possession or the right to immediate possession. Where a plaintiff is the legal owner of the relevant chattel he will normally be entitled to sue in conversion even if he was not at the relevant time in possession of the chattel. But where there is a person who has a subsisting right to the immediate possession of the chattel, he may sue even the owner of the chattel for wrongfully interfering with his right.’
[30] There is thus a conflict between Jarvis v Williams and International Factors Ltd v Rodriguez, as explained in MCC Proceeds v Lehman Brothers. Where the owner of goods who has an immediate right to possession of them, albeit that they are in the possession of a third party, by agreement transfers his title to a new owner, the new owner can bring a claim in conversion against the person in whose possession they are. Where the owner of goods with an immediate right to possession of them by contract transfers the latter right to another, so that he no longer has an immediate right to possession, but retains ownership, it would seem right in principle that the transferee should be entitled to sue in conversion. A fortiori if the contract provides that when the transferee enters into possession, ownership will be transferred to him. We consider that this accords with the weight of academic opinion and can be reconciled with the facts of Jarvis v Williams.
[31] Contractual transfer of rights is far removed from the facts of this case. The judge concluded, on the strength of Jarvis v Williams, that a claimant in conversion must demonstrate some proprietary right in the goods and that Iran could not do so. We now turn to consider whether Iran has any interest in the antiquities and, if so, the nature of such interest.
IRAN’S INTEREST IN THE ANTIQUITIES UNDER IRANIAN LAW
[32] It was common ground that the relevant law is to be found in provisions of Iranian statute law. The judge set these out at length and we shall incorporate, in his own words, the passages of his judgment in which he did so.
[33] The appropriate starting point appears to date back to what is called the Constitutional Movement which developed in Iran. At para 8 of his expert report Professor Taleghany says:
‘Since time immemorial Iran was ruled by absolute monarchs. The kingdom of Iran was the king’s domain, i.e. his estate. It was as such that the kings acquired further territories, ceded territories and exchanged part of their kingdom with the neighbouring kings. The last evidence of the exercise of such power was exhibited in 1893. However, a short while after this date there was a Constitutional Movement in Iran and the king’s domain became the Crown’s, or government property. When the Iranian main laws were codified in the Civil Code of Iran (section 1 of which was approved in 1928) the internal “government properties” legally replaced the king’s domain.’
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[34] By a royal proclamation dated 5 August 1906 the so-called ‘Bases of the Persian Constitution’ were promulgated. They include what are described as ‘The Fundamental Laws of December 30 1906’, which include articles dealing with the duties, limitations and the rights of the National Consultative Assembly.
[35] Despite the fact that there would have been at some stage and by some means a transfer to the state or government of Iran of property rights previously owned by the king, these constitutional provisions form no part of Iran’s case in these proceedings.
THE CIVIL CODE
[36] In chronological order, the first statutory provision which is relied on by Iran is the Civil Code by which in and after 1928 the main civil laws of Iran were codified. The Civil Code is divided into sections. The provisions which are said to touch upon the issue of ownership of the antiquities are the following:
‘Section 3—On Properties Which Have No Private Owner . . .
Article 26—(As amended on 21-8-1370 AH, equivalent to 12-11-1991) Government properties which are capable of public service or utilisation, such as fortifications, fortresses, moats, military earthworks, arsenals, weapons stored, warships and also government furniture, mansions and buildings, government telegraph wires, public museums and libraries, historical monuments and similar properties and, in brief, any movable and immovable properties which may be in the possession of the government for public expediency and national interest, may not privately be owned. The same applies to properties that have, in the public interest, been allocated to a province, county, region or town . . .
Chapter 2
On Various Rights that People May Have in Properties . . .
Section 1—On Ownership
Article 30—Every owner has the right to all kind of disposal and exploitation of his property, except where the law expressly provides otherwise.
Article 31—No property may be taken out of its owner’s possession except by the order of law . . .
Article 35—Possession indicating ownership is proof of ownership unless the contrary is proved.
Article 36—Possession which is proved not to have derived from a valid title or lawful transfer shall not be valid . . .
Chapter 4
On Found Articles and Lost Animals
Section 1—On Found Articles . . .
Article 165—Anyone who finds an article in the desert or in a ruined place which is not inhabited and which is not privately owned, may take ownership of it and there is no need to declare it; unless it is evident that the article belongs to modern times, in which case it is subject to the rules applicable to articles found in an inhabited locality . . .
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Chapter 5
On Treasure Trove
Article 173—Treasure trove means valuables buried in the ground or in a building and found by chance or accidentally.
Article 174—Treasure trove whose owner is not known is the property of the finder.
Article 175—If a person finds treasure trove in the property of another person, he must inform the owner of the property. If the owner of the property claims ownership of the treasure trove and proves it, the treasure trove belongs to the person claiming ownership.
Article 176—Treasure trove found in ownerless land belongs to the person who finds it . . .
Section 2—On Tortious Liability
Subsection 1—On Usurpation
Article 308—Usurpation is the assumption of another’s right by force. Laying hands on another person’s property is also considered usurpation.
Article 309—If a person prevents an owner from possessory treatment of his property without himself assuming control of it, he is not considered a usurper, but if he destroys the said property or causes its destruction, he shall be liable . . .
Article 317—The owner can claim the usurped property or, if it is lost, its equivalent or the value of the whole or part of the usurped property from either from the original or successive usurpers at his option.’
THE NATIONAL HERITAGE PROTECTION ACT 1930
[37] Shortly after the enactment of the Civil Code, a specific Act was passed on 3 November 1930 entitled National Heritage Protection Act. This Act provides for an inventory to be built up by the state including all the known and distinguished items of national heritage of Iran which possess historical, scientific or artistic respect and prestige. Provision is also made for the registration of both immovable and movable properties. Article 3 expressly recognises that some property registered on the inventory will be privately owned. Articles 4–6 inclusive deal with immovable property. Article 7 and following deal with movable property. Article 9 obliges the owner of a movable property registered in the List for National Heritage to inform the pertinent governmental organisation before selling any such property to another person. According to that article the state possesses what is described as ‘the pre-emption right’. A person who sells a property registered in the list without notifying the ministry is liable to a fine for as much as the selling price of the property. The government is entitled to withdraw the property from the new owner on refunding the paid price to the new owner.
[38] Amongst the potentially material provisions to be found in the 1930 Act are the following:
‘Article 1—Observing the art 3 of this Law, all artifacts, Buildings and places having been established before the end of Zandieh Dynasty in Iran [late nineteenth century], either movable or immovable, may be considered as national heritage of Iran and shall be protected under the State control . . .
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Article 9—The owner of a movable property—registered in the List for National Heritage—shall be obliged to inform the pertinent governmental organization in writing before selling the property to another person. In case the State intends to put the property among its collections of national heritage, it possesses the pre-emption right . . .
Article 10—Anyone who accidentally or by chance finds a movable property which according to this Law may be considered as an item of national heritage, though it has been discovered in his/her own property shall be obliged to inform the Ministry of Education or its representatives as soon as possible; in case the pertinent State authorities recognise the property worthy to be registered in the List for National Heritage, half of the property or an equitable price as considered by qualified experts shall be transferred to the finder, and the State shall have the authority, at its discretion, to appropriate or transfer the other half to the finder without recompense.
Article 11—The State has the exclusive right for land digging or excavation in sites to explore national relics . . .
Article 13—Excavations in private lands shall require the owner’s consent as well as the permission of the State . . .
Article 14—During scientific and commercial excavations in one location and one season, if the State discovers the objects directly, it may appropriate them all, and if the discovery is performed by others, the State may choose and possess up to ten items out of the objects of historical artistic value; half of the rest of the objects shall be transferred freely to the discoverer, and the other half shall be appropriated by the State. In case all the discovered objects do not exceed ten items and the state appropriate them all, the expenses of the excavation shall be refunded to the discoverer . . .
Article 15—The share of the State out of the objects discovered during a scientific excavation shall be kept in State collections and museums, and not be sold; and the discoverer’s share shall be his/her own property. Among the share of the State out of the objects discovered during a commercial excavation, what is liable to be kept in museums shall be appropriated, and the rest shall be transacted, by any means the State deems proper; the State shall put these properties to auction to be sold . . .
Article 16—The violators of art 10, those who perform excavation operations without the State permission and information, though in their own lands, as well as those who illegally take items of national heritage out of the country shall be fined as much as twenty to two thousand Tomans, and the discovered objects shall be confiscated [in Farsi, “zabt”] in the interest of the State . . .
Article 17—Those who intend to adopt dealing in antiquities as occupation should obtain permission from the State. Furthermore taking the antiquities out of the country shall require permission from the State. The registered objects in the list for National Heritage if attempted to be taken out of the country without the permission of the State, shall be confiscated in the interest of the State . . .’
THE EXECUTIVE REGULATIONS
[39] On 19 November 1932 the Executive (or Administrative) Regulations of the National Heritage Protection Act of 1930 were approved by the Council of Ministers. In effect these regulations were designed to implement the provisions
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of the 1930 Act. Movable property is dealt with in Ch 2 (arts 12–17). These include:
‘Article 17—Anyone who accidentally finds a movable property, even though it has been discovered in his/her own property, shall be obliged to immediately inform the Ministry of Education through the nearest representative of the Department for Education or through the Finance officers if there is no Department for Education. After the objects have been examined by the Department for Antiquities, half of the items or half of the commercial price thereof as evaluated by qualified experts shall be transferred to the finder, and the State shall have the authority to possess or transfer the other half to the finder.’
[40] Chapter 3 of the regulations deals with excavation. The provisions of this chapter include:
‘Article 18—The State possesses the exclusive rights to land excavation for the purpose of obtaining antiquities . . .
Article 25—Excavation in private lands shall require the owner’s consent as well as the permission of the State . . .
Article 31—The manner of sharing the antiquities discovered in a place during a season of commercial or scientific excavation, between the excavator and the State shall be as follows: The first choice of the objects discovered, up to ten items, shall be that of the State, and then the State shall equally share the remainder with the licence holder. Immovable antiquities shall pertain to the State and not be divided. In case the discovered objects shall not exceed ten items the State, by virtue of the authority invested in it, shall possess them all and refund expenses that the excavator sustained. The holder of the excavator licence may possess his/her share of the antiquities recovered, provided that he/she had been refunded the rental value due to the owner . . .
Article 36—Any person who takes measures violating the provisions of art 10 from the law or art 17 herein, or embark on excavation without securing proper permission at (sic) export antiquities illegally, shall be liable to a fine 20 to 2,000 Tomans, and the discovered objects shall be confiscated by the State . . .
Article 41—[Provides that certain classes of antiquities are authorised to be traded, ie that they can be bought and sold] . . .
Article 48—In case the examination by Department for Antiquities proved that some of the objects had been illegally obtained, those objects shall be seized and confiscated by the State. The owners and exporters may be prosecuted according to the Antiquities Act . . .
Article 50—In case the State recognises that the registered objects in the List for National Heritage, for which export permission has been requested, are beneficial for developing national collections, it shall have the authority to purchase the objects in question at the price declared by the owner. Should the owner refrain from selling the objects; export permits shall not be granted.
Article 51—The Antiquities intended to be taken out of the country without obtaining proper permission shall be confiscated.’
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THE LEGAL BILL OF 1979
[41] On 17 May 1979 a Legal Bill (which is accepted to have the force of law) was approved. The title of the Bill is:
‘Legal Bill Regarding Prevention of Unauthorised Excavations and Diggings intended to obtain antiquities and historical relics which, according to international criteria, have been made or have come into being one hundred or more years ago.’
The Bill provides:
‘Considering the necessity of protection of relics belonging to Islamic and cultural heritage, and the need for protection and guarding these heritages from the point of view of sociology and scientific, cultural and historical research and considering the need for prevention of plundering these relics and their export abroad, which are prohibited by national and international rules, the following Single Article is approved.
1—Undertaking any excavation and digging intended to obtain antiquities and historical relics is absolutely forbidden and the offender shall be sentenced to six months to three years correctional imprisonment and seizure [in Farsi “zabt”] of the discovered items and excavation equipment in favour of the public treasury. If the excavation takes place in historical places that have been registered in the National Heritage List, the offender shall be sentenced to the maximum punishment provided (in this Section).
2—Where the objects named in this Act have been discovered accidentally, the discoverer is duty bound to submit them to the nearest office of Culture and Higher Education as soon as possible. In this case, a committee consisting of the Religious Judge, local Public-Prosecutor and the director of the office of Culture and Higher Education, or their representatives, will be formed with a specialised expert attending and who will examine the case and decide as follows:
A—Where the items are discovered in a private property, in the case of precious metals and jewels, they will be weighed and a sum equal to twice the market value of the raw material thereof will be paid to the discoverer. In the case of other objects, half of the estimated price will be paid to him.
B—Where the items are discovered in non-private property, a sum equal to half of the discovery reward, provided for in s A, will be paid to the discoverer . . .
3—Antiquities means objects that according to international criteria have been made or produced one hundred, or more, years ago. In the case of objects whose antiquity is less than a hundred years, the discovered objects will belong to the discoverer after he has paid a fifth of their evaluated price to the public treasury.
4—Persons who offer the discovered objects for sale or purchase in violation of the provisions of this Act will be sentenced to the penalty provided for in s 1.’
THE NEW CONSTITUTION
[42] In the same year that the Legal Bill was approved, Iran on 24 October 1979 adopted a new constitution. Its many provisions include the following:
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‘Article 45 [Public Wealth]
Public wealth and property, such as uncultivated or abandoned land, mineral deposits, seas, lakes, rivers and other public waterways, mountains, valleys, forests, marshlands, natural forests, unenclosed pastureland, legacies without heirs, property of undetermined ownership and public property recovered from usurpers shall be at the disposal of the Islamic government for it to utilise in accordance with the public interest. Law will specify detailed procedures for the utilisation of each of the foregoing items . . .
Article 47 [Private Property]
Private ownership, legitimately acquired, is to be respected. The relevant criteria are determined by law . . .
Article 83 [Property of National Heritage]
Government buildings and properties forming part of the national heritage cannot be transferred except with the approval of the Islamic Consultative Assembly; that, too, is not applicable in the case of irreplaceable treasures.’
[43] The Revolutionary Council of the Islamic Republic of Iran issued a decree on 29 February 1980 which prohibited export of any kind of antiquities or artistic objects from the country.
[44] The fifth book of Islamic Punishment Law dated 23 May 1996 deals at Ch 9 with the destruction of historical/cultural properties. This provides, inter alia:
‘Article 559—Any person found guilty of stealing equipments and objects, as well as the materials and pieces of cultural-historical monuments from museums, exhibits, historical and religious places or any other places which are under the protection and control of the state; or trades in such objects or conceals them—knowing that they are stolen—shall be obliged to return them and condemned to confinement of one to five years, if not subject to punishment for theft (as ordained by Islamic religion) . . .
Article 561—Any attempt to take historical-cultural items out of the country, even if it would not be actually exported, shall be considered as illegal export. The violator shall be condemned to restitute the items, imprisoned from one to three years, and fined as twice as the value of the items exported . . .
Article 562—Any digging or excavation intended to obtain historical-cultural properties is forbidden. The violator shall be condemned to undergo a confinement of six months to three years; the discovered objects shall be confiscated in the interests of The Iranian Cultural Heritage Organisation and the equipments of the excavation shall be confiscated by the state . . .
Note 1. Whoever obtains the historical/cultural properties, that are the subject of this Article, by chance and does not take (the necessary) steps to deliver the same, according to the regulations of the State Cultural Heritage Organisation, will be sentenced to the seizure of the discovered (found) properties . . .’
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THE JUDGE’S FINDINGS ON TITLE TO THE ANTIQUITIES
[45] After considering the various statutory provisions relied on by Iran, of which the Legal Bill of 1979 was particularly relied upon, the judge concluded, as he put it, ‘with some regret’ that Iran had not discharged the burden of establishing the ownership of the antiquities under the law of Iran. He said ([2007] All ER (D) 477 (Mar) at [59])
‘. . . I readily accept that Iran has gone to some lengths to list and secure protection for its natural heritage and to penalise unlawful excavators and exporters. But the enactments relied on by Iran fall short in my judgment of establishing its legal ownership of the antiquities. I am not persuaded that those enactments are in certain respects consistent with state ownership but, even if all of them were, that would still in my opinion not be enough to have the effect of vesting ownership in the state, as it were, by default of as a matter of inference.’
THE JUDGE’S FINDING IN RESPECT OF IRAN’S CLAIM BASED ON IMMEDIATE RIGHT TO POSSESSION
[46] Barakat accepted that a person with an immediate right to possession could bring a claim in conversion or for the tort of wrongful interference with goods subject only to the requirement that the right to possession should be a proprietary right. The judge, after consideration of authority, upheld Barakat’s submission that the right to possession must be proprietary. He held that Iran had failed to establish the necessary proprietary interest, albeit that Iran did have an immediate right to possession of the antiquities which was an immediate right.
OWNERSHIP OF THE ANTIQUITIES
[47] The judge started from the uncontroversial position that determination of Iranian law was a question of fact; and that when faced with conflicting evidence of foreign law, he had to look at the effect of the foreign sources on which the experts rely as part of their evidence in order to evaluate and interpret that evidence and decide between the conflicting testimony (see Bumper Development Corp Ltd v Comr of Police of the Metropolis [1991] 4 All ER 638, [1991] 1 WLR 1362 at 1368–1369). As we have said, the judge was assisted by expert evidence from Professor Muhammad Taleghany on behalf of Iran and from Mr Hamid Sabi on behalf of Barakat. Professor Taleghany was a Professor of Law at Tehran University until 1984, when he moved to London. In London he was the legal adviser of the Iranian Bureau for International Legal Services until 1994, since when he has been a consultant on Iranian law. Mr Hamid Sabi was a member of the Iranian Bar. He practised law in Iran until 1979, when he moved to London, since when he has practised as a consultant on Iranian law. Both experts have considerable experience of giving evidence on Iranian law in English courts.
[48] There was no judicial or academic authority on the central question, namely whether the effect of the Iranian legislation, and in particular the 1979 Legal Bill, was to vest ownership of antiquities in the Iranian state. In choosing between the experts on this question, and preferring the conclusions of Mr Sabi, the judge was not making a judgment on credibility, or expertise, or any of the other matters which are normally taken into account when choosing between expert evidence. He expressly recorded that he was satisfied that both experts did their best to assist him.
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[49] In deciding whether the Republic has ownership under Iranian law, it is important to bear in mind that it is not the label which foreign law gives to the legal relationship, but its substance, which is relevant. If the rights given by Iranian law are equivalent to ownership in English law, then English law would treat that as ownership for the purposes of the conflict of laws. The issue with which we are concerned is whether the rights enjoyed by Iran in relation to the antiquities equate to those that give standing to sue in conversion under English law.
[50] What the judge did was to look at the legislation, and decide what its effect was by testing the expert evidence against its language and context. We propose to adopt the same course.
[51] It was Professor Taleghany’s opinion that the antiquities formed part of the national heritage which was originally owned by the King or Shah and which subsequently became owned by the Republic of Iran. He asserted that this accorded with all the relevant statutory provisions. It was Mr Sabi’s opinion that ownership of the antiquities was governed by express provisions of the Iranian Civil Code. These vested ownership of the antiquities in the finders. These provisions remained binding unless expressly altered by subsequent statutory provisions. There were no such provisions.
[52] The debate before the judge focused on the effect of the statutory provisions. The judge found that some of these were incompatible with Professor Taleghany’s opinion although he rejected the suggestion that this opinion had not been objectively formed. He held that Iran had failed to discharge the burden of proving that, under Iranian law, the antiquities were property of the Republic. Mr Philip Shepherd QC for Iran supports the judge’s conclusions.
[53] For Iran Sir Sydney Kentridge QC submits that the cumulative effect of the relevant Iranian statutory provisions is to vest ownership of the antiquities, as this concept is understood by the law of England, in Iran. Iranian law prohibits anyone other than the government of Iran from seeking to excavate antiquities. Iranian law prohibits anyone who unlawfully excavated antiquities from acquiring any title to them. Antiquities excavated by the government are owned by the government as are antiquities that are excavated by anyone else. Those who find antiquities by chance have to hand them over to the government. The effect of all these laws is that the government owns the antiquities.
[54] These submissions require a detailed analysis of the relevant provisions of Iranian statutes. We approach these having regard to two principles that are common ground. The statutes should be given a purposive interpretation and special provisions dealing with antiquities take precedence over general provisions.
THE CIVIL CODE
[55] Among the provisions relied upon by Professor Taleghany was art 26 of the Civil Code. The judge, preferring the evidence of Mr Sabi, held that movable antiquities did not fall within the description ‘historical monuments and similar property’, nor within the description ‘in use by the Government for the service of the public’. In any event, art 26 deals only with properties in the possession of the government. We indorse these conclusions.
[56] The judge observed that it was clear from provisions of Ch 2 that Iranian law both recognised and respected private ownership. That proposition has not been in issue. He commented that art 35 created a presumption in favour of the
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possessor as to the ownership of property. He did not comment on art 36. It does not seem to us that that article bears directly on whether the antiquities are vested in Iran, although it is not readily reconciled with the proposition, advanced by Mr Sabi, that someone who finds antiquities in the course of unlawful excavation obtains title to them.
[57] It is common ground that the antiquities do not constitute treasure trove. The judge nonetheless remarked that both art 165 and arts 174–176 lent some support to Barakat’s assertion that the Civil Code provided for the finder of an article to become its owner. We agree with that general proposition.
THE 1930 ACT
[58] The judge observed that the provisions of this Act were incompatible with Professor Taleghany’s broad proposition that all antiquities were owned by the state. We agree. Article 9 expressly deals with movable property that is registered as part of the National Heritage but which is privately owned. Articles 10, 14 and 15 make provision for the state to share with the finder antiquities that are found by chance or discovered during lawful excavations.
[59] The judge remarked that these provisions could not be construed as conferring title to movable assets on the government and that they were inconsistent with the government having ownership of movables. These general observations call for some qualification.
[60] Article 10 sets out circumstances in which the state has or acquires title to movable property. It provides that ‘half of the property or an equitable price as considered by qualified experts shall be transferred to the finder’. It is implicit that if the latter option is adopted the state becomes (or remains) the owner of the property in question. The section further gives the state the option ‘to appropriate or transfer the other half to the finder without recompense’. This gives the state the option of becoming (or remaining) the owner of the other half. The words that we have placed in brackets reflect the fact that it is perhaps arguable that the language is sufficiently imprecise to accommodate the possibility that antiquities vest in the state when they are found—see art 17 of the 1932 regulations where the language, or perhaps the translation, of the relevant provisions is a little different.
[61] Article 14, as explained by art 31 of the regulations, appears to us to vest the state’s share in the state as owner, rather than mere possessor. This is also to be inferred from the reference in art 15 to the discoverer’s share being ‘his/her own property’. Article 14 gives the state the right to ‘appropriate’ all the objects that it discovers directly. This might suggest that until appropriation the state does not own them.
[62] In summary there is a lack of clarity in these provisions about precisely how and when the state becomes the owner of its share of antiquities that are discovered in lawful excavations. Overall we think the provisions more consistent with Mr Sabi’s evidence that the finder is the owner unless and until antiquities are transferred to the state. We do not consider that these difficult provisions are directly relevant. We have some sympathy with Sir Sydney’s submission to us that ‘the State was coming pretty near to ownership but it is rather difficult to work out just what rights it has and what rights it does not have’. The significance of the provisions is that they qualify the effect of art 165 where antiquities are concerned. They vest some of these in the state in accordance with their terms. They provide background to the all-important provisions of the Legal Bill of 1979.
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THE LEGAL BILL OF 1979
[63] The judge observed that it was Mr Malek’s case for Iran that the 1979 Legal Bill was the ‘clinching statutory provision’ and Sir Sydney adopted the same stance. Early in his submissions (day 1, p 17) he set out very clearly the way that he put Iran’s case:
‘The question of whether someone is owner is decided by looking at what rights that person has, for example the right of exclusive enjoyment, the right of alienation, the right of recovering possession . . . Those are the elements of ownership and it is our submission that whatever language is used in the Iranian statute—and certainly in the Iranian statute there is no clause which uses the term that the antiquities vest in the Government—nonetheless if one examines what rights the Government had and that no one else had, what the Government had amounted to what we would regard as ownership . . .’
[64] Applying this approach to the 1979 Legal Bill, he submitted that this replaced the provisions of the 1930 Act and the 1932 regulations. The discoverer of antiquities no longer had any claim to ownership of them. The most that he could receive was a discoverer’s reward. It was impossible for anyone other than Iran to become the owner of antiquities to which the 1979 Legal Bill applied.
[65] The judge’s findings in relation to the 1979 Legal Bill, accepting Mr Sabi’s evidence and the submissions made on behalf of Barakat, were as follows:
‘[53] . . . I have been unable to find any provision prior to the 1979 Legal Bill which confers ownership of antiquities on the state. To the extent that Professor Taleghany is asserting that the 1979 Legal Bill does so, I cannot agree with him. As Mr Sabi points out, the Bill has on its face the limited objective of preventing the plundering of relics. It is, as Mr Sabi says, principally at least, a criminal statute. There is no express vesting of title to antiquities in Iran nor any declaration that all antiquities are vested in the state. I find it difficult to see how the provisions “reflect the fact” of state ownership. As Mr Sabi rightly says, the draftsman could so easily have provided for state ownership of all antiquities if such had been his intention. It seems to me that, given the historical background to the Bill’s enactment, its purpose was to criminalise the widespread pillaging of antiquities which was then taking place and not to make provision for state ownership of antiquities.
[54] Under the 1979 Legal Bill ownership is only affected when, by virtue of paragraph 1, seizure in favour of the public treasury takes place upon conviction of an offender in a criminal court for undertaking unlawful excavation or digging or where, by virtue of paragraph 4, discovered objects are offered for sale or purchase. Paragraphs 1 and 4, like the comparable provisions of the 1930 Act, only come into play when the criminal court imposes penalties following conviction. Paragraph 2 imposes an in personam obligation on the discoverer to submit discovered items to the nearest office of Culture and Higher Education. Paragraph 3 also affects ownership but only in relation to objects less than 100 years old.
[55] I accept the evidence of Mr Sabi that the Bill does not address wider questions of ownership of undiscovered antiquities. If that had been the intention, it would have been clearly spelt out in the legislation.’
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[66] In considering these findings we propose to start by considering whether, under the 1979 Legal Bill, it is possible to identify anyone other than Iran as the owner of antiquities that are discovered. This is a question that the judge did not expressly address, although his concluding observation in the passage that we have just quoted suggests that he accepted the correctness of Mr Sabi’s analysis.
[67] It was Mr Sabi’s evidence that the 1979 Legal Bill did not affect the application of art 165 of the Civil Code. Ownership of antiquities, whether illegally excavated or found by accident, vested in the finder. The illegal excavator was liable to have them seized in criminal proceedings, but until that happened he remained the owner. The accidental finder was under an in personam obligation to hand them over to the Office of Culture and Higher Education, but unless and until he did so he remained the owner. We do not think that it was open to the judge to accept this analysis of the 1979 Legal Bill.
[68] It is helpful to start with art 3. The judge remarked, somewhat cryptically, that this ‘also affects ownership but only in relation to objects less than 100 years old’. It is hard to reconcile the wording of art 3 with the proposition that the finder of objects whose antiquity is less than 100 years old becomes the owner of them before he has paid to the treasury one-fifth of their worth, although the article does not state who is the owner until this payment is made.
[69] Article 2 deals with the person who accidentally finds antiquities. There is no way in which the 1979 Legal Bill permits him to benefit from his discovery other than by obtaining the statutory reward. In the first place he is under a positive obligation to hand them in to the nearest office of Culture and Higher Education ‘as soon as possible’. He is not entitled to offer them for sale. If he purports to sell them, no title will be transferred to the buyer by reason of art 36 of the Civil Code. Furthermore he will be guilty of a criminal offence under art 559 of the Punishment Law of 1996. The antiquities will be subject to seizure.
[70] Article 1 deals with the position of the person who finds antiquities as a result of illegal excavation. The judge found that he could be in no better position than the accidental finder under art 2 and this finding has not been challenged. Furthermore he will have been guilty of a criminal offence by virtue of the excavation itself.
[71] Having regard to the obligations and restrictions that are placed upon the finder of antiquities we do not consider that he can properly be described as the ‘owner’ of them. The provisions of the 1979 Legal Bill are inconsistent with both art 165 and arts 173–6 of the Civil Code. They also supersede art 10 of the National Heritage Protection Act of 1930. The finder of antiquities is not entitled to keep possession of them nor to transfer title to anyone else. His only right is to receive a reward on handing them over to the state. The finder has no ownership rights in the antiquities that he finds.
[72] In concluding that under the 1979 Legal Bill the finder of antiquities cannot be described as the ‘owner’ we have been considering the concept of ownership through English eyes for the reasons given above.
[73] Paragraph 1227 in 35 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) sets out the following meaning of ‘ownership’:
‘Ownership consists of innumerable rights over property, for example the rights of exclusive enjoyment, of destruction, alteration and alienation, and of maintaining and recovering possession of the property from all other
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persons. Those rights are conceived not as separately existing, but as merged in one general right of ownership.’
Under the 1979 Legal Bill the finder of antiquities enjoys none of these attributes of ownership.
[74] We turn to the position of Iran. Iran is entitled to immediate possession of any antiquities found, for the finder is required to hand them over ‘as soon as possible’. There has been no dispute that once the antiquities are handed over, they become the property of Iran. If they are not handed over, but are transferred by the finder to a third party, the third party will get no title and the antiquities will be subject to ‘seizure’.
[75] Where the antiquities are discovered in the course of illegal excavation, they will be subject to ‘seizure’ by Iran, whether they remain in the possession of the finder or are transferred to a third party. It follows that, apart from the right of the accidental finder to a reward, no one enjoys any rights in relation to antiquities found accidentally or as a result of illegal excavation except Iran and the rights that Iran enjoys are essentially the rights of ownership.
[76] There are four matters that Barakat relied on, successfully, before the judge in contending that the 1979 Legal Bill did not confer ownership on Iran: (i) The provision for ‘seizure’ in art 1. (ii) The 1979 Legal Bill acts ‘in personam’. (iii) The legislators could easily have made clear provision for title in antiquities to pass to Iran had that been their intention. (iv) There has been no recorded case of Iran asserting a right to antiquities in civil proceedings. We shall deal with each in turn.
[77] The word which we have referred to as ‘seizure’, zabt in the original Farsi, can mean both ‘seizure’ and ‘confiscation’. In art 1 it is used in relation to both the antiquities found and the excavation equipment. So far as the latter are concerned, the article plainly provides for confiscation, for the equipment will be owned by the illegal excavators. Barakat argued that, by parity of reasoning the same had to be true of the antiquities. Zabt could not mean two different things, depending upon whether it applied to excavating equipment or to antiquities. It followed that art 1 provided for confiscation of antiquities, which carried the necessary implication that they were owned by the person from whom they were confiscated.
[78] We do not accept this argument. We can see no reason why, in its context, zabt could not be used to describe an act that constituted confiscation of equipment owned by the excavator and taking possession of antiquities in respect of which Iran had the rights of the owner.
[79] The express obligations imposed by the 1979 Legal Bill not to conduct excavations and to hand over any antiquities found are indeed personal obligations. The right to seize antiquities that are not handed over is also a personal right. But these rights nonetheless inferentially affect title. Barakat did not challenge the proposition that, where antiquities were handed in under art 2 and a reward paid, the antiquities became the property of Iran. Antiquities seized plainly also vested in Iran. The only issue has been at what stage Iran acquired ownership. Barakat contended that it was only when the antiquities came within the possession of Iran and, in the case of antiquities that were ‘seized’, only on completion of the criminal process that followed from the seizure.
[80] We consider that this is an arid issue. Given our conclusion that the finder did not own the antiquities (and the fact, as was common ground, that the owner of the land from which they came had no claim to them), there are only
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two possibilities. Either they were ‘bona vacantia’ to which Iran had an immediate right of possession and which would become Iran’s property once Iran obtained possession and which could not become the property of anyone else or they belonged to Iran from, at least, the moment that they were found. We consider that the former alternative is artificial. Iran’s personal rights in relation to antiquities found were so extensive and exclusive that Iran was properly to be considered the owner of the properties found.
[81] The judge observed ([2007] All ER (D) 477 (Mar) at [53]):
‘the draftsman could so easily have provided for state ownership of all antiquities if such had been his intention. It seems to me that, given the historical background to the Bill’s enactment, its purpose was to criminalise the widespread pillaging of antiquities which was then taking place and not to make provision for state ownership of antiquities.’
[82] The 1979 Legal Bill was enacted as an urgent response to the pillaging of antiquities which took place immediately after the revolution. We have no knowledge of who, after that revolution, was available to draft legislation and there appears to be no basis for drawing inferences from what was not included in the 1979 Legal Bill rather than considering the effect of what it did provide. Having regard to the problems of interpreting the earlier legislation to which we have referred, it is possible that the draftsman started from the premise that antiquities were owned by Iran. At all events, for the reasons that we have given, the clear effect of the Legal Bill was to vest title to antiquities in Iran—the only question is when and in what circumstances the title vested.
[83] We do not consider that any significance can be attached to the fact, if it be the case, that this action is the first occasion on which Iran has claimed to be the owner of antiquities in civil proceedings. In so far as state officials have discovered antiquities illegally held in Iran it may well be that no one has chosen to challenge the state’s title to these.
[84] For the reasons that we have given and on the facts that we have assumed, we have concluded that the judge was wrong to find that under Iranian law Iran had not shown that it was the owner of the antiquities which are the subject matter of this action. Had we not reached this conclusion we would have concluded that, under Iranian law, Iran had an immediate right to possession of the antiquities that would vest ownership on taking possession.
DOES IRAN’S INTEREST IN THE ANTIQUITIES FOUND A CAUSE OF ACTION IN CONVERSION UNDER ENGLISH LAW?
[85] This question sub-divides into two issues: (i) Is Iran’s interest in the antiquities of such a kind as to found a claim in conversion? If so (ii) is Iran’s claim none the less not justiciable in England because it is founded on a penal or public law? There is an overlap between these two issues.
[86] Under English law the owner of a chattel who has an immediate right to possession of it has a right to sue in conversion. Iran contends that it obtained both ownership and an immediate right to possession of the antiquities when they were in Iran. It follows that, under our principles of conflict of laws, the question of whether Iran is the owner of the antiquities falls to be determined by the law of Iran as the lex situs. There was no discussion, either before the judge or before us, as to whether the immediate right to possession also falls to be considered according to the law of Iran. On principle we think that the answer to this question must depend on the situs of the antiquities when the immediate
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right to possession arose. On the facts of this case this means that the immediate right to possession also falls to be determined by the law of Iran. For the reasons that we have given our primary view is that Iran enjoys both title and an immediate right to possession of the antiquities under the law of Iran. Had we not formed this view, we would have concluded that Iran enjoyed an immediate right to their possession under the law of Iran which of itself would suffice to found a claim in conversion in this jurisdiction. Thus we would answer the first question in the affirmative.
[87] Had Iran asserted that it had acquired ownership and an immediate right to possession as a result of purchasing the antiquities in Iran we do not believe that Barakat would have challenged Iran’s entitlement to bring a claim for conversion in England, notwithstanding that Iran never acquired actual possession of the antiquities. Barakat contends, however, that Iran cannot claim in conversion because Iran never perfected its title by obtaining possession of the antiquities. As we understand the position this argument is founded on the contention that the laws relied upon by Iran to found their claim are both penal and public laws. Barakat accepts that had Iran obtained possession of the antiquities it would have thereby acquired a title that it could enforce by advancing a ‘patrimonial’ claim. As it is, however, Barakat contends that what Iran is attempting to do is to enforce a foreign penal and public law which is not justiciable in this country. This brings us to the second issue.
[88] Iran’s answer is twofold: (i) where a foreign law vests in the foreign State title in property that is within its own jurisdiction, that title will be recognised in England even if the law is penal or public; (ii) the laws relied on by Iran are not penal and, in so far as they are public, there is no reason of public policy why they should not be enforced in this country.
[89] Because the judge held that Iran had neither established ownership nor the proprietary immediate right to possession which he considered essential to found an action in conversion, he did not need to deal with the issue of justiciability.
[90] He nonetheless addressed it on the premise that, under Iranian law, Iran had acquired a valid title to the antiquities whilst they were still in Iran. He proceeded on the basis that Iran was seeking to enforce in England the provisions of Iranian law under which Iran had acquired title and that, if the law in question was either penal law or public law, the claim was not justiciable. His judgment suggests that this approach was in accordance with concessions made by Iran. If such concessions were made, they are no longer.
[91] The judge decided that the 1979 Legal Bill (a) was a penal law which had as its purpose the aim of protecting the national heritage; and (b) was a paradigm example of a public law which the state was not entitled to enforce. Accordingly, he answered the second preliminary question in the negative: even if Iran had title to the objects under Iranian law, the English court would not recognise or enforce it. The judge added ([2007] All ER (D) 477 (Mar) at [100]): ‘If this conclusion is a regrettable one, the answer may be the one given by Lord Denning in the Ortiz case, namely an international convention where individual countries can agree and pass the necessary legislation.’
[92] Iran’s appeal is based on the following propositions: (a) the relevant provisions of the 1979 Legal Bill are not penal; (b) the proper approach to a foreign public law is to consider in each case whether there is any special ground of public policy which requires the law in question not to be enforced in England; (c) laws for the preservation of the historic cultural heritage should not be
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regarded as public laws for that purpose; (d) in any event, where a foreign state owns or has the right to immediate possession under the lex situs, and the property is not susceptible of ownership by a private individual, its title should be recognised and enforced irrespective of whether it has reduced the property into its possession.
[93] Barakat does not suggest that the Iranian laws relied on by Iran offend against public policy to the extent that this country should not recognise them. Barakat contends, however, that, when the substance and not the form of these proceedings is considered, what Iran is seeking to do is to enforce in this country Iranian laws that are both penal and public. Barakat contends that this is not, in reality, a patrimonial claim. What Iran is seeking to do is to exercise its own sovereignty within this jurisdiction. This is something that the English courts will not countenance.
[94] The preliminary issue was tried on the basis that the antiquities originated from Iran in the circumstances alleged in the particulars of claim. For the purposes of the preliminary issue, and therefore for the purposes of this appeal, it must be assumed that (a) the antiquities derived from the Jiroft region of Iran; (b) they were excavated recently; and (c) they were removed from Iran illegally. There is, and can be, no suggestion that Barakat acquired title from any person who has, or claims, title under Iranian law.
PENAL, REVENUE AND OTHER PUBLIC LAWS
[95] We turn to consider the second main aspect of the appeal. As we have said, the judge reached what he described as the regrettable conclusion that, even if Iran had established title, the English court would not, in the terms of the preliminary issue, recognise or enforce that title, because the Iranian law was both a ‘penal’ law and a ‘public’ law which was not justiciable in the English court. It is therefore necessary to consider the nature and scope of the principles on which he relied.
[96] According to r 3(1) in Dicey, Morris and Collins The Conflict of Laws (14th edn, 2006) p 100, Rule 3(1) (para 5R-019): ‘English courts have no jurisdiction to entertain an action . . . for the enforcement, either directly or indirectly, of a penal, revenue or other public law of a foreign State . . .’
[97] The 11th edition of Dicey (1987) p 220 suggested that the lack of jurisdiction was not that of the courts of the forum but of the foreign state, which has no international jurisdiction to enforce its law outside its own territory, and that the basis of the rule is that the courts of the forum will not exercise their own jurisdiction in aid of an attempt by the foreign state to act in excess of its own jurisdiction. This view was substantially adopted by the House of Lords in Re State of Norway’s Application (Nos 1 & 2) [1989] 1 All ER 745 at 760–761, [1990] 1 AC 723 at 808, but the rule is retained in its traditional form because of its wide acceptance in judicial decisions.
[98] The starting point of any consideration of the justiciability issue raised in this appeal must be A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1982] 3 All ER 432, [1984] AC 1; [1983] 2 All ER 93, [1984] AC 1 (CA and HL). New Zealand was seeking to recover a Maori carving, which had been unlawfully exported to this country contrary to the Historic Arts Act 1962 of New Zealand. It had been lawfully purchased within New Zealand by the exporter, and ultimately sold to George Ortiz, a well-known collector who put it up for sale at Sotheby’s in order to pay a ransom to the kidnappers of his daughter. The reason why the action failed, as ultimately held by the House of Lords, was that the forfeiture provisions
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of the 1962 Act did not, as New Zealand alleged, effect a transfer of property in the carving from the exporter to New Zealand upon the exporter attempting to export it unlawfully, but only if and when the carving was actually seized by the New Zealand authorities, which it never was.
[99] All three members of the Court of Appeal (Lord Denning MR, Ackner and O’Connor LJJ) considered what the position would have been had the 1962 Act in fact transferred title from the exporter to New Zealand before the carving had left New Zealand territory. Lord Denning remarked ([1982] 3 All ER 432 at 456, [1984] AC 1 at 20) that the point was of vast importance, and continued:
‘Most countries have legislation to prevent the export of their historic articles unless permitted by licence. This legislation may provide for automatic forfeiture on export or attempted export. It might be very desirable that every country should enforce every other country’s legislation on the point: by enabling such articles to be recovered and taken back to their original home. But does the law permit of this?’
[100] He reached the following conclusion ([1982] 3 All ER 432 at 459, [1984] AC 1 at 24):
‘if any country should have legislation prohibiting the export of works of art and providing for the automatic forfeiture of them to the state should they be exported, then that falls into the category of “public laws” which will not be enforced by the courts of the country to which it is exported or any other country: because it is an act done in the exercise of sovereign authority which will not be enforced outside its own territory.’
[101] Ackner LJ’s view ([1982] 3 All ER 432 at 467, [1984] AC 1 at 34) was that New Zealand was seeking to enforce a penal statute, and he would have dismissed the claim on what he described as ‘this point of public international law’. The claim was to enforce a foreign penal law because the New Zealand government was seeking to vindicate its right to preserve historic articles in New Zealand by confiscating them if they were illegally exported. Without reaching any firm conclusion, he said that he was impressed by the reasoning of Staughton J at first instance ([1982] 3 All ER 432, [1982] QB 349) that there was no such vague general residual category of ‘public law’. O’Connor LJ ([1982] 3 All ER 432 at 468, [1984] AC 1 at 35) concurred in holding that the law could not be enforced in England because it was a penal law.
[102] In the House of Lords Lord Brightman gave the only speech, with which the other members of the House agreed. He upheld the decision of the Court of Appeal on the ground that New Zealand acquired no title to the carving. He added ([1983] 2 All ER 93 at 98, [1984] AC 1 at 46) that, so far as the views to which we have referred above were concerned, these were obiter and ‘I venture to think that, in any event, your Lordships would not wish to be taken as expressing any conclusion on the correctness or otherwise of the opinions so expressed’.
[103] He went on, however ([1983] 2 All ER 93 at 100, [1984] AC 1 at 49), to make an observation, to which we will revert:
‘Counsel submitted, and I am disposed to agree, that the recovery of unlawfully exported historic articles would be best ensured if title thereto were to vest in the Crown independently of seizure.’
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PENAL LAWS
[104] Lord Denning MR said in A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1982] 3 All ER 432 at 457, [1984] AC 1 at 20:
‘No one has ever doubted that our courts will not entertain a suit brought by a foreign sovereign, directly or indirectly, to enforce the penal or revenue laws of that foreign state. We do not sit to collect taxes for another country or to inflict punishments for it.’
[105] The rule against the enforcement of penal laws was said to have its foundation in the principle that crimes are only cognisable and punishable in the country where they were committed, and accordingly no proceeding, even in the shape of a civil suit, which had as its object the enforcement by the state, whether directly or indirectly, of punishment imposed for such breaches, ought to be admitted in the courts of any other country (see Huntington v Attrill [1893] AC 150 at 156).
[106] Whether a foreign law, or a claim based on foreign law, is to be characterised as penal depends on English law. It does not depend on the label given to the law by the foreign system of law, nor on whether the claim is in form a private law claim. The English court has to determine the substance of the right sought to be enforced, and whether its enforcement would, directly or indirectly, involve the execution of the penal law of another state: Huntington v Attrill [1893] AC 150 at 155; A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1982] 3 All ER 432 at 466, [1984] AC 1 at 32, per Ackner LJ.
[107] An example of the court looking to the substance of the claim is Banco de Vizcaya v Don Alfonso de Borbon y Austria [1935] 1 KB 140, [1934] All ER Rep 555. The ex-King of Spain claimed securities held by Westminster Bank Ltd in London. The securities had originally been held to the order of its Madrid branch as the agents of the King, but when the Madrid branch was closed, the King gave instructions that the London branch of the Westminster Bank should hold the securities to the order of the Banco de Vizcaya. In 1931 the private property of the ex-King was seized, he was declared guilty of high treason and an outlaw. The Banco de Vizcaya brought an action against the Westminster Bank in London for the delivery up of the securities. It was held that enforcement of the Banco de Vizcaya’s right to the securities would directly or indirectly involve the execution of penal laws of the Spanish Republic. It was not in substance asserting its own rights at all, but the rights of the Spanish Republic. So also in USA v Inkley [1988] 3 All ER 144, [1989] QB 255 the substance of the claim which was the subject of a foreign judgment for a money judgment in civil proceedings was to enforce an appearance bond in criminal proceedings. Judgment in default of defence on the foreign judgment was therefore set aside.
[108] It follows that a law may be characterised as penal even if it does not form part of the criminal code of a foreign country (see A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1982] 3 All ER 432 at 466, [1984] AC 1 at 33, per Ackner LJ). The particular provision relied on should be categorised, rather than the law as a whole: ibid.
[109] It follows also that the fact that a provision is found within a law which contains criminal sanctions, such as penalties or forfeiture, does not mean that the provision itself is penal in nature. This point seems to have been overlooked in Schemmer v Property Resources Ltd [1974] 3 All ER 451, [1975] Ch 273, in which Goulding J held (as an alternative ground of the decision) that the English court would not recognise the title of a receiver appointed by the United States court to get in the assets of a group of companies (based in the Bahamas) which had
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been used as the vehicle for the IOS frauds in the 1970s. The basis of that part of the decision was that the receiver had been appointed pursuant to the United States Securities Exchange Act 1934, and that Act was a penal law. But the receiver had not been appointed to enforce the penal provisions of the Act, but to preserve and recover the property of the company.
[110] In the present case, the judge held that the fact that the mechanism for protecting its heritage was by virtue of the state acquiring ownership rather than by a provision for forfeiture was a distinction without a difference. The effect was the same: the state acquired title by compulsory process of law which overrode the right of any individual who might otherwise have become or remained owner (see [2007] All ER (D) 477 (Mar) at [90]). The sanctions included imprisonment, and confiscation not only of the cultural property but the excavation equipment, and those penal aspects supported the conclusion that the legislation was properly characterised as penal (see [91]).
[111] In our judgment, on this aspect the judge has fallen into error. The 1979 Legal Bill was in large part penal in that it created criminal offences with criminal penalties for unlawfully excavating or dealing with antiquities. But the fact that some of the provisions of the 1979 Legal Bill impose penalties does not render penal all the other provisions of the Bill. The changes that it made in relation to ownership of antiquities were not penal or confiscatory. They did not take effect retroactively. They did not deprive anyone who already owned antiquities of their title to them. They altered the law as to the ownership of antiquities that had not yet been found, with the effect that these would all be owned by the state, subject to the entitlement of the chance finder to a reward. These were not penal provisions, and the claim in this case does not fail on that ground.
PUBLIC LAW
[112] That part of rule 3(1) of Dicey referring to ‘other public law’ has its origin in the 4th edition (1927) by Berriedale Keith, r 54, pp 224–230 when it appeared as ‘political law’, citing Emperor of Austria v Day and Kossuth (1861) 3 De GF & J 217, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 1597 and distinguishing proprietary rights from claims to enforce political laws.
[113] The expression ‘political law’ was replaced by ‘other public law’ in the 7th edition (1958) r 21, p 159. This was in response (it seems) to criticism of the expression ‘political law’ by Dr FA Mann in Prerogative Rights of Foreign States and the Conflict of Laws (1955) 40 Tr Gro Soc 25, reprinted in FA Mann Studies in International Law (1973) p 492 (see p 500), and by Parker LJ in Regazzoni v KC Sethia (1944) Ltd [1956] 2 All ER 487 at 496, [1956] 2 QB 490 at 524. The new expression, ‘public law’, was intended to be equivalent to ‘prerogative right’, the term used by Dr Mann: see Dicey (7th edn, 1958) p 162, fn 60.
[114] As we have already said, in A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz only Lord Denning MR accepted that there was a residual category of foreign public laws which the English court would not enforce. After concluding that there was such a rule, he continued ([1982] 3 All ER 432 at 457, [1984] AC 1 at 20–21):
‘But what are “other public laws”? I think they are laws which are ejusdem generis with “penal” or “revenue” laws.
Then what is the genus? Or, in English, what is the general concept which embraces “penal” and “revenue” laws and others like them? It is to be found, I think, by going back to the classification of acts taken in international law. One class comprises those acts which are done by a sovereign jure imperii,
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that is, by virtue of his sovereign authority. The others are those which are done by him jure gestionis, that is, which obtain their validity by virtue of his performance of them. The application of this distinction to our present problem was well drawn by Dr F A Mann 27 years ago in an article on “Prerogative Rights of Foreign States and the Conflict of Laws” . . .
Applied to our present problem the class which will be enforced are those laws which are an exercise by the sovereign government of its sovereign authority over property within its territory . . . But other laws will not be enforced. By international law every sovereign state has no sovereignty beyond its own frontiers. The courts of other countries will not allow it to go beyond the bounds. They will not enforce any of its laws which purport to exercise sovereignty beyond the limits of its authority.’
[115] His conclusion was that legislation forbidding export of works of art and providing for automatic forfeiture to the state should they be exported fell into the category of ‘public laws’ which would not be enforced by the courts of a country to which they were exported because it was an act done in the exercise of sovereign authority which would not be enforced outside its own territory.
[116] The question of principle was considered again by the High Court of Australia in the Spycatcher case, A-G (UK) v Heinemann Publishers Australia Pty Ltd (No 2) (1988) 78 ALR 449, (1988) 165 CLR 30. In that case the British government sought to enforce against Australian publishers the duty of confidentiality owed by Mr Peter Wright, a former intelligence officer. In form the action was a private law action based on allegations of breach of fiduciary duty, and breach of equitable and contractual obligations of confidence. It was held that the action was not maintainable.
[117] The majority (Mason CJ, Wilson, Deane, Dawson, Toohey and Gaudron JJ) held that the claim was not enforceable on the broad ground that it was a claim to vindicate the governmental interests of a foreign state. The rule applied ‘to claims enforcing the interests of a foreign sovereign which arise from the exercise of certain powers peculiar to government’ (see (1988) 78 ALR 449 at 456, (1988) 165 CLR 30 at 42) and the principle of law rendered unenforceable ‘actions to enforce the governmental interests of a foreign State’ (see (1988) 78 ALR 449 at 460, (1988) 165 CLR 30 at 47). The action was to be characterised by reference to the substance of the interest sought to be enforced, rather than the form of the action (see (1988) 78 ALR 449 at 459, (1988) 165 CLR 30 at 46).
[118] In President of the State of Equatorial Guinea v Royal Bank of Scotland International [2006] UKPC 7, [2006] 3 LRC 676, the Privy Council (speaking through Lord Bingham of Cornhill and Lord Hoffmann) expressed views, obiter, on the justiciability of claims by foreign states in the exercise of sovereign authority, and seems to have approved, at least tentatively, the approach of the High Court of Australia in the Spycatcher case, that the application of the rule depends on whether ‘the central interest’ of the state in bringing the action is governmental in nature (see [2006] 3 LRC 676 at [24], [25]):
‘It appears to their Lordships well arguable that the claims which the appellants say they wish to make in the English proceedings represent an exercise of sovereign authority, namely the preservation of the security of the state and its ruler. The apprehension and trial of suspects, the imposition of security measures, obtaining diplomatic assistance: these heads of damage alleged by the appellants in the English proceedings can all be regarded as aspects of sovereign authority . . . As the High Court of Australia said in [A-G
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(UK) v Heinemann Publishers Australia Pty Ltd (No 2) (1988) 78 ALR 449 at 459, (1988) 165 CLR 30 at 46], the application of the rule depends upon whether the “central interest” of the state bringing the action is governmental in nature . . .
[25] . . . It may therefore be that the question is not whether the claim is framed by reference to personal injury or damage to property but whether, as the Australian High Court said, the “central interest” of the state in bringing the action is governmental in nature.’
[119] After a full review of the authorities, this court in Mbasogo v Logo Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1370, [2007] QB 846, [2007] 2 WLR 1062 decided that Rule 3(1) of Dicey accurately reflected the law. The court said:
‘[50] . . . The critical question is whether in bringing a claim, a claimant is doing an act which is of a sovereign character or which is done by virtue of sovereign authority; and whether the claim involves the exercise or assertion of a sovereign right. If so, then the court will not determine or enforce the claim. On the other hand, if in bringing the claim the claimant is not doing an act which is of a sovereign character or by virtue of sovereign authority and the claim does not involve the exercise or assertion of a sovereign right and the claim does not seek to vindicate a sovereign act or acts, then the court will both determine and enforce it. As we see it, that was the broad distinction of principle which the court was seeking to draw in the [Emperor of Austria case (1861) 3 De GF & J 217, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 1597]. In deciding how to characterise a claim, the court must of course examine its substance, and not be misled by appearances: see, for example, Huntington v Attrill [1893] AC 150.
[51] We put the distinction in that broad way because it seems to us to express the rationale behind rule 3(1) in Dicey, Morris & Collins, The Conflict of Laws. We have reached the conclusion that rule 3(1) does accurately reflect the law in stating that the English courts have no jurisdiction to entertain an action for the enforcement of “a penal, revenue or other public law of a foreign state” . . .’
[120] But the Court of Appeal indicated (at [52]) that it was not necessary to express a view whether the test in English law was the same as that suggested by the High Court of Australia in the Spycatcher case.
[121] The actual decision in the Equatorial Guinea case in the Court of Appeal was that the claims by the government of Equatorial Guinea were not founded on its property interests but were for losses suffered by virtue of an exercise of sovereign authority, which arose as a result of decisions taken by the state to protect the state and its citizens. The defence of a state and its subjects was a paradigm function of government, and the court would not enforce claims which involve the exercise of sovereign authority (see [2006] 3 LRC 676 at [57], [61], [67]).
[122] The court recognised (at [60]) that the case was not one involving the enforcement of public law, but to restrict in that way would be to interpret the principle too narrowly.
[123] Consequently, the Equatorial Guinea case in the Court of Appeal is not in fact a case involving the attempted enforcement of foreign public law. Although the court approved the residual category of ‘other public law’ the ratio is that a claim involving the exercise or assertion of a sovereign right is not justiciable.
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This is not far removed from the test adopted by the High Court of Australia, and the Court of Appeal accepted (at para 50) the correctness of the expression of opinion by the Privy Council, which itself appears to give some approval to the test suggested by the High Court of Australia. Nor is it far removed from the approach in civil law countries: thus the French Cour de Cassation decided that the claims by the Republic of Haiti against Baby Doc Duvalier for looting of the Haitian treasury were inadmissible because they related to relations between a state and its officers, and to the exercise of public power (see Republic of Haiti v Duvalier 1991 Clunet 137, 1991 Rev Crit 386).
[124] The application of the approach of the High Court of Australia is illustrated by Evans v European Bank Ltd (2004) 61 NSWLR 75, [2004] NSWCA 82, in which it was held (distinguishing Evans v European Bank Ltd (2004) 61 NSWLR 75, [2004] NSWCA 82, para 110) that a receiver appointed by the United States Federal Trade Commission could sue in New South Wales to recover the proceeds of a credit card fraud: in the sphere of consumer protection, regulatory regimes may serve a public interest and be classified as public laws, without constituting a governmental interest of the relevant kind; and as a matter of substance, it was a proceeding designed to compensate persons who had been defrauded.
[125] On the authorities as they now stand the only category outside penal and revenue laws which is the subject of an actual decision, as opposed to dicta, is a claim which involves the exercise or assertion of a sovereign right. There is no decision which binds this court to find that there is a rule which prevents the enforcement of all foreign public laws. The test laid down by the High Court of Australia is not only consistent with the English authorities, including the Equatorial Guinea case in the Court of Appeal, but is a helpful and practical test.
[126] What laws fall within the category of laws which will not be enforced because they involve the exercise or assertion of a sovereign right, or seek to enforce governmental interests? As we have said, Lord Denning MR in A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz suggested that the public laws envisaged by Rule 3(1) are laws which are ejusdem generis with penal or revenue laws, and that the relevant genus is to be found in acts jure imperii, acts done by virtue of sovereign authority, rather than acts jure gestionis. This is a distinction deriving from the law of state immunity: see eg Kuwait Airways Corp v Iraqi Airways Co [1995] 3 All ER 694 at 704, [1995] 1 WLR 1147 at 1156, per Lord Goff of Chieveley and material in Dicey (pp 274–275, 287 (paras 10-004, 10-033)). It bears some relationship to the distinction which has been applied by the European Court of Justice to determine whether a claim is a ‘civil and commercial matter’ for the purposes of the Brussels Convention and the Brussels I Regulation, where the question is whether or not the state is acting in the exercise of its powers: see cases cited in Dicey (p 314 (para 11-025)).
[127] No doubt one example of laws within this category would be exchange control legislation: see Re Lord Cable, Garratt v Waters [1976] 3 All ER 417, [1977] 1 WLR 7; and Camdex International Ltd v Bank of Zambia (No 2) [1997] 1 All ER 728, [1997] 1 WLR 632.
[128] It is possible, but by no means certain, that export restrictions may also be within this category. In King of Italy v de Medici Tornaquinci (1918) 34 TLR 623 an interlocutory injunction was sought against a member of the de Medici family and against Christie’s to restrain them from disposing of the Medici archives. The injunction was granted in relation to those of the papers which belonged to the Italian state, but refused in relation to other papers which had been illegally
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exported from Italy. It was said that Italian law prohibited their export ‘but it was manifest that this only applied so long as they remained in Italy’ (see 624, per Peterson J). In A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz Lord Denning MR suggested ([1982] 3 All ER 432 at 458, [1984] AC 1 at 23) that on this aspect the King of Italy case was a case where the prohibition of export of the family papers was an exercise of sovereign authority by the King of Italy, and it would not be enforced in England. The case is not fully reported and is of little assistance.
[129] In Kingdom of Spain v Christie, Manson & Woods Ltd [1986] 3 All ER 28, [1986] 1 WLR 1120 Sir Nicolas Browne-Wilkinson V-C refused to strike out a claim for a declaration against Christie’s and the owners of a Goya that export documents obtained for the removal of the painting from Spain had been forged. The decision goes no further than to hold that it was arguable that a claim that the use of forged documents could debase the credibility of genuine export documents issued by Spain was supportable by reference to the decision in Emperor of Austria v Day and Kossuth (1861) 3 De GF & J 217, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 1597 that the Emperor of Austria could sue Louis Kossuth and the printers to prevent them from debasing the currency of Hungary by printing false new currency.
[130] These cases would probably now come within the Return of Cultural Objects Regulations 1994, SI 1994/501 (discussed at [160], below), since the papers in the Italian case and the Goya in the Spanish case would be relevant cultural objects (as defined by art 1 of Council Directive (EEC) 93/7 on the return of cultural objects unlawfully removed from the territory of a member state (1993 OJ L74 p 74) and subject to proceedings under reg 6 as amended by SI 1997/1719 and SI 2001/3972.
PATRIMONIAL CLAIMS AND REDUCTION INTO POSSESSION
[131] The claim in this case is not an attempt to enforce export restrictions, but to assert rights of ownership. We now turn to the question of whether the claim by Iran is maintainable even it has not taken possession of the objects.
[132] The starting point is the almost universal rule that title to movables depends on the lex situs, and accordingly:
‘The validity of a transfer of a tangible movable and its effect on the proprietary rights of the parties thereto and of those claiming under them in respect thereof are governed by the law of the country where the movable is at the time of the transfer (lex situs) . . . A transfer of a tangible movable which is valid and effective by the law of the country where the movable is at the time of the transfer is valid and effective in England . . .’ (See Dicey Rule 124, p 1164 (para 24R-001).)
[133] Where the foreign state has acquired title under its law to property within its jurisdiction in cases not involving compulsory acquisition of title from private parties, there is no reason in principle why the English court should not recognise its title in accordance with the general principle.
[134] In Government of India, Ministry of Finance (Revenue Division) v Taylor [1955] 1 All ER 292 at 299, [1955] AC 491 at 511, Lord Keith of Avonholm said that an assertion of sovereign authority by one state within the territory of another, as distinct from a patrimonial claim by a foreign sovereign, was (treaty or convention apart) contrary to all concepts of independent sovereignties.
[135] Thus in City of Gotha v Sotheby’s, Germany v Sotheby’s (9 September 1998, unreported) (Moses J) it was held that the Federal Republic of Germany was
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entitled to recover a Wtewael painting originally owned and possessed by the Duke of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha Foundation for Art and Science, and which had been looted. The Federal Republic’s title derived from the dissolution of the foundation, and its claim was not an assertion of sovereign authority. Cf Kunstsammlungen Zu Weimar v Elicofon (1982) 678 F 2d 1150.
[136] Consequently, when a state owns property in the same way as a private citizen there is no impediment to recovery. This is the basis of that part of the decision in King of Italy v de Medici Tornaquinci (1918) 34 TLR 623, in which it was decided that there was a prima facie case that part of the Medici archive belonged to the Italian state and that it was entitled to prevent the disposition of its property by someone who was not entitled to it, and that an injunction would therefore be granted.
[137] Is the position different where there has been compulsory acquisition? In Kuwait Airways Corp v Iraq Airways Co (No 3) [2002] UKHL 19 at [13], [2002] 3 All ER 209 at [13], [2002] 2 AC 883 Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead said:
‘. . . Under English conflict of laws principles the transfer of title to tangible movable property normally depends on the lex situs: the law of the country where the movable was situated at the time of the transfer. Likewise, governmental acts affecting proprietary rights will be recognised by an English court as valid if they would be recognised as valid by the law of the country where the property was situated when the law takes effect . . .’
[138] So also Lord Brightman in A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz observed, obiter ([1983] 2 All ER 93 at 100, [1984] AC 1 at 49): ‘Counsel submitted, and I am disposed to agree, that the recovery of unlawfully exported historic articles would be best ensured if title thereto were to vest in the Crown independently of seizure.' That dictum supports Iran’s contention that (a) if the foreign law transfers ownership, then the penal law/public law principle is inapplicable; and (b) it is not a necessary pre-condition that the foreign state should have reduced the property into its possession.
[139] According to Dicey Rule 128 p 1203 (para 25R-001):
‘A governmental act affecting any private proprietary right in any movable or immovable thing will be recognised as valid and effective in England if the act was valid and effective by the law of the country where the thing was situated (lex situs) at the moment when the act takes effect, and not otherwise.’
[140] But, as Dicey says (pp 1211–1212 (para 25-012)):
‘The effect of Rule 128 is that the transfer of the title will be recognised, so that where the foreign State disposes of the property the title of the new owner will be recognised in England as against the original owner. But where the original owner retains possession and brings the property to England, the position is more difficult. In such a case the issue will not be one of recognition, but of enforcement. If the decree is penal, neither the foreign government nor its nominee can enforce a title founded upon the decree, because there is an “international rule whereby one State will not enforce the . . . penal laws of another State.” But more controversial questions arise where the decree is neither penal nor otherwise contrary to English public policy . . . If the foreign State has reduced the property into its
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possession, there is no objection to protecting its actual possession of property to which it has acquired a recognisable title.’
[141] So also it is suggested (at pp 103–104 (para 5-026)) that where the foreign government has a patrimonial claim ‘e.g. to the property of unsuccessful revolutionaries or former governments, or where it claims or reclaims property which it has reduced into its possession’ (my emphasis), the case is not one of enforcement of title, but of recognition and the claim will be enforced. The cases cited as authority for the words in quotation marks are authority for the first part of the quotation, namely that the court will recognise the title of the state to property in England held by revolutionaries or former governments, but they do not touch on the question whether the property must have been reduced into possession by the foreign state. In the revolution/governmental succession cases the point will not normally arise.
[142] Thus in King of the Two Sicilies v Willcox (1851) 1 Sim NS 301, 61 ER 116 during a revolution in Sicily, the revolutionary government sent money to its envoys in England. It was held that the King could recover a ship purchased with the money. Shadwell V-C said ((1851) 1 Sim NS 301 at 333, 61 ER 116 at 129): ‘it seems, to my mind, to be laid down as clear as any proposition can be, that the independent sovereign of a State is competent, in this country, to sue for his personal rights.' In two cases following the American Civil War, the United States was able to recover property held in England on behalf of the Confederate States: USA v Prioleau (1865) 35 LJ Ch 7; USA v Wagner (1867) 2 Ch App 582; (1869) LR 8 Eq 69. In each of these decisions it was held that the government which displaces a de facto government succeeds to its property, and is treated as the owner. So also in Union of Soviet Republics v Belaiew [1925] All ER Rep 369, it was accepted that documents originally held in London on behalf of the Imperial Russian government, and later on behalf of the Russian provisional government, became the property of the Soviet government, and it was entitled to recover them from the defendant, a member of the Russian Government Committee which had been set up in 1916 by the Imperial Russian government to obtain supplies abroad.
[143] There is little doubt, however, that where the foreign state has sought to confiscate or attach private property, the state’s title will only be recognised in England if it has reduced the property to possession.
[144] In Aksionairnoye Obschestvo AM Luther v James Sagor & Co [1921] 3 KB 532, [1921] All ER Rep 138 the Soviet authorities had taken the timber into their possession, and in Princess Paley Olga v Weisz [1929] 1 KB 718, [1929] All ER Rep 513 they had taken the works of art into their possession. It is those authorities to which Lord Templeman was referring in Williams & Humbert Ltd v W & H Trade Marks (Jersey) Ltd, Rumasa SA v Multinvest (UK) Ltd [1986] 1 All ER 129 at 135, [1986] AC 368 at 431, when he said:
‘These authorities illustrate the principle that an English court will recognise the compulsory acquisition law of a foreign state and will recognise the change of title to property which has come under the control of the foreign state and will recognise the consequences of that change of title.’
[145] In ‘Prerogative Rights of Foreign States and the Conflict of Laws’, in Studies in International Law (1973), p 492, pp 503–504 Dr Mann said:
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‘Soviet Russia has confiscated the jewels of Princess Paley Olga. They are situate in Russia and by Russian law title has passed. However, let it be assumed that they remain in the possession of the Princess who succeeds in bringing them to England. If the Russian State brought here an action for conversion, it ought to be dismissed, because its true purpose is to enforce the plaintiff State’s prerogative rights. On the other hand, if the Russian State had obtained possession of the jewels in Russia and they had been stolen from it, then an action against the thief ought to succeed even if the thief was the original owner; the reason is that the Russian State’s right had already been completed when it obtained possession, and the action is brought, not in order to implement the confiscation, but to enforce a cause of action arising later than and irrespective of the confiscation.’
[146] Lord Denning MR adopted this analysis in A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1982] 3 All ER 432 at 458–459, [1984] AC 1 at 23. But see Wolff Private International Law (2nd edn, 1950) pp 526–527, for a contrary view.
[147] The need for the foreign state to have taken possession before it can maintain a claim in cases involving the exercise of sovereign rights is illustrated by Brokaw v Seatrain UK Ltd [1971] 2 All ER 98, [1971] 2 QB 476, in which it was held that the United States could not claim goods pursuant to a notice of levy by which it claimed title to goods being shipped on a United States registered ship by persons alleged to owe tax. The notice of levy took effect forthwith so that persons in possession of such goods were legally obliged to surrender the goods. The claim could not be pursued because it was an attempt at the indirect enforcement of a revenue claim. But Lord Denning MR said ([1971] 2 All ER 98 at 100, [1971] 2 QB 476 at 483):
‘If the United States government had taken these goods into their actual possession, say in a warehouse in Baltimore, or may be by attornment of the master to an officer of the United States government, that might have been sufficient to enable them to claim the goods. But there is nothing of that kind here. The United States government simply rely on this notice of levy given to the shipowners, and that is not, in my view, sufficient to reduce the goods into their possession.’
[148] Consequently, the distinction between the two categories of cases, those where the foreign state will be able to claim its property in England even if it has not reduced it into its possession, and those where it may not claim unless it has reduced the property into its possession, depends on the way in which it has acquired ownership. If it has acquired title under public law by confiscation or compulsory process from the former owner then it will not be able to claim the property in England from the former owner or his successors in title unless it has had possession. If it has taken the property into its possession then its claim will be treated as depending on recognition; if it has not had possession it will be seeking to exercise its sovereign authority.
[149] But in these proceedings Iran does not assert a claim based on its compulsory acquisition from private owners. It asserts a claim based upon title to antiquities which form part of Iran’s national heritage, title conferred by legislation that is nearly 30 years old. This is a patrimonial claim, not a claim to enforce a public law or to assert sovereign rights. We do not consider that this is within the category of case where recognition of title or the right to possess under the foreign law depends on the state having taken possession.
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[150] In the United States the patrimonial rights of the foreign state have been recognised in the context of criminal proceedings, even where the state never had possession. In US v Schultz (2003) 333 F 3d 393 Schultz, a successful art dealer in New York City, was convicted of conspiracy to receive stolen property, Egyptian antiquities, which had been transported in interstate and foreign commerce. The underlying substantive offence was violation of the National Stolen Property Act. The Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit decided that an Egyptian patrimony law, declaring all antiquities found in Egypt after 1983 to be the property of the Egyptian government, had the effect of making the Egyptian government the owner of the antiquities, and that ‘ownership’ was recognised by the United States for the purposes of prosecution under the Act. Cf R v Tokeley-Parry [1999] Crim LR 578 (also a case of handling stolen Egyptian antiquities: conviction under Theft Act 1968 in relation to door taken from the tomb of Hetepka).
PUBLIC POLICY
[151] If we are wrong in the view that this is not a claim to enforce foreign public law, then we do not consider that it should be precluded by any general principle that this country will not entertain an action whose object is to enforce the public law of another state.
[152] Staughton J (as he then was) said at first instance in A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz [1982] 3 All ER 432 at 451, [1982] QB 349 at 371–372:
‘If the test is one of public policy, applied to the foreign law in question in this particular case, there is in my judgment every reason why the English courts should enforce s 12 of the Historic Articles Act 1962 of New Zealand. Comity requires that we should respect the national heritage of other countries, by according both recognition and enforcement to their laws which affect the title to property while it is within their territory. The hope of reciprocity is an additional ground of public policy leading to the same conclusion.’
[153] Ackner LJ accepted that if the test were one of public policy, there was no reason why the English courts should not enforce the New Zealand law (see [1982] 3 All ER 432 at 467, [1984] AC 1 at 34).
[154] In our judgment, there are positive reasons of policy why a claim by a state to recover antiquities which form part of its national heritage and which otherwise complies with the requirements of private international law should not be shut out by the general principle invoked by Barakat. Conversely, in our judgment it is certainly contrary to public policy for such claims to be shut out. A degree of flexibility in dealing with claims to enforce public law has been recommended by the Institut de droit international (in particular where it is justified by reason of the subject matter of the claim and the needs of international co-operation or the interests of the states concerned (see the Institut de droit international Annual (1977) vol 57-II, p 328) and the International Law Association (see Dicey pp 112–113 (para 5-040), n 80).
[155] There is international recognition that states should assist one another to prevent the unlawful removal of cultural objects including antiquities. There are a number of international instruments which have, in part, the purpose of preventing unlawful dealing in property which is part of the cultural heritage of states, although there still remains a question about their effectiveness. The United Kingdom is party to some of them.
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[156] On 1 August 2002 the United Kingdom ratified, with effect from 1 November 2002, the UNESCO convention. More than 100 states have ratified the convention, including Iran, which ratified it in 1975. The convention was implemented in the United States through the Cultural Property Implementation Act of 1983.
[157] By art 2 the parties recognise that the illicit import, export and transfer of ownership of cultural property is one of the main causes of the impoverishment of the cultural heritage of the countries of origin, and that international co-operation constitutes one of the most efficient means of protecting each country’s cultural property, and the parties undertake to oppose such practices with the means at their disposal. In art 3 the import, export or transfer of ownership of cultural property effected contrary to the provisions adopted under the convention by the parties, is to be illicit.
[158] By art 13:
‘The States Parties to this Convention also undertake, consistent with the laws of each State:
(a) To prevent by all appropriate means transfers of ownership of cultural property likely to promote the illicit import or export of such property;
(b) to ensure that their competent services co-operate in facilitating the earliest possible restitution of illicitly exported cultural property to its rightful owner . . .
(d) to recognize the indefeasible right of each State Party to this Convention to classify and declare certain cultural property as inalienable which should therefore ipso facto not be exported, and to facilitate recovery of such property by the State concerned in cases where it has been exported.’
[159] The obligations imposed by the convention are very general in character, and the obligation in art 13(d) is watered down by the phrase ‘consistent with the laws of each State’. Although the convention has been ratified by the United Kingdom government, no legislation has been introduced to implement it, apparently because the government is of the view that existing legislation is sufficient to enable the United Kingdom to comply with its obligations under the convention. The Dealing in Cultural Objects (Offences) Act 2003 gave legislative effect to a recommendation contained in the report produced by the Ministerial Advisory Panel on Illicit Trade (ITAP) published in December 2000. The effect of the 2003 Act is to provide for criminal offences in the case of dealing with cultural objects which have been illegally removed (after the Act came into force in December 2003) from an archaeological site (see ss 1(1), 2(1), (2), (4), (5)). It is immaterial whether the excavation was done in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, or whether the offence is committed under the law of a part of the United Kingdom or under the law of any other country (see s 2(3)).
[160] Council Directive (EEC) 93/7 on the return of cultural objects unlawfully removed from the territory of a member state was incorporated into English law with effect from 2 March 1994 by the Return of Cultural Objects Regulations 1994, SI 1994/501, as amended by SI 1997/1719 and SI 2001/3972. A member state has the right to take proceedings against the possessor, or failing him the holder, for the return of a cultural object which has been unlawfully removed from its territory: reg 3(1). The court may order the requesting member state to pay compensation: reg 7(1).
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[161] The UNIDROIT Convention on Stolen or Illegally Exported Cultural Objects was signed in June 1995. It came into force in 1998 when the necessary five ratifications had been effected. Under the UNIDROIT convention, a cultural object which has been unlawfully excavated, or lawfully excavated but unlawfully retained, shall be considered stolen: art 3(2). A contracting state may request the court of another contracting state to order the return of a cultural object illegally exported from the territory of the requesting state: art 5(1). Provision is made for compensation to be paid to innocent purchasers: arts 4 and 6(1). The UNIDROIT convention has been ratified by Iran and entered into force for it in December 2005. But it has not been ratified by many potentially importing countries, and the ITAP Report referred to above recommended against ratification by the United Kingdom.
[162] There is also a commonwealth scheme for the protection of the material cultural heritage, adopted in Mauritius in November 1993, following proposals made by the New Zealand government after the failure of its action in A-G of New Zealand v Ortiz. It is based on mutual recognition of export prohibitions, but it has not resulted in concrete action: see O’Keefe (1995) 44 ICLQ 147.
[163] None of these instruments directly affects the outcome of this appeal, but they do illustrate the international acceptance of the desirability of protection of the national heritage. A refusal to recognise the title of a foreign state, conferred by its law, to antiquities unless they had come into the possession of such state, would in most cases render it impossible for this country to recognise any claim by such a state to recover antiquities unlawfully exported to this country.
CONCLUSION
[164] For those reasons we reject Barakat’s submissions that Iran’s claim should be dismissed because Iran has never possessed the antiquities or on the ground that Iran’s claim is in reality an attempt to enforce Iran’s penal or public law.
[165] This appeal is allowed. The first preliminary issue should be answered: ‘Yes, by virtue of the provisions of Iranian law and, in particular, the Legal Bill of 1979’ and the second preliminary issue should be answered ‘Yes’.
Appeal allowed.
Rakesh Rajani Barrister.
Smithson and others v Hamilton
[2008] 1 All ER 1216
[2007] EWHC 2900 (Ch)
Categories: COMPANY; Other: EQUITY: PENSIONS: TRUSTS
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR ANDREW PARK
Hearing Date(s): 22–26 OCTOBER, 1, 2 NOVEMBER, 10 DECEMBER 2007
Trust and trustee – Trustees of company pension scheme – Mistake in rules of scheme – Whether mistaken rule void – Whether trustees having failed to take into account considerations which they ought to have taken into account or having taken into account considerations which they ought not to have taken into account.
Pension – Pension scheme – Company pension scheme – Mistake – Mistake in rules of scheme – Whether relief for mistake available in equity.
The claimants were the trustees and participating employers in a company pension scheme established in 1990 and the defendant was a representative deferred member of the scheme. The scheme had been formally established by an interim deed followed by a definitive deed adopting the scheme rules. The parties to the deed were the employer company and six individual trustees who were all officers or employees of the company. In 1999 the trustees became aware that there had been a mistake in the drafting in one of the rules of the scheme (the scheme rule) such that although the normal retirement date was 65 a deferred member who had attained the age of 60 could take an immediate pension without any requirement for consent and the pension would not be subject to actuarial reduction. The scheme rule therefore had significant advantageous consequences for deferred members once they had attained the age of 60 and correspondingly disadvantageous consequences for the participating employers upon whom all the additional costs would fall. The claimants sought, inter alia, the removal of the mistaken rule. The claimants did not apply for rectification but relied on the principle in Hastings-Bass (see Re Hastings-Bass (decd), IRC v Hastings-Bass [1974] 2 All ER 193), namely that where a trustee acted under a discretion given to him by the terms of the trust, but the effect of the exercise was different from that which he intended, the court would interfere with his action if it were clear that he would not have acted as he had done had he not failed to take into account considerations which he ought to have taken into account, or taken into account considerations which he ought not to have taken into account. In the alternative they sought relief in equity from the consequences of a mistake.
Held – (1) Where, as in the instant case, the appropriate remedy, if the conditions for it to be granted were present, would be an order of rectification making a modification, a Hastings-Bass order, which could not modify the scheme rule but only set it aside in its entirety, was not an acceptable alternative. Moreover, the rule in Hastings-Bass applied to things done by trustees, not to things done by settlors in the context of private trusts or by employers in the context of pension trusts and, in the instant case, the adoption of the deed and the scheme rules had been substantially the act of the principal employer not the act of the trustees. Nor did the rule apply to everything done by trustees but only to things done by them as respected which they had a fiduciary duty or responsibility to the
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beneficiaries and the circumstances had to have been such that a part of the trustees’ fiduciary duty or responsibility had been either to take into account a consideration which, in the event, they had failed to take into account, or to have refrained from taking into account a consideration, which in the event, they had taken into account. In the instant case, the role which the trustees had performed when they decided to accept the deed and scheme rules had not extended to identifying the deficiency in the scheme rule; their fiduciary responsibilities had been owed primarily to the members of the scheme and it was the principal employer, not the trustees, who ought to have taken into account the consideration that the scheme rule omitted any provision for actuarial reduction of a pension taken by a deferred member at an age between 60 and 65. Accordingly, the mistake in drafting could not be cured by means of the principle in Hastings-Bass (see [6], [60], [63], [66]–[72], [79], [80], [82], [86], [87], [92], [96]–[98], [103], [105], below); Re Hastings-Bass (decd), Hastings v Inland Revenue Comrs [1974] 2 All ER 193 and Sieff v Fox [2005] 3 All ER 693 applied.
(2) The doctrine of equitable relief for mistake had no application in the context of non-voluntary transactions such as pension schemes. A rule in a pension scheme could only be nullified for mistake if the mistake was as to the existence of some quality which made the thing without the quality essentially different from the thing as it was believed to be; in the instant case the scheme rules were still a pension scheme, albeit one which because of the mistake was going to be more expensive for the principal employer. Accordingly, the claim would be dismissed (see [107], [109]–[111], [114], [116], [118], [119], [121], [123], [146], below); Bell v Lever Bros Ltd [1931] All ER Rep 1 and Great Peace Shipping Ltd v Tsavliris Salvage (International) Ltd, The Great Peace [2002] 4 All ER 689 applied; dicta of Lawrence Collins J in AMP (UK) plc v Barker [2001] OPLR 197 at [84] and of Etherton J in Gallaher Ltd v Gallaher Pensions Ltd [2005] Pens LR 103 at [150]–[161] doubted.
Notes
For mistake: remedies; voluntary instruments, see 32 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2005 reissue) para 52, and for the ‘Hastings-Bass’ principle, see 48 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2007 reissue) para 977.
Cases referred to in judgment
AMP (UK) plc v Barker [2001] OPLR 197, [2001] Pens LR 77.
Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344, [1991] 2 WLR 72, [1990] ECR I-1889, ECJ.
Bell v Lever Bros Ltd [1932] AC 161, [1931] All ER Rep 1, HL.
BESTrustees v Stuart [2001] OPLR 341, [2001] Pens LR 283.
Burrell v Burrell [2005] EWHC 245 (Ch), [2005] STC 569.
Coloroll Pension Trustees Ltd v Russell Case C-200/91 [1995] All ER (EC) 23, [1995] ICR 179, [1994] ECR I-4389, ECJ.
Gallaher Ltd v Gallaher Pensions Ltd [2005] EWHC 42 (Ch), [2005] Pens LR 103.
Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338, [1990] 1 WLR 1304.
Great Peace Shipping Ltd v Tsavliris Salvage (International) Ltd, The Great Peace [2002] EWCA Civ 1407, [2002] 4 All ER 689, [2003] QB 679, [2002] 3 WLR 1617.
Hastings-Bass (decd), Re, Hastings v Inland Revenue Comrs [1974] 2 All ER 193, [1975] Ch 25, [1974] 2 WLR 904, CA.
Hood of Avalon (Lady) v Mackinnon [1909] 1 Ch 476.
Irish Pensions Trust Ltd v Central Remedial Clinic [2005] OPLR 137, Ir HC.
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Lansing Linde Ltd v Alber [2000] OPLR 1, [2000] Pens LR 15.
Mettoy Pension Trustees Ltd v Evans [1991] 2 All ER 513, [1990] 1 WLR 1587.
Ogilvie v Allen (1899) 15 TLR 294, HL.
Sieff v Fox [2005] EWHC 1312 (Ch), [2005] 3 All ER 693, [2005] 1 WLR 3811.
Solle v Butcher [1949] 2 All ER 1107, [1950] 1 KB 671, CA.
Spooner v British Telecommunications plc [2000] OPLR 189, [2000] Pens LR 65.
Turner v Turner [1983] 3 All ER 745, [1984] Ch 100, [1983] 3 WLR 896.
Claim and counter claim
The claimants, David Smithson, Ranjit Ramnani, Martin Stevenson, Miles Barnard, Jane Williams, Siemens Building Technologies Ltd, Siemens Building Technologies FE Ltd and Siemens plc, the trustees and participating employers of the Siemens Fire Safety and Security (PFP) Pension Scheme (the pension scheme), brought proceedings against David Hamilton, a deferred member of the pension scheme, as a representative defendant, seeking a declaration that r 3.5.2.1 of the pension scheme was void or relief in equity from mistake. The defendant counterclaimed to set aside the use by the Rules of the pension scheme of a normal retirement age of 65 or for a declaration that the Rules were void in their entirety. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Paul Newman (instructed by Wragge & Co) for the claimants.
Nicolas Stallworthy (instructed by Field Fisher Waterhouse) for the defendant.
Judgment was reserved.
10 December 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
SIR ANDREW PARK.
ABBREVIATIONS, GLOSSARY, DRAMATIS PERSONAE, ETC
[1] These are as follows.
Allen, Ms Gill Allen; personnel manager of PFPL at the time when the PFP scheme was established; also a trustee of the scheme at the earlier times relevant to this case.
Aon Aon Consulting Ltd, the name by which the company formerly known as Godwins (see below) is now known.
Barber The case of Barber v Guardian Royal Exchange Assurance Group Case C-262/88 decided by the ECJ on 17 May 1990; reported at (among other places) [1990] 2 All ER 660, [1991] 1 QB 344.
Barber window See the explanation in para [21] of this judgment.
Darbon, Mr Bernard Darbon; one of the original trustees of the PFPL pension scheme; a witness.
definitive deed The deed dated 1 June 1992 which superseded the interim deed (see below) and brought into effect the attached rules of the PFP scheme.
ECJ, the The Court of Justice of the European Communities
Mr JT Evans, employed in the consultancy division of Godwins (later Aon); a witness.
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Godwins Godwins Ltd, a company carrying on business as, among other things, pension consultants; later renamed Aon Consulting Ltd.
Hamilton, Mr David Hamilton; the representative defendant; a deferred member of the PFP scheme; a witness.
Hastings-Bass Sometimes a reference to the case of Re Hastings-Bass (decd), Hastings v Inland Revenue Comrs [1974] 2 All ER 193, [1975] Ch 25; sometimes a reference to the rule (or the principle) in Hastings-Bass, the scope and application of which is a major issue in this case.
Holmes, Mr Michael John Holmes, managing director of PFPL in the first part of the 1990s; a trustee of the PFP scheme; a witness.
interim deed, the A deed dated 30 March 1990 which established the PFP scheme and provided for it to be regulated on an interim basis until it was superseded by the definitive deed.
Kelly, Glenys Former secretary of Mr Holmes; a trustee of the PFP scheme at relevant times; has made a witness statement to the effect that she remembers little or nothing about the subject matter of this case.
Kidde Walter Kidde plc; a company which sold part of its business to PFPL in November 1989.
KPMG Successor to Godwins as administrator of the PFP scheme.
Main, Mr Actuary to the PFP scheme in the early 1990s; a witness.
Newman, Mr Paul Newman; counsel for the claimants.
Perrett, Mr Finance director of PFPL and a trustee of the PFP scheme at relevant times; a witness.
PFPL The seventh claimant; a company originally called Preussag Fire Protection Ltd; purchased part of the business of Kidde in November 1989; ‘the Principal Employer’ under the PFP scheme; now called Siemens Building Technologies FE Ltd.
PFP scheme, the The pension scheme some aspects of which are the subject matter of this case; stated in the definitive deed to be known as the Preussag Fire Protection Pension Scheme.
r 3.5.2.1 Rule or subrule contained in the rules of the PFP scheme; at the centre of the issues raised by the claim.
Shurville, Mr Stephen Shurville; at relevant times assistant director in the legal and documentation division of Godwins; the principal draftsman of the definitive deed and rules of the PFP scheme; a witness.
Sieff v Fox Case decided by Lloyd LJ (having been heard by him before he became elevated to the Court of Appeal); neutral citation [2005] EWHC 1312 (Ch); reported at (among other places) [2005] 3 All ER 693, [2005] 1 WLR 3811. Lloyd LJ’s judgment contains a detailed analysis of the rule (or principle) in Hastings-Bass.
Stallworthy, Mr Nicolas Stallworthy, counsel for Mr Hamilton, the representative defendant.
Whiting, Mr David Whiting; one of the original trustees of the PFPL pension scheme; a witness.
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INTRODUCTION AND OVERVIEW
[2] This is a case about a company pension scheme. The scheme is now known as the Siemens Fire Safety and Security (PFP) Pension Scheme, but at the times which were mainly relevant to the case it was known as the Preussag Fire Protection Pension Scheme. In general in this judgment I shall simply refer to it as the scheme, but occasionally, if it might not be clear whether I am referring to this particular scheme or not, I shall use the expression ‘the PFP scheme’. The first to fifth claimants are the current trustees of the scheme.
[3] Typically a pension scheme is established by an employer company, and there are one or more participating employers during its existence. This scheme was established by a company which at the time was called Preussag Fire Protection Ltd and (having been acquired by the Siemens group in 2001) now is called Siemens Building Technologies FE Ltd. Since most of the events relevant to this case occurred before 2001 I will refer to it in this judgment as PFPL. That company is the seventh claimant, and it is still a participating employer under the scheme. I think I am right that originally it was the only participating employer. There are now two more, and they are the sixth and eighth claimants.
[4] Another typical, though not inevitable, feature of a company pension scheme is that it has trustees. In broad terms the responsibility of the trustees is to administer the scheme and, in the course of doing so, to ensure that the pension benefits for which the scheme provides are duly paid. The first to fifth claimants are the present trustees of the scheme.
[5] The case involves a claim and a counterclaim. The claim is brought by the participating companies and the trustees of the scheme. The defendant, Mr David Hamilton, is sued as a representative deferred member of the scheme. (The expression ‘deferred member’ will be familiar to many—I suspect most—readers of this judgment. For readers to whom it is not familiar I give a brief explanation later: see [13](iii), below.) At the heart of the claim is an assertion by the claimants that something went wrong in the drafting of the scheme, and that one of the provisions in the rules governing the scheme confers an unintentionally over-generous benefit on a particular kind of deferred member. The claimants say that the provision was a mistake, and they wish to have it removed.
[6] Initially the claimants relied exclusively on the principle, developed in a series of relatively recent cases, which has come to be known as the principle (or the rule) in Hastings-Bass. (The name is derived from the case of Re Hastings-Bass (decd), Hastings v Inland Revenue Comrs [1974] 2 All ER 193, [1975] Ch 25.) For the reasons which I will explain in this judgment I consider that that argument on the part of the claimants cannot succeed. In the course of the trial Mr Newman, counsel for the claimants, indicated that, while the foremost basis of his submissions remains the Hastings-Bass principle, he wished additionally or alternatively to seek relief in equity from the consequences of a mistake. In this respect he prays in aid a principle which has been applied in several cases, a well-known one being Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338, [1990] 1 WLR 1304, a decision of Millett J. I gave permission for the particulars of claim to be amended, but I am unable to accept this argument either. For the reasons which I will explain as this judgment progresses, I conclude that the claim advanced by the participating companies and the trustees fails.
[7] The counterclaim was introduced not long before the case was due to come to trial. It raises issues which in some respects are more far-reaching than the comparatively narrow (but difficult and, for PFPL, potentially costly) issue
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raised by the claim. The claim is a challenge to a single provision of the rules which govern the scheme. The counterclaim is a challenge to far more than that.
[8] There are two elements of the counterclaim. One is a challenge to the adoption by the rules of a normal retirement age of 65 for the purpose of determining the rate at which prospective pension benefits accrue. On behalf of the representative defendant it is argued that the use by the rules of that age should be set aside by virtue of the rule in Hastings-Bass. The argument, if correct, would have a radical impact on the benefits provided by the scheme and on the cost to PFPL and the other participating employers of putting the trustees in funds to provide them. The second element in the counterclaim goes yet further, and asserts that the rules adopted for the scheme by a definitive deed made by PFPL and the trustees in 1992 are void in their entirety. The effect if the argument was correct would be that the scheme would continue to be governed in part by an interim deed (of which more later) which the definitive deed and rules of 1992 were intended to supersede, and in part by a decision of the ECJ given in 1990.
[9] For the reasons which I will explain as this judgment progresses I do not accept either element of the counterclaim, which therefore fails.
[10] In the regrettably long judgment which follows I first make some general points and then I give an account of the relevant facts. I shall then consider the arguments which arise from the claim and explain my reasons for not accepting it. Finally I shall deal with the counterclaim and explain my reasons for not accepting that either.
[11] I record that Mr Paul Newman appeared for the claimants, and that Mr Nicolas Stallworthy appeared for the representative defendant. They are both formidable experts in all aspects of the law relating to pension schemes, and I am grateful for their help and guidance in this difficult and demanding case. A feature of the case has been that each counsel was pressing upon me his own Hastings-Bass argument. I do not know whether that inhibited either of them from opposing some of the arguments being advanced by his opponent. I did feel from time to time that I was ploughing a lone furrow in querying some aspects of the submissions that the Hastings-Bass principle was applicable to particular events that had occurred.
PENSION SCHEMES: SOME GENERAL POINTS
[12] Before I come to the specific issues presented by the case it may be helpful to sketch in some background features which commonly arise in pension schemes. There are three features which I wish to identify.
Kinds of members of pension schemes
[13] Actual or prospective pensioners are commonly described as members of their schemes. There are three main kinds of members, usually referred to as pensioner members, active members (or simply ‘actives’), and deferred members (or simply ‘deferreds’). (i) Pensioner members are pensioners who have retired and whose pensions are already in payment. This case is not primarily concerned with the treatment of pensioner members under the PFP scheme, though it could affect the rate at which some parts of their pensions are taken to have accrued. (ii) Active members are current employees of a participating employer who have not yet retired and whose pensions are not yet in payment. This case is not concerned with the treatment of them under this scheme (or at least it is not directly so concerned). (iii) Deferred members are former active members of
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a scheme who have ceased to be employees of a participating employer, who remain entitled under the rules of the scheme to receive pensions in future, but who have not commenced to receive them yet. A conventional example is someone who was employed by a participating employer under a scheme and was an active member of that scheme, but who has left the employment and taken a job elsewhere before he or she has reached the qualifying retirement age specified in the scheme. In such a case statute law generally requires that he or she should have ‘preserved rights’. One thing that he or she can do is to stay in the scheme, but as a deferred member. In that case he or she remains prospectively entitled to a future pension under the scheme of the former employer. Typically the pension will become payable when the deferred member reaches the qualifying retirement age under the scheme. The part of this case which deals with the claim is concerned with one aspect of the pensions payable to deferred pensioners under the PFP scheme.
The age or ages at which a pension can come into payment; actuarial reductions of pensions taken early
[14] The second feature of pension schemes which I wish to highlight concerns the age at which a pension can commence, and the possibility of the amount of it being reduced if the pensioner commences to receive it sooner rather than later. It is usual, and happened in the case of the PFP scheme, for a scheme to provide for what is often called a normal retirement date or a normal retirement age. If an active member retires on or after his or her normal retirement date or age, he or she will typically become entitled to receive the full pension which has accrued to him or her over the length of time that he or she has been a member of the scheme.
[15] Further, a scheme will in all probability provide for what happens if a member retires before the normal retirement date or normal retirement age specified in the scheme. Provisions about an active member becoming a deferred member are one aspect of this. However, for present purposes I need to highlight provisions which provide that a member can retire before the normal date or age under the rules of the scheme and still be entitled to an immediate pension rather than a preserved pension. A common example is a scheme which provides for a normal retirement date of the member’s 65th birthday, but which contains an additional provision that, if the member chooses to retire at or after the age of 60, he or she can commence to draw a pension immediately. Sometimes the rules will provide that a member may only receive an immediate pension in such circumstances if the employer consents. Alternatively or additionally the rules may provide that, although the pension will or may commence to be payable immediately on retirement before the normal date, the amount of the pension will be actuarially reduced to reflect the fact that it is commencing to be paid sooner rather than later.
[16] For example, the rules of two schemes may each provide for a normal retirement date of a member’s 65th birthday, and also may each provide that a member may, if he or she chooses, retire at or after the age of 60 and draw an immediate pension. But the rules of one of the two schemes may provide that a member who retires early in such a case will have his or her pension actuarially reduced, whereas the rules of the other scheme may provide that the member will receive his or her full pension without actuarial reduction. As I will explain, that distinction (between a rule that does and a rule that does not provide for actuarial reduction of a pension commencing before normal retirement date) is
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at the heart of the claim in this case. A rule which does not provide for actuarial reduction is significantly more beneficial to pensioners and significantly more expensive for participating employers.
Male and female members of schemes; the Barber case; ‘equalisation’
[17] The third feature of pension schemes which I wish to identify here concerns differences or similarities between the entitlements of male and female employees. Before the decision of the ECJ in Barber (see the glossary at [1], above) many schemes had different normal retirement ages for males and females: often 65 for males but 60 for females. All of that was fundamentally affected by the ECJ decision, which was released on 17 May 1990.
[18] The Barber case concerned a pension scheme which had an age 65 normal retirement date for males and an age 60 normal retirement date for females. The effect was that males had a less favourable pension accrual than females. The ECJ held that that was a form of discrimination contrary to an article of the EC treaty. From the date of the decision pension accrual had to take place at the same rate for males and females. That applied both to new schemes and to existing schemes, but in the case of existing schemes it applied only to accrual of future pension benefits from 17 May 1990. (This last point—that the decision did not have a retrospective effect on accrual which had already taken place under existing schemes—was not entirely clear from the Barber case itself, but was confirmed by another ECJ decision a few years later: Coloroll Pension Trustees Ltd v Russell Case C-200/91 [1995] All ER (EC) 23, [1995] ICR 179.)
[19] If an existing scheme had differential normal retirement dates (as many schemes did, including the scheme involved in the Barber case itself) the effect for the future was that Community law overrode the terms of the scheme, and pension accrual for all active and deferred members had to take place at the more favourable of the two rates unless and until the scheme was amended to have the same normal retirement date for both sexes.
[20] Most schemes were amended in the years after the Barber decision, a process which is generally referred to as equalisation. If an existing scheme had normal retirement ages of 60 for females and 65 for males the ECJ judgment meant that, until equalisation took place, male members (except pensioner members whose pensions were already in payment) benefited because their rates of pension accrual, instead of being calculated by reference to a normal retirement age of 65 (which was what the scheme rules said), were calculated by reference to a normal retirement age of 60.
[21] What happened after equalisation depended on what form equalisation took. If males and females were equalised through both having, under the amended rules of the scheme, normal retirement ages of 65, male members’ pension accrual rates for the future were calculated by reference to that age. So for periods after equalisation the position for them was probably restored to what it had been before the Barber decision. But they did not lose the advantage of the more favourable accrual that had taken place in the period from 17 May 1990 until equalisation. That period is commonly referred to by specialists as the Barber window. The position of female members would be less favourable if there was equalisation at 65. Under the pre-Barber and pre-equalisation rules their pension accrual rates probably provided full pensions at age 60, but equalisation at 65 meant that, from the time of equalisation on, they would have an accrual which was less favourable because it was by reference to a period which was five years longer.
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[22] There is one other point which, for completeness, I mention in connection with equalisation. Although I shall be concentrating in this judgment on equalisation either at 60 or at 65, it was possible for males and females to be equalised in other ways, for example by the choice of an intermediate date falling anywhere between 60 and 65.
THE PROBLEM PRESENTED BY THE RULES OF THE PFP SCHEME
[23] In this part of my judgment I will describe the specific problem which has been identified in the rules of the PFP scheme, and which the participating companies and the trustees wish to have removed. In the next part of the judgment I will seek to put the problem in its context by outlining the relevant facts in this case. I believe that the significance of the facts will emerge more clearly if I have already explained what it is about the rules which the claimants say is a mistake and which they want, either under the Hastings-Bass principle or by way of relief in equity for mistake, to have corrected.
[24] The PFP scheme was established on 1 April 1990 by a deed described as an interim deed. However, the full rules of the scheme were introduced by a definitive deed dated 1 June 1992 and expressed to have retrospective effect. The parties to the definitive deed are PFPL, described as the principal employer and being (I imagine but am not sure) the only employer at the time, and the trustees of the scheme. The only operative provision of the deed itself is the following:
‘DECLARATION
The Principal Employer and the Trustees declare that this deed is intended to be the Definitive Deed and the attached rules are intended to be the Rules referred to in clause 5 of the Interim Deed and shall take effect from 1 April 1990 in place of the provisions of the Interim Deed and its Schedules.’
Detailed rules follow. There are 32 of them and they occupy 72 double-spaced pages. Most of them are not affected by the issues in this case.
[25] I will now set out the provisions which are relevant to this case, occasionally commenting on them in the course of doing so. It may be helpful for me to say now that ultimately the issue with which I am concerned on the claim arises under r 3.5.2.1, and concerns whether pensions payable to deferred members on retirement after attaining 60 but before age 65 are subject to actuarial reduction. However, r 3.5.2.1 needs to be placed in its context, so I will set out certain of the other rules and make some observations about them before coming to r 3.5.2.1 itself.
(i) Definitions are in r 32. I need only quote one of them:
‘“Normal Retirement Date” is a Member’s
(i) 65th birthday, if a male, or if a female whose Pensionable Service ends after 31 March 1992, or
(ii) 60th birthday, if a female whose Pensionable Service ends before 1 April 1992.’
It is convenient for me to observe here that the decision had been taken to equalise the treatment of male and female members by adopting a common normal retirement age for both of 65, and that that revised treatment would commence on 1 April 1992. Although the definitive deed and its rules were not executed until 1 June 1992, the decision to equalise by reference to a common age of 65 for both sexes had been taken before 1 April 1992 and had been notified to members of the scheme. The essence of the definition is that the normal
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retirement date for all members, male and female alike, is the 65th birthday. The complications in the drafting arise only because the rules took retrospective effect back to 1 April 1990, and there had to be a special saving for females who had retired between that date and 1 April 1992.
(ii) Rule 3.1 contains the basic rule for a member who retires at normal retirement date.
‘3.1 If a Member’s Pensionable Service and Service end at Normal Retirement Date he will be entitled to a pension payable for his life equal to [a formula set out in the rule].’
(iii) Rule 3.2 is headed ‘Early Retirement’. It contains several provisions about circumstances in which a pension may become payable on retirement before the member’s normal retirement date. The following quotation is only a small part of the rule, but it is sufficient for the purposes of this judgment.
‘3.2 A Member may receive an immediate pension . . . if he retires from Pensionable Service and Service before Normal Retirement Date
3.2.1 for any reason after attaining age 60 . . .
The pension shall be calculated as described in rule 3.6 (preserved pension) and reduced Actuarially to take account of early payment.’
The critical point for this case is that, if an active member retired before age 65 but at or after age 60 he could draw an immediate pension without needing the employer’s consent, but his pension would be subject to actuarial adjustment. I mention for completeness that a later subrule of r 3.2 disapplies the actuarial reduction of a r 3.2 pension in two cases. One is for males retiring after reaching age 60, but only in respect of any pension that accrued to them in the ‘Barber window’ (which meant in their case the period from 17 May 1990 to 31 March 1992). The other is for females retiring between ages 60 and 65, but only in respect of any pension that accrued to them up to 31 March 1992. These detailed points do not impact on the issues which I have to decide.
(iv) Rule 3.5.1 is headed ‘Entitlement to preserved pension’. It does not use the term ‘deferred member’, but it is directed at the treatment of deferred members within the meaning that I have described at [13](iii), above. Its effect, standing alone, is that deferred members who complete at least two years qualifying service with PFPL (or with PFPL and Kidde in the case of Kidde employees who transferred from the Kidde pension scheme to the PFP scheme—see [34], below) will be entitled to receive their preserved pensions under the PFP scheme from the age of 65. (In relation to Kidde, see the Abbreviations, etc at [1], above). Rule 3.5.1 is as follows:
‘3.5.1 A Member whose Pensionable Service ends before Normal Retirement Date will be entitled to a preserved pension calculated under rule 3.6 and payable from Normal Retirement Date if . . . he has completed at least 2 years’ Qualifying Service . . .’
(v) However, the rules go on to provide for the possibility of early or late payment of a preserved pension. Rule 3.5.2 is headed ‘Early and late payment of preserved pension’. That means earlier or later than the time provided for in r 3.5.1. As I have just described, the time so provided for is the deferred member’s 65th birthday. Rule 3.5.2 begins with ‘If’, but the condition which follows will be satisfied in all realistic circumstances, and I can ignore it for the purposes of this case. Rule 3.5.2.1 contains provisions describing circumstances in which a
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preserved pension may become payable to a member earlier than his or her 65th birthday, and r 3.5.2.2 contains provisions describing circumstances in which a preserved pension may become payable to a member later than his or her 65th birthday. It is r 3.5.2.1 which has given rise to the issue in this case. The issue arises in the case of deferred members who are between the ages of 60 and 65. I now reproduce r 3.5.2.1:
‘A Member who is no longer an Employee may receive his preserved pension after reaching age 60, or, with his Employer’s and the Trustees’ agreement, between the ages of 50 and 60 or at any time if he is in ill-health (see rule 3.2.2) but, if the pension is received before reaching age 60, it shall be reduced actuarially under rule 3.2 to take account of early payment . . .’
[26] The rule clearly and unmistakably provides: (a) that a deferred member who has attained the age of 60 can take an immediate pension; (b) that he or she does not need any consent to do that (in contrast to the limited cases where the rule provides for a pension to be paid to a deferred member who is less than 60 years old); and (c), crucially for this case, that the pension is not subject to actuarial reduction. If r 3.5.2.1 stands and takes effect according to its terms it has significantly advantageous consequences for deferred members once they have attained the age of 60, and correspondingly has significantly disadvantageous consequences for the employing company: the company is obliged to fund the scheme so that it (the scheme) can meet its liabilities to pensioners. It is accepted by Mr Newman that the word ‘may’ in the first line of the rule gives a discretion to the member to require early payment of his or her pension, but does not give a discretion to the trustees or to the employer to refuse early payment of the pension to a member who is 60 or older and who does require payment of it.
[27] There is, as it seems to me, a difference between the qualitative character of the feature of the scheme which I have described and its quantitative impact. Admittedly the feature that a deferred member, like an active member, can commence to draw his pension at 60 without needing the employer’s consent but, unlike an active member, does not have the pension actuarially reduced is anomalous and out of line. But qualitatively I cannot see it as going to the heart of the benefit structure created by the scheme. It gives the impression of being a detailed matter where the rule is not quite right and needs changing. It does not give the impression of being fundamental.
[28] Quantitatively, however, this apparently minor anomaly in the drafting of the rules was and is capable of having a major impact on the cost of the scheme to the employing company. The cost would be comparatively modest if the operation of r 3.5.2.1 was confined to what might be described as conventional deferred members: members who left the service of PFPL some time ago to work for another employer and who later reached the age of 60. It is unlikely that there would be enough such members for the cost of their deferred pensions commencing on an unreduced basis at age 60 rather than 65 to be substantial. However, the major problem is that the rules are so formulated that a similar effect can be achieved by active members as well, as long as they are prepared to retire at 60 rather than at 65.
[29] Assume a PFPL employee who is an active member of the scheme, who has just become 60, and who is considering retiring and drawing his pension. The rule which is intended to cater for him is r 3.2 (see [25](iii), above). If he proceeds under that rule he is entitled to an immediate pension, but it will be reduced actuarially to take account of it coming into payment five years early. However,
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it is possible for him to do the following. He retires from employment with PFPL, and notifies the company and the scheme trustees that he does not wish to receive an immediate pension under r 3.2. He can do that because of the word ‘may’ at the beginning of the rule (see [26], above). Quite soon afterwards he notifies the company and the trustees that he requires to be paid an immediate pension, not under r 3.2, but under r 3.5.2.1. A glance at the wording of r 3.5.2.1 will show that he can do that (1) because he is no longer an employee; (2) because he has reached age 60; and (3) because of the word ‘may’, which appears in r 3.5.2.1 as well as in r 3.2. As explained in [26], above, Mr Newman accepts that a member of the scheme who calls for his pension is entitled to receive it, and ‘may’ does not mean that the trustees or the company have any discretion to refuse to pay it. And the critical point is that, in the case of a member who is already aged 60 when he calls for payment of his r 3.5.2.1 pension (in contrast to the case of members below that age), there is no provision for the pension to be reduced actuarially by reason of its coming into payment five years early.
[30] The potential cost of the rule, and its possible manipulation in the manner which I have just described, is a serious matter. Mr Paul Main was the actuary with Godwins at the time of the definitive deed. He gave evidence that, if it had been appreciated that active members as well as deferred members could, by the manoeuvre which I have described, retire at 60 on full pension, the additional liability would at that time have had a value of £400,000, and the employer’s contributions to the scheme, which had been estimated at 13·9 per cent of members’ pensionable earnings, would have increased to 22·3 per cent. (I should mention that Mr Stallworthy made submissions that in some respects Mr Main’s figures, on this and some other matters, were overly pessimistic. The submissions do not affect my conclusions. The company and the trustees certainly think that the consequences of r 3.5.2.1, if it takes effect according to its terms, are serious enough to justify this case having been brought, and I do not propose to second-guess them on that, particularly in the absence of any expert evidence called on behalf of the defendant.)
[31] Mr Paul Bamford is the current scheme actuary. He gives evidence that, if the relief sought in this case is not granted, the true cost to the scheme at 1 July 2006 (and, through the scheme, to the participating companies) would be £1,525,000 on an ongoing basis and £1,873,000 on a discontinuance basis. Mr Bamford has assumed that all deferred members of the scheme would take the option to claim an unreduced pension at 60, and also (more significantly) that all active members would take the same option by proceeding as I described in [29], above. I am in no position to question that it is correct under actuarial principles to make those assumptions, but it does seem to me that the figures have been calculated on a ‘worst case’ basis. In particular I can imagine that some actives would prefer to work on at full salary to 65 even if it was possible for them to retire at 60 on a full pension. Nevertheless, I do accept that, if r 3.5.2.1 remains in the scheme and takes effect according to its terms, the additional costs falling on the scheme will be substantial.
[32] It may be appropriate to add here a point which I will return to later: the additional costs will fall entirely on the participating companies. Under the rules of the scheme the contributions of the employees are fixed at five per cent of their pensionable salaries, and the employers are required to contribute the remainder of what is needed for the trustees to pay the pensions and other expenditures of the scheme. So if the benefits provided by the scheme turn out to be more costly
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than had been anticipated, the contributions to the scheme by employees do not go up but the contributions by the participating employers do.
THE RELEVANT FACTS IN THIS CASE
[33] Having identified in the previous section of this judgment the effect of r 3.5.2.1 and the potentially serious consequences of it for the employing companies, I will now describe the historical and factual context.
[34] PFPL commenced business in the supply of fire protection systems and equipment in this country in late 1989. It was a subsidiary of the Preussag group, which was based in Germany. It did not establish a new business, but rather acquired one division of the business or businesses carried on by Kidde. Some 250 employees of Kidde transferred and became employees of PFPL. Kidde had a pension scheme, and 61 of the transferring employees were active members of it. PFPL was to have its own pension scheme, and the policy was that the scheme should at least match the benefits of the Kidde scheme. There was a short period after the business transfer and before the commencement of PFPL’s own scheme while the transferring members of the Kidde scheme remained with that scheme.
[35] I should mention that the members of the Kidde scheme who were not employed in the division of Kidde’s business that was transferred to PFPL continued to be members of the Kidde pension scheme. As it happened that scheme closed soon afterwards and its members became members of a scheme called the Williams Holdings pension scheme. I imagine that Kidde was a member of a group of which the principal member was a company called Williams Holdings. From time to time in the course of the hearing before me comparisons were made between the treatments over the years of members of the PFP scheme and of members of the Williams Holdings scheme. I shall not examine those matters in this judgment, because in my view they are not of sufficient relevance.
[36] PFPL’s own scheme, which is the PFP scheme involved in this case, was established on 1 April 1990. Its initial members were (1) the former members of the Kidde scheme who had become employees of PFPL, and (2) any new employees of PFPL who had joined the company on the basis that they would be members of its pension scheme. As it happens Mr Hamilton, the representative defendant in this case, was one of those new employees of PFPL. The PFP scheme took over the accrued pension liabilities to the former Kidde scheme members. It granted them credit under its scheme for their periods of service as members of the Kidde scheme, and it received an appropriate transfer of funds from the Kidde scheme for the liabilities which it was assuming.
[37] The PFP scheme was formally established by an interim deed dated 30 March 1990. The parties to the deed were PFPL and six individual trustees who were all officers or employees of the company. A full scale (‘definitive’) deed to regulate the scheme was still in preparation. Clause 5(a) of the interim deed is as follows:
‘The Principal Company and the Trustees undertake that they will within 24 months of the date of this Deed make a Definitive Deed adopting rules (“the Rules”) under which the Scheme and the Fund shall be administered from the Scheme’s commencement date.’
As the closing words indicate, the definitive deed, when executed, would operate retrospectively, but something was needed to regulate the rights of members in
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the interim period. In the main that was accomplished by cl 6(E) of the interim deed:
‘6. INTERIM POWERS OF THE TRUSTEES
(E) Explanatory Literature
The Trustees shall administer the Scheme in accordance with the explanatory literature given or to be given to persons who are eligible for membership of the Scheme, a copy of which is attached to this Deed, outlining the benefits and contributions under the Scheme in respect of them and in accordance with any further explanatory literature issued to members by the Principal Company.’
So far as relevant to this case the explanatory literature provided for differential normal retirement dates: age 65 for males and age 60 for females. It also said that members of the scheme could, if PFPL agreed, receive pensions on retiring at age 50 or above (or earlier in cases of ill health), but in that case the pensions would be reduced ‘to account for early payment’.
[38] That was how matters stood on 1 April 1990. They did not stand that way for long, because only about six weeks later the ECJ released its decision in the Barber case. I identify three main effects for the PFP scheme. (i) Since differential normal retirement dates for males and females were now known to be contrary to Community law the definitive deed, when it came into effect, would plainly need to equalise the treatments of males and females. (Or, to be more theoretically precise, if the definitive deed did not provide for equal retirement dates for males and females, the Barber decision would override the deed; Barber would impose a common retirement age; and that age would be the lower of the two for which the deed provided. In practice the definitive deed would undoubtedly equalise the retirement ages.) (ii) Unless and until the definitive deed provided otherwise female members of the scheme would carry on accruing their pensions by reference to a normal retirement date of age 60, as had been the position before the Barber decision. Their rights might be changed by equalisation when it happened, but they were not changed by the decision. (iii) Unless and until the definitive deed provided otherwise, the position of male members was changed by the Barber decision, and changed to their advantage. Before Barber, by reason of the interim deed and the ‘explanatory literature’, they would need to remain in service until 65 to accrue full pensions. After Barber they were in their ‘Barber window’, and future accrual would be by reference to a normal retirement date of only 60.
[39] It took about two years to prepare and execute the definitive deed. PFPL and the trustees of the scheme were advised by Godwins Ltd, a company carrying on business as independent financial advisers, actuaries, and employee benefit consultants. (The company is now called Aon Consulting Ltd, doubtless in consequence of a change of ownership.) Mr Evans of Godwins was in contact from time to time with the finance director of PFPL, Mr Perrett, and the personnel manager, Ms Allen. Mr Shurville of Godwins was the principal draftsman of the deed. I do not need at this point to go into any of the detailed exchanges between Godwins and PFPL, though I will refer to one or two aspects of them later when discussing the contested issues in the case.
[40] The company decided to equalise the retirement ages of male and female members of the scheme at 65. There is evidence that this was in line with what was done in most company pension schemes. A circular from the company to members of the scheme, apparently distributed at some time in February 1992
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(see the last paragraph of a letter from Ms Allen, the personnel manager of PFPL and also a trustee of the scheme, to Mr Evans of Godwins dated 10 February 1992), notified members that with effect from 1 April 1992 ‘Normal Retirement Date for all members will be the 65th birthday’. I add the observation that this seems clearly to have been regarded by PFPL as a company decision to be taken by it. There is no evidence that the trustees of the scheme had been involved so far.
[41] There were six trustees at the time. They were: (i) Mr Holmes, the managing director of PFPL at the time. (ii) Mr Perrett, the finance director of PFPL. (iii) Ms Allen, the personnel manager. (iv) Glenys Kelly (now Mrs Brown), at the time Mr Holmes’s secretary. Mr Holmes states that she was made a trustee with a view to being representative of head office staff. (v) Mr Whiting, who (as Mr Holmes states) was a trustee to represent the field staff involved on installation and maintenance of equipment supplied by PFPL to customers. (vi) Mr Darbon, who (again as Mr Holmes states) was a trustee from the production centre representing the membership employed on the shop floor.
[42] There was a meeting on 1 March 1992, attended by Mr Holmes, Mr Perrett, Miss Kelly and Ms Allen. Mr Whiting and Mr Darbon were not there. The minutes, so far as relevant, state:
‘A brief meeting was held to discuss and agree the following points:–
Equalisation of Pension Ages
After consultation with our adviser, Godwins, it was decided that the Normal Retirement Age for men and women should be age 65 and the Scheme Rules are to be amended accordingly from 01.04.92.’
It is not altogether clear from the minutes whether or not the meeting was perceived as a meeting of the trustees. As I have said above Mr Whiting and Mr Darbon were not there, and there was nothing in the interim deed (nor is there anything in the definitive deed either) which enabled the trustees to act by a majority. However, the minutes are headed ‘Preussag Fire Protection Pension Scheme’, and the minutes of a later meeting on 14 May 1992 (see [44], below), which certainly was a meeting of the trustees, include this sentence: ‘The minutes of previous Meeting on 1/3/92 were agreed.’
[43] The documents show that by the beginning of April 1992 Mr Shurville of Godwins had drafted the definitive deed and the rules, and that PFPL, through Ms Allen, had notified Godwins that the company approved them.
[44] There was a meeting of the trustees of the scheme on 14 May 1992. This is the later meeting which I mentioned in [42], above. Two paragraphs of the minutes are relevant, as follows:
‘1 Trust Deed and Rules
All Trustees present signed and approved the definitive Trust Deed and Rules. B Darbon is currently on holiday but will sign on his return . . .
5 Equalisation of Pension Ages
The change to equal retirement age for men and women at 65 has been agreed and implemented within the company. No problem has arisen over this change. However, it was agreed that the Pension Handbook and Staff Hand Book should have a printed addendum inserted stating the above change.’
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Mr Darbon did return from holiday and sign the deed. He confirms in his witness statement that he and Ms Allen had spoken before he went away, and that he had told her then that he would sign the deed when he got back.
[45] The definitive deed, executed on behalf of PFPL and signed by all six trustees as I have described, was dated 1 June 1992, and came into force retrospectively back to 1 April 1990, superseding the interim deed. The rules attached to the definitive deed contained the provisions in r 3 which I described at [25], above. In particular they contained r 3.5.2.1, which as drafted had the potentially costly consequences which I explained at [28]–[31], above: deferred members of the scheme could take their preserved pensions at age 60 without any actuarial reduction for early payment; further, active members of the scheme could effectively put themselves in the same position by retiring, not taking the reduced pensions which they could have taken under r 3.2, and shortly afterwards calling for the payment of unreduced pensions under r 3.5.2.1.
[46] However, those effects of the rule were not appreciated at the time or for about seven years after the execution of the definitive deed. I think I am right that Godwins acted as administrators of the scheme on behalf of the trustees. On the rare occasions when a deferred member elected to take his preserved pension at 60 Godwins and the trustees operated the scheme on the basis that the pension was subject to actuarial reduction. As far as I know there was no case when an astute active member of the scheme sought to take an unreduced pension at 60 by the technique which I described at [29], above.
[47] There is some doubt about when it was that the problem created by r 3.5.2.1 was first noticed, but it seems likely to have been in 1999. Godwins (by then known as Aon) had ceased to be the scheme administrators and their place had been taken by KPMG. A minute of a trustees’ meeting of 19 May 1999 records that the KPMG representative in attendance drew the apparent meaning of r 3.5.2.1 to the attention of the trustees. The minute includes this: ‘It is likely that this was a drafting error at outset; however the trustees noticed the position and will address the issue in due course.’
[48] I feel sure that the point which KPMG had raised caused some consternation, but nothing specific was done about it for some two years. Some documents from that period show that there was discussion of seeking an order from the court for rectification. But that course was not adopted and is not adopted now. There is no application for rectification before me. It appears that the point about the effect of r 3.5.2.1 did come to the attention of at least two members of the scheme in 1999 or 2000. One was Mr Perrett, the former finance director of PFPL and one of the original trustees of the scheme. He had ceased to be a trustee in the meantime. The other was Mr Hamilton, the representative defendant in the present case. He was a deferred member of the scheme at the time. Mr Perrett and Mr Hamilton each wrote letters to the company or to KPMG enquiring about the position, and somewhat inconclusive correspondence followed. I have to say that the word stonewalling comes to mind.
[49] On 25 May 2001 PFPL, as principal employer under the scheme and with the consent of the trustees, exercised a power of amendment contained in r 31 of the scheme rules. The amendment changed the position, but only prospectively. It replaced the original r 3.5.2.1 with a complicated provision which distinguished between deferred members’ pensions accrued by future service after 25 May 2001 (the date of the amendment) and deferred members’ pensions accrued by service on or before that date. The former could be taken from age 60 but subject to
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actuarial reduction. The latter could be taken from age 60 without actuarial reduction ‘unless its actuarial reduction is held to be applicable in consequence of any legal advice or ruling.' The claimants say in their particulars of claim:
‘The Claimants were and remain precluded by section 67 of the Pensions Act 1995 from correcting the said error by amendment in respect of benefits accrued prior to the said date.’
So after the amendment of 25 May 2001 the company and the trustees remained committed to pay to deferred members of the scheme who retired at 60 or older the full pensions which they had earned by their years of service up to that date, and to pay those pensions without actuarial reduction. However, the amendment reserved the possibility of that position being changed by a future ‘legal advice or ruling’. Had I accepted the claimants’ submissions it would have been so changed. Since I do not the position is not changed (subject of course to any appeal which may be brought).
[50] That was in May 2001. I feel sure that over the next four years things were happening in connection with the operation of r 3.5.2.1. However those things, whatever they were, were happening behind the scenes so far as my knowledge is concerned, and I can move three-and-a-half years forward. In the latter part of 2004 Mr Hamilton was identified as a suitable person to be a representative defendant in proceedings which the participating companies and the trustees were proposing to commence. In August 2005 they did commence the present proceedings by issuing the claim form in this case. I am told that it was served, together with particulars of claim and some other materials, in November 2005. A defence was put in, dated 8 May 2006. There have been some amendments to the pleadings since. One was the addition of the counterclaim. Another (which I mentioned briefly in the introduction and overview at the beginning of this judgment) was an amendment to the particulars of claim to plead reliance on relief in equity for a mistake. That amendment was made in the course of the trial.
[51] There is one other matter to mention. On 19 June this year, some two years after the claim was commenced, the principal employer under the scheme (PFPL, but by then called Siemens Building Technologies FE Ltd) and the present trustees (acting by one of their number) executed a document which began ‘This Undertaking’. The undertaking is expressed to be in favour of Mr Hamilton (the representative defendant) and the Chancery Division of the High Court. There are recitals. One is that the claimants in this case are seeking an order of the court that r 3.5.2.1 is void or should be set aside. Another is to acknowledge that the effect of such an order would be entirely to remove the right of deferred members to take early retirement from the scheme. The principal employer and the trustees undertake to each other, to Mr Hamilton, and to the court, that, if the court grants the order sought, they will execute a deed of amendment which would insert the following in r 3.5.2:
‘3.5.2.1 A Member who is no longer an Employee may receive his preserved pension after reaching age 60, or with his Employer’s and the Trustees’ agreement, between the ages of 50 and 60 or at any time if he is in ill health (see rule 3.2.2), but if the pension is received before normal retirement date it shall be reduced Actuarially under rule 3.2 to take account of early payment. The Trustees shall only agree if the provisions of rule 3.3 are satisfied.’
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A further amendment has been made to the particulars of claim to describe the undertaking and the proposed new r 3.5.2.1. I should perhaps add, lest there be any doubt about it, that neither the court nor Mr Hamilton asked for the undertaking.
DISCUSSION AND ANALYSIS: THE CLAIM BASED ON THE PRINCIPLE IN HASTINGS-BASS
[52] The principle, or the rule, in Hastings-Bass is an important development in recent case law concerning actions taken by trustees, either of private settlements or of pension trusts. It has been comprehensively expounded and discussed in the recent judgment of Lloyd LJ in Sieff v Fox [2005] EWHC 1312 (Ch), [2005] 3 All ER 693, [2005] 1 WLR 3811. (Although Lloyd LJ was a Lord Justice of Appeal when he delivered the judgment, it is technically a judgment of the High Court, since the case had been heard by the judge in the High Court before he was elevated to the Court of Appeal.) In the circumstances I will not attempt any sort of lengthy description of the principle myself in this judgment. Many readers of this judgment will be familiar with it already. As respects readers who are not I gratefully refer them to Lloyd LJ’s comprehensive and learned exposition.
[53] I will venture only a few general remarks before turning to consider whether the principle applies in the present case. Lloyd LJ formulates the principle in the following terms in para [49] of his judgment:
‘. . . Where a trustee acts under a discretion given to him by the terms of the trust, but the effect of the exercise is different from that which he intended, the court will interfere with his action if it is clear that he would not have acted as he did had he not failed to take into account considerations which he ought to have taken into account, or taken into account considerations which he ought not to have taken into account.’
There are two observations which, with some diffidence, I will make. (i) The learned Lord Justice begins by referring to a trustee acting under a discretion given to him by the trust. That is the commonest situation where the principle may arise, but (as Lloyd LJ explains at other points in his judgment) it can also apply where the trust imposes an obligation on the trustee to act but the precise way in which he acts is left for him to determine. I make this point because Mr Newman submits that the present case is, or at least may be, of that nature. (More specifically Mr Newman relies on the feature that the trustees and PFPL made the definitive deed and the rules pursuant to an obligation assumed by them under cl 5(a) of the interim deed (see [37], above)). (ii) Early in Lloyd LJ’s formulation he uses the expression ‘the effect of the exercise is different from that which [the trustee] intended’. I may be wrong, but I think it likely that, by ‘the effect’, Lloyd LJ had in mind the direct legal effect of whatever it is that the trustee does, and not the secondary consequences which follow from that direct legal effect. The main argument which had been put to him to oppose the application in Sieff v Fox of the Hastings-Bass principle rested on the distinction between the direct legal effect of an act by a trustee and its indirect consequences:
‘Mr Herbert submits that, for the Re Hastings-Bass principle to apply, the appointment must have an effect different from that which was intended by the trustees, and that this is limited to the substantive effect under the settlement, and does not extend to consequential matters such as fiscal charges . . .’ (See [31].)
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If it is indeed the case that Lloyd LJ used ‘effect’ in that sense in the words from para [49] of the judgment which I quoted above I tentatively suggest that his formulation of the Hastings-Bass principle, instead of saying ‘but the effect of the exercise is different from that which he intended’, might say ‘whether or not the effect of the exercise is different from that which he intended’. The judge did not accept the submission which counsel had made to him, and it is certainly not the case that the Hastings-Bass principle only applies where an action taken by trustees fails to achieve the direct legal effect which they intended. Indeed, at least in cases involving private trusts the usual situation is that the action which the trustees take achieves exactly the legal effect intended, but has unwelcome consequences, usually tax consequences, which the trustees failed to foresee. Sieff v Fox was itself a case of that nature, and there is a lengthening list of others.
[54] I move on to explain how the Hastings-Bass argument is formulated in this case. The starting point is that r 3.5.2.1 of the definitive deed contained a mistake. The mistake was not that the rule permitted a deferred member of the pension scheme to take his pension (without needing the employing company’s consent) from the age of 60 rather than from the normal retirement date of his 65th birthday: that was an intended result. The mistake was that the rule permitted such a deferred member to take his pension early without an actuarial deduction.
[55] I say now that I accept this aspect of the claimants’ case. I think that there must have been an oversight in the drafting of the rule when a provision for actuarial reduction was omitted. The rules were drafted by Godwins, and it seems likely that it was at that stage that the mistake occurred. Mr Evans of Godwins was not personally involved in the drafting (at least not in any detailed way). He says in his witness statement:
‘Before the final version of the 1992 Deed was sent to the client, I will have looked through it but I would not, at that stage, have read it looking for errors, as I expect documents to be properly formulated by the time I see them. I would not have been looking for the type of error contained in rule 3.5.2.1 and I certainly did not notice it.’
Mr Shurville of Godwins was the draftsman of the rules. In his witness statement he describes how he was contacted about r 3.5.2.1 in 1999. That was shortly after KPMG noticed the point, as I have described at [47], above. The witness statement says:
‘I believe now, as then, that the wording in rule 3.5.2.1 is an error. I would never have intentionally or knowingly drafted the wording to produce such a result without a very specific instruction from the client and I certainly never received such a request.’
I observe in passing that, given that there was this error in the formulation of the rule, the present case probably is one to which Lloyd LJ’s words in Sieff v Fox, ‘but the effect of the exercise is different from that which he intended’, apply without the modification to the wording which I suggested at [53](ii), above.
[56] I continue my account of how the Hastings-Bass argument is put. The particulars of claim plead that the trustees’ decision to introduce r 3.5.2.1 by entering into the definitive deed was ‘vitiated’ because the decision was made without the original trustees taking any, or any proper account of, several matters, including the true effect of the rule as drafted, the discrepancy between the positions of deferred and active members on retirement between ages 60 and 65, and the effect on the cost of funding of the scheme. The conclusion which the
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argument seeks to reach is that r 3.5.2.1 is void by reason of the Hastings-Bass principle. The particulars of claim do not specifically refer to the principle by name, but it was and remains the basis for this part of the claim.
[57] For completeness I should spell out that, although (as I have described at [28], [29], above) the financial cost to the company of the mistake in the drafting of r 3.5.2.1 is greatly increased by the ability of an active member to retire at 60 without taking the actuarially reduced pension which he could take under r 3.2 and shortly thereafter to take the unreduced pension which he could in those circumstances take under r 3.5.2.1, there is no challenge to the feature of the rules whereby, if an active member retires at, say, 60, but prefers to wait until he becomes 65 before drawing his pension, he can do that.
[58] I preface my examination of the reasons which have led me to conclude that the rule in Hastings-Bass does not apply in this case by making this observation (which partly repeats something that I have already said at [32], above). It is important to appreciate that the adverse effect of the deficiency in r 3.5.2.1 was an effect adverse to PFPL, not to the members of the scheme. This claim is brought in the interests of PFPL and the two other participating employers under the scheme. The claim is not brought in the interests of the members of the scheme, who are the equivalent of the beneficiaries under a private trust. Rule 3.5.2.1, assuming that it is not set aside, increases the funding commitment of the participating employers. It does not increase the contributions of the members of the scheme, nor does it diminish the benefits under the scheme of any of the members. On the contrary, the respect in which the claimants find it unacceptable is that it increases the benefits available to some of the members, doing so to a greater extent than was intended.
[59] There is no suggestion that the employers will not be able to meet the increased funding commitments which r 3.5.2.1 imposes on them, unwelcome and unexpected though they doubtless are. Thus it is not argued that the rule could indirectly affect the members of the scheme because it might drive the employers into difficulties such that they could no longer meet their liabilities under it. In that connection it may also be appropriate for me to mention two matters. First, a negligence claim has been made by PFPL against Godwins, the company which drafted the definitive deed and rules. That claim is presumably awaiting the outcome of this case. Second, in the documentation covering the sale of PFPL by its original German parent company to a purchaser in the Siemens group there are provisions whereunder the burden of complying with r 3.5.2.1, if it is not eliminated by this case, is to be borne by the vendor.
[60] I move on to analyse and discuss the issues which I consider to be relevant to whether Mr Newman’s Hastings-Bass arguments can succeed. In my judgment there are several different reasons why the contention that r 3.5.2.1 is ineffective on Hastings-Bass grounds cannot be upheld. I develop them in the following paragraphs, and I will set them out under three subheadings, which are as follows. First: There should be no rectification by the back door. Second: The Hastings-Bass principle does not apply because the adoption of the definitive deed and rules was essentially the act of PFPL and not of the trustees. Third: The trustees had fiduciary responsibilities in connection with the making of the definitive deed and rules, but they were not such as to cause the rule in Hastings-Bass to apply to r 3.5.2.1.
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There should be no rectification by the back door
[61] The key points which I make in this part of my judgment are the following. The nature of the mistake in r 3.5.2.1 was such that it could only be corrected by changing the rule, as opposed to nullifying it. The only way to change the rule retrospectively was by an order of rectification. That could only be achieved if the circumstances of the case qualified for rectification, but they did not. Where the rule in Hastings-Bass applies the effect is not to change something that trustees have done, but rather to set it aside altogether. But in this case r 3.5.2.1 needed to be changed, not set aside. The claimants seek to navigate round this obstacle by their undertaking that, if the court sets the rule aside, they will make an amendment which introduces a new r 3.5.2.1 that does not suffer from the mistake contained in the present one. This is rectification by the back door, and in my judgment it is not an acceptable way for the court to proceed.
[62] I now develop those points in more detail.
[63] It is to my mind a significant feature of the present case that there is no application for rectification. Suppose that a lawyer is consulted by a client who says that he appears to be bound by a provision in a legal document which he accepts he signed, but that there was a mistake in the wording of the provision. The lawyer’s thoughts will turn immediately to whether the document can be rectified. Rectification is, if not the only possible remedy to correct mistakes in the wording of binding documents, certainly the primary remedy. If rectification is not available in a particular case it would be, to put the matter at the lowest, surprising if another remedy is available instead.
[64] It seems fairly clear that the lawyers advising PFPL and the trustees in this matter reacted like the hypothetical lawyer I postulated in the foregoing paragraph. Once the problem presented by the wording of r 3.5.2.1 had been discovered in 1999, there are several references in the documents to rectification. See the following: (i) Minutes of trustees’ meeting of 7 September 1999: ‘Alternatively we can apply to the Court and request a Court Order to allow us to rectify the Deed, but this would be difficult . . .’ (ii) An internal memorandum within PFPL of 14 August 2000: ‘Although we are applying to the court to rectify, our application still may fail’. (iii) An extract from a disclosure letter at the time of the sale of the company to Siemens, which was in July or August 2001: ‘The trustees intend to apply to the court to rectify an error in the Rules of the Scheme’. (iv) A letter from KPMG to Mr Perrett (by then a deferred member of the PFP scheme, no longer a trustee, and no longer the finance director of PFPL) dated 26 September 2001: ‘The trustees are currently making further enquiries with a view to making an application to court for the deed and rules of the scheme to be rectified.’
[65] Despite all of that, when this case was commenced no claim for rectification was made. There was very little discussion of why not in the hearing. Mr Newman said that information of that nature was privileged, and, whether it was or not, I sympathised with his preference not to have to enlarge on what led to the decision not to pursue a rectification remedy. I can of course speculate. It seems to me quite likely that the decision of Rimer J to refuse rectification in Lansing Linde Ltd v Alber [2000] OPLR 1, [2000] Pens LR 15, a case the circumstances of which had some affinities to the background of the present case, had something to do with it.
[66] Whatever the reasoning may have been, the objective facts are that the participating companies and the trustees of the PFP scheme considered making an application for rectification but have not made one. Instead they have made
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an application that relies principally on the Hastings-Bass principle. I believe that I am fully entitled to approach that application on the basis that the claimants have tacitly conceded that the circumstances do not support a claim for rectification. If the employing companies and the trustees in this case cannot obtain through rectification the relief they would like to have, it would in my view be surprising if they could somehow outflank the requirements of the law of rectification and obtain the same relief through the different and (so it would seem) less demanding process of an application under the Hastings-Bass principle.
[67] All the more is that the case when one reflects about what are in principle the significantly different consequences of successful applications under the two kinds of proceeding. If rectification is obtainable the court will alter the wording of a document so that it ceases to say what it had mistakenly been expressed to say and instead says the different thing that it had been intended to say: the court substitutes a correct version for the incorrect version which the party or parties had mistakenly brought into effect.
[68] The rule in Hastings-Bass is a much blunter instrument. If an action taken by trustees is of a kind to attract the operation of the rule, then the effect is that what the trustees apparently did is void (or possibly voidable—a controversial issue which I do not propose to go into in this judgment). The court does not change what the trustees mistakenly did so that it becomes what they had intended to do in the first place. Rather the court sets aside what the trustees had apparently done, and leaves them either as (a) having done nothing, or as (b) having done a part of what they set out to do but not the whole of it.
[69] Situation (a) arises if the successful Hastings-Bass application relates to the whole of a step apparently taken by the trustees, such as exercising a power of appointment or of advancement (as in Sieff v Fox). Situation (b) arises if the successful Hastings-Bass application relates only to one part of a larger step taken by the trustees. In an early case discussing the Hastings-Bass principle, Mettoy Pension Trustees Ltd v Evans [1991] 2 All ER 513, [1990] 1 WLR 1587, Warner J rejected an argument that the principle was one of ‘all or nothing’: either the whole of whatever document the trustees made is struck down or none of it. The judge could see no reason why it should not be possible to set aside one provision in a larger document, leaving the rest of it to stand. In the event he did not set anything aside in the Mettoy case, but that was for different reasons. I was referred to other cases which repeated what Warner J had said, and to at least one case where part of an appointment was set aside under Hastings-Bass, and the other part was left to stand: Burrell v Burrell [2005] EWHC 245 (Ch), [2005] STC 569 (Mann J).
[70] Nevertheless there may in my view be significant differences between what I have described as situation (a) and situation (b). Situation (a) typically arises in the context of private trusts, where the trustees exercise a power of appointment or of advancement but have failed to take an important consideration into account. In that situation, to set aside the whole exercise of the power simply means that the trustees are back where they started. They can reconsider the whole matter and decide what, if anything, they now wish to do instead of the exercise of the power which has been set aside.
[71] Situation (b) can sometimes be different, because there could be cases where to set aside just one provision in an instrument effected by trustees would cure one deficiency but create another instead. It does not go back to the beginning. Rather it leaves an incomplete document behind. As I will explain, the present case could be of that nature. Burrell v Burrell (mentioned at the end
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of [69], above), in contrast, was not. A deed of appointment divided the fund into two parts, and appointed different trusts of each part. On Hastings-Bass grounds Mann J set aside the appointment so far as it affected one part of the fund. However, the factor which rendered it appropriate to do that was irrelevant to the other part of the fund, so there was no difficulty over setting aside one part of the deed but leaving the other part to stand. A similar point arose in connection with one aspect of the order made by Neuberger J in BESTrustees v Stuart [2001] OPLR 341, [2001] Pens LR 283. An exercise of the power to amend a pension trust deed purported to amend the deed both prospectively and retrospectively. The prospective amendment was valid, but the retrospective amendment was not, and one reason why not was the operation of the Hastings-Bass principle. The judge was willing to excise the provision in the amendment which provided for retrospectivity, while leaving the rest of the amendment in full effect. In the circumstances of that case setting aside one part of the amendment did not create any problems over the continued operation of the rest of it.
[72] In my judgment the same is not true in this case. The claimants’ application in this case is of type (b): they do not seek to have the whole of the definitive deed and rules set aside, but only r 3.5.2.1. Such an order would have an effect significantly different from what would have been the effect of rectification if rectification could have been obtained. The claimants’ case must be that the intention when the rules were being prepared was that r 3.5.2.1 should do six things: (i) It should give to deferred members a right to commence to draw their preserved pensions under the PFP scheme from the age of 60 rather than 65 without needing the consent of anyone. (ii) It should give to deferred members who were between the ages of 50 and 60 a right to commence to draw their preserved pensions under the scheme immediately, but only if the employer and the trustees consented. (iii) It should give to deferred members who were in ill-health at any age a right to draw their preserved pensions under the scheme immediately, but only if the employer and the trustees consented. (iv) It should provide that in a case within (i) the pension would be reduced actuarially to reflect the early commencement of payment. (v) It should provide that in a case within (ii) the pension would be reduced actuarially to reflect the early commencement of payment. (vi) It should provide that in a case within (iii) the pension would be reduced actuarially to reflect the early commencement of payment. The rule as drafted did (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi), but it omitted to do (iv). Rectification, if available, would have altered the rule so that it did all six things. On the face of it the application of the rule in Hastings-Bass would mean that the rule did none of the six things, since the particulars of claim invite the court to set aside r 3.5.2.1 in its entirety. Plainly, if the rule was set aside in its entirety it could do none of the things which I have itemised as (i)–(vi). So the problem of pensions taken by deferred members of the scheme at 60 not being reduced actuarially would no longer arise, but the reason why not would be that there would be no provision at all for deferred members to commence to draw pensions at any age before 65.
[73] At this point I am afraid that several complications come into the picture, and I shall have to take a little time to explain them. They lead up to the deed of undertaking which I described at [51], above. I am not certain that I have all the details exactly right, but I hope that what I say in the next few paragraphs is reasonably accurate. In (probably) 2005 a decision was reached that an application should be made to the court to set r 3.5.2.1 aside. The parties were to be (and became) PFPL and the trustees as claimants, and a deferred member of
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the scheme (in the event Mr Hamilton) as representative defendant. For each party solicitors were appointed, and there were contacts between them and the firm which represented the trustees on all matters except this case. In the course of those contacts it was noted that, if r 3.5.2.1 was set aside, an effect would be that deferred members of the scheme would have no early retirement rights. From that there emerged the proposal that there should be a deed of undertaking of the nature which was eventually executed. However, at the time of the original particulars of claim no such deed yet existed. That being so, two of the points made in response in the defence were: first, that, if the rule went, there would (for complex reasons which I will not attempt to describe) be a continuing breach of the principle of equality between males and females prescribed by the ECJ in the Barber case; and, second, that there would also be discrimination between active and deferred members of the scheme: the actives would have the right to retire and commence receiving pensions (albeit reduced pensions) at 60 if they chose, but the deferreds would have no right to commence receiving any pensions, even reduced ones, until they became 65. That would have been contrary to provisions of United Kingdom statutes generally referred to as the preservation legislation.
[74] In addition to those specific points arising from the Barber decision and from the preservation legislation, being points which were identified in the original defence, there was a more general point of which the claimants were undoubtedly aware. The manifest intention of the draftsman of the rules was that a deferred member of the scheme, like an active member, should have the right to commence drawing his pension at 60 rather than 65 if he wanted; yet to set aside r 3.5.2.1 would, without more, mean that he had no such right.
[75] The next matter relevant to the evolution of the case which I am explaining now was that the principal employer and the trustees executed the undertaking of 19 June 2007 which I have described at [51], above. It was an undertaking, expressed to be in favour of Mr Hamilton and the court, that, if the court did set aside r 3.5.2.1, the rules would be amended so as to give deferred members a right to receive their preserved pensions from age 60, but subject to actuarial reduction. In the most recent pleadings the points made in the original defence about the Barber case and about the preservation legislation have been removed.
[76] After that digression into the pleadings and associated matters I return to the theme that, in this case where the appropriate remedy, if the conditions for it to be granted are present, would be an order of rectification modifying r 3.5.2.1, a Hastings-Bass order, which could not modify the rule but could only set it aside in its entirety, is not an acceptable alternative. It is suggested to me that, while that might be true without the claimants’ undertaking to amend the rules so as to replace the set-aside r 3.5.2.1 with a different rule, it becomes acceptable for the court to proceed under Hastings-Bass once the claimants have given the undertaking. I cannot see it that way. If the court takes the view that the Hastings-Bass principle does not apply by reference to what happened when the rules were adopted in 1991, I do not think that the principle can become applicable after all in consequence of an undertaking given in 2007. (Nor, to be fair, do I think that Mr Newman puts his case in that way. I believe his position to be that the principle in Hastings-Bass obliges the court to set aside the r 3.5.2.1 in its entirety despite the consequences going beyond the deficiency in the rule which brings the principle into play. But PFPL and the trustees would not wish that to become the position for the long-term future, and the deed makes their
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intentions clear.) I add here that, in expressing my own view earlier in this paragraph, I have assumed that, if the Hastings-Bass principle applies to something which trustees purport to do, it renders their action void ab initio, not voidable. I touched on the void/voidable distinction in [68], above.
[77] In the foregoing few paragraphs I have described my understanding of the circumstances in which the undertaking to introduce a new r 3.5.2.1 by way of amendment of the scheme was given, but I cannot put out of my mind that there is at least a hint of tacit bargaining with the court. Why should the undertaking have been expressed to be given to the court (which has not asked for it), if not with a view to increasing the prospect that the court might do something which appeared to go beyond what the circumstances justified and which it might otherwise have been reluctant to do?
[78] I should mention that something similar to the undertaking was a feature of an earlier case, and would not have discouraged the judge from applying the rule in Hastings-Bass. The case is Gallaher Ltd v Gallaher Pensions Ltd [2005] EWHC 42 (Ch), [2005] Pens LR 103. A difference from this case was that Etherton J held on the facts before him that rectification was available to put right a mistake in the drafting of an amendment which on its terms increased pensions to a greater extent than was intended. The bulk of his judgment is directed to the rectification issue, and his decision upon it is clearly the ratio of the case. However, there was an alternative Hastings-Bass argument, and obiter the learned judge held that he would have accepted it. There had been an undertaking on the part of the employer and the trustees that, if the amending deeds which contained the mistake were set aside, they would continue to make payments of increased pensions up to the amounts which had been intended but not up to the greater amounts which had not been intended. Etherton J held that the undertaking removed any objection that might have been raised based on lapse of time. It is not lapse of time which I see as an obstacle to the Hastings-Bass argument in this case. Nevertheless, Etherton J was plainly not troubled by the use by the claimants of the technique of an undertaking to defuse what might otherwise have been an objection to the claim. All I can say is that I am troubled by it in this case.
[79] Before I conclude this part of my judgment there is one other specific point to make. As I understand it, neither counsel submits that the rule in Hastings-Bass is an absolute one in the sense that, if the conditions described by Lloyd LJ in Sieff v Fox are present—in particular if the trustees take some action in circumstances where they have not taken a relevant consideration into account—then their action is always void, and there is no possibility of exceptional cases arising where it would not be void. For example Mr Newman submitted (in the context, if I have remembered correctly, of the counterclaim to which his clients are the defendants) that, if to set aside on Hastings-Bass grounds an act done by trustees would result in something that was illegal, then the act should not be set aside. Mr Stallworthy did not disagree with the principle, though he did not accept that the possible illegality which Mr Newman was invoking in this case would have been an illegality at all. The point can, I suggest, be put more generally in this way. If an action taken by trustees comes within the circumstances to which the Hastings-Bass principle appears to apply, then the action will be set aside unless there is good reason in the particular circumstances of the case why it should not be set aside. In subsequent sections of this judgment I will endeavour to explain why the circumstances of this case are not ones to which the Hastings-Bass principle appears to apply, but even if it does I suggest
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that, for the reasons which I have explained at somewhat laborious length in this section of the judgment, there is good reason why r 3.5.2.1 should not be set aside.
[80] I headed this section of my judgment ‘There should be no rectification by the back door’. In this case rectification is not available. (In the Gallaher case, Etherton J’s case, it was.) What the claimants are seeking by the combination of a Hastings-Bass order setting aside the original r 3.5.2.1 and an undertaking to the court to introduce a new r 3.5.2.1 in its place amounts to exactly the same thing as an order of rectification. I believe that it would be rectification by the back door, and, while the principle in Hastings-Bass is a relatively new and still expanding jurisdiction the limits of which have not yet become established, I believe that the use of the principle to circumvent the quite strict conditions which have to be present before an order of rectification can be obtained goes beyond wherever the limits will eventually be set.
The Hastings-Bass principle does not apply because the adoption of the definitive deed and rules was essentially the act of PFPL and not of the trustees
[81] I begin by advancing two propositions which relate to the facts of the case and to considerations which may affect whether the rule in Hastings-Bass is capable of applying to them. The first proposition is that the adoption of the definitive deed and of the associated rules (which include r 3.5.2.1) was essentially the act of PFPL and not of the trustees. The second proposition is that the things which the trustees did or ought to have done in connection with the adoption of the definitive deed and rules were not such as to attract the operation of the Hastings-Bass rule. Under this subheading I develop and enlarge on the first proposition. Under the next subheading I develop and enlarge on the second proposition.
[82] The first proposition is important because the rule in Hastings-Bass applies to things done by trustees. It does not apply to things done by settlors in the context of private trusts or by employers in the context of pension trusts. The claimants seek to set aside something which was part of the adoption of the definitive deed and rules, namely the inclusion in the rules of the unsatisfactorily formulated r 3.5.2.1. However, in my opinion the person principally responsible for the formulation and making of the definitive deed and rules (including r 3.5.2.1) was the employing company, PFPL. The trustees’ main role in connection with the scheme is to administer it in accordance with the deed and the rules. I do not say that the trustees had no role to perform in connection with the adoption of the deed and rules. They did have a role, but it was a lesser role than the role of PFPL. I return under the next subheading to what the trustees’ role did comprehend and what it did not, but for the moment I concentrate on the role of PFPL.
[83] Turning more specifically to the circumstances in which the definitive deed and rules were brought into effect, by cl 5(a) of the interim deed of 30 March 1990 (quoted at [37], above) PFPL and the trustees undertook that they would execute a definitive deed and rules. The undertakings were presumably mutual: that is PFPL’s undertaking was given to the trustees and the trustees’ undertaking was given to PFPL. At any rate there is no indication that the undertakings were given to anyone else. In 1991 and 1992 PFPL instructed Godwins to prepare a definitive deed and rules. Although the trustees were already in office at that time by virtue of the interim deed, there is no indication that they were involved in the instructions to Godwins or in considering drafts
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which Godwins prepared. The contacts were between Mr Evans or Mr Shurville of Godwins and Ms Gill Allen, the personnel manager of PFPL. She reported to Mr Perrett, the finance director, and through him to Mr Holmes, the managing director. Ms Allen, Mr Perrett and Mr Holmes were also trustees of the pension scheme, but it is clear that in dealings between Ms Allen and Godwins she was acting in her managerial capacity, not her trustee capacity. Likewise, when she reported to Mr Perrett and to Mr Holmes she was reporting to them in their managerial capacities. She did not report to the three other trustees. (That should not be read as any sort of implied criticism. It seems to me that the business reality in the period after the interim deed was that it was for the company, not for the trustees, to take steps towards a definitive deed and rules being prepared.)
[84] There is a letter of 27 February 1992 from Mr Shurville to Ms Allen, which concludes as follows:
‘On receiving your confirmation that you have no further queries or comments on the draft Trust Deed and Rules, I shall prepare a further copy in a form suitable for execution.’
Ms Allen replied on 1 April:
‘. . . we now confirm that we have no further comments or queries on the draft Trust Deed and Rules and that it will be in order for you to go ahead with the final draft.’
It is, I think, plain that ‘we’ in that sentence meant PFPL. It did not mean the trustees, nor did it mean PFPL and the trustees.
[85] I have described earlier how, at a meeting of the trustees on 14 May 1992, the five trustees present ‘signed and approved the definitive Trust Deed and Rules’ (a quotation from the minutes); Mr Darbon, the absent trustee, had confirmed to Ms Allen that he would sign the deed on his return, which he did. The trustees thereby complied with their undertaking in cl 5(a) of the interim deed. PFPL, described in the definitive deed as ‘the Principal Employer’, also executed the deed, and was the first party to it.
[86] The question I have to consider in this part of my judgment is whether the trustees’ acts in approving the terms of the definitive deed and of the rules and in executing the deed meant that r 3.5.2.1 was liable to be set aside under the principle in Hastings-Bass. In my judgment they did not. I make this point with some hesitation, because, although it supports the result for which Mr Stallworthy contends, he does not support this particular reason for reaching that result. I nevertheless consider that the point is valid and correct, and I will seek to explain and justify it in the paragraphs which follow.
[87] A decision to have a pension scheme and the consequential decisions about the structure and design of the scheme are matters for the employer, or at least matters primarily for the employer. If the scheme is to have a pension trust fund there will be trustees, but the design of the scheme is still a matter for the employer, not for the trustees. This is not to say that the trustees are compelled to accept the employer’s design. If the trustees object to it they cannot be compelled to join in executing the deed and rules. However, I persist that it is the employer which takes the lead in formulating the design of the scheme. If in the event the trustees do not object and are content to execute the documents in the terms prepared by the employer or the employer’s advisers, then the scheme is the employer’s scheme, not the trustees’ scheme. Once the scheme is
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established the trustees will have important functions to carry out and duties of a fiduciary nature to perform in connection with the scheme, but the trustees do not have a major role in determining what the rules of the scheme are to be.
[88] It is not inevitable or by any means invariable for a pension scheme to have trustees, and in such a case there is in the nature of things nothing to which the rule in Hastings-Bass could apply. Suppose that there is a ‘pay as you go’ scheme where the contracts of employment between an employer and employees provide that the employees who are members of the scheme will be entitled to receive directly from the employer the pension benefits provided for by the contracts or by rules incorporated by reference into the contracts. Suppose that one of the rules contains a deficiency of drafting like the deficiency in the drafting of r 3.5.2.1. Could the defective provision be set aside under the rule in Hastings-Bass? Plainly not: it came about simply from the act of the employer, and, if it cannot be changed by rectification, the employer is bound by it.
[89] Now change the example by assuming that there are trustees of the pension scheme, but that the scheme is established from the outset with its full definitive deed and rules prepared in advance so that they come into operation from the moment that the deed is executed by the employer and the original trustees. The difference from the present case is that there is not an initial period regulated by an interim deed, and thus there is no prior deed or other instrument which imposes an obligation on the trustees to join with the employer in bringing the rules into effect. (I understand that the example would be rare in practice, but it is certainly not impossible.) Make the same assumption as before that the initial rules contain an overly generous provision like r 3.5.2.1. Can that rule be set aside under the principle in Hastings-Bass because there were trustees who joined with the employer in the legal steps required to bring the deed and rules into effect? My answer to the question is: No: the deed and the rules are the employer’s documents, and do not become the trustees’ documents by reason of the trustees joining in executing them.
[90] Consider the analogy of a private settlement. Suppose that a settlor executes a trust deed between himself and trustees, that the deed includes a provision which has harmful fiscal consequences for him, and that (echoing the words of Lloyd LJ in Sieff v Fox) he would not have acted as he did had he not failed to take into account considerations which he ought to have taken into account. Can he escape the harmful fiscal consequences by having the deed set aside under the rule in Hastings-Bass, arguing that the case is brought within the scope of Hastings-Bass because trustees as well as he himself executed the deed? The answer is: obviously not; and in my opinion the example of a pension trust deed which I gave in the foregoing paragraph is in principle the same.
[91] Finally I come to this case. The differences are that in this case there was first the interim deed and later the definitive deed and rules, and that the interim deed obliged the trustees, together with the employing company, PFPL, to ‘make a Definitive Deed adopting rules (“the Rules”) under which the Scheme and the Fund shall be administered . . .’. Mr Newman submits that the obligation which was thereby imposed on the trustees brings the rules within the potential ambit of the principle in Hastings-Bass, and that r 3.5.2.1 falls to be set aside under that principle.
[92] I cannot agree. I accept that, in contrast to the example I considered above of a case where the definitive deed and rules were not preceded by an interim deed, the trustees do have a role to play in connection with the definitive deed and rules, because they have a prior obligation to join with the company in
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creating them. (I say more about this under the next subheading.) Further, I entirely accept that it is a proper part of the trustees’ role for them to consider the proposed structure of the scheme, and, if there are aspects of it with which they are unhappy, to say so and, if they think fit, to raise their concerns in discussion with the employer. However, it remains true that the scheme is essentially the employer’s scheme, and is not the trustees’ scheme. In a formal sense it might be regarded as a joint scheme of the employer and the trustees, but in substance the reality is that the employer is the party responsible for the contents of the definitive deed and rules. In this case I assert that the deed and rules were and still are predominantly—indeed, I would say overwhelmingly—PFPL’s documents, not the trustees’ documents.
[93] It should not be forgotten that it is the employer which has to meet a large proportion of the costs of a contributory scheme. If trustees, considering a draft deed and rules produced by or for an employer, consider that the benefits should be more generous, they can seek to persuade the employer to improve them. The employer may or may not agree. If it does not there is little or nothing that the trustees can do about it, other than to resign and leave the employer to find other persons who are prepared to act as trustees. Even if the employer does agree to improve the benefits under the scheme the outcome remains the employer’s scheme, not the trustees’ scheme.
[94] The evidence in this case was that the decision to equalise the normal retirement date for males and females at the 65th birthday was reached by PFPL on the advice of Godwins. The decision was notified to members of the scheme by PFPL before the trustees had met and approved it. When the trustees met they accepted the draft definitive deed and rules (including in particular the equalised retirement age of 65) without, it seems, any significant discussion and without raising alternatives. It is argued as part of the counterclaim that the trustees should have pressed for a different equalised retirement age, but I do not think that the evidence of the trustees gave any real support to the argument. Three of them were, so to speak, from the management of the company: Mr Holmes, Mr Perrett and Ms Allen. Ms Allen had been the principal contact between PFPL and Godwins. Those three were not, in their trustee capacities, going to question the scheme and rules which Godwins had prepared and PFPL had accepted.
[95] One of the other three trustees was Mr Holmes’s secretary. Her witness statement says that she cannot remember anything about the matter. The other two, Mr Darbon and Mr Whiting, had not questioned the benefit structure proposed in the deed and rules. They both said in their evidence that the company was quite new and was, as they saw the matter at the time, not in a position to fund generous benefits for members of the scheme. Mr Whiting, in the course of his cross-examination, said that, if he had been aware of some matters which were put to him by Mr Stallworthy, he might have wished to discuss some improvements in benefits, but in re-examination he accepted that, if that had happened but the company had dug its heels in, he imagined that the trustees would have gone along with the equalised retirement age of 65.
[96] I conclude that, while the trustees had an obligation under the interim deed to join with PFPL in making a definitive deed and rules, and although in performing that obligation they did have a real role to fulfil, nevertheless the adoption of the deed and rules, which included r 3.5.2.1, was substantially the act of PFPL, not the act of the trustees. Since the rule in Hastings-Bass applies only to strike down things done by trustees I consider that it is incapable of striking down
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r 3.5.2.1. In substance PFPL and its advisers, Godwins, were responsible for that rule, and it would be an unacceptable extension of the rule in Hastings-Bass to apply it so as to set the rule aside on the ground that the trustees as well as PFPL joined in executing the deed.
The trustees had fiduciary responsibilities in connection with the making of the definitive deed and rules, but they were not such as to cause the rule in Hastings-Bass to apply to r 3.5.2.1
[97] A fundamental point which I made under the previous subheading was that the rule in Hastings-Bass does not apply to things done by settlors of private trusts or by employers who establish pension scheme trusts. In connection with that I said that the rule applies to things done by trustees. However, I now qualify that by saying that the rule does not apply to everything done by trustees: it applies to things done by trustees as respects which they have a fiduciary duty or responsibility to the beneficiaries (who in the case of a pension trust, are the members of the pension scheme). Further, the circumstances must have been such that a part of the trustees’ fiduciary duty or responsibility was either to take into account a consideration which, in the event, they failed to take into account or to refrain from taking into account a consideration which, in the event, they did take into account.
[98] The key point which I shall develop over the next few paragraphs is that the role which it fell to the trustees of the PFP scheme to perform when they decided to accept the draft definitive deed and rules did not extend to identifying the deficiency in r 3.5.2.1 which the claimants now wish to have removed by means of the rule in Hastings-Bass.
[99] I do of course accept that the trustees had a role to perform in connection with the making of the definitive deed and the rules. The trustees had given their undertaking under the interim deed that they and PFPL would make the deed and rules. I do not suggest that their role in that respect was a purely formal one under which they were expected to do no more than sign without thought whatever document PFPL and its advisers, Godwins, put before them. The trustees, while accepting realistically that the work involved in preparation of a definitive deed and rules would be undertaken by PFPL and Godwins (and would, to the advantage of the scheme, be paid for by PFPL), had a fiduciary responsibility to the members of the scheme to be satisfied, before joining in executing the deed, that the outcome of the work was an acceptable scheme providing the kinds of retirement benefits that the members expected.
[100] I suspect that, arising from discussion in the course of the hearing, both Mr Newman and Mr Stallworthy were concerned that I entertain the notion that the trustees had no fiduciary role and responsibilities at the time when they decided to join in executing the definitive deed. I do not entertain any such notion. The trustees did have fiduciary responsibilities. They were, however, responsibilities owed primarily to the members of the scheme, not to PFPL.
[101] That is not to say that, if the trustees had happened to notice a feature of the rules (like r 3.5.2.1) which appeared to be unintentionally onerous upon PFPL, they (the trustees) would have been obliged to keep quiet about it. If they thought that something had gone wrong in the drafting to the detriment of PFPL though not of members of the scheme, they were fully entitled to draw it to PFPL’s attention. Mr Newman has said, in his written reply to Mr Stallworthy’s submissions that ‘no decision of the trustees should be made without the
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employer’s interests being considered and taken into account’. I accept that, but I do not think that it has any impact on this case.
[102] For all that trustees ought not to disregard the impact on the employer of something which they contemplate doing (and with that in mind the composition of trustee boards almost invariably includes significant employer representation, as Mr Newman reminds me), it must surely be accepted that the trustees are in place essentially to look after the interests of the members of the scheme, not of the employer. In considering whether the rule in Hastings-Bass applied I need to ask myself what the trustees ought to have done but did not do in connection with the making of the definitive deed and rules. There was nothing in the rules which was disadvantageous to the members. Certainly r 3.5.2.1 was not disadvantageous to them. The problem with it was that it was too advantageous. It is true that something went wrong on this occasion to the detriment of PFPL, but surely the trustees could reasonably believe that PFPL was well capable of looking after itself. Indeed, assuming realistically that they all knew that PFPL had instructed Godwins to advise it and to draft the rules, they no doubt did believe that PFPL was looking after itself.
[103] So far as the point which I am addressing now is concerned the key words in Lloyd LJ’s formulation of the Hastings-Bass principle in Sieff v Fox [2005] 3 All ER 693 at [49], [2005] 1 WLR 3811 are: ‘had he [a trustee] not failed to take into account considerations which he ought to have taken into account.' The argument that r 3.5.2.1 should be set aside under Hastings-Bass has to be that the trustees ought to have taken into account the consideration that the rule omitted any provision for actuarial reduction of a pension taken by a deferred member at an age between 60 and 65. In my judgment that was a consideration that PFPL ought to have taken into account. It was not a consideration that the trustees ought to have taken into account. In para [82] of his judgment in Sieff v Fox Lloyd LJ set out three ways in which the court could control the application of the Hastings-Bass principle. The second was: ‘(b) to take a reasonable and not over-exigent view of what it is that the trustees ought to have taken into account . . .' In my judgment it would be unreasonable and grossly over-exigent to say that, when the trustees had to consider whether to accept the definitive deed and rules as drafted by Godwins and presented to them (the trustees) by PFPL, they ought to have identified the error in r 3.5.2.1 and taken it into account.
[104] I need to add something here about reliance on professional advice. It was obviously reasonable for the trustees to rely on the expertise of Godwins, as several of the trustee witnesses stressed that they did. I acknowledge, however, that there can be cases where the rule in Hastings-Bass causes an act taken by trustees on professional advice to be set aside, not because the trustees should have worked out for themselves some technical issue on which they needed advice, but because the professional advice was itself wrong. Several of the private trust cases where an act by trustees has been set aside in reliance on the rule have been of that nature. Sieff v Fox is one of them. But I do not think that this case is of that nature. Godwins were advising PFPL, not the trustees, and if Godwins had noticed the error in r 3.5.2.1 that would have been a matter for them to advise PFPL about, not the trustees. The adverse consequences would have been consequences for PFPL, not for the pension trust fund or for the members of the scheme, who were the beneficiaries to whom the trustees owed the generality of their fiduciary duties. (At the risk of repeating myself, I do not say that the trustees had no fiduciary obligations to PFPL, but I do say that they
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did not have a fiduciary obligation to discover for the benefit of PFPL deficiencies in the rules like the deficiency in r 3.5.2.1.)
THE CLAIM IN RELIANCE ON THE PRINCIPLE IN HASTINGS-BASS: CONCLUSION
[105] For the reasons which I have explained, I conclude that, although there is a mistake in the drafting of r 3.5.2.1, it is not something which can be cured by means of the principle in Hastings-Bass. There were several other issues canvassed in the hearing which would or might have arisen if I had come to a different conclusion about the possibility of the principle applying. As it is they do not arise. This judgment is going to be quite long enough already, so I will not prolong it by discussing matters which, on the view which I take of the main issue of principle, do not arise.
DISCUSSION AND ANALYSIS: THE CLAIM BASED ON RELIEF IN EQUITY FROM THE CONSEQUENCES OF A MISTAKE
[106] Given that I do not accept Mr Newman’s submission that r 3.5.2.1 can be set aside by virtue of the principle in Hastings-Bass, he contends in the alternative that the rule falls to be set aside because of a principle of equity under which in some circumstances relief may be granted by the court from the consequences of a mistake. The relevant amendment to the particulars of claim pleads that PFPL did not intend r 3.5.2.1 to have the effect which its terms create—
‘but intended [the rule] to have the same effect with regard to deferred members as r 3.2 had with regard to active members . . . The Seventh Claimant [PFPL] thereby entered into the 1992 Deed under a mistake as to the effect of r 3.5.2.1 and accordingly r 3.5.2.1 of the Rules is void and or liable to be set aside . . .’
[107] It will be recalled that one of the reasons why I am unable to accept Mr Newman’s submissions in reliance on the Hastings-Bass principle is that that principle can strike down acts of trustees, whereas in my opinion the effective decision to adopt the rules which included r 3.5.2.1 was a decision of PFPL. The alternative submission which I am considering now is not affected by the same problem, since it is fairly and squarely based on the proposition that the rule came into force by reason of a mistake by PFPL, rather than by reason of a mistake by the trustees. Nevertheless, for the reasons which I will explain, I am unable to accept this alternative way in which Mr Newman puts his case.
[108] The argument rests on a principle of equity which has been applied in several cases over the years, some of considerable antiquity. A fairly recent example is the decision of Millett J in Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338, [1990] 1 WLR 1304. Mr Gibbon had a life interest under a settlement made by his parents years ago. On professional advice and with a view to mitigating inheritance tax he executed a deed which stated that he surrendered his life interest in favour of his two children. The advice had been wrong, because the life interest was a protected life interest. So by virtue of s 33 of the Trustee Act 1925 the purported surrender in favour of the children did not take effect, and discretionary trusts arose instead. Millett J held that the deed should be set aside for mistake. After considering several earlier cases he stated the principle in this way ([1990] 3 All ER 338 at 343, [1990] 1 WLR 1304 at 1309):
‘In my judgment, these cases show that, wherever there is a voluntary transaction by which one party intends to confer a bounty on another, the
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deed will be set aside if the court is satisfied that the disponor did not intend the transaction to have the effect which it did. It will be set aside for mistake whether the mistake is a mistake of law or of fact, so long as the mistake is as to the effect of the transaction itself and not merely as to its consequences or the advantages to be gained by entering into it.’
In applying that principle to the facts of the case Millett J added the following:
‘The parties whose interest it would be to oppose the setting aside of the deed are the unborn future children of Mr Gibbon and the objects of the discretionary trust to arise on forfeiture, that is to say his grandchildren, nephews and nieces. They are all volunteers. In my judgment they could not conscionably insist upon their legal rights under the deed once they had become aware of the circumstances in which they had acquired them.’
[109] I will not review other cases in which the same principle has actually been applied, but as far as I can see they are all similar in nature to Gibbon v Mitchell. They have all been cases where a voluntary transaction has been set aside because the person who carried out the transaction was mistaken as to its legal effect. The mistake also has to be a serious one: see Ogilvie v Allen (1899) 15 TLR 294, a decision of the House of Lords not cited to Millett J (though in no way inconsistent with his decision) but discussed by Lloyd LJ in Sieff v Fox [2005] 3 All ER 693 at [98]–[100], [106], [2005] 1 WLR 3811. Further, as far as I know all of the cases in which the principle of equitable relief for mistake has been applied have been ones where an entire transaction has been set aside. In this case, of course, the entire transaction was the creation of the definitive deed and rules, and what is sought to be set aside is only one relatively short provision in them.
[110] Mr Stallworthy said that all the cases where the principle has actually been applied (in contrast to being referred to by way of obiter dicta) have been private trust cases having four characteristics: (a) a settlor or other disponor, (b) unilaterally, (c) confers a gift or bounty out of property to which the disponor was otherwise entitled, (d) on a volunteer. I accept that what Mr Stallworthy says is true, at least so far as appears from the cases referred to me or of which I am aware.
[111] Mr Stallworthy then submits, and I agree, that the present case is different in all the foregoing respects from those in which the equitable principle of relief for mistake has been applied. This case is not a private trust case: a pension trust is not a private trust. With reference to Mr Stallworthy’s characteristics (a)–(d) I make the following observations. (i) As to (a), PFPL is not a settlor or other disponor. That is to say it did not establish the pension trust by way of a ‘voluntary transaction’ (Millett J’s expression in Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338 at 343, [1990] 1 WLR 1304 at 1309) or by way of a ‘voluntary disposition’ (Lloyd LJ’s expression in Sieff v Fox [2005] 3 All ER 693 at [100], [106], [2005] 1 WLR 3811). PFPL established the pension trust pursuant to the contracts of employment with those of its employees who became members of the scheme, and pursuant to the contract with Kidde (which provided for a PFP scheme to take on the pension liabilities of the Kidde scheme to Kidde employees who were transferring to PFPL). (ii) As to (b), PFPL did not establish the trust unilaterally. It established it pursuant to the bilateral (or multilateral) contracts of employment and the Kidde contract. (iii) As to (c), PFPL was not conferring gifts or bounty on the members of the scheme. The creation of the trust was a contractual matter, being part of the commercial relationship between an
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employer and its employees. Further, in the particular circumstances of this scheme it is for the most part not correct that the funds of the trust were provided by PFPL out of property to which it was otherwise entitled. Most of the initial funding of the trust came from Kidde as part of the arrangement whereby members of the former Kidde pension scheme became members of the PFPL scheme on transferring and becoming employees of PFPL. (iv) As to (d), the members of the scheme were not volunteers. They gave consideration, in the form of their services as employees, for the rights which they had under the pension scheme.
[112] If the cases stopped at that point I do not think that there would be an argument for setting aside r 3.5.2.1 of the PFP scheme on the authority of the principles applied in cases like Gibbon v Mitchell. There are, however, obiter dicta in three recent cases to the contrary effect. The first and most important of the cases is AMP (UK) plc v Barker [2001] OPLR 197, [2001] Pens LR 77, a decision of Lawrence Collins J. The trustees of a pension scheme passed a resolution to amend the scheme so as to increase the benefits payable to members who had to leave service by reason of incapacity. The amendment required the consent of the employer (NPI), which was given. The trustees and NPI (and, no doubt, their advisers) mistakenly overlooked another rule which tied the pensions payable to all early leavers to the amounts payable to members leaving by reason of incapacity. So an amendment intended to benefit only incapacitated early leavers, if it took effect according to its terms, would have a wholly unintended and very costly knock-on effect because it would benefit all early leavers.
[113] Lawrence Collins J’s decision was that the matter could and should be cured by rectification, but it had been submitted to him that a similar result could be achieved by means of either or both of the rule in Hastings-Bass and the principle of setting aside in equity for mistake. At the end of his judgment he referred to those arguments, and indicated (clearly obiter) that he would have been prepared to accept them. He addresses relief for mistake in three paragraphs ([2001] OPLR 197 at 214–215, [2001] Pens LR 77 at 94–95). In the first (para 80 of the judgment) he says: ‘Where a document is executed under a mistake as to its effect it may be set aside. This jurisdiction in relation to unilateral transactions also has a long history.' He then summarises a case of 1909 in which a unilateral appointment was set aside because the appointor had forgotten that she had previously made a large appointment in favour of the appointee, her daughter: see Lady Hood of Avalon v Mackinnon [1909] 1 Ch 476. In the next para Lawrence Collins J summarises Gibbon v Mitchell. In the third paragraph (para 82 of the judgment) the learned judge concludes as follows:
‘There is no reason in principle why this jurisdiction should be limited to voluntary settlements in the strict sense. As Millett J emphasised (at 1307) there is a wide equitable jurisdiction to relieve from the consequences of mistake, and I would have decided that this would have been an appropriate case for setting aside NPI’s consent for mistake.’
[114] I have to say that, for myself, I do not find the two cases which the judge describes particularly instructive for the case before him. For my part I am unhappy about the jurisdiction being extended to commercial and contractual matters in which the mechanism of a trust has been used as part of the commercial structure. Pension trusts are, of course, of that nature. In my view the law provides a remedy for cases like AMP (UK) plc v Barker. That remedy is, of course, rectification, and that was the remedy which Lawrence Collins J
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applied as his actual decision in the case. I note, although Lawrence Collins J does not mention it, that to set aside the amendment to the rules in AMP (UK) plc v Barker (that being the result of NPI’s consent being set aside) would be unsatisfactory, because the original intention was to amend the rules so as to increase the benefits payable to disabled early leavers. Rectification (the remedy which the judge actually awarded) enabled that result to be achieved while removing the unintended consequential effect on other early leavers. Setting aside would not have done that because it would have removed the provision for benefits to be paid to disabled early leavers. I can believe that the trustees and the company would in practice have made the increased payments to disabled leavers, but I do not think that it would be satisfactory to ignore the point on that basis.
[115] There is one other point arising from Lawrence Collins J’s judgment which I need to explain. The only cases to which he referred in the text of his judgment were the two which I have mentioned: Lady Hood of Avalon v Mackinnon and Gibbon v Mitchell. However, he added a footnote to some words in the first of the three paragraphs. In para [113], above, I have quoted the two first sentences in the paragraph. The second one is: ‘This jurisdiction in relation to unilateral transactions also has a long pedigree . . .' After ‘unilateral transactions’ there is a reference to a footnote. The footnote reads: ‘See, for bilateral transactions, Solle v Butcher [1950] 1 KB 671; and, in the context of pension schemes, Spooner v British Telecommunications [2000] PLR 65.' Spooner v British Telecommunications plc [2000] OPLR 189, [2000] Pens LR 65 was not about anything done by trustees of a pension scheme, but about elections which members had made to shift their benefits from one category to another. They mistakenly believed that the other category of benefit would be more favourable for them, and had been given erroneous advice to that effect by the employer. The question was whether their elections could be set aside for mistake, and the answer which Jonathan Parker J gave was that they could. I cannot see that the case is relevant in the circumstances with which I am concerned.
[116] Solle v Butcher [1949] 2 All ER 1107, [1950] 1 KB 671 may be a different matter. It is a well-known case, and has been problematic ever since it was decided. It concerned whether a contract (in fact a tenancy of a house) could be set aside for mistake. The landlord and tenant had believed that the house was not subject to rent control and could be let at an unregulated rent. Their belief was mistaken, and the rent which the landlord could recover was reduced by force of statute to a lower amount than that provided for in the contract. Contract is in the main a common law subject. The circumstances in which an apparent contract is void at common law on grounds of mistake had been authoritatively determined by the House of Lords in the celebrated case of Bell v Lever Bros Ltd [1932] AC 161, [1931] All ER Rep 1. They are quite restricted. The mistake has to be ‘as to the existence of some quality which makes the thing without the quality essentially different from the thing as it was believed to be’ (see Lord Atkin [1932] AC 161 at 218, [1931] All ER Rep 1 at 28). In Solle v Butcher it was accepted that the mistake was not of that kind. The house without the quality of freedom from rent control was not essentially different from the house as it had been believed to be. It was still the same house. Nevertheless the Court of Appeal, and in particular Lord Denning MR, held that, although the contract of tenancy was not invalid at common law for mistake, it was nevertheless capable of being set aside in equity by reason of exactly the same mistake.
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[117] In AMP (UK) plc v Barker it seems likely that Lawrence Collins J took the view that, although the mistake that had been made in the rules of the pension scheme with which he was concerned was not of the nature described in Bell v Lever Bros Ltd and therefore at common law the rules were binding in accordance with their terms, nevertheless the mistake still enabled the court to set the particular rule aside in equity. The authority for this proposition must, I take it, have been Solle v Butcher.
[118] However, there has been a most important development in this part of the law since Lawrence Collins J’s decision. In Great Peace Shipping Ltd v Tsavliris Salvage (International) Ltd, The Great Peace [2002] EWCA Civ 1407, [2002] 4 All ER 689, [2003] QB 679, the Court of Appeal held that Solle v Butcher was irreconcilable with Bell v Lever Bros Ltd and should not be followed. In para [160] of the court’s single judgment it considered whether a line of authority about the doctrine of binding precedent ‘goes far enough to permit us to hold that Solle v Butcher [1949] 2 All ER 1107, [1950] 1 KB 671 is not good law’. The court considered that it did. Paragraph [160] concludes as follows:
‘In this case we have heard full argument, which has provided what we believe has been the first opportunity in this court for a full and mature consideration of the relation between Bell v Lever Bros Ltd and Solle v Butcher. In the light of that consideration we can see no way that Solle v Butcher can stand with Bell v Lever Bros Ltd. In these circumstances we can see no option but so to hold.’
If the Great Peace Shipping case had been decided before Lawrence Collins J decided AMP (UK) plc v Barker it is possible—perhaps probable—that he would not have said obiter that the mistaken rule in the pension scheme before him could, as an alternative to being rectified, have been set aside in equity on the ground of mistake.
[119] My own view on this is that I respectfully disagree with the view which Lawrence Collins J, obiter and briefly, expressed. I agree that the line of cases of which Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338, [1990] 1 WLR 1304 is one supports the proposition that there is an equitable jurisdiction under which voluntary dispositions may be set aside on grounds of mistake, but I do not accept that those cases provide support for the existence of an equitable jurisdiction to set aside a rule in a pension scheme for mistake. Nor do I feel able to agree that there is no reason why the jurisdiction should be limited to voluntary settlements or dispositions. Particularly since the decision of the Court of Appeal in the Great Peace Shipping case I believe that a rule in a pension scheme can only be nullified for mistake if the mistake was of the kind described in Bell v Lever Bros Ltd. The mistake in this case was not. The rules were still a pension scheme, albeit one which, because of the mistake, was going to be more expensive for the employer.
[120] It is perhaps worth making one further point. It is true that the rules were attached to and brought into effect by a deed (the definitive deed) to which trustees were parties. But that does not mean that the question of whether one of the rules is inapplicable because of a mistake somehow moves out of the scope of common law and into the scope of equity. Pension schemes are contractual matters, and are part of the commercial relationship between a business enterprise and its employees. It is not inevitable that there should be a trust and trustees in order to have a pension scheme. As I have said earlier (at [88], above) a pay as you go scheme does not need to have trustees, but could still be affected by a mistake of the same nature as the one in this case. Where there is a trust, as
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there is in this case, the trust is simply part of the machinery to implement one element in the contractual and commercial relationship between an employer and its employees.
[121] I said in [112], above, that there are three cases in which it has been said obiter that a pension scheme rule affected by a mistake could, in addition to being corrected by rectification, also or alternatively be set aside by way of equitable relief for mistake. AMP (UK) plc v Barker was the first. The second is Gallaher Ltd v Gallaher Pensions Ltd [2005] Pens LR 103, a decision of Etherton J to which I have already referred on a different point. As in AMP (UK) plc v Barker Etherton J found that the facts sufficiently established that the mistake could be cured by rectification. He ordered rectification, and that was the ratio of his judgment. He added obiter (in paras [150] et seq) that the mistake made by the trustees of the pension scheme would have been ‘sufficient to invoke the court’s equitable jurisdiction to set aside the 1987 Deeds’. In essence he reached that conclusion by citing and following Lawrence Collins J’s statement in AMP (UK) plc v Barker that there was no reason in principle why that jurisdiction should not be appropriate for the situation in that case. I have already said that I respectfully do not agree with Lawrence Collins J in that respect, and I take the same respectful view in relation to what Etherton J said about the same matter. As far as I can see he was not informed that the Court of Appeal had declared Solle v Butcher to be bad law. I do not know whether, if he had been so informed, he might have modified what he said on this issue.
[122] The third case in which there have been obiter dicta of a similar nature is Irish Pensions Trust Ltd v Central Remedial Clinic [2005] OPLR 137, a decision of Kelly J in the High Court of Ireland in March 2005. It is another case in which the judge held by way of ratio that a mistake could and should be corrected by rectification, and then added obiter that he would also have been prepared to set the particular rule aside under the equitable jurisdiction described by Millett J in Gibbon v Mitchell. He observed that Millett J’s observations were made in the context of a voluntary transaction, but he then referred to Lawrence Collins J’s view in AMP (UK) plc v Barker that there was no reason in principle why they should be so limited. Kelly J also placed some reliance on an earlier Irish case in which Solle v Butcher had been cited by the court for the proposition that ‘the court may, in the exercise of its equitable jurisdiction set aside an agreement even though it is not avoided by common shared mistake’. It seems that Kelly J was not informed that Solle v Butcher had been disapproved by the Court of Appeal of England and Wales in the meantime.
[123] For the reasons which I have explained I do not accept Mr Newman’s argument that, by way of alternative to his submissions based on the rule in Hastings-Bass, equitable relief for mistake provides a valid basis for setting aside r 3.5.2.1 in the present case. I add in relation to that issue, as I did at the end of [105] above in relation to the claim in so far as it was based on the rule in Hastings-Bass, that in order not to prolong this judgment excessively I do not discuss matters (such as, in the context of equitable relief for mistake, defences based on laches or acquiescence) which in my view do not arise. The overall result so far as the claim is concerned is that, since in my view neither the rule in Hastings-Bass nor the principle of equitable relief for mistake applies in this case, the claim is dismissed.
Page 1253 of [2008] 1 All ER 1216
THE COUNTERCLAIM
[124] The counterclaim (which was added to the pleadings only about a month before the trial) gives the impression that it raises considerably wider issues than the claim, which is about the validity or otherwise of r 3.5.2.1. Perhaps it does, but I can deal with it at less length.
[125] Paragraph 24 of the amended defence and counterclaim sets out the counterclaim as follows:
‘By reason of those facts and matters, the change in NRD [normal retirement date] under the 1992 Deed and rules from the NRD provided by the Interim Deed is void/and or liable to be set aside, so that the unequalised NRDs provided by the Interim Deed persist (alternatively, the 1992 Deed and Rules as a whole is void and/or liable to be set aside).’
Two different contentions are made in that paragraph. (i) The contention made in the brackets at the end (beginning ‘alternatively’) is logically prior to the contention made in the earlier part of the paragraph. It asserts that the definitive deed and rules are wholly void. If they are the interim deed remains in force, but subject to the variation required by Community law (as decided in the Barber case) that the benefits accruing to members of the scheme would be calculated by reference to an equalised normal retirement date of 60 for males as well as females. (ii) The earlier contention in para 24 accepts that the definitive deed and rules remain in force, but with the variation that, instead of the normal retirement date being 65, which is what the rules say, the rules are to operate on the basis that the normal retirement date, both for males and for females, is 60. That position would continue until 25 May 2001, the date when the rules were amended prospectively as described at [49], above. In other words the scheme’s Barber window (see [21], above), which PFPL and the trustees believed had closed on 1 April 1992, remained open until 25 May 2001. I add that, as I understand Mr Stallworthy’s arguments, he developed a third submission based on equitable relief for mistake by analogy with the Gibbon v Mitchell line of cases. I doubt that that submission is strictly covered by the counterclaim as pleaded, but I will say something about it in any event.
[126] I will consider first the more far-reaching contention that the definitive deed and rules are completely void. I hope that I have correctly understood the grounds for this striking assertion. I believe that Mr Stallworthy advances two points: one is that the case is similar to Turner v Turner [1983] 3 All ER 745, [1984] Ch 100, a decision of Mervyn Davies J which I describe in the next paragraph; the other is that the trustees had to act unanimously, and there was insufficient participation by all of the trustees for them to have validly joined with PFPL in executing the definitive deed.
[127] In Turner v Turner Mervyn Davies J set aside three purported deeds of appointment which had been signed by the three persons who were the trustees of a private settlement. He did so on the ground that, as the trustees and the settlor readily acknowledged, the trustees simply signed anything that was placed before them, and had no idea of what they were doing. They understood virtually nothing about what a settlement was and about what was involved in being a trustee. The judge did not use the expression, but the settlement and everything to do with it were a shambles.
[128] I do not accept Mr Stallworthy’s submission that the present case, so far as the trustees’ participation in the making of the definitive deed and rules was concerned, was comparable to Turner v Turner. On the basis of the evidence of
Page 1254 of [2008] 1 All ER 1216
the four trustees who gave oral evidence I consider that they took their position seriously and conscientiously. I feel sure that the same applied to Ms Allen. She was the personnel director at the time, and was heavily involved in the exchanges with Godwins which led to the preparation of the deed and rules. She now lives in Cyprus and declined to become involved in the case. I have no reason to suppose otherwise about Glenys Kelly (now Mrs Brown), who was at the time the secretary of Mr Holmes, then the managing director of the company and an original trustee who gave oral evidence. Mrs Brown also lives abroad. She gave evidence, but only in the form of a witness statement which said that she could scarcely remember anything about the matter.
[129] I do not suggest that, before signing the definitive deed, each of the trustees familiarised himself or herself in detail with what it contained. I have no doubt that those of them who were not involved in their managerial (non-trustee) capacities in the preparation of the draft deed and rules by Godwins left PFPL to take the lead in getting the deed and rules planned and drafted. I see nothing wrong with that, and indeed it would be unrealistic to expect anything else. When the deed and rules were ready and the next stage was for them to be brought into effect I see no reason to doubt that the trustees of the scheme, unlike the trustees in Turner v Turner, understood what they would be doing. They understood that they would be taking the important step of bringing into legal effect the rules which were going to govern the scheme for the future. They (except perhaps Ms Allen) did not know the details of the rules, but they did know that the rules had been drafted by Godwins, a company which specialised in advising on pension schemes. They knew that three of their number—Mr Holmes, Mr Perrett and Ms Allen—were already satisfied with the draft documents. They knew that Ms Allen, one of their number, had been the main contact between PFPL and Godwins during the process of the deed and rules being prepared. They knew, or if they had thought about it they would have assumed, that the managing director, the finance director and the personnel manager of PFPL had confidence in Godwins to do a satisfactory job in preparing the documents.
[130] I assert that it is common for trustees (or other bodies of similar size, like boards of directors) who need to enter into a transaction which needs to be documented in a way that requires specialist skills to instruct specialist consultants (like Godwins) to prepare the documentation. Possibly they may delegate the responsibility for liaising with the consultants to one of their own number who has some familiarity with the subject. When the documents are ready for execution the other trustees will in all probability ask the consultants to confirm that in their expert opinion they are suitable. (In this case Mr Evans of Godwins was in attendance at the meeting on 14 May 1992 when the five trustees present accepted and signed the deed and rules). If one of the trustees’ own number has been the contact with the consultants they may ask him or her to confirm that he or she is content with what the consultants have produced. If the trustees receive satisfactory answers they are likely to proceed and join in executing the document or documents. It is to my mind inconceivable that, if there turns out to be something wrong with a document after all, they or anyone else can say that they are not bound by it because they did not take adequate steps to inform themselves about the contents of it before signing it. At root that is what Mr Stallworthy’s submission on this part of the case amounts to.
[131] Turner v Turner is an extreme and highly exceptional case. I do not accept that this case is of a similar nature.
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[132] I move on to Mr Stallworthy’s argument based on the proposition that the trustees had to act unanimously. He correctly points out that there is no provision in the interim deed for majority decisions. However, cl 5(a) of the interim deed merely provided: ‘The Principal Company and the Trustees undertake that they will . . . make a Definitive Deed adopting rules . . .' In my view the principal company (PFPL) and the trustees did make a definitive deed, and the deed did adopt rules. The definitive deed stated that the attached rules were the rules of the scheme. The deed was signed and sealed on behalf of the company, and was also executed as a deed by each of the six trustees. Five of the trustees signed the deed at the meeting held on 14 May 1992, their signatures being witnessed by Mr Evans of Godwins, who was present. Mr Darbon signed the deed at a later date, his signature being witnessed by another person. In my judgment that complied with cl 5(a), and, independently of that subclause, in any event constituted execution of the deed by all the persons who needed to execute it for it to take effect. All six trustees had to execute the deed, but I cannot see any requirement that they all had to execute it at the same time and in the presence of each other, or that there had to be some form of prior formal resolution of all six trustees that the deed should be executed. In any case, as I have described earlier (see [44], above), before the meeting on 14 May 1992 Mr Darbon had informed Ms Allen that he would sign the deed on his return, and she reported to that effect at the meeting.
[133] It is true that there had been a meeting on 1 March 1992 where Mr Darbon and Mr Whiting were not present, but that was not a meeting at which any formal steps were taken. The minutes recorded a decision that the normal retirement date should be 65 for males and females. That may not have been a decision which formally bound the trustees, but the question of whether it was or not cannot affect the critical points, which are that PFPL and all six trustees duly executed the definitive deed, and that the rules which were brought into effect by the deed provided that the normal retirement date was to be 65 for both sexes.
[134] For the foregoing reasons I do not accept the part of the counterclaim which alleges that the definitive deed and rules as a whole were void or liable to be set aside.
[135] I move on to the contention in the earlier part of para 24 of the defence and counterclaim that the change in the normal retirement date from age 60 to 65 was void and/or liable to be set aside. It will be recalled that, before the definitive deed and rules took effect, there were two reasons why the normal retirement date was at age 60. For females it always had been because of cl 6(E) of the interim deed and the company’s explanatory literature as provided to members of the scheme. For males the normal retirement date had been age 65 (because that was what the explanatory literature said) until the decision in the Barber case, but from the date of that decision (17 May 1990) it became 60 by the force of Community law as declared by the court. That position continued during the PFP scheme’s Barber window, that is until the scheme adopted new rules which equalised the normal retirement dates for males and females.
[136] Mr Stallworthy’s argument that the elements of the rules which adopted an equalised normal retirement date of age 65 were void or liable to be set aside rests essentially on the principle in Hastings-Bass. The particular application of the principle which Mr Stallworthy puts to me is that, in deciding upon an equalised retirement age of 65, the trustees failed to take into account relevant considerations which they ought to have taken into account, and that, if they had
Page 1256 of [2008] 1 All ER 1216
taken those considerations into account, they would, or at least might, have equalised the normal retirement date for males and females at a different age, and in particular at 60. He says that in this case ‘might’ rather than ‘would’ is enough, because the trustees had, not a mere power to bring a new deed and rules into effect, but a duty to do so by virtue of their undertaking in cl 5(a) of the interim deed. For the proposition that ‘might’ is enough to bring the Hastings-Bass principle into play where trustees are acting under a duty rather than a power see Lloyd LJ in Sieff v Fox [2005] 3 All ER 693 at [77], [2005] 1 WLR 3811.
[137] Mr Stallworthy says that the trustees failed to realise that the adoption of 65 as the normal retirement age worsened the position, not only of females, but also of males. Although the normal retirement date for males under the scheme (as under the earlier Kidde scheme from which most of the members had transferred) had been 65, the effect of the Barber decision was to confer on them a lower normal retirement date of age 60. The rules adopted in 1992 took that normal retirement date for males away. Mr Stallworthy says that the pension fund at the time had a surplus which could have been used to support an earlier normal retirement date, and that the trustees failed to take account of that factor. He says that the advice given at the time may have been incorrect or incomplete in some respects. More generally Mr Stallworthy says that PFPL and the company could at very little extra cost have afforded to equalise the normal retirement date at age 60 rather than 65. He adds that to adopt the age of 60 might have been expected to improve employee relations and assist recruitment of motivated and high quality employees. For those and other reasons he says that there was a substantial argument for equalising at 60, not at 65; the trustees did not take that argument into account; and because this is a ‘might’ case, not a ‘would’ case, the rule in Hastings-Bass applies. The elements of the rules which proceeded by reference to the age 65 should be set aside. The result would be, so it was submitted, that the original normal retirement ages specified in the explanatory literature (referred to in the interim deed) would persist; but since those ages were unequal (60 for females and 65 for males) the Barber decision would continue to operate so as to impose equal normal retirement ages of 60 for both sexes. This substitution of 60 for 65 would apply for all accruals of pension rights for service until 25 May 2001, the date of the prospective amendment of the rules to remove r 3.5.2.1.
[138] Persuasively though Mr Stallworthy advances those submissions, I cannot accept them. One reason arises from Lloyd LJ’s observation (at [82]) (to which I referred at [103], above) that one way of controlling the application of the Hastings-Bass principle is for the courts ‘to take a reasonable and not over-exigent view of what it is that the trustees ought to have taken into account’. In my opinion Mr Stallworthy’s submissions on this point set far too exacting a standard for the trustees.
[139] There is in any event a more fundamental point. A major weakness in Mr Stallworthy’s submission is that it seems frequently to proceed on the basis that the decision about how to equalise the normal retirement date was one simply for the trustees. But it was not. The decision was in form one for the trustees and PFPL to take jointly, and (I assert) in substance a decision predominantly for PFPL to take. I believe on the evidence that there was no possibility of the company adopting any normal retirement date other than age 65. Godwins had advised the company of the various possibilities, but I think it is clear that Godwins’ recommendation was that equalisation should be at 65. The information which Godwins supplied to the company was that most
Page 1257 of [2008] 1 All ER 1216
schemes were equalising at 65. The actuary was proceeding on the basis of a 65th birthday normal retirement date. And a critical point is that, as it appears to me, the company had firmly decided that equalisation should be at 65 for males and females. The minutes of the meeting on 1 March 1992 include this:
‘Equalisation of Pension Ages
After consultation with our adviser, Godwins, it was decided that the Normal Retirement Age for men and women should be age 65 and the Scheme Rules are to be amended accordingly from 1 May 1992.’
That meeting was attended by the managing director, the finance director and the personnel manager, who between them were obviously the key decision makers in the management of the company. Also present was Glenys Kelly, the managing director’s secretary and a trustee of the pension scheme. At a date which I do not think is known exactly but which seems to have been slightly earlier than the time of the meeting the company circularised employees with information that the normal retirement date from 1 April 1992 was going to be 65.
[140] In my opinion it was plainly not the case that, if the trustees (including the four persons present at the above meeting) had thought about Mr Stallworthy’s points or some of them and had invited PFPL to consider a normal retirement date of an age lower than 65 (probably 60), the company would have reconsidered. Let me suppose that Mr Stallworthy’s points or some of them are or might be right and that PFPL could sensibly have decided to adopt a normal retirement age of 60. That makes no difference. The company had decided on 65 and it is fanciful to suppose that the company would have changed its decision. Nor is it as if the age of 65 was controversial in the minds of the trustees. Four of the six trustees had been present at the 1 March 1992 meeting and had made the decision that the age should be 65. Mr Darbon, who was not present, said in his evidence that he considered that the decision was one for the company to take, and I believe that Mr Whiting in re-examination accepted the inevitable in the same respect (see [95], above). It is not as if the age of 65 was inherently unreasonable or unacceptable. Sixty-five is a common retirement age in this country, and possibly the commonest age of all for businesses in the private sector.
[141] Suppose that when the trustees were invited to join with PFPL in executing the definitive deed and rules, with the normal retirement age of 65 in them, the trustees or some of them had asked the company to consider adopting a lower normal retirement age instead. What would have happened? In my opinion the company would have said no. It would have said that it had firmly decided on 65, and that there was no point in reconsidering the matter. Those are, in my opinion, matters of what would have happened, not just of what might have happened. And what would have happened next? In my opinion the trustees would (again would, not might) have accepted the company’s decision and joined with it in executing the definitive deed and rules.
[142] So, to formulate the question in the form in which it arises in the specific context of the Hastings-Bass principle: if the trustees had considered the sort of matters which Mr Stallworthy has raised and which he says they ought to have considered but did not, ‘might’ the rules have come to be expressed in terms of a normal retirement date, not of 65, but of a lower age such as 60? I answer the question: no, the rules ‘would’ not have adopted a lower normal retirement date; they ‘would’ still have adopted the normal retirement date of age 65.
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[143] For those reasons I do not accept the part of the counterclaim which seeks to set aside the choice of age 65 as the normal retirement date in the rules which were adopted by PFPL and the trustees in 1992.
[144] I said in para [125], above, that Mr Stallworthy also advanced an argument that seeks to rely on equitable principles relating to mistake. The argument was that PFPL believed that the rules which were adopted in 1992 mirrored the rules of the old Kidde scheme from which most of the members of the new PFP scheme had transferred when PFPL acquired one of the divisions of the former Kidde business. Mr Stallworthy says that PFPL was mistaken in that respect, and therefore provisions of the 1992 rules which were less advantageous than provisions of the old Kidde scheme should be set aside by way of equitable relief for mistake.
[145] This is a comparatively small issue in the case, and fortunately I do not have to go into it. The reason is that Mr Stallworthy said that, if I accepted his submission, discussed earlier (see [110] et seq, above), that the doctrine of equitable relief for mistake has no application in the context of non-voluntary transactions like pension schemes, notwithstanding the obiter dicta in AMP (UK) plc v Barker [2001] OPLR 197, [2001] Pens LR 77, Gallaher Ltd v Gallaher Pensions Ltd [2005] Pens LR 103 and Irish Pensions Trust Ltd v Central Remedial Clinic [2005] OPLR 137 that it does, he does not maintain his argument that the principle could apply in the manner which I have described in the foregoing paragraph. I have accepted Mr Stallworthy’s submission in that respect, and in the circumstances I will not extend this already over-long judgment further by dealing with this argument which would take me back to the old Kidde scheme.
CONCLUSION
[146] I believe that I have now dealt with all the matters which require to be covered in this judgment. For the reasons which I have sought to explain I dismiss both the claim and the counterclaim.
Claim and counterclaim dismissed.
Gareth Williams Barrister.
Wolman v Islington London Borough Council and another
[2008] 1 All ER 1259
[2007] EWCA Civ 823
Categories: CRIMINAL; Road Traffic: LOCAL GOVERNMENT
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WALLER, CHADWICK AND MOORE-BICK LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 11 JULY, 31 JULY 2007
Road traffic – Urban road – Parking – Criminal offence – Causing or permitting vehicle to be parked with one or more wheels on any part of urban road other than carriageway – Whether rider of motorcycle parked with one or both wheels raised above pavement committing offence – Greater London Council (General Powers) Act 1974, s 15.
The claimant lived within the area of the first defendant local authority. When at home he parked his motorcycle on its stand which rested on the pavement outside his house. The front wheel of the motorcycle rested on his own property, the rear wheel was suspended slightly above the surface of the pavement. The pavement formed part of an urban road within the meaning of the Greater London Council (General Powers) Act 1974 and s 15a of that Act as amended by s 15(2) of the London Local Authorities Act 2000 provided that any person who caused or permitted any vehicle to be parked in Greater London with one or more wheels on any part of an urban road other than a carriageway was guilty of an offence and would be liable on summary conviction to a fine. The claimant worked within the area of the second defendant local authority and when at work he sometimes parked his motorcycle on the pavement resting on its stand with both wheels suspended slightly above the surface of the ground. The pavement near his place of work was also part of an urban road other than a carriageway. On numerous occasions he was issued with penalty charge notices by the defendants’ parking attendants on the grounds of infringements of the prohibition on parking on the pavement and on one or two occasions his motorcycle was removed to a vehicle pound by the second defendant. The claimant brought proceedings in the county court against the defendants claiming damages for wrongful interference with his motorcycle, breach of statutory duty, harassment and misfeasance in public office and injunctions restraining them from committing similar wrongful acts in the future. The judge in the county court heard argument on the correct interpretation of s 15 of the 1974 Act as a preliminary issue. He declared that the section on its true meaning included parking with one or more wheels raised over the surface of any part of an urban road other than a carriageway. The claimant appealed. He submitted that as a matter of the ordinary use of language the word ‘on’ connoted some degree of physical contact, direct or indirect, between the wheels and the pavement and that, as s 15 created a criminal offence which resulted in the imposition of a penalty, any doubt over the interpretation of the section should be resolved in favour of the person at risk of incurring the penalty.
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Held – Having regard to the mischief at which s 15 of the 1974 Act was directed, which was parking on parts of the road other than the carriageway itself, and principally, the pavement, a person caused or permitted a vehicle ‘to be parked with one or more wheels on [the pavement]’ if he parked a vehicle partly on the road but with one or more wheels resting on the pavement, or, which was likely to apply only in the case of a motorcycle, he parked it entirely on the pavement with the result that the whole of the vehicle, including its wheels and every other part of it, was resting on the pavement. That would be so even if none of its wheels was in direct contact with the pavement because the expression ‘wheels on any part of an urban road other than a carriageway’ was apt in that context to cover the case. Where part of the vehicle was resting elsewhere than on the pavement it was a matter of fact whether it was parked on the pavement or not. In the case of a motorcycle parked on its centre stand the likelihood was that if the stand itself was on the pavement, the motorcycle as a whole would be parked on the pavement, including at least one of its wheels. That might involve giving an extended meaning to the word ‘on’, but once the mischief at which the legislation was aimed was identified the section was not ambiguous so as to call for the application of the presumption against doubtful penalisation. In the instant case, the declaration granted by the judge had been too wide because it would cover a motorcycle parked in the road with one wheel extending over, but not touching, the pavement. The appeal would be allowed to the extent of setting aside that declaration and substituting a declaration that by parking his motorcycle on its stand on the pavement with its body and one or both of its wheels on or over the pavement the claimant had been in contravention of the 1974 Act (see [16]–[21], below).
Notes
For road traffic: fixed penalty offences, see 40(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2007 reissue) para 1093.
For the Greater London Council (General Powers) Act 1974, s 15, see 26 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2002 reissue) 719.
For the London Local Authorities Act 2000, s 15, see 26 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2002 reissue) 1535.
Case referred to in judgment
Investors Compensation Scheme v West Bromwich Building Society, Investors Compensation Scheme Ltd v Hopkin & Sons (a firm), Alford v West Bromwich Building Society, Armitage v West Bromwich Building Society [1998] 1 All ER 98, [1998] 1 WLR 896, HL.
Appeal
The claimant Clive Wolman appealed from the order of Robin Laurie, sitting as a Deputy Circuit Judge in the Mayor’s and City of London County Court, determining as a preliminary point of law, in proceedings brought by Mr Wolman against the London Borough of Islington and the Corporation of the City of London, that s 15(1) of the Greater London Council (General Powers) Act 1974 as amended by s 15(2) of the London Local Authorities Act 2000, which prohibited causing or permitting any vehicle to be parked in Greater London with one or more wheels on any part of an urban road other than a carriageway, on its true meaning included parking with one or more wheels raised over the surface of any such part. The facts are set out in the judgment of Moore-Bick LJ.
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Mr Wolman appeared in person.
Jonathan Manning and Lindsay Johnson (instructed by the Director of Law and Public Services, London Borough of Islington) for the London Borough of Islington and (instructed by the Comptroller and City Solicitor of the City of London) for the Corporation of the City of London.
Judgment was reserved.
31 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
MOORE-BICK LJ.
[1] This is an appeal from an order of Judge Robin Laurie, sitting as a deputy circuit judge, determining a preliminary point of law in proceedings brought by the claimant, Mr Clive Wolman, against the London Borough of Islington and the Corporation of the City of London. It raises a short, but not altogether straightforward, point of statutory interpretation.
[2] Section 15 of the Greater London Council (General Powers) Act 1974 as amended by s 15(2) of the London Local Authorities Act 2000 provides, so far as material, as follows:
‘. . . any person who causes or permits any vehicle to be parked in Greater London with one or more wheels on any part of an urban road other than a carriageway, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction to a fine not exceeding level 1 on the standard scale.’
[3] Each of the defendants is an enforcement authority in relation to parking offences within its area and as such its parking attendants are empowered under s 66 of the Road Traffic Act 1991 to issue penalty charge notices, usually referred to as ‘parking tickets’, in respect of vehicles they have reason to believe are parked in contravention of the statutory provisions. Such notices are issued by fixing them to the vehicle in question.
[4] Mr Wolman is a barrister. He lives in Duncan Terrace, Islington and travels to work by motorcycle. At home he parks his motorcycle on its stand which rests on the pavement outside his house. The front wheel of the bike rests on his own property; the rear wheel is suspended slightly above the surface of the pavement. The pavement forms part of an urban road other than a carriageway within the meaning of the 1974 Act in the London Borough of Islington.
[5] Mr Wolman’s chambers are in Lincoln’s Inn. When at work he occasionally parks his motorcycle on the pavement in Chancery Lane resting on its stand with both wheels suspended slightly above the surface of the ground. To balance a motorcycle on its central stand so that neither wheel is in contact with the ground would seem to require a considerable degree of skill, but Mr Wolman assured us that it can be done and I accept for present purposes that he is right. The pavement in Chancery Lane forms part of an urban road other than a carriageway within the meaning of the 1974 Act in the City of London.
[6] On numerous occasions parking wardens in both Islington and the City of London have issued parking tickets on the grounds of infringements of the prohibition on parking on the pavement which they have attached to Mr Wolman’s motorcycle. On one or two occasions his bike has been removed from Chancery Lane to a vehicle pound.
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[7] On 26 May 2005 Mr Wolman commenced proceedings in the Clerkenwell County Court against the two local authorities claiming damages for wrongful interference with his motorcycle, breach of statutory duty, harassment and misfeasance in public office and also injunctions restraining them from committing similar wrongful acts in the future. One of the issues in the action is whether a vehicle, in this case a motorcycle, parked with one or more wheels suspended over, but not touching, the pavement is parked with one or more wheels on the pavement within the meaning of s 15.
[8] On 28 March 2006 the case came before Judge Robin Laurie at Wandsworth County Court for trial. With the agreement of the parties the judge heard argument on the correct interpretation of s 15 with a view to deciding the question as a preliminary issue. The judge held that a motorcycle parked in the manner described earlier was parked with one or more wheels ‘on’ the pavement. In reaching that conclusion he adopted a purposive approach to the interpretation of the statute and appears to have been influenced mainly by the consideration that, if Mr Wolman were right, people could easily circumvent the statute by laying a motorcycle on its side in such a way that neither of the wheels touched the ground, or by putting the wheels on blocks of wood, or even pieces of paper. He granted a declaration in the following terms:
‘It is declared that section 15(1) of the Greater London Council (General Powers) Act 1974 as amended by section 15(2) of the London Local Authorities Act 2000 (which prohibits causing or parking [permitting] any vehicle to be parked in Greater London with one or more wheels on any part of an urban road other than a carriageway) on its true meaning includes parking with one or more wheels raised over the surface of any such part.’
[9] Mr Wolman submitted that as a matter of the ordinary use of language the word ‘on’ in this context connotes some degree of physical contact, direct or indirect, between the wheels and the pavement. He referred us to the definition of the word ‘on’ in various well-known dictionaries which support the view that its basic meaning describes the relative positions of two or more things, one of which is above and in contact with the other by which it is supported. However, as Lord Hoffmann observed in Investors Compensation Scheme v West Bromwich Building Society, Investors Compensation Scheme Ltd v Hopkin & Sons (a firm), Alford v West Bromwich Building Society, Armitage v West Bromwich Building Society [1998] 1 All ER 98 at 115, [1998] 1 WLR 896 at 913, the meaning of words is a matter of dictionaries and grammars; the meaning of a document is what the parties using those words against the relevant background would reasonably have been understood to mean. In my view much the same applies to statutory provisions which, like commercial documents, have to be read in their own context. Language is a subtle medium and although a dictionary can provide us with examples of the way in which individual words have been used, it cannot provide us with the meaning of an expression read as a whole in the context in which it was intended to be understood. A word such as ‘on’ is in such common use in such a variety of expressions that for my own part I do not find dictionary definitions of its meaning or examples of its use very illuminating.
[10] Section 15 in its previous form did not give rise to quite the same difficulty because it referred to parking a vehicle ‘so that one or more of its wheels is resting on’ any footway. There was greater scope, therefore for the argument that one or more of the vehicle’s wheels had to be in physical contact with the surface of
Page 1263 of [2008] 1 All ER 1259
the pavement in order for an offence to be committed. Whether that was in fact the case, however, we do not need to decide. The expression ‘parked . . . with one or more wheels on [the pavement]’ with which we are concerned is on the face of it rather broader. The expression must be construed as a whole and in my view it is not only permissible but necessary to have regard to the mischief to which this particular provision is directed in order to determine its meaning.
[11] I have no doubt that the judge thought that it would assist the parties to obtain a decision on the question of statutory interpretation that lies at the heart of the case before they became embroiled in more complex arguments of fact and law, but in my view it is usually unwise to embark on such an exercise without a clear factual basis by reference to which the competing interpretations of the provision in question can be considered. It is one thing to ask whether particular acts or omissions involve a breach of a statutory provision, the answer to the question being either ‘Yes’ or ‘No’; it is quite another to ask what a statutory provision means. In the latter case the court may achieve no more than a paraphrase of the statute in its own language. The declaration granted by the judge in this case suffers from that very defect, not being related to any specific facts. As a result it suffers from the defect of being too broad, for the reasons which I shall explain in a moment.
[12] However, despite that difficulty I think that it is possible for this court to determine the issue of statutory construction that arises in this case in a satisfactory manner. In his particulars of claim Mr Wolman makes the following allegations:
‘5 . . . at all material times between July 2004 and May 2005 inclusive the claimant parked his motorcycle daily against his railings at the front of his home on the pavement of Duncan Terrace above the cellars within the curtilage of his home.
40 On 2nd November 2004 . . . the claimant parked his motorcycle on its stand in a . . . recess next to the main pavement and hard up against railings on the east side of Chancery Lane.’
[13] Thus he expressly avers that when he parked his motorcycle, whether outside his home or on the occasions he parked it in Chancery Lane while he was at work, it was on the pavement. Any doubt about its position was resolved by photographs of the bike at each location. These show it in Chancery Lane parked up on its stand on a recessed area of the pavement with (I am willing to assume, though it is difficult to tell) both wheels clear of the ground. Outside his home in Islington the bike is shown standing on its stand on the pavement almost parallel with the railings with the front wheel turned slightly to the right against the corner of the railings at the entrance to Mr Wolman’s house. The front wheel is resting against the step at the edge of Mr Wolman’s property and again, I assume (though it is difficult to tell from the photographs) that the rear wheel is clear of the ground. Mr Wolman confirmed that these photographs were a fair reflection of the way in which he parks his motorbike in these two locations. What is clear from them is that in each case the motorcycle is by any ordinary standards parked on the pavement. The photographs therefore entirely bear out what is said in his particulars of claim.
[14] At this point I can return to the judgment and say straightaway that I do not find the judge’s reasoning persuasive. I agree with Mr Wolman that a motorcycle laid on the pavement (whether or not any part of either wheel was in
Page 1264 of [2008] 1 All ER 1259
contact with its surface) would not ordinarily be described as ‘parked’ and I also agree that a vehicle parked with its wheels resting on sheets of paper or blocks of wood would ordinarily be said to be parked on the pavement. However, that only goes to emphasise the unreality of Mr Wolman’s argument. When parked in Chancery Lane in the manner I have described his motorcycle can quite properly be said to be parked on the pavement, even if neither wheel is directly in contact with it.
[15] Mr Wolman submitted that because s 15 creates a criminal offence, the commission of which, although dealt with administratively, results in the imposition of a penalty, any doubt over its interpretation should be resolved in favour of the person at risk of incurring a penalty. That is certainly a salutary approach to questions of statutory interpretation, but it is one that only comes into play where there is genuine ambiguity in the provision under consideration. Mr Manning drew our attention to a number of statements of high authority in support of the proposition that in interpreting a statute the court should examine the context of the legislation and have regard to the mischief at which it was directed, but in truth these principles are too well established to call for the citation of any authority.
[16] In my view it is clear from the terms of s 15 itself that the mischief at which it is directed is parking on parts of the road other than the carriageway itself, principally, of course, the pavement. A vehicle which is parked with one wheel on the pavement is, for those purposes, parked partly on the pavement; indeed, it may be that the reference to one or more wheels being on the pavement was intended to avoid disputes about whether motor vehicles parked partly on the road but with one or more wheels on the pavement are or are not parked ‘on’ the pavement. However, it is obviously difficult, if not impossible, to say that a vehicle parked with all its wheels on the road but with part of its body extending over the pavement is parked ‘on’ the pavement. I think it would be difficult to hold, therefore, that a person who parks a motorcycle with its stand resting on the road commits an offence under this section even if one of the wheels projects to any significant extent over the pavement and it is for this reason that I think the declaration granted by the judge is too wide. What distinguishes this case is that in each case Mr Wolman’s motorcycle was on any sensible view parked ‘on’ the pavement where its stand rested and over which the whole, or almost the whole, of its body was suspended, together with one or both of its wheels.
[17] In my view one does not obtain much assistance in interpreting the present statutory provision from a detailed examination of the possible meanings of the word ‘on’ as it might be used in different phrases. Nor do I think that one obtains much help from debating the application of the section to a variety of more or less unlikely factual situations. In the end one must simply decide what Parliament intended by the use of the words in question. In my view, having regard to the mischief at which the section was directed, I think that a person causes or permits a vehicle ‘to be parked . . . with one or more wheels on [the pavement]’ if he parks a vehicle partly on the road but with one or more wheels resting on the pavement, or, (which is likely to apply only in the case of a motorcycle) if he parks it entirely on the pavement with the result that the whole of the vehicle, including its wheels and every other part of it, is resting on the pavement. That will be so even if none of its wheels is in direct contact with the pavement because the expression ‘wheels on any part of an urban road other than a carriageway’ is apt in this context to cover the case. Where part of the
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vehicle is resting elsewhere than on the pavement it is a matter of fact whether the vehicle is parked on the pavement or not. In the case of a motorcycle parked on its centre stand the likelihood is that if the stand itself is on the pavement, the motorcycle as a whole will be parked on the pavement, including at least one of its wheels. That is clearly the case when Mr Wolman’s motorcycle is parked outside his house, as the photographs demonstrate and as he himself recognises in his particulars of claim. This may involve giving an extended meaning to the word ‘on’, but once the mischief at which the legislation is aimed has been identified I do not think that the section is ambiguous so as to call for the application of the presumption against doubtful penalisation.
[18] The question then is what order this court should make. As I have said, the declaration granted by the judge was too wide because it would cover a motorcycle parked in the road with one wheel extending over, but not touching, the pavement. In my view that is not what Parliament intended. His order must therefore be varied, if not set aside. In para 9 of his particulars of claim Mr Wolman alleges that:
‘The defendants have no right to issue a PCN [penalty charge notice] against a motorcycle that has been lifted onto, and is resting in a stable position on, its stand such that neither of its two wheels is in contact with the footway or urban road.’
but, even this formulation is not self-contained and fully comprehensive since the proposition is undoubtedly correct if the motorcycle is parked in that manner on the carriageway. This simply emphasises how unsatisfactory any attempt to encapsulate the meaning of the section is likely to prove if it is not grounded in hard facts.
[19] One possible course that was canvassed in argument would simply be to hold that, on the admitted fact that at each location the motorcycle was parked on the pavement or otherwise than on the carriageway, the proposition set out in para 9 cannot be sustained and to order that it be struck out. However, I am persuaded that we can deal with the matter on the basis of the admitted facts and in my view it would be right to do so. I would therefore allow the appeal to the extent of setting aside the declaration made by the judge and substituting for it a declaration that by parking his motorcycle on its stand on the pavement with its body and one or both of its wheels on or over the pavement the claimant was in contravention of s 15 of the Greater London Council (General Powers) Act 1974 as amended by s 15(2) of the London Local Authorities Act 2000.
CHADWICK LJ.
[20] I agree.
WALLER LJ.
[21] I also agree.
Order accordingly.
Dilys Tausz Barrister
Prudential Assurance Co Ltd v Ayres and another;
Note
[2008] 1 All ER 1266
[2008] EWCA Civ 52
Categories: CONTRACT
Court: COURT OF APPEAL
Lord(s): WARD, MOORE-BICK AND MOSES LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 13 DECEMBER 2007, 7 FEBRUARY 2008
Contract – Stranger to contract – Right of third party to enforce contractual term – Term which ‘purports to confer a benefit’ on third party – Meaning of ‘purports to confer a benefit’ – Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, s 1(1)(b).
On the appeal of the claimant from the decision of Lindsay J on 18 April 2007 ([2007] EWHC 775 (Ch), [2007] 3 All ER 946) relating to the effect of a licence to assign between the defendants and the claimant and a supplemental deed between the claimant and a third party which concerned the construction of of s1(1)(b) of the Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, Moore-Bick LJ, with whom Ward and Moses JJ agreed, held that on the proper construction of the supplemental deed no question arose as to the operation of the 1999 Act, and allowed the appeal.
The full text of the judgment in this case, in which Anthony Trace QC and Philomena Harrison (instructed by Lovells) appeared for the Prudential Assurance Company Ltd and Alan Steinfeld QC and Richard Ritchie (instructed by Kingsley Napley) appeared for David Monroe Ayres and Christopher Grew, can be found in All England Reporter ([2008] All ER (D) 90 (Feb)) on the LexisNexis Butterworths online service.
End of Volume 1
Volume 2
Part 1 Part 2 Part 3 Part 4
Part 5 Part 6 Part 7 Part 8
Part 1 – 2 April 2008
A v Hoare and other appeals [2008] 2 All ER 1
AG (Eritrea) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2008] 2 All ER 28
Raglan Housing Association Ltd v Southampton City Council and another [2008] 2 All ER 44
Secretary of State for the Home Department v AF (No 2) [2008] 2 All ER 67
Re Metronet Rail BCV Ltd (In PPP Administration);
Re Metronet Rail SSL Ltd (In PPP Administration) [2008] 2 All ER 75
Part 2 – 9 April 2008
R (on the application of the Countryside Alliance and others) v Attorney General and others;
R (on the application of Derwin and others) v Attorney General and others [2008] 2 All ER 95
R (on the application of the Law Society) v Legal Services Commission;
Dexter Montague & Partners (a firm) v Legal Services Commission [2008] 2 All ER 148
Davey v Aylesbury Vale District Council [2008] 2 All ER 178
Sinclair Gardens Investments (Kensington) Ltd v Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd [2008] 2 All ER 187
Part 3 – 16 April 2008
Re Hilali [2008] 2 All ER 207
Cadogan and another v Sportelli and another and other appeals [2008] 2 All ER 220
Devenish Nutrition Ltd and others v Sanofi-Aventis SA (France) and others [2008] 2 All ER 249
Revenue and Customs Commissioners v Trustees of the Peter Clay Discretionary Trust [2008] 2 All ER 283
Part 4 – 23 April 2008
Majorstake Ltd v Curtis [2008] 2 All ER 303
R v Salih [2008] 2 All ER 319
Haw and another v City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court [2008] 2 All ER 326
Mucelli v Government of the Republic of Albania [2008] 2 All ER 340
Dobson and others v Thames Water Utilities Ltd (Water Services Regulation Authority (Ofwat) intervening) [2008] 2 All ER 362
Part 5 – 30 April 2008
Revenue and Customs Commissioners v Total Network SL [2008] 2 All ER 413
Prosecution Appeal (No 2 of 2008);
R v Y [2008] 2 All ER 484
Aziz v Aziz and others (Sultan of Brunei intervening) [2008] 2 All ER 501
Moody v General Osteopathic Council [2008] 2 All ER 532
Part 6 – 07 May 2008
Phillips and another v Symes and others [2008] 2 All ER 537
Tameside & Glossop Acute Services NHS Trust v Thompstone and other appeals [2008] 2 All ER 553
R v Foster and other appeals [2008] 2 All ER 597
Società Esplosivi Industriali Spa v Ordnance Technologies (UK) Ltd (formerly SEI (UK) Ltd) and others (No 2) [2008] 2 All ER 622
Re Griffiths (deceased);
Ogden and another v Trustees of the RHS Griffiths 2003 Settlement and others [2008] 2 All ER 654
Part 7 – 14 May 2008
R v Clarke and another [2008] 2 All ER 665
R v P;
R v Blackburn [2008] 2 All ER 684
Maloba v Waltham Forest London Borough Council [2008] 2 All ER 701
Moto Hospitality Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport [2008] 2 All ER 718
Astron Clinica Ltd and others v Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks [2008] 2 All ER 742
Part 8 – 21 May 2008
Boss Holdings Ltd v Grosvenor West End Properties and others [2008] 2 All ER 759
Scottish and Newcastle International Ltd v Othon Ghalanos Ltd [2008] 2 All ER 768
MT (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department;
RB (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department;
U (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department [2008] 2 All ER 786
R v Kelly [2008] 2 All ER 840
White v Herefordshire Council [2008] 2 All ER 852
A v Hoare and other appeals
[2008] 2 All ER 1
[2008] UKHL 6
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: TORTS; Trespass, Other
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD HOFFMANN, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 1, 5–7 NOVEMBER 2007, 30 JANUARY 2008
Limitation of action – Trespass to the person – Period of limitation – Extension – Actions alleging sexual offences – Claimants bringing actions long after the events – Whether claims actions for negligence, nuisance or breach of duty – Whether court should exercise discretion to disapply limitation period – Limitation Act 1980, ss 11, 33.
Limitation of action – Period of limitation – Personal injury claim – Date of knowledge of claimant that injury significant – Injury significant if person whose date of knowledge is in question would reasonably have considered it significantly serious to justify instituting proceedings – Claim relating to sexual abuse while a minor – Date of knowledge of claimant – Whether test objective – Whether special features justifying court in exercising power to disapply limitation period – Limitation Act 1980, ss 14(2), 33.
Five claimants brought actions for sexual assault or sexual abuse which had taken place between 13 and 20 years earlier. The period of limitation for an action in tort under s 2a of the Limitation Act 1980 was six years from the date on which the cause of action accrued but under s 11b there was a special time limit for actions for damages for negligence, nuisance or breach of duty where the damages were in respect of personal injuries. Under s 11 the limitation period was three years from either the date when the cause of action accrued or the ‘date
Page 2 of [2008] 2 All ER 1
of knowledge’, if later, of the person injured. Section 14c defined the ‘date of knowledge’ as the date on which the person first had knowledge of various facts including ‘that the injury in question was significant’. Where s 11 applied, s 33d gave the court a discretion to extend the limitation period when it appeared that it would be equitable to do so. In acting under s 33 the court was to have regard to factors which (sub-s (3)(a)) included the length of, and the reasons for, the delay on the part of the claimant. The claimants all sought to bring themselves within s 11. The High Court and the Court of Appeal, applying authority of the House of Lords that s 11 did not apply to cases of deliberate assault, including acts of indecent assault, as an action for an intentional trespass to the person was not an action for negligence, nuisance or breach of duty, held that the claims fell within s 2, and were therefore statute barred. The claimants appealed, submitting that the House of Lords authority had been wrongly decided and that the House should depart from it. In a sixth case the claimant, Y, alleged that sexual abuse by employees at a residential school and a detention centre between 25–28 years before he brought proceedings constituted systemic negligence in the management of the school and the centre. Limitation was tried as a preliminary issue and the judge decided that in each case the ‘date of knowledge’ within s 11 was within three years before the commencement of proceedings. He further held that if he had found that the date of knowledge had been earlier than three years before the issue of the claim form he would not have exercised his discretion under s 33 to allow the action to proceed. The Court of Appeal considered the requirements of s 14(2), (3) of the 1980 Act. A ‘significant’ injury (relevant for the date of knowledge) was defined by s 14(2): ‘an injury is significant if the person whose date of knowledge is in question would reasonably have considered it sufficiently serious to justify his instituting proceedings for damages against a defendant who did not dispute liability and was able to satisfy a judgment.' Section 14(3) then provided that for the purpose of deciding whether a claimant had knowledge of the various matters in s 14(1), including the fact that his injury was significant, the claimant’s knowledge included ‘knowledge which he might reasonably have been expected to acquire—(a) from facts observable or ascertainable by him; or (b) from facts ascertainable by him with the help of medical or other appropriate expert advice which it is reasonable for him to seek’. The Court of Appeal held that viewed objectively and without regard to the fact that Y had suppressed his memories of the assaults, the assaults had been sufficiently serious for proceedings to be reasonably considered to be justified when Y had left the detention institution some 28 years before issuing proceedings; they therefore reversed the judge’s decision on the date of knowledge and refused to interfere with his conclusions as to the exercise of the s 33 discretion. Y appealed.
Held – (1) Actions for damages for personal injury for an intentional trespass to the person fell within s 11 of the 1980 Act. Parliament could not have intended to exclude from those who had been intentionally injured the benefit of the date of knowledge provisions in s 14 and of the court’s general discretion to extend time under s 33 (see [14], [17]–[20], [25], [53], [55], [62], [63], [74], [80], [81],
Page 3 of [2008] 2 All ER 1
below); Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322 overruled; Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929 approved.
(2) The test under s 14(2) for what counted as a significant injury was an entirely impersonal standard. The test was whether a claimant would reasonably have considered the injury sufficiently serious to justify proceedings not whether the claimant himself would have done so. The questions were (i) what the claimant knew about the injury he had suffered; (ii) what knowledge about the injury was to be imputed to him under s 14(3); and (iii) whether a reasonable person with that knowledge would have considered the injury sufficiently serious to justify his instituting proceedings for damages against a defendant who did not dispute liability and was able to satisfy a judgment. Section 14(3) turned on what the claimant ought reasonably to have done and therefore the injury which the claimant had suffered had to be taken into account. In s 14(2) the test was external to the claimant and involved no inquiry into what he ought reasonably to have done. The question of whether an actual claimant, taking into account his psychological state in consequence of the injury, could reasonably have been expected to institute proceedings was relevant to s 33. A judge was expressly enjoined by s 33(3)(a) to have regard to the reasons for delay and that required him to give due weight to evidence, such as there was in the case of Y, that the claimant was for practical purposes disabled from commencing proceedings by the psychological injuries which he had suffered. Accordingly, the appeals would be allowed (see [34]–[41], [44], [45], [49], [52], [53], [60]–[62], [66], [68], [70]-[74], [83], [90], below); KR v Bryn Alyn Community (Holdings) Ltd (in liquidation) [2003] QB 1441 disapproved.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [2007] 1 All ER 895 reversed.
Notes
For the limitation period for personal injury actions, for a plaintiff’s knowledge, and for the court’s power to override time limits and the factors to which the court must have regard, see 28 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 904, 905, 907, 908.
For the Limitation Act 1980, ss 11, 14, 33, see 24 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 755, 759, 789.
Cases referred to in opinions
Adams v Bracknell Forest BC [2004] UKHL 29, [2004] 3 All ER 897, [2005] 1 AC 76, [2004] 3 WLR 89.
Barras v Aberdeen Steam Trawling and Fishing Co Ltd [1933] AC 402, [1933] All ER Rep 52, HL.
Billings v Reed [1944] 2 All ER 415, [1945] KB 11.
Cartledge v E Jopling & Sons Ltd [1963] 1 All ER 341, [1963] AC 758, [1963] 2 WLR 210, HL.
Firman v Ellis [1978] 2 All ER 851, [1978] QB 886, [1978] 3 WLR 1, CA.
Horton v Sadler [2006] UKHL 27, [2006] 3 All ER 1177, [2007] 1 AC 307, [2006] 2 WLR 1346.
Jones v Secretary of State for Social Services, Hudson v Secretary of State for Social Services [1972] 1 All ER 145, [1972] AC 944, [1972] 2 WLR 210, HL.
KR v Bryn Alyn Community (Holdings) Ltd (in liq) [2003] EWCA Civ 783, [2003] QB 1441, [2003] 3 WLR 107.
Kruber v Grzesiak [1963] VLR 621, Vict SC.
Page 4 of [2008] 2 All ER 1
Lamb (WT) & Sons v Rider [1948] 2 All ER 402, [1948] 2 KB 331.
Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929, [1965] 1 QB 232, [1964] 3 WLR 573, CA.
Lister v Hesley Hall Ltd [2001] UKHL 22, [2001] 2 All ER 769, [2002] 1 AC 215, [2001] 1 WLR 1311.
Livingstone-Stallard v Livingstone-Stallard [1974] 2 All ER 766, [1974] Fam 47, [1974] 3 WLR 302.
Long v Hepworth [1968] 3 All ER 248, [1968] 1 WLR 1299.
Lowsley v Forbes (t/a LE Design Services) [1998] 3 All ER 897, [1999] 1 AC 329, [1998] 3 WLR 501, HL.
Mason v Mason [1997] 1 VR 325, Vic CA.
McCafferty v Metropolitan Police District Receiver [1977] 2 All ER 756, [1977] 1 WLR 1073, CA.
S v W (child abuse: damages) [1995] 3 FCR 649, CA.
Stingel v Clark (2006) 228 ALR 229, Aust HC.
Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] AC 498, [1993] 2 WLR 120, HL.
Trotman v North Yorkshire CC [1999] LGR 584, CA.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
AB v Nugent Care Society (formerly Catholic Social Services (Liverpool)) [2006] EWHC 3031 (QB), [2006] All ER (D) 431 (Nov).
Ali v Courtaulds Textiles Ltd (1999) 52 BMLR 129, CA.
B v Murray [2007] CSIH 39, Ct of Sess (IH).
Brisbane South Regional Health Authority v Taylor (1996) 186 CLR 541, Aust HC.
C v D [2006] EWHC 166, [2006] All ER (D) 329 (Feb).
Cave v Robinson Jarvis & Rolf (a firm) [2002] UKHL 18, [2002] 2 All ER 641, [2003] 1 AC 384, [2002] 2 WLR 1107.
Devlin v Roche [2002] IESC 32, [2002] 2 IRLM 192, Ir SC.
Dobbie v Medway Health Authority [1994] 4 All ER 450, [1994] 1 WLR 1234, CA.
Donovan v Gwentoys Ltd [1990] 1 All ER 1018, [1990] 1 WLR 472, HL.
Farrell v Alexander [1976] 2 All ER 721, [1977] AC 59, [1976] 3 WLR 145, HL.
Fitzleet Estates Ltd v Cherry (Inspector of Taxes) [1977] 3 All ER 996, [1977] 1 WLR 1345, HL.
Forbes v Wandsworth Health Authority [1996] 4 All ER 881, [1997] QB 402, [1996] 3 WLR 1108, CA.
Gibson v Government of United States of America [2007] UKPC 52, [2007] 1 WLR 2367.
Haward v Fawcetts (a firm) [2006] UKHL 9, [2006] 3 All ER 497, [2006] 1 WLR 682.
Hippolyte v Bexley London BC [1995] PIQR P309, CA.
KD v Chief Constable of Hampshire [2005] EWHC 2550 (QB).
KR v Bryn Alyn Community (Holdings) Ltd (in liq) [2003] EWCA Civ 85, [2004] 2 All ER 716, [2003] QB 1441, [2003] 3 WLR 107.
KR v Royal & Sun Alliance plc [2006] EWCA Civ 1454, [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 181.
Lennon v Alvis Industries plc (27 July 2000, unreported), CA.
Letang v Cooper [1964] 1 All ER 669, [1964] 2 QB 53, [1964] 2 WLR 642.
M (K) v M (H) [1992] 3 SCR 6, Can SC.
McCoubrey v Ministry of Defence [2007] EWCA Civ 17, [2007] 1 WLR 1544.
McDonnell v Congregation of Christian Brothers Trustees (formerly Irish Christian Brothers) [2003] UKHL 63, [2004] 1 All ER 641, [2004] 1 AC 1101, [2003] 3 WLR 1627.
Page 5 of [2008] 2 All ER 1
Morris v C W Martin & Sons Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 725, [1966] 1 QB 716, [1965] 3 WLR 276, CA.
MP (AP) v O’Neill [2006] CSOH 93, Ct of Sess (OH).
Nash v Eli Lilly & Co, Berger v Eli Lilly & Co [1993] 4 All ER 383, [1993] 1 WLR 782, CA.
Novak v Bond [1999] 1 SCR 808, Can SC.
O’Neill v Foster (2004) 61 NSWLR 499, NSW CA.
Page v Smith [1995] 2 All ER 736, [1996] AC 155, [1995] 2 WLR 644, HL.
Parkinson v St James and Seacroft University Hospital NHS Trust [2001] EWCA Civ 530, [2001] 3 All ER 97, [2002] QB 266, [2001] 3 WLR 376.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
Phelps v London Borough of Hillingdon, Anderton v Clwyd CC, Jarvis v Hampshire CC, Re G (a minor) [2000] 4 All ER 504, [2001] 2 AC 619, [2000] 3 WLR 776, HL.
Photo Production Ltd v Securicor Transport Ltd [1980] 1 All ER 556, [1980] AC 827, [1980] 2 WLR 283, HL.
Pontin v Wood [1962] 1 All ER 294, [1962] 1 QB 594, [1962] 2 WLR 258, CA.
R v Chard [1983] 3 All ER 637, [1984] AC 279, [1983] 3 WLR 835, HL.
R v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions, ex p Spath Holme Ltd [2001] 1 All ER 195, [2001] 2 AC 349, [2001] 2 WLR 15, HL.
Robinson v Secretary of State for Northern Ireland [2002] UKHL 32, [2002] NI 390.
Seymour v Williams [1995] PIQR P470, CA.
Sheldon v RHM Outhwaite (Underwriting Agencies) Ltd [1995] 2 All ER 558, [1996] AC 102, [1995] 2 WLR 570, HL; rvsg [1994] 4 All ER 481, [1996] AC 102, [1994] 3 WLR 999, CA.
Simmons v British Steel plc [2004] UKHL 20, [2004] ICR 585.
Stack v Dowden [2007] UKHL 17, [2007] 2 AC 432, [2007] 2 All ER 929.
Stubbings v UK (1996) 23 EHRR 213, [1996] ECHR 22083/93, ECt HR.
Stubbings v Webb [1991] 3 All ER 949, [1992] QB 197, [1991] 3 WLR 383, CA.
T v Boys & Girls Welfare Service [2004] EWCA Civ 1747, [2004] All ER (D) 361 (Dec).
Thompson v Brown Construction (Ebbw Vale) Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 296, [1981] 1 WLR 744, HL.
Van Oppen v Bedford Charity Trustees [1989] 3 All ER 389, [1990] 1 WLR 235, CA
Wainwright v Home Office [2003] UKHL 53, [2003] 4 All ER 969, [2004] 2 AC 406, [2003] 3 WLR 1137.
Wilkinson v Downton [1897] 2 QB 57, [1895-9] All ER Rep 267.
Wilsons and Clyde Coal Co Ltd v English [1938] AC 57, [1937] 3 All ER 628, HL.
X (minors) v Bedfordshire CC, M (a minor) v Newham London BC, E (a minor) v Dorset CC [1995] 3 All ER 353, [1995] 2 AC 633, [1995] 3 WLR 152, HL.
Yeovil Glove Co Ltd, Re [1964] 2 All ER 849, [1965] Ch 148, [1964] 3 WLR 406, CA.
Appeals
A v Hoare
The claimant A appealed with permission of the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clark MR, Brooke and Arden LJJ) from the decision of the court on 12 April 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 395, [2006] 3 FCR 673) dismissing her appeal from the decision of Jack J on 7 October 2005 dismissing her appeal from the order of Master Eyre on 14 June 2005 striking out A’s claim against Iorworth Hoare on the ground that
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A’s cause of action had arisen 16 years before the issue of the claim form and was barred by s 2 of the Limitation Act 1980. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Hoffmann.
C v Middlesbrough Council
The claimant C appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 28 November 2006 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Chadwick, Latham LJJ and Sir Swinton Thomas) on 21 December 2004 ([2004] EWCA Civ 1746, [2005] 1 FCR 76) dismissing his appeal from the decision of Judge Collins sitting as a deputy High Court judge on 28 May 2004 dismissing his claim against Middlesbrough Council as being barred by s 2 of the Limitation Act 1980. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Hoffmann.
X and another v Wandsworth London Borough Council
The claimants X and Y appealed with permission of the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clark MR, Brooke and Arden LJJ) from the decision of the court on 12 April 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 395, [2006] 3 FCR 673) dismissing their appeals from the decision of Judge Cotran in the Mayors and City of London County Court on 7 October 2005 dismissing their claims against Wandsworth London Borough Council as being barred by s 2 of the Limitation Act 1980. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Hoffmann.
H v Suffolk County Council
The claimant H appealed with permission of the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clark MR, Brooke and Arden LJJ) from the decision of the court on 12 April 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 395, [2006] 3 FCR 673) dismissing his appeal from the decision of Judge Yelton in the Southend County Court on 1 March 2005 dismissing his claim against Suffolk County Council as being barred by s 2 of the Limitation Act 1980. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Hoffmann.
Young v Catholic Care (Diocese of Leeds) and another
The claimant Kevin Raymond Young appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 12 June 2007 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Buxton, Dyson LJJ and Sir Peter Gibson) on 14 November 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 1534, [2007] 1 All ER 895 sub nom Young v South Tyneside Metropolitan Borough Council and others) allowing the appeals of Catholic Care (Diocese of Leeds) and the Home Office, the second and third defendants, and dismissing the cross-appeal of the claimant from the decision of Judge Cockroft in the Leeds County Court on 18 November 2002 the trial of a preliminary issue in proceedings brought by the claimant against the second and third defendants that (i) the action was not time-barred by ss 11, 14 of the Limitation Act 1980; and (ii) that if the action had been time-barred the judge would not have exercised his discretion under s 33 of the 1980 Act to extend the limitation period. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Hoffmann.
Alan Newman QC and Paul Spencer (instructed by DLA Piper UK LLP) for A.
Elizabeth-Anne Gumbel QC and Henry Witcomb (instructed by Griffith Smith Farrington Webb, Brighton) for C.
Elizabeth-Anne Gumbel QC and Henry Witcomb (instructed by Bolt Burdon Kemp) for X and Y.
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Nigel Cooksley QC and Stephen Field (instructed by BTMK Solicitors LLP, Southend-on-Sea) for H.
Stuart Brown QC and Rosalind Coe (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard as agents for Jordans, Wakefield) for Mr Young.
Christopher Sharp QC and Andrew McLaughlin (instructed by Atkins Law, Exeter) for Mr Hoare.
Kate Thirlwall QC and Steven Ford (instructed by Crutes, Newcastle upon Tyne and Browne Jacobson, Nottingham) for Suffolk County Council and Wandsworth LBC.
Edward Faulks QC and Nicholas Fewtrell (instructed by Hill Dickinson, Liverpool) for Catholic Care.
Nigel Wilkinson QC and Malcolm Sheehan (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Home Office.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
30 January 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD HOFFMANN.
[1] My Lords, these six appeals all raise the question of whether claims for sexual assaults and abuse which took place many years before the commencement of proceedings are barred by the Limitation Act 1980. The general rule is that the period of limitation for an action in tort is six years from the date on which the cause of action accrues. This period derives from the Limitation Act 1623 and is now contained in s 2 of the 1980 Act. All the claimants started proceedings well after the six years had expired. It follows that, if s 2 applies, their claims are barred. But ss 11 to 14 contain provisions, first introduced by the Limitation Act 1975, which create a different regime for actions for ‘damages for negligence, nuisance or breach of duty’, where the damages are in respect of personal injuries. In such cases the limitation period is three years from either the date when the cause of action accrued or the ‘date of knowledge’ as defined in s 14, whichever is the later. In addition, s 33 gives the court a discretion to extend the period when it appears that it would be equitable to do so. The chief question in these appeals is whether the claimants come within s 2 or s 11. In the latter case, the claimants say either that the date of knowledge was less than three years before the commencement of proceedings or that the discretion under s 33 should be exercised in their favour.
[2] In Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] AC 498 the House of Lords unanimously decided that s 11 does not apply to a case of deliberate assault, including acts of indecent assault. An action for an intentional trespass to the person is not an action for ‘negligence, nuisance or breach of duty’ within the meaning of s 11(1). The lower courts are bound by this decision and have therefore held that the claimants are statute-barred. But the claimants submit that Stubbings was wrongly decided and that the House should depart from it in accordance with the Practice Statement (Judicial Precedent) [1966] 3 All ER 77, [1966] 1 WLR 1234.
[3] In the context of limitation of actions, the phrase ‘negligence, nuisance or breach of duty’ made its first appearance in the Law Reform (Limitation of Actions, etc) Act 1954. The background to this enactment was the Report of the Committee on the Limitation of Actions (Cmd 7740) (1949) under the chairmanship
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of Tucker LJ. The committee was particularly concerned with the fact that, as the law then stood, the general limitation period for tort actions (including claims for personal injuries) was six years but claims against public authorities had to be brought within one year. The committee thought that the first period was too long and the second too short. It recommended a period of two years for all personal injury claims, with a judicial discretion to extend it up to six years. In para 23 they said:
‘We consider that the period of limitation we have recommended should apply to all actions for personal injuries, whether the defendant is a public authority or not. We do not think it is necessary for us to define “personal injuries”, although this may possibly be necessary if legislative effect is given to our recommendations. We wish, however, to make it clear that we do not include in that category actions for trespass to the person, false imprisonment, malicious prosecution, or defamation of character, but we do include such actions as claims for negligence against doctors.’
[4] There are minor puzzles about why malicious prosecution or defamation of character were thought capable of causing personal injury or why doctors were singled out for mention, but the committee certainly seems to have intended to exclude actions for trespass to the person from their proposal. They did not explain why. The reason they gave for adopting a short period for personal injury claims (‘the desirability of such actions being brought to trial quickly, whilst evidence is fresh in the minds of the parties and witnesses’: para 22) would seem equally applicable to cases in which the cause of action is trespass. Perhaps they had in mind only intentionally inflicted injuries and thought that a defendant who caused deliberate injury should not have the benefit of a short limitation period.
[5] When some years later Parliament implemented the report, it accepted the general principle of a single period of limitation for personal injury claims, whether against public authorities or private bodies. It also accepted that it should be shorter than six years. It did not however accept either the period of two years or the possibility of extension. Instead, it adopted a fixed period of three years. This was provided by s 2(1) of the Law Reform (Limitation of Actions, etc) Act 1954:
‘At the end of subsection (1) of section 2 of the Limitation Act 1939 (which subsection provides, amongst other things, that there shall be a limitation period of six years for actions founded on simple contract or on tort) the following proviso shall be inserted—“Provided that, in the case of actions for damages for negligence, nuisance or breach of duty (whether the duty exists by virtue of a contract or of provision made by or under a statute or independently of any contract or any such provision) where the damages claimed by the plaintiff for the negligence, nuisance or breach of duty consist of or include damages in respect of personal injuries to any person, this subsection shall have effect as if for the reference to six years there were substituted a reference to three years.”’
[6] It will be seen that in defining the actions to which the three-year period was to apply, Parliament adopted neither the simple concept of an action for personal injury (for which, as the committee had suggested, the Act provided a definition) nor the specific exclusions mentioned by the Tucker Committee, but
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spoke of ‘actions for damages for negligence, nuisance or breach of duty . . . where the damages claimed . . . consist of or include damages in respect of personal injuries’.
[7] The phrase ‘negligence, nuisance or breach of duty’ was not entirely new. It had appeared in the Personal Injuries (Emergency Provisions) Act 1939, which had given the minister power to make a scheme for making payments of compensation in respect of ‘war injuries’ irrespective of fault. As the other side of the coin, s 3(1) extinguished common law claims for compensation or damages for such injuries when they were ‘on the ground that the injury in question was attributable to some negligence, nuisance or breach of duty for which the person by whom the compensation or damages would be payable is responsible’.
[8] The meaning of these words was briefly considered by the Court of Appeal in Billings v Reed [1944] 2 All ER 415, [1945] KB 11, in which the plaintiff’s wife had been killed by a negligently piloted RAF aeroplane. It was argued that, although this was a war injury, the language of s 3(1) did not exclude a claim based on trespass to the person. Lord Greene MR said ([1944] 2 All ER 415 at 420, [1945] KB 11 at 19): ‘It seems to me that in this context the phrase ‘breach of duty’ is comprehensive enough to cover the case of trespass to the person which is certainly a breach of duty as used in a wide sense.’
[9] Thus when Parliament used this phrase in the 1954 Act, it had already been judicially construed as having a wide meaning. Furthermore, Parliament added the parenthetical words ‘(whether the duty exists by virtue of a contract or of provision made by or under a statute or independently of any contract or any such provision)’ which seem to stress its breadth.
[10] A provision in words materially identical with those of s 2(1) of the 1954 Act was adopted by the legislature of the State of Victoria: see s 5(6) of the Limitation of Actions Act 1958 (Victoria). In Kruber v Grzesiak [1963] VLR 621 Adam J had to consider whether the section covered an allegation of unintentional trespass to the person. The plaintiff, who had issued a writ claiming damages for personal injuries caused by negligent driving more than three years after the accident, wanted to amend the writ by adding a claim for trespass to the person based on the same facts. The judge said (at 623):
‘I would see no sufficient reason for excluding an action for trespass to the person] from the description of an action for damages for breach of duty, especially when it is provided that the duty may be one existing independently of any contract or any provision made by or under a statute. After all, do not all torts arise from breach of duty – the tort of trespass to the person arising from the breach of a general duty not to inflict direct and immediate injury to the person of another either intentionally or negligently in the absence of lawful excuse? The substance of the matter appears to be that section 5(6) is intended to provide a special limitation period of three years for actions in which damages for personal injuries are claimed. No doubt, as was pointed out in argument, this intention might have been achieved by the use of other and perhaps simpler and more direct language, but that does not seem to be a sufficient reason for not giving to the language chosen its full meaning.’
[11] The reasoning in Kruber v Grzesiak was gratefully adopted by the Court of Appeal in England when the same point arose in Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929, [1965] 1 QB 232: see [1964] 2 All ER 929 at 934, 936, [1965] 1 QB 232 at 241,
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245 per Lord Denning MR and Diplock LJ respectively. In addition, the Court of Appeal found further support in Billings v Reed [1944] 2 All ER 415, [1945] KB 11, which had not been cited to Adam J. Diplock LJ noted the prolixity of the statute but said that ‘economy of language is not invariably the badge of parliamentary draftsmanship’ (see [1964] 2 All ER 929 at 937, [1965] 1 QB 232 at 247). The fact that negligence and nuisance were specifically mentioned was not enough to give rise to an inference that the wide general words ‘were not intended to cover all causes of action which give rise to claims for damages in respect of personal injuries; particularly when the same combination of expressions in a similar context had already been given a very wide interpretation by the Court of Appeal’.
[12] Letang v Cooper was concerned with an unintentional trespass to the person (the defendant had negligently driven his car over the plaintiff’s legs) but, in view of the reasoning of the Court of Appeal, it is unsurprising that in Long v Hepworth [1968] 3 All ER 248, [1968] 1 WLR 1299 Cooke J decided that s 2(1) of the 1954 Act also applied to intentional injuries (the defendant had deliberately thrown cement into the plaintiff’s face). That was the state of the authorities in 1975, when the Limitation Act 1975 introduced the radical changes into the law of limitation which are now contained in ss 11 to 14 and 33 of the 1980 Act.
[13] These changes may be summarised as (1) postponing the date at which time starts running from the date of accrual of the cause of action to the ‘date of knowledge’ and (2) creating the s 33 discretion. These were both reforms intended to improve the position of plaintiffs who would otherwise be time-barred. But for the purpose of defining the class of actions to which they applied, Parliament used the same language as it had used when it passed s 2(1) of the 1954 Act to cut down the limitation period from six to three years.
[14] This seems to me a highly significant circumstance. When the 1954 Act was passed, it could have been argued that the exclusion of intentionally inflicted injuries reflected a moral policy of denying the shorter limitation period to an intentional wrongdoer. Such an argument did not find favour in Kruber v Grzesiak or Letang v Cooper, but I should have thought that, given the terms of the Tucker Committee Report and the obscurity of the Parliamentary language, it was seriously arguable. But there could be no moral or other ground for denying to a victim of intentional injury the more favourable limitation treatment introduced by the 1975 Act for victims of injuries caused by negligence. The inference I would draw is that in using the same form of words in the 1975 Act, Parliament must have intended them to bear the meaning which they had been given in the uniform line of authority in England and Australia to which I have referred.
[15] There is a good deal of authority for having regard, in the construction of a statute, to the way in which a word or phrase has been construed by the courts in earlier statutes. Barras v Aberdeen Steam Trawling and Fishing Co Ltd [1933] AC 402, [1933] All ER Rep 52 is a well known example. The value of such previous interpretations as a guide to construction will vary with the circumstances. But the circumstances of this case seem to me to have much in common with the decision of the House in Lowsley v Forbes (t/a LE Design Services) [1998] 3 All ER 897, [1999] 1 AC 329. In that case, the Court of Appeal in 1948 (WT Lamb & Sons v Rider [1948] 2 All ER 402, [1948] 2 KB 331) had given a provision of the Limitation Act 1939 an interpretation which the House thought was probably wrong. But Parliament had then enacted the Limitation Amendment Act 1980 in terms which made sense only on the basis that it was accepting the construction which
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had been given to the Act by the Court of Appeal. The House decided that it was therefore too late to overrule the decision: see [1998] 3 All ER 897 at 906, [1999] 1 AC 329 at 342 per Lord Lloyd of Berwick.
[16] There is a further indication to the same effect in the Twentieth Report of the Law Reform Committee Interim Report on Limitation of Actions: In Personal Injury Claims (Cmnd 5630) (May 1974) which was published in May 1974 and to which the 1975 Act gave effect. It is plain from that report that its members thought they were dealing generally with personal injury actions: see, for example, the summary of recommendations in para 69. There is no discussion of an exclusion of intentionally inflicted injuries from the benefit of the proposed reforms.
[17] That brings me to the decision in Stubbings v Webb. The main criticism which I would respectfully make of the reasoning of the House, as contained in the speech of Lord Griffiths, is that it decided the case as if the 1954 Act had just been passed. I must admit that even if the case had arisen at that time, I would have been inclined to take the same view as Adam J in Victoria and the Court of Appeal in Letang’s case. The decision in Stubbings seems to me to have put more weight upon the report of the Tucker Committee and Hansard than they could properly bear. The language of s 2(1) of the 1954 Act is not traceable to anything said by the Tucker Committee but appears to derive from the language construed by the Court of Appeal in Billings v Reed. Parliament did not adopt all the committee’s recommendations and it is quite impossible to say whether s 2(1) was intended to give effect to the last sentence of para 23 of the Report or not. (See the discussion of what the Committee may have meant in Mason v Mason [1997] 1 VR 325 at 327–328). As for Hansard, Lord Griffiths relied upon a very general statement that the bill was intended to give effect to the recommendations of the Tucker Committee by Mr Peyton (who was not a lawyer), when moving the second reading in the House of Commons (Hansard (HC Debates, 4 December 1953, col 1545)), but said nothing about the speech of Viscount Hailsham, moving the second reading in the House of Lords (Hansard (HL Debates, 20 May 1954, col 812)), who said that a main object of the bill was ‘to reduce from six years to three years the period of limitation for actions in which a claim is made for damages for personal injuries’.
[18] Having said that, I would certainly not suggest that the opposite view was not tenable as a construction of the 1954 Act and if matters had rested there, I do not think it would have been right to depart from the decision. Where I must respectfully disagree with Lord Griffiths is in relation to the effect of the 1975 Act. He drew attention to the origins of the 1975 Act (and its unsuccessful predecessor, the Limitation Act 1963), which were to ‘meet the problem of the insidious onset of industrial disease’, and said: ‘In my view no light is thrown on the true construction of s 11(1) by this sequence of Acts which were passed to deal with a very different problem.’ (See [1993] 1 All ER 322 at 328, [1993] AC 498 at 506–507.)
[19] But the fact that the later Acts were passed to deal with a different problem was exactly the point. Although claims in respect of insidious diseases, as in Cartledge v E Jopling & Sons Ltd [1963] 1 All ER 341, [1963] AC 758, formed the background to the 1963 and 1975 Acts, the legislation was not confined to insidious diseases. The problem was perceived as applicable to personal injuries generally. It was because Parliament used the language of the 1954 Act to deal with that very different problem, where no rational explanation existed for treating victims of injuries caused intentionally worse than victims of injuries
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caused negligently, that one was driven to the conclusion that it must have intended to adopt the construction given to the 1954 Act in Letang’s case.
[20] In Stingel v Clark (2006) 228 ALR 229 a majority of the High Court of Australia declined to follow Stubbings v Webb and adhered to the construction of the Victorian statute which had been adopted by Adam J in Kruber v Grzesiak. I find the reasoning compelling and therefore consider that Stubbings v Webb was wrongly decided. But that is not in itself a ground for departing from it. The Practice Statement (Judicial Precedent) was intended, as Lord Reid said in Jones v Secretary of State for Social Services, Hudson v Secretary of State for Social Services [1972] 1 All ER 145 at 149, [1972] AC 944 at 966, to be applied only in a small number of cases in which previous decisions of the House were ‘thought to be impeding the proper development of the law or to have led to results which were unjust or contrary to public policy’. Lord Reid also observed ([1972] 1 All ER 145 at 149, [1972] AC 944 at 966):
‘It is notorious that where an existing decision is disapproved but cannot be overruled courts tend to distinguish it on inadequate grounds. I do not think that they act wrongly in so doing: they are adopting the less bad of the only alternatives open to them. But this is bound to lead to uncertainty for no one can say in advance whether in a particular case the court will or will not feel bound to follow the old unsatisfactory decision. On balance it seems to me that overruling such a decision will promote and not impair the certainty of the law.’
[21] For some time after it was decided, I do not think that Stubbings v Webb gave rise in practice to much difficulty. That was because it was generally believed, on the authority of cases like Trotman v North Yorkshire CC [1999] LGR 584, that an employer could not be vicariously liable for sexual assaults committed by his employee. They were inherently outside the scope of his employment. Only the abuser himself could be liable. But people who commit sexual assaults are seldom worth suing. In the appeal before the House of A v Hoare [2006] EWCA Civ 395, [2006] 3 FCR 673, [2006] 1 WLR 2320, the claimant decided to sue only when she heard that the defendant had won the lottery. In Stubbings v Webb, where the plaintiff wanted to sue her adoptive father and step-brother for sexual abuse more than 20 years earlier, Lord Griffiths observed ([1993] 1 All ER 322 at 324) that neither of them appeared to ‘have the means to satisfy any significant award of damages’. The fact that the motive for the proceedings seemed to be something other than the recovery of compensation may have influenced the construction which the House gave to the statute.
[22] The situation was radically changed when the House of Lords decided in Lister v Hesley Hall Ltd [2001] UKHL 22, [2001] 2 All ER 769, [2002] 1 AC 215 that sexual abuse was not necessarily outside the scope of an employment. It depended upon whether there was a sufficiently close connection between the work which the employee had been employed to do and the acts of abuse. A company which owned and operated a school boarding house was held liable for sexual abuse of pupils by a man employed as warden. After that, claims against the operators of schools, detention centres and similar institutions for sexual abuse by employees came thick and fast. And these threw into relief the anomalies created by Stubbings v Webb.
[23] Perhaps the most remarkable example of the anomaly was S v W (child abuse: damages) [1995] 3 FCR 649, a pre-Lister case, in which the plaintiff sued her
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father and mother for sexual abuse by the father. The action was commenced nearly ten years after the last act of abuse. The cause of action against the father was intentional assault and the claim was therefore struck out. The cause of action against the mother was negligent failure to protect the plaintiff against the father. This fell under s 11 of the 1980 Act and was subject to a discretionary extension under s 33, which the judge granted and the Court of Appeal affirmed. The action against the mother was therefore allowed to proceed. Sir Ralph Gibson commented, at 654, that the result was ‘illogical and surprising’ and deserving of the attention of the Law Commission.
[24] The matter was considered by the Law Commission as part of a comprehensive review of the law of limitation of actions which was presented to Parliament in 2001: Limitation of Actions (2001) (Law Com No 270). The effect of Stubbings was described as anomalous, with particular reference to S v W (child abuse: damages) [1995] 3 FCR 649: see para 1.5 of the report. The Commission recommended a uniform regime for personal injuries, whether the claim was made in negligence or trespass to the person: see the summary at para 1.14. There has not yet been any implementing legislation, possibly because the Commission’s recommendations were not confined to the Stubbings v Webb anomaly but proposed a completely new law of limitation of actions.
[25] Lord Reid’s observation [1972] 1 All ER 145 at 149, [1972] AC 944 at 966 that unsatisfactory decisions of the highest court can cause uncertainty because lower courts tend to distinguish them on inadequate grounds is also pertinent to the consequences of Stubbings v Webb. Claimants who have suffered sexual abuse but need to seek the discretion of the court under s 33 are driven to alleging that the abuse was the result of, or accompanied by, some other breach of duty which can be brought within the language of s 11. Thus, in addition to having to decide whether the claimant was sexually abused, the courts must decide whether this was the result of ‘systemic negligence’ on the part of the abuser’s employer or the negligence of some other person for whom the employer is responsible. In the appeals before the House, the appellants put forward at least four alternative theories of liability on which they wish to rely if the rule in Stubbings v Webb is upheld. These are, in increasing degree of artificiality: (1) breach of a direct duty of care owed by the employer to the claimant; (2) breach of a duty of care by other employees; (3) breach of a duty of care by the abuser himself and (4) breach of a duty by the abuser to notify the employer of his own wrongful acts. In KR v Bryn Alyn Community (Holdings) Ltd (in liq) [2003] EWCA Civ 783 at [100], [2003] QB 1441 at [100] Auld LJ said that the need to frame a claim in one or other of these ways when the real cause of complaint was sexual abuse for which the employer was vicariously liable was causing ‘arid and highly wasteful litigation turning on a distinction of no apparent principle or other merit’. I therefore think that it would be right to depart from Stubbings and reaffirm the law laid down by the Court of Appeal in Letang’s case.
[26] That is sufficient to dispose of all but one of these appeals. In A v Hoare the defendant was convicted in 1989 of an attempted rape of the claimant, involving a serious and traumatic sexual assault. He was sentenced to life imprisonment. In 2004, while still serving his sentence, he won £7m on the National Lottery. The claimant started proceedings for damages on 22 December 2004 but Master Eyre, applying Stubbings v Webb, struck out the action as barred under s 2 of the 1980 Act. This decision was affirmed by the judge and the Court of Appeal. I would allow the claimant’s appeal and remit the case to a judge of the Queen’s
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Bench Division to decide whether the discretion under s 33 should be exercised in the claimant’s favour.
[27] In C v Middlesborough Council the appellant claims to have been subject to sexual abuse at various times between 1982 and 1988 (when he was 10 to 16 years old) at a school managed by the council. He commenced proceedings on 8 May 2002. In May 2004 there was a trial on liability, causation, limitation and quantum. The judge found that the appellant had been subjected to sexual abuse, that the council was vicariously liable and that if the action had come within s 11 of the 1980 Act, he would have exercised his discretion to allow it to proceed and awarded £60,000 general damages, £10,000 in respect of past loss of earnings, £25,000 in respect of the appellant’s disability on the labour market and the cost of therapy. But, in accordance with Stubbings v Webb, he held that the action was barred by s 2. He dismissed allegations of negligence against the council. This ruling was upheld by the Court of Appeal. I would allow the appeal and make the orders which the judge would have made if he had been free to decide that the action came within s 11.
[28] In H v Suffolk CC the appellant claimed that while resident during the period December 1989 to October 1990 in a school for difficult children managed by the council, he was sexually abused by a member of the staff. He commenced proceedings on 22 April 2002. The question of limitation was tried as a preliminary point and the judge, in accordance with Stubbings v Webb, held that the claim against the council on the ground of vicarious liability for the member of staff was barred by s 2. He also tried and dismissed a claim based on allegations of negligence against the council. Both of these rulings were affirmed by the Court of Appeal [2006] EWCA Civ 395, [2006] 3 FCR 673, [2006] 1 WLR 2320. I would allow the appeal against the ruling on limitation only and remit the case to the judge to decide whether to exercise his discretion under s 33 to allow it to proceed.
[29] In X and Y v Wandsworth London BC the appellants both allege that at various times in 1984 and 1987 respectively they were separately sexually abused by the same teacher at a school managed by the council. They commenced proceedings on 13 November 2002 and 23 June 2003. At the trial it was agreed that the abuse had taken place, that the council was (subject to any limitation defence) vicariously liable and that if the claims came within s 11, they were not statute-barred. It was also agreed that, subject to liability, X and Y were entitled to damages in the sums of £57,500 and £70,000 respectively. The judge upheld a limitation defence under s 2 and dismissed allegations of negligence for which the council was said to be liable. The Court of Appeal upheld that decision. I would allow the appeal and award the appellants the agreed sums of damages.
[30] That leaves the appeal in Young v Catholic Care (Diocese of Leeds) and the Home Office. The claimant alleges sexual abuse by employees at two separate institutions: first, between October 1974 and July 1976 at a residential Catholic school in Tadcaster and secondly, between April and June 1977 at Medomsley Detention Centre, County Durham, then operated by the Secretary of State for the Home Department. The claimant’s allegations were, in respect of the school, that he had been punched, hit with farm implements and forced to masturbate and have oral sex with a member of the staff. In respect of his residence at the detention centre in 1977, he alleges that a member of the staff, for sexual gratification, would tie a ligature round his neck and nearly strangle him, blindfold him and attempt to bugger him and require him to kneel for
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photographs in various positions. Proceedings were commenced on 11 April 2003. In both cases, in order to avoid the effect of Stubbings v Webb, the claimant alleged ‘systemic negligence’ in the management of the school and detention centre respectively. The judge tried as a preliminary issue the question of whether these claims were barred by the three-year limitation period in s 11(4). He decided that they were not because in each case the ‘date of knowledge’ within the meaning of s 11(4)(b) was within three years before the commencement of proceedings. He went on to say that if he had found that the date of knowledge was earlier than three years before the issue of the claim form, he would not have exercised his discretion under s 33 to allow the action to proceed. The Court of Appeal (Young v South Tyneside Metropolitan BC [2006] EWCA Civ 1534, [2007] 1 All ER 895, [2007] QB 932) reversed the decision on the date of knowledge, holding that it was substantially more than three years before the commencement of proceedings. They refused to interfere with the (hypothetical) exercise of the discretion under s 33.
[31] This appeal raises the important point of the meaning of ‘significant’ injury in s 14(2). Section 14(1) provides that the ‘date of knowledge’ is the date upon which the claimant first had knowledge of various facts, including ‘that the injury . . . was significant’. A ‘significant injury’ is defined by s 14(2):
‘For the purposes of this section an injury is significant if the person whose date of knowledge is in question would reasonably have considered it sufficiently serious to justify his instituting proceedings for damages against a defendant who did not dispute liability and was able to satisfy a judgment.’
[32] Section 14(3) then provides that, for the purpose of deciding whether the claimant had knowledge of the various matters listed in s 14(1), including the fact that the injury was significant, one should take into account not only his actual knowledge but also what is usually called his imputed or constructive knowledge. That is defined as ‘knowledge which he might reasonably have been expected to acquire¯(a) from facts observable or ascertainable by him; or (b) from facts ascertainable by him with the help of medical or other appropriate expert advice which it is reasonable for him to seek.’
[33] The question which has arisen is whether the definition of significance in s 14(2) allows any (and if so, how much) account to be taken of personal characteristics of the claimant, either pre-existing or consequent upon the injury which he has suffered. This question was first considered in McCafferty v Metropolitan Police District Receiver [1977] 2 All ER 756 at 775, [1977] 1 WLR 1073 at 1081, soon after the 1975 Act had come into force. After reading the then equivalent of sub-s 14(2), Geoffrey Lane LJ said:
‘[T]he test is partly a subjective test, namely: “would this plaintiff have considered the injury sufficiently serious?” and partly an objective test, namely: “would he have been reasonable if he did not regard it as sufficiently serious?” It seems to me that the subsection is directed at the nature of the injury as known to the plaintiff at that time. Taking that plaintiff, with that plaintiff’s intelligence, would he have been reasonable in considering the injury not sufficiently serious to justify instituting proceedings for damages?’
[34] I respectfully think that the notion of the test being partly objective and partly subjective is somewhat confusing. Section 14(2) is a test for what counts as a significant injury. The material to which that test applies is generally
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‘subjective’ in the sense that it is applied to what the claimant knows of his injury rather than the injury as it actually was. Even then, his knowledge may have to be supplemented with imputed ‘objective’ knowledge under s 14(3). But the test itself is an entirely impersonal standard: not whether the claimant himself would have considered the injury sufficiently serious to justify proceedings but whether he would ‘reasonably’ have done so. You ask what the claimant knew about the injury he had suffered, you add any knowledge about the injury which may be imputed to him under s 14(3) and you then ask whether a reasonable person with that knowledge would have considered the injury sufficiently serious to justify his instituting proceedings for damages against a defendant who did not dispute liability and was able to satisfy a judgment.
[35] It follows that I cannot accept that one must consider whether someone ‘with [the] plaintiff’s intelligence’ would have been reasonable if he did not regard the injury as sufficiently serious. That seems to me to destroy the effect of the word ‘reasonably’. Judges should not have to grapple with the notion of the reasonable unintelligent person. Once you have ascertained what the claimant knew and what he should be treated as having known, the actual claimant drops out of the picture. Section 14(2) is, after all, simply a standard of the seriousness of the injury and nothing more. Standards are in their nature impersonal and do not vary with the person to whom they are applied.
[36] In KR v Bryn Alyn Community (Holdings) Ltd (in liq) [2003] EWCA Civ 783, [2003] QB 1441, the Court of Appeal ventured even further into subjectivity. That too was a case of claims by victims of sexual abuse. In giving the judgment of the court, Auld LJ said that victims of such abuse may regard such conduct by persons in authority as normal. It might be unreal to expect people with such psychological injuries to commence proceedings. Therefore, he said, at [42]: ‘However artificial it may seem to pose the question in this context, s 14 requires the court, on a case by case basis, to ask whether such an already damaged child would reasonably turn his mind to litigation as a solution to his problems?’
[37] This approach treats the statute as if it had said that time should run from the date on which it would have been reasonable to expect the claimant to institute proceedings. If it had said that, the question posed in Bryn Alyn would have been correct. But s 14 makes time runs from when the claimant has knowledge of certain facts, not from when he could have been expected to take certain steps. Section 14(2) does no more than define one of those facts by reference to a standard of seriousness.
[38] The Court of Appeal said that there was some ‘tension’ between the Bryn Alyn test and the recent decision of the House of Lords in Adams v Bracknell Forest BC [2004] UKHL 29, [2004] 3 All ER 897, [2005] 1 AC 76. I suppose that this is true in the sense that the House in Adams said that one had to take words like ‘reasonable’ and ‘reasonably’ seriously and the Bryn Alyn test does not. But Adams was dealing with s 14(3), which is very different in its purpose from s 14(2). The test for imputing knowledge in s 14(3) is by reference to what the claimant ought reasonably to have done. It asks whether he ought reasonably to have acquired certain knowledge from observable or ascertainable facts or to have obtained expert advice. But s 14(2) is simply a standard of seriousness applied to what the claimant knew or must be treated as having known. It involves no inquiry into what the claimant ought to have done. A conclusion that the injury would reasonably have been considered sufficiently serious to justify the issue of proceedings implies no finding that the claimant ought reasonably to have
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issued proceedings. He may have had perfectly good reasons for not doing so. It is a standard to determine one thing and one thing only, namely whether the injury was sufficiently serious to count as significant.
[39] The difference between s 14(2) and 14(3) emerges very clearly if one considers the relevance in each case of the claimant’s injury. Because s 14(3) turns on what the claimant ought reasonably to have done, one must take into account the injury which the claimant has suffered. You do not assume that a person who has been blinded could reasonably have acquired knowledge by seeing things. In s 14(2), on the other hand, the test is external to the claimant and involves no inquiry into what he ought reasonably to have done. It is applied to what the claimant knew or was deemed to have known but the standard itself is impersonal. The effect of the claimant’s injuries upon what he could reasonably have been expected to do is therefore irrelevant.
[40] In the present case, Dyson LJ ([2007] 1 All ER 895 at [55]) (with whom Sir Peter Gibson and Buxton LJ agreed) said that when the claimant left the detention institution in 1977, he was ‘obviously aware that he had been seriously assaulted’. He went on to say: ‘Viewed objectively and without regard to the fact that the claimant suppressed his memories of the assaults, they were sufficiently serious for proceedings against an acquiescent and creditworthy defendant to be reasonably considered to be justified.’
[41] I agree. The description of the assaults and indignities which the claimant says he suffered seem to me to put the matter beyond doubt. I think that if the Court of Appeal had not been bound by Bryn Alyn, it would have decided that this was the end of the matter. The date of knowledge would have been 1977. Instead, the Court of Appeal fixed on a later date by reference to when the claimant himself could reasonably have been expected to commence proceedings. On the true construction of s 14(2), I do not think that a later date can be justified.
[42] Mr Brown QC, who appeared for the appellant, put forward an alternative argument that, even if the test which s 14(2) applied to the injury as known to the claimant was entirely impersonal, the claimant in this case could not be said to have had knowledge of his injury. This was because, according to the evidence of the claimant, supported by an expert witness, he had ‘blocked out his memory’, or, in another metaphor which he used in evidence, put his memories ‘in a box with a tightly sealed lid in the attic’. He was, he said, ‘in denial’ about the psychological injuries which he had suffered.
[43] I do not doubt the value of these explanations of the claimant’s mental processes when it comes to an assessment of whether he could reasonably have been expected to commence proceedings. But they are difficult enough concepts to apply in that context and I do not think that s 14(2) was intended to convert them into even more difficult questions of epistemology. If one asked an expert psychologist whether the claimant ‘really’ knew about his injuries, I expect he would say that it depends on what you mean by ‘know’. And he might go on to say that if the question was whether he ‘knew’ for the purposes of the Limitation Act, it would be better to ask a lawyer. In my opinion the subsection assumes a practical and relatively unsophisticated approach to the question of knowledge and there seems to me to have been much sense in Lord Griffiths’ observation in Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322 at 328, [1993] AC 498 at 506 that he had ‘the greatest difficulty in accepting that a woman who knows that she has been raped does not know that she has suffered a significant injury’.
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[44] This does not mean that the law regards as irrelevant the question of whether the actual claimant, taking into account his psychological state in consequence of the injury, could reasonably have been expected to institute proceedings. But it deals with that question under s 33, which specifically says in sub-s (3)(a) that one of the matters to be taken into account in the exercise of the discretion is ‘the reasons for . . . the delay on the part of the plaintiff’.
[45] In my opinion that is the right place in which to consider it. Section 33 enables the judge to look at the matter broadly and not have to decide the highly artificial question of whether knowledge which the claimant has in some sense suppressed counts as knowledge for the purposes of the Act. Furthermore, dealing with the matter under s 14(2) means that the epistemological question determines whether the claimant is entitled to sue as of right, without regard at any injustice which this might cause to the defendant. In my view it is far too brittle an instrument for this purpose. There are passages in the judgement of Buxton LJ which suggest that, had he not been bound by Bryn Alyn, he would have shared this opinion.
[46] This approach would, I think, be in accordance with the recommendations of the Law Commission in the Report (Law Com No 270) to which I have referred. In its Consultation Paper No 151 Limitation of Actions (1998) para 12.44, the Commission had proposed that the test of significance should take into account ‘the plaintiff’s abilities’. But they abandoned this position in their final report and recommended (at para 3.24) that the test of significance should be entirely objective: ‘. . . only claims in respect of which a reasonable person would have thought it worthwhile issuing proceedings will qualify as “significant”.’
[47] In paras 4.27–4.28 of their final report the Law Commission considered whether victims of sexual abuse should be subject to a special regime. It had been submitted that no limitation period should apply to sex abuse claims because victims commonly suffered from ‘dissociative amnesia’, a recognised mental disorder which produced an inability to recall traumatic events or at any rate an unwillingness to be reminded of them. The Law Commission said that so far as dissociative amnesia was a ‘mental disability’ within a fairly broad definition proposed by the commission (see paras 3.123–3.124), it would (if their proposals were implemented) stop time running while the disability persisted. But they rejected (in para 3.125) any specific provision for the psychological incapacity suffered by victims of sexual abuse because they said that it would be very difficult to define.
[48] If the Commission thought that the ‘psychological incapacity suffered by victims of sexual abuse’ (para 4.28) was too uncertain and indefinite a concept to be used for suspension of the limitation period on grounds of incapacity, I can see no advantage in relying upon the same uncertain concept to give an artificial meaning to the concept of knowledge in s 14. Until Parliament decides whether to give effect to the Commission’s recommendation of a more precise definition of incapacity, it is better to leave these considerations to the discretion under s 33.
[49] That brings me, finally, to the approach of the judge and the Court of Appeal to the exercise of the discretion. In Bryn Alyn [2003] QB 1441 at [76] the Court of Appeal said that the judge in that case had gone wrong in giving undue weight to his conclusion that ‘the claimants’ reasons for delay were a product of the alleged abuse . . . and that, accordingly, it would be unjust to deprive them of a remedy.’ These matters, said the Court of Appeal, were more appropriately
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considered under s 14. I am of precisely the opposite opinion, and if your Lordships share my view, the approach to the discretion will have to change. In Horton v Sadler [2006] UKHL 27, [2006] 3 All ER 1177, [2007] 1 AC 307 the House rejected a submission that s 33 should be confined to a ‘residual class of cases’, as was anticipated by the Twentieth Report of the Law Reform Committee (Cmnd 5630) (1974) at para 56. It reaffirmed the decision of the Court of Appeal in Firman v Ellis [1978] 2 All ER 851, [1978] QB 886, holding that the discretion is unfettered. The judge is expressly enjoined by sub-s (3)(a) to have regard to the reasons for delay and in my opinion this requires him to give due weight to evidence, such as there was in this case, that the claimant was for practical purposes disabled from commencing proceedings by the psychological injuries which he had suffered.
[50] That, of course, is not the only matter to which he must have regard. As the Law Commission said in para 4.31 of their report (No 270):
‘We do have some concerns that claims may be brought many years after the events on which the claimant’s cause of action is based, at a time when it is difficult for a fair trial to be given to the claimant’s allegations. However, subject to the provision on disability, the victim is likely to have immediate knowledge of the relevant facts, so that the primary limitation period expires three years after majority. Although the court will have a discretion to disapply the primary limitation period, it must consider whether the defendant’s ability to defend the claim will be prejudiced due to the lapse of time since the events giving rise to the cause of action.’
[51] Apart from the reference to disability, these observations seem to me as valid in relation to the exercise of the discretion under the present law as under the system proposed by the Commission.
[52] In this case, the judge followed the Bryn Alyn guideline in saying that if the claimant had not succeeded on the date of knowledge, he would not have exercised the discretion in his favour. For the same reasons, this exercise of discretion was affirmed by the Court of Appeal. But I think that it was exercised on the wrong basis and that the case must be remitted to the judge to consider the matter again. When he does so, I would imagine that the claimant will rely upon the vicarious liability of the defendants for the acts of abuse rather than their systemic negligence. The issues of fact in the case will have become a good deal simpler and this is no doubt a matter to which the judge will have regard in considering whether a fair trial is still possible. I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. I agree with all of it but I respectfully think that his observations on the exercise of the discretion are particularly valuable. I would therefore allow the appeal and remit the matter to the judge to reconsider in accordance with the opinions of the House.
LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE.
[53] My Lords, I have had the privilege of reading in draft the opinions of my noble and learned friends Lord Hoffmann and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. I am in full agreement with their opinions. I would allow all these appeals and make the orders which Lord Hoffmann proposes.
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BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[54] My Lords, Until the 1970s people were reluctant to believe that child sexual abuse took place at all. Now we know only too well that it does. But it remains hard to protect children from it. This is because the perpetrators are so often people in authority over the victims, sometimes people whom the victims love and trust. These perpetrators have many ways, some subtle and some not so subtle, of making their victims keep quiet about what they have suffered. The abuse itself is the reason why so many victims do not come forward until years after the event. This presents a challenge to a legal system which resists stale claims. Six years, let alone three, from reaching the age of majority is not long enough, especially since the age of majority was reduced from 21 to 18.
[55] Fortunately, by the time the problem was recognised, some flexibility had been introduced in personal injury cases, albeit to meet the rather different problem of the insidious and unremarked onset of industrial disease. Then along came Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] AC 498, holding that this flexibility did not apply to cases of deliberate assault. For the reasons given by my noble and learned friend, Lord Hoffmann, I agree that Stubbings v Webb was wrongly decided and have nothing to add on that point. I would dispose of all the cases which depend upon it in the ways proposed by Lord Hoffmann.
[56] More difficult is how that flexibility is to be applied in sex abuse cases. Time does not begin to run until the ‘date of knowledge’: Limitation Act 1980, s 11(4)(b). This is the date when the claimant knew, or ought to have known, that his injury was significant, that it was attributable to the acts or omissions alleged to constitute a breach of duty, the identity of the defendant, and the identity of the alleged wrong-doer if not the defendant and why the defendant should be liable: s 14(1) and (3). For this purpose ‘an injury is significant if the person whose date of knowledge is in question would reasonably have considered it sufficiently serious to justify his instituting proceedings for damages against a defendant who did not dispute liability and was able to satisfy a judgment’: s 14(2). This is not an easy provision to construe.
[57] The subsection does not say that ‘an injury is significant if the person whose date of knowledge is in question could reasonably have been expected to institute proceedings in respect of it’. It does not ask whether the claimant was in such a state of denial about what had happened to him that he could not reasonably be expected to bring proceedings or even to think about them. That was the test adopted by the Court of Appeal in KR v Bryn Alyn Community (Holdings) Ltd (in liq) [2003] EWCA Civ 783 at [42], [2003] QB 1441 at [42]. It recognises the reality of many sex abuse cases, but unfortunately it is not the wording of the subsection.
[58] Nor, on the other hand, does the subsection say that ‘an injury is significant if a reasonable person would consider it sufficiently serious’. How then are we to construe the reference to what this particular claimant would reasonably have thought? I have not found this such an easy question as your Lordships have. We are used in other contexts to looking at this particular person, with all his personal characteristics and in the position in which he finds himself, and asking what a reasonable person would expect of him. This is the test which we apply when deciding whether a divorce petitioner could reasonably be expected to go on living with the respondent: see Livingstone-Stallard v Livingstone-Stallard [1974] 2 All ER 766, [1974] Fam 47. Why, then, should we not look at this particular claimant, with all his personal characteristics and in the
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situation in which he finds himself, and ask whether a reasonable person would expect him to recognise that his injury was sufficiently serious to justify making a claim against someone who admitted it and was good for the money? This does not deprive the word ‘reasonably’ of all meaning, because the test is still what the reasonable outsider would expect of the claimant rather than what the claimant would expect of himself. I have also asked myself whether it makes a difference that we are here talking about what the claimant knows rather than what the claimant does or does not do. But that is not a wholly convincing distinction, because the fact known is defined by reference to what the claimant should have done about it in the hypothetical circumstances.
[59] I do not, therefore, find it surprising that Geoffrey Lane LJ took the view that he did in McCafferty v Metropolitan Police District Receiver [1977] 2 All ER 756 at 775, [1977] 1 WLR 1073 at 1081, or that that view has survived until now. Nor, however, do I find it surprising that the Law Commission has recommended that ‘the test for significance should be objective: that is, only claims in respect of which a reasonable person would have thought it worthwhile issuing proceedings will qualify as “significant”’ (Limitation of Actions (Law Com No 270), para 3.24). It is much simpler to ask what the claimant knew or ought to have known and then apply an objective test of significance to those facts. Complex epistemological problems are thus avoided. But that is not what the subsection says at present.
[60] Nor am I wholly convinced by the policy argument: it may well be more satisfactory to transfer the question into the exercise of discretion under s 33. Then the injustice to a claimant who may be deprived of his claim, perhaps as a result of the very injuries which gave rise to it, can be balanced against the injustice to a defendant who may be called upon to defend himself a long time after the event when important evidence may no longer be obtainable. I fully support the more generous approach to the exercise of discretion which is adopted in particular by Lord Hoffmann. The reasons for the delay are highly relevant to that exercise, as of course are the prospects of a fair trial. A fair trial can be possible long after the event and sometimes the law has no choice. It is even possible to have a fair trial of criminal charges of historic sex abuse. Much will depend upon the circumstances of the particular case. But the policy argument applies just as much to the whole ‘date of knowledge’ provision as it does to the definition of significance with which we are concerned. With a properly directed discretion one should not need the date of knowledge provision at all. Nor are the difficulties faced by a defendant whose breach of a strict statutory duty may have resulted in some insidious industrial disease necessarily less deserving of consideration than the difficulties faced by a defendant, whose deliberate and brutal actions towards a vulnerable person in his care may have resulted in immediate physical harm and much later serious psychiatric sequelae.
[61] In the result, despite my nagging doubts about the interpretation of s 14(2) adopted by your Lordships, I do not think that any interpretation could plausibly result in a date of knowledge within the three years immediately preceding the issue of proceedings by Mr Young. In agreement with your Lordships, I would send his case back for the judge to reconsider the exercise of his discretion in the light of the opinions of the House.
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LORD CARSWELL.
[62] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinions prepared by my noble and learned friends Lord Hoffmann and Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. I agree with both so entirely that I share Lord Brown’s reluctance to add to the quantum of the views expressed by the members of the Appellate Committee in these appeals. I propose accordingly to add only a few observations, which I venture to hope will be of assistance to judges who have the task of applying the law in this difficult area.
[63] On the issue of the construction of the phrase ‘negligence, nuisance or breach of duty’ and the proposal to depart from the decision of the House in Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] AC 498, I agree entirely with the reasons expressed and conclusions reached by Lord Hoffmann. When Parliament passed the Law Reform (Limitation of Actions, etc) Act 1954, inserting a new proviso into s 2(1) of the Limitation Act 1939, it introduced that phrase, which had earlier appeared in s 3(1) of the Personal Injuries (Emergency Provisions) Act 1939. The decision of the Court of Appeal in Billings v Reed [1944] 2 All ER 415, [1945] KB 11, decided under the latter Act, gave the phrase ‘breach of duty’ a wide meaning, holding that it was comprehensive enough to cover the case of trespass to the person. If it were not for this decision—of which Parliament may be assumed to have taken account when it enacted the 1954 legislation—one might have supposed that ‘breach of duty’ was intended to include breach of statutory duty and breach of duties such as that of an occupier to persons coming on to his premises. In the light of the previous construction of the phrase, however, one may conclude that Parliament intended that it be similarly construed in the 1954 Act, extending to trespass to the person. That conclusion is in my opinion reinforced by the subsequent case-law decided before the enactment of the Limitation Act 1980. The draftsman of that Act must be taken to have been aware of the decisions of the Court of Appeal in Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929, [1965] 1 QB 232, with its reliance on the Australian case of Kruber v Grzesiak [1963] VLR 621, and of Cooke J in Long v Hepworth [1968] 3 All ER 248, [1968] 1 WLR 1299. In the light of these I am satisfied that ‘breach of duty’ must be construed broadly enough to include trespass to the person. For the reasons set out by Lord Hoffmann, I also consider that the House should be prepared to depart from its previous decision in Stubbings v Webb.
[64] This conclusion governs the disposition of the appeals in A v Hoare, C v Middlesbrough Council, H v Suffolk CC and X and Y v Wandsworth London BC. I would allow each of these appeals and make the order proposed in each by Lord Hoffmann.
[65] The appeal in Young v Catholic Care (Diocese of Leeds) poses different problems concerning the correct approach to s 14 of the Limitation Act 1980. Section 11(3) of the Act bars an action brought after the expiration of the period applicable under s 11(4) or (5). The subsection relevant to this appeal is sub-s (4), the material part of which provides that the period applicable is three years from: ‘(a) the date on which the cause of action accrued; or (b) the date of knowledge (if later) of the person injured.’ The date of knowledge is defined by s 14. The relevant parts for the purposes of this appeal provide:
‘(1) In sections 11 and 12 of this Act references to a person’s date of knowledge are references to the date on which he first had knowledge of the following facts—(a) that the injury in question was significant . . .
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(2) For the purposes of this section an injury is significant if the person whose date of knowledge is in question would reasonably have considered it sufficiently serious to justify his instituting proceedings for damages against a defendant who did not dispute liability and was able to satisfy a judgment.
(3) For the purposes of this section a person’s knowledge includes knowledge which he might reasonably have been expected to acquire—(a) from facts observable or ascertainable by him; or (b) from facts ascertainable by him with the help of medical or other appropriate expert advice which it is reasonable for him to seek; but a person shall not be fixed under this subsection with knowledge of a fact ascertainable only with the help of expert advice so long as he has taken all reasonable steps to obtain (and, where appropriate, to act on) that advice.’
[66] I agree with Lord Hoffmann that this subject has been unnecessarily confused by importing the notion that the test of whether the claimant had the requisite knowledge for the purposes of s 14 is partly objective and partly subjective. In my opinion it should be clearly understood that s 14(1) is subjective, in that it refers to the knowledge actually possessed by the claimant, whereas s 14(2) is objective, the relevant test being, as Lord Hoffmann describes it at [39] and [42], an ‘entirely impersonal’ standard. Section 14(3) then relates solely to constructive or imputed knowledge. It may fix the claimant with knowledge of facts which he might reasonably have been expected to acquire in the manner specified by the subsection. Once that knowledge is imputed to him, it becomes part of the corpus of his personal knowledge, the extent of which has to be assessed under sub-s (1).
[67] An example may help to illustrate these propositions. If a claimant in the course of his employment inhaled fibres of asbestos, which unknown to him set up the physiological process resulting many years later in his developing mesothelioma, he had no knowledge at the time of inhalation that he had suffered an injury. In the course of time he may develop chest symptoms of increasing severity. He may not connect them with his previous exposure to asbestos, but the stage may be reached at which he ought reasonably to realise that something may be wrong and take medical and any other appropriate expert advice. At that stage, if he is advised of the nature and aetiology of his medical condition, he is to be deemed, by virtue of sub-s (3), to have the requisite knowledge of those matters. It is at that point in time that sub-s (2) has to be considered. If a reasonable person, that is to say, an informed third person who has the knowledge possessed by or attributed to the claimant, would consider the injury significant, as defined by sub-s (2), then the limitation period starts to run from that time.
[68] It is in my opinion incorrect to import the circumstances, character or intelligence of the claimant into the determination of reasonableness under s 14(2). It is irrelevant whether the claimant is intelligent or unintelligent or whether his personal characteristics or his circumstances may influence his decision not to sue at that time. Some people are more robust than others and would shrug off the possibility of suing for the injury (a possibility more likely in the case of minor conditions than in the example I have given). Others may be temperamentally averse to making the effort to institute proceedings, or to appearing in court, or may be unable or unwilling to risk incurring the costs. Some may feel too ill to contemplate litigation. What is material in determining if the injury is significant within the meaning of sub-s (2) is whether a reasonable person, possessed of the facts known or available to the claimant, would consider the injury sufficiently
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serious to justify instituting proceedings for damages, assuming that the defendant will not dispute liability and is able to satisfy a judgment. Under this construction of s 14 some claimants with merit on their side will undoubtedly fail, but those characteristics or circumstances to which I have referred can and should be taken into account in the exercise of the discretion under s 33 to disapply the limitation provisions, as I shall explain in more detail below.
[69] If these principles are understood, it becomes easier to apply them to the case of Kevin Raymond Young. The medical reports set out the ill-treatment he received, which was so severe that any reasonable person would have regarded it as significant within the meaning of s 14(2). He finally left Medomsley Detention Centre on 17 June 1977, the day before his eighteenth birthday. In para [55] of his judgment in the Court of Appeal ([2006] EWCA Civ 1534, [2007] 1 All ER 895, [2007] QB 932) Dyson LJ, with whom Sir Peter Gibson agreed, stated, in my view quite correctly, that he ‘was obviously aware that he had been seriously assaulted’. He accepted that he had the requisite knowledge of his injuries for the purposes of s 14(1) and that they were serious enough to be significant for the purposes of s 14(2). There was no need to resort to s 14(3), for Mr Young had all the necessary subjective knowledge and there was no need to attribute any constructive knowledge to him. The quest should have stopped at that point. Dyson LJ went on, however, to approve of the judge’s finding that the claimant’s subsequent suppression of his memories of the assaults enabled him to hold that he did not know in the period 1977–80 that the injuries were significant within the meaning of s 14(2). In this approach the judge and the Court of Appeal applied the wrong test when considering s 14(1) and 14(2). The matters which they took into account were undoubtedly very material in deciding on the exercise of discretion under s 33, and that is the point at which they should have received consideration.
[70] If, as I think to be the case, s 14 should be construed in this manner, which is less favourable to a claimant, there requires to be a more liberal approach to the exercise of discretion than has always been the case. For the reasons which my noble and learned friends and I have set out, that less favourable construction of s 14 is correct in principle, but it must follow that the favourable factors which have hitherto been taken into account in reaching a conclusion under s 14 should form a part, and in appropriate cases a very significant part, of the judge’s determination in exercising his discretion under s 33.
[71] The judge in Mr Young’s case indicated that he would, but for his finding under s 14, have exercised his discretion against disapplying the limitation provisions and the Court of Appeal was not prepared to disturb that conclusion. It cannot stand, however, in the light of the decision of the House under s 14, which will require a judge to take into account under s 33 the factors on which he placed some weight in reaching his decision under s 14.
[72] There is a further reason why the discretion should be exercised afresh. Since the House has decided to depart from its decision in Stubbings v Webb, Mr Young will no longer have to force his case into the Procrustean bed of systemic negligence. He will be able to invoke ss 14 and 33 of the Limitation Act 1980 in respect of a claim for assault by the employees of the respondents, if, as appears to be correct, the respondents are held vicariously liable for them under the principles in Lister v Hesley Hall Ltd [2001] UKHL 22, [2001] 2 All ER 769, [2002] 1 AC 215. On this basis, as Lord Brown points out at [12] of his opinion—with an important qualification in [13]—the quality of the evidence may not be as adversely affected
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by the lapse of time and the extent of the factual disputes may be reduced, which would tend to lessen the prejudice to a defendant occasioned by that factor.
[73] I would therefore allow the appeal of Kevin Raymond Young and remit the matter to the judge to reconsider in accordance with the opinions of the House.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[74] My Lords, I have had the privilege of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hoffmann. So completely do I agree with it that I have hesitated long before finally deciding to add a few paragraphs of my own. Nothing that I say is intended to conflict in any way with my Lord’s judgment.
[75] As will be apparent from Lord Hoffmann’s judgment, there have been down the years three main phases with regard to the limitation period governing personal injury actions.
(i) Phase one: until 1954 the six-year limitation period which governed all tort actions applied equally to actions for personal injuries (save claims against public authorities).
(ii) Phase two: from 1954 to 1975 (by the amendment to s 2 of the Limitation Act 1939 effected by s 2(1) of the Law Reform (Limitation of Actions, etc) Act 1954) personal injuries actions for damages were subject to an unextendable three-year time limit. The actions in question were defined as those ‘for negligence, nuisance or breach of duty (whether the duty exists by virtue of a contract or of provision made by or under a statute or independently of any contract or any such provision)’.
(iii) Phase three: from 1975 to date (by amendments to s 2 of the Limitation Act 1939 effected by s 1 of the Limitation Act 1975, since consolidated and re-enacted as ss 11, 14 and 33 of the Limitation Act 1980) personal injury actions for damages (defined identically as in phase two) have remained subject to a three-year time limit but (a) the three-year period only starts to run from the claimant’s date of knowledge (rather than from the date of accrual of the cause of action), and (b) the three-year time limit is extendable at the court’s discretion.
(It is unnecessary to complicate this brief summary by reference to the Limitation Act 1963 which introduced an earlier but unsatisfactory date of knowledge provision.)
[76] It will at once be obvious from the above summary that during phase two a personal injury claim brought between three and six years after the accrual of the cause of action would be time-barred if it fell within the statutory definition, but not otherwise. The amendment, in other words, shortened the time limit. Claimants during phase two, therefore, preferred to fall outside the definition. During phase three, however, claimants mostly benefited from their claim falling within the definition: they could then (in appropriate circumstances) take advantage both of the date of knowledge provisions and of the exercise of the court’s general discretion to extend time. Only if they happened to issue proceedings between three years and six years after the accrual of their cause of action could they benefit from being outside the definition.
[77] Which personal injury actions, however, were encompassed within the statutory definition? The question first arose during phase two in connection with claims for trespass to the person. It was consistently held (initially in Letang v Cooper [1964] 2 All ER 929, [1965] 1 QB 232, a case of accidental trespass to the person, then later in Long v Hepworth [1968] 3 All ER 248, [1968] 1 WLR 1299, a case of intentional assault) that all such cases fell within the definition: all were actions for ‘breach of
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duty’. The claims, therefore, having been brought outside the unextendable three-year period, were all statute barred.
[78] That then was the position when phase three was introduced by the 1975 Act, only now, of course, that line of authority was ordinarily to the advantage of those claiming damages for assault because the shortened three-year time limit was extendable.
[79] And this continued to be everyone’s understanding of the position until the House’s decision in Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] AC 498 (28 years after Letang’s case and 18 years after the introduction of phase three) when for the first time it was held that an action for damages for personal injuries for an intentional trespass to the person fell, after all, outside the statutory definition.
[80] As Lord Hoffmann has explained, when the statutory definition was first introduced with phase two in 1954 it clearly was arguable that Parliament could not have been intending to shorten the limitation period governing claims for damages for intentional assault (even though the period was being shortened for personal injury claims generally). When phase three was introduced, however, this was intended to benefit (in the two respects already identified) those claiming damages for personal injuries and Parliament surely cannot have intended to exclude from such benefits (to the advantage of their assailants) those intentionally injured. Rather Parliament must have had in mind the Letang line of authority (hitherto disadvantageous to such claimants) and intended them to benefit along with all the others claiming damages for personal injuries. In other words, whereas it is possible that Parliament, when first introducing the statutory definition in 1954, intended to exclude from it actions for intentional assault, it is inconceivable that it had this intention when introducing phase three in 1975.
[81] As to whether the House should now depart from its decision in Stubbings v Webb, I fully share Lord Hoffmann’s view that it should. Perhaps the two most obvious anomalies to which it has given rise are, first, that illustrated by S v W (child abuse: damages) [1995] 3 FCR 649 where a claimant suing out of time was held able to pursue a claim against her mother for failing to protect her against sexual abuse by her father but not a claim against the father himself; and, second, the position following Lister v Hesley Hall Ltd [2001] UKHL 22, [2001] 2 All ER 769, [2002] 1 AC 215 whereby late claims can be brought against employers of those committing sexual abuse on proof of systemic negligence but not on the more obvious and direct ground of vicarious liability for the abuse itself (the very situation arising in the Young appeal before your Lordships).
[82] The elimination of these anomalies from the law together with the various artificial types of claim which they have spawned provides an ample reason for invoking the Practice Statement (Judicial Precedent) [1966] 3 All ER 77, [1966] 1 WLR 1234 so that justice may henceforth be done in these cases as Parliament intended.
[83] There is nothing which I wish to add to Lord Hoffmann’s discussion and conclusions about the meaning of ‘significant’ injury in s 14(2) of the 1980 Act (at [31]–[48] of his opinion).
[84] With regard to the exercise of the court’s discretion under s 33 of the 1980 Act, however, I would make just three brief comments—not, let it be clear, in any way to fetter a discretion which the House in Horton v Sadler [2006] UKHL 27, [2006] 3 All ER 1177, [2007] 1 AC 307 recently confirmed to be unfettered, but rather to suggest the sort of considerations which ought clearly to be in mind in sexual abuse cases in the new era which your Lordships are now ushering in, firstly, by departing from Stubbings v Webb and, secondly, by construing s 14(2) so as to
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transfer from that provision to s 33 consideration of the inhibiting effect of sexual abuse upon certain victims’ preparedness to bring proceedings in respect of it.
[85] First, insofar as future claims may be expected to be brought against employers (or others allegedly responsible for abusers) on the basis of vicarious liability for sexual assaults rather than for systemic negligence in failing to prevent them, they will probably involve altogether narrower factual disputes than hitherto. As Lord Hoffmann suggests, at [52], that is likely to bear significantly upon the possibility of having a fair trial.
[86] Secondly, through the combined effects of Lister v Hesley Hall Ltd and departing from Stubbings v Webb, a substantially greater number of allegations (not all of which will be true) are now likely to be made many years after the abuse complained of. Whether or not it will be possible for defendants to investigate these sufficiently for there to be a reasonable prospect of a fair trial will depend upon a number of factors, not least when the complaint was first made and with what effect. If a complaint has been made and recorded, and more obviously still if the accused has been convicted of the abuse complained of, that will be one thing; if, however, a complaint comes out of the blue with no apparent support for it (other perhaps than that the alleged abuser has been accused or even convicted of similar abuse in the past), that would be quite another thing. By no means everyone who brings a late claim for damages for sexual abuse, however genuine his complaint may in fact be, can reasonably expect the court to exercise the s 33 discretion in his favour. On the contrary, a fair trial (which must surely include a fair opportunity for the defendant to investigate the allegations—see s 33(3)(b)) is in many cases likely to be found quite simply impossible after a long delay.
[87] Hitherto the misconstruction of s 14(2) has given an absolute right to proceed, however long out of time, to anyone able to say that he would not reasonably have turned his mind to litigation (more than three years) earlier (the Bryn Alyn test described by Lord Hoffmann at [36]). It is not to be supposed that the exercise of the court’s s 33 discretion will invariably replicate that position.
[88] My third and final comment relates most directly to A’s appeal and it is this. The definition of ‘significant injury’ in s 14(2) refers to the justifiability of bringing proceedings against a defendant ‘able to satisfy a judgment’. That surely is unsurprising. It would not ordinarily be sensible to sue an indigent defendant. How then should the court approach the exercise of its s 33 discretion in a case like A where suddenly, after many years, the prospective defendant becomes rich. The House is not, of course, itself exercising this discretion. I would, however, suggest that it would be most unfortunate if people felt obliged (often at public expense) to bring proceedings for sexual abuse against indigent defendants simply with a view to their possible future enforcement. (Judgments, although interest-bearing for only six years, are enforceable without limit of time.)
[89] For the purposes of these appeals, my comments are, of course, essentially by the way. Your Lordships were, however, invited by the Bar (indeed, those representing the interests of both claimants and defendants) to give such broad assistance as we felt able to regarding the exercise of discretion under s 33.
[90] For the reasons given above and more particularly those given by Lord Hoffmann, I too would allow these appeals and make the orders he proposes.
Appeals allowed.
James Wilson Barrister (NZ)
AG (Eritrea) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
[2008] 2 All ER 28
[2007] EWCA Civ 801
Categories: HUMAN RIGHTS; Family Life, Privacy: IMMIGRATION
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SEDLEY, MAURICE KAY AND LAWRENCE COLLINS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 19 JUNE, 31 JULY 2007
Immigration – Leave to enter – Refusal of leave – Appeal – Appeal to adjudicator – Right to respect for private and family life – Decision-making role and function of appellate immigration authorities – Guidance – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 8.
The Court of Appeal set out, in an appeal from the Asylum and Immigration Tribunal, the law applicable to claims to the right to respect for private and family life under art 8(1)a of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). Under art 8(2) there was to be no interference by a public authority with the exercise of the art 8(1) right except such as was in accordance with the law and was necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security, public safety or the economic well being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.
Held – It was established that there was no test of exceptionality in the application of art 8 of the convention; removal from the United Kingdom would be only exceptionally found to be disproportionate but there was no formal test of exceptionality and no hurdles beyond those contained in art 8 itself. While an interference with private or family life had to be real if it were to engage art 8(1), the threshold of engagement was not specially high. Once the article was engaged, the focus moved to the process of justification under art 8(2) which, in all cases which engaged art 8(1), would determine whether there had been a breach of the article. In normal circumstances interference with family life would be justified by the requirements of immigration control but it was recognised that a different approach could be justified in a small minority of exceptional cases identifiable only on a case by case basis. Whether a particular case fell within that limited category was a question of judgment for the tribunal of fact and normally raised no issue of law. The expectation that it would be exceptional for recourse to art 8, read as a whole, to overcome the otherwise lawful removal of a claimant from the jurisdiction turned on the relative weight of art 8(1) interference against that of relevant factors that went to justification under art 8(2), including, in particular, the public interest in maintaining an effective system of immigration control. Exceptionality, to the extent that it survived as an expectation, came in at the art 8(2) stage in drawing the balance between the severity in the nature and consequences of the facts constituting the art 8(1) interference and the importance in the circumstances of the countervailing art 8(2) factors present going to justification. In relation to the determination of proportionality courts and tribunals should have a proper and visible regard to relevant principles in
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making a structured decision about it case by case. It was not sufficient for the tribunal simply to characterise something as proportionate or disproportionate; to do so could well be a failure of reasoning amounting to an error of law. But there would be many cases in which it could properly be said by an appellate tribunal that on no view of the facts could removal be disproportionate and in such cases even if the Asylum and Immigration Tribunal had applied the wrong test, permission to appeal to the Court of Appeal was unlikely to be given (see [15]–[37], below).
Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] 3 All ER 435, Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] 4 All ER 15 and R (on the application of Razgar) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] 3 All ER 821 explained.
MT (Zimbabwe) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 455, [2007] All ER (D) 204 (Apr), Mukarkar v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] EWCA Civ 1045, [2006] All ER (D) 367 (Jul) and KR (Iraq) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 514, [2007] All ER (D) 426 (May) considered.
PO (Nigeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 438 disapproved.
Notes
For the right to respect for family life, see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 151.
For the Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 8, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2008 reissue) 777.
Cases referred to in judgment
Costello-Roberts v UK [1994] 1 FCR 65, ECt HR.
de Freitas v Permanent Secretary of Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries, Lands and Housing [1999] 1 AC 69, [1998] 3 WLR 675, PC.
Gemany [2002] UKIAT 07099.
Handyside v UK (1976) 1 EHRR 737, [1976] ECHR 5493/72, ECt HR.
Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 105, [2005] 3 All ER 435, [2006] QB 1, [2005] 3 WLR 488; affd [2007] UKHL 11, [2007] 4 All ER 15, [2007] 2 AC 167, [2007] 2 WLR 581.
KA (draft-related risk categories updated) (Eritrea) CG [2005] UKIAT 00165.
Karanakaran v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2000] 3 All ER 449, CA.
Konstatinov v Netherlands [2007] ECHR 16351/03, ECt HR.
KR (Iraq) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 514, [2007] All ER (D) 426 (May).
Krasniqi v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] EWCA Civ 391, [2006] All ER (D) 120 (Apr).
London Regional Transport v Mayor of London [2001] EWCA Civ 1491, [2003] EMLR 88.
MT (Zimbabwe) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 455, [2007] All ER (D) 204 (Apr).
Mukarkar v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] EWCA Civ 1045, [2006] All ER (D) 367 (Jul).
PO (Nigeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 438.
Quinn’s Supermarket Ltd v A-G [1972] IR 1, Ir HC.
R (on the application of Razgar) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 27, [2004] 3 All ER 821, [2004] 2 AC 368, [2004] 3 WLR 58; affg [2002] EWHC 2554 (Admin), [2003] Imm AR 269.
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R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26, [2004] 3 All ER 785, [2004] 2 AC 323, [2004] 3 WLR 23.
R v Oakes [1986] 1 SCR 103, SC Can.
Secretary of State for the Home Department v Kacaj [2002] EWCA Civ 314, [2002] Imm AR 213.
Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439, [1989] ECHR 14038/88, ECt HR.
Union Royale Belge des Sociétés de Football Association ASBL v Bosman, Royal Club Liègois SA v Bosman, Union des Associations Européens de Football v Bosman Case C425/93 [1996] All ER (EC) 97, [1995] ECR I-4921, ECJ.
Appeal
AG, an Ethiopian national born in October 1984, applied for asylum in the United Kingdom in August 1999. In 2003 the Secretary of State for the Home Department refused his application and made a removal decision to remove him to Eritrea. AG successfully appealed to an adjudicator (JE Camp) in January 2004 under the Convention relating to the Status of Refugees (Geneva, 28 July 1951; TS 39 (1954); Cmnd 9171) and the 1967 Protocol (New York, 31 January 1967; TS 15 (1969); Cmnd 3906) and the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). The Asylum and Immigration Tribunal (CP Mather and C Jarvis) held the adjudicator’s decision to have been vitiated by errors of law. On reconsideration the tribunal (DIJ Shaerf and IJ Traynor) determined in June 2006 that AG was not entitled to protection under either of the conventions. He appealed to the Court of Appeal with permission of Carnwath LJ given in October 2006. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Manjit Gill QC and Edward Nicholson (instructed by Clore & Co) for the appellant.
Jane Collier (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Judgment was reserved.
31 July 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SEDLEY LJ.
The judgment which follows is the judgment of the court.
[1] The appellant is a young Ethiopian, born in October 1984, who has sought asylum and human rights protection in this country. He was born and brought up in Ethiopia, his father being a national of that country but his mother being (or having been—he does not know what has happened to her) Eritrean. He was sent here on his own at the age of 14 by a kinsman of his father after his mother was abducted from their home in Addis Ababa by soldiers and he himself was taken to a jail from which, however, he was able to escape. It took the Home Office four years from his arrival and application for asylum in August 1999 to reach a decision to refuse the application and remove him—not to Ethiopia but to Eritrea, which is neither his country of origin nor a country in which he has ever lived. For reasons we will come to, the present issue is not whether he is entitled to asylum but whether, having no such entitlement, he can resist removal by relying on art 8 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) (the convention).
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[2] His appeal to an adjudicator, Mr JE Camp, succeeded in January 2004 both under the United Nations Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees (Geneva, 28 July 1951; TS 39 (1953), Cmnd 9171) and under arts 3 and 8 of the convention. Under the transitional regime, the Asylum and Immigration Tribunal (the AIT) (Mr CP Mather and Ms C Jarvis) held the adjudicator’s decision to have been vitiated by two errors of law: deficiency of reasoning about risk, and failure to adopt a test of exceptionality in applying art 8 of the convention. In spite of a finding that the adjudicator’s art 8 decision was perverse, which should logically have meant that only a contrary finding was possible, the AIT sent the entire case, apart from the favourable credibility findings, for a second-stage reconsideration. The reconsideration, conducted by DIJ Shaerf and IJ Traynor, resulted in a determination, promulgated in June 2006, that the appellant was not entitled to protection under either convention.
[3] The AIT refused permission to appeal to this court, but this court in October 2006 granted it. Carnwath LJ considered it realistically arguable that the adjudicator had not erred in either respect, so that no reconsideration should have been ordered. He also considered that the court might give guidance on what constitutes a failure of reasoning and on the issue of exceptionality in relation to art 8. The grounds of appeal go on to contend that the AIT made an error of its own by inverting the burden of proof in relation to the possibility of being picked up and ill-treated by the Eritrean authorities on return.
[4] At the AIT stage the law was still taken to be what was set out by this court in Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 105, [2005] 3 All ER 435, [2006] QB 1, suggesting in the light of the decision of the House of Lords in R (on the application of Razgar) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 27, [2004] 3 All ER 821, [2004] 2 AC 368 a need for exceptional circumstances in order to bring a case within the ambit of art 8. But in March 2007 the House of Lords made it clear that there was no test of exceptionality in the application of art 8 ([2007] UKHL 11, [2007] 4 All ER 15, [2007] 2 AC 167). In the light of this the Home Office proposed, and the appellant agreed, that this case should be remitted without more to the AIT for reconsideration. But Carnwath and Lawrence Collins LJJ, on the date originally set for hearing the appeal, declined to take this course. The entirety of the appeal accordingly now comes before a full court.
[5] The question whether, in the light of the law as it now stands, the adjudicator made any error entitling the AIT to reconsider the case needs to be dealt with first and separately. If there was no error, the appeal has to succeed. If there was an error on the adjudicator’s part, it is common ground that the AIT’s re-determination cannot stand in the light of the House of Lords’ decision in Huang’s case, so that the case must be remitted to them. In that event the question arises whether the AIT also erred by inverting the burden of proof on a material issue.
DID THE ADJUDICATOR ERR?
[6] Jane Collier, for the Home Secretary, contends that, however the AIT may have expressed it, the adjudicator’s decision was in law untenable for two reasons. First, rather than decide the case on its own facts and merits, he adopted the fact-findings and conclusion of another tribunal in another case and applied them to the appellant’s case. Secondly, although approaching art 8 on what can now be seen to have been a sound legal basis, he introduced into the assessment of proportionality two factually incorrect but potentially influential elements: a
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finding that the appellant ‘does not speak the language’ of Eritrea, and a finding that ‘he would face a risk of ill-treatment and torture there’.
[7] Manjit Gill QC for the appellant submits that the adjudicator’s findings in favour of both the asylum and the art 3 claims are sustainable; that the finding about the language was perfectly sound on the exiguous evidence before the adjudicator; and that to the extent that the finding about ill-treatment and torture was unfounded, it is severable and does not vitiate the art 8 decision.
[8] The adjudicator accepted the appellant as a truthful witness. He went on: ‘Whether the appellant is Ethiopian or Eritrean, I find that he would face a real risk of persecution in Eritrea, where it is proposed to remove him.' By way of explanation he then adopted, ‘with appropriate changes to suit the circumstances’, three paragraphs of an earlier tribunal decision, Gemany [2002] UKIAT 07099, which also concerned the return of a non-national to Eritrea. The paragraphs included these passages:
‘[T]he appellant would have to attend the embassy in person and would need three witnesses to sign at the embassy to confirm that she is Eritrean. Given that the appellant has never lived in Eritrea, having been born in Ethiopia and lived there all her life, we accept . . . that it would be impossible for the appellant to do this.
Even if it was possible to remove the appellant to Eritrea, there is no evidence that she has family there . . . She is now 27 years old. She would be returned to a country in which she has never lived. She would therefore need to access public services if she is to be able to live in it. However, if she is going to be denied public services, and be without the support of a family, than such evidence would in our view amount to inhuman and degrading treatment, in breach of art 3 of the convention.’
[9] The first thing to be noted about the extract from Gemany is that it does not contain any finding of prospective persecution. Secondly, it does not explain what public services would be denied to the appellant, so that it is not apparent why art 3 would be engaged. Mr Gill submits that it can be deduced from other parts of the IAT determination in Gemany that access to employment, housing and other basic needs depends on possession of an identity card, which a non-national will be unable to obtain. This may be so, but there is no sign of it either in the extracts from Gemany quoted and adopted by the adjudicator or in the adjudicator’s own findings.
[10] In our judgment the bare adoption, at least in these circumstances, of fact findings made in another case cannot supply the elements of case-specific fact-finding which were essential to a properly reasoned decision on the art 3 claim. Beyond this, the material set out or adopted by the adjudicator is not capable of sustaining either his finding that the treatment the appellant might face in Eritrea would amount to persecution, or that such persecution would be on the ground of his (mixed) ethnicity. The favourable asylum finding was therefore also insufficiently grounded.
[11] When, therefore, one turns to the remaining issue under art 8, there is an immediate question about the final element in the adjudicator’s finding on proportionality: ‘He would face a risk of ill-treatment and torture in Eritrea.' The full passage reads:
‘17. The appellant also puts his claim on the basis of art 8 of the convention. The approach taken by the European Court of Human Rights
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establishes that art 8 is to be analysed according to a step-by-step approach, asking first whether there is an existent private or family life, second whether there is an interference with that private or family life, third whether that interference pursues a legitimate aim, fourth whether it is in accordance with the law and finally whether it is proportionate.
18. The appellant has no family, as such, in the United Kingdom. He came here when he was 14. He has been cared for by social services agencies and by the Medical Foundation. I quote from the letter from Haringey Social Services, mentioned above:
“Despite his adversity, and the uncertainties of his immigration status over the past four years he has demonstrated resilience and remained committed to his education, which he believes will secure his future. He has settled well, in this country through forming new attachments to a number of people and communities over the past four years. [He] is a conscientious and committed young person. He has already demonstrated this through so much achievement over such a short period of time. He is currently attending college and hopes to go to university next year.”
19. He is a client of the Medical Foundation’s Child and Adolescent Psychotherapy Team and attends both individual and group psychotherapy. The latter is with a group of people of mixed Ethiopian/Eritrean parentage.
20. I would be prepared, if necessary, to say that a purposive interpretation should be given to the term “family life” and that the appellant’s attachments to people and communities in the United Kingdom amounts to family life. However, it is not necessary, as the appellant clearly has a developed and coherent private life in the United Kingdom, which would be seriously interfered with by his removal to Eritrea. That interference would pursue the legitimate aim of maintaining a fair and consistent immigration policy. It would, apart from my findings already set out, be lawful.
21. In considering whether it would be proportionate, I note that the respondent has not made any specific finding on this issue. I am therefore free to consider it without reference to an existing decision by the respondent. I note, also, the wording of art 8 of the convention, which does not use the word “proportionate”. It says: “There shall be no interference by a public authority with the exercise of this right except such as is in accordance with the law and is necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security, public safety or the economic well-being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.” The question of proportionality therefore amounts, to the question whether the interference with the appellant’s private life is necessary in a democratic society for one of the purposes mentioned.
22. On the one hand, there are the needs of a young man, now 19, who has been in the United Kingdom for over four years and who has established a new life in this country. He has attended school and college here and hopes to go to university. He has no family in Eritrea. He does not speak the language. He has no connection with Eritrea other then his mother’s ethnic origin. He has been traumatised by his past experiences. He would face risk of ill-treatment and torture in Eritrea. On the other side of the balance is the need for the respondent to maintain a fair immigration policy. I have to ask
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myself whether allowing the appellant to stay in the United Kingdom would give a message to others that they could behave in the same way and circumvent the immigration system. I consider this highly improbable.
23. I conclude that the interference with the appellant’s private life which would result from his removal to Eritrea is not necessary for any of the purposes mentioned.
24. I therefore consider that his removal to Eritrea would constitute a breach of the United Kingdom’s obligations under art 8 of the convention.’
[12] We agree with Mr Gill that Ms Collier’s attack on the finding that the appellant ‘does not speak the language’ goes nowhere. The Home Office was unrepresented at the hearing, and there is nothing to suggest that the evidence later admitted by the AIT about the languages spoken in Eritrea was before the adjudicator. The appellant’s first witness statement said that he spoke only Amharic and English. There is no reason to think the adjudicator mistook his case in relation to language or had any evidence to controvert it. He was entitled to take the appellant’s evidence on this point at face value.
[13] But the finding that the appellant, if returned to Eritrea, would face the risk of ill-treatment and torture cannot be so readily defended. Mr Gill accepts that torture was a finding too far; but so, in our judgment, was ill-treatment, given the want—which we have dealt with above—of a proper evidential base for it. Can the entire finding then be severed? Only, in our view, if we can be satisfied that even without it the adjudicator’s decision would have been the same. But it is impossible to be so satisfied. For reasons to which we are about to turn, the adjudicator is to be commended for adopting the legally correct approach to art 8, not treating exceptionality as a precondition but directing himself in accordance with the Strasbourg case law and examining in a structured manner the elements which determine proportionality. But by introducing into what was a labile balance a real risk of torture or ill-treatment unsupported by evidence or by properly made findings, he has made it impossible to know how he would have decided the issue in its absence. Ms Collier, by accepting that there must be a remission, accepts that the decision would not necessarily have gone against the appellant; but Mr Gill for his part has in our judgment to accept that it would not necessarily have gone in his favour.
ARTICLE 8
[14] The unwillingness of this court to accede to the proposed remission by consent was explained by Carnwath LJ in these terms ([2007] EWCA Civ 407):
‘[14] . . . The reason I took that view was that I was concerned that this case was probably one of a large number of cases in which the AIT understandably had used the language of “exceptionality” relying on the decision in Huang’s case in this court. It seemed to me that to send all those cases back for reconsideration, without some guidance as to what the new approach should be in practice, would not be very helpful.
[15] Furthermore, I was far from convinced that the test has in fact altered in a way that is likely to affect the great majority of cases. As has been seen in the passage I read in Laws LJ’s judgment, the exceptionality approach is not put forward as a separate test, but as the natural consequence of the ordinary principles of proportionality in the context of immigration law. As Sedley LJ said in Krasniqi v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] EWCA Civ 391 at [30], [2006] All ER (D) 120 (Apr) at [30]:
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“while the appraisal of proportionality is procedurally a matter for the immigration judge, substantively it must start from the position that the maintenance of lawful immigration control is ordinarily sufficient to make removal proportionate. From this it follows that there must be something truly exceptional to make an otherwise lawful removal disproportionate: it is now axiomatic that art 8 will be engaged only in a small minority of exceptional cases, disclosing ‘the most compelling humanitarian considerations’.”
He was referring there of course to Lord Bingham of Cornhill’s words in R (on the application of Razgar) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 27, [2004] 3 All ER 821, [2004] 2 AC 368 and to Baroness Hale of Richmond’s speech in the same case.
[16] Although it is now clear that “exceptionality” as such is not a distinct legal test, I doubt if there is much difference in practice from saying that the result of the correct approach to proportionality is that only a very small minority of cases will succeed. The implicit assumption must be that there has to be something unusual about the particular case to part from the ordinary principles of immigration control. In any event, before a case is sent back to the AIT, this court should have an opportunity to give some guidance on how if at all the approach should be revised.
[17] I have heard very helpful submissions from Mr Nicholson, for the applicant, and Mr Strachan, for the Secretary of State, both of whom I think would remain content for the case to go back in accordance with the consent order, but they both accept that it is a matter for this court. Also, I think, they accept that guidance would be helpful.
[18] Accordingly I propose, subject to my Lord’s views, to grant permission to Mr Nicholson on the additional grounds raised by his supplementary skeleton argument, and to direct that those along with the original grounds for which permission was granted be heard by the full court. It should be dealt with as soon as possible, and it should be dealt with by a court including at least two Lord Justices familiar with asylum cases. I will also direct that this judgment may be referred to in other cases, as an exception to the normal approach for judgments on leave applications.’
[15] While it would be open to us, even so, to remit the case without more to the AIT, Ms Collier has summarised for us in a supplementary note the already substantial body of appellate decisions handed down in the three months since their Lordships’ opinion in Huang’s case was delivered. It is clear from the submission she builds upon this material, and from Mr Gill’s response to it, that there is continuing controversy about how the AIT should now deal with art 8 claims. It seems to us in this situation that this court ought to set out, both for the purposes of the remitted hearing and for wider purposes, what it takes to be the applicable law.
[16] Section 6 of the 1998 Act makes it unlawful for a public authority, which includes both the Home Secretary and the AIT, to act in a way which is incompatible with a convention right. One group of convention rights, as defined by s 1, is contained in art 8 of the convention:
‘Right to respect for private and family life
1 Everyone has the right to respect for his private and family life, his home and his correspondence.
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2 There shall be no interference by a public authority with the exercise of this right except such as is in accordance with the law and is necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security, public safety or the economic well-being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’
[17] It is useful to have in mind, by way of contrast, the provisions of art 3:
‘Prohibition of torture
No one shall be subjected to torture or to inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.’
[18] In Razgar’s case Lord Bingham, giving the leading speech, turned from the related but distinct questions canvassed in the parallel case of R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26, [2004] 3 All ER 785, [2004] 2 AC 323 in relation to art 3 to the question: ‘Can the rights protected by art 8 be engaged by the foreseeable consequences for health and welfare of removal . . . where such removal does not violate art 3?' The House’s answer was that they could be. The problem which is now before us arises from the conditionality of the answer.
[19] Lord Bingham’s speech, which had the assent of Lord Steyn and Lord Carswell, and in large part too of Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe and Baroness Hale notwithstanding their dissent as to the outcome, proposed at [17] the following questions as those which were likely to have to be answered by an adjudicator on an art 8 appeal:
(1) Will the proposed removal be an interference by a public authority with the exercise of the applicant’s right to respect for his private or (as the case may be) family life?
(2) If so, will such interference have consequences of such gravity as potentially to engage the operation of art 8?
(3) If so, is such interference in accordance with the law?
(4) If so, is such interference necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security, public safety or the economic well-being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others?
(5) If so, is such interference proportionate to the legitimate public end sought to be achieved?
[20] Proposition (5) was elaborated by Lord Bingham as follows:
‘[20] The answering of question (5), where that question is reached, must always involve the striking of a fair balance between the rights of the individual and the interests of the community which is inherent in the whole of the convention. The severity and consequences of the interference will call for careful assessment at this stage. The Secretary of State must exercise his judgment in the first instance. On appeal the adjudicator must exercise his or her own judgment, taking account of any material which may not have been before the Secretary of State. A reviewing court must assess the judgment which would or might be made by an adjudicator on appeal. In Secretary of State for the Home Dept v Kacaj [2002] Imm AR 213 at 228 (para 25), the Immigration Appeal Tribunal (Collins J, Mr CMG Ockelton and Mr J Freeman) observed that—
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“although the [convention] rights may be engaged, legitimate immigration control will almost certainly mean that derogation from the rights will be proper and will not be disproportionate.”
In the present case, the Court of Appeal ([2003] Imm AR 529 at [26]) had no doubt that this overstated the position. I respectfully consider the element of overstatement to be small. Decisions taken pursuant to the lawful operation of immigration control will be proportionate in all save a small minority of exceptional cases, identifiable only on a case by case basis.’
[21] It was the final sentence of this passage which led the Court of Appeal in Huang’s case [2005] 3 All ER 435 at [38] per Laws LJ, to ask: ‘Where does the approach taken by their Lordships’ House in Razgar’s case leave the position?’ and to answer at [59]:
‘The true position in our judgment is that the 1998 Act and s 65(1) [of the Immigration and Asylum Act 1999] require the adjudicator to allow an appeal against removal or deportation brought on art 8 grounds if, but only if, he concludes that the case is so exceptional on its particular facts that the imperative of proportionality demands an outcome in the appellant’s favour notwithstanding that he cannot succeed under the rules.’
[22] While, therefore, exceptionality featured in Razgar’s case only as a probable consequence of the evaluation of proportionality under art 8(2), and while this court in Huang’s case sought to do no more than paraphrase Razgar’s case, Laws LJ’s formulation, and subsequent decisions of this court in cases such as Krasniqi v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] All ER (D) 120 (Apr), led decision makers to treat exceptionality as a threshold requirement. It became apparent, too, that some were linking this to Lord Bingham’s second proposition—that the interference with the art 8 right must have ‘consequences of such gravity as potentially to engage the operation of art 8’.
[23] The decision of the AIT in the present case affords a sufficient illustration of what has consequently been going wrong. They wrote:
‘29. The art 8 finding is unsafe for one or two reasons. The adjudicator used the wrong test by applying too low a hurdle, however that was expressed. It cannot be said, if he did look at art 8 in an appropriate manner, that there is anything about this appellant’s account at all to engage art 8. It has always been difficult to establish a private life which will engage art 8 and nothing about this young man’s private life in the United Kingdom does so. We are satisfied that it was perverse to find, that on the evidence before him, this is a truly exceptional case. There is nothing about the evidence recorded by the adjudicator that could possibly be described as truly exceptional. For those reasons we have found that there is an error of law with art 8 findings.’
[24] When Huang’s case reached their Lordships’ House, it was resolved in a single opinion delivered on behalf of the Appellate Committee by Lord Bingham. Their Lordships did not criticise this court’s characterisation of the key issue as revolving around proportionality and therefore lying under art 8(2). In para [19] they considered the proper approach to the question of proportionality, and then in para [20] said this:
‘In an art 8 case where this question is reached, the ultimate question for the appellate immigration authority is whether the refusal of leave to enter
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or remain, in circumstances where the life of the family cannot reasonably be expected to be enjoyed elsewhere, taking full account of all considerations weighing in favour of the refusal, prejudices the family life of the applicant in a manner sufficiently serious to amount to a breach of the fundamental right protected by art 8. If the answer to this question is affirmative, the refusal is unlawful and the authority must so decide. It is not necessary that the appellate immigration authority, directing itself along the lines indicated in this opinion, need ask in addition whether the case meets a test of exceptionality. The suggestion that it should is based on an observation of Lord Bingham in Razgar’s case (at [20]). He was there expressing an expectation, shared with the Immigration Appeal Tribunal, that the number of claimants not covered by the rules and supplementary directions but entitled to succeed under art 8 would be a very small minority. That is still his expectation. But he was not purporting to lay down a legal test.’
[25] The effect of their Lordships’ decision (and, if we may say so, the intended effect of this court’s decision) in Huang’s case has thus not been to introduce a new interpretation of art 8 but to clarify and reiterate a well understood one. While its practical effect is likely to be that removal is only exceptionally found to be disproportionate, it sets no formal test of exceptionality and raises no hurdles beyond those contained in the article itself.
[26] We turn to Lord Bingham’s second proposition in Razgar’s case, which he explained in this way at [18]:
‘Question (2) reflects the consistent case law of the Strasbourg court, holding that conduct must attain a minimum level of severity to engage the operation of the convention: see, for example Costello-Roberts v UK [1994] 1 FCR 65.’
[27] Costello-Roberts’s case concerned the use of corporal punishment by the headmaster of a private school on a small boy against his and his parents’ wishes. In dismissing his art 8 claim the court said (at 76 (para 36)):
‘Having regard . . . to the purpose and aim of the convention taken as a whole, and bearing in mind that the sending of a child to school necessarily involves some degree of interference with his or her private life, the court considers that the treatment complained of by the applicant did not entail adverse effects for his physical or moral integrity sufficient to bring it within the scope of the prohibition contained in Article 8.’
The decision, while clearly illustrating the principle for which Lord Bingham cites it, does not say or imply that the minimum level of severity required to bring a case within the article is a special or a high one. It is apparent from the passage we have cited that in Costello-Roberts’s case the surrender of a substantial measure of the child’s autonomy and the parents’ control to the school was a critical consideration: see the commentary in Clayton and Tomlinson The Law of Human Rights (2000) p 812 (para 12.86). Even then the court was divided by five to four as to whether the beating of ‘a lonely and insecure seven-year-old boy’ crossed the threshold, with the then President, Judge Ryssdal, and the future President, Judge Wildhaber, among the authors of a powerful dissent. Most tellingly, perhaps, the United Kingdom judge, Sir John Freeland, said (at 79) in an opinion concurring with the majority: ‘But it must be evident, if only from the division of opinion in the court, that the case is at or near the borderline.’
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[28] It follows, in our judgment, that while an interference with private or family life must be real if it is to engage art 8(1), the threshold of engagement (the ‘minimum level’) is not a specially high one. Once the article is engaged, the focus moves, as Lord Bingham’s remaining questions indicate, to the process of justification under art 8(2). It is this which, in all cases which engage art 8(1), will determine whether there has been a breach of the article.
[29] Of the cases which have been decided in this court since their Lordships’ decision in Huang’s case, the great majority have been remitted by consent to the AIT because a test of exceptionality has been mistakenly adopted by that tribunal. But in MT (Zimbabwe) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 455, [2007] All ER (D) 204 (Apr), rather than remit the case, this court by consent reconsidered the art 8 decision which had been wrongly approached by the AIT. The judgment of Buxton LJ, Waller and Lloyd LJJ concurring, illustrates the approach to be taken in the light of Huang’s case:
‘[22] . . . [H]owever the matter is expressed there is no doubt that the interests of family life will not usually prevail over the interests of immigration control. The difficulty is in expressing that general understanding in any sort of guiding rule or principle. To speak simply of “exceptional” or “rare” cases does nothing to explain what principle should be applied in identifying such cases; and that, it seems to me with respect, is what the House of Lords warned of in Huang’s case.’
[30] Buxton LJ went on (at [23]) to adopt the following passage from the judgment of Carnwath LJ in Mukarkar v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] EWCA Civ 1045 at [11], [2006] All ER (D) 367 (Jul) at [11]:
‘ . . . In normal circumstances interference with family life would be justified by the requirements of immigration control. However, it is recognised that a different approach may be justified in “a small minority of exceptional cases, identifiable only on a case by case basis” (per Lord Bingham, Razgar’s case, para [20]). The House of Lords has declined to lay down a more precise legal test. Accordingly, whether a particular case falls within that limited category is a question of judgment for the tribunal of fact, and normally raises no issue of law.’
[31] We respectfully adopt and follow this reasoning. But because it did not prevent counsel for the Home Secretary in MT (Zimbabwe)’s case or in the instant case from reverting to a test of exceptionality as a surrogate for the art 8 decision, we think it necessary to reiterate that there is no such legal test. The fact that in the great majority of cases the demands of immigration control are likely to make removal proportionate and so compatible with art 8 is a consequence, not a precondition, of the statutory exercise. No doubt in this sense successful art 8 claims will be the exception rather than the rule; but to treat exceptionality as the yardstick of success is to confuse effect with cause.
[32] In KR (Iraq) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 514, [2007] All ER (D) 426 (May) this court (Auld, Sedley and Smith LJJ) spelled this out a little further. Auld LJ said:
‘[39] In Huang’s case the Appellate Committee have made clear that the notion is not a threshold or criterion for the engagement of art 8(1) in asylum or extradition cases; it is an “expectation” that it will be exceptional for recourse to art 8, read as a whole, to overcome the otherwise lawful removal
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of a claimant from the jurisdiction. It is plain from the Committee’s reasoning that such expectation turns on the relative weight of art 8(1) interference against that of relevant factors that go to justification under art 8(2), including, in particular, the public interest in maintaining an effective system of immigration control . . .
[41] Such an approach, and [the] explanation of it, is, with respect, entirely logical, given the structure of art 8 in, and the relationship of, its two parts. First, art 8(1) describes, albeit loosely, the right protected, “the right to respect for . . . private and family life . . .” Why the threshold for interference with such a sensitive right should rise to exceptional heights simply because it is engendered by a threat of removal of the claimant from the jurisdiction as distinct from a less draconian interference—but interference nonetheless—solely within the jurisdiction, it is hard to see. On any set of facts art 8 is engaged or it is not.
[42] Exceptionality, to the extent that it survives as an expectation, comes in at the art 8(2) stage in drawing the balance between, on the one hand the severity in the nature and consequences of the facts constituting the art 8(1) interference, and on the other the importance in the circumstances of the countervailing art 8(2) factors present going to justification. If the interference so exceeds the art 8(1) threshold as, say, to justify the description “flagrant and fundamental breach”, it is more likely—depending, of course, always on the circumstances—to prevail over the art 8(2) justification in play.’
Sedley LJ said:
‘[6] . . . I agree nevertheless with Auld LJ that the essential change in our approach following Huang’s case will be that, rather than take the threshold of entry into art 8(1) to be some exceptionally grave interference with private or family life, tribunals and courts will take the language of the article at face value and, wherever an interference of the kind the article envisages is established, consider whether it is justified under art 8(2). In the great majority of cases it will be, because immigration controls are established by law and their operation ordinarily meets the criteria of proportionality which, in the Strasbourg jurisprudence, measure what is necessary in a democratic society for such prescribed purposes as the economic well being of the country. While therefore there is no need to apply a formal test of exceptionality, it will be only rarely in practice that an otherwise lawful removal which disrupts family or private life cannot be shown to be compliant with art 8.’
[33] In the light of what we have said, reliance ought not to be placed by practitioners on the reasoning in PO (Nigeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 438, a reportable decision of this court refusing permission to appeal following their Lordships’ decision in Huang’s case on the ground that there was ‘nothing so exceptional about the facts of [the] case’ as to make success possible.
[34] It is also necessary to say something about proportionality. In London Regional Transport v Mayor of London [2001] EWCA Civ 1491 at [57], [2003] EMLR 88 at [57], Sedley LJ said:
‘Proportionality is not a word found in the text of the Convention: it is the tool . . . which the Court has adopted (from 19th-century German
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jurisprudence) for deciding a variety of Convention issues including, for the purposes of the qualifications to Arts 8 to 11, what is and is not necessary in a democratic society. It replaces an elastic concept with which political scientists are more at home than lawyers with a structured inquiry: Does the measure meet a recognised and pressing social need? Does it negate the primary right or restrict it more than is necessary? Are the reasons given for it logical? These tests of what is acceptable by way of restriction of basic rights in a democratic society reappear, with variations of phrasing and emphasis, in the jurisprudence of (among others) the Privy Council, the Constitutional Court of South Africa, the Supreme Court of Zimbabwe and the Supreme Court of Canada in its Charter jurisdiction (see de Freitas v Ministry of Agriculture [1999] 1 A.C. 69 at 80 ([1998] 3 WLR 675 at 684), PC), the courts of the Republic of Ireland (see Quinn’s Supermarket v Attorney-General [1972] I.R. 1) and the Court of Justice of the European Communities (see Art. 3b of the Treaty on European Union; (Union Royale Belge des Sociétés de Football Association ASBL v Bosman, Royal Club Liègois SA v Bosman, Union des Associations Européens de Football v Bosman Case C425/93 [1996] All ER (EC) 97, [1995] ECR I-4921 (para 110)).’
[35] In Huang’s case the House of Lords made reference to this wide body of jurisprudence, citing (from de Freitas’s case [1999] 1 AC 69 at 80, [1998] 3 WLR 675 at 684) the following series of questions as material to the determination of proportionality:
‘whether: (i) the legislative objective is sufficiently important to justify limiting a fundamental right; (ii) the measures designed to meet the legislative objective are rationally connected to it; and (iii) the means used to impair the right are no more than is necessary to accomplish the objective.’
And adding (citing R v Oakes [1986] 1 SCR 103) the need to balance the interests of society with those of individuals and groups (see also Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439 at 468 (para 89); Konstatinov v Netherlands [2007] ECHR 16351/03).
[36] The jurisprudence of the Strasbourg court, which is parallel but not cognate with the Commonwealth jurisprudence, has characterised ‘necessary’ in arts 8–11 as corresponding to a pressing social need: Handyside v UK (1976) 1 EHRR 737 at 753 (para 48). Starmer European Human Rights Law (1999) p 171 (para 4.42), singles out, among the factors adopted in the court’s case law on whether the state’s response to such a need is proportionate, whether ‘relevant and sufficient’ reasons have been advanced in support of the measure in question, whether there is a less restrictive alternative, and whether the measure destroys the very essence of the convention right in question.
[37] What matters is not that courts and tribunals should adopt a set formula for determining proportionality, but that they should have proper and visible regard to relevant principles in making a structured decision about it case by case. It is not sufficient, as still happens, for the tribunal simply to characterise something as proportionate or disproportionate: to do so may well be a failure of reasoning amounting to an error of law. But there will be many cases in which it can properly be said by an appellate tribunal that on no view of the facts could removal be disproportionate. In such cases (of which PO (Nigeria)’s case is an instance), even if the AIT has applied the wrong test, permission to appeal to this court is unlikely to be granted.
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THIS CASE
[38] In the present case the adjudicator, in our judgment, approached art 8 in a way which can now be seen to have been entirely correct: see [11], above. This is to be contrasted with the decision of the AIT to the contrary:
‘65. Mr Nicholson then turned to the appellant’s claim under art 8 of the convention. He submitted that para [31] of the Court of Appeal in the Krasniqi’s case contained a definition of exceptionality which included the appellant’s circumstances. He was credible. He had been ill-treated as a child by the Ethiopian authorities, his mother had been taken from him and if he was sent to Eritrea he would be going somewhere he had never been. These factors made the appellant’s case exceptional and the appeal should be allowed . . .
76. If the appellant were removed from the United Kingdom, the interference with his private and family life would be pursuant to a legitimate objective, namely the maintenance of proper immigration control. The issue is whether removal is proportionate to that aim. We have dealt with the submissions made for him based on the Court of Appeal judgment in Krasniqi’s case. We note the comments of Arden LJ at [35](e) that:
“to establish a valid claim that his . . . rights under art 8 would be violated by removal, A has to show that they are prevented from establishing a family life in his or her own country or . . .”
The appellant is single and is physically fit. His mental condition is as already described. It would not be disproportionate to the need to maintain effective immigration control to remove the appellant from the United Kingdom. We find that he would be able to establish a private family life in Eritrea, if admitted by the authorities, or in Ethiopia. No other articles of the convention are claimed to be engaged in grounds of appeal.’
[39] In part this somewhat perfunctory approach is explicable by the fact that counsel and the tribunal had both had to address the issues in the light of what was then taken to be the law, with the result that exceptionality was being treated as a surrogate for art 8 itself. The AIT’s consideration of proportionality lacks the structured consideration demonstrated in the adjudicator’s determination. But that is not what matters here, for we are not choosing between them. Our only concern is whether the adjudicator made a lawful decision.
[40] The private life established in this country by a lone 14-year-old whose asylum claim is not processed for four years, who has no known family in Eritrea and cannot speak the language, and who has acquired an education, psychological support and a social circle here, not only brings him very plainly within art 8(1) but raises an obvious question about the necessity and proportionality of removing him notwithstanding the legality and proper objects of immigration control. For the reasons given earlier in this judgment, however, we consider that the adjudicator’s assessment of the proportionality of removal (leaving aside for the moment the question: removal to where?) was vitiated by the introduction of a potentially influential element unsupported by properly made findings of fact. To this extent the AIT was right to find an error of law in the adjudicator’s determination of proportionality, but it is conceded that their own substituted decision was vitiated by a larger, and at the time widespread, error of law.
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[41] The appeal must accordingly go back to the AIT to determine the art 8 claim according to law.
BURDEN OF PROOF
[42] Mr Gill has asked us in this event to determine whether the AIT has inverted the burden of proof in relation to the treatment of returnees by the Eritrean authorities by following its decision in KA (draft-related risk categories updated) (Eritrea) CG [2005] UKIAT 00165. This issue has been only sketchily argued before us, and since the matter is to be redetermined we think it better that it be considered along with the other issues by the AIT. The relationship between the comprehensive appraisal of the applicant’s past, present and prospective situation called for in Karanakaran v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2000] 3 All ER 449 and the specificity of risks relevant to refugee and humanitarian protection is a difficult one requiring a certain amount of intellectual rigour. A probability that x will not happen does not logically exclude a risk that it will; but a point may come at which the probability that it will not happen is so high as to make the risk unreal. Beyond this, too much depends on the facts which are found to make any prior ruling useful.
WHY ERITREA?
[43] There remains the mystery of why the Home Office proposes to send the appellant, an Ethiopian, to Eritrea, where he has never lived and when there is nothing to indicate that Eritrea will accept him. Counsel for the Home Secretary had no instructions about this and undertook at the conclusion of the hearing to find out and inform the court. A week later the Treasury Solicitor wrote to say that the Secretary of State ‘is currently looking into this and will provide an answer to the Court as soon as is possible’. By a second letter, which helpfully enclosed the Home Office’s operational guidance notes on Eritrea, the court was told:
‘Regrettably, there is no information on the Appellant’s Home Office file to indicate why Eritrea was chosen as the country of removal or to indicate how the Operational Guidance Notes were applied to the facts of the Appellant’s case.’
While the operational guidance notes give some clues (in section 3.9) as to how Ethiopians of Eritrean origin may be dealt with, we limit ourselves to noting that tribunals at every stage of the case have asked why it is proposed to remove this young man to Eritrea, and that the continuing failure of the Home Office to give an intelligible reason raises a strong suspicion that there is none.
[44] In the circumstances, it may be that the order of this court for remission to the AIT will be overtaken by a fresh decision in the Home Office.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Raglan Housing Association Ltd v Southampton City Council and another
[2008] 2 All ER 44
[2007] EWCA Civ 785
Categories: ENVIRONMENTAL: HOUSING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR ANDREW MORRITT C, LLOYD AND TOULSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 28 JUNE, 30 JULY 2007
Water and watercourses – Flow of water – Natural watercourse – Sewer – Watercourse piped, covered and channelled – Increased flow of surface water into watercourse – Whether watercourse becoming a sewer.
The claimant owned property along whose southern boundary ran part of a channel through which water flowed, passing through a suburb of Southampton and eventually flowing into the River Itchen. It had once been a natural stream. For much of its length it was covered over, and the whole bed of the stream was lined with concrete. The part running along the boundary of the claimant’s property (the culvert) was one of the open stretches. The claimant contended that occasions of flooding had occurred in 1999 and it brought proceedings against the first defendant local authority and the second defendant sewerage undertaker seeking declarations as to the ownership of the culvert and responsibility for its maintenance. A preliminary issue was ordered to be tried to determine whether the culvert was a sewer and whether the second defendant had statutory responsibility to maintain it. The judge posed the question to be asked as ‘whether the character of the natural stream has become a sewer in the ordinary, non-statutory sense of the word’ and as ‘whether there has been so substantial a change in the character of the channel as to transform it into a sewer’. He rejected evidence as to a continued flow of ground water on the basis that the second defendant had not proved that the continued flow of clear water in dry weather was attributable to ground water. The factors he regarded as relevant included a complete change in the structure of the channel, a change in the route of the channel, a change in the nature of the flow, the fact that the channel was used for the drainage of buildings and yards, the fact that many tributary conduits were themselves sewers, the capacity of the channel and the occasional presence of foul sewage in the channel. He decided that the culvert had become a sewer, but not a public sewer. The second defendant appealed.
Held – (Toulson LJ dissenting) The culvert was still a watercourse, not having become a sewer. The judge had erred in his reasoning in that he ought not to have regarded it as being for the second defendant to prove that the flow still included natural ground water and he ought not to have taken into account the discharge of foul sewage as he had not been shown the relevant consent or statutory provisions. As there had been no evidence on whether the flow still included natural ground water the natural assumption should be that it still did. The fact that the course of the stream now lay over or through concrete culverts or pipes was not a matter which, by itself, could have any relevance to the decision and the change in the route of the channel was not in itself relevant especially since all the significant changes were downstream from the culvert. It was the status of the culvert in the context of the rest of the channel which had
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to be considered, not the status of the channel as a whole. Nothing had happened to change the status of the culvert in terms of works done under statutory authority. The sewerage undertaker had done nothing to the culvert which could affect its status. The only relevant change that had occurred was the addition of a great deal more surface water to the flow along the culvert; however something more than an increased discharge of surface water was needed to change the status of a stream to that of a sewer. Accordingly, the status of the stream as it flowed through the culvert as a watercourse had not changed, however much its appearance might have changed in that part, and whatever changes there might have been to its character and even its status elsewhere in the channel both upstream and downstream. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see [29], [35], [38]–[42], [49]–[54], [81], [83], [87]–[89], below).
British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565 applied.
Notes
For meanings of ‘sewer’, ‘drain’, etc, see 38 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 613.
Cases referred to in judgments
A-G v Lewes Corp [1911] 2 Ch 495.
British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565, CA.
Falconar v South Shields Corp (1895) 11 TLR 223.
Glasgow, Yoker & Clydebank Railway Company v MacIndoe (1896) 24 R 160, Ct of Sess.
Legge (George) & Son Ltd v Wenlock Corp [1938] 1 All ER 37, [1938] AC 204, HL.
Shepherd v Croft [1911] 1 Ch 521.
United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC [2001] EWCA Civ 1284, [2001] All ER (D) 477 (Jul).
Appeal
The claimant, Raglan Housing Association Ltd, brought proceedings against Southampton City Council (the first defendant) and Southern Water Services Ltd (the second defendant) seeking declarations both as to the ownership of a section of a channel (the culvert) running along the southern boundary of the claimant’s property at 60–66 Cobbett Road, Bitterne and as to responsibility for its maintenance. District Judge Ainsworth directed the trial of a preliminary issue as to whether the culvert was a sewer and whether the second defendant had statutory responsibility to maintain it. On 25 May 2006 Judge Iain Hughes QC sitting in the Southampton County Court decided that the culvert was a surface water sewer. The second defendant appealed with permission of Sir Andrew Morritt C. The facts are set out in the judgment of Lloyd LJ.
Clifford Darton (instructed by Kevin Hall, Worthing) for the second defendant.
Graham Chapman (instructed by Jacobs & Reeves) for the claimant.
Jeremy Burns (instructed by Mark Heath, Southampton) for the first defendant.
Judgment was reserved.
30 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
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LLOYD LJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1] The Bitterne Stream was once a natural stream running westwards from Humm Hole to the River Itchen. What now exists, from the same starting point, is a channel through which water flows, passing through Bitterne, effectively a suburb of Southampton, and eventually flowing out into the Itchen. For much of its length it is covered over, and the whole bed of the stream is lined with concrete. Part of one of the open stretches runs along the southern boundary of the claimant’s property at 60–64 Cobbett Road, the present buildings on which were constructed in 1998. This area is prone to flooding. The claimant contends that several occasions of flooding occurred in 1999. In these proceedings the claimant seeks to establish that one or other of the defendants is responsible for the maintenance of the channel, and responsible for making good any damage caused by failure to maintain it properly.
[2] The claimant contends that the damage to its property caused by the flooding gives rise to a claim in nuisance against the party responsible for the section of the channel which is adjacent to its property. Given that both defendants deny such responsibility, the claimant sought declarations as to both the ownership of the relevant section of the channel and responsibility for its maintenance. District Judge Ainsworth directed that a preliminary issue be determined as to whether ‘the culvert’ is a sewer and whether the second defendant, as sewerage undertaker, has statutory responsibility to maintain it. In this context the culvert means the section of the channel adjacent to the claimant’s property. I will describe it more precisely later in this judgment.
[3] Judge Iain Hughes QC heard the preliminary issue, with evidence from four witnesses, over three days, and made a site visit on a fourth. He handed judgment down on 14 March 2006, and on 25 May 2006 he heard submissions as to the order to be made. His order, made on that date, answered the preliminary issue by saying that the culvert was a surface water sewer, but not a public sewer. He refused permission to appeal to both the first and the second defendants. Only the second defendant pursued the question of permission to appeal, which was refused on paper by Jonathan Parker LJ, but granted on oral renewal by the Sir Andrew Morritt C.
[4] The issue before us is whether the judge was right to hold that the relevant part of what was once a natural watercourse (the Bitterne Stream) has become a sewer. It appears to be accepted that other parts of it have become a surface water sewer, but that is not accepted as true of the relevant part.
[5] Debate on this subject involves the use of terminology which may be open to confusion. A flow of water, or the channel along which it flows, may be a watercourse or a sewer, but according to the correct use of legal language it cannot be both. Therefore, to use the word watercourse risks begging the question, even if it might be a natural word to use as a description of a particular feature, according to the ordinary use of language. There may also be confusion between the physical structure along which the water flows, on the one hand, and the flow of water itself, on the other: the container and the contents. That might not matter but for the argument for the appellant that the only thing which is relevant is the character of the flow, and that the physical characteristics of what it flows through or along is irrelevant.
[6] The judge used two phrases: ‘the channel’ referred to the entire course of what used to be the Bitterne Stream from Humm Hole to the Itchen, and ‘the
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culvert’ meant that part of the channel which is immediately adjacent to the claimant’s property. Part of this stretch is open and part, at the western end, is covered. I will use the same phrases, and will seek to make it clear, if it is necessary to make the distinction, whether I am referring to the flow of liquid along the relevant stretch or to the physical structure.
THE FACTS
[7] The judge found that the channel is what used to be the Bitterne Stream, originally a natural watercourse. I will summarise what the judge said about its present course.
(i) At the eastern end, at Humm Hole it is still partly open. According to the Public Sewer Map (PSM), which the judge saw, and which was the only map shown to us, it then passes through a covered section going westwards, part of which is along Beech Avenue. Part of this stretch was piped (by the Borough of Southampton) in order to assist in the draining of an area which was a boggy marsh, and which is now occupied by Beechwood Junior School.
(ii) From there, it emerges into an open section. At this point the channel is joined by another, both of them issuing into the single channel with which this appeal is concerned. The open section continues as far as Midanbury Lane, it passes under that road, and then it is again open for a stretch which includes the culvert, just to the south of the claimant’s property, before becoming covered again just before it goes under Cobbett Road, which marks the western end of the claimant’s property. The judge noted that the covered stretch adjacent to the claimant’s property was shown as covered over on the 1949 Ordnance Survey map, and he inferred that this was done to allow for the construction of what became 62–64 Cobbett Road, properties which were eventually demolished and replaced by the claimant’s property (see para 52 of the judgment).
(iii) From that point on, the channel remains covered for some distance, passing under what is now a gyratory road system involving Cobbett Road and Buller Road. The construction of the gyratory system, in the early 1960s, seems to have involved changes to the course of the channel, so that it now has several right-angle bends. The judge held that the major works to the channel in the area of the gyratory system were undertaken by the borough in its capacity as the statutory sewerage undertaker, in order to deal with surface water (see para 67).
(iv) West of the gyratory system, the channel goes under Bitterne Road West and under the railway lines just south of Bitterne Station. Part of the work involved in this area was the subject of an agreement dated 27 December 1951 between the Borough of Southampton and the British Transport Commission, which refers to ‘a 45 inches internal diameter Surface Water Sewer’ to be constructed under the commission’s land in a given position. The borough, predecessor in title of the city council, undertook to maintain and repair the sewer.
(v) Further west from the railway, the channel passes in a covered section as far as just north of Bitterne Manor School. There it becomes open again, and remains open, apart from passing under Quayside Road, until it reaches the Itchen.
[8] The stretch of the channel which lies east of the point at which it emerges into an open section near Beech Avenue is shown on the PSM as being a public sewer. The stretch to the west of that point used to be so shown, but was removed from the PSM by the second defendant in 2001.
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[9] The judge recounted the changes in the course of the channel which appear from successive Ordnance Survey maps. In 1878 the whole channel was shown as a natural stream, the only interference with which was the construction, by then, of a single track railway. In the first part of the twentieth century the channel was piped in part to the west of the culvert, and also to the east, near Beech Avenue. In the 1960s or thereabouts the gyratory system was put in, and more piping was done. By the 1949 edition, the culvert is shown sinking in order to allow for the construction of 62–64 Cobbett Road, later demolished. At that stage the whole culvert was shown as within the curtilage of 64 Cobbett Road, whereas now it is in the property to the south, from which the judge inferred that the line of the culvert had been moved a little to the south.
[10] The judge said that the 1949 edition was the first which showed the culvert, and (at para 116) that there was no evidence as to who had built the culvert (meaning, here, the container—the concrete lining along which the water flows). He was satisfied that parts of the channel to the east and to the west had been constructed by the city council or its municipal predecessor, which was at the time responsible both for foul and for surface water sewers, but he could make no finding as to who had constructed this part. He accepted that there was no record that the city council had done so (see para 25).
[11] As for the flow along the channel, he found that in 1878 it was still a natural stream. At that stage therefore it carried both natural ground water and surface water. According to the evidence there is still a continuous clear water flow in dry weather. The judge said that he had no evidence as to the source of this water flow, though he referred to one witness’s statement that the constant base flow of clear water in dry weather showed that ground water was entering the conduit at many points and that it was acting as land drainage for the catchment area. However, the judge said that this water flow had not been tested to see whether it was natural ground water, leaks from water supply pipes, discharges from domestic or commercial premises, run-off drainage, or a combination of these. The culvert is in a natural valley, which will naturally receive surface drainage from both north and south.
[12] In addition there are some points in the channel upstream of the culvert at which there is a CSO. (It is perhaps symptomatic of the difficulties in the case that the parties do not agree whether this acronym stands for combined sewage overflow or consented storm overflow. The answer might have been clear if the documents had been forthcoming.) These are locations at which the regulator (the Environment Agency) has given permission for a foul sewer to overflow into ‘controlled waters’ at times of flash flood (see s 88 of the Water Resources Act 1991). As the judge said, as a result, at times of high rainfall, foul sewage will flow through the channel, including the culvert, together with the surface water. These CSOs are known to exist, because they are shown on the PSM, but their terms are not known, as the relevant documents were not in evidence. Mr Darton submitted that they show that the channel downstream is a watercourse, because a surface water sewer is not within the definition of ‘controlled waters’. I agree with the judge that, in the absence of sight of the consents, this is not a point which can be relied on (see para 83).
THE LAW
[13] Rights and obligations in respect of sewers, and in particular public sewers, have been regulated by statute for a very long time. The Public Health Act 1936 is one of the significant stages in the evolution of statutory regulation in
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this area. More recently the legislation relating to the privatisation of the water industry (the Water Act 1989 and subsequent Acts, including the Water Industry Act 1991 and the Water Resources Act 1991) has affected the position. However, we were referred to few statutory provisions. Instead, as before the judge, counsel’s submissions focused on a number of decided cases.
[14] In George Legge & Son Ltd v Wenlock Corp [1938] 1 All ER 37, [1938] AC 204 the House of Lords held that the discharge of sewage into a natural watercourse since 1876 could not convert the stream into a sewer, because the discharge of sewage was unlawful under the Rivers Pollution Prevention Act 1876. Lord MacMillan pointed out ([1938] 1 All ER 37 at 40, [1938] AC 204 at 213) that a channel may be a sewer though it may carry no sewage and its contents consist solely of innocuous surface drainage. Since any natural stream or watercourse which is still open will almost always contain some surface water, at any rate in or after wet weather, the fact that a flow of water does contain such surface water cannot show that it is a sewer, and cannot transform what was once a watercourse into a sewer.
[15] In Shepherd v Croft [1911] 1 Ch 521 at 526–527, Parker J said that ‘the mere fact that a natural watercourse is culverted or piped by the several owners of the lands which are intersected by it does not make it a drain or sewer so as to vest it in the local authority’, under the Public Health Act 1875. Shortly afterwards, in A-G v Lewes Corp [1911] 2 Ch 495, Swinfen Eady J had to consider a converse case, where crude sewage was discharged by the local authority into an intermittent stream, partly tidal. He said (at 508):
‘The question then arises, is the culvert a sewer? The plaintiffs contend it is. The defendants dispute it. The mere pollution of a natural stream or watercourse by turning sewage into it does not convert it into a sewer. On the other hand, if the watercourse has become substantially a sewer, the fact that at certain periods of the year clean water flows into it will not in my opinion prevent it from being a sewer. The question is one of fact and degree in each case. See [Falconar v South Shields Corp (1895) 11 TLR 223]. In that case Lindley L.J. pointed out that the stream had changed its character completely and had become a sewer in the ordinary sense of the word, i.e., a channel for the reception and carrying away of sewage. It was a dirty, filthy sewer.’
[16] The principal modern case on the point is the decision of the Court of Appeal in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565. Oliver LJ gave the judgment of the court. The question was whether a culvert under a railway carried a sewer or a watercourse. It appeared that the construction of the railway had interrupted three ancient natural channels or watercourses which drained a large catchment area, and the culvert was constructed in order to carry the water from the ancient watercourses away despite the obstacle created by the railway embankment. If it was a sewer the board could seek to have it vested in the local authority under s 17 of the Public Health Act 1936, but this did not apply if it was not a sewer but a watercourse. Oliver LJ said (at 572):
‘Granted that in certain circumstances that which started life as a watercourse can become a sewer, that is not easily established where all that has happened is that water, whether surface water or foul water, has been made to flow through an outfall into an existing natural stream. One has to
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ask whether the circumstances are such that the stream has substantially lost its original character and taken on the character of a sewer and that does not occur simply because the stream is made to carry a quantity of sewage.’
[17] Later (at 573), he went on:
‘What is clear is that something very much more than the mere discharge of sewage into a stream (and, a fortiori, the mere discharge of pure surface water) is required before its status is changed to that of a sewer (see, for instance, [Glasgow, Yoker & Clydebank Railway Company v MacIndoe (1896) 24 R 160]). Thus, for instance, if circumstances are such that what was originally an agricultural stream comes to carry sewage in such substantial quantities that its character is completely changed (as occurred in [Falconar v South Shields Corp (1895) 11 TLR 223]) it may no doubt become a sewer within the ordinary meaning of the word.’
[18] He then cited a passage from the speech of Lord Maugham in the George Legge & Son case and went on to say this (at 574–575):
‘In the instant case there has been nothing approaching the situation envisaged by Lord Maugham in the passage I have read. All that has happened is that outfalls have been constructed channelling the surface drainage of the built-up area into the existing streams so as to increase to some extent the flow of surface water which they carry away; and it is, Mr Nugee submits, quite impossible to say that these streams have become, as a result of such increased flow of surface water, “sewers” within the ordinary meaning of the word.
We find Mr Nugee’s argument persuasive. On the facts as found or agreed at the trial it is, in our judgment, clear that there has been no alteration in the essential character of the three watercourses and the culvert since 1840 and the mere fact that the surface drainage of the built-up area has been collected and diverted into them through a number of outfalls so as to produce a significant increase in the volume of water carried off, cannot possibly constitute them, either individually or collectively, sewers or a sewer within the ordinary meaning of that term.’
In that case no question arose as to works done by a statutory authority which might have been done in the capacity of a sewerage undertaker, and might therefore have had a bearing on the status of the resulting works. All the work had been done by the railway company under its own statutory powers.
[19] We were shown a more recent decision of the Court of Appeal where such a question did arise, United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC [2001] EWCA Civ 1284, [2001] All ER (D) 477 (Jul). That case concerned part of Maghull Brook, which passed under the densely populated centre of Maghull, in Merseyside, in an enclosed culvert constructed in about 1958. The question was whether this part had become a sewer before 1 April 1974, because of the culverting work. The question arose indirectly. The British Transport Commission was successor to the Leeds and Liverpool Canal Company. The Leeds and Liverpool canal passed over this part of the Maghull Brook, by way of an arch or tunnel constructed under statutory authority, which the commission was bound under the same statute to maintain. West Lancashire Rural District Council (the RDC) was, before 1974, the relevant local authority for the area, and was also the sewerage authority for the area under Pt II of the 1936 Act. In 1961
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the commission and the RDC entered into a deed under which each of them accepted responsibility for half the cost of repairing maintaining and renewing the arch and channel under the canal. In 1974 Sefton Metropolitan Borough Council became the relevant local authority but North West Water Authority became the sewerage undertaker. The question was which of these two authorities (or rather its successor in the case of the sewerage undertaker, namely United Utilities Water Ltd) was responsible for the liabilities of the RDC under the 1961 deed. This turned on the question in which capacity the RDC had acted when it entered into the deed. In turn this depended on the capacity in which the RDC had done the work of culverting in 1958. Had it been done under Pt II of the 1936 Act, which applies to local authorities’ functions and duties in respect of sewerage, or was it under Pt XI of the Act, which set out a number of miscellaneous powers of local authorities? The trial judge had held that the relevant stretch of the Maghull Brook had always been a watercourse, and had not changed its character as such. Sefton appealed and argued, among other grounds, that the judge was wrong not to hold that the character of this part of the Maghull Brook had changed to a sewer before 1 April 1974, but this argument was not pursued on appeal. The appeal focused instead on the evidence as to the basis on which the culverting work had been undertaken in 1958. Robert Walker LJ said that the references in the minutes were not all one way, but that overall he was satisfied that the work had been undertaken under Pt XI of the 1936 Act, under general local authority powers, and not under Pt II, under powers conferred on a local authority in respect of sewerage. Given the different focus of the arguments in that case, on the fact that the culverting work was done by a particular authority which had two capacities, and on finding out in which capacity it had acted, it is not surprising that attention was given not to the flow along the relevant channel but to the construction work undertaken, and to the basis on which it was undertaken. Robert Walker LJ referred to the British Railways Board case, which had been cited to the judge, though not to the Court of Appeal because of the abandonment of the ground of appeal to which it was relevant. It does not seem to me that United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC adds to or qualifies what was said in the British Railways Board case, save to demonstrate that construction work done in relation to a channel may make a difference, depending on who did it and in what capacity.
[20] It seems to have been common ground that the Maghull Brook was still a natural watercourse both upstream of the culvert, in a small undeveloped area east of Maghull, and also downstream towards its junction with the River Alt. This fact seems not to have been regarded as being incompatible in itself with an intermediate part of the brook having become a sewer, by virtue of works done under a particular statutory authority, but since the decision was that the work had been done by the RDC under general powers, not under sewerage powers, the point did not arise for decision as to whether it is legally possible to have a flow which is a watercourse for part of its length and a sewer for another part, with all or part of the watercourse downstream from the sewer.
THE JUDGE’S DECISION
[21] Judge Hughes decided that the culvert had become a sewer, but not a public sewer. He posed the question ‘whether the character of the natural stream has changed to such an extent that the channel has become a sewer in the ordinary, non statutory sense of the word’: see para 41, based on the British Railways Board case. Later (at para 46), he formulated the test as ‘whether there
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has been so substantial a change in the character of the channel as to transform it into a sewer’, as a question of fact and degree in every case in the light of the guidance given by the British Railways Board case, and said that it was not an easy test to satisfy.
[22] The judge then reviewed the facts, and came to consider their effect, starting with the evidence as to a continued flow of ground water. He rejected this, on the basis that Southern Water Services Ltd (Southern Water) had not proved that the continued flow of clear water in dry weather (which he accepted there was) was attributable to ground water (see paras 88–90).
[23] The factors which he did regard as relevant were these. First, the complete change in the structure of the channel; secondly the change in the route of the channel; thirdly the change in the nature of the flow; fourthly the fact that the channel is used for the drainage of buildings and yards appurtenant to buildings; fifthly the fact that many tributary conduits are themselves sewers properly so called; sixthly the description given to the channel in documents from 1951 onwards; next the capacity of the channel, and last the occasional presence of foul sewage in the channel.
[24] He went on to consider the second question, whether the sewer was a public sewer. Although there is no appeal against his decision that it was not a public sewer, it is pertinent to note what he said on this point. Under s 219(1) of the Water Industry Act 1991 it was a public sewer only if it was a sewer vested in a sewerage undertaker in its capacity as such, whether vested in that undertaker pursuant to a scheme under provisions of the 1989 Act or the 1991 Act (which provided for the transfer of functions, assets and liabilities in relation to privatisation of the water industry) or under s 179 of the 1991 Act (which it was not) ‘or otherwise’. The judge said that, to be so vested, it would have to have been a public sewer at the date of the transfer of the property rights and liabilities of the Southern Water Authority, the former sewerage undertaker, to the second defendant as part of the privatisation process under the 1989 Act. In order to qualify in that way, he said that it had to come within statutory requirements of s 20 of the 1936 Act. This offered three possibilities: (i) the sewer was constructed prior to 1 October 1937; (ii) the sewer was built as a sewer by the municipal predecessor of the city council after 1 October 1937, or acquired by it; (iii) the sewer had been the subject of a specific declaration of vesting on the part of Southern Water or its municipal predecessor under s 17 of the 1936 Act.
[25] He rejected the first of these, on the basis that the channel was not constructed in its present form before 1937, and in particular the culvert was first shown to exist as such in the 1949 Ordnance Survey. He rejected the second because there was no evidence that the municipal predecessor had done anything to the culvert (unlike to other parts of the channel). There was no evidence of any declaration of vesting, so the third possibility was also irrelevant. Accordingly, given that he had held that it was a sewer, it followed that it was a private, rather than a public, sewer.
DISCUSSION
[26] Mr Darton, for Southern Water, the sewerage undertaker, submitted that most of the factors relied on by the judge for his finding that it was a sewer rather than a watercourse are irrelevant in law, and that the only relevant matter is the nature of the flow, basing this submission on the British Railways Board case, and that the change in the nature of the flow along the culvert was nothing like substantial enough to satisfy the test set out by Oliver LJ in that case.
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[27] Mr Chapman, for Raglan, supported the judge’s approach and conclusion, in particular submitting that more factors than just the nature of the flow were relevant to be considered in addressing the question of fact and degree as to whether the nature of what had been a watercourse had changed so that it was a sewer. Mr Burns, for Southampton City Council, the relevant local authority, submitted that the only issue before the court was as to the status of the culvert, rather than the rest of the channel, and made common cause with Mr Chapman in supporting the judge’s approach on the evidence.
[28] The judge’s order relates only to the status of the culvert, not to the whole channel, even though the judge made findings as to what had happened to other parts of the channel. Mr Burns is therefore correct in pointing out that the appeal is therefore only concerned with the culvert as such. It does not follow that because one part of the channel is a sewer, another part of it is. It seems to me that, logically, the status of a stretch downstream from the culvert is unlikely to be relevant to the status of the culvert itself. It might seem odd to find that a section of the channel which is upstream of the culvert was a sewer, but that the culvert itself was a watercourse. It may be less odd if one remembers that a flow may be a sewer even though it carries no foul sewage, but only surface water. I note that at several points in his judgment the judge did pose the question in relation to the status of the channel as a whole (see paras 41, 46 and 109). Expressing his conclusion in para 109 (quoted in full at [34], below) he said:
‘I am satisfied on this evidence that there has been so substantial a change in the character of the channel, and therefore the culvert, as to transform it into a sewer.’
[29] Where the question for decision is as to the status of a particular stretch of a stream or flow, such as the culvert in the present case, I would not regard evidence as to what has happened to other parts of the stream or flow as being irrelevant, but it does seem to me that the question needs to be addressed by reference to the specific stretch at issue, rather than the stream or flow as a whole. Otherwise there is a risk that matters relating to other parts of the stream will be regarded as having more significance than they should.
[30] The judge found that two parts of the channel downstream from the culvert were the subject of works done by the relevant sewerage undertaker as such (see paras 55–58, 64–67). That applies to the length under and near the railway, and that under the gyratory system, immediately to the west of the culvert.
[31] So far as the culvert itself is concerned, part of it is piped and covered, and the rest of it is lined in concrete. The judge had no evidence as to who had done this work over the length of the culvert, nor when (except that the piped section was created by 1949) or on what basis (see para 116). Of course, by itself the fact that a watercourse is lined, or is piped and covered over, does not make a difference to its status (see Shepherd v Croft [1911] 1 Ch 521, quoted at [15], above).
[32] The judge referred to a different point at para 94, namely the fact that, in addition to the pipe carrying the flow along the line of the original watercourse, a second pipe discharges into the channel, by a junction created upstream of the culvert, which, as the judge said ‘has nothing to do with the original stream but is intended to assist with the removal of surface water sewage and, on occasions, foul sewage’. It seems to me that this point goes with other aspects of the change in the flow through or along the channel. He said (at para 98) that ‘the channel now receives flow from a number of other sewers, principally surface water
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sewers but also on occasion foul sewers’. He continued (at para 99): ‘the evidence suggests that the primary function of the channel is now surface water sewage. Most of the surface water sewers in the area discharge directly or indirectly into it.' He mentioned the fact that the significant part of the channel which runs under Beech Avenue is still shown on the PSM (maintained by Southern Water) as a public surface water sewer, and said that, since that part of the channel is no different in character from the part which lies downstream, it is difficult to see why one part should be treated differently from the other in terms of legal classification.
[33] Mr Darton submitted, on the basis of the British Railways Board case, that the fact that a watercourse carries away surface water cannot make it a sewer (see [17], above). The judge also relied on the fact that the channel (including the culvert) carries foul sewage on occasion, pursuant to the CSOs already mentioned, at times of flash flood. At paras 107 and 108 he said this:
‘The mere presence of foul sewage cannot alter the character of a watercourse. However the channel passes through a densely populated area of Southampton and for three lengths (excluding Humm Hole) flows in an open culvert. The risk of flooding is at its greatest at the very times when the presence of foul sewage is most likely.
108. On the evidence of past history flooding will take place at the property where the channel sinks. On the other side of the culvert at this point is another development of residential flats. I consider the occasional but deliberate discharge of foul sewage into a channel of this nature, with these characteristics, to be significant and quite different in nature and effect to a discharge of foul sewage into a river or watercourse in a rural area. I consider it proper to take this into account when considering this issue because of the impact of a flood including foul sewage on a population that did not exist when the channel was Bitterne stream.’
[34] However, his conclusion (at para 109) was that the channel, including the culvert, had become a sewer, but a surface water sewer. He said:
‘The effect of these various features is cumulative, although some are plainly more important than others. Considering the features I have identified and the channel as a whole it no longer can sensibly be called a stream or a watercourse without undue strain to the ordinary meaning of those terms. I am satisfied on this evidence that there has been so substantial a change in the character of the channel, and therefore the culvert, as to transform it into a sewer. More precisely, it has become a surface water sewer.’
[35] Among the factors to which he referred was the change in the route of the channel. The significant changes in this respect were all downstream from the culvert. It does not seem to me that these can affect the proper view of the status of the culvert itself. He also referred to the fact that the channel was described, from time to time, as a sewer in formal documents. Again, these references were to stretches downstream from the culvert. For these parts of the channel the description may have been significant, because they showed the basis on which the work was done. In my judgment they do not affect the position upstream. He also referred to the fact that the capacity of the piped section of the channel is much greater than would be necessary to cope with only natural flow. That applies to sections both downstream and upstream from the culvert. It seems to
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me that it goes with the fact that the channel now does carry away a lot of surface water.
[36] Thus, taking the various points together, there are three main separate factors, or groups of factors, which the judge regarded as relevant: (i) the channel as a whole, and the culvert in particular, is now piped or at least (where it is open) lined in concrete; (ii) the flow includes a great deal more surface water than it used to, including surface water brought to the channel by way of conduits which are or include surface water sewers, and it might be said, therefore, to form part of the surface water sewer network; (iii) the channel, and in particular the culvert, carries foul water on occasion, at times of flash flood, pursuant to consents given under the relevant legislation.
[37] Mr Darton’s submissions on those factors, based on the British Railways Board case, are clear and simple: piping or lining a flow of water does not affect its status; adding more surface water to a watercourse makes no difference; and the presence of foul sewage is not sufficient to change a watercourse into a sewer unless the quantity of sewage is very substantial, which clearly it is not in the present case.
[38] Given that, as George Legge & Son Ltd v Wenlock Corp [1938] 1 All ER 37, [1938] AC 204 showed, the discharge of foul sewage into a natural watercourse could not convert a watercourse into a sewer, because the passing of the 1876 Act made such discharge illegal, it seems to me that, nowadays, the effect of the discharge of foul sewage into anything other than a foul sewer is likely to depend on the statutory provisions under which it is done. If it is not done with consent, then the position would be the same as under the 1876 Act. If it is done with consent (as in the case of the CSOs referred to above in the present case) then it will depend on the terms of the consent and of the provision under which the consent is given. The judge was not shown the consent, nor, I think, was he taken to the statutory provisions under which the consent may have been given. In those circumstances, it seems to me impossible to base any conclusion on the discharge of the foul sewage into the channel. It is fair to say that, from the terms of his conclusion in para 109, it does not seem that the judge did rely on this aspect to any substantial extent.
[39] By itself, it must be right that to put a flow of water into a concrete lining, or even a pipe, is irrelevant to the status of the flow. So the real point is whether the fact that the culvert now receives surface water to a much larger extent than before, brought to it by way of surface water sewers, so that it can be said to form part of the local network of surface water drainage for the area, makes it a surface water sewer itself. It lies downstream from a number of surface water sewers, and further downstream from it parts of the channel appear, from the judge’s findings, to have been the subject of works carried out by the sewerage authority as such, so that these parts are therefore presumably also sewers. (I should record that Mr Darton did not accept that the mere fact that a sewerage undertaker does works of construction to the channel of an existing flow, as opposed to constructing a new channel for a new flow, makes it a sewer if it is not one already.)
[40] Where work has been done to the structure of a channel through or along which a watercourse flows, the statutory authority for the work could be such that it changes the character of the flow from that of a watercourse to that of a sewer. Whether it does will depend on the facts of the given case and the terms of the statute. No such point arises in the present case as regards the culvert, because it is not known who did such work as has been done to the culvert itself,
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as distinct from other parts of the channel, and therefore it is also not known whether there was any relevant statutory authority for it. There is no evidence which connects the work done with the city council, so on the evidence it was not done by a relevant authority. If it had been, it might have qualified as a public sewer.
[41] What is left, therefore, is the fact that the culvert, as part of the channel, now carries a great deal more surface water than it did originally, and the question whether it still carries any ground water.
[42] The channel carries a continuous base flow of clear water in dry weather, but the judge had no evidence as to the source of this flow. He commented that Southern Water had not tested the water flow to determine whether or not it was natural ground water. He regarded it as possible that it was attributable to one or more of leaks from water supply pipes, discharges from domestic or commercial premises or run-off drainage, rather than natural ground water. He held that this point was not decisive, because if a channel is a sewer, then the fact that it does receive some natural ground water, even on a continuous basis, does not alter its status as a sewer. I agree with that proposition, but it is also true that, if it is a watercourse, the fact that it receives some, or even a great deal of, surface water does not change it into a sewer. Moreover the judge’s proposition does beg the question: if it is in issue whether the flow is a sewer or a watercourse, the fact (if it be so) that it continues to carry a flow of natural ground water, as it did historically, is relevant to answering the question. If there were no natural ground water, then it could be much easier to establish that it was now a sewer, because it would only be carrying surface water, rather than carrying such water as an unavoidable addition to natural ground water. The judge approached this question on the basis that it was for Southern Water to show that there was still a continuous flow of natural ground water. I respectfully disagree. Since it is clear that the channel was originally a watercourse, the burden of proof of relevant facts, where in dispute, would be on the party seeking to show that the situation has changed, that is to say on Raglan rather than on Southern Water.
[43] The judge may have been influenced in this by the view he took of the second defendant’s decision, without having gone through the procedures it had laid down for itself to follow, to remove the part of the channel west of Beech Avenue from the PSM. As the judge said (at para 71) this was not determinative, because although a sewerage undertaker is under a statutory duty to maintain a PSM (see s 199 of the 1991 Act), the contents of the PSM do not define what is or is not a public sewer. It is not of the same significance as a definitive map of rights of way under the Wildlife and Countryside Act 1981, for example. Nevertheless it is striking that the second defendant did remove this part of the channel from the PSM shortly after the first letter from the claimant’s solicitors. The judge may have felt that, before taking such a step, the second defendant ought to have tested the clear water flow to assess its source or sources.
[44] The judge also paid regard to the evidence of Mr Rawson Burns, a retired chartered engineer who had worked for Southern Water and previously for Havant Borough Council, who gave evidence (among other things) as to the practice about making corrections to a PSM. The judge referred to the criteria which Mr Rawson Burns mentioned in this respect (see para 85), and considered the second defendant’s decision to remove part of the channel from the PSM in the light of those criteria (para 86). It was in that context that he made the comments referred to above as to the absence of tests on the part of the second
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defendant as to the source of the clear water. Those comments seem to me entirely legitimate in the context of considering the second defendant’s decision to remove part of the channel from the PSM. They do not necessarily reflect the correct legal approach to the issue which the judge had to decide.
[45] However, the judge went on to say (at para 91) that he was not prepared to determine the case solely on the basis of the existence of a significant clear flow during periods of dry weather. I agree that it would not have been appropriate to decide the case solely on such a basis. The main question is as to the significance of the largely increased flow of surface water, emanating from the different sources mentioned by the judge, including a number of upstream tributaries, some of which appear to be surface water sewers.
[46] In relation to this, Mr Darton relied heavily on Oliver LJ’s words in the British Railways Board case, quoted at [17], above:
‘What is clear is that something very much more than the mere discharge of sewage into a stream (and, a fortiori, the mere discharge of pure surface water) is required before its status is changed to that of a sewer.’
[47] The judge’s decision is based on a number of matters, not all of which I would regard as being of equal relevance. The increase in the amount of surface water in the stream is one of the most important aspects of his reasoning. But it can fairly be argued that he did not proceed on the basis of a mere discharge of surface pure water into the stream. The discharge is, in part, the result of substantial works done by the sewerage undertaker upstream of the culvert, for the drainage of the surface water in what seems likely to be a wider catchment area than that of the original stream. That produces a curious result, on the judge’s finding. The stretches of the channel upstream (as well as downstream) where the then sewerage undertaker did works under statutory authority may have become sewers (they were not directly in issue, and I do not say they necessarily did, though clearly the judge thought they did). If so it seems likely, at lowest, that they would have become public sewers which would be the responsibility of Southern Water as sewerage undertaker. By contrast, the judge’s conclusion that the culvert had changed from a watercourse to a sewer is largely based on work done elsewhere in the channel by the sewerage undertaker, but because there is no evidence that the then undertaker did any work to the culvert as such, that part of the channel, if it became a sewer, remained a private sewer and is not the responsibility of the sewerage undertaker. Whose responsibility it is remains to be decided: Raglan argues that the City Council is responsible but the council denies this. I find it surprising that work done by the sewerage undertaker elsewhere in the channel should have had this side effect as to the status of the culvert to which the sewerage undertaker did nothing in terms of construction, and for which it (rightly, according to the judge) accepts no responsibility in terms of maintenance.
CONCLUSION
[48] I have found the issue on this appeal difficult to decide. I see the force of the judge’s comments about the change in the nature of what used to be the natural and open Bitterne Stream, and about the oddity, on Southern Water’s contention, of having a fairly short stretch of watercourse in the channel with extensive stretches of what appear to be sewers (and probably public sewers at that, even if only or mainly for surface water, not foul sewage) both upstream and downstream of the part in question. On the other hand, I also find it curious, as
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I have said, that work upstream and downstream under statutory authority can have not only whatever effect it has on the parts of the channel to which the work was done, but also an incidental effect on the status of the culvert, and what is more, a different effect, because it makes it a sewer but not a public sewer.
[49] I would pay tribute to the judge’s judgment, which is a model of clarity and deals very fully with the issue before him, in what were clearly far from ideal circumstances, as regards the identification of the preliminary issues, and the manner in which they came before him for decision, including the serious underestimate of the time required. I have, however, come to the conclusion that the judge’s decision is wrong, and that the culvert is still a watercourse, not having become a sewer. My reasons for disagreeing with the judge are these.
[50] First, I consider that there are some errors in his reasoning. He ought not to have regarded it as being for the second defendant to prove that the continuous base flow of clear water in dry weather still included natural ground water. On that point the burden of proof was the other way. He ought not to have taken into account (to the extent that he did, which may not have been great) the discharge of foul sewage under the CSOs. I do not regard the fact that the course of the stream now lies over or through concrete culverts or pipes as a matter which, by itself, can have any relevance to the decision. The circumstances in which the construction works could be relevant, if they were done under statutory authority, but none were relevant to the culvert. The change in the route of the channel is also irrelevant of itself, especially since almost all the significant changes are downstream from the culvert, and matters downstream seem to me to be inherently of little or no relevance to the status of the culvert. I would not attach any importance to the descriptions used in relation to parts of the channel, especially as none applied to the culvert itself (as the judge said, in relation to the second issue, at para 116). It seems to me, also, that the judge approached the question wrongly by considering the status of the channel as a whole, rather than that of the culvert, albeit in the context of the rest of the channel so far as relevant.
[51] What certainly is relevant is the nature of the flow through the culvert. The stream started as a watercourse, carrying natural ground water, as well as, inevitably, some surface water. It still starts in the same place and is still partly open there. It seems to me that, in those circumstances, the natural assumption should be that it still carries natural ground water. If Raglan or the city council wished to contend otherwise, it seems to me that the burden of proof would have been on them. There having been no evidence on the point, it seems to me that the matter should proceed on the basis that the channel still carries some natural ground water. It has not changed in that respect.
[52] Clearly it also carries surface water, and no doubt a lot more than it used to. It does occasionally carry some foul sewage, but I do not regard that as relevant, because of the absence of evidence as to the terms and basis of the CSOs. So one is left with the large increase of surface water, the fact that there have been substantial works upstream which presumably add to the flow of surface water, and that some of what there is upstream, by way of tributaries, so to speak, does seem to have the status of sewers, and apparently public sewers.
[53] If the question is posed specifically in relation to the culvert, it seems to me that the only relevant change that has occurred is the addition of a great deal more surface water to the flow along that part of the channel. Nothing has happened to change the status of the culvert in terms of works done under statutory authority. The sewerage undertaker has done nothing to that stretch
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of the channel which can affect its status. Therefore if there has been a change, it must be by virtue of the change in the flow, because the fact that the flow is now channelled and partly piped is not sufficient. It seems to me that, viewed in that light, and by reference to the culvert itself, there is no sufficient change to constitute the flow a sewer rather than a watercourse. I come back to the words of Oliver LJ in the British Railways Board case, quoted at [17], above. There is no relevant discharge of foul sewage, and though there is an increased discharge of surface water, something very much more than that is needed. In my judgment, on the true analysis of the facts concerning the culvert, there is nothing more than that increased discharge which can be relied on. Accordingly, the status of the stream as it flows through the culvert as a watercourse has not changed, however much its appearance may have changed in that part, and whatever changes there may have been to its character and even its status elsewhere in the channel, both upstream and downstream.
[54] For that reason, I would allow this appeal.
[55] The judge was understandably critical of the way in which public bodies had incurred substantial cost in pursuing expensive and time-consuming litigation, rather than coming to ‘a sensible negotiated settlement of what is in reality a relatively minor local issue’. It may be, however, that, particularly at a time when flooding is at risk of becoming more prevalent, the issue raised in this appeal has a wider potential significance for sewerage undertakers and others. Whether this decision itself is of wider relevance remains to be seen. Given the extensive flooding experienced in many parts of England in June and July 2007, the importance of issues of this kind is all too plain. I hope that, if such a question arises in future, the court will not have to decide it (as the judge had to in this case) without knowing the statutory basis on which any relevant works of construction were done or even that of the known consents to the occasional discharge of foul sewage.
TOULSON LJ.
[56] Judge Hughes QC expressed the view at the beginning of his judgment that the preliminary issue he was being asked to try was inappropriate. I agree, but I am not sure that the judge appreciated the full extent of the problems which it created. I say that in no spirit of criticism, because I too did not appreciate the full extent of the problems until I came to preparing this judgment with the benefit of reading in draft the judgment of Sir Andrew Morritt C. I will come back to this subject but will begin (with the benefit of Lloyd LJ’s full summary of the background and the facts) by considering the arguments advanced on behalf of the appellant water authority by Mr Darton.
[57] The primary submission made by Mr Darton can be summarised as follows: in considering whether a watercourse has become a sewer, (a) the court is concerned only with what flows through the channel, and not with any questions about how, why or in what circumstances any changes had been made to the construction of the channel, and (b) a watercourse can only become a sewer if the contents of the flow consists so substantially of lawfully deposited foul sewage that it has become essentially a foul water sewer.
[58] I reject that submission. It goes further than anything said in the judgment of Oliver LJ in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565 or in the cases cited by him, and it is inconsistent with United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC [2001] EWCA Civ 1284, [2001] All ER (D) 477 (Jul).
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[59] In both British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC and United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC the courts had to consider whether a natural watercourse had become a sewer within the meaning of the Public Health Act 1936. Section 343 of that Act provided: ‘“drain” means a drain used for the drainage of one building or of any buildings or yards appurtenant to buildings within the same curtilage,’ and ‘“sewer” does not include a drain as defined in this section but, save as aforesaid, includes all sewers and drains used for the drainage of buildings and yards appurtenant to buildings.’
[60] Materially identical language appears in earlier and later statutes dealing with the same subject matter.
[61] During the argument the language used by Oliver LJ in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC was subjected to analysis of the kind which would be more appropriate if it appeared in the statute. Arising from Oliver LJ’s acceptance of the submission advanced in that case by Mr Nugee QC that the critical question was ‘whether the circumstances are such that the stream has substantially lost its original character and has taken on the character of a sewer’ (see (1981) 79 LGR 565 at 572), we heard argument whether the word ‘stream’ in that sentence should be construed so as to include the bed or be confined to the flow.
[62] The important point is, as summarised by Robert Walker LJ in United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC at [16], that the authorities—
‘indicate that a natural watercourse can become a sewer within the meaning of the 1936 Act (which I will refer to as a statutory sewer) and that whether this has occurred is a question of fact and of degree . . .’
[63] In considering what might or might not bring about a change from a watercourse to a sewer, Oliver LJ said in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565 at 573:
‘What is clear is that something very much more than the mere discharge of sewage into a stream (and, a fortiori, the mere discharge of pure surface water) is required before its status is changed to that of a sewer (see, for instance, [Glasgow, Yoker & Clydebank Railway Company v MacIndoe (1896) 24 R 160]). Thus, for instance, if circumstances are such that what was originally an agricultural stream comes to carry sewage in such substantial quantities that its character is completely changed (as occurred in [Falconar v South Shields Corp (1895) 11 TLR 223]) it may no doubt become a sewer within the ordinary meaning of the word.’
[64] That passage provides authoritative but not exclusive guidance. It does not in my judgment provide a platform for the argument that the only circumstances in which a watercourse can become a sewer is where it has come to carry substantial quantities of foul sewage.
[65] If that were so, it would mean that Robert Walker LJ was tilting at a windmill for most of his judgment in United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC [2001] All ER (D) 477 (Jul). In that case part of a watercourse had been enclosed in a mile-long stretch of culvert, constructed between 1958 and 1959, under what had become the densely populated centre of Maghull. It received surface water drainage (and some unintended contamination from foul water) from many houses and other buildings in the area, as well as flows from other sources (including undeveloped land and highway drains). In other words, it primarily carried surface water from an urban area and any element of foul
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water was accidental. On Mr Darton’s argument, the culverted stretch could not be a public sewer. That is not how the Court of Appeal approached the matter. It identified the issue as being whether the culverting of the stream had in the relevant circumstances the legal effect of causing the culverted watercourse to become a sewer. The culverting had been done by West Lancashire Rural District Council (West Lancashire) acting under statutory powers under the 1936 Act. West Lancashire was not only a local authority but a sewerage authority. It therefore had the powers of a sewerage authority under Pt II of the 1936 Act and miscellaneous powers as a local authority under Pt XI. The Leeds and Liverpool canal crossed over the culverted section. After the culverting works had been done, West Lancashire contracted with the canal authority to share the cost of maintaining the crossing. Under a later local government reorganisation, Sefton Metropolitan Borough Council became West Lancashire’s successor as local authority, and West Lancashire’s rights and liabilities as sewerage authority became vested in the North West Water Authority. The question arose whether the new local authority or the new sewerage authority was responsible for West Lancashire’s contractual obligations in relation to the crossing of the culvert with the canal. For this purpose it was necessary to consider whether the culverted section had become a public sewer.
[66] Robert Walker LJ in his judgment, with which Henry and Rix LJJ agreed, noted (at [21]) that in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC the court did not inquire into the statutory power under which part of the natural watercourse had been piped, but that in the instant case both parties had recognised that the essential issue was whether in carrying out the culverting work West Lancashire had been acting as a sewerage authority or under its Pt XI powers. The judge had held the latter, and his decision was upheld. Accordingly the work had not been done by West Lancashire as a sewerage authority and in those circumstances the works did not convert the watercourse into a public sewer.
[67] Robert Walker LJ observed (at [41]) that both parties were agreed that West Lancashire could not have been exercising powers under both Pt II and Pt XI simultaneously. He added:
‘. . . It is not obvious to me why a pipe substituted for a watercourse under s 262(1) might not in some circumstances be a statutory surface-water sewer from the time of its construction, if at that time the watercourse was already receiving flows from other surface-water drains and sewers, and might not be a public sewer if constructed by a sewerage authority. But that line of argument was not adopted by experienced counsel on either side . . .’
[68] The observation was obiter, but it is instructive to note in what respect. Robert Walker LJ was there saying that he could see no reason why if a sewerage authority (which was also a local authority) installed a pipe for surface water in place of a watercourse already receiving surface water, this might not be a public sewer, albeit that the statutory power used for the construction of the pipe was under s 262(1), ie within Pt XI. The point ‘not adopted by experienced counsel’ was that a sewerage authority could use Pt XI powers in that way, as distinct from proceeding under Pt II. If, however, the court had held that West Lancashire had been using Pt II powers to construct the culvert (and nobody suggested that it could not have done so), it is clear that the court would have held that the culverted section would in those circumstances have become a public sewer, although it was predominantly for surface water.
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[69] In the present case there was no evidence before the judge who built the section of culvert adjoining the claimant’s premises. But upstream of that section the local authority had undertaken substantial work piping what had originally been the watercourse in order to take surface water from urban development and also to permit combined sewage overflows. A combined sewage overflow or ‘CSO’ is a connection between a foul and surface water sewer in order to relieve pressure on foul sewers during periods of high rain fall. The judge found as a fact that the city council’s predecessor constructed the channel under Beech Avenue to provide a surface water sewer. He was entitled so to find (although I note as a matter of detail from the Public Sewer Map that the channel beneath Beech Avenue also appears to have a number of CSOs).
[70] Mr Darton submitted that this was wrong. He submitted that even where a sewerage authority in purported exercise of statutory powers laid pipe work in order to take surface water along the line of a previous watercourse, however small the previous flow may have been and however large the subsequent flow might be, the resulting work could not be a sewer in law; and that in so far as Robert Walker LJ’s approach in United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC suggested otherwise, that approach was wrong. I do not accept that.
[71] Mr Darton further argued that if he were wrong in that submission, the matter is of no relevance when considering the status of the culvert adjacent to the claimant’s property. This brings me to what I regard as the really difficult part of the case, and it is a novel point. Taking it as an established fact that the channel under Beech Avenue was constructed as a sewer under statutory authority, what is the effect on the culvert with which the judge was concerned? The judge recorded that the two pipes beneath Beach Avenue had diameters of 450mm and 800mm. Their contents flowed into the culvert adjacent to Raglan’s land and on a common sense view must have constituted the vast majority of what entered the culvert.
[72] As Sir Andrew Morritt C points out, the judge was not asked to determine the status of the culvert within a statutory context. Sir Andrew Morritt C has referred (at [79], below) to the definition of sewer in s 219 of the Water Industry Act 1991 (which is substantially the same as in the 1936 Act) but, as he observes, the judge did not consider that section to be of assistance. It is not satisfactory to decide a difficult point of law on an ill-drafted preliminary issue. I also suspect that the real issues between Raglan and the defendants involve wider considerations. Raglan is concerned about the risk of flooding. If a sewerage authority constructs a sewer in such a way that it is liable to cause flooding of land in the proximity, I can see that it may be liable at common law for the damage caused, whether the water issues directly from the authority’s sewer or floods the bed of a natural small watercourse and so floods the neighbouring land. But none of this falls within the preliminary issue.
[73] I have real doubts about the appropriateness of the exercise which the judge was asked to carry out. However, I am also conscious that the parties have already incurred considerable expense, much of which will fall on the public. So with those reservations I proceed to give my view on the question whether the judge was entitled to find that the relevant culvert is a sewer (using the word as interpreted in previous authorities under statutes containing a similar definition to that in the 1991 Act).
[74] If the channel immediately upstream of the section adjacent to the claimant’s property has been turned into a public sewer to accommodate
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principally surface water in much increased quantity, but also some foul water when the occasion requires, the impact of those changes on the section by the claimant’s property is in my view properly to be taken into account in considering whether that section has changed its character. Whether there has been such a change is ultimately a question of fact and degree. Mr Darton submitted that it would be ludicrous that a change in the character of one part of a channel should necessarily produce a change several miles away. I agree. A common sense view has to be taken on the particular facts. The fact that the water authority’s own Public Sewer Map showed the relevant section as a public sewer until the present dispute arose, and the water authority issued a new version showing it not as a public sewer, was material which the judge was entitled to take into account as evidence of how the authority itself regarded the relevant section at the time when the map was originally prepared.
[75] In his careful and thorough judgment, after reviewing the authorities the judge summarised the basis on which he had to proceed as follows:
‘I proceed on the basis that the correct test is whether there has been so substantial a change in the character of the channel as to transform it into a sewer. This is a question of fact and degree in each case, taking into account the above guidelines. The authorities make it plain that the test is a high one.’
[76] He then proceeded to set out the facts in full and careful detail. In my judgment he was entitled to conclude that at the relevant time the culvert with which he was concerned had become but a section in a network of a public sewerage system, predominantly but not exclusively for surface water, and that its character had therefore changed to the extent that it had become a sewer. I would therefore dismiss the appeal.
SIR ANDREW MORRITT C.
[77] The issue before Judge Hughes QC was ‘whether the culvert is a sewer and whether Southern Water have the statutory responsibility to maintain the same’. The culvert was described by the judge as ‘adjacent to [60–64 Cobbett Road, Bitterne, Southampton] and running along the southern boundary but not within Raglan’s ownership’. By his order made on 25 May 2006 the judge declared the culvert to be ‘a surface water sewer but . . . not a public sewer within the statutory meaning of the same’. Lloyd LJ has described both the culvert and the channel of which it forms part and I gratefully adopt his descriptions.
[78] The judge described the circumstances in which the issue arose in paras 8 and 9 of his judgment. Thus, Raglan Housing Association Ltd (Raglan) argued that the culvert was a sewer, whether public or not, and not a watercourse in its endeavour to impose liability for its flooding on one or other of Southampton City Council or Southern Water Services Ltd (Southern Water). The city council contended that the culvert was a public sewer so as, it hoped, to shift any liability on to Southern Water. Southern Water argued that the culvert was either a watercourse or a non-public sewer so as to divert any liability back to Raglan as riparian owner or the city council. In those circumstances the judge considered (at para 10) that he should approach the preliminary issue in two parts: ‘First, is the culvert a sewer at all? Secondly, if the culvert is a sewer is it a public sewer?’
[79] The statutory meaning to which the judge referred in his order is that contained in Water Industry Act 1991. Section 219(1) contains a number of definitions of potential relevance ‘except in so far as the context otherwise
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requires’. Thus: ‘“public sewer” means a sewer for the time being vested in a sewerage undertaker in its capacity as such . . .’; ‘“sewer” includes (without prejudice to subsection (2) below) all sewers and drains (not being drains within the meaning given by this subsection) which are used for the drainage of buildings and yards appurtenant to buildings’; ‘“surface water” includes water from roofs’; ‘“watercourse” includes all rivers, streams, ditches, drains, cuts, culverts, dykes, sluices, sewers and passages through which water flows . . .' Though he referred in para 37 of his judgment to the fact that both Raglan and the city council relied on s 219 to support their respective arguments he concluded that those provisions did not determine the matter (see paras 37, 43).
[80] Instead of applying any of those statutory definitions the judge adopted as the proper test, which he understood by the end of the argument to be common ground, that explained by Oliver LJ in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565 at 572 quoted by Lloyd LJ at [16], above. The judge summarised that test in para 46 of his judgment as:
‘. . . whether there has been so substantial a change in the character of the channel as to transform it into a sewer. This is a question of fact and degree in each case, taking into account the above guidance. The authorities make it plain that the test is a high one.’
[81] In my view that proposition is open to criticism in two respects. First, it looks to the channel as a whole not just the culvert to which the preliminary issue was rightly confined. Elsewhere in his judgment, for example para 10, the judge altered the word ‘channel’ to ‘culvert’. But it does not appear that the use of the word ‘channel’ in para 46 is a mistake because there are later passages in his judgment where the judge refers expressly to parts of the ‘channel’ when considering the status of the ‘culvert’. As Lloyd LJ has pointed out at [28], above, logically the status of a stretch of the channel downstream of the culvert can be of little, if any, relevance once it is accepted that it is possible for different sections of the channel to have a different status. The second error lies in the omission of any reference to the contents of the channel. Whether or not the composition of the contents is the only consideration it is one of the most relevant, as the judgment of Oliver LJ in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC shows.
[82] The judge then traced the history of the channel (paras 47–91) and summarised the material facts (paras 93–108) under the headings (a) ‘The structure of the channel has completely changed’, (b) ‘The route of the channel has changed to a significant extent’, (c) ‘The nature of the flow has changed’, (d) ‘The channel is used for the drainage of ‘buildings and yards appurtenant to buildings’, (e) ‘Many of the tributary conduits are themselves sewers, properly so-called’, (f) ‘The description given to the channel after the war’, (g) ‘The capacity of the channel’ and (h) ‘The occasional presence of foul sewage in the channel’. The judge’s conclusion, expressed in para 109 of his judgment, is as follows:
‘The effect of these various features is cumulative, although some are plainly more important than others. Considering the features I have identified and the channel as a whole it no longer can sensibly be called a stream or a watercourse without undue strain to the ordinary meaning of those terms. I am satisfied on this evidence that there has been so substantial a change in the character of the channel, and therefore the culvert, as to
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transform it into a sewer. More precisely, it has become a surface water sewer.’
[83] In my view the focus for the judge’s consideration and his conclusion, namely the channel as a whole, was wrong in both the respects to which I have referred at [81], above. The issue is the status of the culvert. Much of the judge’s consideration was devoted to the construction of the channel downstream of the culvert and independently of its flow or contents. As such it was of marginal, if any, relevance.
[84] The judge then considered the second issue he had analysed and concluded that the culvert was not a public sewer within the meaning of s 219 the 1991 Act. That depended on the identity of the undertaker in which it was vested. There is no appeal from that conclusion. Thus this court is left in the unsatisfactory position of being expected to determine the first of the issues to which the judge referred, namely whether ‘the culvert is a sewer at all’, by reference to ‘the natural and ordinary meaning of the word “sewer”’ divorced from a particular statutory context in the Public Health Act 1936, the 1991 Act or any other relevant statutory provision.
[85] That, as I understand it, is why all parties have relied on the judgment of Oliver LJ in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565. As he made plain (at 571) he was considering, at least in the passages which followed, the natural and ordinary meaning of the word ‘sewer’, notwithstanding that the case itself concerned the meaning of the word in the context of the Public Health Act 1936. Those passages have been quoted by Lloyd LJ at [16]–[18], above, and I need not repeat them. They clearly show that the nature of the contents or flow of the culvert is the most significant factor in the determination of the question whether what was once a natural watercourse has become a sewer. But I agree with Toulson LJ (at [64], above) that the decision of the Court of Appeal in that case does not establish that alterations to the bed and banks of the culvert or of an upstream section of the channel are irrelevant to the question. It is easy to envisage cases where the additional flow of sewage is inconclusive but works to the relevant bed and banks resolve the issue.
[86] On the other hand I agree with Lloyd LJ that the decision of this court in United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC [2001] EWCA Civ 1284, [2001] All ER (D) 477 (Jul) does not carry the matter much further. As he has explained (at [19], [20], above) the reference in that case to the decision of the Court of Appeal in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC (1981) 79 LGR 565 was only in connection with a ground of appeal which had been abandoned. But the decision in United Utilities Water Ltd v Sefton Metropolitan BC does confirm that construction work on the culvert and upstream bed and banks may be relevant, at least if who did it and in what capacity is relevant to the issue.
[87] I agree with Lloyd LJ that for the reasons he gives at [38]–[40], [50], above, various considerations the judge took account of have to be excluded from consideration or substantially discounted. Accordingly, as he said at [41], one is left with ‘the fact that the culvert, as part of the channel, now carries a great deal more surface water than it did originally and the question whether it still carries any ground water’.
[88] If the question is whether the culvert is a sewer within the meaning of the definition contained in s 219 of the 1991 Act I have quoted at [79], above then it may be that the presence of surface water in the volume now to be found in the culvert would be enough to alter its essential nature from watercourse to sewer.
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But I do not understand that to be the question because there is no appeal from judge’s conclusion on the second part of the preliminary issue. If, by contrast, the question is whether on the test propounded by Oliver LJ in British Railways Board v Tonbridge and Malling DC for a change from natural watercourse to sewer is satisfied then the increased flow of surface water through the culvert cannot be enough. Even if one adds the occasional presence of raw sewage pursuant to the CSOs to the natural ground water and surface water the test still cannot be satisfied. Nor, in my view, can it matter if some part of the channel upstream of the culvert is classified as a sewer for some specific statutory purpose unless the statutory test is the same as that propounded by Oliver LJ.
[89] For these reasons I agree with the conclusion of Lloyd LJ and respectfully differ from that of Toulson LJ. I would allow this appeal.
[90] The fact that, by a majority, we are differing from the conclusion of the judge should not obscure the fact that he was presented with an impossible task and dealt with it as well as any judge could. The preliminary issue should never have been ordered to be tried in the form it was put forward, or, perhaps, in any form. There was no common standard by which the issue ‘whether the culvert is a sewer’ was to be judged. Each party was seeking to establish, avoid or shift liability for the alleged nuisance suffered by Raglan. They sought to establish, avoid or shift liability in a variety of ways to which the issue whether the culvert was a sewer might be relevant but by reference to different meanings of the word. Second, the case had not been properly prepared by some or all the parties. Third, the judge was, for whatever reason, given inadequate time to pre-read or hear the case or to finalise his judgment. Fourth, the trial of the preliminary issue has merely increased costs and delay in the resolution of this dispute and was never likely to do anything else. These points are dealt with by the judge in paras 11–24 in tones of studied moderation. His moderation should not minimise the ample justification for his criticisms.
[91] We will hear further argument on the form of order we should make to give effect to the conclusion of the majority. We shall wish to be addressed on whether we should merely allow the appeal and set aside the order of the court below or whether we should go further and make some declaration of our own and, if so, in what terms. We shall also wish to consider what directions for the future conduct of this action should be given so as to ensure that it is progressed to a conclusion without further delay and at the least expense.
Appeal allowed.
Celia Fox Barrister.
Secretary of State for the Home Department v AF (No 2)
[2008] 2 All ER 67
[2007] EWHC 2828 (Admin)
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (ADMINISTRATIVE COURT)
Lord(s): STANLEY BURNTON J
Hearing Date(s): 21, 30 NOVEMBER 2007
Practice – Administrative court – Non-derogating control orders – Supervisory hearing – Subsequent supervisory hearings – Whether judge deciding issues arising on supervisory hearing disqualified from adjudicating in subsequent proceedings – Status of findings made by judge in supervisory hearing in subsequent proceedings – Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, s 3(10).
Under s 2(1)a of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 the Secretary of State could make a control order against an individual if he had reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual was or had been involved in terrorism-related activity and considered that it was necessary, for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, to make a control order imposing obligations on that individual. The Secretary of State made a non-derogating control order in relation to AF. A supervisory hearing was then required by s 3b of the 2005 Act and under sub-s (10) the function of the court was to determine whether the decisions of the Secretary of State that the requirements of s 2(1) had been satisfied were flawed and whether the decisions of the Secretary of State on the imposition of each of the obligations imposed by the order were flawed. At the s 3 hearing the judge held, inter alia, that there were reasonable grounds for suspicion of AF’s involvement in terrorism-related activity, that a control order was necessary and that he did not regard the process under the 2005 Act as one in which AF had been without sufficient procedural protection. However, he found that the restrictions imposed by the control order amounted to a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) and quashed the control order. In anticipation of the judgment a second control order had been made and it was then served on AF. The judge’s decision on the first control order was appealed directly to the House of Lords which reversed his decision that it had deprived AF of his liberty and remitted the case to the Administrative Court for reconsideration, in accordance with guidance, of the issue of procedural protection. The Secretary of State applied for directions for the s 3 hearing required for the second control order and the court also considered directions for the issue remitted by the House in relation to the first control order. AF submitted that the judge who had heard the s 3 proceedings in relation to the first control order should be recused from hearing the proceedings in relation to the second control order because a fair-minded and informed observer might entertain a reasonable apprehension of bias by reason of his pre-judgment. The Secretary of State submitted that the findings of the judge in relation to the first
Page 68 of [2008] 2 All ER 67
control order were to be treated as the starting point for the consideration of the issues raised by the second control order irrespective of the identity of the judge and that therefore no question of unfair or illegitimate pre-judgment arose.
Held – A judge who decided issues arising on a hearing under s 3(10) of the 2005 Act adversely to the respondent, or to the Home Secretary, was not for that reason disqualified by pre-judgment from adjudicating in subsequent proceedings under the Act to which the respondent was a party. There was no indication that Parliament had intended to exclude the normal principle of public law that a judicial decision made between parties should be respected in subsequent proceedings. Findings made by the court on issues arising on a hearing under s 3(10) were in principle to be regarded as binding between the Secretary of State and the respondent in relation to matters at the date of that hearing on a subsequent hearing under s 3(10), subject to any differences in the evidence relevant to those issues before the court on each of those hearings. In the instant case, while there was no objective reason for the recusal of the judge, it was for a judge himself to decide, when an issue of pre-judgment or bias was raised, whether he was able to determine the issues before him unaffected by pre-judgment or bias and questions of recusal were fact-specific. Moreover, judges were frequently called upon to exclude from their consideration evidence that they had seen or heard de bene esse. Accordingly, the court could only say that in principle the judge would not be disqualified by pre-judgment (see [17], [19]–[25], below).
Notes
For apparent bias and interests which may give rise to the appearance of bias, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2001 reissue) paras 99, 100 and for supervision by the court of the making of non-derogating control orders, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 456.
For the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, s 3, see 12(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 1856.
Cases referred to in judgment
A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWHC 1669 (Admin).
AA (Somalia) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 1040, [2007] All ER (D) 395 (Oct).
Berg v IML London Ltd [2002] 4 All ER 87, [2002] 1 WLR 3271.
Devaseelan v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] Imm AR 1, IAT.
Djebbar v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 804, [2004] All ER (D) 368 (Jun).
Application
The Secretary of State for the Home Department applied for directions for the hearing required under s 3 of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 in relation to non-derogating control orders imposed on the respondent, AF. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Tim Eicke and Kate Grange (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Tim Otty QC and Zubair Ahmad (instructed by Middleweeks, Manchester) for AF.
Page 69 of [2008] 2 All ER 67
Jeremy Johnson (instructed by the Special Advocates Support Office) as special advocate.
Judgment was reserved.
30 November 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
STANLEY BURNTON J.
INTRODUCTION
[1] These proceedings raise issues of importance in relation to hearings under ss 3(10) and 10(4) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005, namely: (a) whether a judge who decides issues arising on a hearing under s 3(10) of the 2005 Act adversely to the respondent (or to the Home Secretary) is disqualified from adjudicating in subsequent proceedings under the Act to which the respondent is a party; and (b) the status of findings made by a judge as a result of a hearing under s 3(10) of the 2005 Act in subsequent proceedings under the 2005 Act between the same parties.
THE FACTUAL BACKGROUND
[2] The respondent, AF, has been the subject of three non-derogating control orders, referred to using the case numbers of the various proceedings relating to them under s 3 of the 2005 Act, namely PTA/6/2006, PTA/33/2006 and PTA/4/2007. PTA/6/2006 was imposed on 24 May 2006 and revoked on 11 September 2006. On the same date as that revocation, PTA/33/2006 was imposed on him. Following the hearing under s 3(10) of the Act, on 30 March 2007 Ouseley J quashed PTA/33/2006 on the ground that, as he found, the restrictions it imposed cumulatively amounted to a deprivation of liberty within the meaning of art 5(1) of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) (the convention). His judgment is at [2007] EWHC 651 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Apr). In anticipation of the judgment of Ouseley J, control order PTA/4/2007 was made on 29 March 2007 and served the following day.
[3] In his judgment, Ouseley J also held: (a) there were reasonable grounds for suspecting that AF was or had been involved in terrorism-related activity; (b) that he was satisfied that a control order was necessary in view of the potential harm to the public if AF engaged in terrorist-related activity, and in view of his willingness and ability to do so; (c) that if he had concluded that the control order was no more than a restriction of movement, he would have regarded the general run of restrictions as necessary, but would have examined the detail and balance; and (d) that he did not regard the process under the 2005 Act as one in which AF had been without a substantial and sufficient measure of procedural protection.
[4] Ouseley J’s decision was appealed direct to the House of Lords under the ‘leap-frog’ procedure under s 12(3)(b) of the Administration of Justice Act 1969. The House gave judgment on 31 October 2007 in AF’s and other cases, reported as [2007] UKHL 45, [2008] 1 All ER 613, [2007] 3 WLR 642, [2007] UKHL 46, [2008] 1 All ER 657, [2007] 3 WLR 681, and [2007] UKHL 47, [2008] 1 All ER 699, [2007] 3 WLR 720. The House reversed Ouseley J’s decision on the issue whether control order PTA/33/2006 deprived AF of his liberty, and remitted his case to the Administrative Court for it to reconsider in accordance with the guidance contained in the opinions of the majority whether AF had been provided with a
Page 70 of [2008] 2 All ER 67
sufficient measure of procedural protection so as to comply with his rights under art 6 of the convention.
[5] The procedural situation before me is unusual, if not unique. The hearing was formally listed as a hearing for directions for the substantive hearing required under s 3 of the 2005 Act in relation to PTA/4/2007. However, as a result of the decision of the House of Lords, PTA/33/2006 was retrospectively provisionally revived until its expiry on 10 September 2007, and the issue remitted by the House of Lords must be decided. It was therefore appropriate to give directions for the determination of that issue also. The revival of PTA/33/2006 is provisional because if it is decided, in the light of their Lordships’ opinions, that AF has not received a sufficient measure of procedural protection, or if the evidence before the court applying the procedure prescribed by them does not justify the findings sought by the Home Secretary, it will again be quashed.
THE CONTENTIONS OF THE PARTIES
[6] Mr Otty QC, for AF, submitted that Ouseley J should be recused from hearing the s 3(10) proceedings in relation to PTA/4/2007. While not suggesting that the judge was in any way personally biased or prejudiced, Mr Otty contended that he is disqualified because a fair-minded and informed observer might entertain a reasonable apprehension of bias by reason of his pre-judgment. This risk, it was submitted, is particularly acute in a context such as the present where the court is effectively precluded from stating its full reasons for particular conclusions in an open judgment. The respondent is therefore unable to assess the fairness of the judge’s consideration and findings on the closed material before him. The court will, in PTA/4/2007, be considering the same central issues of reasonable suspicion and necessity as were in issue in PTA/33/2006. In doing so it will be considering the evidence of at least one of the witnesses whose credibility Ouseley J has already broadly endorsed. The court will also, presumably, be considering very similar or identical written evidence. By virtue of the terms of the 2005 Act neither AF nor the ‘reasonable observer’ is able to understand any aspect of the court’s reasoning on either reasonable suspicion or necessity in PTA/33/2006. The liberty of AF will be substantially affected by the result of these proceedings; they are akin to criminal proceedings; those facts, and the particular importance of decisions in this area commanding public confidence, make it particularly important that there should be no appearance of pre-judgment bias. The opinions in the House of Lords do not indicate that the remitted issue should be determined by a judge other than Ouseley J, but they heard no argument on the present issue.
[7] Mr Eicke, for the Home Secretary, submitted that PTA/33/2006 continues in force and should be treated as modified by PTA/4/2007 and subsequent modifications to that order. In addition, citing and relying on the guidance given by the Immigration Appeal Triubal (IAT) in its starred determination in Devaseelan v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] Imm AR 1, as approved by the Court of Appeal in Djebbar v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 804, [2004] All ER (D) 368 (Jun) (in relation to cases where, as here, the parties are identical), and AA (Somalia) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 1040, [2007] All ER (D) 395 (Oct), he submitted that the findings of Ouseley J in PTA/33/2006 are to be treated as ‘the starting point’ for the consideration of the issues raised in PTA/4/2007, irrespective of the identity of the judge, and therefore no question of unfair or illegitimate pre-judgment arises. The proceedings have been held by the House of Lords to be civil; these are public law
Page 71 of [2008] 2 All ER 67
proceedings to which the principle applied in the cases he cited are applicable. Mr Eicke pointed out the practical difficulties that could arise whenever there was a remission by the Court of Appeal or the House of Lords, or whenever a new control order is imposed, for example when a control order is revoked or not renewed because the Secretary of State considers it is no longer required, but then new information leads her to decide that a new control order is required.
[8] Mr Johnson, the Special Advocate, quite properly made no submissions on the issue of recusal.
[9] In reply, Mr Otty submitted that the terms of the 2005 Act require the court to give fresh consideration of the issues arising in connection with PTA/4/2007 unaffected by the findings of Ouseley J in PTA/33/2006. He distinguished the authorities cited by Mr Eicke as relating to different legislative provisions and different procedures, and as explicable by the volume of immigration cases with which the IAT and the courts have to deal. Lastly, he submitted that the appropriate judge to determine whether he was disqualified was, at least in the first place, Ouseley J himself.
DISCUSSION
[10] In my judgment, the question of recusal must be considered with the issue as to the status of the findings made by a judge on a hearing under s 3(10). If those findings, in so far as they are not overturned on appeal, are binding on the respondent, or at least the ‘starting point’ for the consideration of the issues in further proceedings, there is no basis for recusal on the basis of objective pre-judgment, since a different judge would equally be bound by the earlier findings.
[11] PTA/4/2007 cannot be considered as a modification of PTA/33/2006. It is a different control order. Section 7 of the 2005 Act contains provision for modifying control orders, but they have not been implemented, and could not be implemented, in order to convert PTA/33/2006 into PTA/4/2007.
[12] I have no doubt that Parliament did not envisage that a respondent might be simultaneously subject to two control orders, as in theory at least AF was until the expiry of PTA/33/2006, but the reversal of Ouseley J’s decision has that provisional effect. I say provisional, because the court may decide, applying the guidance of the House of Lords, that AF was not afforded a substantial and sufficient measure of procedural protection, or that evidence that was accepted as closed should be disclosed to him, or that closed evidence that was before Ouseley J can no longer be relied upon by the Secretary of State. Thus, following the decisions of the House of Lords, there may be different open and closed evidence before the court when it considers the remitted issue, and for this reason too there may be a different decision on the issue remitted by it than that reached by Ouseley J.
[13] It follows that the hearing in relation to both PTA/4/2007 and PTA/33/2006 will be pursuant to s 3(10) of the 2005 Act, which is as follows:
‘On a hearing in pursuance of directions under subsection (2)(c) or (6)(b) or (c), the function of the court is to determine whether any of the following decisions of the Secretary of State was flawed—(a) his decision that the requirements of section 2(1)(a) and (b) were satisfied for the making of the order; and (b) his decisions on the imposition of each of the obligations imposed by the order.’
Page 72 of [2008] 2 All ER 67
[14] The content of the cross-reference in para (a) to s 2(1) can be seen from that subsection:
‘The Secretary of State may make a control order against an individual if he—(a) has reasonable grounds for suspecting that the individual is or has been involved in terrorism-related activity; and (b) considers that it is necessary, for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, to make a control order imposing obligations on that individual.’
[15] As mentioned above, the wording of s 3(10) is contrasted by Mr Otty with that of s 10(4):
‘The function of the court on an appeal against the renewal of a non-derogating control order, or on an appeal against a decision not to revoke such an order, is to determine whether either or both of the following decisions of the Secretary of State was flawed—(a) his decision that it is necessary, for purposes connected with protecting members of the public from a risk of terrorism, for an order imposing obligations on the controlled person to continue in force; (b) his decision that the obligations to be imposed by the renewed order, or (as the case may be) the obligations imposed by the order to which the application for revocation relates, are necessary for purposes connected with preventing or restricting involvement by that person in terrorism-related activity.’
[16] It can be seen that s 10(4)(a) does not require the court to consider the lawfulness of the control order, but only the lawfulness of the renewal or refusal to revoke it. It assumes that until the renewal or refusal it was lawful, and that it was necessary for the order to be in force, and the court is required to address only the lawfulness of its continuation. It may be assumed that Parliament envisaged that, at least in the case of the renewal on an order, it had been upheld on the hearing under s 3(10). In contrast, no such assumption is made, or in my judgment may be made, for the purposes of s 3(10): the court must consider whether the control order was necessary (applying judicial review principles) when made and until a decision is made under that subsection.
[17] However, in my judgment this contrast, and the wording of s 3(10) itself, does not indicate that Parliament intended to exclude the normal principle of public law that a decision, and in particular a judicial decision, made between parties should be respected in subsequent proceedings. Clearer wording would have been used if this had been intended. The principle is demonstrated by the authorities cited by Mr Eicke referred to above, but is not confined to immigration or asylum cases (or indeed to public law): see the discussion in the judgment of Carnwath LJ in AA (Somalia)’s case. As Mr Eicke pointed out, the House of Lords has held that these proceedings are not criminal proceedings. I accept his submission that they are public law proceedings, although of course subject to special procedural provisions and considerations arising from their nature and effect. However, it is also the case that previous decisions in criminal proceedings may have the force of estoppel: see 11(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 1498.
[18] Mr Otty submitted that these authorities are to be explained by the volume of asylum and immigration cases, which makes it necessary to avoid or to minimise the re-litigation of issues. I do not think that those cases are to be so explained. They were decided on the basis of principle, not of expedience.
Page 73 of [2008] 2 All ER 67
Mr Otty also drew attention to the seriousness and importance of the issues in control order cases, which seriously affect the liberty of the individual. But asylum cases raise issues of equal or greater importance for the individual, who if returned to a country where he is liable to be persecuted may suffer torture, injury or even death.
[19] It follows that on a hearing under s 3(10), where there has been a previous hearing under the section in relation to an earlier control order, the starting point will be the findings of the court on the earlier hearing. Assuming no successful appeal against the findings in the first hearing, in the unlikely event of there being no difference in evidence or issues between the two hearings, the court would treat the earlier findings as binding. That being so, there is no objective reason why the judge who decided the issues in the earlier hearing adversely to the respondent (or to the Home Secretary) should be disqualified by pre-judgment from deciding the issues on the second hearing.
[20] This does not mean that in the present case on the s 3(10) hearing on PTA/4/2007 the court is bound to reach the same factual conclusions as those originally reached by Ouseley J in the hearing in relation to PTA/33/2006. The evidence will differ, in that it will have been brought up to date by both parties; there may be additional evidence quite apart from the consequences of the decision of the House of Lords; the Secretary of State may decide to disclose evidence that was previously closed, which may lead AF to supplement his evidence; he may decide to testify; the court may preclude the Secretary of State from relying on some evidence on which he was previously able to rely; and the court will have to consider the consequences of the passage of time during which AF has been subject to control orders. Inevitably, as all counsel recognise, the decisions of the court on the admissibility of evidence on which the Secretary of State seeks to rely will impact on the issue remitted by the House of Lords on PTA/33/2006.
[21] However, I do not consider on the material before me that Ouseley J is disqualified by pre-judgment from deciding the issues in PTA/4/2007 or the remitted issue on PTA/33/2006. If the House of Lords considered that he should be recused in relation to PTA/33/2006, they would have said so and the order of their Lordships would so provide. It does not. Judges are frequently called upon to exclude from their consideration evidence that they have seen or heard de bene esse. It is true that AF has been unable to assess the fairness of Ouseley J’s consideration and judgment of the closed evidence before him, since his judgment is itself closed, but I see no reason why he, or the hypothetical observer, should assume that he was other than fair and impartial. To the contrary, I think that in the absence of evidence to the contrary, they should assume that he was fair. I see no reason why it should be thought by the hypothetical objective informed observer that Ouseley J might not decide the issues on the future s 3(10) hearings fairly on the evidence before him.
[22] However, while I see no objective reason for the recusal of Ouseley J, if he were available to hear these cases, when an issue of pre-judgment or bias is raised, the judge must himself decide subjectively whether he is able to determine the issues before him unaffected by pre-judgment or bias: see Berg v IML London Ltd [2002] 4 All ER 87, [2002] 1 WLR 3271. Ouseley J has not considered that question.
[23] Secondly, as pointed out by the Divisional Court in A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWHC 1669 (Admin), questions of recusal are fact-specific: as Kennedy LJ said (at [23]):
Page 74 of [2008] 2 All ER 67
‘if the issue of recusal does arise it can only arise in relation to the particular facts of a given case and must be resolved in relation to what has happened. What previously has the judge decided; on what material?’
[24] At the present stage of these cases, it is not known what the differences will be between the evidence before Ouseley J and that which will be before the court on the substantive hearings. In these circumstances, I do not think it would be sensible to reach a final decision as to the recusal or otherwise of Ouseley J, were he otherwise available for those hearings. All I can say at the present stage of these proceedings is that in principle he would not be disqualified by pre-judgment.
CONCLUSION
[25] It follows that I answer the two issues identified at [1], above as follows. (a) A judge who decides issues arising on a hearing under s 3(10) of the 2005 Act adversely to the respondent (or to the Home Secretary) is not for that reason disqualified by pre-judgment from adjudicating in subsequent proceedings under the 2005 Act to which the respondent is a party. (b) Findings made by the court on issues arising on a hearing under s 3(10) are in principle to be regarded as binding between the Home Secretary and the respondent in relation to matters at the date of that hearing on a subsequent hearing under that subsection, subject to any differences in the evidence relevant to those issues before the court on each of those hearings.
Order accordingly.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Re Metronet Rail BCV Ltd (In PPP Administration);
Re Metronet Rail SSL Ltd (In PPP Administration)
[2008] 2 All ER 75
[2007] EWHC 2697 (Ch)
Categories: COMPANY; Partnerships
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): PATTEN J
Hearing Date(s): 12, 13, 23 NOVEMBER 2007
Company – Administration order – Public-private partnership administration order – Transfer scheme – Scheme for transfer of property, rights and liabilities from existing appointee to new appointee – Proposal that new appointee should carry on relevant activities of existing appointee – Company affected by proposal defined as ‘other appointee’ – Certain matters requiring consent of other appointee – Meaning of ‘other appointee’ – Greater London Authority Act 1999, Sch 15, paras 1(2), 2(1), (3).
Public-private partnership agreements (PPP agreements) were authorised by Ch VII of the Greater London Authority Act 1999 as a means of financing and carrying out the maintenance of infrastructure of the London underground train network as part of the transport strategy which the Mayor of London was required to prepare and publish. The 1999 Act established Transport for London (TfL), a body corporate required to exercise its functions for the purpose of facilitating or implementing the transport strategy. TfL formed London Underground Ltd (LUL) to carry out the relevant activities. The infrastructure assets of the network, which included the rolling stock, signalling systems, stations, tracks, depots, tunnels, bridges and other structures forming part of the network were vested in LUL. The operation of the underground system remained the responsibility of TfL and LUL but under the 1999 Act TfL was empowered to enter into contracts with companies for the provision, construction, renewal, improvement and maintenance of the infrastructure. The 1999 Act defined such contracts as PPP agreements; an eligible company which undertook to carry out or secure the carrying out of the work was a ‘PPP company’. LUL entered into PPP agreements with two PPP companies; some of the services were provided by the PPP companies themselves but much of the work was outsourced to sub-contractors. The 1999 Act included provision for ‘PPP administration orders’ whose purpose in relation to any company was the transfer to another company or companies as a going concern of so much of the company’s undertaking as it was necessary to transfer in order to ensure that the relevant activities could be properly carried on and the carrying on of those relevant activities pending the making of the transfer. In 2007 a PPP administration order was made in relation to the two PPP companies. Schedule 15 to the 1999 Act applied in any case where the court had made a PPP administration order in relation to a PPP company (the ‘existing appointee’) and (para 1(1)(b)a) it was proposed that another company (the ‘new appointee’)
Page 76 of [2008] 2 All ER 75
should carry on the relevant activities of the existing appointee, in place of the existing appointee. Paragraph 1(2) defined ‘other appointee’ as meaning ‘any company, other than the existing appointee or the new appointee, which may be affected by the proposal mentioned in sub-paragraph 1(b)’. Paragraph 2b then set out the provisions for the making and modification of transfer schemes. Under para 2(1) the existing appointee, acting with the consent of the new appointee and, in relation to the matters affecting them, of any other appointees, could make a scheme for the transfer of property, rights and liabilities from the existing appointee to the new appointee. A scheme under Sch 15 was not to take effect until it was approved by the Mayor of London and the mayor could with the consent of the new appointee and, in relation to the matters affecting them, of any other appointees, modify the scheme before approving it. Paragraph 3c dealt with transfers by scheme; a scheme for the transfer of the existing appointee’s property, rights and liabilities was to come into force on the relevant date and on coming into force, was to have effect in accordance with its provisions and without further assurance, so as to transfer the property, rights and liabilities to which the scheme related to the new appointee. For the purpose of making any division of property, rights or liabilities the scheme could create for the existing appointee, the new appointee or any other appointees an interest in or right over any property to which the scheme related, create new rights and liabilities as between any two or more of those companies, and make incidental provisions as to the interests, rights and liabilities of other persons with respect to the subject-matter of the scheme. The special PPP administrators of the two PPP companies preserved the contracts with the existing principal sub-contractors in order to maintain the infrastructure of the network pending the transfer of the undertaking of the two PPP companies t a new PPP companies. They sought to bring the administration to an end by making a transfer scheme under Sch 15. They identified three classes of creditors who might be affected: sub-contractors with pre-administration claims; sub-contractors which had terminated their sub-contracts; and companies which had provided finance. The PPP administrators wished to know whether they could be required to obtain the consent of any of those creditors as ‘other appointees’ within Sch 15. They applied to the court for a determination. The creditors contended, inter alia, that the wide clear words of the definition of ‘other appointee’ in para 1(2) of Sch 15 included ‘any company’ which might be affected by the proposal and was not limited to PPP companies.
Held – On the true construction of Sch 15 to the 1999 Act the only companies which could fall within the definition of ‘other appointee’ in para 1(2) were PPP companies in whose favour there was under the scheme a transfer of property, rights and liabilities from the existing appointee in exercise of the powers contained in paras 2 and 3; no other companies could be ‘affected by the proposal’. The transfer of property rights and liabilities under the powers in paras 2 and 3 could only occur in the context of a reorganisation of the responsibility for the maintenance of the infrastructure by reference to the relevant activities which each of the appointees would carry out under the scheme and as those activities could only be performed under a PPP agreement
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each of the appointees referred to in para 2(1) either was or would become a PPP company (see [27], [37]–[44], [51], [52], below).
Dicta of Lord Bingham in R (on the application of Quintavalle) v Secretary of State for Health [2003] 2 All ER 113 at [7], [8], applied.
Notes
For public-private partnership agreements, see Supp to 39(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 368A.
For the Greater London Authority Act 1999, Sch 15, paras 1, 2, 3, see 26 Halsbury’s Statutes (4 th edn) (2002 reissue) 1423, 1424, 1425.
Cases referred to in judgment
Duport Steels Ltd v Sirs [1980] 1 All ER 529, [1980] ICR 161, [1980] 1 WLR 142, HL.
R (on the application of Quintavalle) v Secretary of State for Health [2003] UKHL 13, [2003] 2 All ER 113, [2003] 2 AC 687, [2003] 2 WLR 692.
Scher v Policyholders Protection Board (No 2) [1993] 4 All ER 840, [1994] 2 AC 57, [1993] 3 WLR 1030, HL.
T&N Ltd, Re [2005] EWHC 2870 (Ch), [2006] 3 All ER 697, [2006] 1 WLR 1728.
Wolman v Islington London BC [2007] EWCA Civ 823, [2008] 1 All ER 1259.
Application
Alan Bloom, Roy Bailey, Margaret Mills and Stephen Harris, the special public-private partnership (PPP) administrators of Metronet Rail BCV Ltd and Metronet Rail SSL Ltd, applied to the court seeking a determination as to whether the words ‘other appointee’ in Sch 15 to the Greater London Authority Act 1999 should be construed as meaning any PPP company other than the existing appointee or the new appointee (as defined in para 1(2) of Sch 15) which may be affected by the proposal referred to in sub-para 1(1)(b) of Sch 15 or whether those words had some other and if so what other meaning. The respondents to the application were Transport for London (TfL), London Underground Ltd (LUL) and certain creditors of the companies in special PPP administration. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Gabriel Moss QC and David Allison (instructed by Allen & Overy LLP) for the special administrators.
William Trower QC and Tom Smith (instructed by TfL and LUL) for TfL and LUL.
Mark Phillips QC (instructed by Allen & Overy LLP) for Balfour Beatty plc.
Antony Zacaroli QC and Simon Johnson (instructed by Denton Wilde Sapte) for Thames Water Ltd and EDF Energy plc.
Simon Mortimore QC (instructed by Shadbolt & Co LLP) for Trans4M Ltd.
Richard Adkins QC (instructed by Norton Rose LLP) for Bombardier Transportation (Holdings) UK Ltd.
Richard Sheldon QC (instructed by Taylor Wessing LLP) for Metronet Rail BCV Finance plc and Metronet Rail SSL Finance plc.
Judgment was reserved.
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23 November 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
PATTEN J.
INTRODUCTION
[1] On 18 July 2007 Lightman J made a PPP administration order (as defined by s 220 of the Greater London Authority Act 1999) in respect of two of the three PPP companies involved in the maintenance of the London underground train network. The companies in question are Metronet Rail BCV Ltd (BCV) which has a contractual responsibility for the Bakerloo, Central, Victoria and Waterloo and City lines and Metronet Rail SSL Ltd (SSL) which is responsible for the District, Circle, Metropolitan, Hammersmith and City and East London lines. The third PPP company (which is not affected by the administration order) is Tube Lines Ltd (TLL) whose contract covers the Jubilee, Northern and Piccadilly lines.
[2] Public-private partnership agreements (commonly referred to as PPP agreements) were authorised by Ch VII of the 1999 Act as a means of financing and carrying out the maintenance of the infrastructure of the underground network as part of the Mayor of London’s transport strategy. Section 154 of the 1999 Act established a body corporate known as Transport for London (TFL) which is required to exercise its functions for the purpose of securing or facilitating the implementation of the transport strategy: see s 154(3). This is a reference to s 141 of the 1999 Act which imposes on the Mayor the duty to develop and implement policies for the promotion of safe, integrated, efficient and economic transport facilities and services to, from and within Greater London and confers on the Greater London Authority powers which are exercisable for that purpose.
[3] The Mayor is required to prepare and publish a transport strategy setting out his policies and proposals (see s 142(1)) and subject to the power of the Secretary of State for Transport to direct revisions of the transport strategy (see s 143) it is then implemented by TFL on behalf of the Greater London Authority. TFL is empowered under s 156(1) of the 1999 Act to form a company to carry out the relevant activities and for this purpose it has operated through London Underground Ltd (LUL) a wholly-owned subsidiary.
[4] LUL has vested in it what are described in the evidence as the infrastructure assets. These include the rolling stock, signalling systems, stations, tracks, depots, tunnels, bridges and other structures forming part of the network. The operation of the underground system remains the responsibility of TFL and LUL but as part of the government’s public private partnership initiative TFL was empowered under s 210 of the 1999 Act to enter into contracts with companies for the provision, construction, renewal, improvement and maintenance of the infrastructure. Section 210 provides that:
‘(1) For the purposes of this Chapter a public-private partnership agreement (referred to as a “PPP agreement”) is a contract in the case of which the conditions set out in the following provisions of this section are satisfied.
(2) At least one of the parties to the contract must be a relevant body for the purposes of this Chapter, that is to say—(a) London Regional Transport; (b) Transport for London; or (c) a subsidiary of London Regional Transport or Transport for London.
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(3) The contract must be one which involves—(a) the provision, construction, renewal, or improvement, and (b) the maintenance, of a railway or proposed railway and, if or to the extent that the contract so provides, of any stations, rolling stock or depots used or to be used in connection with that railway.
(4) The railway or proposed railway must be one which—(a) belongs or will belong to, or to a subsidiary of, London Regional Transport or Transport for London, or (b) is being provided, constructed, renewed or improved under the contract for, or for a subsidiary of, London Regional Transport or Transport for London.
(5) If a party who undertakes to carry out or secure the carrying out of any or all of the work mentioned in subsection (3) above (a “PPP company”) is a public sector operator at the time when the contract is made, that party must no longer be a public sector operator on the day following the expiration of the period of six weeks beginning with the day on which the condition in subsection (6) below is satisfied.
(6) The contract must be one which is, or is of a description which is, designated as a PPP agreement.’
[5] Under these powers LUL entered into 30-year agreements with BCV and SSL in respect of the lines referred to above. The contracts themselves are not in evidence but in summary they provide for the achievement of specified levels of performance in relation to the serviceability and condition of the infrastructure; the introduction of major upgrades to the network; various specific projects including train fleet replacement and refurbishment and the improvement of stations; and more generally asset management and maintenance.
[6] Some of these services are provided by the PPP companies themselves but much of the work involved is outsourced to sub-contractors. The principal sub-contractors involved are WS Atkins plc, Balfour Beatty, Bombardier, Thames Water and EDF. These five companies are also the ultimate shareholders in BCV and SSL. The sub-contracts relate to a number of different projects. Balfour Beatty, for example, has contracts (for seven-and-a-half years from April 2003) to carry out track renewal on all nine underground lines covered by the PPP agreements with BCV and SSL; to upgrade the Victoria line; and to modernise Earl’s Court station. For these purposes it has seconded managerial staff to the PPP companies under a secondment agreement and also provides project-management services and procurement support. It estimates that the two PPP companies have pre-administration liabilities to it under the various sub-contracts of approximately £44·5m.
[7] Another significant sub-contractor was Trans4M Ltd (Trans4M) which is a special purpose vehicle owned by a consortium made up of WS Atkins plc, Balfour Beatty, Thames Water and EDF. Its contracts (which were also for a period of seven-and-a-half years from April 2003) related to station upgrades and civil engineering work, much of which was then in turn sub-contracted out to its shareholder companies. The contracts with the PPP companies were terminated by Trans4M on 30 August 2007 but there are outstanding obligations and liabilities in respect (eg) of snagging work which remains to be completed. Subject to this, Trans4M claims to be a substantial creditor of both BCV and SSL for sums in excess of £150m.
[8] In addition to the sub-contracts there are also complex financial arrangements in place under which two companies (Metronet Rail BCV
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Finance plc and Metronet Rail SSL Finance plc) (the Fincos) have provided in excess of £1·6bn to the two PPP companies in order to finance their obligations under the PPP agreements with LUL. As I understand it much of this was raised directly from the European Investment Bank (EIB) and a syndicate of banks and from the issue of bonds but at least £100m was provided as a loan by the ultimate shareholders in the PPP companies to the Fincos with each shareholder contributing £20m in respect of both BCV and SSL. The shareholder loans are, of course, subordinated to the bank and bond-holder liabilities.
[9] As between the Fincos and the PPP companies the loans are unsecured but both the borrowings from the EIB and the other banks and those from the bond holders are secured by guarantees and fixed and floating charges over the assets and undertaking of the Fincos and the two PPP companies.
[10] Under the order of Lightman J of 18 July 2007 four partners in Ernst & Young LLP (Mr Alan Bloom, Mr Roy Bailey, Ms Margaret Mills and Mr Stephen Harris) were appointed special PPP administrators of BCV and SSL. The power of the court to make such an order is contained in s 220 of the 1999 Act as follows:
‘(1) A “PPP administration order” is an order of the court made in accordance with section 221, 222 or 223 below in relation to a PPP company and directing that, during the period for which the order is in force, the affairs, business and property of the company shall be managed, by a person appointed by the court,—(a) for the achievement of the purposes of such an order; and (b) in a manner which protects the respective interests of the members and creditors of the company.
(2) The purposes of a PPP administration order made in relation to any company shall be—(a) the transfer to another company, or (as respects different parts of its undertaking) to two or more different companies, as a going concern, of so much of the company’s undertaking as it is necessary to transfer in order to ensure that the relevant activities may be properly carried on; and (b) the carrying on of those relevant activities pending the making of the transfer.
(3) Schedule 14 to this Act shall have effect for applying provisions of the Insolvency Act 1986 where a PPP administration order is made.
(4) Schedule 15 to this Act shall have effect for enabling provision to be made with respect to cases in which, in pursuance of a PPP administration order, another company is to carry on all or any of the relevant activities of a PPP company in place of that company.
(5) Without prejudice to paragraph 20 of Schedule 14 to this Act, the power conferred by section 411 of the Insolvency Act 1986 to make rules shall apply for the purpose of giving effect to the PPP administration order provisions of this Act as it applies for the purpose of giving effect to Parts I to VII of that Act, but taking any reference in that section to those Parts as a reference to those provisions.
(6) For the purposes of this Chapter, the “relevant activities”, in relation to a PPP company, are the activities carried out, or to be carried out, by that company in performing its obligations under the PPP agreement to which it is party.
(7) In this section—
“business” and “property” have the same meaning as they have in the Insolvency Act 1986;
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“the court”, in the case of any PPP company, means the court having jurisdiction to wind up the company;
“the PPP administration order provisions of this Act” means this section, sections 221 to 224 below and Schedules 14 and 15 to this Act.’
[11] It is worth noting at this stage that although s 220 provides what is in effect a separate and self-contained code governing the administration of a PPP company, it does so by incorporating with certain modifications some of the provisions of the Insolvency Act 1986. These are set out in Sch 14 to the 1999 Act and include ss 11–23 and 27 of the 1986 Act in its pre-Enterprise Act form. Section 220 therefore substitutes its own statutory purposes for those contained in s 8(3) of the 1986 Act but preserves with amendment the power of the administrators to dispose of secured property (s 15 of the 1986 Act) and the duty to manage the affairs, business and property of the company (s 17 of the 1986 Act).
[12] The administrators are also required within three months of their appointment to send a statement of their proposals for achieving the purposes of the order both to the Mayor and to the creditors of the company but are not required to summon a meeting of creditors for that purpose: see para 9 of Sch 14. Nor is there any provision under Sch 14 for the formation of a creditors’ committee. Section 27 of the 1986 Act is incorporated with amendments which give the Mayor a right to apply to the court on the ground that the PPP special administrators have exercised or are exercising their powers in a manner which will not best ensure the achievement of the purposes of the administration order and a right to be heard on any application to the court by creditors under s 27(1) on the ground that the companies’ affairs are being or are about to be managed in a way which is unfairly prejudicial to their interests. The protection given to creditors by s 27 is therefore preserved subject to the Mayor having the right to intervene in any application for an order regulating the conduct of the administrators.
[13] With a view to achieving the statutory purposes described in s 220(2) above, the administrators have preserved the contracts with the principal sub-contractors in order to maintain the infrastructure of the network pending the transfer of the undertaking of BCV and SSL to a new PPP company. The PPP companies have funding in the form of loans from TFL for a period of six months ending on 18 January 2008. Although this finance is likely to be extended if required, the special administrators in performance of their duties under s 220(1) and (2) are seeking to bring the administration to an end prior to that date by transferring the undertaking of BCV and SSL to one or more companies as a going concern in a way which ensures that the relevant activities (as defined by s 220(6)) are carried on by those companies. For this purpose they intend to make a transfer scheme under the powers contained in Sch 15 to the 1999 Act by which some or all of the property, rights and liabilities of BCV and SSL will be transferred.
THE TRANSFER SCHEME
[14] So far as material to the issues arising on this application Sch 15 provides as follows:
‘Application of Schedule
1.—(1) This Schedule shall apply in any case where—(a) the court has made a PPP administration order in relation to a PPP company
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(“the existing appointee”); and (b) it is proposed that, on and after a date appointed by the court, another company (“the new appointee”) should carry on the relevant activities of the existing appointee, in place of the existing appointee.
(2) In this Schedule—
“the court”, in the case of any PPP company, means the court having jurisdiction to wind up the company;
“other appointee” means any company, other than the existing appointee or the new appointee, which may be affected by the proposal mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b) above;
“the relevant date” means such day, being a day before the discharge of the PPP administration order takes effect, as the court may appoint for the purposes of this Schedule; and
“special PPP administrator”, in relation to a company in relation to which a PPP administration order has been made, means the person for the time being holding office for the purposes of section 220(1) of this Act.
Making and modification of transfer schemes
2.—(1) The existing appointee, acting with the consent of the new appointee and, in relation to the matters affecting them, of any other appointees, may make a scheme under this Schedule for the transfer of property, rights and liabilities from the existing appointee to the new appointee.
(2) A scheme under this Schedule shall not take effect unless it is approved by the Mayor.
(3) Where a scheme under this Schedule is submitted to the Mayor for his approval, he may, with the consent of the new appointee, of the existing appointee and, in relation to the matters affecting them, of any other appointees, modify the scheme before approving it.
(4) If at any time after a scheme under this Schedule has come into force in relation to the property, rights and liabilities of any company the Mayor considers it appropriate to do so and the existing appointee, the new appointee and, in relation to the provisions of the order which affect them, any other appointees consent to the making of the order, the Mayor may by order provide that that scheme shall for all purposes be deemed to have come into force with such modifications as may be specified in the order.
(5) An order under sub-paragraph (4) above may make, with effect from the coming into force of the scheme to which it relates, any such provision as could have been made by the scheme and, in connection with giving effect to that provision from that time, may contain such supplemental, consequential and transitional provision as the Mayor considers appropriate.
(6) In determining, in accordance with the duties imposed upon him by or under this Act or any other enactment (whenever passed or made), whether and in what manner to exercise any power conferred on him by this paragraph, the Mayor shall have regard to the need to ensure that any provision for the transfer of property, rights and liabilities in accordance with a scheme under this Schedule allocates property, rights and liabilities to the different companies affected by the scheme in such proportions as appear to him to be appropriate in the context of the different relevant activities of the existing appointee which will, by virtue of this Act, be
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carried out at different times on and after the relevant date by the new appointee, by the existing appointee and by any other appointees.
(7) It shall be the duty of the new appointee, of the existing appointee and of any other appointees to provide the Mayor with all such information and other assistance as he may reasonably require for the purposes of, or in connection with, the exercise of any power conferred on him by this paragraph.
(8) Without prejudice to the other provisions of this Act relating to the special PPP administrator of a company, anything which is required by this paragraph to be done by a company shall, where that company is a company in relation to which a PPP administration order is in force, be effective only if it is done on the company’s behalf by its special PPP administrator.
Transfers by scheme
3.—(1) A scheme under this Schedule for the transfer of the existing appointee’s property, rights and liabilities shall come into force on the relevant date and, on coming into force, shall have effect, in accordance with its provisions and without further assurance, so as to transfer the property, rights and liabilities to which the scheme relates to the new appointee.
(2) For the purpose of making any division of property, rights or liabilities which it is considered appropriate to make in connection with the transfer of property, rights and liabilities in accordance with a scheme under this Schedule, the provisions of that scheme may—(a) create for the existing appointee, the new appointee or any other appointees an interest in or right over any property to which the scheme relates; (b) create new rights and liabilities as between any two or more of those companies; and (c) in connection with any provision made by virtue of paragraph (a) or (b) above, make incidental provision as to the interests, rights and liabilities of other persons with respect to the subject-matter of the scheme.
(3) The property, rights and liabilities of the existing appointee that shall be capable of being transferred in accordance with a scheme under this Schedule shall include—(a) property, rights and liabilities that would not otherwise be capable of being transferred or assigned by the existing appointee; (b) such property, rights and liabilities to which the existing appointee may become entitled or subject after the making of the scheme and before the relevant date as may be described in the scheme; (c) property situated anywhere in the United Kingdom or elsewhere; (d) rights and liabilities under the law of any part of the United Kingdom or of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
(4) The provision that may be made by virtue of sub-paragraph (2)(b) above includes—(a) provision for treating any person who is entitled by virtue of a scheme under this Schedule to possession of a document as having given another person an acknowledgement in writing of the right of that other person to the production of the document and to delivery of copies thereof; and (b) provision applying section 64 of the Law of Property Act 1925 (production and safe custody of documents) in relation to any case in relation to which provision falling within paragraph (a) above has effect.
(5) For the avoidance of doubt, it is hereby declared that the transfers authorised by paragraph (a) of sub-paragraph (3) above include transfers which, by virtue of that paragraph, are to take effect as if there were no such contravention, liability or interference with any interest or right as there
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would be, in the case of a transfer or assignment otherwise than in accordance with a scheme under this Schedule, by reason of any provision having effect (whether under any enactment or agreement or otherwise) in relation to the terms on which the existing appointee is entitled or subject to the property, right or liability in question.
Transfer of licences
4.—(1) A scheme under this Schedule may provide for a licence held by the existing appointee to have effect as if it had been granted to the new appointee.
(2) Different schemes under this Schedule may provide for a licence held by the same existing appointee to have effect as if it had been granted as a separate licence to each of the new appointees under those schemes.
(3) In this paragraph “licence” means a licence under section 8 of the Railways Act 1993.
Supplemental provisions of schemes
5.—(1) A scheme under this Schedule may contain supplemental, consequential and transitional provision for the purposes of, or in connection with, the provision for the transfers or any other provision made by the scheme.
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph (1) above, a scheme under this Schedule may provide—(a) that for purposes connected with any transfers made in accordance with the scheme (including the transfer of rights and liabilities under an enactment) the new appointee is to be treated as the same person in law as the existing appointee; (b) that, so far as may be necessary for the purposes of or in connection with any such transfers, agreements made, transactions effected and other things done by or in relation to the existing appointee are to be treated as made, effected or done by or in relation to the new appointee; (c) that, so far as may be necessary for the purposes of or in connection with any such transfers, references in any agreement (whether or not in writing) or in any deed, bond, instrument or other document to, or to any officer of, the existing appointee are to have effect with such modifications as are specified in the scheme; (d) that proceedings commenced by or against the existing appointee are to be continued by or against the new appointee; (e) that the effect of any transfer under the scheme in relation to contracts of employment with the existing appointee is not to be to terminate any of those contracts but is to be that periods of employment with the existing appointee are to count for all purposes as periods of employment with the new appointee; (f) that disputes as to the effect of the scheme between the existing appointee and the new appointee, between either of them and any other appointee or between different companies which are other appointees are to be referred to such arbitration as may be specified in or determined under the scheme; (g) that determinations on such arbitrations and certificates given jointly by two or more such appointees as are mentioned in paragraph (f) above as to the effect of the scheme as between the companies giving the certificates are to be conclusive for all purposes.
Duties of existing appointee after the scheme comes into force
6 . . .
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Functions exercisable by virtue of PPP agreements
7.—(1) A scheme under this Schedule may provide that any functions exercisable by the existing appointee by virtue of a PPP agreement shall instead be—(a) exercisable by the new appointee or any of the other appointees; (b) concurrently exercisable by two or more companies falling within paragraph (a) above; or (c) concurrently exercisable by the existing appointee and one or more companies falling within paragraph (a) above;
and different schemes under this Schedule may provide for any such functions exercisable by the same existing appointee to have effect as mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (c) above in relation to each of the new appointees under those schemes or of all or any of the other appointees.
(2) Sub-paragraph (1) above applies in relation to any function under a statutory provision if and to the extent that the statutory provision—(a) relates to any part of the existing appointee’s undertaking, or to any property, which is to be transferred by the scheme; or (b) authorises the carrying out of works designed to be used in connection with any such part of the existing appointee’s undertaking or the acquisition of land for the purpose of carrying out any such works.
(3) A scheme under this Schedule may define any functions exercisable by the existing appointee which are instead to be made exercisable or concurrently exercisable by the scheme in accordance with sub-paragraph (1) above—(a) by specifying the statutory provisions in question; (b) by referring to all the statutory provisions which—
(i) relate to any part of the existing appointee’s undertaking, or to any property, which is to be transferred by the scheme, or
(ii) authorise the carrying out of works designed to be used in connection with any such part of the existing appointee’s undertaking or the acquisition of land for the purpose of carrying out any such works; or
(c) by referring to all the statutory provisions within paragraph (b) above, but specifying certain excepted provisions.
(4) In this paragraph “statutory provision” means a provision whether of a general or of a special nature contained in, or in any document made or issued under, any Act, whether of a general or a special nature.’
[15] As part of the scheme to be made under para 2(1) the special administrators are likely to need to transfer to the new appointee as defined some if not all of the network of sub-contractors currently engaged by BCV and SSL. Any transfers of these contractual arrangements (or indeed of any other contracts or property rights of the PPP companies) will be able to take advantage of the provisions of para 3 and in particular those of sub-paras 3(1), (2) and (5) which override any prohibitions on transfer or assignment contained in the relevant agreements or imposed as a matter of general law and in the case of the liabilities of BCV and SSL under the contracts to which they are parties, obviate the need for a novation of the existing arrangements.
[16] The power to make such a scheme is however dependant on the consent, not only of the existing appointee and the new appointee as defined, but also on that of any ‘other appointees’ at least ‘in relation to the matters affecting them’: see para 2(1). A similar power of veto exists in relation to the power of the Mayor to modify the proposed scheme before approving it: see para 2(3).
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[17] The special administrators have identified three classes of creditors who may be affected by the proposed transfer scheme. They are:
(i) The shareholder creditors in BCV and SSL (WS Atkins plc, Balfour Beatty, Bombardier, Thames Water and EDF) who have pre-administration claims in respect of sub-contracts;
(ii) Trans4M whose claims arise under its terminated sub-contracts with BCV and SSL; and
(iii) The Fincos who are creditors in respect of the finance provided.
[18] In facilitating the scheme the administrators wish to know whether they may be required to obtain the consent of any of these creditors (or for that matter of any other affected parties) as other appointees within the meaning of Sch 15. They have been advised by counsel that on the true construction of the statutory provisions ‘other appointee’ has a relatively narrow meaning and is restricted to companies which either are or will as a result of the scheme become party to a PPP agreement: ie a PPP company within the meaning of s 210(5) of the 1999 Act. This would not therefore include either the existing sub-contractors, Trans4M or the Fincos none of whom would come into a direct contractual relationship within TFL or LUL which is a pre-requisite for any contract to be a PPP agreement under s 210: see s 210(1) and (2).
[19] The administrators have therefore issued this application seeking a determination by the court pursuant to s 14(3) of the 1986 Act as to whether the words ‘other appointee’ in Sch 15 should be construed as meaning any PPP company other than the existing appointee or the new appointee (as defined in para 1(2) of Sch 15) which may be affected by the proposal referred to in sub-para 1(1)(b) of Sch 15 or whether those words have some other and if so what other meaning.
[20] On 10 October 2007 Blackburne J directed the administrators to give notice of the application to TLL, LUL, TFL, the Fincos, the shareholder creditors of BCV and SSL and Trans4M and each of these parties (with the exception of TLL and WS Atkins plc) has been represented at the hearing before me. Although their arguments differ in points of detail, TFL and LUL support the construction advanced by the administrators. But each of the creditors including the Fincos contends that the phrase ‘other appointee’ is wide enough in its meaning to include them if and so far as it turns out that they are (to use the words of para 2(1)) affected by the scheme.
[21] This last condition obviously requires to be tested against the detailed provisions of the proposed scheme which are not as yet formulated. In the light of this, all of the respondents (except for TFL and LUL) submitted that I should refrain from attempting to make any decision as to what might or might not bring them within the ambit of para 2(1) on a purely hypothetical basis. Mr Phillips QC on behalf of Balfour Beatty went so far as to submit that it would be wrong in principle for me to decide any of the points of construction raised by the application and that the proper course was for me to dismiss it as premature. He referred me to the decision of the House of Lords in Scher v Policyholders Protection Board (No 2) [1993] 4 All ER 840, [1994] 2 AC 57 in which Lord Mustill criticised an attempt by the judge in that case to construe a statute in a vacuum divorced from any proper factual basis.
[22] The dangers inherent in taking such a course are obvious. Statutory provisions are intended to operate in relation to real persons and events and have to be considered in that context. To construe the provisions in the abstract risks
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giving the words used an over-wide or unrealistic interpretation which may also prove to be unnecessary and of no practical value when the real facts come to be ascertained and applied. A similar warning can be found in the judgment of Moore-Bick LJ in Wolman v Islington London BC [2007] EWCA Civ 823 at [11], [2008] 1 All ER 1259 at [11].
[23] But in this case I am not being asked to construe the meaning of the words ‘other appointee’ in a vacuum or without any factual context. The position of the respondent creditors is known. With the exception of Trans4M they are existing sub-contractors and financiers whose contractual relationship with the existing PPP companies is in evidence. It is a given in these proceedings that the transfer scheme will either involve the transfer of their contracts with BCV and SSL to a new PPP company or in the case of Trans4M and perhaps the Fincos leave them to exercise their rights as creditors of BCV and SSL. It is in that context and that context alone, that the question whether they are other appointees within the meaning of Sch 15 arises. I do therefore have the necessary material in order to decide that question. What I am not I think able to decide, at least definitively, in advance of seeing the details of the scheme, is whether any individual respondent is likely to be affected by the scheme within the meaning of Sch 15 if they are otherwise capable of being other appointees. But if the words ‘affecting them’ in para 2(1) (as the creditor respondents contend) are to be given their natural meaning and not construed as meaning ‘adversely affected’ then they really add very little to the definition of ‘other appointees’ beyond establishing that their contracts and therefore they must be included in the scheme. On that basis, the only relevant fact to emerge from the publication of the scheme is likely to be whether or not they are included in it. This re-inforces my view that the court can and should now give guidance to the administrators on the principal issues of construction which have arisen between them and the respondents.
[24] I do not therefore propose either to dismiss the application or to adjourn it until after the terms of the scheme are known.
OTHER APPOINTEE
[25] It is common ground that the structure and most of the provisions of Sch 15 are derived from Sch 7 to the Railways Act 1993 and can be traced back before that to the Water Industry Act 1991. Section 59 of the 1993 Act contains similar provisions to s 220 of the 1999 Act which empower the court to make what is described as a railway administration order the purpose of which is to transfer to another company as a going concern the undertaking of a protected railway company as defined. A protected railway company is required to hold an operating licence granted by the Secretary of State under s 8 of the 1993 Act and in para 2(1) of Sch 7 (which incorporates in the same form as Sch 15 the defined terms of existing appointee and new appointee) the power exists in exactly the same terms as para 2(1) of Sch 15 for the existing appointee with the specified consents to make a transfer scheme. For this purpose ‘other appointee’ is defined in para 1(2) of Sch 7 as:
‘any company, other than the existing appointee or the new appointee, which is the holder of a licence under section 8 of this Act . . . and which may be affected by the proposal mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b) above . . .’
[26] The earlier provisions of the 1993 Act which clearly provided the draftsman of the 1999 Act with a template for the PPP legislation are relied upon
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by both sides in support of their construction of Sch 15, but I prefer in the first instance to consider the provisions of Sch 15 without reference to the earlier legislation.
[27] The starting point has to be s 220 which sets out the purposes of a PPP administration order. Section 220(1) requires the special administrators to manage the affairs, business and property of the PPP company affected by the order for the achievement of the purposes of the order and in a manner which protects the respective interests of the members and creditors of the company. The interests of creditors have therefore to be taken into account by the administrators in their management of the affairs of the company and the creditors can enforce this obligation in cases of unfair prejudice by applying to the court under s 27 of the 1986 Act as incorporated under Sch 14.
[28] Under s 23 of the 1986 Act (as amended by Sch 14) the administrators are required to prepare a statement of their proposals for achieving the purposes of the administration order but as mentioned earlier there is no requirement to summon a meeting of creditors to review the proposals. The approval of the proposals by creditors as such is not a feature of a PPP administration order. Section 24 of the 1986 Act is not incorporated and although the creditors have to be served with the statement of proposals and have the right to apply to the court under s 27, the Mayor is entitled to be heard on any such application and may even make his own application in order to ensure that the statutory purposes are carried out.
[29] It seems to me that there could easily in certain circumstances be a tension between the need to secure the transfer of the existing appointee’s undertaking to the new appointee in order to maintain the underground network and the interests of creditors in obtaining the best return from an otherwise insolvent company. The court on an application under s 27 would have to balance those interests (so far as inconsistent with each other) in deciding what (if any) order to make. But it is also important to observe that the court on a s 27 application under Sch 14 to the 1999 Act is not empowered to dictate the terms of any proposed transfer scheme. The most that the court can do is to discharge the PPP administration order unless measures are taken to protect the interests of creditors: see para 10(4) of Sch 14. It would only, I think, be in extreme circumstances that such an order would ever come to be made.
[30] The approval of a transfer scheme under Sch 15 is a matter for the existing, new and other appointees as defined and for the Mayor: see paras 2(1) and (2). The real issue therefore on this application is whether the class of ‘other appointees’ is intended to extend to companies in the position of the respondents who are either purely creditors for pre-administration debts or continue in a contractual or other relationship which falls within the scope of the ‘property, rights and liabilities’ whose transfer is part of the scheme.
[31] The submissions advanced by the various respondents all place great emphasis on what they say are the wide and clear words of the definition of ‘other appointee’ in para 1(2). It includes, it is stressed, ‘any company’ which may be affected by the proposal and is not limited in terms to any PPP company which could so easily (had that been the draftsman’s intention) been inserted into the definition.
[32] The court is asked to give effect to what is said to be the plain meaning of the words used. I was referred to a number of familiar authorities in which the House of Lords has stressed that where Parliament has used clear and
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unambiguous language the court should not attempt to depart from it by seeking to find ambiguities where none exists. In such cases there is no alternative but to give effect to the Act as drafted. So in Duport Steels Ltd v Sirs [1980] 1 All ER 529 at 541, [1980] ICR 161 at 177 Lord Diplock said that:
‘Where the meaning of the statutory words is plain and unambiguous it is not for the judges to invent fancied ambiguities as an excuse for failing to give effect to its plain meaning because they themselves consider that the consequences of doing so would be inexpedient, or even unjust or immoral.’
[33] There has been no suggestion of any mistake having been made in the drafting of the legislation nor is this a case in which the literal meaning of the words used relied on by the respondents would produce such an absurd result that it should be rejected in favour of some other construction. But in every case the task of the court is to give effect to the intention of Parliament as recorded in the statute. Because the medium of communication is the written word this process is necessarily highly contextual. In one sense any construction of the words used can be described as literal and I have no difficulty with that term if it means no more than one should attempt to give meaning and effect to the words which the draftsman actually used rather than re-formulating the grammar or phraseology or even inserting additional words which are not there. But the words actually used cannot be construed in a vacuum. The product of the draftsman is the totality of the legislation and each part of it has to be read consistently with the other provisions to which it relates and from which it derives its meaning.
[34] This point has been explained very clearly by Lord Bingham of Cornhill in his speech in R (on the application of Quintavalle) v Secretary of State for Health [2003] UKHL 13, [2003] 2 All ER 113, [2003] 2 AC 687 where he said this:
‘[7] Such is the skill of Parliamentary draftsmen that most statutory enactments are expressed in language which is clear and unambiguous and gives rise to no serious controversy. But these are not the provisions which reach the courts, or at any rate the appellate courts. Where parties expend substantial resources arguing about the effect of a statutory provision it is usually because the provision is, or is said to be, capable of bearing two or more different meanings, or to be of doubtful application to the particular case which has now arisen, perhaps because the statutory language is said to be inapt to apply to it, sometimes because the situation which has arisen is one which the draftsman could not have foreseen and for which he has accordingly made no express provision.
[8] The basic task of the court is to ascertain and give effect to the true meaning of what Parliament has said in the enactment to be construed. But that is not to say that attention should be confined and a literal interpretation given to the particular provisions which give rise to difficulty. Such an approach not only encourages immense prolixity in drafting, since the draftsman will feel obliged to provide expressly for every contingency which may possibly arise. It may also (under the banner of loyalty to the will of Parliament) lead to the frustration of that will, because undue concentration on the minutiae of the enactment may lead the court to neglect the purpose which Parliament intended to achieve when it enacted the statute. Every statute other than a pure consolidating statute is, after all, enacted to make some change, or address some problem, or remove some blemish, or effect
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some improvement in the national life. The court’s task, within the permissible bounds of interpretation, is to give effect to Parliament’s purpose. So the controversial provisions should be read in the context of the statute as a whole, and the statute as a whole should be read in the historical context of the situation which led to its enactment.’
[35] The meaning of the words ‘other appointee’ cannot therefore be based simply on an isolated and literal reading of the definition contained in para 1(2). The reference to it being any company which may be affected by the proposal requires one to look at what is meant by the proposal and what role Parliament contemplates the other appointee will have in any proposed scheme. To do otherwise would be to allow the proverbial tail to wag the dog.
[36] The definition of ‘other appointee’ in para 1(2) contains an express reference back to the proposal mentioned in para 1(1)(b). It means the proposal that another company (referred to as the new appointee) should carry out the relevant activities of and in place of the existing appointee. Paragraph 1(1)(b) is therefore linked to the statutory purpose of the PPP administration order set out in s 220(2) which itself incorporates a reference to the ‘relevant activities’. These are defined in s 220(6) for the purposes of Ch VII of the 1999 Act as the activities to be carried out by a PPP company in performing its obligations under the PPP agreement to which it is party. The activities in question are therefore those specified in s 210(3) which are mandatory as part of any PPP agreement. Schedule 15 is of course part of Ch VII of the 1999 Act for these purposes.
[37] It is therefore clear that the context in which Sch 15 operates and which is referred to in para 1(1)(b) (and by extension in the definition of ‘other appointees’ in para 1(2)) is a proposal for the transfer to a new PPP company of the undertaking of the existing appointee in such a way as to ensure that the new company can operate the PPP agreement for the maintenance of the infrastructure and rolling stock. That proposal (in accordance with s 220(4) and Sch 15) will ordinarily take place through the medium of a transfer scheme and the provisions of Sch 15 are obviously intended to achieve the statutory purpose set out in s 220(2)(a).
[38] The next question to ask is what may be included in the transfer scheme and the answer can be found in various parts of Sch 15. Paragraph 2(1) (which contains the scheme-making power) specifies that the purpose and effect of the scheme is to transfer the property, rights and liabilities of the existing appointee to the new appointee. The allocation of those items is intended to reflect and be proportionate to the various relevant activities (as defined) which will ‘be carried out at different times on and after the relevant date by the new appointee, by the existing appointee and by any other appointees’: see para 2(6). The correct allocation of the property, rights and liabilities of BCV and SSL between the existing, new and other appointees will therefore be a matter to be scrutinised by the Mayor in deciding whether or not to approve the scheme, but it is apparent from para 2(6) that the scheme may involve the transfer of some of these to other appointees. It is at first sight puzzling that an other appointee who is to carry out relevant activities as a result of the scheme should not be a new appointee as defined. But the only plausible explanation (given that the draftsman contemplated all three classes of appointee carrying out relevant activities post the scheme) is that in that particular context other appointees must be existing PPP companies (other than the existing appointee) who will take over some of the relevant activities formerly carried on by the existing appointee and will
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receive the assets necessary for that purpose. An example of this might be the transfer of the maintenance responsibility for a station serving both the Northern and Central lines (eg Tottenham Court Road) from BCV to TLL which would involve a transfer of relevant assets between the companies. The importance however of para 2(6) is that it confirms that under a transfer scheme relevant activities may be carried out by other appointees as well as the new appointee and that they will receive the relevant part of the property, rights and liabilities of the existing appointee for that purpose.
[39] The reference in para 2(6) to relevant activities being transferred to one or other kind of appointee is, I think, critical to an understanding of the provisions of Sch 15 because it identifies the role of the other appointee as a potential recipient of property, rights and liabilities for use in connection with the performance of relevant activities and by the same token restricts the transfer of those items to appointees who are to carry out those duties. There is nothing in paras 2(1) or 2(6) to suggest that the administrators would be entitled to transfer such assets and liabilities to anyone who did not qualify in this way and this restriction on their powers is consistent with the terms and purpose of their appointment under s 220(1) and (2).
[40] Given therefore that the scope and purpose of the power contained in para 2(1) is the transfer of the property, rights and liabilities of the existing appointee, it seems to me that it must follow that an other appointee can only participate in a transfer scheme to the extent that he is the recipient of such items. One of the difficulties of approaching the issue of construction which I have to decide through the definition of ‘other appointee’ in para 1(2) (as several of the respondents do) is that it invites a meaning for those words divorced from the context in which they are used. Paragraph 1(2) is no more than a definition of other appointee. It is not free standing and it cannot as a matter of construction operate outside the provisions in which that term is used.
[41] The requirement in para 2(1) for other appointees to consent to the making of a scheme in relation to matters affecting them, obviously requires one to look at what matters Parliament contemplated could affect them under a scheme of that kind. Paragraph 2(6) indicates that they may be recipients of property and other rights if required to carry out relevant activities. If one looks on to para 3(2) this is spelt out in more detail. The transfer may create new rights or interests in favour of the various classes of appointee over the property of the existing appointee and create new rights and liabilities as between any two or more of those companies: see para 3(2)(a) and (b). These provisions are consistent with those of para 2(6) and with the notion of a re-distribution of responsibilities and assets between existing PPP companies and the new and other appointees. Similarly, under para 7(1) the scheme may transfer statutory functions to other appointees which relate to part of the undertaking or property transferred under the scheme.
[42] All of these provisions operate, however, in the context of a proposal which has by definition to satisfy the requirements of para 1 because it is only in that context that Sch 15 has any application at all: see the opening words of para 1(1). There is nothing in either para 2 or para 3 of Sch 15 to support the contention that ‘other appointee’ means anything but a company which fulfils the role of an other appointee described in these paragraphs: ie as the transferee of the relevant activities of the existing appointee and of the appropriate part of its property, rights and liabilities necessary for that purpose.
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[43] If this is right the respondents who are existing sub-contractors will not fall within the description of other appointees in para 2(6) or para 3(2)(a) because they are unlikely to be recipients or transferees of anything new under the scheme. They will simply have the benefit of their sub-contracts assigned to the new appointee. In that event, their case (and a fortiori that of Trans4M and the Fincos) depends upon treating para 2(1) as somehow independent of the other provisions of paras 2 and 3 rather than as contingent upon them. I am unable to accept that. It seems to me that the creation of a veto to the making of a transfer scheme must be linked to what is transferred under that scheme and to whom. It would, I think, be very odd for Parliament to have given a right of veto to a sub-contractor in relation to the assignment of its contract to the new appointee when the effect of this would be to negate the provisions of para 3 which are designed to obviate the necessity for a novation and therefore for the consent of the existing contractual parties.
[44] The reference to matters affecting them in para 2(1) is linked in my judgment as a matter of drafting to the phrase ‘affected by the scheme’ where it appears in para 2(6) and makes it clear that other appointees are only affected by the scheme within the meaning of the statute if they are the transferees of property, rights and liabilities under it. This construction of the 1999 Act also gives some meaning to the word ‘appointee’ in ‘other appointee’ which looked at in isolation is not the most obvious description of someone who receives nothing under the scheme. It seems to me perfectly intelligible (and almost certainly legally necessary) to require a company which under the scheme is to receive new property, rights or liabilities to be required to consent to that. But existing contracting parties will under the scheme have their contracts transferred intact from an insolvent to a solvent company under what for them are no more than enabling provisions. There is no obvious reason why they should be required to consent to this as a condition of the administrators being able to achieve the statutory purpose through the transfer scheme. The argument that companies who were not transferees under the scheme are other appointees with a power of veto also provides no explanation for the presence in Sch 15 of para 3(2)(c) which expressly caters for the making of incidental provision in respect of the interests, rights and liabilities of ‘other persons’ with respect to the subject matter of the scheme but does not give such persons any veto over its contents. It seems to me that this is a recognition that persons with existing contracts with the PPP companies may be affected by the scheme without being ‘other appointees’.
[45] In these circumstances it is not necessary for me to analyse the 1993 Act or the earlier legislation as a guide to the construction of the 1999 Act, but I should say that I am not persuaded that the reference in the definition of ‘other appointee’ to the need for that company to be a holder of a licence under s 8 of the 1993 Act is sufficient to indicate that in the 1999 Act a much broader meaning of that term was intended. The reference in the 1993 Act to the other appointee holding a s 8 licence clearly limits the class to companies which will become the operators of railway assets within the meaning of that section. This is necessary under the 1993 Act because the relevant activities in relation to a protected railway company are the carriage of passengers by railway or the management of the network both of which require the operator to hold a s 8 licence: see s 59(6)(a) of the 1993 Act. However, the fact that the other appointees require a
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licence confirms that what the scheme contemplates is that they will be transferees of those relevant activities.
[46] The holding of a s 8 licence may not be required in the context of a PPP agreement for all the relevant activities involved but so far as necessary para 4 of Sch 15 provides for the transfer of any s 8 licences to the new appointee. This aside, the provisions and framework of both statutory schemes are identical and the 1993 Act seems to, if anything, confirm the limited meaning to be given to ‘other appointees’ in the 1999 Act.
ARTICLE 1
[47] Mr Mortimore QC, on behalf of Trans4M, also submitted that the construction of ‘other appointee’ advanced by the administrators could be incompatible with art 1 of the First Protocol to the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) because it might result in persons being deprived of their possessions without their consent or compensation. For this reason Sch 15 had, he said, to be read and given effect to in a way which was compatible with the affected persons’ convention rights: see s 3(1) of the 1998 Act.
[48] Article 1 states that:
‘Every natural or legal person is entitled to the peaceful enjoyment of his possessions. No one shall be deprived of his possessions except in the public interest and subject to the conditions provided for by law and by the general principles of international law.
The preceding provisions shall not, however, in any way impair the right of a State to enforce such laws as it deems necessary to control the use of property in accordance with the general interest or to secure the payment of taxes or other contributions or penalties.’
[49] I have been referred to none of the relevant Strasbourg jurisprudence on the point and only one English authority: the decision of David Richards J in Re T&N Ltd [2005] EWHC 2870 (Ch), [2006] 3 All ER 697, [2006] 1 WLR 1728 where the judge had to consider whether a particular construction of the Insolvency Rules 1986, SI 1986/1925 which would have had the effect of preventing certain asbestos-related claims for personal injuries being admitted to proof in a liquidation was a violation of art 1. The case raised very different issues from those under consideration on this application and is only relevant for the judge’s acceptance that an accrued cause of action in tort was a possession within the meaning of art 1.
[50] Even in the absence of authority I am willing to accept that the respondents’ contractual rights are possessions within the meaning of art 1 but their convention rights are not engaged unless the effect of a transfer scheme without their consent deprives them of those rights. It is clear that it does not. The provisions of Sch 15 do no more than to assign the benefit of the sub-contracts to the new appointee and bring the respondents into a contractual relationship with that company. So far as they have accrued claims against BCV and SSL for work already done those claims remain intact and unaffected by the transfer scheme. In these circumstances it is unnecessary to go on to consider whether the regime contended for by the administrators can be justified as in the public interest.
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FORM OF RELIEF
[51] That leaves the question of the form of relief to be granted on this application. For the reasons set out above I take the view that to be an other appointee within the meaning of Sch 15 the company in question must have transferred to it property, rights and liabilities of the existing appointee in exercise of the powers contained in paras 2 and 3 of Sch 15. This (as contemplated by para 2(6)) can only occur in the context of a re-organisation of the responsibility for the maintenance of the infrastructure by reference to the relevant activities which each of the appointees will carry out under the scheme. Since these activities can only be performed under a PPP agreement, it must follow that each of the appointees referred to in para 2(1) of Sch 15 either is or will become a PPP company.
[52] There is, therefore, no question of writing in any additional words in the definition of ‘other appointee’ in para 1(2). The only companies which can fall within that term properly construed are PPP companies in whose favour there is under the scheme a transfer of property, rights and liabilities from the existing appointee in exercise of the powers contained in paras 2(1) and 3 of Sch 15. No other companies (PPP or otherwise) are in the words of para 1(2) affected by the proposal. I shall leave it to counsel to draft a form of direction which accurately reflects this construction of the Act.
Order accordingly.
Giovanni D’Avola Barrister.
R (on the application of the Countryside Alliance and others) v Attorney General and others;
R (on the application of Derwin and others) v Attorney General and others
[2008] 2 All ER 95
[2007] UKHL 52
Categories: ANIMALS: EUROPEAN COMMUNITY; Free Movement of Goods, HUMAN RIGHTS; Assembly, Discrimination, Family Life, Privacy, Property
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 10, 11, 15–18 OCTOBER, 28 NOVEMBER 2007
Human Rights – Right to respect for private and family life – Freedom of assembly – Protection of property – Prohibition of discrimination – Statute prohibiting hunting wild mammals with dogs – Whether breaching rights to respect for private and family life, freedom of assembly and protection of property – Whether discriminatory – Hunting Act 2004 – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, arts 8, 11, 14, Pt II, art 1.
European Community – Freedom of movement – Goods and services – Statute prohibiting hunting wild mammals with dogs – Whether restriction justified – Hunting Act 2004 – EC Treaty, arts 28 EC, 49 EC.
The Hunting Act 2004 prohibited the hunting of wild mammals with dogs and hare coursing. Two cases challenging the 2004 Act were heard together. In the first case the claimants were people professionally involved in hunting or hare coursing or closely related activities who depended on the sport for their occupation, livelihood and continuing business and people who were active participants in hunting who permitted hunting across their land. They contended that the 2004 Act infringed their rights to respect for private and family life, to freedom of assembly, to freedom from discrimination and to protection of property under arts 8a, 11b and 14c of, and art 1d of the First Protocol to, the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). Their claim under art 8 was presented under four headings: (i) private life and autonomy; (ii) cultural lifestyle; (iii) use of the home and (iv) loss of livelihood. Article 14 provided that the enjoyment of the convention rights and freedoms was to be secured without discrimination on any ground ‘such as sex, race, colour, language, political or other opinion, national or social origin, association with a national minority, property, birth or other status’ and the claimants contended that they were subject to adverse treatment, as compared with those who did not
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wish to hunt, on the ground of their ‘other status’. In the second case the claimants included Irish breeders of, and dealers in, hunters which they had formerly sold into the English market; domestic providers of hiring and livery services and hunting-based holidays for customers visiting from other EU member states and elsewhere, visitors from other EU member states coming to hunt and keeping and hiring hunters in England for that purpose and English dealers buying hunters in Ireland and selling on to English and other EU customers. They contended that the 2004 Act was inconsistent with art 28 ECe which prohibited between member states qualitative restrictions on imports and all measures having equivalent effect and with art 49 ECf which prohibited restrictions on the freedom to provide services within the Community in respect of nationals of member states who were established in a state other than that of the person for whom the services were intended. Both claims failed before the Divisional Court and the Court of Appeal, and the claimants appealed to the House of Lords. Those claimants relying on arts 28 EC and 49 EC contended that it was necessary for questions to be referred to the Court of Justice of the European Communities for a preliminary ruling.
Held – (1) The prohibition of hunting wild mammals with dogs and of hare coursing imposed by the 2004 Act was not incompatible with the convention. The purpose of art 8 was to protect the individual against intrusion by agents of the state, unless for good reason, into the private sphere within which individuals expected to be left alone to conduct their personal affairs and live their personal lives as they chose. The claimants’ complaints were far removed from the values which art 8 existed to protect. Hunting was a very public activity, a spectacle of colour and noise often attracting the attention of onlookers; decisions of the European Court of Human Rights in relation to private life and autonomy were so remote from the instant case as to give no guidance helpful to the claimants. Nor could any analogy be drawn with decisions relating to cultural lifestyle, use of the home or loss of livelihood. The claims could not be brought within art 11; the essence of freedom of assembly was that it was a fundamental right in a democracy and one of the foundations of such a society. The right of assembly that the claimants sought to assert was no more than a right to gather together for pleasure or recreation and it fell well short of the kind of assembly whose protection was guaranteed by art 11. Article 14 was not engaged; even assuming that the claimants were the subject of adverse treatment as compared with those who did not hunt, that treatment could not be linked to any personal characteristic of any of the claimants or anything which could meaningfully be described as ‘status’. Article 1 of the First Protocol was engaged in that certain of the claimants had suffered a loss of control over their possessions but that article was stated not to impair in any way the right of a state to enforce such laws as it deemed necessary to control the use of property in accordance with the general interest. The 2004 Act was a law to control property; Parliament had decided that the Act was necessary in accordance with the general interest and while that judgment was not immune from challenge respect should be paid to the recent and closely-considered judgment of a democratic assembly and no ground had been shown for disturbing that judgment in the instant case (see, [10], [15], [19]–[22], [24], [44]–[47], [54]–[56], [58], [62]–[65], [76], [78], [90], [101], [106],
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[108], [109], [116], [118], [119], [128]–[130], [138], [142]–[146], [155], below); R (on the application of S) v Chief Constable of the South Yorkshire, R (on the application of Marper) v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire [2004] 4 All ER 193 and R (on the application of Clift) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of Hindawi) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] 2 All ER 1 applied; G v Norway (1983) 35 DR 30, Niemietz v Germany (1992) 16 EHRR 97, Pretty v UK (2002) 12 BHRC 149 and Sidabras v Lithuania [2004] ECHR 55480/00 considered.
(2) The 2004 Act was not inconsistent with the EC Treaty. It was not clear from the decisions of the European Court of Justice whether arts 28 EC and 49 EC were engaged but resolution of the question was not necessary to the decision of the House in the instant case and it was therefore not necessary to refer questions to the European Court of Justice. The possibility of justifying an impugned measure on grounds of public policy was common to both art 28 EC and art 49 EC. Concern for animal welfare had been the mainspring of the legislation. The 2004 Act was a measure of social reform, not directed to the regulation of commercial activity. Any impediment to the intra-Community provision of goods or services was a minor and unintended consequence which bore more hardly on those within the United Kingdom than those outside it. Parliament had considered that the real killing of foxes, deer, hares and mink by way of recreation infringed a fundamental value expressed in numerous statutes and culminating in the 2004 Act. Accordingly, the 2004 Act was justifiable in Community law. The appeals would therefore be dismissed (see [31], [34], [35], [40], [48], [50]–[52], [68], [70]–[73], [83], [85]–[90], [131], [149], [163]–[166], below); Omega Spielhallen- und Automatenaufstellungs-GmbH v Oberbürgermeisterin der Bundesstadt Bonn Case C-36/02 [2004] ECR I-9609 applied.
Notes
For rights relating to privacy, freedom of assembly, prohibition of discrimination and for the right to property see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 149–155, 160, 164, 165.
For the Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, arts 8, 11, 14, Pt II, art 1, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2008 reissue) 777, 778, 783.
Cases referred to in opinions
Adams v Scottish Ministers 2004 SC 665, Ct of Sess (IH).
AGOSI v UK [1986] ECHR 9118/80, ECt HR.
Âklagaren v Mickelsson Case C-142/05 (Opinion, 14 December 2006), ECJ.
Alfa Vita Vassilopoulos AE v Elliniko Dimosio Joined Cases C-158/04 and C-159/04 [2007] 2 CMLR 71, ECJ.
Alpine Investments BV v Minister van Financiën Case C-384/93 [1995] All ER (EC) 543, [1995] ECR I-1141, ECJ.
Anderson v UK (1997) 25 EHRR CD 172, ECt HR.
Aragonesa de Publicidad Exterior SA v Departamento de Sanidad y Seguridad Social de la Generalitat de Cataluña Joined Cases C-1/90 and C-176/90 [1991] ECR I-4151, ECJ.
Association Église de Scientologie de Paris v Prime Minister of France Case C-54/99 [2000] ECR I-1335, ECJ.
Belgian Linguistics Case (No 2) (1968) 1 EHRR 252, ECt HR.
Bellinger v Bellinger [2003] UKHL 21, [2003] 2 All ER 593, [2003] 2 AC 467, [2003] 2 WLR 1174.
Bluhme (criminal proceedings against) Case C-67/97 [1998] ECR I-8033, ECJ.
Page 98 of [2008] 2 All ER 95
Brüggemann v Germany (1977) 3 EHRR 244, E Com HR.
Buckley v UK (1996) 23 EHRR 101, [1996] ECHR 20348/92, ECt HR.
Campbell v Mirror Group Newspapers Ltd [2004] UKHL 22, [2004] 2 All ER 995, [2004] 2 AC 457, [2004] 2 WLR 1232.
Carpenter v Secretary of State for the Home Dept Case C-60/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 577, [2003] QB 416, [2003] 2 WLR 267, [2002] ECR I-6279, ECJ.
Chapman v UK (2001) 10 BHRC 48, ECt HR.
Chassagnou v France (1999) 7 BHRC 151, ECt HR.
CILFIT Srl v Ministero della Sanità Case C-283/81 [1982] ECR 3415, ECJ.
Ciola v Land Vorarlberg Case C-224/97 [1999] ECR I-2517, ECJ.
Corsica Ferries Italia srl v Corpo dei Piloti del Porto di Genoa Case C-18/93 [1994] ECR I-1783, ECJ.
Conegate Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case 121/85 [1986] 2 All ER 688, [1987] QB 254, [1987] 2 WLR 39, [1986] ECR 1007, ECJ.
Customs and Excise Comrs v Schindler Case C-275/92 [1994] 2 All ER 193, [1994] QB 610, [1994] 3 WLR 103, [1994] ECR I-1039, ECJ.
Denimark v UK (2000) 30 EHRR CD 144, ECt HR.
Dudgeon v UK (1981) 4 EHRR 149, [1981] ECHR 7525/76, ECt HR.
Esso Española SA v Comunidad Autónoma de Canarias Case C-134/94 [1995] ECR I-4223, ECJ.
European Commission v Italy Case C-110/05 (5 October 2006, unreported), ECJ.
European Commission v Spain Case C-12/00 [2003] ECR I-459, ECJ.
Friend v Lord Advocate 2006 SC 121, [2005] CSIH 69, Ct of Sess.
G v Norway (1983) 35 DR 30, E Com HR.
Ghaidan v Mendoza [2004] UKHL 30, [2004] 3 All ER 411, [2004] 2 AC 557, [2004] 3 WLR 113.
Giacomelli v Italy (2006) 45 EHRR 871, [2006] ECHR 59909/00, ECt HR.
Goodwin v UK (2002) 13 BHRC 120, ECt HR.
Harrow London BC v Qazi [2003] UKHL 43, [2003] 4 All ER 461, [2004] 1 AC 983, [2003] 3 WLR 792.
Ian Edgar (Liverpool) Ltd v UK (App no 37683/97) (admissibility decision, 25 January 2000), ECt HR.
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James v UK (1986) 8 EHRR 123, [1986] ECHR 8793/79, ECt HR.
Karner (Herbert) Industrie-Auktionen GmbH v Troostwijk GmbH Case C-71/02 [2004] ECR I-3025, ECJ.
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Karni v Sweden (1988) 55 DR 157, E Com HR.
Keck and Mithouard Joined Cases C-267/91 and C-268/91 [1993] ECR I–6097, ECJ.
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Omega Spielhallen- und Automatenaufstellungs-GmbH v Oberbürgermeisterin der Bundesstadt Bonn Case C-36/02 [2004] ECR I-9609, ECJ.
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Pinnacle Meat Processors v UK (1998) 27 EHRR CD 217.
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R (on the application of British American Tobacco (Investments) Ltd) v Secretary of State for Health Case C-491/01 [2003] All ER (EC) 604, [2002] ECR I-11453, ECJ.
R (on the application of British American Tobacco) v Secretary of State for Health [2004] EWHC 2493 (Admin), (2004) Times, 11 November.
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Appeals
R (on the application of the Countryside Alliance and others) v Attorney General and others
The claimants, the Countryside Alliance, Donald Summersgill, Lesley Joan Drage, Roger George Richard Bigland, Colin Richard Dayment, Kim Yvette Gooding, Joseph Cowen, William Rhys Kenneth Jones, Richard Frederick May, Giles Rufus Joseph Bradshaw and Jason Edward Vickery appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 7 November 2006 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clarke MR, Brooke and Buxton LJJ) on 23 June 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 817, [2007] QB 305) dismissing their appeal from the decision of the Divisional Court (May LJ and Moses J) on 29 July 2005 ([2005] EWHC 1677 (Admin), [2006] EuLR 178) refusing their claim brought against the Attorney General and the Secretary of State for the Environment, Food and Rural Affairs in proceedings for judicial review for a declaration that the Hunting Act 2004 was incompatible with arts 8, 11, 14 of, and art 1 of the First Protocol to, the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). The Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals intervened by written submissions. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bingham of Cornhill.
R (on the application of Derwin and others) v Attorney General and others
The claimants, Francis Derwin, Shane William Flavin, the Hon Diana Gillian Amanda Johnson, Susan Lanigan-O’Keeffe, Viscount Hughes Le Hardy de Beaulieu, Gil Jose Guedes de Queiroz de Mendia, Barbara Rich, Marion Isobel Knoche, Kevin John Lamacraft and Brian Divilly, appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 7 November 2006 from the decision
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of the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clarke MR, Brooke and Buxton LJJ) on 23 June 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 817, [2007] QB 305) dismissing their appeal from the decision of the Divisional Court (May LJ and Moses J) on 29 July 2005 ([2005] EWHC 1677 (Admin), [2006] EuLR 178) refusing their claim brought against the Attorney General and the Secretary of State for the Environment, Food and Rural Affairs in proceedings for judicial review for a declaration that the Hunting Act 2004 was inconsistent with arts 28 EC and 49 EC. The Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals intervened by written submissions. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bingham of Cornhill.
Richard Gordon QC (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the claimants headed by the Countryside Alliance.
David Anderson QC and Marie Demetriou (instructed by Clifford Chance) for the claimants headed by Mr Derwin.
Philip Sales QC and Jason Coppel (instructed by DEFRA and the Treasury Solicitor) for the Attorney General and the Secretary of State.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1] My Lords, foxhunting in this country is an emotive and divisive subject. For some it is an activity deeply embedded in the tradition, life and culture of the countryside, richly portrayed in art and literature, a highly cherished, skilful, healthy and useful form of communal outdoor exercise. Others find the pursuit of a small animal across the countryside until it is caught and destroyed by hounds to be abhorrent. Both these deeply held views were fully expressed in the discussions and debates which preceded the enactment of the Hunting Act 2004. The House of Lords in its legislative capacity was much involved in these discussions and debates, and the Act became law without its consent. But this appeal comes before the House in its judicial capacity. Our task is to decide the legal issues which have to be decided. We must perform that task without reference to whatever personal views or sympathies individual members of the committee may entertain. These are irrelevant to the legal judgment we are called upon to make.
[2] The issue in these appeals is whether the prohibition of hunting wild mammals with dogs and of hare coursing imposed by the 2004 Act is incompatible with the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) or inconsistent with the treaty establishing the European Community.
[3] The first group of claimants, headed by the Countryside Alliance, contend that the 2004 Act infringes their rights under arts 8, 11 and 14 of and art 1 of the First Protocol to the convention, all of them provisions to which domestic courts are required to give effect by the 1998 Act. These claimants have conveniently been called the human rights, or HR, claimants.
[4] The second group of claimants, headed by Mr Derwin, contend that the 2004 Act is inconsistent with arts 28 and 49 of the EC Treaty, and is accordingly invalid. They have conveniently been called the EC claimants.
[5] The HR claimants’ contentions apply to the hunting of foxes, deer and mink and the hunting (and coursing) of hares. The EC claimants’ contentions apply to the hunting of foxes. Foxhunting, even for the HR claimants, has been the main focus of argument and evidence, no doubt because of its much greater scale and prominence as compared with the other sports, and can best be used to
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test the strength of the HR claimants’ submissions in the first instance, as well as those of the EC claimants.
[6] The Attorney General and the Secretary of State for the Environment, Food and Rural Affairs, supported by the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals as interveners, contend that the 2004 Act is not incompatible with the convention or the EC Treaty. They prevailed before the Queen’s Bench Divisional Court (May LJ and Moses J: [2005] EWHC 1677 (Admin), [2006] EuLR 178) and also, on very similar but not identical grounds, before the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clarke MR, Brooke and Buxton LJJ: [2006] EWCA Civ 817, [2007] QB 305, [2006] 3 WLR 1017). The claimants now challenge this judgment of the Court of Appeal. Both the courts below gave very full and helpful judgments, to which reference must be made for a more complete account of the background to these appeals than is given here.
[7] The Divisional Court gave a succinct summary of the effect of the 2004 Act in paras [5]–[10] of its judgment, which the Court of Appeal reproduced in para [5] of its judgment. Further repetition is unnecessary. The 2004 Act makes it a criminal offence, punishable by a fine of up to £5,000, to hunt a wild mammal with a dog or help another to do so, unless the hunting is exempt, or to participate in hare coursing. Conviction may lead to the forfeiture of any dog, vehicle or other article used for the purpose of prohibited hunting. Certain activities are exempt from the statutory prohibition, including (in specified circumstances) the hunting of rats and rabbits, falconry, the retrieval of hares which have been shot and the stalking of a wild mammal or flushing it out of cover. A single dog may be used below ground to protect game birds for shooting. There is a further exemption for the hunting of a wild mammal with up to two dogs if the hunter reasonably believes that the mammal is or may be injured.
[8] The Divisional Court recounted the parliamentary history of what eventually became the 2004 Act in paras [12]–[21] of its judgment, which the Court of Appeal (with some addition) reproduced ([2007] QB 305 at [6]). This account need not be further repeated. The salient points are these. The government had committed itself to a free vote on the banning of hunting. Measures introduced by private members failed for lack of time. In 1999 a committee chaired by Lord Burns was appointed to inquire into the practical aspects of hunting and the likely consequences of any ban. The committee reported in 2000, and its report (not seeking to address the ethical aspects of the subject) informed the subsequent debate. The Court of Appeal included excerpts of the report’s summary and conclusions in App II to its judgment. A bill was introduced in December 2000, but was lost in the following year on the calling of a general election. After the election the proposal was revived, and public hearings were held by the responsible minister, Mr Alun Michael MP, at Portcullis House. In December 2002 the government introduced the Hunting Bill 2002, known as ‘the Michael Bill’. This prohibited the hunting of deer and hare coursing. But it permitted the hunting of foxes and mink with a dog if (but only if) the hunting was either exempt or registered. The grounds of exemption very largely foreshadowed those later enacted in the 2004 Act. Registration depended on satisfying a registrar that two conditions were satisfied: first, that the hunting was likely to make a significant contribution to the prevention or reduction of serious damage which the wild mammal to be hunted would otherwise cause to livestock, game birds, crops, growing timber or other property; second, that this result could not reasonably be expected to be made in a manner likely to cause significantly less pain, suffering or distress to the wild
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mammals to be hunted. This proposal proved acceptable to neither House of Parliament. In the Commons the Michael Bill was heavily amended, so as to substitute what is now the 2004 Act. It was rejected by the House of Lords. After prolonged debate and amid much controversy the 2004 Act received the royal assent, without the approval of the House of Lords, pursuant to the Parliament Acts 1911–1949.
THE HR CLAIMS
[9] The Divisional Court gave particulars of the individual HR claimants in paras [32]–[41] of its judgment, reproduced by the Court of Appeal in App I to its judgment. Its summary need not be repeated. The HR claimants fall into two broad groups. The first is composed of people professionally involved in hunting or hare coursing or activities closely related to these, dependent on the sport for their occupation, livelihood and continuing business (a professional huntsman of staghounds, the owner and manager of a livery business, a professional terrier man, a self-employed farrier, a trainer of hare coursing greyhounds). The second group comprises landowners and tenant farmers, masters of hunts and of a beagle pack, active participants in hunting who permit hunting across their land and, in one case, manage their land specifically for hunting. Common to some members of both groups is a strong psychological and social commitment to hunting as a traditional rural activity involving the individual, the family and the community more deeply than any ordinary recreation. The Divisional Court found ([2006] EuLR 178 at [135]) and the Court of Appeal accepted ([2007] QB 305 at [38]) that there are those for whom hunting is a core part of their lives.
[10] The HR claimants relied, first, on art 8 of the convention (‘Right to respect for private and family life’) which provides:
‘1. Everyone has the right to respect for his private and family life, his home and his correspondence.
2. There shall be no interference by a public authority with the exercise of this right except such as is in accordance with the law and is necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security, public safety or the economic well-being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’
The content of this right has been described as ‘elusive’ and does not lend itself to exhaustive definition. This may help to explain why the right is expressed as one to respect, as contrasted with the more categorical language used in other articles. But the purpose of the article is in my view clear. It is to protect the individual against intrusion by agents of the state, unless for good reason, into the private sphere within which individuals expect to be left alone to conduct their personal affairs and live their personal lives as they choose.
[11] The HR claimants helpfully presented their art 8 case under four headings. The first was ‘private life and autonomy’. The authorities principally relied on were Pretty v UK (2002) 12 BHRC 149, PG v UK [2001] ECHR 444787/98, Peck v UK (2003) 13 BHRC 669 and Brüggemann v Germany (1977) 3 EHRR 244. From the court’s judgment in Pretty v UK the claimants drew recognition (at 183 (para 61)) that ‘private life’ is a broad term, not susceptible to exhaustive definition, but covering the physical and psychological integrity of a person, sometimes embracing aspects of an individual’s physical and social identity,
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protecting a right to personal development and the right to establish relations with others in the outside world, and extending to matters within the personal and private sphere (see paras 61, 62). The court held the notion of personal autonomy to be an important principle. The court was not prepared to exclude the possibility that denial of a right to procure her own death was an interference with the applicant’s right to respect for private life (see 184–185 (para 67)). In PG v UK [2001] ECHR 444787/98 the court accepted (at para 57) that a person’s reasonable expectations as to privacy may be a significant, if not conclusive, factor. In Peck v UK the court repeated ((2003) 13 BHRC 669 at 682 (para 57)) that art 8 protects a right to identity and personal development, and the right to establish and develop relationships with other human beings and the outside world, potentially including activities of a professional or business nature. In Brüggemann v Germany (1977) 3 EHRR 244, a 1977 decision of the Commission, reference was made (at 252 (para 55)) to private life as embracing a sphere within which the individual can freely pursue the development and fulfilment of his personality, but it was recognised (at para 56) that not all laws having some immediate or remote effect on the individual’s possibility of developing his personality by doing what he wants to do constitute an interference with the individual’s private life within the meaning of the convention.
[12] The second heading advanced by the HR claimants under art 8 pertained to cultural lifestyle. They relied particularly on G v Norway (1983) 35 DR 30, which concerned Lapps working as reindeer shepherds, fishermen and hunters living and working in the far north of Norway, and Buckley v UK (1996) 23 EHRR 101 and Chapman v UK (2001) 10 BHRC 48 which concerned gipsies seeking to live in their caravans.
[13] The HR claimants’ third heading related to use of the home. They relied on the Commission’s ruling in Buckley v UK ((1996) 23 EHRR 101 at 115 (para 63)) that ‘home’ in art 8 is an autonomous concept and on the court’s ruling in Niemietz v Germany (1992) 16 EHRR 97 at 111–112 (paras 29, 30), that the concept may extend to business premises and a professional person’s office. Reference was made to the Court of Appeal’s decision in Sheffield City Council v Smart, Central Sunderland Housing Co Ltd v Wilson [2002] EWCA Civ 4, [2002] LGR 467 and the decisions of the House in Harrow London BC v Qazi [2003] UKHL 43, [2003] 4 All ER 461, [2004] 1 AC 983, and Lambeth London BC v Kay, Leeds City Council v Price [2006] UKHL 10, [2006] 4 All ER 128, [2006] 2 AC 465.
[14] The fourth heading advanced on was ‘loss of livelihood/home’, and the authority mainly, and strongly, relied on was Sidabras v Lithuania (2004) 42 EHRR 104. This case concerned two men who had, some years before, been employed as KGB officers within the meaning of a 1998 statute. As a result they were dismissed from their jobs, were debarred from a very wide range of public and private sector employments and complained that they suffered constant embarrassment as a result of being publicly branded as former KGB officers. The court found (at 118 (para 47)) that a far-reaching ban on taking up private sector employment did affect private life. It did not rule on whether art 8 had been infringed (see 121 (para 63)), but found a breach of art 14 of the convention (at para 62) in conjunction with art 8.
[15] Despite the careful argument of Mr Gordon QC for the HR claimants, I am not persuaded that their claims can be brought within the scope of art 8 under any of the four heads relied on:
(1) Foxhunting is a very public activity, carried out in daylight with considerable colour and noise, often attracting the attention of onlookers
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attracted by the spectacle. No analogy can be drawn with the very personal and private concerns at issue in Brüggemann v Germany and Pretty v UK, nor with the interception of private telephone conversations (admitted to be an interference within art 8) in PG v UK, nor with the disclosure in Peck v UK of closed circuit television pictures of the complainant preparing to commit suicide. It is not of course to be expected that there will be a decided case based on facts indistinguishable from those of the case in issue, but none of the decided cases is at all close. With their references to notions of privacy, personal autonomy and choice and the private sphere reserved to the individual, they are in my opinion so remote from the present case as to give no guidance helpful to the claimants.
(2) The Lapps in G v Norway and the gipsies in Buckley v UK and Chapman v UK belonged to distinctive groups, each with a traditional culture and lifestyle so fundamental as to form part of its identity. The hunting fraternity (in which I include the HR claimants and the many others dedicated to the sport of hunting) cannot plausibly be portrayed in such a way. The social and occupational diversity of this fraternity, often relied on as one of its strengths, leaves no room for such an analogy.
(3) ‘Home’ has been accepted as an expression with an autonomous convention meaning, and Niemietz v Germany shows that the expression can cover premises other than the place where a person lays his or her head at night. But it is one thing to recognise that the meaning of ‘home’ should not be too strictly defined or circumscribed, and quite another to suggest that the expression can cover land over which the owner permits or causes a sport to be conducted and which would never, in any ordinary usage, be described as ‘home’ (see Giacomelli v Italy (2006) 45 EHRR 871 at 885–886 (para 76)). Some of the HR claimants complain of a threat to their continued occupation of the houses in which they live, and this of course brings them much closer to a complaint under art 8. But it is not the necessary or intended consequence of the 2004 Act that they should be put out of their homes; none of them is said to have been evicted as yet; and it may be that they never will be evicted.
(4) Sidabras v Lithuania was a very extreme case on its facts, since the statutory consequence of employment as KGB officers some years before was disbarment from employment in very many public and private employments, and the applicants complained of constant embarrassment. Effectively deprived of the ability to work, the applicants’ ability to function as social beings was blighted. Such is not the lot of the HR claimants, to whom every employment is open save that of hunting wild mammals with dogs. But even on the extreme facts of Sidabras v Lithuania the court did not, as already noted, find a breach of art 8 but contented itself with finding a breach of art 14 in the ambit of art 8.
I judge the HR claimants’ complaints in this case to be far removed from the values which art 8 exists to protect. But in case I am wrong in that conclusion, I shall address below the issue of justification.
[16] The HR claimants relied, secondly, on art 11 of the convention, which provides:
‘1. Everyone has the right to freedom of peaceful assembly and to freedom of association with others, including the right to form and join trade unions for the protection of his interests.
2. No restrictions shall be placed on the exercise of these rights other than such as are prescribed by law and are necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or public safety, for the prevention of disorder
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or crime, for the protection of health or morals or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others. This article shall not prevent the imposition of lawful restrictions on the exercise of these rights by members of the armed forces, of the police or of the administration of the State.’
The essence of the HR claimants’ case was that since the only purpose of their assembling or associating was to hunt foxes, the prohibition of such hunting effectively restricted their right to assemble and associate.
[17] In advancing this argument the HR claimants relied on the Commission’s observation in Anderson v UK (1997) 25 EHRR CD 172 at 174, that ‘The right to freedom of assembly is one of the foundations of a democratic society and should not be interpreted restrictively’, and also on the court’s observation in Chassagnou v France (1999) 7 BHRC 151 at 182 (para 100), that:
‘Freedom of thought and opinion and freedom of expression, guaranteed by arts 9 and 10 of the convention respectively, would thus be of very limited scope if they were not accompanied by a guarantee of being able to share one’s beliefs or ideas in community with others, particularly through associations of individuals having the same beliefs, ideas or interests.’
Attention was also drawn to Segerstedt-Wiberg v Sweden (2006) 21 BHRC 155. In that case the applicants successfully complained that information about them stored on a secret police register was an interference with their private life contrary to art 8. The government argued (see 183–184 (para 106)) that the applicants’ suspicions that the police were holding information on them did not appear to have had any impact on their opportunities to exercise their art 11 rights and the court found (at 184 (para 107)) that the applicants had adduced no specific evidence enabling the court to assess how such registration in the concrete circumstances could have hindered the exercise of their rights under arts 10 and 11. But the court concluded (at para 107), without giving reasons, that the storage of personal opinions which was not justified under art 8(2) ipso facto constituted an unjustified interference with rights protected by arts 10 and 11. This would be an obvious conclusion if there were evidence that knowledge of the police practice deterred the applicants from assembling or expressing opinions, but it is puzzling in the absence of such evidence.
[18] The Court of Appeal ([2007] QB 305 at [107], [2007] 3 WLR 1017), in agreement with the Divisional Court ([2006] EuLR 178 at [82]) and Lord Brodie in Whaley v Lord Advocate 2004 SC 78 at 121 (para 80), rejected the HR claimants’ complaint under this head, holding that the effect of the hunting bans in England and Scotland respectively was not to prohibit the assembly of the hunt but to prohibit a particular activity once the claimants had assembled. This is so, but I question whether it is a sufficient answer. A right to assemble and protest is of little value if one is free to assemble but not, having done so, to protest. If people only assemble to act in a certain way and that activity is prohibited, the effect in reality is to restrict their right to assemble. I would not be content to treat art 11 as inapplicable on the present facts.
[19] The HR claimants relied on art 1 of the First Protocol to the convention (‘Protection of Property’) which provides:
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‘Every natural or legal person is entitled to the peaceful enjoyment of his possessions. No one shall be deprived of his possessions except in the public interest and subject to the conditions provided for by law and by the general principles of international law.
The preceding provisions shall not, however, in any way impair the right of a State to enforce such laws as it deems necessary to control the use of property in accordance with the general interest or to secure the payment of taxes or other contributions or penalties.’
[20] I do not think that the effect of the 2004 Act is to deprive any of the HR claimants of his or her possessions. This is not a confiscatory measure. But it seems to me indisputable that certain of the claimants have suffered a loss of control over their possessions: there are, for instance, on the largely unchallenged evidence, landowners who cannot hunt over their own land or permit others to do so, those who cannot use their horses and hounds to hunt, the farrier who cannot use his equipment to shoe horses to be used for hunting, owners of businesses which have lost their marketable goodwill, a shareholder whose shares have lost their value, and so on.
[21] Strasbourg jurisprudence has drawn a distinction between goodwill which may be a possession for purposes of art 1 of the First Protocol and future income, not yet earned and to which no enforceable claim exists, which may not: see, for instance, Ian Edgar (Liverpool) Ltd v UK (App no 37683/97) (admissibility decision, 25 January 2000); Wendenburg v Germany (2003) 36 EHRR CD 154 at 169. Thus in Tre Traktörer Aktiebolag v Sweden (1989) 13 EHRR 309 revocation of a restaurant’s licence to sell alcohol had adverse effects on the value and goodwill of the restaurant and so was held to be a possession because an economic interest connected with running the restaurant. The distinction was less clearly applied in Karni v Sweden (1988) 55 DR 157 where a doctor’s vested interest in his medical practice was regarded as a possession, Van Marle v Netherlands (1986) 8 EHRR 483 where an accountant’s clientele was held to be an asset and hence a possession, and Wendenburg v Germany (2003) 36 EHRR CD 154 at 170, where the same rule was applied to law practices: in these cases no finding was made that the assets were saleable, although this may have been assumed. In R (on the application of Malik) v Waltham Forest NHS Primary Care Trust [2007] EWCA Civ 265, [2007] 4 All ER 832, [2007] 1 WLR 2092, the Court of Appeal held that the inclusion of Dr Malik’s name on a list of those qualified to work locally for the NHS was in effect a licence to render services to the public and, being non-transferable and non-marketable, not a possession for purposes of art 1. While I do not find the jurisprudence on this subject very clear, I consider that the Court of Appeal reached a correct conclusion in that case basing itself as it did on the very convincing analysis of Mr Kenneth Parker QC in R (Nicholds) v Security Industry Authority [2006] EWHC 1792 (Admin) at [70]–[76], [2007] ICR 1076 at [70]–[76], [2007] 1 WLR 2067.
[22] Since this article is in my opinion clearly applicable to the complaints of certain of the HR claimants, it is necessary to consider whether the interference imposed by the 2004 Act is justifiable, an issue addressed below.
[23] Article 14, on which, lastly, the HR claimants relied, provides:
‘The enjoyment of the rights and freedoms set forth in this Convention shall be secured without discrimination on any ground such as sex, race,
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colour, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, association with a national minority, property, birth or other status.’
As the language of this article makes clear, and as has often been held, this is not a free-standing provision. But nor does it require that any other article should be shown to have been violated. It is enough that there should have been discrimination on a proscribed ground within the ambit of another article of the convention. The HR claimants say that they are subject to adverse treatment as compared with those who do not wish to hunt and are in no way involved in hunting. This, they say, is on the ground of their ‘other status’.
[24] The expression ‘other status’ is plainly incapable of precise definition. The Strasbourg court in Kjeldsen v Denmark (1976) 1 EHRR 711 at 732–733 (para 56), spoke of ‘discriminatory treatment having as its basis or reason a personal characteristic (“status”) by which persons or groups of persons are distinguishable from each other’. The House adopted this test in R (on the application of S) v Chief Constable of the South Yorkshire, R (on the application of Marper) v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire [2004] UKHL 39 at [48], [2004] 4 All ER 193 at [48], [2004] 1 WLR 2196, and again in R (on the application of Clift) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of Hindawi) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] UKHL 54 at [27], [28], [2007] 2 All ER 1 at [27], [28], [2007] 1 AC 484, and imprecise though it is it may be hard to formulate any test which is more precise. In the present case, assuming in the HR claimants’ favour that they are the subject of adverse treatment as compared with those who do not hunt and are in no way involved in hunting, and assuming further that their complaints fall within the ambit of one or more articles of the convention, I cannot link this treatment to any personal characteristic of any of the claimants or anything which could meaningfully be described as ‘status’.
THE EC CLAIMS
[25] The Divisional Court gave particulars of the individual EC claimants in paras [43]–[52] of its judgment, also reproduced by the Court of Appeal in its App I. They include Irish breeders of and dealers in hunters and greyhounds which they formerly sold into the English market; providers in this country of hiring and livery services and hunting-based holidays for customers visiting from other EU member states and elsewhere; visitors from other EU member states coming to this country to hunt and keeping or hiring hunters here for the purpose; and English dealers buying hunters in Ireland and selling on to English and other EU customers. The evidence of those in business is that the 2004 Act has had a very severe adverse effect. The evidence of the foreign visitors is that they will no longer come to this country to hunt if the ban remains in force.
[26] The EC claimants relied, first, on art 28 (formerly art 30) of the EC Treaty. This provides: ‘Quantitative restrictions on imports and all measures having equivalent effect shall be prohibited between Member States.' This article can readily be recognised as laying down a fundamental condition of the common market which the Treaty of Rome sought to establish, since if member states were free to introduce or maintain national measures which, whether by design or not, protected their own products and impeded the entry of goods from other member states, the free movement of goods between member states would be to that extent impeded.
[27] No doubt because of its fundamental importance, art 28 was generously interpreted by the European Court of Justice. In Procureur du Roi v Dassonville
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Case 8/74 [1974] ECR 837 at 852 (para 5), the court laid down what has since been accepted as the governing principle:
‘All trading rules enacted by Member States which are capable of hindering, directly or indirectly, actually or potentially, intra-Community trade are to be considered as measures having an effect equivalent to quantitative restrictions.’
This principle was applied in later cases. But the court came to appreciate that, taken entirely literally, the principle was being applied to cases to which it should not be applied. So in Keck and Mithouard Joined Cases C-267/91 and C-268/91 [1993] ECR I–6097 at 6131 (paras 14–17), the court modified its earlier ruling:
‘14. In view of the increasing tendency of traders to invoke Article 30 of the Treaty as a means of challenging any rules whose effect is to limit their commercial freedom even where such rules are not aimed at products from other Member States, the Court considers it necessary to re-examine and clarify its case-law on this matter.
15. It is established by the case-law beginning with “Cassis de Dijon” ([Rewe-Zentral AG v Bundesmonopolverwaltung für Branntwein Case 120/78 [1979] ECR 649]) that, in the absence of harmonization of legislation, obstacles to free movement of goods which are the consequence of applying, to goods coming from other Member States where they are lawfully manufactured and marketed, rules that lay down requirements to be met by such goods (such as those relating to designation, form, size, weight, composition, presentation, labelling, packaging) constitute measures of equivalent effect prohibited by Article 30. This is so even if those rules apply without distinction to all products unless their application can be justified by a public-interest objective taking precedence over the free movement of goods.
16. By contrast, contrary to what has previously been decided, the application to products from other Member States of national provisions restricting or prohibiting certain selling arrangements is not such as to hinder directly or indirectly, actually or potentially, trade between Member States within the meaning of the Dassonville judgment (Case 8/74 [1974] ECR 837), so long as those provisions apply to all relevant traders operating within the national territory and so long as they affect in the same manner, in law and in fact, the marketing of domestic products and of those from other Member States.
17. Provided that those conditions are fulfilled, the application of such rules to the sale of products from another Member State meeting the requirements laid down by that State is not by nature such as to prevent their access to the market or to impede access any more than it impedes the access of domestic products. Such rules therefore fall outside the scope of Article 30 of the Treaty.’
[28] The distinction between product rules and selling arrangements has been explored in a number of later cases to which the House was referred, among them European Commission v Spain Case C-12/00 [2003] ECR I-459 and Herbert
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Karner Industrie-Auktionen GmbH v Troostwijk GmbH Case C-71/02 [2004] ECR I-3025.
[29] The EC claimants contended that the ban on of hunting imposed by the 2004 Act impeded the free movement of goods from Ireland to the United Kingdom and was not a selling arrangement within the Keck exception. That the impediment is minor is irrelevant, there being (as is accepted) no de minimis principle in this aspect of Community law. Therefore the ban fell within the Dassonville prohibition.
[30] I would for my part accept that the ban on hunting cannot be characterised as pertaining to selling arrangements. But I have difficulty in recognising it as a trading rule or a product rule either. The same could have been said, however, of the provisions considered in Criminal proceedings against Bluhme Case C-67/97 [1998] ECR I-8033 and Omega Spielhallen- und Automatenaufstellungs-GmbH v Oberbürgermeisterin der Bundesstadt Bonn Case C-36/02 [2004] ECR I-9609, or that discussed by the Advocate General in Âklagaren v Mickelsson Case C-142/05 (Opinion, 14 December 2006), yet in these cases art 28 was held to apply or to be potentially applicable.
[31] Both the Divisional Court ([2006] EuLR 178 at [228]) and the Court of Appeal ([2007] QB 305 at [146]) reached the clear conclusion that the 2004 Act does not engage art 28 of the EC Treaty. I would incline to the same conclusion, for the detailed reasons which those courts respectively gave. But I find it hard to say, on the present state of the ECJ authorities as I understand them, that this conclusion is clear beyond the bounds of reasonable argument. If, therefore, it is necessary to decide this question to enable the House to give judgment, I would regard it as incumbent on the House, as the final domestic court of appeal, to seek a definitive ruling from the ECJ.
[32] The EC claimants relied, secondly, on art 49 (formerly art 59) of the EC Treaty which, so far as relevant, provides:
‘Within the framework of the provisions set out below, restrictions on freedom to provide services within the Community shall be prohibited in respect of nationals of Member States who are established in a State of the Community other than that of the person for whom the services are intended.’
This provision, it was contended, plainly applied, since some of the EC claimants are restricted in their freedom to provide services for nationals of other EU states. There is, again, no de minimis exception. And whatever doubt might attach to art 28, there was no room for doubt here, since in relation to services there is no Keck exception.
[33] The principle on which the EC claimants relied was that stated by the ECJ in Konsumentombudsmannen (KO) v Gourmet International Products AB Case C-405/98 [2001] All ER (EC) 308 at 323–324, [2001] ECR I-1795 at 1828 (paras 37–39):
‘In that regard, as the court has frequently held, the right to provide services may be relied on by an undertaking as against the member state in which it is established if the services are provided to persons established in another member state (see, in particular, Corsica Ferries Italia Srl v Corpo dei Piloti del Porto di Genova Case C-18/93 [1994] ECR I-1783 (para 30), and Alpine
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Investments BV v Minister van Financiën Case C-384/93 [1995] All ER (EC) 543 at 565, [1995] ECR I-1141 at 1176 (para 30)).
38. That is particularly so where, as in the case before the referring court, the legislation of a member state restricts the right of press undertakings established in the territory of that member state to offer advertising space in their publications to potential advertisers established in other member states.
39. A measure such as the prohibition on advertising at issue in the proceedings before that court, even if it is non-discriminatory, has a particular effect on the cross-border supply of advertising space, given the international nature of the advertising market in the category of products to which the prohibition relates, and thereby constitutes a restriction on the freedom to provide services within the meaning of art 59 of the Treaty (see, in that regard, the Alpine Investments case [1995] All ER (EC) 543 at 565, [1995] ECR I-4711 at 1177 (para 35)).’
Similar rulings are to be found in other authorities cited to the House, among them Ciola v Land Vorarlberg Case C-224/97 [1999] ECR I-2517 at 2535 (para 11); and Carpenter v Secretary of State for the Home Dept Case C-60/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 577 at 600–601, [2003] QB 416 at 439 (para 29).
[34] The Divisional Court, for reasons which it gave in paras [231]–[243] of its judgment, held that the hunting ban did engage art 49. The Court of Appeal differed (see [2007] QB 305 at [147]–[157]). But it considered (at [157]) that the jurisprudence leading to this conclusion was not entirely clear, and considered that a reference under art 234 might be called for if it were not of the clear opinion that the ban on hunting could be justified in Community terms.
[35] I would for my part incline to share the view of the Divisional Court, strange though I find this result in the case of a measure not directed to the regulation of any form of commercial activity and wholly non-discriminatory, since bearing more hardly on people and undertakings in this country than on people and undertakings elsewhere. But I do not regard the matter as acte clair and would think it necessary to refer if resolution of this question were necessary to the decision of the House.
JUSTIFICATION AND PROPORTIONALITY
[36] In para 47 of its opinion in Adams v Scottish Ministers 2004 SC 665, the Inner House of the Court of Session said, with reference to the Scottish Parliament’s moral judgment expressed in the Protection of Wild Mammals (Scotland) Act 2002:
‘The starting point on this issue, in our opinion, is that the prevention of cruelty to animals has for over a century fallen within the constitutional responsibility of the legislature. The enactment of every statute on the subject has necessarily involved the making of a moral judgment. In our view, the 2002 Act should be seen as a further step in a long legislative sequence in which animal welfare has on numerous occasions been promoted by legislation related to contemporary needs and problems.’
This succinct statement is, as I respectfully think, entirely correct.
[37] As recounted in Animal Welfare in Britain: Regulation and Responsibility M Radford (2001) Ch 3, parliamentary efforts to protect the welfare of animals began in 1800 with a measure seeking to prohibit bull-baiting. These attempts
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were unsuccessful, The Times applauding the rejection of the first bill in 1800 (see Radford, p 34):
‘It should be written in letters of gold that a Government cannot interfere too little with the people; that laws, even good ones, cannot be multiplied with impunity; and that whatever meddles with the private personal disposition of a man’s time or property is tyranny.’
But the tide of opinion gradually changed. Martin’s Act, ‘to prevent the cruel and improper treatment of cattle’ (expressed to include horses and sheep), was passed in 1822. The Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals, founded in 1824 to secure ‘the mitigation of animal suffering, and the promotion and expansion of the practice of humanity towards the inferior classes of animated beings’ (see Radford, p 41), added ‘Royal’ to its name, by permission of Queen Victoria, in 1840. Measures to protect the welfare of animals and prevent the causing of suffering to them were enacted in 1833, 1835, 1837, 1844, 1849, 1850, 1854, 1876 and 1894. In 1900 the Wild Animals in Captivity Protection Act was passed. It applied to any confined bird, beast, fish or reptile not included in the 1849 and 1854 Acts, and made it an offence wantonly or unreasonably to cause or permit any unnecessary suffering or cruelty to any of these creatures or to abuse, infuriate, tease or terrify it. By s 4, insisted upon, it is said (Radford, p 85), by the House of Lords, the Act was not to apply to the hunting or coursing of any animal which had not been liberated in a mutilated or injured state in order to facilitate its capture or destruction. During the twentieth century the stream of legislation continued, with statutes directed to the welfare, protection and preservation of animals passed in (among other years) 1909, 1911, 1912, 1921, 1925, 1927, 1928, 1933, 1949, 1951, 1952, 1954, 1962, 1973, 1981, 1986, 1987, 1988, 1991, 1992, 1993 and 1996. The familiar suggestion that the British mind more about their animals than their children does not lack a certain foundation of fact. Whatever one’s view of the 2004 Act, it must be seen as the latest link in a long chain of statutes devoted to what was seen as social reform. It may be doubted if any country has done more than this to try and prevent the causing of unnecessary suffering to animals.
[38] The controversy surrounding the 2004 Act was protracted and remains acute. But it cannot be too clearly stated that it is not and never has been a contest between those who oppose cruelty to animals and those who support it. These appellants have not sought to impugn the motives of the proponents and supporters of the Act, who must therefore be taken to believe that foxhunting in its traditional form causes a degree of suffering to the fox which should not be permitted as a recreational activity. The Attorney General for her part has not suggested, and could not suggest, that the appellants and those who support foxhunting are in any way tolerant or unmindful of cruelty to animals. They include very many people imbued (unlike many of their urban critics) with a deep knowledge and love of the countryside and the natural world, who would shrink from any act of what they saw as cruelty. But they believe that foxes are a pest; that the fox population must be regularly culled; and that hunting is a more humane means of destruction than the alternatives. They contrast the quick and certain death of a fox caught by hounds with the suffering of a fox which is wounded but not killed by shooting; with the death by starvation of cubs whose mother is shot, there being no close season for shooting as for hunting; and with the slow torture of a fox caught in a snare and not dispatched or released.
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[39] Certain facts pertinent to the issues we have to decide may, I think, be taken as agreed or not effectively disputed in these proceedings:
(1) The fox population in England and Wales is about 217,000. It doubles during the breeding season and reverts to its starting level as a result of natural and unnatural causes, many foxes being killed on the road (Divisional Court judgment at [24]; Court of Appeal judgment at [7]).
(2) Foxes are a pest and the fox population has to be culled (Court of Appeal judgment at [23]).
(3) Traditional means of culling have included hunting with hounds, shooting and snaring.
(4) In the period before the 2004 Act, some 21,000–25,000 foxes were killed by hunting each year (roughly 10 per cent of those who died from all causes), up to 11,000 of these being dug out by terriers (Divisional Court judgment at [24]; Court of Appeal judgment at [7]).
(5) Of those foxes which are not killed each year by hunting or on the road, the great majority, perhaps 80,000, are shot. Even in upland Wales, more foxes are culled by shooting than by hunting (Divisional Court judgment at [24]; Court of Appeal judgment at [7]).
(6) The most humane way of killing a fox is by a well-directed shot from a suitable weapon at an appropriate range. By ‘humane’ in this context is meant that death is inflicted in a way that causes minimum suffering to the fox.
(7) If a fox is shot, and is wounded but not killed, and is permitted to escape, it may very well endure suffering.
(8) If a fox is snared, and is not promptly killed or released, it may very well suffer.
(9) No scientific evaluation has been made of the psychological and physiological effects on a fox of its being pursued by a pack of hounds over what may be a considerable distance and for what may be a considerable period of time before it is caught and killed (if it is) by the hounds. But this process compromises the welfare of the fox and probably falls short of standards we would expect for humane killing (Burns Report, paras 6.49, 6.52; Lord Burns, Hansard HL Debates, 12 March 2001, col 533).
(10) A fox which is caught by a pack of hounds will not be wounded and escape but will be quickly, if not necessarily instantaneously, destroyed (Burns Report, para 6.49).
[40] There has been much argument in the House and below about the aim of the legislature in enacting the 2004 Act. The Divisional Court set out its conclusion in para [339] of its judgment, which the Court of Appeal fully accepted (at [56]) and which calls for repetition:
‘We discern from evidence admissible on the principles in Wilson that the legislative aim of the Hunting Act is a composite one of preventing or reducing unnecessary suffering to wild mammals, overlaid by a moral viewpoint that causing suffering to animals for sport is unethical and should, so far as is practical and proportionate, be stopped. The evidential derivation for this legitimate aim comprises the terms of the legislation and the admissible contextual background. This background includes the Burns Report, the Portcullis House hearings, the ministerial basis for and the terms of the original Michael Bill, the obvious inference that the majority of the House of Commons considered the original Michael Bill inadequate, and the
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well-known opposing points of view in the prolonged and much publicised hunting controversy.’
Plainly, as I think, the Divisional Court was entitled to have regard to the materials listed, for the reasons it gave at greater length in para [269] of its judgment, and its approach was not challenged, save (by the Attorney General) to suggest that it could have taken account of other parliamentary materials. I consider that the courts below accurately expressed the rationale of the 2004 Act. The appellants did not accept this. They pointed out, correctly, that this rationale was nowhere expressed in the 2004 Act, that this did not reflect the government’s intention in introducing the bill and that virtually no parliamentary statement expressed the rationale in this way. But, as the Divisional Court recorded in para [12] of its judgment, endorsed by the Court of Appeal (at [6]), the Labour Party in 1997 had advocated new measures to promote animal welfare, including a free vote in Parliament on whether hunting with hounds should be banned. So concern for animal welfare was the mainspring of the legislation. It was originally proposed by the government, in the Michael Bill, to achieve that end by prohibiting deer hunting and hare coursing but permitting fox, hare and mink hunting subject to regulation according to the principles of utility and least suffering already noted. But the latter proposal, although enjoying a measure of support in the House of Lords, was plainly unacceptable to a majority in the House of Commons, who did not feel that it went far enough. Why not? I do not think the appellants proffered any answer to this question. The only answer can, I think, be that it was felt to be morally offensive to inflict suffering on foxes (and hares and mink) by way of sport.
[41] The appellants resist this conclusion by pointing out, again correctly, that the 2004 Act is very selective: while prohibiting hunting of foxes, deer, hares and mink it permits the hunting of rabbits and rats, is protective of game birds reared for shooting, and does not extend to shooting, fishing or falconry. This selectiveness is relied on as showing that the rationale of the 2004 Act cannot be that found by the courts below, for if it were consistency would have required a more far-reaching measure. This is a traditional argument. Thomas Erskine’s unsuccessful Cruelty to Animals Bill of 1809 was attacked by its principal opponent on the ground (see Radford, p 37) that if Parliament were to pass legislation which imposed a punishment for cruelty, while ‘we continued to practise and to reserve in great measure to ourselves the sports of hunting, shooting, and fishing, we must exhibit ourselves as the most hardened and unblushing hypocrites that ever shocked the feelings of mankind’. For nearly two hundred years, the legislative practice in this field has been to address whatever seemed at any given time to the current parliamentary majority to be the most pressing problem. It seems to me clear that this Act was based upon a moral principle, whether one agrees with that principle or not, and I do not think that doubt can be thrown on the rationale of the 2004 Act, as expressed by the courts below, by showing that the underlying principle, if carried to its logical extremes, would have justified a much more far-reaching measure.
[42] The real crux of the appellants’ argument is that the prohibition of hunting is not shown to reduce the overall level of suffering endured by foxes as compared with the situation which pertained before the Act. This argument does not of course touch the great majority of foxes comprised within the annual cull which before the Act were either run over on the roads or shot. It concerns the minority of foxes, roughly 10 per cent, which were either pursued or dug out and
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killed in the course of hunting, and within that minority those which will now, through inexpert shooting, endure a more painful death. I do not for my part think that it is possible to construct any precise calculus of relative suffering. Even if more scientific evidence were available I question if this could be done. There is, however, a body of reputable professional opinion which accepts that the pursuit and digging out of foxes, and their killing by hounds, imposes a degree of suffering. This accords with common sense. To suppose that the contrary is generally true strains one’s credulity to breaking point. The degree of suffering is, I think, unknowable. Unknowable also is the future incidence, in a society increasingly sensitive to animal suffering, of foxes wounded by inexpert shooting and left to die. The exemption in the Act which permits the hunting and destruction by two hounds of wounded foxes is clearly designed to reduce this risk, as is the Secretary of State’s approval of a code of shooting practice intended to encourage effective shooting and so reduce wounding rates. There are detailed statutory provisions governing, for example, the use of snares: see s 11 of the Wildlife and Countryside Act 1981. Into the calculation must further be injected the element of moral judgment already repeatedly mentioned: there are many people who would accept such minimum suffering as is inherent in the properly conducted humane slaughter of animals for human consumption but would not accept the infliction of any suffering by way of sport.
[43] As is evident from the terms of arts 8 and 11 of the convention (cited in paras [10] and [16], above, respectively) what would otherwise be impermissible interferences with protected rights may be justified if three conditions are met. The first of these, that the interference should be ‘in accordance with the law’ or ‘prescribed by law’ is clearly met, since it is the law of which the HR claimants complain.
[44] The second condition is that the interference for which the law provides should be directed towards one or more of the objects or aims specified in the second paragraph of the respective articles. Relevant in each of these cases is ‘for the protection of . . . morals’. This was in my opinion the aim of this Act, since the majority judged that the hunting of wild mammals (with the exceptions already noted) and the coursing of hares by greyhounds was morally objectionable and moral ends would be served by bringing the practice to an end. This does not fall outside the aims permitted under these articles.
[45] The third condition is that the interference in question is necessary in a democratic society, raising the familiar questions whether there is a pressing social need for it and whether it is proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued. There are of course many in England and Wales who do not consider that there is a pressing (or any) social need for the ban imposed by the Act. But after intense debate a majority of the country’s democratically-elected representatives decided otherwise. It is of course true that the existence of duly enacted legislation does not conclude the issue. In Dudgeon v UK (1981) 4 EHRR 149 and Norris v Ireland (1988) 13 EHRR 186 legislation criminalising homosexual relations between adult males was found to be an unjustifiable interference with the applicants’ rights under art 8. But the legislation under attack had been enacted in each case in 1861 and 1885 and was not enforced in either Northern Ireland or Ireland. During the intervening century moral perceptions had changed. Here we are dealing with a law which is very recent and must (unless and until reversed) be taken to reflect the conscience of a majority of the nation. The degree of respect to be shown to the considered judgment of a democratic assembly will vary according to the subject matter and the circumstances. But the present case seems to me
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pre-eminently one in which respect should be shown to what the House of Commons decided. The democratic process is liable to be subverted if, on a question of moral and political judgment, opponents of the 2004 Act achieve through the courts what they could not achieve in Parliament.
[46] If, as has been held, the object of the 2004 Act was to eliminate (subject to the specified exceptions) the hunting and killing of wild animals by way of sport, no less far-reaching measure could have achieved that end. As already noted, the underlying rationale could have been relied on to justify a more comprehensive ban. The Michael Bill was rejected because it did not go far enough. I am of the opinion that the 2004 Act is proportionate to the end it sought to achieve.
[47] Article 1 of the First Protocol, as noted above (at [19]), is not to impair in any way the right of a state to enforce such laws as it deems necessary to control the use of property in accordance with the general interest. The 2004 Act is a law to control the use of property. It is, in the first instance, for Parliament to decide what laws are necessary in accordance with what it judges to be the general interest. It has decided that the 2004 Act is necessary in accordance with the general interest. As already pointed out, Parliament’s judgment is not immune from challenge. The national courts in the first instance, and ultimately the Strasbourg court, have a power and a duty to measure national legislation against convention standards. But for reasons already given, respect should be paid to the recent and closely-considered judgment of a democratic assembly, and no ground is shown for disturbing that judgment in this instance.
[48] Article 28 of the EC Treaty is qualified by art 30 which, so far as relevant, provides:
‘The provisions of Articles 28 and 29 shall not preclude prohibitions or restrictions on imports, exports or goods in transit justified on grounds of public morality, public policy or public security; the protection of health and life of humans, animals or plants . . . Such prohibitions or restrictions shall not, however, constitute a means of arbitrary discrimination or a disguised restriction on trade between Member States.’
Article 46, applicable to art 49 by virtue of art 55, provides so far as relevant:
‘The provisions of this Chapter and measures taken in pursuance thereof shall not prejudice the applicability of provisions laid down by law, regulation or administrative action providing for special treatment for foreign nationals on grounds of public policy, public security or public health.’
Common to both provisions is the possibility of justifying an impugned measure on grounds of public policy, although art 30 makes reference also to public morality and protection of the health or life of animals.
[49] The test of justification under Community law is a strict one and is subject to the overall control of the ECJ. The relevant principles are conveniently set out by the court in its recent judgment in Omega Spielhallen- und Automatenaufstellungs-GmbH v Oberbürgermeisterin der Bundesstadt Bonn Case C-36/02 [2004] ECR I-9609 at 9651–9652:
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‘28. Concerning justification for the restriction of the freedom to provide services imposed by the order of 14 September 1994, Article 46 EC, which applies here by virtue of Article 55 EC, allows restrictions justified for reasons of public policy, public security or public health. In this case, the documents before the Court show that the grounds relied on by the Bonn police authority in adopting the prohibition order expressly mention the fact that the activity concerned constitutes a danger to public policy. Moreover, reference to a danger to public policy also appears in Paragraph 14(1) of the OBG NW, empowering police authorities to take necessary measures to avert that danger.
29. In these proceedings, it is undisputed that the contested order was adopted independently of any consideration linked to the nationality of the providers or recipients of the services placed under a restriction. In any event, since measures for safeguarding public policy fall within a derogation from the freedom to provide services set out in Article 46 EC, it is not necessary to verify whether those measures are applied without distinction both to national providers of services and those established in other Member States.
30. However, the possibility of a Member State relying on a derogation laid down by the Treaty does not prevent judicial review of measures applying that derogation ([Van Duyn v Home Office Case 41/74 [1975] 3 All ER 190, [1975] Ch 358], paragraph 7). In addition, the concept of “public policy” in the Community context, particularly as justification for a derogation from the fundamental principle of the freedom to provide services, must be interpreted strictly, so that its scope cannot be determined unilaterally by each Member State without any control by the Community institutions (see, by analogy with the free movement of works, Van Duyn, paragraph 18; [R v Bouchereau Case 30/77 [1981] 2 All ER 924n, [1978] QB 732], paragraph 33). Thus, public policy may be relied on only if there is a genuine and sufficiently serious threat to a fundamental interest of society ([Association Église de Scientologie de Paris v Prime Minister of France Case C-54/99 [2000] ECR I-1335], paragraph 17).
31. The fact remains, however, that the specific circumstances which may justify recourse to the concept of public policy may vary from one country to another and from one era to another. The competent national authorities must therefore be allowed a margin of discretion within the limits imposed by the Treaty (Van Duyn, paragraph 18, and Bouchereau, paragraph 34).’
The court added (at 9653 (para 36)):
‘However, measures which restrict the freedom to provide services may be justified on public policy grounds only if they are necessary for the protection of the interests which they are intended to guarantee and only in so far as those objectives cannot be attained by less restrictive measures . . .’
[50] I approach the issue of justification on the assumption that arts 28 and 49 apply, but also on the basis that the measure to be justified is a measure of social reform, not directed to the regulation of commercial activity, of which any impediment to the intra-Community provision of goods or services is a minor and unintended consequence and which bears more hardly on those within this
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country than outside it. In Omega Spielhallen- und Automatenaufstellungs-GmbH v Oberbürgermeisterin der Bundesstadt Bonn Case C-36/02 [2004] ECR I-9609 at 9652 (para 32), the German authorities considered, and the ECJ accepted (at 9654 (para 40)), that ‘the exploitation of games involving the simulated killing of human beings infringed a fundamental value enshrined in the national constitution, namely human dignity’. Here, Parliament considered that the real killing of foxes, deer, hares and mink by way of recreation infringed a fundamental value expressed in numerous statutes and culminating in the 2004 Act. For reasons already given, I am of the clear opinion, in agreement with the Divisional Court (at [350], [351]) and the Court of Appeal ([2007] QB 305 at [193]) that the 2004 Act is justifiable in Community law. No ruling by the ECJ is necessary to enable the House to decide this appeal.
[51] No distinction is to be drawn between the hunting of foxes on the one hand and the hunting of deer, hares and mink, or the coursing of hares, on the other. My conclusions, if accepted by my noble and learned friends, make it unnecessary to distinguish between the individual HR and EC claimants.
[52] For those reasons I would dismiss both appeals. The parties are invited to make submissions on costs within 14 days.
LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD.
[53] My Lords, I cannot improve on my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill’s masterly introduction to the facts of this case and his description of the historical background, which I have had the privilege of reading in draft and adopt with gratitude. I wish to concentrate on the questions of law that are before us. As my Lord points out, it is the answer to those questions that must determine whether the prohibitions in the Hunting Act 2004 are incompatible with the claimants’ convention rights or with Community law.
THE HUMAN RIGHTS CLAIMS
[54] I agree that the claims of the human rights claimants (HR claimants) cannot be brought within the scope of art 8 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). We are not concerned in this case with personal autonomy in the sense referred to in Pretty v UK (2002) 12 BHRC 149 at 183, 184 (paras 61, 66). This case is not about the choices that a person makes about his or her own body or physical identity. It is not about respect for the home as the place where a person is entitled to be free from arbitrary interference by the public authorities: see Harrow London BC v Qazi [2003] UKHL 43 at [50], [2003] 4 All ER 461 at [50]. In Giacomelli v Italy (2006) 45 EHRR 871 at 885–886 (para 76), the European Court said that a home will usually be the place, the physically defined area, where private and family life develops and that the individual has a right to the quiet enjoyment of that area. But that is not what this case is about either. It is about the claimants’ right to establish and develop relationships with other human beings and the outside world. But this right is protected only ‘to a certain degree’: Niemietz v Germany (1992) 16 EHRR 97 at 111–112 (para 29).
[55] As the Lord Justice Clerk (Gill), delivering the opinion of the court, said in Adams v Scottish Ministers 2004 SC 665 at 679 (para 63), it is fallacious to argue that, because a certain activity establishes and develops relationships with others, it is on that account within the scope of private life. For many people hunting with hounds is a way of life. This is not just about how people spend their own time when they wish to be left alone. It affects how they behave with other
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people too. Not all activities of that kind lie outside the scope of protection. But in this case it is possible to distinguish very clearly between what is public and what is private. Hunting with hounds, by its very nature, is carried on in public and it has many social aspects to it which involve the wider community. Moreover the prohibition is directed at activities that are carried on in public, not what people who hunt do in private when they are not hunting. They lie outside the private sphere of a person’s existence which is protected by art 8. Of course, it has a rich cultural tradition of its own which has been built up over many years. The customs and beliefs which are shared by those who participate in it are different from those shared by others in the population generally. But they are a minority in numerical terms only. They are not part of a recognised ethnic or national group such as the Saami people in the north of Norway to whose traditional activities art 8 extends its protection (see G v Norway (1983) 35 DR 30). So it is not applicable on that ground in this case.
[56] I have reached the same conclusion on the question whether their claims can be brought within art 11 of the convention. The principles on which the right of assembly has evolved have largely been developed in the context of political demonstrations: Clayton and Tomlinson The Law of Human Rights (2000), para 16.57. The two freedoms referred to in art 11—the freedom of peaceful assembly and the freedom of association with others—may overlap, as where people assemble or move in procession in support of their right to belong to a trade union. The right to exercise these freedoms, combined with the protection to hold opinions and the freedom to express them guaranteed by art 10, is essential to the proper functioning of a modern democracy. Taken together they provide protection for persons who, without belonging to any particular association or without any previously conceived plan or purpose, assemble for the purposes of a demonstration on a matter of public interest.
[57] As Lord Bingham has noted, the courts below, in agreement with the Lord Ordinary (Lord Brodie) in Whaley v Lord Advocate 2004 SC 78 at 121 (para 80), with whom the Inner House in its turn also agreed in Friend v Lord Advocate 2006 SC 121 at 126 (para 21), rejected the claims on the ground that the effect of the hunting ban was not to prohibit the assembly of the hunt but to prohibit a particular activity which the hunt might engage upon once it had assembled. I agree that this is not a sufficient answer to the argument that the claimants are within the protection of art 11. In the field of public protest, for example, it would be wrong to say that the article had no application because the activity on which the participants were engaged did not begin until after they had assembled.
[58] That argument having been rejected, however, the question remains whether art 11 is nevertheless engaged. But here again, as in the case of art 8, there are limits. There is a threshold that must be crossed before the article becomes applicable. The essence of the freedom of assembly that art 11 guarantees is that it is a fundamental right in a democracy and, like the right to freedom of expression, is one of the foundations of such a society (see Rassamblement Jurrasien Unité v Switzerland (1979) 17 DR 93). The situations to which it applies must relate to activities that are of that character, of which the right to form and join a trade union which art 11 refers to is an example. The purpose of the activity provides the key to its application. It covers meetings in private as well as in public, but it does not guarantee a right to assemble for purely social purposes. The right of assembly that the claimants seek to assert is really no more than a right to gather together for pleasure and recreation, which the
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Strasbourg court, agreeing with the Commission at para 105, has held their activity to be: Chassagnou v France (1999) 7 BHRC 151 at 183 (para 108). I agree with Lord Bingham that, where the activity which brings people together is prohibited, the effect is in reality to restrict their right to assemble. But the claimants’ position is no different from that of any other people who wish to assemble with others in a public place for sporting or recreational purposes. It falls well short of the kind of assembly whose protection is fundamental to the proper functioning of a modern democracy and is, for that reason, guaranteed by art 11. No decision of the Strasbourg court has gone that far. I would hold that this article too is not applicable.
[59] As for art 14, the Grand Chamber of the Strasbourg court has held that it complements the other substantive provisions of the convention and the protocols. It has no other independent existence since, according to its own terms, it has effect solely in relation to the enjoyment of the rights and freedoms guaranteed by those provisions. But it does not necessarily presuppose the violation of one of the substantive rights guaranteed by the convention. It is necessary, but also sufficient, for the facts of the case to fall within what has been described as ‘the ambit’ of one or more of the convention articles: STEC v UK (2006) 20 BHRC 348 at 356 (para 38). The Grand Chamber added this explanation (at para 39):
‘The prohibition of discrimination in article 14 thus extends beyond the enjoyment of the rights and freedoms which the Convention and Protocols require each state to guarantee. It applies also to those additional rights, falling within the scope of any Convention article, for which the state has voluntarily decided to provide.’
[60] As Lord Bingham of Cornhill said in R (on the application of Clift) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of Hindawi) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] UKHL 54 at [13], [2007] 2 All ER 1 at [13], [2007] 1 AC 484, expressions such as ‘ambit’ are not precise and exact in their meaning. As he put it: ‘They denote a situation in which a substantive Convention right is not violated, but in which a personal interest close to the core of such a right is infringed.' That will be so if, for example, the state, having set up an institution such as a school or other educational establishment in unilingual regions, takes discriminatory measures within the meaning of art 14 read with the right to education in art 2 of the first protocol which are based on differences in the language of children attending these schools (see Belgian Linguistics Case (No 2) (1968) 1 EHRR 252 at 317–319 (para 32)). Clift’s case provides another example closer to home. It was held that a scheme which had been set up by legislation which gave the right of early release of prisoners fell within the ambit of the right to liberty in art 5 of the convention. Differential treatment of prisoners otherwise than on the merits gave rise to a potential complaint of discrimination under art 14.
[61] But to attract the protection of the article the discrimination must also be on some ground which falls within the list which the article sets out. This list is not exhaustive, but the words ‘or other status’ at the end of the list show that it is not unlimited: R (on the application of S) v Chief Constable of the South Yorkshire, R (on the application of Marper) v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire [2004] UKHL 39 at [48], [2004] 4 All ER 193 at [48], [2004] 1 WLR 2196, per Lord Steyn. It does not preclude discrimination on any ground whatever. The principle was explained in
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Kjeldsen v Denmark (1976) 1 EHRR 711 at 732–733 (para 56), where the Strasbourg court said:
‘. . . Article 14 prohibits, within the ambit of the rights and freedoms guaranteed, discriminatory treatment having as its basis or reason a personal characteristic (“status”) by which persons or groups of persons are distinguishable from each other. However, there is nothing in the contested legislation which can suggest that it envisaged such treatment.’
[62] The words ‘envisaged such treatment’ in the last sentence (omitted from the quotations from this paragraph in Clift’s case [2007] 2 All ER 1 at [27], [56], [2007] 1 AC 484) are important. They suggest that the words ‘personal characteristic’ are sensitive to the context in which the issue arises. Something which might not strike one as a personal characteristic in the abstract may become apparent if it is the reason why the state decides to treat some people differently from other people in similar factual circumstances. It was on this part of his case that the argument broke down in Clift’s case. He was unable to show that the length of his sentence conferred a status, or personal characteristic, on him within the meaning of the article because of which he was treated differently. But I would regard that case as lying close to the borderline.
[63] The question is whether, applying these principles, the Act is incompatible with art 14. In my opinion the argument that it is fails on both points. For the reasons already given, I do not think that art 8 or art 11 is are engaged. Article 14 would be if the claimants could show that their case nevertheless fell within, or was at least close to, the core of the values guaranteed by either of those articles. But this is not something that can be plucked out of the air. It must be related to a right that, as it was put in STEC v UK (2006) 20 BHRC 348 at 356 (para 39), the state has decided voluntarily to provide. Having done so, it cannot limit access to that right, restrict it or take it away on grounds that would conflict with any of the core values. That however is not this case. The 2004 Act is not directed at anything that the state itself has provided or seeks to provide. Its sole purpose is to restrict an activity in which persons can engage if they wish but in which the state itself is not involved at all.
[64] That is the principal reason why I would hold that the claimants’ case is not within the ambit of any of the rights guaranteed by the convention. But I would also hold that the discrimination of which they complain is not directed at them on any of the grounds mentioned in art 14. As the Lord Justice Clerk said in Adams v Scottish Ministers 2004 SC 665 at 688–689 (paras 113, 114), it is the activity of hunting with hounds for sport that has been singled out for differential treatment, not participation in it by a particular sort of people or by people having a particular characteristic. Moreover, looking at the matter from the point of view of the HR claimants as individuals, it is not on the ground of their political or other opinion or any other status that they are able to identify that this action has been taken. The real reason for it lies in the nature of the activity, not in the personal characteristics of the many people of all kinds and social backgrounds who participate in hunting.
[65] For all the reasons that Lord Bingham gives, however, I agree that art 1 of the First Protocol is clearly applicable to the complaints of some of the claimants and that for this reason it is necessary to consider whether the interference imposed by the 2004 Act can be justified and is proportionate.
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THE EC CLAIMS
[66] The EC claimants do not suggest that the issues of Community law are capable of being resolved, without any element of doubt, in their favour. Their position is that the issues which they have raised should be referred to the European Court of Justice for a preliminary ruling under art 234(3) EC. They point out that there is an obligation on your Lordships’ House, as a court from whose decisions there is no judicial remedy, to refer any question of Community law which it is necessary to decide which is not acte clair (see CILFIT Srl v Ministero della Sanità Case C-283/81 [1982] ECR 3415 at 3430 (paras 16–20)).
[67] As for the scope of that obligation, in Criminal proceedings against Lyckeskog Case C-99/00 [2002] ECR I-4839 at 4863–4864 (para 64), Advocate General Tizzano pointed out that CILFIT was not the outcome of an ex tempore decision by the court but was set out directly in precise and formal terms in the treaty, and that it was one of the fundamental and essential principles of the Community legal system. It is sometimes suggested that it has been overstated, leading to an excessive use of the procedure. But Sir David Edward, ‘Reform of Article 234 Procedure: the Limits of the Possible’, D O’Keeffe (ed) Judicial Review in European Union Law (2000), pp 122–123, has explained that the problem lies not in CILFIT but in the texts. Article 234 leaves no room for any other limitation of the obligation to refer unless there is, in reality, no question on which a decision is necessary to enable the national court to give judgment. In his Mackenzie-Stuart Lecture of 18 October 2002, National Courts—the Powerhouse of Community Law, Cambridge Yearbook of European Legal Studies, vol 5, 2002–2003, 1, 7, Sir David said that the treaty was, after all, unambiguous and that it seemed to him very odd to suggest that the court should relax CILFIT when that judgment represented a substantial (even ‘activist’) relaxation of what the treaty requires.
[68] The first question that the EC claimants ask to be referred is whether a national measure prohibiting the economic activity of hunting within the territory of a member state engages the application of art 28 EC in circumstances where the prohibition has the predictable effect of extinguishing or diminishing the market for a product used wholly or mainly for that activity and thereby eliminates or reduces both cross-border and domestic trade in that product. I agree that it is not clear beyond the bounds of reasonable argument that the 2004 Act does not engage that article. The only basis on which it was said by the Court of Appeal not to be applicable was that Keck and Mithouard Joined Cases C-267/91 and C-268/91 [1993] ECR I–6097 consciously made a new start in the application of the Dassonville principle (see Procureur du Roi v Dassonville Case 8/74 [1974] ECR 837) in the case of rules that were not ‘aimed at’ products from other member states (see [2007] QB 305 at [144]). According to that principle, although the measure may not be intended to govern trade in goods between member states, the decisive factor is its effect on intra-Community trade, whether actual or potential. It is true that in Keck, para 14, the European Court of Justice said that it was necessary to re-examine and clarify its case law on this matter. This was because of the increasing tendency of traders to invoke what is now art 28 EC as a means of challenging any rules whose effect was to limit their commercial freedom ‘even where such rules are not aimed at products from other Member States’. But the court’s case law after Keck and Mithouard has limited its application to ‘selling arrangements’ in the narrow sense of that expression—such as the places and times at which products may be sold and the way in which they may be advertised for sale and marketed: eg Herbert Karner Industrie-Auktionen GmbH v Troostwijk GmbH Case C-71/02 [2004] ECR I-3025 at
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3067 (para 38); Joined Cases C-158/04 and 159/04, the Alfa Vita Vassilopoulos AE v Elliniko Dimosio Joined Cases C-158/04 and C-159/04 [2007] 2 CMLR 71 at 93 (paras 17, 18). I think that it is clear from these developments that the Keck exception does not apply in this case because the ban on hunting is not of that character.
[69] But that is not an end of the matter. The ban is non-discriminatory. It affects domestic goods used for or in connection with hunting just as much as it affects foreign products that are used for or in connection with these purposes—horses bred in Ireland for sale to customers in England, for example. Nor would it be realistic to say that this is a disguised restriction on trade between member states within the meaning of the article (see Aragonesa de Publicidad Exterior SA v Departamento de Sanidad y Seguridad Social de la Generalitat de Cataluña Joined Cases C-1/90 and C-176/90 [1991] ECR I-4151 at 4186 (para 25)). There is nothing either in the terms of the 2004 Act or any part of its legislative history that indicates that protectionism of that kind was to even the slightest degree in the minds of the legislators. These facts suggest non-applicability. But it is common ground that art 28 applies irrespective of whether the measure in question was intended to restrict or regulate trade between member states. Can it be said then that, although discrimination on grounds of nationality was not the aim, art 28 is engaged because the legislation prevents or substantially restricts access to the English market by Irish breeders and dealers and restricts access to Irish products by English purchasers?
[70] Two recent opinions by the Advocate General in cases that still await judgment suggest that it is unclear what answer that the European Court would give to that question (see Advocate General Léger in European Commission v Italy Case C-110/05 (5 October 2006, unreported) (para 40); Advocate General Kokott in Âklagaren v Mickelsson Case C-142/05 (Opinion, 14 December 2006) (paras 66, 67). European Commission v Italy was initially allocated to a chamber of three judges, but after the Advocate General had given his opinion it was re-allocated to the Grand Chamber which ordered on 7 March 2007 that an oral hearing should take place. Parties were invited to submit written pleadings on the question to what extent should national measures which govern the use of products—which is this case—be considered to be measures having equivalent effect to quantitative restrictions on imports within the meaning of art 28 EC. As matters stand, pending a decision by the Grand Chamber in that case, the issue cannot be regarded as acte clair.
[71] The EC claimants also seek a preliminary reference on the question whether a national measure prohibiting the economic activity of hunting within the territory of a member state engages art 49 in circumstances where as a predictable consequence of the prohibition providers of hunting-related services are prevented from providing such services and recipients of hunting-related services (whether established in that member state or in other member states) are prevented from receiving them. I think that the position is just as, if not more, unclear in the case of this article. It is common ground that there is no Keck exception in the case of services: see the opinions of Advocate General Stix-Hackl in Omega Spielhallen- und Automatenaufstellungs-GmbH v Oberbürgermeisterin der Bundesstadt Bonn Case C-36/02 [2004] ECR I-9609 at 9653, 9654 (paras 36, 37) and Advocate General Jacobs in Konsumentombudsmannen (KO) v Gourmet International Products AB Case C-405/98 [2001] All ER (EC) 308 at 317, [2001] ECR I-1795 at 1812–1813 (para 71). And it is clear too that discrimination, or an intention to discriminate, is not the test. In Customs and Excise Comrs v Schindler Case C-275/92
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[1994] 2 All ER 193 at 228, [1994] QB 610 at 666 (para 43) the court said that according to its case law national legislation may fall within the ambit of what is now art 49 EC ‘even if it is applicable without distinction’ when it is liable to prohibit or otherwise impede the activities of a provider of services in another member state where he lawfully provides similar services. The Omega case and Carpenter v Secretary of State for the Home Dept Case C-60/00 [2003] All ER (EC) 577, [2003] QB 416 provide examples of cases where a non-discriminatory impediment was held to engage art 49 EC.
[72] The Court of Appeal held that the hunting ban did not engage art 49 EC because it did not have a ‘direct inhibiting’ effect on the rights to provide services: see Robert Walker LJ’s formulation of the test in R (on the application of Professional Contractors Group) v Inland Revenue Comrs [2001] EWCA Civ 1945, [2002] STC 165. What it did was to render the market for such services less attractive. But it is at least arguable that this is too severe a test. There are indications in the court’s case law that all that is required is a foreseeable and logical link between the measure at issue and trade between member states, something that is likely to deter free movement: opinion of Advocate General Cosmas in Esso Española SA v Comunidad Autónoma de Canarias Case C-134/94 [1995] ECR I-4223 at 4232–4233 (para 19); Omega Spielhallen- und Automatenaufstellungs-GmbH v Oberbürgermeisterin der Bundesstadt Bonn Case C-36/02 [2004] ECR I-9609 at 9650 (para 25). So I do not think that the position can be said to be acte clair against these claimants. Nor is the jurisprudence sufficiently clear in its application to the facts of this case, where a measure which was not to the slightest degree meant to be discriminatory has had an effect on the provision of services between member states which is so minimal, for it to be acte clair in their favour either.
[73] But no good purpose would be served by seeking a preliminary ruling on these matters if it was clear that we would be bound to hold, applying the relevant test, that any such restrictions as result from the ban imposed by the 2004 Act were justified on grounds of public policy under art 30 EC in the case of goods, and under art 46 EC read with art 55 EC in the case of services, respectively and were proportionate.
JUSTIFICATION AND PROPORTIONALITY
[74] These then are the crucial questions. Although there is a degree of overlap, it is best to examine the cases of the HR claimants and the EC claimants separately.
[75] I deal first with the case for the HR claimants. The first paragraph of art 1 of the First Protocol provides that no one shall be deprived of his possessions except in the public interest and subject to the conditions provided for by law and by the general principles of international law. The second provides that the preceding provisions shall not in any way impair the right of the state to enforce such laws as it deems necessary to control the use of property in the accordance with the general interest. Both deprivation and control are in issue in this case. It is not for your Lordships to say, as a matter of fact, whether the ban on hunting which has these effects was or was not in the public interest or the general interest. This was a question for the democratically elected members of the House of Commons to decide. The questions for your Lordships are whether it was open to them to take that view and whether the prohibitions that were enacted were proportionate.
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[76] I do not find it possible to answer either of these questions in the negative. The legislators’ objective was based partly on the view that causing cruelty to animals was morally objectionable and partly on the view that the activities which they wished to prohibit did in fact cause cruelty. Whether there was a pressing social need to give effect to those views involved a question of balance between competing interests. This raises the familiar question as to where the margin lies between the area of the discretionary judgment that the court will accord to a democratically elected assembly in matters of social policy and those areas where the court can legitimately intervene on the ground that it is especially well placed to assess whether an interference is needed and is proportionate.
[77] There was plainly a choice to be made between acutely competing interests—between those who wished to continue to participate in these activities and those who wished to prohibit them. They were wholly at odds as to whether there was a factual justification for the interference with the HR claimants’ art 1 of the First Protocol convention right. The claimants said that those in favour of the prohibition had failed to address the issue of relative suffering. It had not been shown that hunting for foxes with hounds was less humane than other methods of killing them. The respondents said that the justification was to be found in the objectives of reducing suffering, reducing instances of disorder associated with hunting and dealing with the criminality associated with hare coursing, and that the issue of relative suffering was not determinative.
[78] If relative suffering had been the determinative issue, a close and careful examination of the factual basis for that decision would have been necessary to judge whether there was a sufficient justification for impairing the convention right (see R v Shayler [2002] UKHL 11 at [61], [2002] 2 All ER 477 at [61], [2003] 1 AC 247). But in my opinion it was not necessary for those who were promoting the legislation to deal with the issue in that way. It was open to them to focus on the nature of the activities without comparing them with others, bearing in mind that they were being engaged in for sport and recreation. It was open to them to form their own judgment as to whether they caused a sufficient degree of suffering in that context for legislative action to be taken to deal with them. Having decided that there was a sufficient degree of suffering in that context, it was open to them too to decide that prohibiting these activities in the manner laid down by the 2004 Act was proportionate.
[79] I turn then to the case for the EC claimants, assuming for this purpose that the restrictions that are in issue engage arts 28 and 49 EC. It is well understood that measures which are liable to constitute restrictions on the free movement of goods or services may be justified if they pursue legitimate aims and they are proportionate to those aims. In his opinion in European Commission v Italy Case C-110/05 (5 October 2006) (paras 34, 35), Advocate General Léger said that a national rule which hinders the free movement of goods is not necessarily contrary to Community law if it may be justified by one of the public interest grounds set out in art 30 EC, but that any derogation from the fundamental principle of the free movement of goods must be viewed restrictively. The qualifications in art 30 EC as to goods, and in art 46 EC read with art 55 EC as to services, both permit prohibitions or restrictions on grounds of public policy. But where this ground is relied on the national authorities must be able to demonstrate, first, that their rules are necessary in order to attain the public policy objective and, second, that those rules are proportionate to the aim. The
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test was laid down by the European Court in the Omega case [2004] ECR I-9609 at 9653 (para 36), in these terms:
‘. . . measures which restrict the freedom to provide services may be justified on public policy grounds only if they are necessary for the protection of the interests which they are intended to guarantee and only in so far as those objectives cannot be maintained by less restrictive measures.’
[80] The first question which the national court must address is to identify the object that the 2004 Act was intended to achieve. The Divisional Court and the Court of Appeal both held that it was a composite one: to prevent or reduce unnecessary suffering to wild animals, overlaid by a moral viewpoint that causing suffering to animals for sport was unethical and should, so far as was practical and proportionate, be stopped: see Divisional Court [2005] EWHC 1677 (Admin) at [339], [2006] EuLR 178 at [339]; Court of Appeal [2006] EWCA Civ 817 at [56], [2007] QB 305 at [56], [2006] 3 WLR 1017. The EC claimants criticised both branches of the concurrent findings of fact which these courts made on this issue.
[81] The claimants submitted that, while preventing unnecessary suffering was a legitimate objective, the moral overlay had no basis in the statute. Moreover the nature of the overlay and its relationship with the objective of preventing unnecessary suffering was uncertain and unsatisfactory. The European Court had placed strict limits on the ability of governments to escape judicial review by asserting a moral justification for their laws. In Torfaen BC v B & Q plc Case C-145/88 [1990] 1 All ER 129 at 152–153, [1990] 2 QB 19 at 47–48 (para 29), Advocate General van Gerven had stressed that the court must exercise some control over what was regarded by a member state as falling within the concept of public morality. That there was such an overlay was highly questionable, as the terms of the Act showed clearly that it was not motivated by a general disapproval of killing animals for sport. It had gone out of its way to accommodate the practice of field sports such as shooting and falconry.
[82] They submitted that these considerations gave rise to two questions of principle on which a preliminary ruling should be sought: (1) what, if any, limits apply to the right of a member state to invoke public morality as an additional justification for a measure engaging the application of arts 28 and 49 EC, in circumstances where the primary justification is the prevention of unnecessary suffering to animals; and (2) where a national court considers a national measure to have a composite objective (preventing unnecessary suffering to animals and public morality), must the proportionality test be satisfied in relation to both parts of the objective, or may the measure be justified on the basis that it is proportionate to the second part of that composite objective only.
[83] It would have been difficult to avoid a reference to the European Court for a preliminary ruling on these questions if it had been necessary to answer them in order to arrive at a decision in this case. But I do not think that it is necessary to descend to that detail of analysis in order to deal with what is really a quite straightforward issue. The findings of the courts below as to the legislative object of the 2004 Act which invited such detailed questions were, for the purpose of deciding this issue, unnecessarily elaborate. The Inner House in Adams v Scottish Ministers 2004 SC 665 held that the broad legislative aim of the Protection of Wild Mammals (Scotland) Act 2002 was to prevent cruelty to animals: 2004 SC 665 at 673–677 (paras 30–52). Mounted foxhunting with hounds was considered by the Scottish Parliament to be cruel, as killing foxes by this
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method was done predominantly for sporting enjoyment and because there were thought to be other more effective and no more painful forms of pest control. There are significant differences of detail between the two Acts, but in my opinion the prevention of cruelty to animals is equally sound as a description of what in essence the House of Commons was seeking to achieve when it passed the 2004 Act. Simplifying the aim in this way helps to answer the issues that the EC claimants have raised.
[84] To return to the Torfaen case, the Advocate General said that the public policy objection required the existence of a genuine and sufficiently serious threat to the requirements of public policy affecting one of the fundamental interests of society. The court repeated this formulation of the principle in the Omega case [2004] ECR I-9609 at 9651–9652 (para 30). It also made the point that, as a justification for derogating from the fundamental principle of the freedom to provide services, the words ‘public policy’ had to be interpreted strictly. But it added these important qualifications in para 31:
‘The fact remains, however, that the specific circumstances which may justify recourse to the concept of public policy may vary from one country to another and from one era to another. The competent national authorities must therefore be allowed a margin of discretion within the limits imposed by the Treaty . . .’
In Society for the Protection of Unborn Children Ireland Ltd v Grogan Case C-159/90 (1991) 9 BMLR 100 at 131–132, [1991] ECR I-4685 at 4719 (para 26) Advocate General van Gerven referred to choices of a moral and philosophical nature the assessment of which fell within the sphere in which each member state possesses an area of discretion ‘in accordance with its own scale of values and in the form selected by it’ (see Conegate Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs Case 121/85 [1986] 2 All ER 688 at 698, [1987] QB 254 at 269 (para 14)).
[85] The history of legislation in the United Kingdom for the prevention of cruelty to animals leaves no room for doubt that in this country, whatever may be the case elsewhere, the subject is deeply rooted in public policy. It has been for a long time regarded as one of the fundamental interests of society about which Parliament is expected, when the need arises, to legislate. So I see no need for a reference to the European Court on the additional questions about public morality which the EC claimants have suggested to decide this issue. It was within Parliament’s margin of discretion to address the widespread concerns that had been raised about the hunting of foxes and the other sporting activities referred to in the 2004 Act and, if it judged that it was necessary to deal with these concerns by legislation, to proceed to do so ‘within the limits imposed by the Treaty’. Whether the legislation was within those limits depends on whether the conditions of justification and proportionality are satisfied.
[86] The crucial question is whether it was open to the legislators to conclude that the activities that were to be prohibited by the 2004 Act were cruel if engaged in for sport. If it was, I do not see how it can be doubted that they were entitled to conclude that prohibition of those activities was necessary in order to prevent them from being carried on by those who wished to do so. For the reasons that I have already given in the case of the HR claimants, I consider that it was open to them to conclude that they gave rise to unnecessary suffering and that, if they were engaged in for sport, they were cruel. That is sufficient to meet the condition of justification. There remains the question whether the restrictions on
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free movement of goods and freedom to provide services were out of proportion to the aim sought by or the result brought about by the national rule: Advocate General van Gerven in Society for the Protection of Unborn Children Ireland Ltd v Grogan Case C-159/90 (1991) 9 BMLR 100 at 132, [1991] ECR I-4685 at 4719–4720 (para 27). It is for the national court to rule on this issue within the limits of Community law (see para 28).
[87] Various factors come into play at this point. Although it is common ground that the question whether there is a restriction within the meaning of the treaty is not subject to the de minimis principle, the extent of the restriction has a part to play in the assessment of proportionality (see Advocate General van Gerven in Society for the Protection of Unborn Children Ireland Ltd v Grogan Case C-159/90 (1991) 9 BMLR 100 at 133, [1991] ECR I-4685 at 4720–4721 (para 29)). So too is the fact that it is not discriminatory (see Customs and Excise Comrs v Schindler Case C-275/92 [1994] 2 All ER 193 at 230, [1994] QB 610 at 668 (para 61)). There is no indication whatever that the restrictions that have been enacted in this case were aimed at intra-Community trade. They were aimed entirely at activities carried on in within our own member state, as a measure of social policy. Such interference as there has been and is likely to be with the free movement of goods and the free provision of services between other member states is purely incidental. It is trivial in comparison with the widespread interference in these respects within the domestic market. It was not suggested that the legislative aim could have been achieved by measures which were less restrictive of intra-Community trade. Due weight must of course be given to the freedoms guaranteed by the treaty. But I am in no doubt that, taken overall, the prohibitions satisfy the requirement of proportionality in accordance with Community law.
[88] So I would hold that a preliminary ruling on the question whether these measures engage arts 28 and 49 EC and on the two further questions which have been proposed on the issues of justification and proportionality would serve no useful purpose in this case, and that a reference to the European Court is unnecessary.
CONCLUSION
[89] For the reasons given by Lord Bingham and by my noble and learned friend Baroness Hale of Richmond, and these additional reasons of my own, I would dismiss both appeals.
LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[90] My Lords, I agree with your Lordships that these appeals should be dismissed. In particular, I agree with the reasons to be given by my noble and learned friend, Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. I therefore confine myself to some additional observations on the application of art 8(1)—the point which seems to me to be of most general importance.
[91] Undoubtedly, the early decisions of the European Court on ‘private life’ in art 8(1) tended to concern sexual and emotional relationships within an intimate circle—for which people want privacy. Article 8(1) guarantees a prima facie right to such privacy. If someone complains of a violation of that right, the essential touchstone may well be whether the person in question had a reasonable expectation of privacy (see Campbell v Mirror Group Newspapers Ltd [2004] UKHL 22 at [21], [2004] 2 All ER 995 at [21], [2004] 2 AC 457, per Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead).
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[92] But the European Human Rights Commission long ago rejected any Anglo-Saxon notion that the right to respect for private life was to be equated with the right to privacy. In X v Iceland (1976) 5 DR 86 the applicant complained that a law prohibiting the keeping of dogs in Reykjavik violated his art 8(1) rights. The European Court held that the right to respect for private life did not end at a right to privacy, but comprised also, to a certain degree, the right to establish and develop relationships with other human beings, especially in the emotional field, for the development and fulfilment of one’s own personality. Sadly, it did not extend to developing relationships with dogs and so the Commission rejected his application as inadmissible.
[93] It soon became clear that art 8 was not concerned merely to protect relationships in a narrow domestic field. In Niemietz v Germany (1992) 16 EHRR 97 at 111 (para 29), the court held:
‘it would be too restrictive to limit the notion to an “inner circle” in which the individual may live his own personal life as he chooses and to exclude therefrom entirely the outside world not encompassed within that circle. Respect for private life must also comprise to a certain degree the right to establish and develop relationships with other human beings.’
So art 8(1) had been violated by a search of the office where the applicant pursued his profession as a lawyer, since ‘it is, after all, in the course of their working lives that the majority of people have a significant, if not the greatest, opportunity of developing relationships with the outside world’.
[94] In Pretty v UK (2002) 12 BHRC 149 at 35 (para 61), the European Court pointed out that ‘private life’ in art 8(1) is ‘a broad term’. The court also said that the notion of ‘personal autonomy’ is an important principle underlying the interpretation of the various guarantees, including the right to ‘personal development’, in that aspect of art 8(1).
[95] In R (on the application of Razgar) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 27 at [9], [2004] 3 All ER 821 at [9], [2004] 2 AC 368, commenting on the reference in Pretty v UK to the right to ‘personal development’ and to establish relationships, my noble and learned friend, Lord Bingham of Cornhill, spoke of ‘private life’ in art 8 ‘extending to those features which are integral to a person’s identity or ability to function socially as a person’.
[96] Among the appellants, as the Divisional Court found (at [135]), are people for whom ‘hunting is a core part of their lives and perhaps has been a core part of the community in which they have lived all their lives’. For them at least, should hunting be regarded as integral to their identity and so as part of their ‘private life’ for purposes of their art 8(1) convention right?
[97] It happens to be hunting that lies at the core of their lives. For other people some completely different interest or activity fills that place. When pursuing that interest or activity, they really ‘come alive’. It is crucial to their sense of their own identity. Some will be fortunate enough to find this kind of fulfilment in their job, but others will pursue it in their leisure hours. They may even choose an undemanding job in order to have more time and energy to devote to, say, playing a musical instrument or singing. Mountaineering, too, has many devotees. But talents and interests come in many different forms. For example, Michael Ventris was an architect by profession, but the animating obsession of his life was his ‘hobby’ of using his linguistic and puzzle-solving skills to decipher Linear B. It shaped who he was and how he felt he had to live his life.
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[98] The activities which I have mentioned are simply examples of ‘features which are integral to a person’s identity’, of ways in which people give expression to their individuality—in which you can see what really makes them tick. For many people the right to express themselves in these ways may be of far more practical importance than, for instance, the right to express some aspect of their sexual identity. It would be strange indeed if such activities were not regarded as part of an individual’s private life and worthy of respect in terms of art 8(1), when they are central to the individuals’ lives and often determine how they relate to their families, their friends and the outside world. Could Parliament really ban an activity such as mountaineering without infringing its devotees’ art 8(1) rights?
[99] Sometimes the individuals can pursue the activity by themselves in their own home. But many activities involve other people. An amateur violinist may find the best outlet for her talents in playing in an amateur string quartet, the singer in being a member of a choir. These occasions may also be the ideal setting for forming relationships with congenial companions. While that may be an additional reason for saying that the activities form part of the individuals’ private life for purposes of art 8(1), the position of the pianist who plays by herself is surely equally deserving of respect. Indeed, for that very reason, it seems to me, art 11 can add nothing for present purposes.
[100] On the other hand, some solo activities may be hard to conduct in private. An organist in his organ loft, for example, may well find it difficult to practise without being heard by casual visitors to the church or hall. A skilled and dedicated ice skater will often have to share the rink with others who are just out for a bit of fun. That can’t be helped and is really irrelevant. Even though other people are present, when pursuing their passion, the organist and skater may well be ‘in a world of their own’, ‘dans un monde à part’. All they ask is to be left alone to get on with it.
[101] My Lords, in choosing these examples of people who give expression to their personality in different ways and arguing that art 8(1) is engaged in those circumstances, I have taken my cue from the idea that art 8(1) protects those features of a person’s life which are integral to his identity. For those for whom it is a core part of their lives, hunting, too, can be said to be integral to their identity. Therefore, but for one point, to which I shall return shortly, I would have held that the legislation banning hunting did interfere with their private life for purposes of art 8(1).
[102] Confining the protection of art 8(1) to those for whom an activity is a core part of their lives may be to set the bar too high, however. The landmark decision of the European Court in von Hannover v Germany (2004) 16 BHRC 545, which was not cited by counsel, suggests that the scope of the protection afforded by art 8(1) is considerably wider.
[103] The applicant, Princess Caroline of Monaco, complained that her right to the protection of her private life had been violated by the publication of pictures of her in various German magazines. As the court explained (at 562–563 (para 49)), the pictures showed her, for instance, on horseback, leaving her Paris home on her own, shopping on her own, alone on a bicycle, with her bodyguard at a market, dining in a restaurant with a male actor, and playing tennis with Prince Ernst August von Hannover. According to the court (at 565 (para 61)), the photographs showed her ‘in scenes from her daily life, thus engaged in activities of a purely private nature’. The court held (at 563 (para 53)) that ‘there is no doubt that the publication by various German magazines of photos of the applicant in her daily life either on her own or with other people falls within the
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scope of her private life’. The court went on to hold (at 568 (para 80)) that German law had not afforded sufficient protection for the applicant’s private life and that there had been a breach of art 8.
[104] Of course, von Hannover’s case concerned a claim to privacy, to being free from press intrusion. By contrast, the appellants claim a right to be free to hunt without the arbitrary interference of the legislature. But both claims are based on the same essential right to respect for, and protection of, private life in art 8(1). In von Hannover’s case the court confirmed (at 563 (para 50)) its jurisprudence that—
‘the guarantee afforded by art 8 of the convention is primarily intended to ensure the development, without outside interference, of the personality of each individual in his relations with other human beings . . . There is therefore a zone of interaction of a person with others, even in a public context, which may fall within the scope of “private life” . . .’
Similarly, the court reiterated (at 567 (para 69)):
‘the fundamental importance of protecting private life from the point of view of the development of every human being’s personality. That protection—as stated above—extends beyond the private family circle and also includes a social dimension.’
[105] If, as the European Court held, art 8(1) was engaged so as to give Princess Caroline a prima facie right to protection from the press publishing pictures of her when she was out riding on horseback, or riding a bicycle, or playing tennis or going to the market, then surely the article would have been equally engaged if the legislature had passed a law banning her from pursuing any of these activities? If publishing photographs of her doing these various things was liable to interfere with the ‘flowering’ (épanouissement) of her personality (para 69 in the original French text), a law banning her from riding her horse or her bicycle or from playing tennis or going to the market would constitute an immeasurably greater interference.
[106] Princess Caroline wanted to enjoy personal autonomy. Less grandly, she was claiming—and successfully claiming—a right to be herself, to go about in the world, free from the attentions of the paparazzi. Similarly, the appellants say, when they are out on horseback following the hounds, they too have a right under art 8(1) to be themselves, to go about in the world, free from the arbitrary interference of the legislature. Again, but for one aspect of their situation, I would have accepted that contention.
[107] Princess Caroline succeeded in her claim for protection for her private life because she was riding or cycling or playing tennis simply for her own enjoyment—for the development of her personality, to put it in formal terms. So, even though she was doing these things ‘in a public context’, they fell within the scope of her ‘private life’ (see von Hannover’s case at 563 (para 50)). In my view, the position would have been different if, say, she and her tennis partner had taken part in a charity tennis tournament where spectators would come to watch them. Even if taking part had given them great pleasure, they would no longer have been doing it for their own fulfilment alone. They would have stepped outside the sphere of their private life in order to pursue a public purpose.
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The mere fact that a diva may develop her personality singing at Covent Garden does not mean that singing there is part of her private life. On the contrary, she is putting on a performance for the public—and getting well paid for it. Similarly, at a humbler level, if the amateur choir were giving a concert, or the organist were playing for the pleasure of those in the hall or church, or the skater were performing for the spectators at the rink, in my view the individuals would no longer simply be pursuing the development of their personality. They would have left the sphere in which they would be entitled to the protection of art 8.
[108] In giving the judgment of the Second Division in Adams v Scottish Ministers 2004 SC 665 at 680 (para 66), the Lord Justice Clerk listed a number of aspects which, in the court’s view, prevented foxhunting from being part of the private life of the participants. I need only mention his comment that ‘When followers are taken into account, the hunt takes on the character of a spectator sport. It is also a public spectacle’. Lord Bingham similarly comments (at [15], above) that foxhunting ‘is carried out in daylight with considerable colour and noise, often attracting the attention of onlookers attracted by the spectacle’. These descriptions of hunting reflect the reality. They also explain why there are countless paintings and prints of hunts and, in part at least, why many people, who have never themselves taken part in hunting, feel that any ban tends to impoverish our national life. The huntsmen and women are taking part in what they know is not just a private activity, but a much admired public spectacle. I therefore conclude that they are not entitled to the protection for their private life in art 8(1).
[109] For that reason alone, I have come to the view that, whether on a narrower or broader view of the scope of art 8(1), the appellants’ convention right is not engaged.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[110] My Lords, ‘The spirit of liberty is that spirit which is not too sure that it is right; the spirit of liberty is that spirit which seeks to understand the minds of other men and women; the spirit of liberty is the spirit which weighs their interests alongside its own without bias . . .’ (Learned Hand, ‘The spirit of liberty’, in Irving Dilliard (ed) The Spirit of Liberty, Papers and Addresses of Learned Hand (1960, 3rd edn), p 190). That, it seems to me, is the spirit in which to approach the issues in this case, and particularly those upon which your Lordships are not all of exactly the same mind. There are some large questions of principle here which go way beyond the specific question of banning hunting with hounds.
[111] When does the freedom to do as one pleases become a human right? How broadly should we construe the scope of the rights and fundamental freedoms guaranteed to us all in the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998)? How strictly should we approach the justifications for restricting those rights? In my view there is no human right to be left alone to do as one likes; the convention has defined some specific rights which can only be interfered with in specified circumstances; there is a good deal of flexibility and room for development on both sides of the scales; but the more broadly one construes the right, the greater the latitude one must allow the democratically elected legislature to strike the balance between the interests of those who wish to pursue a particular activity and the interests of those who wish to prevent them.
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[112] ‘It’s a free country, i’n’it?' So say we all if we object to being told what we may or may not do. And so it is. But until the 1998 Act came into force, all this meant was that we could do what we liked as long as there was no law forbidding or preventing us. We may have had a national antipathy to regulation. Many of us may agree with John Stuart Mill that ‘The only purpose for which power can be rightfully exercised over any member of a civilised community, against his will, is to prevent harm to others. His own good, either physical or moral, is not a sufficient warrant.’ (On Liberty (1859), p 68). But many others might take a different view on a particular issue, and if that view prevailed in Parliament, then it became the law and the courts would have to enforce it.
[113] The 1998 Act has for the first time (outside the particular territory of European Community law, of which more anon) given us all rights against the state. Public authorities and officials must not act incompatibly with our convention rights (see s 6(1)). If Parliament makes laws which might be incompatible with our convention rights, the courts and others applying those laws must, so far as possible, read and give effect to them in a way which is compatible with the convention rights (see s 3(1)). If Parliament makes a law which cannot be read compatibly with the convention rights, the courts and others must still give effect to it, but the higher courts may declare that it is incompatible: that is what we are being asked to do in this case (see s 4). Such declarations have proved powerful incentives to government and Parliament to put the matter right; for if the court is right, the United Kingdom is in breach of its international obligations in maintaining such a law on the statute book.
[114] This is all elementary now. But it is worth repeating because the purpose of such human rights instruments is to place some limits upon what a democratically elected Parliament may do: to protect the rights and freedoms of individuals and minorities against the will of those who are taken to represent the majority. Democracy is the will of the people, but the people may not will to invade those rights and freedoms which are fundamental to democracy itself. To qualify as such a fundamental right, a freedom must be something more than the freedom to do as we please, whether alone or in company with others.
[115] The right to respect for our private and family life, our homes and our correspondence, guaranteed by art 8, is the right most capable of being expanded to cover everything that anyone might want to do. My noble and learned friend, Lord Rodger of Earlsferry, has made a powerful case for art 8 to include almost any activity which is taken sufficiently seriously by the people who engage in it. If any of us were in any doubt about how seriously and deeply some members of the hunting community take their sport, those doubts were dispelled by the eloquence and obvious sincerity of Mr Friend, who appeared as a litigant in person in the related case of Whaley v Lord Advocate 2004 SC 78). Many hunt supporters would no doubt share of their sport Bill Shankly’s view of the importance of association football.
[116] As yet, however, as my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill has shown, the Strasbourg jurisprudence has not gone so far in its interpretation of the rights protected by art 8; and for the reasons given above, I am not sure that I share the desire of my noble and learned friend Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood that it should. Article 8, it seems to me, reflects two separate but related fundamental values. One is the inviolability of the home and personal communications from official snooping, entry and interference without a very good reason. It protects a private space, whether in a building, or through the post, the telephone lines, the airwaves or the ether, within which people can
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both be themselves and communicate privately with one another. The other is the inviolability of a different kind of space, the personal and psychological space within which each individual develops his or her own sense of self and relationships with other people. This is fundamentally what families are for and why democracies value family life so highly. Families are subversive. They nurture individuality and difference. One of the first things a totalitarian regime tries to do is to distance the young from the individuality of their own families and indoctrinate them in the dominant view. Article 8 protects the private space, both physical and psychological, within which individuals can develop and relate to others around them. But that falls some way short of protecting everything they might want to do even in that private space; and it certainly does not protect things that they can only do by leaving it and engaging in a very public gathering and activity.
[117] Article 11, on the other hand, is very much concerned to protect such gatherings. It is about people getting together, whether in public or in private, in pursuit of a common aim. Why then should it not protect the right of hunting people not only to get together but also to pursue their sport together? It is not enough, it seems to me, to draw a distinction between the activity and the gathering and to say that the one may be banned but the other may not without a good reason. Article 11 expressly protects the right of a person ‘to form and to join trade unions for the protection of his interests’. That must protect, not only the existence of trade unions, and political parties and pressure groups, but also some of the things they do.
[118] One answer could be that art 11 should be read along with art 10. Article 9 protects freedom of thought, conscience and religion. It also expressly protects the right to manifest that religion or belief, ‘either alone or in community with others and in public or private’. Article 10 protects freedom of expression, the freedom to hold opinions and to receive and impart information and ideas. But it does not expressly protect the right to meet or associate with other people in order to do this. This, it might be said, is separately provided for in art 11. It protects the freedom to meet and band together with others in order to share information and ideas and to give voice to them collectively. While democracy values each individual, it also knows that individuals cannot get much done unless they band together. These articles, then, are designed to protect the freedom to share and express opinions, and to try to persuade others to one’s point of view, which are essential political freedoms in any democracy. On this view, the right of the hunt and its followers to gather together publicly to demonstrate in favour of their sport and against the ban, perhaps even by riding over the countryside to demonstrate what they do, is protected by art 11. But the right to chase and kill the fox or the stag or the mink or the hare is not.
[119] I am attracted by this view of the relationship between arts 10 and 11 because it seems to me to be consistent with the democratic values underlying this whole group of articles. It is consistent with the observation quoted by Lord Bingham (at [17], above) from the case of Chassagnou v France (1999) 7 BHRC 151. However, that case, in protecting the freedom of those who did not want to join a hunting association, might be thought conversely to protect the freedom of those who did. But the essence of the case was a discriminatory interference with the rights of landowners to control the use of their own property, not to stop them from doing something on it which they wanted to do, but to oblige them to do on it something which they did not wish to do. It would probably be unwise to draw too many conclusions from it about the scope of the
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collective activities protected by art 11. I therefore incline to the view that the ban on hunting with hounds does not engage art 11 at all.
[120] If it be the case that the rights protected by art 8 or art 11 are not engaged by the ban, then there is no need to address the particular qualifications to those rights laid down in art 8(2) and art 11(2). Each follows the familiar pattern: the interference with or restriction of the right must be in accordance with or prescribed by law, as this undoubtedly is following the decision of this House in R (on the application of Jackson) v A-G [2005] UKHL 56, [2005] 4 All ER 1253, [2006] 1 AC 262; it must pursue one of the legitimate aims listed; and it must be ‘necessary in a democratic society’, that is, it must meet a pressing social need and be proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued. The aims listed in art 8(2) are ‘in the interests of national security, public safety or the economic well-being of the country, for the prevention of disorder or crime, for the protection of health or morals, or for the protection of the rights and freedoms of others’. The aims listed in art 11(2) are identical, except that ‘the economic well-being of the country’ is not included.
[121] As Lord Brown points out, these requirements are much stricter and more precise than the ‘public interest’ or ‘general interest’ justifications required by art 1 of the First Protocol to the convention. This reinforces my view of the scope of arts 8 and 11. They are indeed flexible and capable of development as thinking within the Council of Europe also grows and develops. In difficult or borderline cases, there is much to be said for taking a broad view of the scope of the right and requiring the state to justify its interference. But the qualifications in arts 8(2) and 11(2) were drafted in the light of the understanding of the scope of the rights as they were originally drafted. If a right is expanded beyond its original scope it may be necessary also to expand the scope of the qualifications—both as to the meaning of the legitimate aims and as to the requirement that the interference be ‘necessary in a democratic society’. Otherwise it may become difficult to strike a fair balance between the rights of individuals and groups on the one hand and the democratic decisions of the majority on the other.
[122] Hunting might be a case in point. The most plausible of the legitimate aims listed in arts 8 and 11 is the protection of morals (although there is a certain amount of disorder and crime associated with some of the activities covered by the Act, it is certainly not common to them all). The protection of morals is a difficult and controversial aim, especially when the aim is to protect the morals of the person whose rights are being interfered with (it is less difficult if the aim is to protect the morals of other people). What right have I to thrust my views of morality down the throats of others? Some people take the view that it is wrong to cause an animal any suffering at all. For them the fact that the human race is omnivorous and has always killed animals for food does not justify its going on doing so. Nor would some people accept that animals might be killed for other purposes, such as clothing or shoes. Others might accept that rearing and killing animals humanely for such practical purposes was not immoral. They might also accept the morality of humane pest control. But they might draw the line at methods of pest control which caused more suffering than others. They might also draw the line at causing any sort of suffering for sport rather than for the practical benefits it could bring.
[123] But it is not suggested that hunting degrades or corrupts the hunters. It is not suggested that they get sadistic pleasure out of causing the quarry to suffer. It cannot be compared with bear-baiting or cock-fighting. The pleasure they get
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is from the excitement and unpredictability of the chase, the challenge to the horsemanship of the riders, the spectacle for the followers, or in hare coursing gambling on the performance of the dogs. Fox, mink and stag hunters are also contributing, albeit in a comparatively small way, to the control of an undoubted pest. What they are doing is useful to the whole community. They can also plausibly say, as Mr Friend has said, that at the end of the hunt the fox is either dead or free: not wounded or lost.
[124] I say all this, not to take sides in the debate which so exercised the members of both Houses of Parliament, but to sympathise with Mr Friend’s difficulty in understanding how the ban could be said to be ‘necessary in a democratic society’ or in pursuit of any of the listed aims. My answer to him would be that when the convention was written it would not have crossed anyone’s mind that there might be a prima facie right to hunt wild animals with dogs. If the convention has to be expanded to encompass such a right, then the qualifications have to be expanded too. The concept of what may be ‘necessary in a democratic society’ has to take into account the comparative importance of the right infringed in the scale of rights protected. What may be a proportionate interference with a less important right might be a disproportionate interference with a more important right. The concept of what is ‘necessary in a democratic society’ also has to accommodate the differing importance attached to certain values in different member states. As Lord Bingham has shown, the British have traditionally attached more importance to protecting animals from harm than they have to protecting children from harm (although it is to be hoped that the children have now caught up). This is where the so-called ‘margin of appreciation’ allowed to each member state comes in. And this is where respect for the recently expressed views of the democratically-elected legislature comes in.
[125] I do not, however, think that it is open to us to wash our hands of such difficult issues on the ground that this is a matter for Parliament. For better or worse, Parliament has entrusted us with the task of deciding whether its legislation is compatible with the convention rights. If it is not, it is our duty to say so. The fact that the issue raises moral questions on which views may legitimately differ does not let us off the hook. Bellinger v Bellinger [2003] UKHL 21, [2003] 2 All ER 593, [2003] 2 AC 467 raised a difficult moral issue about the rights of trans people to be recognised in their reassigned gender identity. Goodwin v UK (2002) 13 BHRC 120 had left the House in no doubt that United Kingdom law was incompatible with the convention rights. The House made a declaration to that effect. Ghaidan v Mendoza [2004] UKHL 30, [2004] 3 All ER 411, [2004] 2 AC 557 raised a difficult moral issue about the rights of same sex couples to be treated in the same way as opposite sex couples. The Court of Appeal correctly anticipated the position which Strasbourg would soon after take in Karner v Austria (2003) 14 BHRC 674. The only real question for the House was whether the incompatibility could be interpreted away or whether we would have to declare the legislation incompatible. When we can make a good prediction of how Strasbourg would decide the matter, we cannot avoid doing so on the basis that it is a matter for Parliament. Strasbourg will be largely indifferent to which branch of government was responsible for the state of the domestic law.
[126] But when we can reasonably predict that Strasbourg would regard the matter as within the margin of appreciation left to the member states, it seems to me that this House should not attempt to second guess the conclusion which
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Parliament has reached. I do not think that this has to do with the subject matter of the issue, whether it be moral, social, economic or libertarian; it has to do with keeping pace with the Strasbourg jurisprudence as it develops over time, neither more nor less: see R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26 at [20], [2004] 3 All ER 785 at [20], [2004] 2 AC 323.
[127] In this case, I seriously doubt whether Strasbourg would regard the right to hunt wild animals with hounds as falling within either art 8 or art 11; but if it did, I believe that the ban would fall within the margin of appreciation it would allow to the United Kingdom on a matter such as this. Even if I were eventually to be proved wrong on both points, I would not think that the 1998 Act now required us to declare the Hunting Act 2004 incompatible.
[128] As to the interference with property rights, much the same applies. This is not a confiscatory measure. It does not deprive anyone of his possessions. It does restrict the use to which certain property can be put. It has also resulted in a diminution in business for certain trades and may result in some loss of jobs. There is no convention right to continue to enjoy a particular level of trade. There is no convention right to retain one’s job beyond the ‘right to a job’ which is recognised by domestic law. The convention does not guarantee the right to acquire property: see JA Pye (Oxford) Ltd v UK (2005) 19 BHRC 705 at 720 (para 61). All sorts of laws may reduce demand for particular services and thus affect the profits of the self-employed or the job security of employed people. They do not in my view usually have to be justified under art 1 of the First Protocol, although that should not be difficult.
[129] Some of the claimants have been restricted in the use to which they can put their property. They cannot use their own land or horses or dogs for proscribed hunting, and they cannot allow others to do so. Given the number of uses to which they still can put their property, I would regard this as a very limited control of use. Control of use can be limited in the general interest and this is not a taxing standard to meet. Even in the context of deprivation of property the Strasbourg court has said that ‘finding it natural that the margin of appreciation available to the legislature in implementing social and economic policies should be a wide one [the Court] will respect the legislature’s judgment as to what is “in the public interest” unless that judgment is manifestly without reasonable foundation’ (see Jahn v Germany [2005] ECHR 46720/99, quoted in JA Pye (Oxford) Ltd v UK (2005) 19 BHRC 705 at 722 (para 71)). In determining whether a fair balance has been struck between the demands of the general interest and the interest of the individuals concerned, in control of use cases—
‘the Court recognises that the State enjoys a wide margin of appreciation, with regard both to choosing the means of enforcement and to ascertaining whether the consequences of enforcement are justified in the general interest for the purpose of achieving the object of the law in question . . .’ (See AGOSI v UK [1986] ECHR 9118/80, para 75.)
On that basis, protecting wild animals from avoidable compromise to their welfare seems to me to fall well within the general interest and the means chosen to strike a fair balance. The fact that the same principles might have justified a wider ban does not mean that a narrower ban cannot be justified.
[130] For the sake of completeness, I should add that even where the ban falls within the ambit of a convention right, membership of the hunting community
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is not in my view another ‘status’ for the purpose of art 14, for the reasons given in R (on the application of Clift) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of Hindawi) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] UKHL 54, [2007] 2 All ER 1, [2007] 1 AC 484, especially at [52]–[62].
[131] On the EC law claims I have nothing to add to the opinion of Lord Bingham. If, which is certainly not clear, either art 28 EC or art 49 EC is engaged by the hunting ban, then the ban is justified. As Lord Bingham points out (at [50], above), this was a measure of social reform, not directed at the regulation of commercial activity, of which any impediment to intra-Community provision of goods and services was a minor and unintended consequence, and which bears more hardly on those within this country than outside it. The suggestion that the EC claimants might succeed while the human rights claimants did not would be illogical and unjust and fuel the fires of anti-communitarian sentiment in a quite unnecessary way.
[132] For as long as the treaties of the European Community and the convention remain part of our law, the courts cannot shrink from telling Parliament when it has infringed the rights which those treaties protect. We cannot abdicate the role which Parliament itself has given us, even if we would prefer to leave certain kinds of question to the Parliamentarians. But when we judge the compatibility of recent legislation we do not have to invent rights which the European institutions have never recognised; still less do we have to reject the justifications which the European institutions would be likely to accept. This is the world in which fundamental human rights and representative democracy can happily co-exist.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[133] My Lords, hunting has long been a controversial subject, the call for a ban heard first many years ago. I use the term hunting in this judgment for simplicity’s sake to refer to the traditional form of mounted foxhunting with a pack of hounds. Some, whether they themselves hunt, strongly support it; others equally strongly condemn it. Each of your Lordships doubtless knows people on both sides of the divide. The supporters genuinely believe that hunting promotes rather than impairs the welfare of foxes; those opposed no less genuinely believe it to be cruel. It seems to me absurd to regard either side as acting dishonourably in the dispute. To my mind both views seem entirely respectable. No doubt there are those with unworthier motives in play but their existence, whether amongst hunt supporters or those opposed, cannot affect the outcome of this appeal.
[134] The central question for the decision of the House is whether Parliament was entitled by legislation to give effect to the preference of one side of the debate (the majority) to ban hunting. That, of course, depends critically in the first place upon whether the hunters (or at least some of them) can establish a right to hunt which cannot be denied them except for good reason. If they cannot first establish such a right then Parliament can do whatever it likes whether for good reason or none and your Lordships would be powerless in the matter. When I say that Parliament can do whatever it likes I mean, of course, provided always that it follows a proper parliamentary process. That was the point at issue in the first challenge to the hunting ban: was the Parliament Act 1949 of full legal effect so as (by its amendments to the Parliament Act 1911) to provide a lawful means of enacting the Hunting Act 2004 without the consent
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of the House of Lords? The House held that it was: R (on the application of Jackson) v A-G [2005] UKHL 56, [2005] 4 All ER 1253, [2006] 1 AC 262.
[135] The hunters seek to establish a prima facie right to hunt either under the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) or under the treaty establishing the European Community. As I have said, unless they can show that the ban engages some specific right under one or both of these treaties, that is an end of the matter: they can call for no justification whatever for the ban.
[136] Before, therefore, turning to consider what might constitute good and sufficient justification for a ban (itself to my mind dependent upon which, if any, of the asserted rights is engaged) and what consequences would flow from any failure by the respondent to establish such justification, I propose first to address the particular rights for which the appellants variously contend. I shall touch upon them comparatively briefly: others of your Lordships have already considered them much more fully.
THE EUROPEAN CONVENTION ON HUMAN RIGHTS
Article 8
[137] Article 8(1) provides that: ‘Everyone has the right to respect for his private and family life, his home and his correspondence.’
[138] I cannot hope to improve upon the careful analysis of the European Court of Human Rights’s (and domestic) jurisprudence on art 8 made by my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill (see [10]–[14] of his opinion, above) nor upon the reasons he gives in para [15] for concluding that the appellants’ claims cannot in the light of present authority reasonably be held to fall within art 8.
[139] But I strongly wish that it were otherwise and for my part would hope to see the jurisprudence governing the scope of art 8 further developed by the Strasbourg court. Why should it not encompass a broad philosophy of live and let live (or, in Mrs Pretty’s case, let die: Pretty v UK (2002) 12 BHRC 149? Why should people not be free to engage in whatever pursuits they wish—pursuits, that is, central to their wellbeing, as hunting was recognised in the courts below to be in the lives of some of these appellants (‘a core part’)—unless there is good and sufficient reason (as, indeed, was found in Mrs Pretty’s own case) to forbid it? Article 8’s protection is recognised to extend to a right to identity and to personal development and, as Pretty v UK first articulated, the notion of personal autonomy. It encompasses almost any aspect of a person’s sexuality and a good deal else that is clearly personal. But why should respect for private life not encompass also wider concepts of self-fulfilment? The traditional culture and lifestyle of gipsies and Lapps is protected under art 8 because each is recognised as an ethnic group with its own particular identity: see Buckley v UK (1996) 23 EHRR 101 and G v Norway (1983) 35 DR 30. But why should these groups alone have their way of life safeguarded? Why not others too? Of course the hunting community is in no sense ethnically based nor, indeed, comparably identifiable as a defined group. But it may be doubted whether many gipsies are any more wedded to their particular lifestyle than are numbers of keen huntsmen to theirs. Many people in a real sense live for some particular activity, whether their profession or their recreation. In a real sense it defines them. Often it provides them with their feelings of identity, self-esteem and position in the community.
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[140] Take music or dance; or chess or bridge; or polo or golf; or climbing or canoeing. Should not a human rights convention ideally operate to ensure that all such activities could only be banned for good reason. Some perhaps may be regarded as more personal than others, carried out in circumstances of greater intimacy. But why should that be critical? All of them are activities to which people may choose to devote much of their lives and which for some are all-important. The alternative, clearly, is that any or all of these activities could be banned, perhaps by some Taliban-like administration, and that those affected, amateurs or professionals, however fundamentally, would have no right to call for a justification for the ban and no redress in the courts were none afforded. The government enacting such legislation would, of course, be politically accountable to the electorate. But if a majority in the country favoured such a ban, prompted, say, by feelings of prejudice or jealousy towards a wealthy or intellectual elite, there might in fact be political advantage in it.
[141] Naturally I have considered whether this House ought itself properly to construe and apply art 8(1) sufficiently widely to encompass some at least of these appellants. But I conclude not. It is one thing to say that member states have a margin of appreciation, perhaps a wide margin, when it comes to striking any balance that falls to be struck under art 8(2) (or, for that matter, in respect of any other qualified right); quite another to say that a comparable margin exists for determining whether the qualified right (here art 8(1)) is engaged in the first place. The reach of art 8 must be for the Strasbourg court itself to develop.
Article 11
[142] Article 11(1) provides that: ‘Everyone has the right to freedom of peaceful assembly and to freedom of association with others, including the right to form and join trade unions for the protection of his interests.’
[143] I have the greatest difficulty in understanding how this article is engaged in the present case. All those affected by the ban continue to be entitled to assemble and associate with others to their hearts’ content. Obviously the ban prevents their hunting together once they have done so and obviously, therefore, they will be the less likely to exercise their art 11(1) rights than in times past. But it is not the right itself that has been restricted, only hunting.
[144] Almost any activity ban is likely to bring in its wake a reduced exercise of art 11(1) rights by those previously engaged in it. Ban music and concert halls will close. Ban bridge and bridge clubs will close. In each case, of course, there is nothing to stop those banned from assembling and associating with others, not least to protest vigorously about the ban. Indeed, my recollection is that many of those affected by the hunting ban did just that.
Article 14
[145] This is the convention’s (limited) non-discrimination provision. For the reasons given by Lord Bingham, the appellants’ claim under this article cannot succeed in the light of the recent decisions of the House in R (on the application of S) v Chief Constable of the South Yorkshire, R (on the application of Marper) v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire [2004] UKHL 39, [2004] 4 All ER 193, [2004] 1 WLR 2196 and R (on the application of Clift) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of Hindawi) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2006] UKHL 54, [2007] 2 All ER 1, [2007] 1 AC 484.
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Article 1 of the First Protocol
[146] This is the protection of property provision which I need not set out again. On this issue too I agree completely with what Lord Bingham says at paras [20] and [21] of his opinion. This article plainly is engaged.
THE TREATY OF THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITY
[147] I come now to the relevant provisions of the EC Treaty, arts 28 (quantitive restrictions on imports) and 49 (restrictions on freedom to provide services).
[148] It seems at first blush (indeed, at second blush too) highly surprising that either of these articles should be engaged by so obviously a non-commercially oriented and non-discriminatory measure as the hunting ban. By the nature of things, few measures have no effect whatever on trans-border trade: just as the hunting ban inevitably reduces the demand in England for Irish-bred hunters and the demand on the continent for English hunting services, so too, for example, must the handgun ban (the subject of challenge in Strasbourg, but not Luxembourg, in cases like Denimark v UK (2000) 30 EHRR CD 144 and Ian Edgar (Liverpool) Ltd v UK (App no 37683/97) (admissibility decision, 25 January 2000)) have reduced the demand for, say, Mauser and Beretta pistols, and no doubt various handgun-related services too. Is it really to be said that every such restrictive measure derogates from the fundamental principle of the free movement of goods and services so as to call for a public policy justification? I would have thought not.
[149] As Lord Bingham has explained, however, the jurisprudence of the European Court of Justice (ECJ) is not yet clear on the point. In the past, almost any measure which to any degree operates to inhibit trans-border trade has been found to engage one or other of arts 28 and 49. The question, at least with regard to art 28, is presently under consideration by a Grand Chamber of the ECJ in European Commission v Italy Case C-110/05 (5 October 2006) (concerning Italian legislation prohibiting mopeds from towing trailers). It may be hoped that the court will decide upon a narrower approach to these articles, introducing perhaps, in the case of non-discriminatory measures, a remoteness test or de minimis requirement. The arguments for this are to my mind very powerful. The outcome, however, cannot be taken for granted.
JUSTIFICATION AND PROPORTIONALITY
[150] What was the aim of the majority of the House of Commons in banning hunting? It was described by the Divisional Court, and accepted by the Court of Appeal, as follows:
‘The legislative aim of the Hunting Act 20042000 is a composite one of preventing or reducing unnecessary suffering to wild mammals, overlaid by a moral viewpoint that causing suffering to animals for sport is unethical . . .’
[151] In short, the ban on foxhunting had two aims: one, to reduce unnecessary suffering to foxes; the other, to give effect to the view of those opposed to hunting that causing suffering to animals for sport is unethical. Although the appellants strongly dispute the evidential basis for the court’s discernment of this second aim, I for my part have no doubt that some at least of those seeking (and voting for) the ban were indeed thus motivated.
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[152] There is before your Lordships a mass of material, the Burns Report prominent amongst it, bearing on all aspects of animal welfare in connection with the hunting ban. It is sufficient for present purposes to state two conclusions which appear to me to emerge plainly from this abundance of evidence. First, that hunting causes at least some degree of suffering to foxes—it ‘compromises [their] welfare’ as the Burns Report put it. Secondly, whether or not it causes unnecessary suffering to foxes (by which I mean more suffering than would result from the additional trapping and shooting—and thereby in some cases wounding instead of killing—of foxes consequent on a ban) can neither be proved nor disproved.
[153] This second conclusion to my mind substantially undermines the purported justification for the first of the stated aims of the ban: if the ban cannot be shown to reduce unnecessary suffering it is difficult to see how it furthers that aim. Indeed there is a case (equally unproven, of course) for saying that the ban will increase the suffering of foxes generally. It was clearly for this reason that the courts below laid such emphasis on the ban’s second aim: to put a stop to the causing of suffering to foxes for sport which the majority of those engaged in the dispute thought unethical. As the Court of Appeal put it (at [123]): ‘Once that objection [the moral objection] is identified, and is recognised as a legitimate basis for legislation, then a total ban was clearly a proportionate response.’
[154] Is such an objection, however, ‘a legitimate basis for legislation’? The answer to that question to my mind depends crucially upon what (if any) rights are being interfered with by the legislation. If the only rights impaired here are the appellants’ property rights only under art 1 of the First Protocol, that is one thing. If, however, contrary to my view, but as I would have wished, the ban does engage the appellants’ art 8 right to respect for their private lives, that would seem to me quite another thing. Let me explain.
Article 1 of the First Protocol—Justification
[155] The justification required for depriving someone of their possessions is merely that this be in the public interest. Similarly the use of people’s property can be controlled by the state if that is deemed necessary in the public interest. The state must establish a legitimate aim in the public interest and the deprivation involved must be proportionate to that aim. A fair balance must be struck between the demands of the general interest of the community and the need to protect the individual’s property rights, a balance that will not be found if the individual has to bear an excessive burden. There is, however, as the European Court of Human Rights made clear in James v UK (1986) 8 EHRR 123 at 145–146 (para 51), no test of strict necessity to be found in this article. That being so, and the interference with the appellants’ property rights here being comparatively slight, I am prepared to regard the moral objection of the majority as a sufficient public interest justification.
Article 8—Justification
[156] Contrast the position under art 1 of the First Protocol with the justification required for an interference with art 8 rights. Article 8(2) permits such interference only if this is ‘necessary in a democratic society’ which clearly does constitute a test of strict necessity. A convenient, but by no means novel, statement of the position is to be found in Chassagnou v France (1999) 7 BHRC 151 at 184 (para 112):
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‘The court reiterates that in assessing the necessity of a given measure a number of principles must be observed. The term “necessary” does not have the flexibility of such expressions as “useful” or “desirable”. In addition, pluralism, tolerance and broadmindedness are hallmarks of a “democratic society”. Although individual interests must on occasion be subordinated to those of a group, democracy does not simply mean that the views of a majority must always prevail: a balance must be achieved which ensures the fair and proper treatment of minorities and avoids any abuse of a dominant position. Lastly, any restriction imposed on a convention right must be proportionate to the legitimate aim pursued . . .’
[157] I readily accept, as Lord Bingham suggests at para [45] of his opinion, that a degree of respect should be accorded to the decision of a majority of the country’s democratically-elected representatives reached after intense debate. I am unpersuaded, however, that this is ‘pre-eminently’ a case for such respect and I confess to some difficulty with my Lord’s suggestion that: ‘The democratic process is liable to be subverted if, on a question of moral and political judgment, opponents of the 2004 Act achieve through the courts what they could not achieve in Parliament.’
[158] The democratic process is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for the protection and vindication of human rights. Sometimes the majority misuses its powers. Not least this may occur when what are perceived as moral issues are involved. Take the Irish legislation criminalising homosexuality considered in Norris v Ireland (1988) 13 EHRR 186. True, it had been enacted as long ago as 1885 and was no longer enforced. But the Irish government was asserting in 1989 that it continued to serve a legitimate aim, the protection of morals. Whilst acknowledging that national authorities enjoy a wide margin of appreciation in matters of morals, the European Court of Human Rights pointed out (at 200–201 (para 46)) that this is not unlimited and in the event held that there was no pressing social need for the legislation:
‘Although members of the public who regard homosexuality as immoral may be shocked, offended or disturbed by the commission by others of private homosexual acts, this cannot on its own warrant the application of penal sanctions when it is consenting adults alone who are involved.’
Or consider the United Kingdom government’s ban on gays in the military which was only ended after successful art 8 challenges were brought in Strasbourg.
[159] Were the appellants’ art 8 rights engaged here, I would have declined to find the hunting ban justifiable. I simply cannot regard the ethical objection of the majority as a sufficient basis for holding the ban to be ‘necessary’. As I observed at the outset, the genuineness of this objection is not to be doubted, but nor too is the genuineness of those who believe that hunting contributes to animal welfare rather than impairs it. How then can the ban be reconciled with the values of ‘pluralism, tolerance and broadmindedness’, these ‘hallmarks of a democratic society’? Most would regard adultery (assuredly a pursuit engaging art 8) as unethical (and often causing suffering too). But could an intolerant majority therefore ban it and then argue that this was ‘necessary in a democratic society’? Surely not.
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[160] Of course, as Lord Bingham points out (at [37], above), the United Kingdom has a long and proud tradition of animal welfare legislation born of a love of animals and a distaste for their unnecessary suffering. But I have difficulty in seeing this ban as just another step in that process, just another development of social policy.
[161] I have cited Chassagnou v France for its statement of the approach to take to assessing the necessity of a given measure. But the circumstances of that case seem to me instructive too. They are very much the converse of the present case. At issue there were the rights of landowners opposed to hunting on ethical grounds who had been obliged under French legislation to transfer hunting rights over their land to approved municipal hunters’ associations which they were required to join. They were thus unable to prevent hunting even on their own land. In finding a violation of art 11 the court considered the applicants’ opposition to hunting to be ‘worthy of respect in a democratic society’ (see 185 (para 114)). That surely is unsurprising. More surprising, however, would be a conclusion that the views of those in favour of hunting (in some cases on their own land) are not also worthy of respect in a democratic society. It seems to me a matter of regret that the House of Commons was not more respectful of the views of those in favour of hunting in the present case.
Articles 28 and 49—Justification
[162] Mr Anderson QC for the EC appellants appears to have persuaded the Court of Appeal that the grounds of justification for acts otherwise breaching Community law are less extensive and more constrained than those justifying an interference with the qualified rights under the convention—although the Court of Appeal came to hold that any derogation from arts 28 and/or 49 (which they did not in fact accept) was in any event justifiable and proportionate.
[163] For my part I would reject any such contention. If anything, indeed, I would have thought interferences with the fundamental rights and freedoms guaranteed by the convention more, rather than less, difficult to justify than restrictions on the merely economic rights of free movement of goods and services provided for by the treaty. If anything, these economic rights seem to me more akin to the property rights protected under art 1 of the First Protocol than to the core rights guaranteed, for example, under arts 8–11—and therefore to be more readily overridden in the broad public interest than the convention’s core rights.
[164] That said, I recognise the existence of a consistent strain of Community law jurisprudence to the effect that reliance (for a restrictive measure) on public policy requires ‘the existence . . . of a genuine and sufficiently serious threat to the requirements of public policy affecting one of the fundamental interests of society’ (see R v Bouchereau Case 30/77 [1981] 2 All ER 924n at 940, [1978] QB 732 at 760 (para 35)). If that requirement is indeed as stringent as the requirement under convention law that any interference with the (qualified) core rights must be ‘necessary in a democratic society’ in the sense explained in Chassagnou v France (see [156], above), it would follow from what I have already said that I would not myself regard the hunting ban (if ultimately it is found to engage arts 28 or 49) to be justified.
[165] It does not follow, however, that I would refer this case to the ECJ for a ruling either on the question of whether arts 28 or 49 are engaged or, assuming they are, as to what should be the proper approach to the issue of justification. On the contrary, I would not. And for this reason. I simply cannot imagine a set
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of rulings by the ECJ which could then result in this House striking down the hunting ban as an impermissible derogation from the principle of the free movement of goods or services. If (a big if as I have already suggested) the ECJ were to regard the ban as engaging either article in the first place, then I cannot believe that its justification would fall to be judged as stringently as would be the case were art 8 engaged. In my judgment, if the Hunting Act 2004 is not to be declared incompatible with the appellants’ convention rights, it is certainly not to be disapplied by virtue of EC law.
[166] In common, therefore, with Lord Bingham and my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead, although for rather different reasons, I too would dismiss both these appeals.
Appeals dismissed.
James Wilson Barrister (NZ).
R (on the application of the Law Society) v Legal Services Commission;
Dexter Montague & Partners (a firm) v Legal Services Commission
[2008] 2 All ER 148
[2007] EWCA Civ 1264
Categories: CONTRACT
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD PHILLIPS OF WORTH MATRAVERS CJ, WALL AND LAWRENCE COLLINS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 15, 16 OCTOBER, 29 NOVEMBER 2007
Public procurement – Public contracts – Equal treatment of service providers – Transparency – Unified contract for provision of publicly funded legal work – Contract providing Legal Services Commission with power to make unilateral amendments – Lawfulness of contract – Whether contract breaching requirements of transparency – Whether contract breaching requirement that technical specifications be sufficiently precise to allow subject of contract to be determined – Public Contracts Regulations 2006, SI 2006/5, regs 4(3), 9 – Council Directive (EC) 2004/18.
The Legal Services Commission (the LSC) sent a new unified contract to solicitors undertaking publicly funded work. A firm of solicitors entering into the unified contract was required to comply with specified quality assurance standards and its work had to receive certain ratings determined by an independent peer review process. Higher ratings were required if the firm was to be eligible for a contract extension and to bid for a new contract. The unified contract provided that the LSC could from time to time amend any of the terms of the contract if it considered it necessary or desirable to do so in order to facilitate a reform of the legal aid scheme. The Law Society sought judicial review, submitting that the provisions containing the powers of unilateral amendment were incompatible with general principles of public procurement law and with Council Directive (EC) 2004/18 on the co-ordination of procedures for the award of public works contracts, public supply contracts and public services contracts (OJ L 134 p 114) and the implementing legislation, the Public Contracts Regulations 2006, because they did not conform to the principle of transparency. Regulation 4(3)a of the 2006 regulations provided that a contracting authority was to ‘(a) treat economic operators equally and in a non-discriminatory way; and (b) act in a transparent way’ and reg 9b contained provisions for the laying down of technical regulations in contract documents, including a provision that where technical specifications were defined in terms of performance or functional requirements they had to be ‘sufficiently precise to allow an economic operator to determine the subject of the contract’. The Lord Chancellor and Secretary of State for Justice appeared as an interested party in the judicial review proceedings. Concurrently with the Law Society’s application, and on identical grounds, a firm of solicitors, DM, brought proceedings against the LSC for damages for breach of the LSC’s obligations under the
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2006 regulations in relation to the unified contract. A split trial of DM’s claim was ordered, the question of liability being referred to the Administrative Court to be determined at the same time as the judicial review proceedings. The judge concluded that there was no breach of the requirement of transparency in reg 4(3), because the identification and publication of information about the parameters of the programme of reform of the legal aid system, and thus of the amendments contemplated, enabled reasonably well-informed tenderers to interpret the scope of the contemplated amendments. He reached a different conclusion, however, in relation to reg 9, finding that if the standard of care to be used in providing the legal services, the quality assurance standards, and the key performance indicators could be amended unilaterally, the solicitors would not able to determine the level of service they were to provide. In a contract for services the quality and level of services were of importance and were part of the ‘subject’ of the contract; the amendment provisions did not contain the criteria and parameters of change, and did not comply with reg 9(7). He gave a judgment to like effect in DM’s case. The Law Society and DM appealed against the decision in relation to reg 4(3), and the LSC and the Lord Chancellor cross-appealed against the decision in relation to reg 9.
Held – The Directive and the 2006 regulations were concerned with the award of contracts by public authorities. Their objective was to open up public procurement to competition. To that end the award of contracts had to comply with the principles of equal treatment, non-discrimination and transparency. Technical specifications had clearly to set out the requirements of the authority so that tenderers would be aware of what they would be required to do under the contract for which they were tendering. Whilst changes might become necessary or desirable during the life of a contract, and a contracting authority might need to reserve a power to amend terms, the instant case was an extreme case where the contracting authority had reserved to itself a virtually unlimited power of amendment, subject only to some procedural conditions. The contract did not comply with the requirement in reg 9(7) that technical specifications in terms of performance or functional requirements had to be sufficiently precise to allow an economic operator to determine the subject matter of the contract. A solicitor could not determine in advance with what performance and functional requirements he might in fact be obliged to comply during the contract period. The power was not simply to make technical modifications, but to rewrite performance standards. Accordingly the judge had been right to hold that the contract did not conform to the principle of transparency, but that result flowed not only from reg 9 but also from reg 4(3). Accordingly, the appeals would be allowed and the cross-appeals would be dismissed (see [40], [45], [61], [71]–[76], [80], [85]–[87], [90], below).
Notes
For public contracts, see Supp to 4(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 23A.
For the Public Contracts Regulations 2006, SI 2006/5, regs 4, 9, see 11 Halsbury’s Statutory Instruments (2007 issue) 552.
Cases referred to in judgment
EC Commission v Belgium Case C-87/94 [1996] ECR I-2043, ECJ.
Page 150 of [2008] 2 All ER 148
European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA Case C-496/99 P [2004] ECR I-3801, ECJ.
European Commission v France Case C-340/02 [2004] ECR I-9845, ECJ.
Impresa Portuale di Cagliari Srl v Tirrenia di Navagazione SpA Case C-174/03 (opinion 21 April 2005), ECJ.
Parking Brixen GmbH v Geimeinde Brixen Case C-458/03 [2006] All ER (EC) 779, [2005] ECR I-8612, ECJ.
SIAC Construction Ltd v Mayo CC Case C-19/00 [2002] All ER (EC) 272, [2001] ECR I-7725, ECJ.
Telaustria Verlags GmbH v Telekom Austria AG Case C-324/98 [2000] ECR I-10745, ECJ.
Appeals and cross-appeals
R (on the application of the Law Society) v Legal Services Commission (Lord Chancellor and Secretary of State for Justice, interested party)
The Law Society appealed, with permission of Beatson J, from the part of his decision on 27 July 2007 (2007] EWHC 1848 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 441 (Jul)) in proceedings for judicial review brought by the Law Society against the Legal Services Commission (the LSC) in which the Lord Chancellor and Secretary of State for Justice appeared as an interested party, refusing to make a declaration that the rights of the LSC to amend the Unified Contract between the LSC and solicitors undertaking publicly funded work were incompatible with reg 4(3) of the Public Contracts Regulations 2006, SI 2006/5. The LSC and the Secretary of State cross-appealed, with permission of the judge, from the part of his decision declaring that the rights of the LSC to amend the Unified Contract were incompatible with regs 9(2), (4), (7) of the 2006 regulations. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Dexter Montague & Partners (a firm) v Legal Services Commission
Dexter Montague & Partners (a firm) appealed with permission of Beatson J from his decision on 27 July 2007 (2007] EWHC 1848 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 441 (Jul)) in the trial of liability only in proceedings brought by Dexter Montague against the Legal Services Commission (the LSC) for damages for breach of the LSC’s obligations under the Public Contracts Regulations 2006, SI 2006/5 in relation to the Unified Contract giving relief under reg 9(2), (4), (7) of the 2006 regulations but refusing relief under reg 4(3) of the 2006 Regulations. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
John Howell QC, Javan Herberg and Mark Vinall (instructed by Bircham Dyson Bell LLP) for the Law Society and Dexter Montague.
Robert Jay QC, Paul Darling QC, Rhodri Williams and Sarah Hannaford (instructed by the Legal Services Commission, the Lord Chancellor and the Secretary of State for Justice) for the LSC and the Secretary of State.
Judgment was reserved.
29 November 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
Page 151 of [2008] 2 All ER 148
LORD PHILLIPS OF WORTH MATRAVERS CJ.
I INTRODUCTION
[1] This is the judgment of the court, to which all of its members have contributed.
[2] Provisions in the new unified contract between the Legal Services Commission (the LSC) and solicitors wishing to undertake publicly-funded work contain extensive powers of unilateral amendment on the part of the LSC. This appeal concerns the compatibility of those provisions with general principles of public procurement law and with Parliament and Council Directive (EC) 2004/18 on the co-ordination of procedures for the award of public works contracts, public supply contracts and public service contracts (OJ 2004 L134 p 114) (the Public Sector Directive) and United Kingdom regulations dealing with public sector procurement, the Public Contract Regulations 2006, SI 2006/5.
[3] On 27 July 2007, Beatson J, sitting in the Administrative Court of the Queen’s Bench Division in proceedings for judicial review brought by the Law Society against the LSC, in which the Lord Chancellor and Secretary of State for Justice (the Secretary of State) was an interested party, made a declaration that the rights of the LSC to amend the unified contract referred to in cl 13.1 of that contract (other than amendments permitted under cl 13.2) were incompatible with regs 9(2), 9(4) and 9(7) of the 2006 regulations in so far as they were applicable to technical specifications (as defined in reg 9(1) of those regulations) (see [2007] EWHC 1848 (Admin), [2007] All ER (D) 441 (Jul)).
[4] He refused to make a similar declaration in the Law Society’s favour in relation to reg 4(3) of the 2006 regulations. He gave the Law Society permission to appeal against that refusal, and at the same time gave both the LSC and the Secretary of State permission to cross-appeal against the declaration made in favour of the Law Society.
[5] Concurrently with the Law Society’s application for judicial review, a firm of solicitors, Messrs Dexter Montague & Partners (Dexter Montague) had brought proceedings against the LSC in the Queen’s Bench Division for damages for breach of the LSC’s obligations under the 2006 regulations in relation to the unified contract. Dexter Montague is based in Reading and, until it refused to sign the unified contract, handled about a thousand publicly-funded civil cases per annum.
[6] These proceedings were pleaded and advanced on identical grounds to the claim advanced by the Law Society, with the consequence that on 5 June 2007, by consent, the Master of the Crown Office ordered that there be a split trial of Dexter Montague’s claim, and that the question of liability only be referred to the Administrative Court to be determined at the same time as the judicial review proceedings brought by the Law Society.
[7] Accordingly, and consistently with the declaration which he made in favour of the Law Society, in the Dexter Montague proceedings Beatson J gave limited judgment on liability to like effect in its favour. He directed that the two consequential issues which arose in those proceedings (namely whether or not the publicly-funded work undertaken by Dexter Montague would have reached the threshold required to subject it to the 2006 regulations, and if so whether or not Dexter Montague had suffered any loss or damage) be heard separately. He also gave Dexter Montague permission to appeal against his refusal of relief under reg 4(3).
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[8] This court is concerned with only one, but important, aspect of the unified contract, namely whether or not the powers of amendment given under it to the LSC satisfy the transparency provisions of the 2006 regulations. The appeals and the cross-appeal do not embrace any wider considerations of the unified contract, which is a substantial document, running to some 96 pages with a further 123 pages (Pt D) of specifications and rules covering all aspects of civil work. Nor do they concern certain matters decided by Beatson J which are not the subject of these appeals, namely that (a) the unified contract is not a public services concession (which would have put it outside the scope of the 2006 regulations); (b) there has been no delay in the proceedings for judicial review; and (c) the Law Society has standing.
[9] It should thus be made clear at the outset of this judgment that it is limited in its scope to a consideration of the one issue identified above. In particular, this court was not invited to rule on any other aspect of the unified contract, or on the changes introduced by the Secretary of State and the LSC to the system for public funding of legal services.
II BACKGROUND
1. The Access to Justice Act 1999
[10] Beatson J summarised (at [6]–[11]) the origin and role of the LSC in the following way, which we adopt:
‘The LSC is a statutory corporation established under Pt 1 of the Access to Justice Act 1999. Section 1(2) of the 1999 Act confers powers and imposes duties on the LSC in relation to the Community Legal Service (the CLS) and the Criminal Defence Service (the CDS).
[7] The CLS was established by the 1999 Act to promote the availability to individuals of specified legal services and securing within available resources and priorities that individuals have access to services that effectively meet their needs (see s 4(1) of the 1999 Act). By s 4(4) those exercising any function relating to the CLS are required to have regard to the desirability of doing so, so far as is reasonably practicable so as to (a) promote improvements in the range and quality of services provided, (b) secure services that are appropriate having regard to the nature and importance of the matter, and (c) secure the swift and fair resolution of disputes without unnecessary or unduly protracted proceedings in court.
[8] Section 4(5) requires the LSC to fund the specified services and s 5(1) requires it to establish and maintain a fund known as the Community Legal Service Fund. By s 5(7), in funding services as part of the CLS, the LSC “shall aim to obtain the best possible value for money”. Funding priorities are set by the LSC in accordance with directions given by the Lord Chancellor and taking into account the need for the specified services. Section 6(3)(a) of the 1999 Act empowers the LSC to fund services by “entering into contracts with persons or bodies for the provision of services by them”.
[9] By s 10(1) of the 1999 Act a person for whom services are funded by the LSC as part of the CLS “shall not be required to make any payment in respect of the services except where regulations otherwise provide”. The Community Legal Service (Financial) Regulations 2000, SI 2000/516 as amended by SI 2007/906 make provision for the assessment of the financial resources of individuals in order to determine eligibility to receive funded
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services and to assess any contribution to be made. Contributions in respect of the costs of any services provided are to be paid to the LSC unless it has delegated that function under contract or the funding code. Section 22(2) of the 1999 Act provides that a person who provides services funded by the LSC as part of the CLS or the CDS “shall not take any payment in respect of the services apart from (a) that made by way of that funding, and (b) any authorised by the Commission to be taken”.
[10] In January 2000, acting under its powers pursuant to s 6(3)(a) of the 1999 Act, the LSC started to contract for the provision of legal services. From the outset the contracts contained provisions empowering the LSC unilaterally to amend the contracts. The former General Civil Contracts, which expired on 31 March 2007, contained such a power. The LSC does not purchase a specified amount of services by means of the contracts. The contracts permit the solicitors and not for profit organisations who have obtained the requisite quality standard, and agree to abide by the terms of the contract, to undertake legal aid work.
[11] In relation to legal advice, known as controlled work, the permission to undertake legal aid work is subject to a maximum number of new cases (called “matter starts”). In relation to certificated representation before the courts there is no maximum. Initially there was a single legal aid quality standard, the “SQM”. In a “bid round” in 2004 the LSC introduced additional criteria concerning quality and access for new civil contracts. In her statement Ms Wayte says that “when contracting commenced . . . the sole requirement was that the provider needed to demonstrate compliance with the SQM. There was no competition as such, although the fixed budget for controlled work meant that there was only a limited number of matter starts to be distributed”.’
2. Developments since the implementation of the 1999 Act
[11] The financial aspects of the provision of services funded by the LSC were until recently governed by the Community Legal Service (Financial) Regulations 2000, SI 2000/516 as amended by the Community Legal Service (Financial) (Amendment) Regulations 2007, SI 2007/906. However, following the publication of the report, Legal Aid: a Market Based Approach to Reform, by Lord Carter of Coles in July 2006, the government published a consultation paper, Legal Aid: a sustainable future (CP 13/06) (2006), which set out its proposals for reform. The consultation period expired on 21 November 2006, whereupon the LSC and what was then the Department of Constitutional Affairs published a White Paper entitled Legal Aid Reform: The Way Ahead (2006) (Cm 6993). As Beatson J recorded (at [2]):
‘. . . The main change is an alteration to the payment structure from a system based on hourly rates towards one based on fixed and graduated fees. The LSC has also indicated that there will be further changes. The unified contract will be extended to cover publicly-funded criminal work from 1 April 2008. The LSC may wish to introduce a minimum contract size so that publicly-funded work will be restricted to firms undertaking more than that minimum amount of work. The standard to be achieved by firms in peer review may be raised from “competence” to “competence plus”.’
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[12] All general civil contracts between solicitors and the LSC were due to expire on 31 March 2007. The documents comprising the new unified contract were sent to solicitors under cover of a letter dated 27 February 2007, and the solicitors were required to complete, sign and return them to the LSC no later than 31 March 2007 if they wished to continue to undertake publicly-funded work. It was common ground that the documents were sent to solicitors on what was described as a ‘take it or leave it’ basis.
3. The positions of the parties
[13] In his witness statement dated 19 April 2007, Mr Desmond Hudson, the Chief Executive of the Law Society makes a number of complaints both about the unified contract itself, and the timing of its introduction. For present purposes, his principal complaint is that the unified contract contains provisions giving the LSC a broad power to make unilateral amendments to the contract terms, including the technical specifications. These provisions, he argues, render it impossible for solicitors to determine with any reasonable degree of certainty what they will be required to do and on what terms over the contract period, and are unlawful.
[14] Faced with the ‘take it or leave it’ choice, many solicitors signed the unified contract. Amongst those who did not, however, was Dexter Montague. Its position is set out in the particulars of claim in its action against the LSC, in which it asserts that the inclusion by the LSC of the right unilaterally to amend parts of the contract, including its technical specifications, constitutes a breach of the transparency provisions contained in the Public Sector Directive. In para 6 of the particulars of claim the firm asserts that the LSC owes it a duty under the 2006 regulations: (1) to act in a transparent way, in accordance with art 2 (of the Public Sector Directive); (2) to specify in the contract documents . . . any and all technical specifications . . . which must be met by the services to be provided under the unified contract; (3) where defining technical specifications required for the unified contract in terms of performance or functional requirements, to do so in terms which were sufficiently precise to allow an economic operator to determine the subject of the contract and the defendant to award the contract; (4) to ensure that technical specifications afforded equal access to economic operators and did not have the effect of creating unjustified obstacles to the opening up of public procurement to competition.
[15] Dexter Montague claims that the LSC is in breach of this duty and seeks damages on the basis that the breach has prevented it from signing the contract with the consequence that it has suffered a loss of profit on the work which it would have undertaken pursuant to the unified contract, together with loss and expense consequent upon the winding up of the firm’s civil legal aid practice.
[16] The LSC’s response is contained in the witness statement of Ruth Wayte, its legal director. Having dealt in some detail with the events leading up to the despatch of the unified contract, she asserts that the LSC tried to set out the proposed reform programme as clearly as possible, and argues that since the specification to the unified contract sets out the payment rates, both firms of solicitors and the Law Society were made aware that the new fee schemes would lead to amendments to the contract, a fact which the LSC has made clear throughout the consultation and the implementation process. She also points out that 95 per cent of solicitors signed the unified contract, and asserts that Dexter Montague is ‘very much an isolated case at present’. She argues that the
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latter’s stance illustrates that it is the fact that the proposals are in the public domain which has driven the firm’s decision rather than any lack of transparency in the process. In para 27 of her statement she says:
‘Finally, I would wish to make it clear that the changes to the specification planned for October 2007 are entirely necessary to underpin the move from hourly rates to fixed fees. Given the level of importance of the October 2007 changes, I understand that the Lord Chancellor, in line with previous practice, proposes to set forth the new fee arrangements in a Funding Order made by him under s 6(4) of [the 1999 Act]. The [LSC] has already carried out consultation on the new Specification . . . but before the Funding Order is laid before Parliament, there would be further consultation. In this way, the contract documents and the Funding Order are brought into line, and the contract amendments may be seen as being both the LSC’s own proposal and a response to legislative changes. The provision allowing for the amendment could therefore be either clause 13.1(i) or 13.1(iii) read in conjunction with clause 13.2: the effect would be the same.’
III THE UNIFIED CONTRACT
[17] The unified contract comprises: (1) the contract for signature by the individual contracting organisation, and schedules authorising particular offices within the organisation to provide services and specifying the maximum and minimum ‘starts’ for a given period; (2) the standard terms which apply to all contracting organisations; and (3) the contract specification and payment annex.
[18] The relevant terms are set out in Annex 1 to this judgment (see pp 169–172, below). The effect of cll 7 and 10 is that a firm of solicitors entering into the contract is required to comply with specified quality assurance standards, and its work must receive certain ratings determined by an independent peer review process. Higher ratings are required if the firm is to be eligible for a contract extension and to bid for a new unified contract.
[19] The provisions for amendment are crucial to this appeal, and we shall deal with them more fully below. Clause 13 provides (inter alia) that the LSC may amend any of the terms of the contract if it considers it ‘necessary or desirable to do so in order to facilitate a Reform of the Legal Aid Scheme’ (cl 13.1). ‘Reform of the Legal Aid Scheme’ is defined in cl 1 to mean such reforms as the LSC may wish to implement in order better to comply with its statutory duties or fulfil its statutory functions including (a) such changes as it wishes to make to, or as are related to the Community Legal Service, Criminal Defence Service, or both, consequent on, or related to, the paper Legal Aid Reform: the Way Ahead (2006) (Cm 6993); or (b) new approaches to procurement and contracting for the provision of publicly-funded legal services.
[20] Provision is made for consultation on amendments (see cll 13.3–13.7). The amendments take effect from such date as the LSC may specify, which (in general) is to be not less than 28 days after notice of the amendment is given if the LSC considers that there is an urgent need for compliance, and not less than 42 days after notice of the amendment is given in any other case (see cl 13.8). A firm may terminate the contract following an amendment which is not acceptable to it (see cll 13.13, 30.2). Such a termination takes effect on the day before the amendment comes into effect. On termination the firm is immediately to cease acting for the clients concerned (see cl 31).
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IV THE PUBLIC SECTOR DIRECTIVE AND THE 2006 REGULATIONS
[21] It is common ground that in the material respects the 2006 regulations faithfully implement the terms of the Public Sector Directive. We set out those provisions of the Directive which are of particular significance in Annex 2 to this judgment (see pp 173–174, below). For present purposes it is only necessary to point out that the recitals make it clear that the Directive is based on the case law of the European Court of Justice (recital (1)); that it is subject to the principles of equal treatment, non-discrimination, mutual recognition, proportionality and transparency (recitals (2) and (46), and art 2); and that technical specifications must be set out in the contract documents (art 23).
[22] The critical regulations are regs 4 and 9, the material parts of which are set out in Annex 3 to this judgment (see pp 174–177, below). It is only necessary at this stage to mention that reg 4(3) provides that a contracting authority shall ‘(a) treat economic operators equally and in a non-discriminatory way; and (b) act in a transparent way’; and that reg 9 contains elaborate provisions for the laying down of technical specifications in the contract documents, including a provision that where technical specifications are defined in terms of performance or functional requirements they must be ‘sufficiently precise to allow an economic operator to determine the subject of the contract . . .’ (reg 9(7)). Regulation 47 gives a right to damages to persons to whom, but for a breach of the regulations, a contract would have been awarded.
V THE JUDGMENT OF BEATSON J AND THE ISSUES ON APPEAL
1. The judgment
[23] A critical feature of Beatson J’s judgment is the distinction he drew between the duty of transparency imposed by the regulations on the LSC under reg 4(3) and that imposed under reg 9. In particular, he considered it significant (at [80], [93]) that reg 4(3) did not require the relevant information to be in the contract documents, whereas art 23 of the Public Sector Directive and reg 9 provided that the specifications had to be set out in the contract documents.
[24] In a very full and careful judgment, the judge’s conclusion was that there was no breach of the requirement of transparency in reg 4(3), because the identification and publication of the information about the parameters of the programme of reform and thus of the amendments contemplated enabled reasonably well-informed tenderers to interpret the scope of the amendments which were contemplated in the same way.
[25] In particular, he found, the possibility of amendment was clearly stated in the contract documents. Although the power was very wide, it was not unlimited, since the exercise of the power would have to be in accordance with the principles governing the exercise of discretionary powers by public authorities, including propriety of purposes and the consideration only of relevant factors. In assessing transparency, regard had to be had to what was known about the intentions of the LSC: the parameters of the programme of reform and of the possible amendments had been identified throughout the consultation process, published in the White Paper, and set out on the LSC’s website. In assessing whether the obligation of transparency had been satisfied, it was also relevant that the present case was not one in which there had been a competitive bidding process where a choice had been made between bidders, since the unified contract had been offered to all organisations which had general civil contracts with the LSC, and the evidence was that new providers had also
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been given an opportunity of obtaining a contract, depending upon the coverage in any particular area, in accordance with the LSC’s bid rules.
[26] Beatson J, however, reached a different conclusion in relation to reg 9. He found that if the standard of care to be used in providing the legal services, the quality assurance standards, and the key performance indicators could be amended unilaterally, the solicitors would not able to determine the level of service they were to provide. In a contract for services the quality and level of services were of importance and were part of the ‘subject’ of the contract; the amendment provisions did not contain the criteria and parameters of change, and did not comply with reg 9(7).
2. The appeal
[27] On this appeal neither side supports Beatson J’s view that there is a decisive difference between reg 4(3) and reg 9 for the determination of the issues.
[28] The parties were in agreement that there was an inconsistency between the conclusion reached by the judge in relation to reg 4 and that reached by him in relation to reg 9. The LSC and the Secretary of State argued that the reasoning that led the judge to find that the principle of transparency underlying reg 4 was satisfied should also have led him to the same conclusion in relation to reg 9. The Law Society and Dexter Montague argued that the lack of transparency that the judge found in relation to reg 9 was equally an infringement of reg 4. In these circumstances, much of the argument was applicable both to reg 4 and reg 9.
Law Society and Dexter Montague
[29] The Law Society and Dexter Montague accept that the principle of transparency does not prevent a contracting authority from reserving a right to amend the terms of the contract. But if the contracting authority wishes to reserve such a right, not only must all those who may be interested in the contract be informed of that possibility, but they must also be informed of ‘the detailed rules’ governing its exercise (see European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA Case C-496/99 P [2004] ECR I-3801 at 3880, 3882 (paras 111, 118) so that ‘the subject-matter of [the] contract [is] clearly defined’ (see European Commission v France Case C-340/02 [2004] ECR I-9845 at 9868 (para 34).
[30] The obligation of transparency is not satisfied here. The contract contains general and unlimited powers of amendment. It is not sufficient for the LSC to satisfy the obligation of transparency simply by virtue of the fact that the power of amendment is limited by public law limitations. Even if public law limitations may exclude purely arbitrary or improper amendments in fact being made, that is insufficient to satisfy the obligation of transparency in relation to the definition of the content of the rights and obligations of any contract on offer.
[31] Nor is it sufficient for the LSC to satisfy the obligation of transparency by reference to the knowledge of solicitors as to the general parameters of reform which may be likely in the future. In fact it cannot be said that the scope of possible amendments is already known, since the power is not limited to amendments to give effect to proposals in the White Paper.
[32] The judge rightly held that the reservation of a unilateral power to amend the technical specifications on such short notice creates an unjustified obstacle to the opening up of public procurement to competition contrary to reg 9(4). But this applies equally to reg 4(3).
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[33] Contrary to the judge’s view, it does not matter that there has been no competitive bidding process, because the uncertainty involved will necessarily deter service providers and because there is still a risk of favouritism or arbitrariness or other abuse in the exercise of the power of amendment which the principle of transparency seeks to preclude by a clear definition of the rights and obligations of the parties under any contract at the outset.
LSC and Secretary of State
[34] The essence of the case for the LSC and the Secretary of State is that the unified contract is compatible with the principle of transparency because it clearly sets out the power of amendment and the procedures for its exercise. Their principal attack on the judgment is that reg 9 is concerned with the specifications in the contract and does not deal with the right to amend. In particular, reg 9(7) does not relate to a power to amend technical specifications, and consequently a general power of amendment is in no sense incompatible with reg 9(7).
[35] More generally they argue that in the competitive context, the purpose of the principles of equal treatment and transparency is to ensure that one tenderer does not obtain an unfair advantage over another, and the purpose of transparency is not to enable a party to avoid the effect of amendments of which it does not approve. The solicitors have a right to terminate if the amendments are unacceptable.
[36] Where there has been no competitive bidding, the mere existence of a wide power to amend does not disadvantage a particular tenderer because the power applies to all. What is required to prevent discrimination or favouritism in favour of certain tenderers in a competitive context is not the same as what was required in a context such as this.
[37] Amendment clauses form part of almost every type of contract, whether for works, services or supplies, whether public or private and whether subject to EU law principles or not. Without such clauses, the contract terms would be immutable and the contract would frequently become unworkable. The precise content, nature and effect of every amendment during the life of a contract cannot be anticipated or identified before the parties enter into the contract.
[38] The LSC and the Secretary of State accept that purported amendments which depart substantially from the subject matter of the contract may amount to a new contract which should therefore be the subject of a new tender exercise in accordance with the 2006 regulations. Whether an amendment is so substantial as to require a new tender exercise is a matter to be judged at the time the proposed amendment is made, is a matter of fact and degree and will depend on factors such as the type and subject matter of the contract, its factual matrix, the nature of the change, the reasonable expectations of the industry and industry practice.
3. The issues
[39] The principal questions which arise therefore on this appeal are these: (1) What relevant principles are laid down by the Directive and the 2006 regulations? (2) Is it sufficient compliance with the principle of transparency for there to be an express power of amendment in the contract? (3) Does it make a difference that there is no competitive tendering process? (4) What is the effect of the contractual provisions as to termination? (5) Does the unified contract
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satisfy the requirements of reg 4? (6) Does the unified contract satisfy the requirements of reg 9?
VI DISCUSSION AND CONCLUSIONS
1. The principles
[40] The Public Sector Directive and the 2006 regulations are concerned with the award of contracts by public authorities. Their objective is to open up public procurement to competition. To this end the award of contracts must comply with the principles of equal treatment, non-discrimination and transparency. Technical specifications must clearly set out the requirements of the authority so that tenderers will be aware of what they will be required to do under the contract for which they are tendering. This is an application of the principle of transparency.
[41] This court was referred to several cases, almost all in contexts very different from the present case, in which the European Court has applied, or emphasised the importance of, the principle of transparency in public procurement.
[42] In European Commission v France Case C-340/02 [2004] ECR I-9845 the European Court said (at 9868 (para 34)) that ‘the principle of equal treatment of service providers, laid down in . . . the Directive, and the principle of transparency which flows from it . . . require the subject-matter of each contract and the criteria governing its award to be clearly defined’.
[43] The rationale of the principle has been expressed in a number of different ways: (1) First, it enables the contracting authority to satisfy itself that the principles of equal treatment and of non-discrimination on the grounds of nationality have been complied with: Telaustria Verlags GmbH v Telekom Austria AG Case C-324/98 [2000] ECR I-10745 at 10794 (para 61)); SIAC Construction Ltd v Mayo CC Case C-19/00 [2002] All ER (EC) 272 at 285, [2001] ECR I-7725 at 7754 (para 41); European Commission v France Case C-340/02 [2004] ECR I-9845 at 9868 (para 34). (2) Second, it facilitates competition: Telaustria Verlags GmbH v Telekom Austria AG Case C-324/98 [2000] ECR I-10745 at 10794 (para 62); Parking Brixen GmbH v Geimeinde Brixen Case C-458/03 [2006] All ER (EC) 779 at 808, [2005] ECR I-8612 at 7754–7755 (paras 50, 52); Impresa Portuale di Cagliari Srl v Tirrenia di Navagazione SpA Case C-174/03, per Advocate General Jacobs (para 75 of the opinion). (3) Third, it enables the impartiality of procurement procedures to be reviewed: Telaustria Verlags GmbH v Telekom Austria AG Case C-324/98 [2000] ECR I-10745 at 10794 (para 62); Impresa Portuale di Cagliari Srl v Tirrenia di Navagazione SpA Case C-174/03, per Advocate General Jacobs (para 75 of the opinion). (4) Fourth, it precludes any risk of favouritism or arbitrariness on the part of the contracting authority: European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA Case C-496/99 P [2004] ECR I-3801 at 3880 (para 111). (5) Fifth, it promotes a level playing field by enabling all tenderers to know in advance on what criteria their tenders will be judged and those criteria are assessed objectively; SIAC Construction Ltd v Mayo CC Case C-19/00 [2002] All ER (EC) 272 at 285, [2001] ECR I-7725 at 7754 (para 38) per Jacobs AG.
[44] This case is concerned with the compatibility of a unilateral right of amendment in favour of the LSC with the principles underlying the Public Sector Directive and the 2006 regulations.
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[45] It is clear that, where amendments to the tender criteria or to the contract are made after an award to one party, such amendments are liable to infringe the principles in that, had the other tenderers been aware in advance of the terms of the contract actually put in place, this might have affected the terms of their tenders. Such amendments can violate the principle of transparency and of equality of treatment.
[46] Thus in EC Commission v Belgium Case C-87/94 [1996] ECR I-2043, a case concerning an invitation to tender in an open procedure for the supply of buses, the Belgian local authority took into account fuel consumption figures submitted by a tenderer after the opening of tenders, and awarded the contract to that tenderer on the basis of figures which were different from those stipulated in the contract documents. It was held that a unilateral departure from requirements in tender documents which were to be understood as unalterable which favoured one tenderer without giving all other tenderers an opportunity to revise their figures was a breach of Belgium’s equal treatment and transparency obligations.
[47] So also in European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA Case C-496/99 P [2004] ECR I-3801 (a decision to which it will be necessary to revert) there was a material alteration in the terms of contracts with the European Commission for the supply of fruit juice as aid to the Caucasus after the award of the contracts by tender. This was held to be a breach of the principle of transparency. The Commission could not subsequently amend the conditions of the tendering procedure, and in particular those relating to the tender to be submitted, in a manner not laid down by the notice of invitation to tender itself, without offending against the principle of transparency.
2. Is it sufficient compliance with the principle of transparency for the unified contract to contain an express power of amendment?
[48] We have already summarised the relevant provisions of the unified contract, the principal provisions of which are set out in Annex 1 to this judgment. The most important, but not the only, provision in the unified contract allowing for amendment is cl 13. The following features of the power of amendment are relevant for present purposes. (1) The power extends to ‘Contract Documents’ (cl 13.1), and ‘Contract Documents’ are defined in cl 1 to mean (a) the contract for signature (including the key information tables); (b) the schedules; (c) the contract standard terms; and (d) the specification, where ‘specification’ means the contract documents designated as such by the LSC. (2) The LSC has the power to amend the contract documents ‘from time to time’ if they ‘consider it necessary or desirable to do so in order to facilitate a Reform of the Legal Aid Scheme’ (cl 13.1(i)), where ‘Reform of the Legal Aid Scheme’ is defined in cl 1 to mean such reforms as the LSC might wish to implement in order better to comply with their statutory duties or fulfil their statutory functions including (a) such changes as they might wish to make to, or as are related to the Community Legal Service, Criminal Defence Service, or both, consequent on, or related to the White Paper Legal Aid Reform: the Way Ahead (2006) (Cm 6993) or (b) new approaches to procurement and contracting for the provision of publicly-funded legal services. (3) The amendments may include, without limitation, amendments to any of the terms of a schedule; changes to payments provisions; imposing controls not previously imposed; excluding from the contract any description of contract work and amending procedures in the specification.
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[49] Other provisions of the unified contract which contain a power of amendment include: (1) cll 11A2 and 11A6, which authorise amendments to the Civil Office Schedule; (2) cl 11B which gives the LSC the power, when it extends the contract to cover crime work, to amend and/or extend such of the provisions of the contract as it thinks appropriate to take account of such extension (subject to compliance with the consultation obligations in cll 13.3–13.6).
[50] In each category of law, contract work must achieve a rating of 1, 2 or 3 as determined by ‘the Independent Peer Review Process’. The independent peer review process is defined as the process described in a named document ‘or any document adopted in its place following consultation’. A rating of 4 as so determined (if confirmed) is a breach of contract and a rating of 5 as so determined (if confirmed) constitutes a fundamental breach (see cll 10.4–10.7). Consequently standards to which contract work must be performed, what counts as a breach and a fundamental breach of the unified contract, and the process by which the assessment of compliance is made may be amended by the LSC by the adoption of a different document.
[51] So also the unified contract provides for key performance indicators (KPIs), defined as ‘such measure of your performance as [the LSC] may specify’ (see cl 1). The standard terms list five current KPIs and indicate that the unified contract may be amended to make failure to comply with them a breach after 31 March 2008 (see cll 10.9–10.11). It is also provided that [the LSC] ‘may at any time amend any KPI(s) and/or introduce any additional KPI(s)’ (see Annex G). The unified contract may also be amended so that failure to achieve them is also a breach of contract (see Annex G). Accordingly what counts as a KPI and what may involve a breach of contract if it is not complied with may be unilaterally amended by the LSC.
[52] Compliance with any amendment is from the date specified for it, and in principle the date is to be not less than 28 days after notice of the amendment is given if the LSC considers there is an urgent need for compliance and not less than 40 days after notice in any other case (see cl 13.8).
[53] A firm has a right to terminate if it is unwilling to accept the amendments, but the effect is that the termination has to take effect at the same time as the amendments, and in principle the firm has to cease acting (see cll 13.13, 30.2, 31.2, 31.3).
[54] The LSC argued that the principle of transparency could not be infringed by the unified contract in as much as the likelihood that the contract would be amended was spelled out to all in advance and such amendments as were subsequently made would apply to all. When dealing with reg 4 Beatson J accepted this submission. He held:
‘[80] In assessing transparency for the purposes of reg 4(3) or the obligation of transparency implied from the general principle of equal treatment, regard should also be had to what is known about the intentions of the LSC. The parameters of the programme of reform and thus of the possible amendments have, as I have observed, been identified throughout the consultation process, published in the White Paper, and set out on the LSC’s website. Although not in the contract documents, this information is available to all potential service providers . . .’
[55] Beatson J said that the possibility of amendment was clearly stated in the contract documents. Any problems caused by the provisions concerning the
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position of a firm which wants to disengage from legally-aided work after an amendment are also not the consequence of a lack of transparency because the provisions about that are in the contractual documents and their scope is reasonably clear.
[56] The Law Society accepts that the principle of transparency does not preclude the reservation for a contracting authority of any right to amend any of the terms of the contract. But, if the contracting authority wishes to reserve such a right, not only must all those who may be interested in the contract be informed of that possibility, but they must also be informed of ‘the detailed rules’ governing its exercise (see European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA Case C-496/99 P [2004] ECR I-3801 at 3880, 3882 (paras 111, 118)).
[57] The essence of the case for the LSC and the Secretary of State, who also rely on European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA, is that the unified contract is compatible with the principle of transparency because it clearly sets out the power of amendment and the procedures for its exercise. Amendment clauses form part of almost every type of contract, whether for works, services or supplies, whether public or private and whether subject to EU law principles or not. Without such clauses, the contract terms would be immutable and the contract would frequently become unworkable. The precise content, nature and effect of every amendment during the life of a contract cannot be anticipated or identified before the parties enter into the contract.
[58] If the scope of the actual amendments had to be identified in the contract documents, then an amendment clause would serve no useful purpose. It would prevent a contracting authority from using the clause to make any amendments after the conclusion of the contract, unless such amendments had been identified and formulated prior to the contract being amended. Such a step would not amount to an ‘amendment’ of the contract at all, but simply the incorporation of a contractual clause stipulating the provision of services (or supplies or works) complying with different technical specifications at a set time during the currency of the contract.
[59] In the present case the unified contract provided the procedural rules for doing so. These rules included provisions about when and how amendments could be made, notification, consultation, extensions to consultation periods, approval by consultative bodies, including the Law Society (under cl 13(ii)) and gave a right to services providers to terminate, on notice, following an amendment.
[60] The LSC and the interested party accept that purported amendments which depart substantially from the subject matter of the contract may amount to a new contract which should therefore be the subject of a new tender exercise in accordance with the 2006 regulations. They say that whether an amendment is so substantial as to require a new tender exercise is a matter to be judged at the time the proposed amendment is made, is a matter of fact and degree and will depend on factors such as the type and subject matter of the contract, its factual matrix, the nature of the change, the reasonable expectations of the industry and industry practice. It is a constraint on the operation of an amendment clause. It does not make unlawful the inclusion of an amendment clause in a contract subject to EU law.
[61] We do not consider that the fact that the unified contract contains express provision for amendment, and also includes a consultation procedure, is of itself sufficient to satisfy the principle of transparency.
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[62] The only decision of the European Court which is of assistance is European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA, and since both parties rely on the decision, it is necessary to deal with it fully. The decision of the European Court was on appeal from the Court of First Instance and concerned an invitation to tender (pursuant to Commission regulations) for the supply of fruit juice as aid to the Caucasus whereby the supplier was to be paid in apples or oranges (as the case might be) held in the Commission’s intervention stocks. The possibility of withdrawing other fruit was not mentioned in the regulations or in the invitations to tender.
[63] A successful bidder (Trento Frutta) stated that, in the event of there not being enough apples in intervention stocks, it would accept peaches. When its bid was accepted the Commission notified the Italian Intervention Agency of the fruits which Trento Frutta would be able to withdraw. Subsequently there were Commission decisions allowing the successful tenderers to substitute other fruits, and setting quantities.
[64] An unsuccessful bidder sought annulment of a Commission decision relating to substitution of products, as the successful tenderer would receive a given quantity of apples or alternatively other fruit. Subsequently, the Commission fixed coefficients of equivalence between the different fruit. The Commission decision was annulled by the Court of First Instance and an appeal was dismissed by the European Court.
[65] The Court of First Instance held that, when a contracting entity had laid down prescriptive requirements in the contract documents, observance of the principle of equal treatment of tenderers required that all the tenders must comply with them so as to ensure objective comparison of the tenders; and that the procedure for comparing tenders had to comply at every stage with both the principle of the equal treatment of tenderers and the principle of transparency so as to afford equality of opportunity to all tenderers when formulating their tenders. The Commission was obliged to specify clearly in the notice of invitation to tender the subject matter and the conditions of the tendering procedure, and to comply strictly with the conditions laid down, so as to afford equality of opportunity to all tenderers when formulating their tenders. In particular, the Commission could not subsequently amend the conditions of the tendering procedure, and in particular those relating to the tender to be submitted, in a manner not laid down by the notice of invitation to tender itself, without offending against the principle of transparency.
[66] The European Court reiterated (at 3880 (para 109)) that the principle that tenders should be treated equally implied an obligation of transparency in order to permit verification that it had been complied with.
[67] The court went on:
‘111. The principle of transparency which is its corollary is essentially intended to preclude any risk of favouritism or arbitrariness on the part of the contracting authority. It implies that all the conditions and detailed rules of the award procedure must be drawn up in a clear, precise and unequivocal manner in the notice or contract documents so that, first, all reasonably informed tenderers exercising ordinary care can understand their exact significance and interpret them in the same way and, secondly, the contracting authority is able to ascertain whether the tenders submitted satisfy the criteria applying to the relevant contract . . .
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118. Should the contracting authority wish, for specific reasons, to be able to amend some conditions of the invitation to tender, after the successful tenderer has been selected, it is required expressly to provide for that possibility, as well as for the relevant detailed rules, in the notice of invitation to tender which has been drawn up by the authority itself and defines the framework within which the procedure must be carried out, so that all the undertakings interested in taking part in the procurement procedure are aware of that possibility from the outset and are therefore on an equal footing when formulating their respective tenders . . .
120. If, when the contract was being performed, the contracting authority was authorised to amend at will the very conditions of the invitation to tender, where there was no express authorisation to that effect in the relevant provisions, the terms governing the award of the contract, as originally laid down, would be distorted.
121. Furthermore, a practice of that kind would inevitably lead to infringement of the principles of transparency and equal treatment as between tenderers since the uniform application of the conditions of the invitation to tender and the objectivity of the procedure would no longer be guaranteed . . .
126. Moreover, as the Court of First Instance expressly held . . . the Commission could, if necessary, have made provision, in the notice of invitation to tender, for the possibility of amending the conditions for payment of the successful tenderers in certain circumstances by laying down in particular the precise arrangements for any substitution of other fruit for that expressly prescribed as payment for the supplies at issue. In that way, the principles of equal treatment and transparency would have been fully observed.’
[68] This was a case where the Commission had not reserved any right to amend the contract terms, and where it was plain that the right to accept different fruits from intervention stocks might have significantly altered the tendering process. It was also a case in which the failure to give all tenderers the same rights affected competition, and infringed the principles of transparency and equal treatment.
[69] That was the context in which the court said that, if the contracting authority wished to be able to amend some conditions of the invitation to tender, after the successful tenderer had been selected, it was required expressly to provide for that possibility, as well as for the relevant detailed rules.
[70] It is plain, however, from the facts of the case, and the context, that (contrary to the submission of the LSC and the Secretary of State) in speaking of the ‘relevant detailed rules’ the European Court was not speaking exclusively of procedural rules. The whole point in that case was that all tenderers needed to know the conditions under which they were entitled to withdraw other fruits. That was not a procedural matter.
[71] We do not accept, therefore, the submission by the LSC and the Secretary of State that the effect of European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA is that the principle of transparency is satisfied by an amendment power, however wide, if it is included in the contract and provides detailed procedural rules. It is clear that in the circumstances of that case the European Court was concerned with the substantive changes to the contractual terms relating to what fruit could be withdrawn from intervention stocks.
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[72] What is also plain is that among the most important factors for compliance with the principle of transparency are the definition of the subject matter of the contract and need for certainty of terms. That is why both art 2 of the Public Sector Directive and reg 4(3) require the contracting authority to ‘act in a transparent way’ and why reg 9(7) requires technical specifications in terms of performance or functional requirements to be ‘sufficiently precise to allow an economic operator to determine the subject of the contract . . .’
[73] We do not consider that transparency was achieved by the limitations on the express powers of amendment which the judge perceived. The first point on which he relied was that any exercise of the power of amendment by the LSC would have to comply with principles governing the exercise of discretionary powers by public authorities, including propriety of purposes and the consideration only of relevant factors.
[74] It is true that the LSC could not make arbitrary or improper amendments. That would follow not only from general principles of public law, but also from the 2006 regulations and no doubt also from an implied term to that effect in the unified contract or from the express term (cl 2.2 of unified contract) that the LSC will act as a ‘responsible public body’. But that would not achieve the transparency of the contractual terms, any more than it achieved the transparency of the Commission’s actions in European Commission v CAS Succhi di Frutta SpA.
[75] Nor is it achieved by the point that the parameters of the possible amendments had been published in Legal Aid Reform: the Way Ahead (2006) (Cm 6993). The right reserved to amend the contract under cl 13.1(i) ‘to facilitate a Reform of the Legal Aid Scheme’ is on its face not limited to amendments to give effect to proposals in the White Paper. The power to make amendments is better to comply with the LSC’s statutory duties or fulfil its statutory functions. Changes consequent on Legal Aid Reform: the Way Ahead are merely an example of the changes which may be made, and even those may be changes which are ‘related to’ the White Paper. The power also includes changes consequent on ‘new approaches to procurement and contracting’.
[76] It cannot therefore be said that there are any effective limitations, still less that the parameters of change will be known to the profession. The power of amendment is so wide in this case that it amounts to a power to rewrite the contract.
3. Does it make a difference that there is no competitive bidding process?
[77] In this case the context differs from that of the cases decided by the European Court. Most of those cases involved contracts awarded under competitive tenders in which claims were brought by unsuccessful tenderers who had been competing for the contract. The unified contract was not the subject of competition.
[78] The LSC did not offer a contract to any solicitor who wanted one (or for any amount of work a solicitor might want) or give any solicitor an opportunity to obtain one without any competition: it simply offered contracts to existing service providers who had general civil contracts with the LSC, and the LSC had stated that new providers would have an opportunity of obtaining a contract in accordance with its rules.
[79] Beatson J’s view was that it was relevant that the present case was not one in which there had been a competitive bidding process where a choice had been
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made between bidders, since the unified contract had been offered to all organisations that had general civil contracts with the LSC, and the evidence was that new providers had also been given an opportunity of obtaining a contract, depending upon the coverage in any particular area, in accordance with the LSC’s bid rules. Where there has been no competitive bidding, the mere existence of a wide power to amend does not disadvantage a particular tenderer because the power applies to all. He said ([2007] All ER (D) 441 (Jul) at [82], [83]):
‘In assessing whether the obligation of transparency has been satisfied in the present context, it is also relevant that the present case is not one in which there has been a competitive bidding process where a choice has been made between bidders . . . What is required to prevent . . . favouritism . . . in a competitive context is not the same as what is required in a context such as this.
[83] In the light of the purpose of the Directive and regulations, in a case such as this where there has been no competitive bidding, the mere existence of a wide power to amend does not disadvantage a particular tenderer because the power applies to all . . .’
[80] We consider that the principle of transparency will not be satisfied in the present context if uncertainty as to the nature of effect of the amendments that may be made deters, or is liable to deter, some potential service providers from entering into the contract. The reservation of such a unilateral power to amend the contractual terms on such short notice creates an unjustified obstacle to the opening up of public procurement to competition. The uncertainty involved will necessarily deter service providers.
[81] We further consider that a power to amend will infringe the principle of equal treatment if it permits amendments that may favour some contractors but not others.
4. Do the contractual termination provisions make a difference?
[82] The LSC and the Secretary of State accept that the fact that a firm has a right to terminate the contract if the amendments are unacceptable does not affect the outcome. This is no doubt because the consequences of termination (involving stopping work on all existing matters) would be such that it would be practically impossible for a firm with a substantial legal aid practice to terminate.
[83] Mr Paul Darling QC for the Secretary of State advanced the following argument in relation to the termination rights granted to both the LSC and suppliers of services under the unified contract. The LSC has the right to terminate the contract on six months’ notice in order to facilitate a reform of the legal aid scheme. Suppliers have a right to terminate on three months’ notice. Why, instead of terminating and offering new contracts, should the LSC not have a power to amend in circumstances where those suppliers who were not content with the amended terms could themselves terminate? Under the first alternative those content with the new terms would enter into new contracts. Under the second alternative, those not content with the amended terms would terminate.
[84] This argument did not lie happily with the concession made by Mr Jay QC that the LSC’s power to amend did not extend to amendments that constituted a ‘new contract’. Furthermore, Mr Darling’s submissions were not realistic. Solicitors who have subscribed to the unified contract will not readily be able to contemplate withdrawing from it on three months’ notice and the
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implications to which we have referred if they do so will be severe. It is the prospect of being faced with such a choice, when the terms and effect of possible amendments are uncertain, that the Law Society and Dexter Montague contend constitutes a significant inhibition on entering into the unified contract.
[85] Consequently we are satisfied that the LSC’s right to amend the terms of the unified contract does not cease to be objectionable simply because firms who are not content with the amended terms have a right to terminate their contracts.
5. Conclusion on regulation 4(3)
[86] We accept that changes may become necessary or desirable during the life of a contract; and that a contracting authority may need to reserve a power to amend terms. It is not necessary to decide in this case what level of detail (substantive or procedural) the principle of transparency would require, or when amendments create a ‘new contract’ which would engage the public procurement process. The reason is that this is an extreme case where the contracting authority has reserved to itself a virtually unlimited power of amendment, subject only to some limited procedural conditions. Indeed, the power to amend is better characterised as a power to rewrite the contract.
[87] Beatson J’s characterisation (at [100]) in the context of reg 9(7) of one of these provisions is equally true in relation to reg 4(3):
‘. . . The provision in cl 13.1(i) is insufficiently precise. The parameters and criteria for amendment are not indicated beyond the broad statutory objects. A firm or organisation cannot determine with what performance and functional requirements it may in fact be obliged to comply during the contract period and thus may be unable to assess whether to present a bid . . .’
6. Compliance with regulation 9
[88] Beatson J said that the fact that there was clarity as to the technical specifications at any given moment did not provide sufficient precision within reg 9(7) and sufficient prospective clarity during the performance of the contract. In the case of technical specifications, what was required was a definition of the object of the contract in sufficiently precise terms to enable interested undertakings to assess whether to present a bid and (reg 9(4)) to prevent the technical specifications constituting an unjustified obstacle to the opening up of public procurement to competition.
[89] The judge accepted that it would be possible to amend the technical specifications during the life of the contract to take emergent technology into account without going through a fresh procurement procedure. Where the effect of a change did not alter the economic balance of the contract, a power to amend might not violate reg 9(7). But a power to amend could only be narrow, and had to be based on objective criteria.
[90] In our judgment the extreme and unusual features of the power in this case impel the conclusion that the unified contract does not comply with the requirement in reg 9(7) that technical specifications in terms of performance or functional requirements must be ‘sufficiently precise to allow an economic operator to determine the subject of the contract . . .’
[91] Impresa Portuale di Cagliari Srl v Tirrenia di Navagazione SpA Case C-174/03 was a reference on Council Directive (EEC) 93/38 on procurement procedures of entities in the water, energy, transport and telecommunications sectors (1993
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OJ L199 p 84) in which the European Court was asked (inter alia) (a) whether the Directive applied to an award of a port services contract by a company whose activity was the shipping of goods and persons; and (b) whether the technical specifications required by art 18 of the Directive had to be laid down before the selection of the successful bidder and whether they had to be publicised. Article 18 required contracting entities to include the technical specifications in the general documents or the contract documents relating to each contract. The provision imposed no other publicity requirement prior to the award.
[92] The reference was withdrawn before a ruling was made, but after Advocate General Jacobs had delivered his opinion. He considered that the award was not subject to the Directive but was nevertheless subject to the principles of equal treatment and non-discrimination which implied an obligation of transparency. His opinion on question (b) was on the hypothesis that the Directive applied. He said:
‘72. Technical specifications define the object of the contract in precise terms, they enable interested undertakings to assess whether to present a bid and they provide contracting authorities with the technical parameters to assess in relation to their needs the various offers presented. It clearly follows from their very nature that they must be established prior to the selection of a contractor . . .
75. The Court held in [Verlags Telaustria GmbH v Telekom Austin AG ECR I-10745], however, that, even when contracts are excluded from the scope of the procurement directives, the contracting entities concluding them are none the less bound to comply with the fundamental rules of the Treaty in general, and the principle of non-discrimination on the ground of nationality in particular. That principle implies an obligation of transparency, which includes ensuring, for the benefit of any potential tenderer, a degree of advertising sufficient to enable the market to be opened up to competition and the impartiality of procurement procedures to be reviewed.
76 . . . As the Court has held, the duty to treat tenderers equally lies at the heart of the procurement directives and, together with the principle of transparency, must be complied with in every stage of the award procedure so as to afford equality of opportunity to all tenderers when formulating their tenders. Thus, those general principles cover not only the definition of technical specifications by contracting authorities but also the means by which those specifications are made known to potential bidders.’
[93] There is no doubt that the unified contract lays down performance or functional requirements for the purposes of reg 9(7).
[94] We accept that amendments to technical specifications may become necessary during the life of a contract and that a contracting authority may reserve the right to make amendments. Again it is not necessary to decide on the degree of specificity which must be reserved in the contract, because this is such an extreme case that we accept that reserving a unilateral power to insert new technical specifications, and to amend any existing technical specification, without any restriction is incompatible with the requirement in reg 9(7) to specify any such requirements sufficiently precisely to allow a potential service provider to determine the subject matter of the contract. A solicitor cannot determine in advance with what performance and functional requirements he may in fact be
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obliged to comply during the contract period. Again we emphasise that the power is not simply to make technical modifications, but to rewrite the performance standards.
[95] Consequently, we agree with Beatson J that the unified contract does not conform to the principle of transparency, but we consider that that result flows not only from reg 9 but also from reg 4(3). In the result, therefore, we allow the appeal by the Law Society and Dexter Montague, and dismiss the appeal by the Legal Services Commission and the Secretary of State.
Appeals allowed. Cross-appeals dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Annex 1: The terms of the unified contract
1. Clause 1 includes these definitions:
‘“Contract documents” means (a) the Contract for Signature (including the Key Information Tables); (b) the Schedules; (c) the Contract Standard Terms; and (d) the Specification;
“Reform of the Legal Aid Scheme” means such reforms as we may wish to implement in order better to comply with our statutory duties or fulfil our statutory functions including (a) such changes as we wish to make to, or as are related to the [Community Legal Service], [Criminal Defence Service], or both, consequent on, or related to, the paper “Legal Aid Reform: the Way Ahead Cm 6993”; or (b) new approaches to procurement and contracting for the provision of publicly funded legal services;
“Specification” means the Contract Documents designated as such by us . . .’
2. The supplier is required by cl 7.6 to comply with the quality assurance (QA) standard specified in the key information tables (which are part of the contract for signature: cl 11.3). If the supplier’s QA standard is not the specialist quality mark (SQM) and it ceases to meet its QA standard, the LSC may require it to comply with the SQM.
3. Clause 10 is headed ‘Approved Personnel and Supervisors, standard of Contract Work, Independent Peer Review and Key Performance Indicators’, and obliges the supplier to perform all contract work in a timely manner and with all reasonable skill, care and diligence. It provides (cl 10.4) that in each category of law, contract work must receive either rating 1, 2 or 3 as determined by the independent peer review process. It goes on:
‘(5) If your Contract Work in any Category of Law receives a rating of 4, as determined by the Independent Peer Review Process, you may make representations in accordance with the Independent Peer Review Process by completing the appropriate form (currently found at App 5 to the Independent Peer Review Process) and giving it to us within 28 days of your receipt of the review report and file sample. If the rating is confirmed, this is a breach of Contract.
(6) If your Contract Work in any Category of Law receives a rating of 5, as determined by the Independent Peer Review Process, you may make representations in accordance with the Independent Peer Review Process by completing the appropriate form and giving it to us within 28 days of your
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receipt of the review report and file sample. If the rating is confirmed, this is a Fundamental Breach . . .
(8) To qualify as a Preferred Supplier and to be eligible for a contract extension and to bid for a new Unified Contract (when this Contract expires) your Contract Work must receive ratings of 1 or 2 as determined by the Independent Peer Review Process.
Key Performance Indicators
(9) The current Key Performance Indicators are set out in the Key Performance Indicator Annex (Annex G). Such standards are likely to be part of the entry criteria for Preferred Supplier status.
(10) A failure to achieve any of the specified standards for KPIs Nos. 1 to 5 (inclusive) as shown in such Annex or any additional KPI introduced under that Annex, on or before 31 March 2008, shall not of itself be a breach of Contract (but without prejudice to our rights if it separately involves a breach of any other obligation under this Contract).
(11) A subsequent failure to achieve any of those specified standards shall not of itself be a breach of Contract (but without prejudice to our rights if it separately involves a breach of any other obligation under this Contract) unless we have amended this Contract (in accordance with Clause 13) so that such failure is of itself a breach.’
4. Clause 11.4, under the heading ‘What are Key Information Tables?’ provides:
‘You must notify us as soon as you know that any information in your Key Information Tables has changed. We will issue an amended Key Information Table when any information in it changes and may amend and / or extend the information required by a Key Information Table from time to time as and when we think appropriate.’
5. Clause 11B is headed ‘Office Schedules—Crime’ and provides:
‘When we extend this Contract to cover crime work we may amend and/or extend such of its provisions as we think appropriate to take account of any such extension, subject to our compliance with the consultation obligations in Clauses 13.3 to 13.6 inclusive and in accordance with the timetable in Clause 13.8.’
6. Clause 13 is headed ‘Amendments to Contract Documents’ and provides:
‘When may we amend the Contract Documents?
1. Subject to the provisions of this Clause 13, we have the right to amend the Contract Documents from time to time if, (i) we consider it necessary or desirable to do so in order to facilitate a Reform of the Legal Aid Scheme, or (ii) our proposed amendments have been approved by Consultative Bodies, or (iii) our proposed amendments are permitted under Clause 13.2 or any other provision of this Contract authorising us to make amendments.
What if any legislation affects this Contract?
2. We may make such amendments to this Contract as we consider necessary in the circumstances to comply with, or take account of, any UK legislation or any EU legislation having direct effect, or as a result of any decision of a UK court or tribunal, or a decision of the European Court of Human Rights or of the European Court of Justice or any other institution
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of the European Union, or to comply with the requirements of any regulatory body or tax or similar authority.
Such amendments may include without limitation:
(a) amendments to any of the terms of a Schedule;
(b) changes to payments provisions;
(c) imposing controls not previously imposed;
(d) excluding from this Contract any description of Contract Work; and
(e) amending procedures in the Specification.
What must we do before we amend documents?
3. Except for amendments made under any other provision of this Contract authorising us to make amendments, we may not amend either the Contract for Signature, the Contract Standard Terms or the Specification without prior consultation in accordance with this Clause.
4. If a proposed amendment affects only one Supplier, we will consult with that Supplier. Otherwise, we will consult with the Consultative Bodies.
5. If we consider that there is an urgent need to make the amendment, consultation with the Consultative Bodies may last no longer than 21 days. Otherwise it may last no longer than 42 days.
6. We wish to use each consultation period as a period during which consultation actually take place, and we will be willing to engage with the Consultative Bodies during this period to ensure that we are able to take full account of their views. After consultation, we will explain what decisions we have made, and why.
What amendments may we make after consultation?
7. After consultation, we may amend the document as originally proposed, or in a modified form, or leave it un-amended and any amendment made by us shall be binding on you.
When do amendments take effect and when must you comply with them?
8. You must comply with any amendment from such date as we may specify for it. Subject to Clauses 13.10 or 13.11 and/or any other provision of this Contract authorising us to make amendments on other notice, such date shall not be less than 28 days after notice of the amendment is given if we consider that there is an urgent need for compliance with it and shall not be less than 42 days after notice of the amendment is given in any other case.
What about amendments from 1 April 2010?
9. Subject to Clauses 13.11 and 13.12, and/or any other provision of this Contract authorising us to make amendments on other notice, we will require compliance with any amendments to the Contract Documents made on or after 1 April 2010 with effect from a date within either of two periods during each year—(a) April or May, or (b) October or November.
10. If, in any case, a Consultative Body has requested a longer consultation period than the 21 days or 42 days specified in Clause 13.5 we may require compliance with an amendment at another point in the year, but will always consider whether delaying the requirement to comply until a date within either of the following two periods (a) April or May, or (b) October or November (as appropriate) is a practicable alternative.
11. Clauses 13.9 and 13.10 do not apply (and we may require compliance with effect from another point in a year) if we consider that it is impracticable to require compliance with effect from a date within either of the following
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two periods (a) April or May, or (b) October or November, or if the amendments after fewer than 10% of the number of our Suppliers, and in any case where the Consultative Bodies agree. Examples of when we may consider that it is impracticable to require compliance from a date within either of the following two periods (a) April or May, or (b) October or November are:
(a) if the Department for Constitutional Affairs requires an amendment; or
(b) if the amendment is related to a competitive tendering exercise and will affect only those Suppliers that are affected by the outcome of the exercise.
May we amend Contract Documents for some Suppliers and not others?
12. When we are entitled to amend the Contract Documents, we may make amendments that affect all, or fewer, Suppliers.
Your right to terminate following an amendment
13. If you wish to terminate this Contract following an amendment you may do so if you give notice in accordance with Clause 30.2 . . .’
7. By cl 30 the Supplier has the right to terminate on three months’ notice (see cl 30.1). The LSC has the right to terminate on six months’ notice, but only if it considers it necessary to do so in order to facilitate a reform of the Legal Aid Scheme (see cll 30.3, 30.4).
8. By cl 30.2:
‘If we amend this Contract at any time under Clause 13, you may serve notice on us terminating this Contract at any time before the amendment comes into effect and any such notice shall take effect on the day before the day on which the amendment would otherwise have come into effect.’
9. The consequences of termination are set out in cl 31. They include:
‘What about Clients and Contract Work files?
1. When you become aware that your right to perform any Contract Work will end (eg. if you receive a notice to that effect), you must immediately notify all Clients who will be affected by that, take all reasonable steps to protect them and their rights, and provide them with information about other Suppliers able to continue their matter or case (and offer to make appointments with them) and with such other information as we may specify.
What happens to your rights, authorisations etc when this Contract (or part of it) ends?
2. Subject to Clause 31.10, when this Contract ends:
(a) all rights, authorisations, approvals, powers, licences and any status under it (of you and of all your personnel) end immediately;
(b) you must immediately stop all Contract Work;
(c) you must immediately stop holding yourself out as able to perform Contract Work;
(d) you must immediately stop holding yourself out as a Supplier.
3. Subject to Clause 31.10, when any authority to perform Contract Work in any Category of Law or Class of Work, or from any Office ends, you must immediately stop all Contract Work in the relevant Category of Law, Class of Work, or from the relevant Office and must immediately stop holding yourself out as able to perform it . . .
What about work in progress?
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7. When this Contract ends or your right to perform Contract Work in any Category of Law, Class of Work, or from any Office, ends you must immediately send us such Contract Report as we may require and Claims for all matters and cases that are not transferring to another Supplier.’
Annex 2:The Public Sector Directive
10. The recitals include:
‘(1) . . . This Directive is based on Court of Justice case-law, in particular case-law on award criteria, which clarifies the possibilities for the contracting authorities to meet the needs of the public concerned, including in the environmental and/or social area, provided that such criteria are linked to the subject-matter of the contract, do not confer an unrestricted freedom of choice on the contracting authority, are expressly mentioned and comply with the fundamental principles mentioned in recital 2.
(2) The award of contracts concluded in the Member States on behalf of the State, regional or local authorities and other bodies governed by public law entities, is subject to the respect of the principles of the Treaty and in particular to the principle of freedom of movement of goods, the principle of freedom of establishment and the principle of freedom to provide services and to the principles deriving therefrom, such as the principle of equal treatment, the principle of non-discrimination, the principle of mutual recognition, the principle of proportionality and the principle of transparency. However, for public contracts above a certain value, it is advisable to draw up provisions of Community coordination of national procedures for the award of such contracts which are based on these principles so as to ensure the effects of them and to guarantee the opening-up of public procurement to competition. These coordinating provisions should therefore be interpreted in accordance with both the aforementioned rules and principles and other rules of the Treaty . . .
(29) The technical specifications drawn up by public purchasers need to allow public procurement to be opened up to competition. To this end, it must be possible to submit tenders which reflect the diversity of technical solutions. Accordingly, it must be possible to draw up the technical specifications in terms of functional performance and requirements, and, where reference is made to the European standard or, in the absence thereof, to the national standard, tenders based on equivalent arrangements must be considered by contracting authorities . . The technical specifications should be clearly indicated, so that all tenderers know what the requirements established by the contracting authority cover . . .
(46) Contracts should be awarded on the basis of objective criteria which ensure compliance with the principles of transparency, non-discrimination and equal treatment and which guarantee that tenders are assessed in conditions of effective competition. As a result, it is appropriate to allow the application of two award criteria only: “the lowest price” and “the most economically advantageous tender”.
To ensure compliance with the principle of equal treatment in the award of contracts, it is appropriate to lay down an obligation—established by case-law—to ensure the necessary transparency to enable all tenderers to be reasonably informed of the criteria and arrangements which will be applied
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to identify the most economically advantageous tender. It is therefore the responsibility of contracting authorities to indicate the criteria for the award of the contract and the relative weighting given to each of those criteria in sufficient time for tenderers to be aware of them when preparing their tenders . . .’
11. Article 2 provides:
‘Principles of awarding contracts
Contracting authorities shall treat economic operators equally and non-discriminatorily and shall act in a transparent way.’
12. By art 23:
‘Technical specifications
1. The technical specifications as defined in point 1 of Annex VI shall be set out in the contract documentation, such as contract notices, contract documents or additional documents . . .
3. Without prejudice to mandatory national technical rules, to the extent that they are compatible with Community law, the technical specifications shall be formulated:
(a) either by reference to technical specifications defined in Annex VI and, in order of preference, to national standards transposing European standards, European technical approvals, common technical specifications, international standards, other technical reference systems established by the European standardisation bodies or—when these do not exist—to national standards, national technical approvals or national technical specifications relating to the design, calculation and execution of the works and use of the products. Each reference shall be accompanied by the words “or equivalent”;
(b) or in terms of performance or functional requirements; the latter may include environmental characteristics. However, such parameters must be sufficiently precise to allow tenderers to determine the subject-matter of the contract and to allow contracting authorities to award the contract;
(c) or in terms of performance or functional requirements as mentioned in subparagraph (b), with reference to the specifications mentioned in subparagraph (a) as a means of presuming conformity with such performance or functional requirements;
(d) or by referring to the specifications mentioned in subparagraph (a) for certain characteristics, and by referring to the performance or functional requirements mentioned in subparagraph (b) for other characteristics . . .’
Annex 3: The 2006 regulations
The material parts of regs 4 and 9 are:
‘4. Economic operators.—(1) In these Regulations, an “economic operator” means a contractor, a supplier or a services provider.
(2) When these Regulations apply, a contracting authority shall not treat a person who is not a national of a relevant State and established in a relevant State more favourably than one who is.
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(3) A contracting authority shall (in accordance with Article 2 of the Public Sector Directive)—(a) treat economic operators equally and in a non-discriminatory way; and (b) act in a transparent way . . .
9. Technical specifications in the contract documents.—(1) In this regulation—
“common technical specification” means a technical specification drawn up in accordance with a procedure recognised by the member States with a view to uniform application in all member States and which has been published in the Official Journal;
“European standard” means a standard adopted by a European standards organisation and made available to the general public;
“European technical approval” means an approval of the fitness for use of a product, issued by an approval body designated for the purpose by a member State, following a technical assessment of whether the product fulfils the essential requirements for building works, having regard to the inherent characteristics of the product and the defined conditions of application and use;
“international standard” means a standard adopted by an international standards organisation and made available to the general public;
“British standard” means a standard adopted by a British standards organisation and made available to the general public;
“recognised bodies” means test and calibration laboratories and certification and inspection bodies which comply with applicable European standards and “recognised body” shall be interpreted accordingly;
“standard” means a technical specification approved by a recognised standardisation body for repeated and continuous application, compliance with which is not compulsory and which is an international standard, a European standard or a British standard;
“technical reference” means any product produced by European standardisation bodies, other than official standards, according to procedures adopted for the development of market needs; and
“technical specifications” means—(a) in the case of a public services contract or a public supply contract, a specification in a document defining the required characteristics of materials, goods or services, such as quality levels, environmental performance levels, design for all requirements (including accessibility for disabled persons) and conformity assessment, performance, use of a product, safety or dimensions, including requirements relevant to the product as regards the name under which the product is sold, terminology, symbols, testing and test methods, packaging, marking and labelling, user instructions, production processes and methods and conformity assessment procedures, and (b) in the case of a public works contract, the totality of the technical prescriptions contained, in particular, in the contract documents, defining the characteristics required of the work, works, materials or goods, which permits the work, works, materials or goods to be described in a manner such that it fulfils the use for which it is intended by the contracting authority and these characteristics shall include—(i) levels of environmental performance, design for all requirements (including accessibility for disabled persons) and conformity assessment, performance, safety or dimensions, including the procedures concerning quality assurance, terminology, symbols, testing and test methods, packaging, marking and labelling, user instructions and production
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processes and methods; (ii) rules relating to design and costing, the test, inspection and acceptance conditions for work or works and methods or techniques of construction; and (iii) all other technical conditions which the contracting authority is in a position to prescribe, under general or specific regulations, in relation to the finished work or works and to the materials or parts which they involve.
(2) Where a contracting authority wishes to lay down technical specifications which must be met by—(a) the services to be provided under a public services contract and the materials and goods used in or for it; (b) the goods to be purchased or hired under a public supply contract, or (c) the work or works to be carried out under a public works contract and the materials and goods used in or for it; it shall specify those technical specifications in the contract documents . . .
(4) A contracting authority shall ensure that technical specifications afford equal access to economic operators and do not have the effect of creating unjustified obstacles to the opening up of public procurement to competition.
(5) Subject to technical requirements which are mandatory in the United Kingdom and to the extent that those requirements are compatible with Community obligations, a contracting authority shall define the technical specifications required for a contract in accordance with paragraph (6), (7), (8) or (9).
(6) A contracting authority may define the technical specifications referred to in paragraph (5)—(a) by reference to technical specifications in the following order of preference—(i) British standards transposing European standards; (ii) European technical approvals; (iii) common technical specifications; (iv) international standards; or (v) other technical reference systems established by the European standardisation bodies; or (b) in the absence of the technical specifications referred to in sub-paragraph (a), by reference to the following technical specifications—(i) British standards; (ii) British technical approvals; or (iii) British technical specifications relating to the design, calculation and execution of the work or works and use of the products; and each reference to a technical specification made in accordance with this paragraph shall be accompanied by the words “or equivalent”.
(7) A contracting authority may define the technical specifications referred to in paragraph (5) in terms of performance or functional requirements (which may include environmental characteristics) provided that the requirements are sufficiently precise to allow an economic operator to determine the subject of the contract and a contracting authority to award the contract.
(8) A contracting authority may define the technical specifications referred to in paragraph (5) by defining performance and functional requirements as referred to in paragraph (7) with reference to the technical specifications referred to in paragraph (6) as a means of presuming conformity with such performance or functional requirements.
(9) A contracting authority may define the technical specifications referred to in paragraph (5) by reference to technical specifications referred to in paragraph (6) for certain characteristics and by reference to performance or functional requirements referred to in paragraph (7) for other characteristics.
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(10) Where a contracting authority defines technical specifications as referred to in paragraph (6), it shall not reject an offer on the basis that the materials, goods or services offered do not comply with those technical specifications if an economic operator proves to the satisfaction of the contracting authority by any appropriate means that the one or more solutions that economic operator proposes in its tender satisfy the requirements of those technical specifications in an equivalent manner.
(11) Where a contracting authority defines technical specifications in terms of performance or functional requirements as referred to in paragraph (7), it shall not reject an offer for materials, goods, services, work or works which complies with—(a) a British standard transposing a European standard; (b) a European technical approval; (c) a common technical specification; (d) an international standard; or (e) a technical reference system established by a European standardisation body; if those technical specifications address the performance or functional requirements referred to by the contracting authority and the economic operator proves in its tender to the satisfaction of the contracting authority by any appropriate means that the work, works, materials, goods or services meet the performance or functional requirements of the contracting authority . . .’
Davey v Aylesbury Vale District Council
[2008] 2 All ER 178
[2007] EWCA Civ 1166
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Other
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR, SEDLEY AND LLOYD LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 16 OCTOBER, 15 NOVEMBER 2007
Judicial review – Costs of application – Application for permission for judicial review – Costs incurred prior to grant of permission – Costs awarded to defendant after full judicial review proceedings – Award of pre-permission costs – Guidance.
On the conclusion of full judicial review proceedings in a defendant’s favour, the nature and purpose of the particular claim is relevant to the exercise of the judge’s discretion as to costs. In contrast to a judicial review claim brought wholly or mainly for commercial or proprietary reasons, a claim brought partly or wholly in the public interest, albeit unsuccessful, may properly result in a restricted or no order for costs. However, costs should ordinarily follow the event and it is for the claimant who has lost to show that some different approach should be adopted on the facts of a particular case. If awarding costs against the claimant, the judge should consider whether they are to include pre-permission costs incurred by the defendant other than the costs of preparing and serving an acknowledgment of service with grounds of opposition (preparation costs) in addition to acknowledgment costs. It will be for the defendant to justify these. There may be no sufficient reason why such costs, if incurred, should be recoverable. If the claimant wishes to submit that any or all the costs which would be otherwise recoverable should not be recovered, however reasonable and proportionate they were, it is for him to persuade the court to that effect. It is highly desirable that these questions should be dealt with by the trial judge and left to the costs judge only in relation to the reasonableness of individual items. If at the conclusion of such proceedings the judge makes an undifferentiated order for costs in a defendant’s favour the order has to be regarded as including any reasonably incurred preparation costs; but the Practice Note (Administrative Court) [2004] 2 All ER 994 which deems pre-permission costs, if the order is silent on them, to be costs in the case, should be read so as to exclude any costs of opposing the grant of permission in open court, which should be dealt with on the principles explained in R (on the application of Mount Cook Land Ltd) v Westminster City Council [2003] EWCA Civ 1346, [2004] 2 P & CR 405 (see [21], [25], [29]–[31], below).
Notes
For administrative law: practice and procedure; costs, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2001 reissue) para 178.
Cases referred to in judgments
Inland Revenue Comrs v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93, [1982] AC 617, [1981] 2 WLR 722, HL.
R (Ewing) v Office of the Deputy Prime Minister [2005] EWCA Civ 1583, [2006] 1 WLR 1260.
R (on the application of Corner House Research) v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [2005] EWCA Civ 192, [2005] 4 All ER 1, [2005] 1 WLR 2600.
Page 179 of [2008] 2 All ER 178
R (on the application of Mount Cook Land Ltd) v Westminster City Council [2003] EWCA Civ 1346, [2004] 2 P & CR 405.
R v Lord Chancellor, ex p Child Poverty Action Group, R v DPP, ex p Bull [1998] 2 All ER 755, [1999] 1 WLR 347.
R (on the application of Thurman) v Lewisham London BC (2003) unreported, Admin.
Young [2001] EWHC 905 (Admin).
Appeal
The claimant, Mr Davey, brought judicial review proceedings against the defendant, Aylesbury Vale District Council. The claim was dismissed and an order for costs made by Forbes J on 11 March 2005 for the claimant to pay 75% of the costs of the claim not to include costs of the permission hearing. The parties could not agree the costs. At the taxation Master Campbell held that the claimant was liable to pay costs incurred reasonably incurred before the grant of permission. On 1 February 2007 Wyn Williams J dismissed the claimant’s appeal ([2007] EWHC 116 (QB), [2007] All ER (D) 01 (Feb)). The claimant appealed with permission of Sir Henry Brooke. The facts are set out in the judgment of Sedley LJ.
Robert McCracken QC and Mark Westmoreland Smith (instructed by Richard Buxton, Cambridge) for the claimant.
James Findlay (instructed by Sharpe Pritchard) for the defendant.
Judgment was reserved.
15 November 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
SEDLEY LJ (giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Anthony Clarke MR).
[1] The question before the court is whether, as a matter of law or of practice, an order for costs made in favour of a successful respondent to judicial review proceedings includes costs incurred prior to the grant of permission unless these are expressly excluded.
[2] I can take the material facts directly from the judgment of Wyn Williams J, who on 1 February 2007 concluded that the answer was Yes (see [2007] EWHC 116 (QB), [2007] All ER (D) 01 (Feb)):
‘[1] On 3 February 2004 the defendant granted planning permission and listed building consent to a company known as Mentmore Towers Ltd in respect of a scheme of development upon an area of land known as Mentmore Towers. On 30 April 2004 the appellant filed a claim for judicial review in which he sought orders quashing those grants. By an order dated 11 March 2005 Forbes J dismissed the claim after a substantive hearing. Permission to proceed with the claim for judicial review had been granted to the appellant by Richards J (as he then was) on 23 September 2004.
[2] At the conclusion of the hearing before Forbes J on 11 March 2005 he made certain consequential orders one of which was in the following terms:
“. . . the Claimant do pay 75% of the costs of this claim not to include costs of the permission hearing to be subject to detailed assessment if not agreed and paid by the Claimant to the Defendant’s solicitors.”
[3] The parties could not agree upon the bill of costs presented by the respondent. In consequence, the respondent sought a taxation of its costs.
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The taxation was heard by Master Campbell on 3 July 2006. Before the master, the appellant raised a point which both parties and the master considered was a point of principle. The point raised by the appellant was that under the order of Forbes J he should not be liable for any costs incurred by the respondent before the decision was made to grant him permission to bring his judicial review proceedings except for the costs incurred in preparing the respondent’s acknowledgment of service and grounds of opposition to the claim.
[4] In a reasoned judgment the master rejected the appellant’s contention. He held that under the order of Forbes J the appellant was liable to pay what he described as “pre-permission costs” subject, of course, to such costs being reasonably incurred. The respondent was not limited simply to the costs of preparing the acknowledgment of service and grounds of opposition.
[5] The Master gave permission to appeal against that ruling.
[6] Both parties agree that if the order of Forbes J had been made after a civil trial in the context of a private law dispute the master’s ruling would be correct. However, the appellant argues that in the particular context of judicial review proceedings the master’s conclusion is wrong. In effect, the case for the appellant is that the order of Forbes J is to be taken to mean that no pre-permission costs are recoverable (other than the costs of preparing the acknowledgment of service and summary grounds) notwithstanding that there are no words within the order which expressly suggest that is to be the case.
[7] It is to be noted that no argument was addressed to Forbes J upon the issue of “pre-permission costs” generally. As his order makes clear, however, he was asked to exclude from the costs payable to the defendant the costs of the permission hearing—an application on the part of the claimant to which he acceded.’
[3] The bill of costs, assessed on the standard basis and reduced by 25 per cent because the council had belatedly met one of the grounds, came to a little under £20,000. Almost £3,000 of this was the cost of the dispute about the ambit of the judge’s order. The pre-permission costs in issue (that is to say, excluding the preparation of the council’s acknowledgment of service and grounds of opposition) were the costs of obtaining the advice of junior counsel, a total of £1,090 before discounting, together with part of the solicitor’s costs of preparation.
[4] It follows that the second appeal now before this court by permission of Sir Henry Brooke concerns an issue of principle which far outweighs the amount at issue. In giving permission Sir Henry wrote:
‘This appeal raises an important point of practice. I note that it said that different judges in the Administrative Court are exercising their discretion in different ways on the point at issue.
For my part, I would regard the extract from the judgment of Ouseley J in Young (see p 17 of the small bundle) as representing the correct position, but it is incumbent on the costs judge on an assessment to be watchful in relation to the nature of the respondent’s pre-permission costs he decides to allow.
It appears to me to be desirable for the full court to carry out an authoritative review of the whole position.’
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[5] The Practice Note (Administrative Court) [2004] 2 All ER 994, [2004] 1 WLR 1760 deems the pre-permission costs, if the order is silent on them, to be costs in the case. This will be the norm in cases where permission has been obtained, whether on the papers or on renewal in open court, without opposition. But it is a feature of final costs orders in many judicial review cases that the costs of having unsuccessfully opposed the grant of permission are not to be recovered by the ultimately successful defendant. Here the grant of permission had been vigorously opposed at an oral hearing before Richards J, as he then was. Upon the grant of permission, Mark Lowe QC for the council realistically conceded that the claimant’s costs vis-à-vis the council should be the claimant’s costs in the case; but Richards J preferred to reserve them. The failure of the council’s opposition to the grant of permission was accordingly reflected in the limitation placed by Forbes J upon his eventual costs order.
[6] While therefore Wyn Williams J was right to say that the task of the costs judge was to interpret Forbes J’s order by deciding whether it gave the council 75 per cent of all its costs save those of the permission hearing, or 75 per cent of its costs following the permission hearing plus (as was conceded) the costs of its acknowledgment of service and grounds of opposition, the question for this court is wider: it is whether an order that a defendant is to recover its costs in judicial review proceedings which have gone to a full hearing embraces all costs reasonably incurred by it before the grant of permission. That is how the costs judge, Master Campbell, approached the case: he described the issue, correctly, as a point of principle.
[7] The master, having considered authorities to which I shall come in a moment and which, as he recognised, do not speak with single voice, concluded that in principle ‘the costs of a threatened claim are generally irrecoverable but, if a claim is made . . . permission is granted . . . and eventually the claimant loses, then in those circumstances costs may well be recoverable’. The reason for the guarded final phrase (‘may well be’) is of course that the court can always adapt its order to particular circumstances; but the sense of the master’s conclusion is that, other things being equal, a costs order in a defendant’s favour following a full hearing includes pre-permission costs. Forbes J had not been asked to deal specifically in his order with the pre-permission costs and did not do so.
[8] On appeal Wyn Williams J noted that it was common ground that in an ordinary civil claim an unqualified costs order would extend to costs reasonably incurred in the run-up to the issue of proceedings. The question was whether the same was the case in judicial review. Having reviewed the decided cases he concluded (at [20]) that these ‘suggest strongly that very experienced judges of the Administrative Court have considered it open to them to make orders for costs against unsuccessful applicants which include “pre-permission costs” after a substantive hearing’. Such a conclusion may well be right, but it does not answer the question of principle as to the prima facie meaning of an unqualified costs order. It led the judge, nevertheless, to the view that this was ‘the most obvious and natural meaning’ of Forbes J’s order (see [21]).
[9] I do not think this was an entirely satisfactory basis on which to resolve an issue of general significance to individuals who bring a public authority to court on arguable grounds. What is needed is a general principle upon which costs awarded to a defendant at the end of a full judicial review proceeding are to be assessed, subject always to qualification in any one case. I entirely understand the judge’s reluctance to decide more than the case before him, but this court can and I think should look at the issue more broadly.
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[10] In doing so I will refer to the costs of preparing and serving an acknowledgment of service with grounds of opposition as acknowledgment costs, and to other pre-permission costs incurred by a defendant as preparation costs.
THE PURPOSE OF THE PERMISSION HEARING
[11] It may be helpful first to recall what Lord Diplock said in the Inland Revenue Comrs v National Federation of Self-Employed and Small Businesses Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 93 at 106, [1982] AC 617 at 643–644:
‘The whole purpose of requiring that leave should first be obtained to make the application for judicial review would be defeated if the court were to go into the matter in any depth at that stage. If, on a quick perusal of the material then available, the court thinks that it discloses what might on further consideration turn out to be an arguable case in favour of granting to the applicant the relief claimed, it ought, in the exercise of a judicial discretion, to give him leave to apply for that relief.’
In the same vein, Lord Woolf in his 1989 Hamlyn Lectures, Protection of the Public—a New Challenge, noted that the Justice All Souls Review had argued for the abolition of the leave requirement but said (p 21):
‘In practice the requirement, far from being an impediment to the individual litigant, can even be to his advantage since it enables a litigant expeditiously and cheaply to obtain the view of a High Court judge on the merits of his application.’
[12] We have been shown in the course of argument the transcript of a permission application in the Administrative Court ([2007] EWHC 2352 (Admin)) in the course of which Burton J expressed a preference for the maximum amount of material on a contest at the permission stage. While there may be cases in which it is necessary or helpful to explore issues in depth at this stage, such cases must be quite exceptional. The proper place for a full exploration of evidence and argument is at the hearing of a claim which has been shown at the permission stage to be arguable.
[13] It follows that it ought not ordinarily to be necessary for a public body on which a claim for judicial review is served to do much additional work before completing its acknowledgment of service. In the nature of things it should already know what it has done and why. If on inspection it realises that it has slipped up, it may well not oppose the application. For the rest, its proper course is to explain its decision and any further grounds of opposition in short form and wait to see if, with or without a contested court hearing, permission is granted to challenge it.
PLANNING DISPUTES AND JUDICIAL REVIEW
[14] The pre-action protocol applicable to judicial review proceedings, which centres on trying to sort out the issue by correspondence, recognises that this process has no bearing where the authority has no power in law to withdraw or modify its decision. Planning decisions may well be in this class. Such cases are therefore likely to proceed directly from a disputed decision to the filing of a judicial review claim form requiring an acknowledgment of service with grounds of opposition.
[15] Planning cases tend also to lie on or near the boundary between private or commercial judicial review and public interest litigation. Many, including the present one, straddle it: they are brought by a personally interested individual,
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typically a neighbouring landowner or occupier, but raise issues of local or general environmental concern. In so far as they do so, it is right to bear in mind what this court said in R (on the application of Corner House Research) v Secretary of State for Trade and Industry [2005] EWCA Civ 192, [2005] 4 All ER 1, [2005] 1 WLR 2600:
‘[69] We are satisfied that there are features of public law litigation which distinguish it from private law civil and family litigation . . .
[70] The important difference here is that there is a public interest in the elucidation of public law by the higher courts in addition to the interests of the individual parties. One should not therefore necessarily expect identical principles to govern the incidence of costs in public law cases . . .’
THE PRESENT PROBLEM
[16] In line with the foregoing guidance, at least two rules of practice have developed under the CPR. One is that an unsuccessful applicant for permission must expect to pay the defendant’s costs of putting in an acknowledgment of service. To this extent the effect of the order of Forbes J in the present case is not contentious. The other is that a defendant which chooses to attend and oppose an oral application for permission cannot ordinarily expect to recover its costs of doing so even if permission is refused, but may exceptionally be allowed them—for example where it has been able to alert the court to an abuse of its process. These guidelines were spelled out and explained by this court in R (on the application of Mount Cook Land Ltd) v Westminster City Council [2003] EWCA Civ 1346, [2004] 2 P & CR 405. In relation to them Auld LJ commented (at [77]):
‘Such an approach seems to me to accord with public policy in providing ready access to the courts by individuals or bodies seeking relief from and/or to draw attention to actual or threatened transgressions of the law by public bodies, whilst, in exceptional cases protecting those bodies and the public that funds them from unnecessary, burdensome and costly substantive litigation. If properly and consistently applied by the courts, I can see nothing about it that would, as Mr. Steel suggested, undermine the fairness and probity of judicial review as a means of control of the administration or run contrary to Art.6.1 of the European Convention of Human Rights, Lord Woolfs Civil Justice Reforms or the adoption of them in this context in the Bowman Report.’
[17] To the sources of policy and law referred to by Auld LJ, Robert McCracken QC for Mr Davey adds what is set out in art 9 of the Aarhus Convention on Access to Information, Public Participation in Decision-Making and Access to Justice in Environmental Matters 1998 (Aarhus, 25 June 1998; ST 24 (2005); Cm 6586) (ratified by both the United Kingdom and the European Union):
‘3. In addition and without prejudice to the review procedures referred to in paragraphs 1 and 2 above, each Party shall ensure that, where they meet the criteria, if any, laid down in its national law, members of the public have access to administrative or judicial procedures to challenge acts and omissions by private persons and public authorities which contravene provisions of its national law relating to the environment.
4. In addition and without prejudice to paragraph 1 above, the procedures referred to in paragraphs 1, 2 and 3 above shall provide adequate and effective remedies, including injunctive relief as appropriate, and be fair, equitable, timely and not prohibitively expensive. Decisions under this article shall be
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given or recorded in writing. Decisions of courts, and whenever possible of other bodies, shall be publicly accessible.’
This policy is explicitly adopted in art 3.7 of European Parliament and Council Directive (EC) 2003/35 (providing for public participation in respect of the drawing up of certain plans and programmes relating to the environment and amending with regard to public participation and access to justice Council Directives (EEC) 85/337 and (EC) 96/61) (OJ 1997 L156 p 17).
[18] It is because of the need to keep the costs of environmental litigation down without encouraging or rewarding misconceived challenges that issues such as the present one arise. What we are asked to decide is whether, as a general rule, an order made following a full judicial review hearing that a successful defendant should recover its costs will entitle it not only to its acknowledgment costs but to any reasonably incurred preparation costs. Such a general rule, as James Findlay for the local authority stresses, would do no more than follow the practice in civil litigation; but, for reasons I have outlined, that is not a sufficient justification in public law.
[19] Each side is able to point to an anomaly in the other party’s case. Mr McCracken points out that a claimant who fails to obtain permission will have to pay the defendant’s acknowledgment costs but not its preparation costs. Why then, he asks, should a claimant who has a good enough case to secure permission but who in the end loses be worse off? Mr Findlay points out that a claimant who succeeds at trial will recover all his costs including preparation costs. Why, he asks, should the same not be the case for a successful defendant?
[20] If there is a satisfactory answer to each of these questions, it has to lie in the calibrated exercise of the court’s power—a power which is in effect an obligation—to adapt its provision for costs to the conduct and outcome of the case before it. The method of fine-tuning an award of costs to a defendant who has successfully opposed the grant of permission, set out by this court in R (on the application of Mount Cook Land Ltd) v Westminster City Council, illustrates the proper approach. Absent such fine-tuning, the position is as described by Collins J in R (on the application of Thurman) v Lewisham London BC (CO/2806/2003): ‘The costs of dealing with a threatened claim are generally irrecoverable, unless a claim is made, gets permission and eventually the claimant loses.’
[21] Taking the same approach, these seem to me to be the appropriate guidelines for dealing with the present problem. They should be read subject to the caveats set out in the judgment of Sir Anthony Clarke MR (at [29]–[31], below). (1) On the conclusion of full judicial review proceedings in a defendant’s favour, the nature and purpose of the particular claim is relevant to the exercise of the judge’s discretion as to costs. In contrast to a judicial review claim brought wholly or mainly for commercial or proprietary reasons, a claim brought partly or wholly in the public interest, albeit unsuccessful, may properly result in a restricted or no order for costs. (2) If awarding costs against the claimant, the judge should consider whether they are to include preparation costs in addition to acknowledgment costs. It will be for the defendant to justify these. There may be no sufficient reason why such costs, if incurred, should be recoverable. (3) It is highly desirable that these questions should be dealt with by the trial judge and left to the costs judge only in relation to the reasonableness of individual items. (4) If at the conclusion of such proceedings the judge makes an undifferentiated order for costs in a defendant’s favour (a) the order has to be regarded as including any reasonably incurred preparation costs; but (b) the 2004 Practice Note [2004] 2 All ER 994, [2004] 1 WLR
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1760 should be read so as to exclude any costs of opposing the grant of permission in open court, which should be dealt with on the Mount Cook principles.
THE PRESENT CASE
[22] It is apparent from Master Campbell’s judgment on the costs hearing that the claimant’s solicitor, Richard Buxton, who is extremely experienced in environmental litigation and in the judicial review process, argued this aspect of the assessment not on any issues of detail (save as to one specific amount, on which he succeeded) but on the wider question whether the judge’s order, properly interpreted, embraced the council’s preparation costs. For the reasons set out above, I consider that it did. For the same reasons, I consider that it was not satisfactory that an order should have been made, without debate, in this broad form, and that in future such orders should be specific. This in turn means that counsel will need detailed instructions.
[23] The fee paid to junior counsel for settling the acknowledgment of service was accepted by Mr Buxton as part of the acknowledgment costs. The fee paid to leading counsel for advice prior to the permission hearing was disallowed. Whether, had the claimant contested the need in addition to have junior counsel’s advice before and after settling and serving the acknowledgment, at a cost of a further £1,090, the costs judge would have taken the attitude indicated in [14], above, we do not know.
[24] This appeal must therefore be dismissed. It has nevertheless served the valuable purpose of allowing this court to consider and, we hope, regularise a problematical and too often neglected area of practice which can have very substantial financial repercussions.
LLOYD LJ.
[25] I agree with both judgments.
SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR.
[26] I agree that this appeal should be dismissed for the reasons given by Sedley LJ. I add a few words of my own on some of the topics which he has considered.
[27] The order made by Forbes J was that: ‘the Claimant do pay 75% of the costs of this claim not to include costs of the permission hearing to be subject to detailed assessment if not agreed and paid by the Claimant to the Defendant’s solicitors.' As I see it, in an order in that form ‘the costs of [the] claim’ means the ‘costs of and incidental to’ the claim: see s 51(1) of the Supreme Court Act 1981. Those costs can include costs incurred before issue of the proceedings, although, this being an order for assessment on the standard basis, in order to be entitled to payment of any particular item of such costs, the successful party (whether claimant or defendant) must show (as in the case of every other item of costs claimed) that it was reasonably incurred and both proportionate and reasonable in amount: see CPR 44.4(1), (2).
[28] The order made by Forbes J shows that the court can restrict the costs to be recoverable. In this case he only awarded 75 per cent of the costs and excluded the costs of the permission hearing. He could have excluded pre-issue costs if he had been asked to do so and thought it appropriate to do so.
[29] I entirely agree with the guidelines set out by Sedley LJ at [21], above. I would however add one note of caution. It does seem to me that costs should ordinarily follow the event and that it is for the claimant who has lost to show that
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some different approach should be adopted on the facts of a particular case. That principle is supported by the decision and reasoning of Dyson J in R v Lord Chancellor, ex p Child Poverty Action Group, R v DPP, ex p Bull [1998] 2 All ER 755 at 764, [1999] 1 WLR 347 at 355–356. That passage concludes as follows:
‘. . . in considering whether, and in what circumstances, there should be a departure from the basic rule that costs follow the event in public interest challenge cases, in my view it is important to have in mind the rationale for that basic rule, and that it is for the applicants to show why, exceptionally, there should be a departure from it.’
The basic rule he refers to is, as he explained, that costs follow the event in public law cases, as in others, because, where an unsuccessful claim is brought against a public body, it imposes costs on that body which have to be met out of money diverted from the funds available to fulfil its primary public functions.
[30] That said, I agree with Sedley LJ’s second proposition at [21], above, namely that it will be for the successful defendant to justify preparation costs. That is, however, because (as stated above) he must show that it was reasonable and proportionate to incur such costs. If the claimant wishes to submit that any or all the costs which would be otherwise recoverable should not be recovered, however reasonable and proportionate they were, it is, as I see it, for him to persuade the court to that effect.
[31] I should add that I also agree with Sedley LJ’s third proposition, namely that these questions should be dealt with by the trial judge, leaving to the costs judge only the question whether the individual items are reasonable.
[32] The only other point upon which I wish to comment arises out of a submission made by Mr McCracken on behalf of the appellant to the effect that to permit defendants to recover preparation costs would encourage public authorities to incur costs needlessly at the pre-permission stage. I do not accept that submission. In R (Ewing) v Office of the Deputy Prime Minister [2005] EWCA Civ 1583, [2006] 1 WLR 1260 Carnwath LJ, with whom Brooke and Dyson LJJ agreed, considered (at [40]–[47]) what he called ‘Costs under Mount Cook’, where this court considered the position in a case in which the application for permission to claim judicial review failed. Carnwath LJ explained what is meant by a ‘summary of grounds’ at the permission stage. He stressed (at [43]) that the purpose of the summary is not to provide the basis of full argument of the substantive merits, but rather to assist the judge in deciding whether to grant permission and, if so, on what terms. He added that it should be possible to do what was required without incurring ‘substantial expense at this stage’.
[33] It seems to me that any defendant who incurs more cost at the permission stage than is contemplated by Carnwath LJ will not be awarded such additional costs at the permission stage if the application is unsuccessful. Moreover, as I see it, the court should at that stage decline to look at anything which goes beyond the ‘summary of grounds’ described in Ewing’s case. In these circumstances, I am not persuaded that the approach we have adopted in this case will give rise to a risk of defendants recovering more expense than is reasonable at the permission stage.
Appeal dismissed.
Marie-Thérèse Groarke Barrister
Sinclair Gardens Investments (Kensington) Ltd v Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd
[2008] 2 All ER 187
[2007] EWHC 1776 (Ch)
Categories: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases, Tenancies
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): MORGAN J
Hearing Date(s): 27, 29 JUNE, 26 JULY 2007
Landlord and tenant – Leasehold enfranchisement – Notice by qualifying tenants of claim to exercise right to collective enfranchisement – Tenants serving notice on freeholder – Freeholder serving counter-notice claiming notice invalid – Tenants serving corrected notice – Freeholder claiming service of invalid notice precluding tenants from serving second notice – Whether second notice valid – Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, s 13.
Qualifying tenants of a block of flats wished to exercise their right to collective enfranchisement under Ch I of Pt I of the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993. A claim to exercise that right with respect to any premises was made by giving notice of the claim under s 13a of the 1993 Act. Section 13(3) required that the notice specify separately the proposed purchase prices for the premises to which Ch I applied and certain appurtenant property. Under sub-s (8), where any premises had been specified in a s 13 notice, no subsequent notice which specified the whole or part of those premises could be given under s 13 so long as the earlier notice continued in force and under sub-s (9), where any premises had been specified in a s 13 notice and that notice had been withdrawn or was deemed to have been withdrawn, no subsequent notice which specified the whole or part of those premises could be given under s 13 within a period of twelve months. In December 2005 the participating tenants purported to serve a s 13 notice on the freeholder. In February 2006 the freeholder purported to serve a counter-notice stating that it did not admit that the participating tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement because the December notice had not complied with the requirement under s 13(3) to specify separate purchase prices. In April the tenants’ solicitor notified the freeholder that the tenants accepted that the December notice was invalid for the reasons given in the counter-notice and sought to serve a fresh, correct, notice. The freeholder then served a further purported counter-notice on the basis that the effect of s 13(8), (9) was that the tenants were not able to serve a s 13 notice in April because of having served the December notice. In July the tenants’ nominee purchaser applied to the court seeking declaratory relief. The judge held that the December notice had not complied with s 13(3), that it had therefore been invalid and so had not precluded the tenants from serving a notice in April which did comply with s 13. He declared that the tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the premises specified in the April notice and that the June counter-notice was of no effect. The freeholder appealed, contending, inter alia, that where a s 13 notice complied with the requirements of the section
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relating to the entitlement of qualifying tenants to collective enfranchisement, as the December notice had, it was a notice given in accordance with s 13 with the result that it continued in force for the purposes of sub-s (8) and was a notice under s 13 within sub-s (9). Under the 1993 Act the price payable for the freehold excluded any element of marriage value where, at the date of service of a s 13 notice, the unexpired term of the lease held by any of the participating members exceeded 80 years. In April 2006 the participating tenants had leases with terms exceeding 80 years but on 1 September 2006 those terms became shorter than 80 years. For that reason, the tenants wished to establish, and the landlord wished to deny, that the April notice was effective notice.
Held – The scheme of Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act did not require the conclusion that a purported notice under s 13 which failed to be effective because it did not comply with s 13(3) none the less had some statutory consequences such that it was to be treated as a notice ‘under’ s 13 or a ‘notice in accordance with’ s 13 or as a ‘notice which continues in force’ until the tenants accepted that the notice did not comply with s 13(3) and was ineffective. The 1993 Act distinguished between the entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement and the question whether a claim to exercise that entitlement complied with mandatory statutory requirements. In the instant case there had been no statutory prohibition on the tenants accepting that they had failed to serve a valid notice under s 13 in December 2005; the prohibition on a subsequent notice contained in s 13(8) did not apply because the December notice was not a notice under s 13 and was not ‘in force’. Because the December notice was not effective and was not in force it did not have to be withdrawn. Accordingly, there had been no scope for s 13(9) to preclude the tenants from serving a valid s 13 notice in April 2006. The appeal would be dismissed (see [51]–[57], [60]–[62], [75], below).
Speedwell Estates Ltd v Dalziel [2002] L&TR 180, Burman v Mount Cook Land Ltd [2002] 1 All ER 144 and dicta of Auld LJ in 9 Cornwall Crescent London Ltd v Kensington and Chelsea Royal London BC [2005] 4 All ER 1207 at [8] considered.
Notes
For collective enfranchisement: notice by qualifying tenants of claim to exercise right, see 27(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 1585.
For the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, s 13, see 23 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 923.
Cases referred to in judgment
Banner Industrial & Commercial Properties Ltd v Clark Paterson Ltd [1990] 2 EGLR 139.
Bremer Handelsgesellschaft Schaft MbH v Vanden Avenne Izegem PVBA [1978] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 109, HL.
Burman v Mount Cook Land Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1712, [2002] 1 All ER 144, [2002] Ch 256, [2002] 2 WLR 1172.
Cornwall Crescent London Ltd (9) v Kensington and Chelsea Royal London BC [2005] EWCA Civ 324, [2005] 4 All ER 1207, [2006] 1 WLR 1186.
Gillett v Holt [2000] 2 All ER 289, [2001] Ch 210, [2000] 3 WLR 815, CA.
Keepers and Governors of the Possessions Revenues and Goods of the Free Grammar School of John Lyon v Mayhew [1997] 1 EGLR 88, CA.
Mannai Investment Co Ltd v Eagle Star Life Assurance Co Ltd [1997] 3 All ER 352, [1997] AC 749, [1997] 2 WLR 945, HL.
Page 189 of [2008] 2 All ER 187
Speedwell Estates Ltd v Dalziel [2001] EWCA Civ 1277, [2002] L&TR 180.
Willingale v Globalgrange Ltd [2000] 2 EGLR 55, CA.
Cases referred to in skeleton arguments
Bolsom (Sidney) Investment Trust Ltd v E Karmios & Co (London) Ltd [1956] 1 All ER 536, [1956] 1 QB 529, [1956] 2 WLR 625, CA.
Cadogan v Morris [1999] 1 EGLR 59, CA.
Castle v Chisholm (29 August 2003, unreported).
Daejan Properties v de Wolfe (2001, unreported).
Dun & Bradstreet Software Services (England) Ltd v Provident Mutual Life Assurance Association [1998] 2 EGLR 175, CA.
Kammins Ballrooms Co Ltd v Zenith Investments (Torquay) Ltd [1970] 2 All ER 871, [1971] AC 850, [1970] 3 WLR 287, HL.
John Lyon Grammar School (Keepers and Governors) v Secchi [1999] 3 EGLR 49, CA.
Meah v Sector Properties Ltd [1974] 1 All ER 1074, [1974] 1 WLR 547, CA.
Smith v Draper [1990] 2 EGLR 69, CA.
Wellcome Trust (the) v Easterman (1998, unreported).
Appeal
Sinclair Gardens Investment (Kensington) Ltd, the freehold owner of flats 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23 and 25 Poets Chase, Aylesbury, Buckinghamshire (the landlord) appealed with permission of Judge Collins from his decision in the Central London County Court on 15 December 2006 in an action under s 22 of the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993 brought by Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd (the nominee purchaser) declaring that the relevant qualifying tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the premises specified in a notice dated 20 April 2006, that a counter-notice dated 26 June 2006 was of no effect and that the landlord should serve a further counter-notice if so advised by 1 March 2007. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Timothy Fancourt QC (instructed by P Chevalier & Co, Chessington) for the landlord.
Lana Wood (instructed by Parrott & Coales, Aylesbury) for the nominee purchaser.
Judgment was reserved.
26 July 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
MORGAN J.
THE ISSUE
[1] The issue in this case arises out of the right to collective enfranchisement conferred by Ch I of Pt I of the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993. In a case where qualifying tenants of flats, contained in premises to which Ch I applies, serve a notice which purports to be given under s 13 of the 1993 Act, but which in fact fails to comply with the requirements of s 13(3), what, if any, is the effect of that notice? If the landlord points out that the notice does not comply with s 13(3), or if the tenants realise this for themselves, are the tenants able without delay to serve a further notice which does comply with s 13(3) and which will unquestionably be an effective notice under s 13? Or does the service of the first purported notice under s 13 mean that the tenants are not able to serve a second notice until they withdraw the first notice and, when
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they withdraw the first notice, is there a period of 12 months from such withdrawal within which there is a statutory prohibition on serving a second notice?
THE FACTS IN OUTLINE
[2] Sinclair Gardens Investment (Kensington) Ltd is the freehold owner of nine blocks of flats at Poets Chase, Aylesbury, Buckinghamshire. The point arising in this appeal relates to each of these nine blocks. There are altogether some nine actions in the county court, one action relating to each block. The county court has ordered that one of these actions should be the lead action and this appeal is brought in the lead action. The lead action concerns a block of 12 flats, the flats being numbered 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23 and 25 Poets Chase, Aylesbury.
[3] The block of flats, the subject of this appeal, comprises premises to which Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act applies. The other conditions as to the entitlement of the tenants to give notice seeking collective enfranchisement under Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act are satisfied. As it happens, it does not strictly matter for the purposes of this appeal whether these qualifications are met or not as the point does not turn upon the entitlement to exercise a right to collective enfranchisement but relates to the form of the document served for the purpose of seeking to exercise that right.
[4] In the first instance, I will describe the various notices in this case only briefly as it will be necessary to return to those notices and discuss their detailed provisions after I have described the relevant statutory provisions.
[5] On or about 19 December 2005, the tenants of eight out of the twelve flats in the relevant block served on the landlord a notice which purported to be a notice under s 13 of the 1993 Act. The notice referred to a company known as Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd. The notice stated that the date by which the landlord was to serve any counter-notice under s 21 of the 1993 Act was 28 February 2006.
[6] On about 22 February 2006, the landlord gave to Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd a notice dated 22 February 2006, which notice purported to be a counter-notice under s 21 of the 1993 Act. In summary, this counter-notice asserted that the purported s 13 notice dated 19 December 2005 did not comply with the requirements of s 13(3) of the 1993 Act.
[7] On 20 April 2006, the solicitors for the tenants wrote to the landlord. The letter stated that the tenants had considered the counter-notice served by the landlord and the tenants now accepted that the purported s 13 notice dated 19 December 2005 was invalid for the reasons given in the counter-notice. The letter dated 20 April 2006 went on to say that the tenants were entitled to, and sought to, serve a fresh s 13 notice.
[8] On or about 20 April 2006, the same eight tenants in the block in question served a further notice purporting to be given under s 13 of the 1993 Act. This notice corrected the matters complained of in the landlord’s counter-notice of 22 February 2006 in respect of the original purported s 13 notice dated 19 December 2005.
[9] On or about 26 June 2006, the landlord gave to Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd a further purported counter-notice. The document contained a number of legal contentions as to the ability of the tenants to serve a s 13 notice on 20 April 2006 in view of the fact that they had earlier served a purported s 13 notice dated 19 December 2005.
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[10] On 31 July 2006, Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd, as nominee purchaser, brought the present proceedings. In its particulars of claim, that company pleaded the sequence of notices, contended that the notice dated 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13 of the 1993 Act so that that notice was not a notice under s 13 of the 1993 Act and, accordingly, that the tenants were not precluded from serving a valid s 13 notice on 20 April 2006. The particulars of claim claimed declaratory relief and the claim was said to be made under s 22 of the 1993 Act.
[11] On or about 21 August 2006, the landlord served a witness statement from its solicitor. The witness statement referred to the sequence of notices and contended that the notice dated 19 December 2005 failed to comply with s 13(3) of the 1993 Act. The witness statement then contended that the service of the purported s 13 notice dated 19 December 2005 meant that the tenants were not able to serve a s 13 notice on 20 April 2006.
[12] The issue as to the effect of the notice of 20 April 2006 came before Judge Collins (in the Central London County Court) and he gave judgment on 15 December 2006. At the hearing in the county court, the nominee purchaser maintained the stance that the purported s 13 notice of 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13 of the 1993 Act. However, the landlord appears to have changed its position. Notwithstanding the landlord’s contentions in the counter-notice of 22 February 2006 and in the solicitor’s witness statement, the landlord appears to have argued that the notice dated 19 December 2005 did sufficiently comply with s 13.
[13] In the end, the judge held that the notice 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13(3)(d) of the 1993 Act although he held, notwithstanding the nominee purchaser’s submissions to the contrary, that the notice sufficiently complied with s 13(3)(f) of the 1993 Act. The judge next held that because the notice dated 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13 of the 1993 Act, it was invalid and so it did not preclude the tenants from serving a notice on 20 April 2006 which did comply with s 13 of the 1993 Act.
[14] The judge then considered arguments put forward by the landlord that the tenants and the nominee purchaser were estopped from challenging the efficacy of their own notice of 19 December 2005. The judge rejected the landlord’s case on estoppel.
[15] The result of the hearing in the county court was that the judge declared that the relevant tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the premises specified in the notice dated 20 April 2006, that the counter-notice dated 26 June 2006 was of no effect and that the landlord should serve a further counter-notice if so advised by 1 March 2007. Judge Collins granted permission to the landlord to appeal.
[16] The issue as to the effect of the notice dated 20 April 2006 is of particular relevance to the parties because of the provisions of para 4(2A) of Sch 6 to the 1993 Act. That paragraph applies where, at the date of service of a s 13 notice, the unexpired term of the lease held by any of the participating members exceeds 80 years. In such a case, the requirement that the tenant pay a share of marriage value pursuant to para 4 of Sch 6 to the 1993 Act is removed. On 20 April 2006, the participating tenants who served the notice of that date had leases with terms exceeding 80 years but on 1 September 2006 those terms became shorter than 80 years. Accordingly, the tenants wish to establish, and the landlord wishes to deny, that the notice dated 20 April 2006 was an effective notice under s 13 of the 1993 Act.
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THE STATUTORY PROVISIONS
[17] Before considering the submissions of counsel, it is appropriate to refer to the statutory provisions. It is necessary to review many of the statutory provisions to form a clear picture as to how the provisions are intended to operate. The provisions are too lengthy to be set out verbatim. Accordingly, in relation to the majority of the provisions, I will attempt only a paraphrase of them. It must be recognised that my paraphrase is for the purposes of giving judgment on the specific issue in this case and is not by way of exhaustive annotation of the statutory provisions. I will refer to the provisions in force at the relevant time although it should be remembered that some of these provisions are the subject of prospective amendment where the amendments had not been brought into effect at the relevant time, nor indeed since that time.
[18] Section 1(1) of the 1993 Act provides that Ch I of Pt I has effect, for the purpose of conferring on qualifying tenants of flats, contained in premises to which Ch I applied on the relevant date, the right, exercisable subject to and in accordance with Ch I, to have the freehold of those premises acquired on their behalf by a person appointed by them for that purpose and at a price determined in accordance with Ch I. This right is referred to in Ch I as ‘the right to collective enfranchisement’. Section 1(2) and (3) have the effect that the right to collective enfranchisement may be exercised not only in relation to the premises to which Ch I applies (the relevant premises) but also certain appurtenant property. Section 1(8) defines ‘the relevant date’ to be the date of the notice of claim under s 13.
[19] Section 3 defines the premises to which Ch I applies. Section 4 excludes certain premises from the right to collective enfranchisement.
[20] Section 5 defines ‘qualifying tenants’. Section 6 had formerly identified a residence requirement for qualifying tenants but that requirement has since been removed. Section 7 defines ‘a long lease’. Section 9 describes the reversioner and other relevant landlords for the purposes of Ch I.
[21] Section 12 entitles a qualifying tenant to obtain information about certain matters. Under s 12(2), a qualifying tenant is entitled to obtain information as to whether a landlord has received a notice under s 13 of the 1993 Act in the case of which the relevant claim is still current. Section 12(4) also refers to a notice under s 13.
[22A] Section 13 of the 1993 Act is in these terms:
THE INITIAL NOTICE
‘13. Notice by qualifying tenants of claim to exercise right.—(1) A claim to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement with respect to any premises is made by the giving of notice of the claim under this section.
(2) A notice given under this section (“the initial notice”)—(a) must (i) in a case to which section 9(2) applies, be given to the reversioner in respect of those premises; and (ii) in a case to which section 9(2A) applies, be given to the person specified in the notice as the recipient; and (b) must be given by a number of qualifying tenants of flats contained in the premises as at the relevant date which—(i) . . . (ii) is not less than one-half of the total number of flats so contained . . .
(2A) In a case to which section 9(2A) applies, the initial notice must specify—(a) a person who owns a freehold interest in the premises, or (b) if every person falling within paragraph (a) is a person who cannot be found or
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whose identity cannot be ascertained, a relevant landlord, as the recipient of the notice.
(3) The initial notice must—(a) specify and be accompanied by a plan showing—(i) the premises of which the freehold is proposed to be acquired by virtue of section 1(1), (ii) any property of which the freehold is proposed to be acquired by virtue of section 1(2)(a), and (iii) any property . . . over which it is proposed that rights (specified in the notice) should be granted by him in connection with the acquisition of the freehold of the specified premises or of any such property so far as falling within section 1(3)(a); (b) contain a statement of the grounds on which it is claimed that the specified premises are, on the relevant date, premises to which this Chapter applies; (c) specify—(i) any leasehold interest proposed to be acquired under or by virtue of section 2(1)(a) or (b), and (ii) any flats or other units contained in the specified premises in relation to which it is considered that any of the requirements in Part II of Schedule 9 to this Act are applicable; (d) specify the proposed purchase price for each of the following, namely—(i) the freehold interest in the specified premises or, if the freehold of the whole of the specified premises is not owned by the same person, each of the freehold interests in those premises, (ii) the freehold interest in any property specified under paragraph (a)(ii), and (iii) any leasehold interest specified under paragraph (c)(i); (e) state the full names of all the qualifying tenants of flats contained in the specified premises and the addresses of their flats, and contain . . . in relation to each of those tenants . . . (i) such particulars of his lease as are sufficient to identify it, including the date on which the lease was entered into, the term for which it was granted and the date of the commencement of the term, (ii) . . . (iii) . . . (f) state the full name or names of the person or persons appointed as the nominee purchaser for the purposes of section 15, and an address in England and Wales at which notices may be given to that person or those persons under this Chapter; and (g) specify the date by which the reversioner must respond to the notice by giving a counter-notice under section 21 . . .
(5) The date specified in the initial notice in pursuance of subsection (3)(g) must be a date falling not less than two months after the relevant date . . .
(8) Where any premises have been specified in a notice under this section, no subsequent notice which specifies the whole or part of those premises may be given under this section so long as the earlier notice continues in force.
(9) Where any premises have been specified in a notice under this section and—(a) that notice has been withdrawn, or is deemed to have been withdrawn, under or by virtue of any provision of this Chapter or under section 74(3), or (b) in response to that notice, an order has been applied for and obtained under section 23(1), no subsequent notice which specifies the whole or part of those premises may be given under this section within the period of twelve months beginning with the date of the withdrawal or deemed withdrawal of the earlier notice or with the time when the order under section 23(1) becomes final (as the case may be).
(10) In subsections (8) and (9) any reference to a notice which specifies the whole or part of any premises includes a reference to a notice which specifies any premises which contain the whole or part of those premises; and in those subsections and this “specifies” means specifies under subsection (3)(a)(i).
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(11) Where a notice is given in accordance with this section, then for the purposes of this Chapter the notice continues in force as from the relevant date—(a) until a binding contract is entered into in pursuance of the notice, or an order is made under section 24(4)(a) or (b) or 25(6)(a) or (b) providing for the vesting of interests in the nominee purchaser; (b) if the notice is withdrawn or deemed to have been withdrawn under or by virtue of any provision of this Chapter or under section 74(3), until the date of the withdrawal or deemed withdrawal, or (c) until such other time as the notice ceases to have effect by virtue of any provision of this Chapter.
(12) In this Chapter “the specified premises”, in relation to a claim made under this Chapter, means—(a) the premises specified in the initial notice under subsection (3)(a)(i), or (b) if it is subsequently agreed or determined under this Chapter that any less extensive premises should be acquired in pursuance of the notice in satisfaction of the claim, those premises; and similarly references to any property or interest specified in the initial notice under subsection (3)(a)(ii) or (c)(i) shall, if it is subsequently agreed or determined under this Chapter that any less extensive property or interest should be acquired in pursuance of the notice, be read as references to that property or interest.
(13) Schedule 3 to this Act (which contains restrictions on participating in the exercise of the right to collective enfranchisement, and makes further provision in connection with the giving of notices under this section) shall have effect.’
[22] Section 14 describes the participating tenants as, essentially, the qualifying tenants by whom the s 13 notice is given. Section 14 contemplates that the identity of participating tenants may change by reason of an assignment of a lease or an election to participate.
[23] Section 17 deals with rights of access. Once an initial notice has been given in accordance with s 13, the reversioner and other relevant landlords have a right of access to certain premises. Further, under s 17(2) once the initial notice has been given in accordance with s 13, the nominee purchaser has certain relevant rights of access.
[24] Section 19 of the 1993 Act describes the effect of the s 13 notice as respects subsequent transactions by the freeholder of the premises. Section 19(1) refers to the s 13 notice being registered in accordance with s 97(1). Section 97(1) permits registration of a notice given under s 13. When a s 13 notice has been registered then so long as the s 13 notice continues in force, there are restrictions on the freeholder disposing of interests in the premises.
[25] Under s 20 of the 1993 Act, within 21 days beginning with ‘the relevant date’, which refers to the date of the s 13 notice, the reversioner may give the nominee purchaser a notice requiring him to deduce title in certain respects.
[26] Section 21(1) and (2) of the 1993 Act provides:
‘Reversioner’s counter-notice.—(1) The reversioner in respect of the specified premises shall give a counter-notice under this section to the nominee purchaser by the date specified in the initial notice in pursuance of section 13(3)(g).
(2) The counter-notice must comply with one of the following requirements, namely—(a) state that the reversioner admits that the participating tenants were on the relevant date entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the specified premises; (b) state
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that, for such reasons as are specified in the counter-notice, the reversioner does not admit that the participating tenants were so entitled; (c) contain such a statement as is mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) above but state that an application for an order under subsection (1) of section 23 is to be made by such appropriate landlord (within the meaning of that section) as is specified in the counter-notice, on the grounds that he intends to redevelop the whole or a substantial part of the specified premises.’
[27] Section 22 of the 1993 Act provides:
‘Proceedings relating to validity of initial notice.—(1) Where—(a) the reversioner in respect of the specified premises has given the nominee purchaser a counter-notice under section 21 which (whether it complies with the requirement set out in subsection (2)(b) or (c) of that section) contains such a statement as is mentioned in subsection (2)(b) of that section, but (b) the court is satisfied, on an application made by the nominee purchaser, that the participating tenants were on the relevant date entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the specified premises, the court shall by order make a declaration to that effect.
(2) Any application for an order under subsection (1) must be made not later than the end of the period of two months beginning with the date of the giving of the counter-notice to the nominee purchaser.
(3) If on any such application the court makes an order under subsection (1), then (subject to subsection (4)) the court shall make an order—(a) declaring that the reversioner’s counter-notice shall be of no effect, and (b) requiring the reversioner to give a further counter-notice to the nominee purchaser by such date as is specified in the order.
(4) Subsection (3) shall not apply if—(a) the counter-notice complies with the requirement set out in section 21(2)(c), and (b) either—(i) an application for an order under section 23(1) is pending, or (ii) the period specified in section 23(3) as the period for the making of such an application has not expired.
(5) Subsections (3) to (5) of section 21 shall apply to any further counter-notice required to be given by the reversioner under subsection (3) above as if it were a counter-notice under that section complying with the requirement set out in subsection (2)(a) of that section.
(6) If an application by the nominee purchaser for an order under subsection (1) is dismissed by the court, the initial notice shall cease to have effect at the time when the order dismissing the application becomes final.’
[28] Under s 24, where the reversioner has given the nominee purchaser a counter-notice which admits the entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement but any of the terms of the acquisition remain in dispute then the matter is to be referred to a leasehold valuation tribunal.
[29] Section 25 deals with the case where the reversioner has failed to give a counter-notice. In those circumstances, the court may on the application of the nominee purchaser make an order determining the terms on which he is to acquire such interests and rights as are specified in the s 13 notice under s 13(3). The terms in the order are to be ‘in accordance with the proposals contained in the initial notice’. I interpose that it has been held by the Court of Appeal in Willingale v Globalgrange Ltd [2000] 2 EGLR 55 that the court does not have a discretion as to the terms of the acquisition but must adopt the proposals
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contained in the s 13 notice. This is subject to s 25(3) which provides that the court must not make an order determining the terms of the acquisition unless the court is satisfied, in particular, that the participating tenants were on the relevant date entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the specified premises.
[30] Section 28 deals with the participating tenants withdrawing from the proposed acquisition. By s 28(1), at any time before a binding contract is entered into in pursuance of the initial notice, the participating tenants may withdraw that notice by the giving of a notice to that effect under s 28 (a notice of withdrawal). Section 28 does not identify any particular formality as to the contents of a notice of withdrawal. Section 29 deals with the situations in which there is a deemed withdrawal of the s 13 notice. It is not necessary to list those situations although it is right to point out that there can be a deemed withdrawal in a large number of different situations.
[31] Sections 30 and 31, dealing with the very different matters of compulsory acquisition and inheritance tax, refer to a notice ‘given under section 13’ being ‘of no effect’.
[32] Section 32 deals with the determination of the price payable for the acquisition and cross-refers to detailed provisions in Sch 6 to the 1993 Act.
[33] Section 33(1) provides for circumstances where a notice is given under s 13 for the nominee purchaser to be liable for the landlord’s costs of certain matters and in particular, any investigation reasonably undertaken of the question whether any interest in the specified premises or other property is liable to acquisition in pursuance of the s 13 notice, or of any other question arising out of the s 13 notice. Section 33 refers in a number of places to the s 13 notice ‘ceasing to have effect’.
[34] Section 37A of the 1993 Act was introduced by amendment contained in s 116 of and para 2(1) of Sch 11 to the Housing Act 1996. It is in my view, a significant provision and is designed to deal with some of the consequences of para 10 of Sch 3 to the 1993 Act, to which I later refer. Section 37A provides for certain circumstances in which a landlord is entitled to compensation for the postponement of termination of a tenancy in connection with ineffective claims. Section 37A(1) refers to a claim to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement being ‘not effective’. Section 37A(2) refers to such a claim ceasing ‘to have effect’. Section 37A(8) defines a ‘claim to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement’ and ‘the date on which a claim ceases to have effect’. It should be emphasised that these definitions are for the purposes of s 37A and are not for the purposes of Ch I of Pt I more generally. Thus, s 37A(8) defines ‘a claim to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement’ so that it includes ‘a notice given, or purporting to be given (whether by persons who are qualifying tenants or not), under section 13’. Further, the phrase ‘the date on which a claim ceases to have effect’ extends ‘in the case of a claim made by a notice which is not a valid notice under section 13’ to ‘the date on which the notice is set aside by the court or is withdrawn or would, if valid, cease to have effect or be deemed to have been withdrawn’.
[35] Section 38(1) defines ‘the initial notice’ to mean ‘the notice given under section 13’.
[36] Section 90 deals with the jurisdiction of the county court. By s 90(1), any jurisdiction expressed to be conferred on the court by Pt I of the 1993 Act is to be exercised by a county court. By s 90(2), it is provided that any proceedings for determining any question arising under or by virtue of any provision of Ch I which is not a question falling within s 90(1) (or within the jurisdiction of a
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leasehold valuation tribunal by virtue of s 91) is also to be brought in a county court.
[37] Section 99 deals, generally, with the subject of notices. By s 99(5), a notice given under s 13 must be signed by each of the tenants by whom it is given.
[38] Schedule 3 to the 1993 Act contains supplementary provisions in relation to a notice under s 13. Paragraphs 5, 6, 7 and 8 place various restrictions on the action which may be taken by a landlord during the currency of a claim under s 13. Paragraph 10 of Sch 3 contains a number of relevant definitions but it should be noted these definitions are for the purposes of Pt I of Sch 3 to the 1993 Act and are not of wider application. By para 10(1)(b), references to a notice under s 13 include, in so far as the context permits, references to a notice purporting to be given under s 13 (whether by persons who are qualifying tenants or not). By para 10(1)(d) references to ‘the currency of a claim’, in a case where the claim is made by a notice ‘which is not a valid notice under section 13’ are references to the period beginning with the giving of the notice and ending with the time when the notice is set aside by the court or is withdrawn or when it would (if valid) cease to have effect or be deemed to have been withdrawn.
[39] Paragraph 15 of Sch 3 to the 1993 Act deals with inaccuracies or misdescriptions in a notice under s 13. It is provided that the notice under s 13 is not to be invalidated by an inaccuracy in any of the particulars required by s 13(3) or by any misdescription of any of the property to which the claim extends. Paragraph 15(2) provides for the possibility of an amendment of the s 13 notice to exclude or include any property or any interest. Paragraph 15(3) provides for the way in which the s 13 notice operates in the case of such an amendment.
[40] For the sake of completeness, I will refer briefly to the provisions of Ch II of Pt I of the 1993 Act. Chapter II provides for the individual right of a tenant of a flat to acquire a new lease of that flat. The scheme of Ch II is, in many respects, similar to the scheme of Ch I. There is one important difference in that, for the purposes of Ch I, where qualifying tenants give notice under s 13 which is met by a reversioner’s counter-notice under s 21 which does not admit the tenants’ entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement, the relevant proceedings before the court to test that matter are to be brought by the nominee purchaser. In the case of Ch II where a tenant gives a notice under s 42 to exercise the right to acquire a new lease of a flat and is met by a landlord’s counter-notice under s 45 which does not admit the tenant’s right to acquire a new lease of the flat, the application to the court to test that matter is to be brought by the landlord under s 46. In the past, decisions of the courts in relation to Ch II of Pt I of the 1993 Act have been regarded as relevant for the purpose of construing Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act, and vice versa.
The notices in more detail
[41] Having described the relevant statutory provisions, I can now return to the various notices served in this case. The notice dated 19 December 2005 related to the relevant block of twelve flats at Poets Chase Aylesbury. The notice was given by the lessees of eight of the twelve flats. These lessees were the participating tenants. Paragraph 1 of the notice identified the premises, of which the freehold was proposed to be acquired pursuant to s 1(1) of the 1993 Act, as the block itself. Paragraph 2 of the notice identified the property, of which the freehold was proposed to be acquired by virtue of s 1(2)(a) of the 1993 Act, as certain appurtenant property. Paragraph 3 of the notice identified certain rights which it was proposed should be granted over other land. Paragraph 5 of the
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notice stated that the proposed purchase price was £17,953. Paragraph 7 of the notice contained the following statement: ‘the RTE Company appointed to act is Poets Chase Freehold Company Limited.’
[42] The notice dated 22 February 2006 was described as a counter-notice by the reversioner pursuant to s 21 of the 1993 Act. This notice did not admit, for the reasons specified in the counter-notice, that the participating tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the specified premises. Paragraph 2 of the counter-notice gave the reasons for not admitting the entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement. The reasons given in para 2 of the counter-notice did not relate to any question as to whether the participating tenants satisfied the qualifying conditions for being able to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement but were all concerned with the question whether the notice dated 19 December 2005 did or did not comply with s 13(3) of the 1993 Act. The first point that was made was that s 13(3)(d) of the 1993 Act required the s 13 notice to specify separate prices for the property being acquired under s 1(1) of the 1993 Act and the property being acquired under s 1(2)(a) of the 1993 Act. The notice dated 19 December 2005 had not specified separate prices. The second point made in the counter-notice was that s 13(3)(f) required a s 13 notice to state the full name of the person nominated as purchaser whereas the notice dated 19 December 2005 had referred to the RTE company. I have set out s 13(3)(f) earlier in this judgment. That paragraph, in the form in which it applied at the relevant time did require the s 13 notice to state the full name of the person appointed as the nominee purchaser. By the date of the notices in this case, s 13(3)(f) was the subject of an identified amendment under s 124 of the Commonhold and Leasehold Reform Act 2002. That amendment had not been brought into force at the relevant time and when it does come into force it will require the s 13 notice to give the name and registered office of the RTE company. It is plain that the notice dated 19 December 2005 had wrongly proceeded on the basis that the prospective amendment of s 13(3)(f) was already in force. Paragraph 2 of the counter-notice ended with the contention on the part of the landlord that an initial notice had not been served in compliance with the 1993 Act and in particular with the mandatory requirements of the Act in relation to participating tenants exercising the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to specified premises.
[43] It is convenient to deal with the grounds of objection to the notice dated 19 December 2005 at this point. Before the judge in the county court, the nominee purchaser, Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd, adopted the criticisms in the counter-notice and submitted that the notice dated 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13(3) of the 1993 Act. The landlord submitted the contrary, notwithstanding the position it had adopted in its counter-notice. The judge ruled on the two grounds of objection under s 13(3)(d) and (f) respectively. He held that the objection based upon s 13(3)(d) was well founded but the objection based on s 13(3)(f) was not. In relation to the second point, the judge directed himself that he was able to apply to the notice dated 19 December 2005 the test in Mannai Investment Co Ltd v Eagle Star Life Assurance Co Ltd [1997] 3 All ER 352, [1997] AC 749 as to how a reasonable recipient would have understood the notice. He held, applying that test, that a reasonable recipient would have understood that the notice, when it referred to the RTE company, was referring to the nominee purchaser, who therefore was identified as Poets Chase Freehold Co Ltd. The overall conclusion reached by the judge was that the notice dated
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19 December 2005 did not comply with the mandatory requirements of s 13(3) of the 1993 Act with the result that the participating tenants would not have been able to advance their claim to acquire the freehold of the block and the appurtenant property in reliance on that notice.
[44] Returning to the chronology in respect of the notices, the next event was the letter from the tenants’ solicitors to the landlord on 20 April 2006. This letter stated that the tenants had considered the counter-notices served by the landlord and that the tenants accepted that the notice dated 19 December 2005 was invalid for the reasons given in the counter-notice. The letter went on to say that as no valid initial notice had been served, the tenants were entitled to serve a fresh notice and under the cover of the letter they sought to do so.
[45] Under cover of the letter of 20 April 2006, the same participating tenants sought to serve a further notice seeking to comply with s 13 of the 1993 Act. This notice did not have the defects which had existed in the notice of 19 December 2005.
[46] On 26 June 2006 the landlord served a notice which purported to be a counter-notice under s 21 of the 1993 Act. This counter-notice did not admit that the participating tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement in relation to the relevant premises. This non-admission was for the reasons specified in the counter-notice. Paragraph 2 of the counter-notice contained the reasons relied upon. The reasons in para 2 all related to the fact that the participating tenants had served the earlier notice of 19 December 2005 and in various ways it was contended that this disabled the participating tenants from serving a valid s 13 notice (as they had sought to do) on 20 April 2006. The reversioner’s counter-notice of 26 June 2006 did not raise any question as to the participating tenants’ satisfaction of the qualifying conditions or in any other respect as to their entitlement to acquire the freehold of the block under Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act.
The landlord’s submissions
[47] Mr Fancourt QC, who appeared on behalf of the landlord, took me carefully through the provisions of Ch I of Pt I of, and of Sch 3 to, the 1993 Act. He submitted that it was essential to understand the operation of the scheme created by those provisions for the purpose of deciding the issue on this appeal. Turning to s 13, he submitted that a notice which did not comply with s 13(2) was not ‘given in accordance with’ s 13 and he explained the consequences of a purported notice not complying with s 13(2). Conversely, if a notice did comply with s 13(2) then it was given in accordance with s 13. Further, a notice which purported to be given under s 13 was a notice ‘under section 13’ whether or not the purported notice complied with all of the requirements of s 13(3). He contrasted the position of a notice which did not comply with s 13(2) with a notice which did not comply with s 13(3). He referred to the phrase ‘entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement’ which appears in s 21 dealing with the reversioner’s counter-notice and in s 22 which, according to the heading to the section, deals with proceedings relating to the ‘validity of initial notice’. He submitted that this phrase, referring to the entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement, referred, first, to questions as to whether the qualifying conditions for the existence of entitlement were satisfied but, secondly and further, to a matter such as whether a notice complying in all respects with s 13 of the 1993 Act had been served in order to exercise that entitlement. Whilst it was clear that a notice given in accordance with s 13(2), but which did not
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comply with s 13(3), was still a notice under s 13, the position was even more clear following the giving of a counter-notice under s 21. The existence of the counter-notice meant that disputes about the validity of the initial notice (including disputes as to compliance with s 13(3)) had to be processed under s 22. While that process was ongoing, the notice in question was a notice given under s 13 and ‘continued in force’ for the purposes of s 13(8). That meant that following the giving of a counter-notice the nominee purchaser could apply under s 22 to ask the court to determine whether the purported s 13 notice did or did not comply with s 13(3). If the court determined that the purported s 13 notice did not comply with s 13(3) then the purported s 13 notice ceased to have effect at that time under s 22(6). If the nominee purchaser did not apply to the court under s 22 within the time limit laid down by that section then there was a deemed withdrawal under s 29(1). It was also open to participating tenants who had served a purported s 13 notice but who later realised that the notice did not comply with s 13(3) to withdraw it under s 28. The prohibition on further notices contained in s 13(8) and (9) should be applied in accordance with this understanding of the statutory provisions.
[48] In the alternative to these submissions, Mr Fancourt submitted that the participating tenants and the nominee purchaser were estopped from asserting that the notice dated 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13(3). The relevant estoppel was estoppel by representation. By giving the notice dated 19 December 2005, the participating tenants and the nominee purchaser had represented that that notice complied with s 13(3). The reversioner had relied upon that representation because it received the notice, instructed its solicitors to consider the notice and to advise the reversioner on the appropriate response to the notice. Although there was no specific evidence to this effect, it was to be inferred that the reversioner had become liable to pay its solicitors a fee for acting on the reversioner’s instructions. The reversioner then served the counter-notice dated 22 February 2006. This amounted to detrimental reliance on the part of the reversioner and it should be held that it would be inequitable for the participating tenants and the nominee purchaser to contend for the invalidity of their own notice dated 19 December 2005. Accordingly, all the necessary ingredients of an estoppel were established.
The nominee purchaser’s submissions
[49] Miss Wood appeared on behalf of the nominee purchaser. She submitted, by reference to the statutory provisions, that there was a clear distinction to be made between the entitlement of tenants to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement and the requirements as to the form and contents of a notice under s 13 by which the tenants sought to exercise that right. The operation of s 21 (dealing with the reversioner’s counter-notice) and of s 22 (dealing with applications to the court) had to be considered consistently with that distinction. A question as to the tenants’ underlying entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement was properly the subject of ss 21 and 22. A question as to whether the tenants, who were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement, had served a notice complying with s 13(3) was not properly the subject of ss 21 and 22. In the present case, the county court judge had found that the notice dated 19 December 2005 did not comply with the mandatory requirements of s 13(3)(d). In accordance with the usual position as to validity of notices, that conclusion must mean that the notice dated 19 December 2005 was invalid. More particularly, it was not a notice given under
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s 13 nor was it a notice given in accordance with s 13. Because it was invalid it had no force and could not be said to ‘continue in force’ for the purpose of s 13(8). The result was that the tenants were, absent any estoppel, entitled to accept the invalidity of the notice of 19 December 2005 (particularly when that invalidity had been pointed out by the landlord) and to serve the notice dated 20 April 2006 which would be, for the first time, a notice under s 13. Miss Wood further submitted that Mr Fancourt’s contention that a notice which did not comply with s 13(3) was none the less a notice under s 13 would result in the 1993 Act failing to operate. She gave, as examples, a purported notice under s 13 which did not identify a nominee purchaser in accordance with s 13(3)(f) or a notice which purported to be given under s 13 but which did not specify a date for a counter-notice under s 21 (as required by s 13(3)(g)). She questioned how the provisions of the 1993 Act could work if such a notice was a notice under s 13 and was registered under s 97(1) leading to a fetter on the landlord’s right to make disposals under s 19. She also pointed out anomalies which would arise if one followed through Mr Fancourt’s analysis which distinguished a notice which did not comply with s 13(3) (which he said was a notice under s 13) from a notice which did not comply with s 13(2) (which he said was not a notice under s 13).
[50] As to estoppel, Miss Wood submitted that the participating tenants and the nominee purchaser did not make any relevant representation. In particular, they did not represent that the notice dated 19 December 2005 was a valid notice or that it complied with s 13(3). What they did was to make a statement that they wished to serve a notice under s 13 rather than that they had effectively done so. In any case, the landlord did not rely on the alleged statement as to the validity of the notice of 19 December 2005. The landlord in its counter-notice immediately contradicted that alleged statement and could not be said to have relied upon it. Further, the landlord did not act to its detriment. Even if the landlord had incurred some liability for fees to its solicitors, the sum in question must have been modest and would be too trivial to give rise to an estoppel in this case. Further, even if there was a measurable element of detrimental reliance, there was not sufficient detrimental reliance to make it inequitable for the participating tenants and the nominee purchaser to agree with the landlord in relation to the landlord’s contention that the notice of 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13(3).
Discussion
[51] These submissions require one to examine the scheme of Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act and to determine the effect, if any, of a document which purports to be a notice under s 13 of the 1993 Act but which fails to comply with the mandatory requirements of s 13(3).
[52] The county court judge has held that the notice dated 19 December 2005 failed to comply with the mandatory requirement contained in s 13(3)(d) of the 1993 Act. There is no appeal by either party against that decision. That decision means that the tenants would not be able to pursue their aim of acquiring the freehold of the block by relying upon the notice dated 19 December 2005.
[53] Speaking generally, if a mandatory contractual or statutory provision requires a party to give a notice in a particular form in order to achieve a result identified in the contract or statute and if a purported notice given by that party fails to comply with the mandatory contractual or statutory provision, then the normal position is that the notice has no legal effect. This general position may be modified by, for example, a provision such as that contained in para 15 of Sch 3
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to the 1993 Act which deals with inaccuracies and misdescriptions in a s 13 notice. However, the county court judge has held that the notice dated 19 December 2005 was not saved by that statutory provision. Further, the general position is modified by the application of the Mannai test as to the reaction of a reasonable recipient to the imperfect notice. Again, the county court judge has held that the notice dated 19 December 2005 was not saved by an application of the Mannai test. It was held by the Court of Appeal in Speedwell Estates Ltd v Dalziel [2001] EWCA Civ 1277, [2002] L&TR 180 that a notice which does not comply with mandatory statutory requirements and which is not saved by a provision such as para 15 of Sch 3 to the 1993 Act in the present case or by the Mannai test is invalid; that case concerned the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 which contained at para 6(3) of Sch 3 to the 1967 Act a provision broadly similar to para 15 of Sch 3 to the 1993 Act. The approach in the Speedwell Estates case was applied again by the Court of Appeal in Burman v Mount Cook Land Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1712, [2002] 1 All ER 144, [2002] Ch 256 (relating to a notice under Ch II of Pt I of the 1993 Act).
[54] Thus, in the absence of any provision in Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act which reverses this normal result, one would conclude that the notice dated 19 December 2005, which purported to be a notice under s 13 of the 1993 Act, but which has been held not to comply with the mandatory requirements of s 13(3), was not a notice ‘under section 13’ nor a notice ‘in accordance with section 13’ nor a notice which ‘has effect’ for the purposes of s 13. In these circumstances, one needs to examine Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act to see if there is a statutory provision which reverses the normal effect of this defective notice.
[55] The first point that strikes me is that there are particular provisions which have effect for Ch I of Pt I which give some statutory effect to what is otherwise an invalid notice but those special cases are of limited application and, in particular, are not material to anything which arises in the present dispute. I refer to the provisions contained in para 10 of Sch 3 and the supporting provision now contained in s 37A of the 1993 Act. The fact that those provisions have a defined limited effect strongly supports the conclusion that in other respects the normal result applies and the normal result is that a notice which does not comply with a mandatory statutory requirement as to its contents is an ineffective notice.
[56] Mr Fancourt contends that there are provisions in Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act which mean that the notice dated 19 December 2005 does have statutory consequences and despite the non-compliance with s 13(3), the notice dated 19 December 2005 is a notice ‘under section 13’ and a notice ‘in accordance with section 13’ and it is a notice which ‘continues in force’ under s 13. As was seen, Mr Fancourt builds his case on the terms of s 21 of the 1993 Act, which refers to the participating tenants being entitled, or not entitled, to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement and, further, the terms of s 22 which again refer to the tenants being entitled, or not entitled, to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement.
[57] In my judgment, Mr Fancourt’s explanation of the operation of the statutory provisions is incorrect. The 1993 Act in a number of places distinguishes between the entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement and the question whether a claim to exercise that entitlement complies with mandatory statutory requirements. My understanding of the operation of the provisions in Ch I of Pt I of the 1993 Act is best illustrated by considering some examples.
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[58] Assume a notice which complies with s 13(3) of the 1993 Act. Assume also that the landlord wishes to challenge the tenants’ entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement as claimed in the s 13 notice. If the landlord does wish to challenge that entitlement, the landlord can give a counter-notice under s 21 to that effect. The counter-notice will give the reasons for the challenge to the claimed entitlement. Those reasons will not say anything about whether the s 13 notice complies with s 13(3) because, on the assumed facts, the notice does comply. If an appropriate application is made to the county court, the county court will determine whether the tenants were, or were not, entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement. If the court holds that the tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement then, on the assumed facts, having served a notice complying with s 13, the way is open for the tenants to proceed to acquire the freehold. If the court holds that the tenants were not entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement (even though they have served a notice which complies with s 13(3)) then the court will dismiss the application under s 22 and the s 13 notice which up to that point had effect as a claim will cease to have effect: see s 22(6).
[59] Assume, next, a purported notice under s 13 of the 1993 Act which does not comply with the mandatory requirements of s 13(3). A landlord receiving such a notice is entitled to say that the notice is of no effect. The landlord does not need to serve a counter-notice under s 21 to make that statement. Indeed, the statement that the notice is of no effect because it does not comply with s 13(3) is not a statement either way as to whether the tenants are entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement. If the purported s 13 notice does not comply with s 13(3), then one does not get to the question whether at the date of giving of the notice, the tenants were or were not so entitled. It may be that the landlord will not wish to rely only upon an argument that the purported s 13 notice does not comply with s 13(3) and is accordingly invalid and may wish in addition (without prejudice to that contention) to serve a counter-notice which either does or does not admit the entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement. There is nothing inconsistent in the landlord saying, first, that the purported s 13 notice is ineffective because it does not comply with s 13(3) but, secondly, if the s 13 notice were held to be valid then the landlord admits the tenants’ entitlement to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement. If the landlord served a counter-notice in those circumstances then there would not be an issue under s 22 as to whether the tenants were entitled to exercise the right to collective enfranchisement but there would be an issue as to whether the tenants, who are admitted to be so entitled, had effectively put the process in motion by serving a valid s 13 notice. The county court has jurisdiction to determine that issue: see s 90(2).
[60] Having explained my understanding of how the scheme of Ch I of Pt I works, it is my conclusion that there is nothing in that scheme which requires one to hold, contrary to the normal position with non-compliant notices, that a purported notice under s 13, which fails to be effective because it does not comply with s 13(3), none the less has some statutory consequences such that it is to be treated as a notice ‘under section 13’ or a ‘notice in accordance with section 13’ or as a ‘notice which continues in force’ until the tenants accept that the notice does not comply with s 13(3) and is ineffective.
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Conclusion as to the statutory provisions
[61] Because the notice dated 19 December 2005 did not (as the county court judge held) comply with s 13(3) of the 1993 Act it was not a valid notice under s 13. That matter having been drawn to the tenants’ attention by the landlord, there was no statutory prohibition on the tenants accepting that they had failed to serve a valid notice under s 13. In those circumstances, the prohibition on a subsequent notice contained in s 13(8) did not apply because the notice dated 19 December 2005 was not a notice under s 13 and was not ‘in force’. Because the notice dated 19 December 2005 was not effective and was not in force it did not have to be ‘withdrawn’ under s 28 of the 1993 Act. Further, the fact that the nominee purchaser did not apply to the court under s 22 within two months of the purported counter-notice of 22 February 2006 did not result in a deemed withdrawal under s 29(1). Accordingly, there was no scope in the present case for s 13(9) to preclude the tenants from serving what was otherwise a valid s 13 notice on 20 April 2006.
[62] It follows from the above that the s 13 notice of 20 April 2006 was a valid notice under s 13.
[63] There was no argument before me as to the effect of the purported counter-notice of 26 June 2006. It will be remembered that that document challenged the validity of the s 13 notice dated 20 April 2006 by reliance on the suggested prohibition in s 13 on serving that notice at that time. For the reasons I have given, those contentions put forward by the landlord were wrong. The purported counter-notice dated 26 June 2006 did not deal with the question of underlying entitlement but dealt only with the validity of the notice dated 20 April 2006 for the purpose of s 13. As I say, no argument as to the validity of the counter-notice was addressed to me and the point does not appear to have been raised before the county court judge who ordered the landlord to give a further counter-notice to the nominee purchaser if so advised by 1 March 2007. There has been no appeal against that part of the judge’s order and, accordingly, I need reach no conclusion upon it.
[64] I note that my understanding of the operation of the statutory provisions is supported by a comment on the provisions in the judgment of Auld LJ in 9 Cornwall Crescent London Ltd v Kensington and Chelsea Royal London BC [2005] EWCA Civ 324 at [8], [2005] 4 All ER 1207 at [8], [2006] 1 WLR 1186. Auld LJ plainly thought that if tenants gave a notice which was agreed or held to be invalid for want of compliance with the requirements of s 13 then there would be no bar to the tenants giving a valid notice without delay.
[65] I also note that my decision is in accordance with a comment in the standard textbook on the subject, namely Hague on Leasehold Enfranchisement (4th edn, 2003) p 414 (para 25-18).
[66] The result of the above is that, at least so far as the statutory provisions are concerned, the tenants were entitled to serve a valid s 13 notice on 20 April 2006 and the notice which they served on that date was in all respects a valid notice.
Estoppel
[67] The landlord rightly contends that the tenants would not have been entitled to serve a valid s 13 notice on 20 April 2006 if they had already served a valid s 13 notice on 19 December 2005. The landlord relies on s 13(8) of the 1993 Act. The landlord contends that the tenants are estopped from denying that
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the notice dated 19 December 2005 is a valid s 13 notice and are, accordingly, estopped from putting forward the notice of 20 April 2006 as a valid s 13 notice.
[68] The argument based on estoppel requires one to examine the following ingredients of an estoppel. Did the tenants make a relevant representation? Did the landlord rely on that representation? Was the landlord’s reliance sufficiently detrimental? In all the circumstances is it inequitable for the tenants to go back on any such representation? Are the tenants estopped from asserting the invalidity of the notice of 19 December 2005 given that the landlord itself has asserted the invalidity of that notice for the purposes of s 13?
[69] Miss Wood argued that the notice dated 19 December 2005 did not include any representation that it was a valid notice under s 13. In my judgment, there is something to be said for that argument and the answer is not clear cut. In view of the other points in relation to estoppel which, in my judgment, are very clear I will not discuss this point further. I will assume in the landlord’s favour that the alleged representation as to validity was made.
[70] As to reliance, in my judgment, the landlord did not rely upon a representation, if made, that the notice of 19 December 2005 was valid for the purposes of s 13. The landlord may well have considered whether the notice of 19 December 2005 was or was not valid but did not rely upon a representation, if made, by the tenants to the effect that the notice was valid. Having considered the matter, the landlord contended in its purported counter-notice that the notice of 19 December 2005 was invalid. It is true that the landlord reacted to the notice but it did not rely upon it. It did the very opposite. In my judgment, the case for an estoppel founders on the absence of reliance.
[71] There was no positive evidence as to the landlord having suffered any detriment as a result of the s 13 notice. The landlord’s solicitor’s witness statement did not refer to that topic at all. It was submitted that the inference could be drawn that the landlord must have incurred a liability to pay a fee to the solicitors for considering the s 13 notice. I am far from certain about that; it all depends on whether the solicitor’s arrangements with his client provided for a fee on a time basis for each item of work or whether there was a fixed fee for taking on items of work of a particular character whenever they arose. However, I will again assume in the landlord’s favour that the landlord would have become liable for a fee for the solicitor’s work in considering the notice dated 19 December 2005. Assuming, contrary to my earlier conclusion, that this occurred in reliance on the notice dated 19 December 2005, is that enough to found an estoppel?
[72] In Banner Industrial & Commercial Properties Ltd v Clark Paterson Ltd [1990] 2 EGLR 139, it was said that trivial acts of reliance would not be sufficient to found an estoppel. The question of whether the suggested acts of reliance are sufficiently substantial has to be addressed as part of the broader question posed by Robert Walker LJ in Gillett v Holt [2000] 2 All ER 289 at 308, [2001] Ch 210 at 232 in these terms:
‘Whether the detriment is sufficiently substantial is to be tested by whether it would be unjust or inequitable to allow the assurance to be disregarded—that is, again, the essential test of unconscionability.’
In my judgment, if, contrary to my findings, the landlord did rely upon a representation by the tenants, if made, as to the validity of the notice of 19 December 2005, any element of detriment involved in that reliance is not sufficiently substantial to make it unjust or inequitable or unconscionable for the
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tenants to point out that the notice of 19 December 2005 did not comply with s 13(3) of the 1993 Act.
[73] Mr Fancourt drew my attention to Bremer Handelsgesellschaft Schaft MbH v Vanden Avenne Izegem PVBA [1978] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 109 at 127 and to Keepers and Governors of the Possessions Revenues and Goods of the Free Grammar School of John Lyon v Mayhew [1997] 1 EGLR 88 at 89 as illustrations of cases where legal costs incurred in reliance on a representation as to the validity of an earlier notice were held to produce the result that there was detrimental reliance on the representation. The first of these cases did not decide any question of principle (see [1978] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 109 at 116, col 2). In the second of these cases the incurring of costs was not the only detriment. In my judgment, there is nothing in those cases which affects the statement of principle in Gillett v Holt nor my application of that principle to the facts of this case.
[74] Quite apart from the above matters, I have great difficulty in understanding how the landlord can contend that the tenants were still estopped on 20 April 2006 (when they made their second attempt to give a s 13 notice) from challenging the validity of the notice of 19 December 2005, when the landlord had already contended by its counter-notice of 22 February 2006 that the notice of 19 December 2005 was of no effect. It would be a very strange result if one held that the landlord was free to contend that the notice of 19 December 2005 was ineffective under s 13 whereas the tenants were estopped from agreeing with the landlord in that respect.
The overall result
[75] The result is that the appeal is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Neneh Munu Barrister.
Re Hilali
[2008] 2 All ER 207
[2008] UKHL 3
Categories: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND, LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD AND LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY
Hearing Date(s): 6 DECEMBER 2007, 30 JANUARY 2008
Extradition – Habeas corpus – Application – Judge making extradition order – Decision of judge to be questioned in legal proceedings only by means of appeal – Applicant exhausting statutory appeal procedure – New information becoming available undermining basis on which extradition order made – Whether habeas corpus available – Extradition Act 2003, s 34.
The applicant was arrested pursuant to a European arrest warrant issued by a judicial authority in Spain. The warrant referred to evidence on which the prosecution intended to rely and identified an offence of participation in a terrorist organisation. Extradition proceedings began under Pt 1 of the Extradition Act 2003. Part 1 of the 2003 Act gave effect to the Framework Decision of the Council of the European Union of 13 June 2002 on the European arrest warrant and the surrender procedures between member states (2002/584/JHA) (OJ 2002 L 190 p1) (the Framework Decision). At the extradition hearing the issues before the district judge included whether the warrant disclosed an extradition offence. Most of the description of the conduct alleged was derived from evidence of international telephone calls. The district judge declared that he was satisfied that another person, Y, was at the centre of a conspiracy to attack the United States of America, that he lived in Madrid, and that telephone conversations linked Y with the applicant and the conspiracy. He decided that the conduct alleged amounted to an extradition offence and made an extradition order. Section 34a of the 2003 Act provided that a decision of the judge under Pt 1 of the 2003 Act could be questioned in legal proceedings ‘only by means of an appeal’. The applicant pursued the process of appeal provided by the 2003 Act without success. New information was then obtained, which was that proceedings in Spain against Y had resulted in an acquittal on the ground that evidence of all telephone intercepts had been inadmissible as it had been obtained unlawfully. The applicant contended that the new information undermined the basis upon which the arrest warrant had been enforced and rendered his detention unlawful. He applied for a writ of habeas corpus. The Divisional Court ruled that habeas corpus was available if there had been a fundamental change to the circumstances in which the original order was made, and that that was the appropriate remedy. As the telephone intercept evidence was the basis of the district judge’s decision, the court felt bound to conclude that, if the European arrest warrant had been stripped of all reference to the evidence garnered from the telephone calls, the district judge would not have been able to make an extradition order. The issuing judicial authority of the requesting state appealed. The issues for determination were (i) whether it was
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open to the applicant to invoke the decision of the Spanish Supreme Court in Y’s case to undermine the decision of the district judge that the applicant was accused of an extradition offence and to make the extradition order; and (ii) whether the remedy of habeas corpus was available where, after the statutory process in Pt 1 of the 2003 Act had been exhausted, there was a change of circumstances which arguably rendered an extradition order which had been made under that Part of the Act unlawful.
Held – (1) The question whether there was a case to answer on the conduct that was alleged in the European arrest warrant was not one that could be examined in the requested state. An inquiry into that question was contrary to the Framework Decision’s founding principle of mutual recognition of judicial decisions, which included European arrest warrants, between member states. It was not for the Divisional Court, any more than it would have been for the district judge, to say that the conduct that was alleged against the applicant was incapable of being proved because the grounds on which Y had been acquitted of the conspiracy removed all the evidence narrated in the European arrest warrant from which it could be inferred that the applicant was involved in it (see [13]–[15], below); Office of the King’s Prosecutor, Brussels v Cando Armas [2006] 1 All ER 647 applied.
(2) In the case of decisions against which there was a right of appeal under the provisions of the 2003 Act, the remedy of habeas corpus had to be taken to have been excluded by the clear and unequivocal wording of s 34. An application for habeas corpus on the ground that, for whatever reason, there was no case to answer in the requested state had always to be rejected as having been excluded by the provisions of the 2003 Act. In the instant case it was plain that the grounds on which the remedy of habeas corpus was sought were contrary to the principle of mutual recognition. Even if evidence about the outcome of the Spanish proceedings had been available in time for it to have been made part of a statutory appeal, it would not have been open to the High Court to hold that if that evidence had been before the district judge at the extradition hearing he would have decided the question whether to make the order differently. That evidence was relevant to the question of whether there was a case to answer in Spain. The Framework Decision made it clear that the admissibility or sufficiency of the evidence was not for determination by a judge in the requested state. Those issues were not within the jurisdiction of the district judge at the extradition hearing. The question which he had to decide was whether the offence specified in the Pt 1 warrant was an extradition offence, not whether it could be proved. It followed that the appeal would be allowed and the decision by the district judge to order the applicant’s extradition to Spain would be affirmed (see [15], [21]–[23], [31]–[34], below).
Decision of the Divisional Court [2007] 3 All ER 422 reversed.
Notes
For the writ of habeas corpus ad subjiciendum, see 1(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2001 reissue) paras 207–229, and for extradition to category 1 territories; appeals: general, see Supp to 17(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1424.
For the Extradition Act 2003, s 34, see 18 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 832.
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Cases referred to in opinions
Dabas v High Court of Justice, Madrid [2007] UKHL 6, [2007] 2 All ER 641, [2007] 2 AC 31, [2007] 2 WLR 254.
Hilali v Central Court of Criminal Proceedings No 5 of the National Court, Madrid [2006] EWHC 1239 (Admin), [2006] 4 All ER 435, [2007] 1 WLR 768.
Nikonovs v Governor of Brixton Prison [2005] EWHC 2405 (Admin), [2006] 1 All ER 927, [2006] 1 WLR 1518.
Office of the King’s Prosecutor, Brussels v Cando Armas [2005] UKHL 67, [2006] 1 All ER 647, [2006] 2 AC 1, [2005] 3 WLR 1079.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
Akaroglu v Government of Romania, R (on the application of Akaroglu) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWHC 367 (Admin), [2008] 1 All ER 27.
Armah v Government of Ghana [1966] 3 All ER 177, [1968] AC 192, [1966] 3 WLR 828, HL.
Azam v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1973] 2 All ER 765, [1974] AC 18, [1973] 2 WLR 1058, HL.
Chen v Government of Romania, Mitoi v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWHC 520 (Admin), [2008] 1 All ER 851.
Government of the Federal Republic of Germany v Sotiriadis [1974] 1 All ER 692, [1975] AC 1, [1974] 2 WLR 253, HL.
Greene v Secretary of State for Home Affairs [1941] 3 All ER 388, [1942] AC 284, HL.
Phillip v DPP of Trinidad and Tobago [1992] 1 All ER 665, [1992] 1 AC 545, [1992] 2 WLR 211, PC.
Pinto, Re [2004] EWHC 2986 (Admin), [2004] All ER (D) 373 (Dec).
R (on the application of Bermingham) v Director of the Serious Fraud Office, Bermingham v Government of the United States of America [2006] EWHC 200 (Admin), [2006] 3 All ER 239, [2007] QB 727, [2007] 2 WLR 635.
R (on the application of Bleta) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWHC 2034 (Admin), [2005] 1 All ER 810, [2005] 1 WLR 3194.
R (on the application of Kashamu) v Governor of Brixton Prison, R (on the application of Kashamu) v Bow Street Magistrates’ Court, R (on the application of Makhlulif) v Bow Street Magistrates’ Court [2001] EWHC Admin 980, [2002] QB 887, [2002] 2 WLR 907.
R (on the application of Slator) v Bow Street Magistrates’ Court [2006] EWHC 2628 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 33 (Oct).
R (on the application of the Government of the United States of America) v Bow Street Magistrates’ Court [2006] EWHC 2256 (Admin), [2007] 1 WLR 1157.
R v Governor of Brixton Prison, ex p Osman (No 4) [1992] 1 All ER 579.
R v Governor of Brockhill Prison, ex p Evans (No 2) [2000] 4 All ER 15, [2001] 2 AC 19, [2000] 3 WLR 843, HL.
R v Governor of Lewes Prison, ex p Doyle [1917] 2 KB 254, [1916–17] All ER Rep Ext 1218, DC.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Launder [1997] 3 All ER 961, [1997] 1 WLR 839, HL.
Schtraks v Government of Israel [1962] 3 All ER 529, [1964] AC 556, [1962] 3 WLR 1013.
Tarling, Re [1979] 1 All ER 981, [1979] 1 WLR 1417, DC.
Vey v Office of the Public Prosecutor of the County Court of Montlucon [2006] EWHC 760 (Admin), [2006] All ER (D) 100, DC.
Page 210 of [2008] 2 All ER 207
Appeal
The Central Court of Criminal Proceedings No 5 of the National Court, Madrid, Spain appealed with permission of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 2 July 2007 from the decision of the Divisional Court (Smith LJ and Irwin J) on 25 April 2007 ([2007] EWHC 939 (Admin), [2007] 3 All ER 422) to grant a writ of habeas corpus ad subjiciendum to the respondent, Farid Hilali, directed to the governor of HM Prison Whitemore on the ground that his detention in custody while he was awaiting extradition under a European arrest warrant issued by the appellant had become unlawful due to a fundamental change in circumstances since the making of the extradition order. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Hope of Craighead.
James Lewis QC and John Hardy (instructed by Crown Prosecution Service) for the appellant.
Alun Jones QC and Ben Brandon (instructed by Arani & Co, Southall) for the respondent.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
30 January 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead. For the reasons he gives, with which I agree, I would allow this appeal and make the order which he proposes.
LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD.
[2] My Lords, this is an appeal against the grant on 25 April 2007 by the Divisional Court (Smith LJ and Irwin J) of a writ of habeas corpus ad subjiciendum to the respondent, Farid Hilali, on the ground that his detention in custody while he was awaiting extradition under a European arrest warrant had become unlawful due to a fundamental change in circumstances since the making of the extradition order: [2007] EWHC 939 (Admin), [2007] 3 All ER 422, [2007] 3 WLR 621.
[3] On 29 April 2004 the appellant, the Central Court of Criminal Proceedings No 5 of the National Court, Madrid, issued a European arrest warrant seeking the extradition of the respondent to Spain for the purpose of his being prosecuted there for participation in a terrorist organisation and the assassination of the victims of the three terrorist attacks in the United States on 11 September 2001. On 4 May 2004 a certificate was issued by the National Criminal Intelligence Service under s 2(7) of the Extradition Act 2003 (the 2003 Act) certifying that the warrant had been issued by a judicial authority of a category 1 territory which had the function of issuing arrest warrants.
[4] The respondent was arrested on 28 June 2004. On 1 June 2005 Senior District Judge Workman made an order for his extradition. The form which he signed stated that the extradition offence was participation in a terrorist organisation. But this was a departure from the written reasons that the senior district judge gave for his decision. In his reasons he said that he was satisfied that the conduct described in the European arrest warrant amounted to an extradition offence under s 64(3) of the 2003 Act because, if that conduct had occurred in England, it would have constituted the offence of conspiracy to pursue a course
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of conduct that would necessarily amount to or involve the commission of the offence of murder of persons in America. He also said that, if none of the conduct occurred in Spain, it amounted to a conspiracy to commit the offence of destroying, damaging or endangering the safety of aircraft, contrary to s 2 of the Aviation Security Act 1982, which, because it is an extra-territorial offence, is an extradition offence under s 64(4).
[5] The respondent appealed to the High Court against the extradition order under s 26 of the 2003 Act. On 26 May 2006 the Divisional Court (Scott Baker LJ and Openshaw J) dismissed his appeal (see Hilali v Central Court of Criminal Proceedings No 5 of the National Court, Madrid [2006] EWHC 1239 (Admin), [2006] 4 All ER 435, [2007] 1 WLR 768). On 16 November 2006 the court refused leave to appeal to this House. It also refused to certify that a point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision. The effect of that decision was to bring the statutory appeal process to an end: see s 32(4)(a) of the 2003 Act. Section 34 states that a decision of the judge under Pt 1 of the 2003 Act may be questioned in legal proceedings only by means of an appeal under that Part.
THE EUROPEAN ARREST WARRANT
[6] Article 8(1) of the Council of the European Union Framework Decision of 13 June 2002 on the European arrest warrant and the surrender procedures between member states (2002/584/JHA) (OJ 2002 L 190 p1, 18 July 2002) states that the European arrest warrant shall contain the information set out in that article in accordance with the form contained in the Annex to the Decision. In terms of para (a) of art 8(1), that information must include ‘the identity and nationality of the requested person.’ In terms of para (e) it must include ‘a description of the circumstances in which the offence was committed, including the time, place and degree of participation in the offence by the requested person.’
[7] The appellant provided information about the identity of the requested person. The respondent’s aliases were said to include Shukri and Shakur. Unfortunately the description of the circumstances which then followed went far beyond what appears to have been contemplated by para (e) of art 8(1) of the Framework Decision. It extended to about eight pages, and most of it consisted of a narrative of evidence. It began with these words:
‘Based on the information incorporated in the proceedings it may be inferred that there is a link between IMAD EDDIN BARAKAT YARKAS, alias ABU DAHDAH, and the terrorist attacks of the 11th of September 2001 in New York, Washington and Pennsylvania, attacks that resulted in thousands of victims. According to this information, ABU DAHDAH maintained certain contacts with several individuals related to those facts: ABU ABDULRAHMAN, MOHAMED BELFTAMI, DRISS CHEBLI, AMER AZIZI and SHAKUR.’
It then proceeded to describe the content of numerous intercepted telephone conversations between the respondent and Barakat Yarkas before and after 11 September 2001. They were said to lead to the conclusion that the respondent was one of the men who participated in the attacks although he was not one of the suicidal pilots. It also stated that analysis of telephone conversations made by Yarkas linked him with the leaders of Al Qa’ida and with some of the participants in the attacks, and that it had been established that there had been links and
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relations since 1998 between Yarkas and the respondent and between them and two others all with close links with Imam Abu Qatada. Details of those telephone conversations were then given.
[8] Some time after the European arrest warrant was issued for the respondent’s extradition Yarkas went to trial in the High Court of Madrid. He was said to be the central figure in the terrorist conspiracy to which the respondent was allegedly a party. He was charged with direct involvement in the murders of all those who perished in the terrorist attacks of 11 September 2001 in New York, Washington and Pennsylvania, indirect involvement in those murders and membership of a terrorist organisation. Central to the case against him was telephone intercept evidence, some of which was narrated in the European arrest warrant. On 24 September 2005 he was acquitted after trial of direct involvement in those murders but was convicted of the other offences. On 31 May 2006 his conviction of indirect involvement in the murders was quashed by the Supreme Court, with the support of the prosecution, on two grounds. The first was that the telephone intercept evidence was inadmissible as it had been obtained without lawful authorisation. The second was that the conversations between the respondent and Yarkas did not in any event support the inference that they were conspiring to commit the terrorist attacks in the United States.
THE HABEAS CORPUS APPLICATION
[9] On 17 November 2006 the respondent began the proceedings that led to his being granted a writ of habeas corpus. He did so on two grounds. The first was that, having regard to the reasons why Yarkas’s conviction had been quashed by the Spanish Supreme Court, there could no longer be a justification for his continued detention notwithstanding the lawfulness of the original order for his extradition. The second was that, because Yarkas’s conviction for indirect involvement in the murders had been quashed with the support of the prosecution, it was wholly inconsistent for the prosecution to seek the respondent’s return to Spain so that he could be put on trial there for the same offences. It was submitted that his continued detention was unlawful in these circumstances and that, notwithstanding the fact that the 2003 Act purported to provide a complete statutory code for the surrender of persons wanted in category 1 territories, the issue of a writ of habeas corpus was the appropriate remedy.
[10] The Divisional Court rejected the argument for the Secretary of State for the Home Department, who intervened in that court but has not sought to do so in your Lordships’ House, that habeas corpus was not available in any circumstances once the stage of proceedings had been reached where the statutory appeal provisions in Pt 1 of the 2003 Act were available. He had submitted that to permit an application for habeas corpus in addition to the statutory procedures would be to undermine the legislative scheme and to contradict the plain words of the 2003 Act. But the court was satisfied that habeas corpus was available if there had been a fundamental change to the circumstances in which the original order was made, and that it was the appropriate remedy: [2007] 3 All ER 422 at [40], [2007] 3 WLR 621. In its view the question that had to be answered was whether, if the European arrest warrant had been stripped of all reference to the evidence garnered from the telephone calls, the senior district judge would have been able to make an extradition order.
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[11] The information before the Divisional Court included a statement from the prosecutor of the case against the respondent in the High Court of Madrid, Mr Pedro Rubira. He had been authorised to make submissions on behalf of the appellant in this case in that capacity. He said that, contrary to the respondent’s assertion that he could not now be convicted of the matters referred to in the European arrest warrant, the respondent remained accused of direct complicity in the murders, of indirect complicity in them and of participation in a terrorist organisation. He also said that the case against the respondent could succeed without the telephone intercept evidence on which it was not his intention to rely at any trial of the respondent. The Divisional Court declined to have regard to Mr Rubira’s statement, because he was not in a position to amend or complement the European arrest warrant and because the evidence and its admissibility were entirely matters for the Spanish court: [2007] 3 All ER 422 at [60], [2007] 3 WLR 621. It added these comments at the end of that paragraph:
‘It seems to us that if the [European arrest warrant] had been completed as it should have been, by including a concise description of the conduct alleged and omitting an account of the evidence to be relied on, this application could never have been mounted. The loss to the prosecutor of some or even all of the evidence he had intended to rely on would have been of no concern to the English court.’
Nevertheless, as the telephone intercept evidence was the basis of the senior district judge’s decision, it felt bound to conclude that, without that telephone intercept evidence, he could not have reasoned his way to his decision in the way that he did: [2007] 3 All ER 422 at [61], [2007] 3 WLR 621.
THE ISSUES
[12] The first issue in this appeal is whether the remedy of habeas corpus is available where, after the statutory process in Pt 1 of the 2003 Act has been exhausted, there is a change of circumstances which arguably renders an extradition order which has been made under that Part of the 2003 Act unlawful. The answer to that question (the habeas corpus issue) is to be found in the terms of the statute. Underlying that issue is a more fundamental question, which is whether it was open to the respondent to invoke the decision of the Spanish Supreme Court in the Yarkas case to undermine the decision of the senior district judge that the respondent was accused of an extradition offence under s 64(3) of the 2003 Act and to make the extradition order. The answer to that question (the case to answer issue) is to be found in the Council Framework Decision to which the 2003 Act gives effect. An understanding of the principles underlying the Framework Decision scheme helps to explain the statutory appeal process which is contained in Pt 1 of the 2003 Act.
[13] The House has had the opportunity of considering the Framework Decision on two previous occasions: see Office of the King’s Prosecutor, Brussels v Cando Armas [2005] UKHL 67, [2006] 1 All ER 647, [2006] 2 AC 1; Dabas v High Court of Justice, Madrid [2007] UKHL 6, [2007] 2 All ER 641, [2007] 2 AC 31. It is unnecessary to repeat the detailed analysis that was undertaken in those cases. But it is worth quoting a passage from the speech of Lord Scott of Foscote in the Cando Armas case, as it identifies the basic flaw in the respondent’s argument. At [50] he said that there were two particular features of the Framework Decision that deserved mention. The first was that, as the
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requirement of double criminality had been removed in the case of offences falling within the Framework list, it was no longer necessary to show in relation to those offences that the conduct of the accused for which he was to be prosecuted in the requesting state would have been conduct for which he could have been prosecuted in this country.
[14] As to the second, Lord Scott said this:
‘[51] Secondly, the Framework Decision was intended to make it unnecessary, whether in relation to Framework list offences or any other offences, for the requesting state to have to show that the individual had a case to answer under the law of that state. The merits of the extradition request were to be taken on trust and not investigated by the member state from which extradition was sought. Article 1(2) says that:
“Member States shall execute any European arrest warrant on the basis of the principle of mutual recognition and in accordance with the provisions of this Framework Decision.”
And recital 5 of the Framework Decision speaks of “abolishing extradition between Member States and replacing it by a system of surrender between judicial authorities.”
[52] The principle underlying these changes is that each member state is expected to accord due respect and recognition to the judicial decisions of other member states. Any inquiry by a member state into the merits of a proposed prosecution in another member state or into the soundness of a conviction in another member state becomes, therefore, inappropriate and unwarranted. It would be inconsistent with the principle of mutual respect and recognition of the judicial decisions in that member state.’
The references to ‘judicial decisions’ at [52] must be read together with art 1(1) of the Framework Decision which states that the European arrest warrant is a judicial decision issued by a member state.
THE CASE TO ANSWER ISSUE
[15] The Divisional Court recognised that evidence is not a matter for the requested state. This can be seen from the passage at [60] of its judgment which I have already quoted. But, with obvious regret, it decided that it could not apply that principle to the description of the conduct in the European arrest warrant when it gave effect to the respondent’s argument. The explanation for this is to be found at [61] of the judgment. The fact that the description showed that it was dependent upon the telephone intercept evidence led the court to conclude that, without that telephone intercept evidence, the senior district judge could not have reasoned his decision in the way that he did. In my opinion it was, with respect, the court’s own reasoning that was at fault here. The question whether there is a case to answer on the conduct that is alleged in the European arrest warrant is not one that can be examined in the requested state. An inquiry into that question is contrary to the principle of mutual recognition on which the Framework Decision is founded. It was not for the Divisional Court, any more than it would have been for the senior district judge, to say that the conduct that was alleged against the respondent was incapable of being proved because the grounds on which Yarkas had been acquitted of the conspiracy removed all the evidence narrated in the European arrest warrant from which it could be inferred that the respondent was involved in it.
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[16] At [72] of its judgment the Divisional Court said that it was acutely conscious that it ought not to have been driven to examining the adequacy of the European arrest warrant in this way, and that it had only done so because of the way the warrant had been drafted. It is true that the way the warrant was drafted invited the argument that it had been subverted by subsequent events because the evidence narrated in it that showed that the respondent was accused of an extradition offence could not be used at his trial. But the court ought to have rejected this argument. The question whether the evidence that is relied on to prove the extradition offence is or is not admissible is for determination by the court in the requesting country when the person is put on trial there for the offence. That was the position in law when the European arrest warrant was before the senior district judge at the extradition hearing. The position in law was not altered by the subsequent events in Spain which indicated that some, most or even all of the evidence relied on to prove the conspiracy was not admissible.
[17] The Divisional Court’s decision to pay no heed to the point made in Mr Rubira’s witness statement that there was other evidence on which the prosecutor could rely because evidence was not a matter for the [requested] state does not sit easily with its decision to take account of the effect of the change of circumstances on the evidence narrated in the European arrest warrant. But it is not necessary to comment further on this point as the exercise which the court was asked to carry out was not one that it should have undertaken in the first place.
THE HABEAS CORPUS ISSUE
[18] The statutory appeal process in Pt 1 of the 2003 Act is described in ss 26 to 34. These sections have to be read in the light of the earlier sections which describe the procedure that is to be followed when a person is arrested following the receipt of a Pt 1 warrant by the designated authority. Section 4 applies if a person is arrested under a Pt 1 warrant. He must be given a copy of the warrant as soon as practicable after his arrest and he must be brought before a judge as soon as practicable. Failure to take the first of these steps may, and failure to take the second will, result in an order for the person’s discharge. Section 5 provides for provisional arrest where there are reasonable grounds for believing that a Pt 1 warrant has been or will be issued. Section 6 provides that a person arrested under s 5 must be brought before a judge within 48 hours starting with the time when the person was arrested. Section 7 provides that, when the person is brought before the judge under either s 4 or s 5, there is to be an initial hearing at which the judge must decide whether the arrested person is the person in respect of whom the warrant was issued. If the judge is satisfied on this point he must proceed to take the steps mentioned in s 8, one of which is to fix the date when the extradition hearing is to begin. No provision is made for an appeal against any of the decisions that require to be made up to this stage.
[19] The provisions which describe what is to be done at the extradition hearing are set out in ss 9 to 25. First, the judge must decide whether the offence specified in the Pt 1 warrant is an extradition offence. If he decides that it is he must proceed to s 11, which requires him to decide whether the person’s extradition to the category 1 territory is barred by reason of one or more of the circumstances set out in sub-s (1), which is to be interpreted in the light of ss 12 to 19. If he decides that extradition is not barred by any of those circumstances and the person’s extradition is requested for the purpose of being prosecuted for
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the offence, he must decide under s 21 whether the person’s extradition would be compatible with the convention rights within the meaning of the Human Rights Act 1998 (see the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act).
[20] Decisions taken at the extradition hearing are the subject of the provisions that then follow about appeals. The powers that are given to the High Court on an appeal under s 26 are limited by sub-ss (3) and (4) of that section. It may allow an appeal only if the conditions in one or other of those subsections are satisfied. Among those conditions is the condition that an issue was raised in the appeal that was not raised at the extradition hearing or evidence is available that was not available then, that the issue or the evidence would have led to the judge deciding a question before him at the extradition hearing differently and that if he had decided the question in that way he would have been required to order the person’s discharge: s 27(4). For the reasons already explained, the reference to evidence in this subsection cannot be taken as a reference to the evidence which will be relied on by the prosecutor to prove the offence in the requesting state. It is a reference to evidence relating to matters which the judge is required to decide at the extradition hearing, such as whether there is a bar to the person’s extradition or whether his extradition would be incompatible with the convention rights.
[21] Then there is s 34 which, as already noted, provides that a decision of the judge under Pt 1 of the 2003 Act may be questioned in legal proceedings only by means of an appeal under that Part. One of the features of the provisions about appeals in Pt 1 is that not every decision that the judge is required to take can be appealed against under the statute: see, for example, s 4(5) which requires the judge to order the discharge of a person arrested under a Pt 1 warrant who is not brought before him as soon as practicable. In Nikonovs v Governor of Brixton Prison [2005] EWHC 2405 (Admin), [2006] 1 All ER 927, [2006] 1 WLR 1518 an application for a writ of habeas corpus was granted where the applicant was able to satisfy the court that he had not been brought before a judge as soon as practicable and that the judge’s decision not to discharge him under that subsection was unreasonable. Scott Baker LJ said that it would require the strongest words in a provision such as s 34 to remove the ancient remedy of habeas corpus: [2006] 1 All ER 927 at [18], [2006] 1 WLR 1518. I respectfully agree. But that broad statement must not be taken out of context. Section 34 must receive effect where the decision was one against which there was a right of appeal under the statute. In the case of those decisions, the remedy of habeas corpus must be taken to have been excluded by the clear and unequivocal wording of s 34.
[22] The decision by the senior district judge to make the extradition order was a decision against which a right of appeal was provided by s 26 of the 2003 Act. At [34] and [35] of its judgment the Divisional Court said that some other process was required where the issue was not whether the judge’s decision was correct at the time but was that the facts had changed to such an extent that his decision was undermined. It rejected the possibility of reopening the appeal under CPR 52.17 because it would not provide an opportunity to reopen an appeal which had already been dealt with in the House of Lords. It said that this left habeas corpus as the more appropriate remedy: [2007] 3 All ER 422 at [38], [2007] 3 WLR 621.
[23] I do not think that it is necessary to identify circumstances in which, notwithstanding s 34 of the 2003 Act, the remedy of habeas corpus may be
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available. In this case it is plain the grounds on which that remedy was sought were contrary to the principle of mutual recognition to which I referred earlier: see [15], above. Even if evidence about the decision of the Spanish Supreme Court had been available in time for it to have been made part of the statutory appeal under s 27(4), it would not have been open to the High Court to hold that if that evidence had been before the judge at the extradition hearing he would have decided the question whether to make the order differently. That evidence was relevant to the question whether there was a case to answer in Spain. But the Framework Decision makes it clear that the admissibility or sufficiency of the evidence is not for determination by a judge in the requested state. These issues were not within the jurisdiction of the judge at the extradition hearing in this case. The question which he had to decide was whether the offence specified in the Pt 1 warrant was an extradition offence, not whether it could be proved: see s 10(2). An application for habeas corpus on the ground that, for whatever reason, there is no case to answer in the requested state must always be rejected as having been excluded by the provisions of the statute.
[24] For the same reasons I would reject the respondent’s alternative argument that the continued request for his extradition was an abuse of process. It should be noted too that recital (10) of the Framework Decision states that implementation of the European arrest warrant may be suspended only in the event of a serious and persistent breach by one of the member states of the principles set out in art 6(1) of the Treaty on European Union (Maastricht, 7 February 1992) (OJ 1992 C191 p1), determined by the Council pursuant to art 7(1) of the Treaty with the consequences that art 7(2) sets out. That extreme position is miles away from the situation in this case, where there is no reason whatever to believe that the respondent will not have a fair trial. The senior district judge was satisfied, as he was required to be by s 21 of the 2003 Act, that the respondent’s extradition would be compatible with the convention rights.
POSTSCRIPT
[25] Two errors in the procedure that was adopted in this case give rise to concern. The whole point of the Framework Decision, as recital (5) explains, was to remove the complexity and potential for delay inherent in the previous extradition procedures. That aspiration is unlikely to be achieved if the judicial authorities on whose co-operation the system depends do not carefully observe the procedures that the Framework Decision lays down. Failure to do this may lead to delay and misunderstanding, as the errors which I am about to describe demonstrate.
[26] As I have already mentioned, the information in the European arrest warrant that was issued in this case about the alleged offences went far beyond what is contemplated by art 8(1)(e) of, and the Annex to, the Framework Decision. In the words of that paragraph, a description must be given of the circumstances in which the offences were committed, including the time, place and degree of participation in the offences by the requested person. A narrative of the evidence that is to be relied on to prove the offences is not needed. It has no place in the description, as it is not relevant to the decision by the executing judicial authority whether the person is to be surrendered: see art 15. The purpose for which the information is required is to enable the executing judicial authority to decide whether the offences are extradition offences, not whether they can be proved against the requested person. The delay that has arisen in this case is highly regrettable. But much of it is due to the
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fact that information in the European arrest warrant about the circumstances was developed at inordinate length and included much irrelevant material. This invited argument about the admissibility and sufficiency of the evidence which, as the Divisional Court said ([2007] 3 All ER 422 at [61], [2007] 3 WLR 621), would not have arisen if a clear and concise description had been given of the conduct that was alleged against the respondent.
[27] The way this case was handled in this country is not beyond criticism either. The legal classification of the offences in the European arrest warrant was said to be participation in a terrorist organisation and in as many crimes of terrorist assassination as the number of victims in the three terrorist attacks in the United States. The senior district judge was careful to explain in the reasons for his decision that the conduct that was alleged against the respondent amounted to an extradition offence under s 64(3) of the 2003 Act because, if it had occurred in England, it would have constituted the offence of conspiracy to commit the offence of murder of persons in America. He also said that it amounted to a conspiracy to commit the offence of destroying, damaging or endangering the safety of aircraft, contrary to s 2 of the Aviation Security Act 1982, which is an extradition offence under s 64(4). He was not asked to say that participation in a terrorist organisation was an extradition offence.
[28] Participation in a terrorist organisation is not conduct that falls within the list of offences in art 2(2) of the Framework Decision: see s 64(2) of and Sch 2 to the 2003 Act. So the double criminality test must be applied to it: see s 64(3). But, as the Divisional Court explained ([2007] 3 All ER 422 at [75], [2007] 3 WLR 621), none of the conduct alleged against the respondent suggested that he was in Spain at any time between March 2001, when membership of Al Qa’ida as a proscribed organisation became an offence under s 11 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (see the Terrorism Act 2000 (Proscribed Organisations) (Amendment) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1261)), and the issue of the European arrest warrant in April 2004. It follows that this is not an offence for which the respondent can be extradited.
[29] Unfortunately the extradition order which the senior district judge signed on 1 June 2005 described the extradition offence as ‘participation in terrorist organisation’. It made no mention of the two offences that were referred to in his reasons as the offences for which the respondent could be extradited. The importance of accuracy in this respect is demonstrated by the fact that the Spanish prosecutor, Mr Rubira, states in several places in his witness statement that the respondent remains accused of participation in a terrorist organisation. It was important to make it plain in the extradition order that this was not an offence for which the respondent can be prosecuted as he is entitled to the protection of the specialty rule with regard to it. The Spanish prosecutor appears not to have appreciated this point. The misunderstanding which the form of the order appears to have created could have been avoided if the form had been filled in correctly.
[30] I would urge the relevant authorities both in this country and in Spain to pay close attention to these remarks. The right to liberty is at stake in these matters. The importance of accuracy and attention to detail in the preparation of the European arrest warrant and of any order that is made to give effect to it cannot be overemphasised.
CONCLUSION
[31] I would allow the appeal and set aside the order which was made by the Divisional Court. I would affirm the decision by the senior district judge to order
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the respondent’s extradition to Spain. I would do so on the ground that the offences of conspiracy to commit the offence of murder of persons in the United States and of destroying, damaging or endangering the safety of aircraft, contrary to s 2 of the Aviation Security Act 1982, are the only offences in respect of which he is to be extradited.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[32] My Lords, I agree, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead, that this appeal should be allowed. I would comment only that a European arrest warrant may be executed in any of the member states. The issuing judicial authority will not always know where the person concerned will be found. It cannot tailor the warrant to any particular or idiosyncratic requirements of another member state. So, while I agree that every issuing state should do its best to comply with the requirements of the Framework Decision, it seems equally important that every requested state should approach the matter on the basis that this has been done: in other words, in a spirit of mutual trust and respect and not in a spirit of suspicion and disrespect. For better or worse, we have committed ourselves to this system and it is up to us to make it work.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[33] My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead. For the reasons he gives, with which I agree, I would allow this appeal and make the order which he proposes.
LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY.
[34] My Lords, I have had the opportunity of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead. For the reasons he gives, I too would allow this appeal and affirm the decision of the senior district judge to order the respondent’s extradition to Spain on the grounds set out at the end of Lord Hope’s opinion. I would also like to associate myself with the comments in the ‘Postscript’ to that opinion.
Appeal allowed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Cadogan and another v Sportelli and another and other appeals
[2008] 2 All ER 220
[2007] EWCA Civ 1042
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Tribunals: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WARD, CARNWATH LJJ AND SIR PETER GIBSON
Hearing Date(s): 23–26 JULY, 25 OCTOBER 2007
Landlord and tenant – Leasehold enfranchisement – Lease extension – Valuation – Marriage value – Hope value – Whether hope value to be taken into account in valuation – Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, Schs 6, 13.
Lands tribunal – Decisions – Precedent value – Ability of tribunal to give guidance.
Various statutes since 1967 had conferred on owners of long leases of houses or flats rights to ‘enfranchise’ by buying out, individually or collectively with other lessees, the reversionary interests, or to extend their leases for defined periods. A key feature of the statutory provisions was machinery for the assessment of the price at which the reversioner’s interest, or the extended lease, was to be acquired. In principle that was fixed by reference to the market value of the interest as it would be if unaffected by the existence of the statutory rights. That was in practice treated as including the value of the right to receive ground rent during the term and the value of the prospective right to vacant possession at the end of the term. The latter, conventionally, was fixed by taking the open market value of the freehold interest with vacant possession at the valuation date and adjusting it downwards by application of a ‘deferment rate’. The deferment rate was an annual discount applied to an anticipated future receipt to arrive at the market value. Another valuation concept was ‘marriage value’. The underlying assumption of that concept was that the market value of the unencumbered freehold in a property was likely to exceed the aggregate of the values of the interests of tenant and reversioner considered separately; and that in the real world a tenant would be willing to pay more for the reversionary interests in his property than other potential purchasers (‘the tenant’s overbid’). The excess was commonly referred to as the marriage value. A related concept was ‘hope value’, which represented anticipated marriage value, or the expected product of the tenant’s overbid. The Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, which was subsequently amended by the Housing Act 1996 and Commonhold and Leasehold Reform Act 2002, contained the provisions relevant to the instant case. The 1993 Act introduced statutory rights for lessees of flats either to extend their individual leases or, collectively, to acquire all the reversionary interests. In the case of collective enfranchisement it was possible that only some of the tenants (‘the participating tenants’) might be involved in the acquisition of the reversioner’s interest; and that they would be doing so not directly but in the name of a nominee purchaser (typically a company set up for that purpose). In the case of both leasehold enfranchisement and lease extension the price payable to the reversioner was governed by detailed provisions under which a share of the marriage value (as defined in para 4a of Sch 6 to the 1993 Act in respect of collective enfranchisement and Sch 13 in the case of lease extensions)
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became a distinct element of the price. Section 9 contained similar provisions relating to enfranchisement of single houses. Under Schedule 6, the reversioner was entitled to the value of his interest and (post the 2002 Act amendments) to 50% of the marriage value (although the marriage value was to be disregarded for leases with more than 80 years to run). The value of his interest was to be fixed by reference to an assumed open market transaction excluding the acquiring tenant or (in the case of collective enfranchisement) the nominee purchaser and the participating tenants. In the latter case the assumed market was further restricted in 1996 by excluding not just the participating tenants but all the tenants of the relevant premises. In the instant appeal from the Lands Tribunal, an issue arose, inter alia, as to the proper valuation of any ‘hope value’. A further issue was raised on appeal as to the status of the tribunal’s decision on the appropriate deferment rate to be applied in relation to future cases before the leasehold valuation tribunal.
Held – ‘Hope value’ was not a permissible element in the valuations under Sch 6 or 13 to the 1993 Act as amended. Hope value and marriage value were directly linked. Hope value represented no more than anticipation of future marriage value. The scheme of the 1993 Act (in distinction to its predecessors) made detailed provision for the definition and allocation of marriage value as a separate element of the price payable to the landlord. Although in each of the three cases (collective enfranchisement, lease extension and enfranchisement of single houses) the term ‘marriage value’ as used in the Act had a different definition, tailored to the nature of the particular transaction, in essence the underlying concept was the same. In each case the Act acknowledged the special value likely to be released for the lessee by the enlargement of his interest. It recognised that in the real world the respective shares of the special value would be a matter of negotiation between landlord and tenant. The purpose of the Act was to reduce uncertainty by separately identifying that special value and (since the 2002 Act amendments) by fixing the landlord’s share at 50%, or excluding the element altogether in respect of leases with more than 80 years to run. Given those provisions in relation to marriage value, and the direct relationship between marriage value and hope value, to include a further element of hope value would involve double counting (see [43]–[49], [53], [57], below).
Per curiam. An important part of the tribunal’s role is to promote consistent practice in land valuation matters. It is entirely appropriate for the tribunal to offer guidance and, unless or until the legislature intervenes, to expect leasehold valuation tribunals to follow generally that lead (see [99], below).
Notes
For the landlord’s share of the marriage value in the cases of enfranchisement and lease extension, see 27(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 1626, 1707.
For the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, Schs 6, 13, see 23 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 1107, 1149.
Cases referred to in judgments
Arbib v Earl Cadogan [2005] 3 EGLR 139.
Cadogan Holdings Ltd v Pockney [2005] RVR 197.
Page 222 of [2008] 2 All ER 220
Curtis v London Rent Assessment Committee [1997] 4 All ER 842, [1999] QB 92, [1998] 3 WLR 1427, CA.
Custins v Hearts of Oak Benefit Society (1969) 209 EG 239.
Gallagher Estates Ltd v Walker (1973) 28 P&CR 113, CA.
Harrison v Representative Body of the Church in Wales [1970] RVR 581.
Haw v Peek [1969] CLY 2042.
Imperial College of Science and Technology v Ebdon (Valuation Officer) and Westminster City Council [1986] RA 233, CA; affg [1984] RA 213.
Lake v Bennett [1971] RVR 415; affd [1970] 1 All ER 457, [1970] 1 QB 663, [1970] 2 WLR 355, CA.
Norfolk v Trinity College, Cambridge [1976] 1 EGLR 215.
Official Custodian for Charities v Goldridge (1973) 26 P&CR 191, CA.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
Pitts v Earl Cadogan [2007] 42 EG 296.
R v Secretary of State, ex p Spath Holme Ltd [2001] 1 All ER 195, [2001] 2 AC 349, [2001] 2 WLR 15, HL.
Railtrack plc v Guinness Ltd [2003] EWCA Civ 188, [2003] 1 EGLR 124.
S v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 539, [2002] INLR 416.
Wells v Wells [1998] 3 All ER 481, [1999] 1 AC 345, [1998] 3 WLR 329, HL.
Wright v British Railways Board [1983] 2 All ER 698, [1983] 2 AC 773, [1983] 3 WLR 211, HL.
Appeals
Cadogan v Sportelli
Earl Cadogan and Cadogan Estates Ltd appealed from a decision of the Lands Tribunal made in relation to a property situate at Flat 14, 85 Cadogan Gardens, London SW3. Michele and Kara-Lynn Sportelli were respondents to the appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Carnwath LJ.
Cadogan v 27–29 Sloane Gardens Ltd
Earl Cadogan and Cadogan Estates Ltd appealed from a decision of the Lands Tribunal made in relation to a property situate at 27/29 Sloane Gardens, London SW1. 27–29 Sloane Gardens Ltd and Wayhil Mahdi were respondents to the appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Carnwath LJ.
Cadogan v Grandeden Property Management Ltd
Earl Cadogan and Cadogan Estates Ltd appealed from a decision of the Lands Tribunal made in relation to properties situate at 59 Cadogan Square and 105 Cadogan Gardens, London SW1. Grandeden Property Management Ltd was respondent to the appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of Carnwath LJ.
Howard de Waldon Estates Ltd v Maybury Court Freehold Co Ltd
Howard de Walden Estates Ltd appealed and Maybury Court Freehold Co Ltd cross-appealed from a decision of the Lands Tribunal made in relation to properties situate at Maybury Court, Marylebone Street, London W1. The facts are set out in the judgment of Carnwath LJ.
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Kenneth Munro and Philip Rainey (instructed by Pemberton Greenish) for the Cadogan interests.
Judith Jackson QC and Michael Pryor (instructed by Speechly Bircham LLP) for de Walden.
The Sportellis did not appear.
Stephen Jourdan (instructed by Rokeby Johnson Baars LLP) for 27–29 Sloane Gardens Ltd.
Tomas Jefferies (instructed by MaxwellWinward LLP) for Grandeden Property Management Ltd.
Stephen Jourdan (instructed by Rokeby Johnson Baars LLP) for Maybury Court Freehold Co Ltd.
Judgment was reserved.
25 October 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
CARNWATH LJ.
Scheme of judgment
Introduction [1]–[8]
The appeals [9]–[12]
The hope value issue [13]–[59]
The deferment rate issue [60]–[90]
The precedent effect of the tribunal’s decision [91]–[102]
Conclusion [103]
INTRODUCTION
[1] Various statutes since 1967 have conferred on owners of long leases of houses or flats rights to ‘enfranchise’ by buying out (individually or collectively with other lessees) the reversionary interests, or simply to extend their leases for defined periods (50 years for houses and 90 years for flats). The first such statute was the Leasehold Reform Act 1967, which applied only to houses up to a specific value, but subsequent statutes have extended such rights in one form or another to most residential premises. The principal extensions have been effected by the Housing Act 1974, the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, the Housing Act 1996, and the Commonhold and Leasehold Reform Act 2002. The resulting legislation is unusually complex, reflecting the draftsman’s attempts to realise Parliament’s not always consistent objectives within the intricacies of landlord and tenant law.
[2] The present appeals are concerned with two preliminary issues, directed by the Lands Tribunal, to determine: (i) ‘the proper deferment rate to be applied to vacant possession value’; and (ii) ‘the proper valuation of any “hope value”’. A further general issue has been raised as to the status of the tribunal’s decision in relation to future cases in the Leasehold Valuation Tribunal (LVT).
[3] A brief introduction is necessary to set the preliminary issues in context. A key feature of the statutory provisions is machinery for the assessment of the price at which the freeholder’s interest (or the extended lease) is to be acquired. In principle this is fixed by reference to the market value of the interest, as it would be if unaffected by the existence of the statutory rights. This is in practice treated as including the value of the right to receive a ground rent during the term
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and the value of the prospective right to vacant possession at the end of the term. The latter, conventionally, is fixed by taking the open market value of the freehold interest with vacant possession at the valuation date and adjusting that value downwards by application of a ‘deferment rate’. The deferment rate, in the definition adopted by the tribunal ([2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 154 (para 2)), is:
‘the annual discount applied, on a compound basis, to an anticipated future receipt (assessed at current prices) to arrive at its market value at [the valuation date].’
That was the subject of the first preliminary issue.
[4] The background to the second preliminary issue lies in another familiar valuation concept, that of ‘marriage value’. The underlying assumption is that the market value of the unencumbered freehold in any property is likely to exceed the aggregate of the values of the interests of tenant and reversioner considered separately; and that (for this, or perhaps other reasons) in the real world a tenant will be willing to pay more for the reversionary interests in his property than other potential purchasers (‘the tenant’s overbid’). The following description comes from the second edition of Hague on Leasehold Enfranchisements (2nd edn, 1987) p 162 (para 9-17):
‘An occupying tenant is usually anxious to obtain the fullest possible security of tenure for himself and his family. He is also usually anxious to maintain the value of his leasehold interest, which will inevitably depreciate with the passage of time, particularly in the last 40 or so years of its term. The occupying tenant thus has a special incentive to purchase the freehold reversion and is usually willing to offer a higher price for it than other persons. Moreover, if the tenant does purchase the freehold reversion to his leasehold, he will be able to merge, or “marry”, the two interests together and so obtain an unencumbered freehold interest. The tenant thus has a further special incentive to purchase the freehold, for in most cases the market value of such an unencumbered freehold interest exceeds the aggregate of the value of his leasehold interest and the purely investment value of the freehold reversion. The excess is commonly known as “the marriage value”, and the higher offer expected to result from the tenant’s special incentives to purchase is commonly referred to as “the tenant’s bid” or “the tenant’s overbid”.’
[5] ‘Hope value’ as used in the second preliminary issue is not a statutory term. It was defined by the tribunal as follows (at 165 (para 98)):
‘Hope value, as the term has been used in the present appeals, consists in the option that the freeholder has to sell the freehold or a lease extension to the tenant and thus realise the whole or part of the freeholder’s share of such marriage value as exists at the date of the sale.’
In other words ‘hope value’ represents anticipated marriage value, or the expected product of the ‘tenant’s overbid’.
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[6] That definition does not make clear that under the 1993 Act (and after the passage in Hague was written) the expression ‘marriage value’ has become a statutory term, separately defined for the purposes of different categories of transaction. It will be necessary in due course to look at the statutory definitions in more detail.
[7] Before looking more closely at the issues in the appeal it may be helpful to illustrate the interrelation of the various elements of the valuation by reference to an example. We were given a convenient summary of the LVT’s determination of the price of 13 South Terrace (under the 1967 Act, s 9(1A)):
‘The vacant possession value of a freehold interest in the house was put at £2,085,000. This figure was then discounted at a rate of 6% for a period of 22·6 years (that being the unexpired term of the lease) to produce a present value of the reversion of £558,780. That, together with the capitalised ground rents, produced a value for the freeholder’s interest of £559,927. This freehold value, together with the value of £1,000,000 for the existing lease, meant that the existing interests had an aggregate value of £1,559,927, whereas the unencumbered freehold reversion which would result from the enfranchisement was worth £2,085,000. The marriage value unlocked by the acquisition was therefore £525,073, being the difference between the two figures. The tenant was liable to pay one half of that figure to the freeholder. Accordingly, the purchase price was calculated as being: (1) £559,927 for the freehold reversion, together with (2) £262,537 for the landlord’s share of the marriage value released by the acquisition.’
[8] The first question, in short, is whether the purchase price so calculated should be increased to take account of hope value; or whether that is to be treated as reflected in the landlord’s share of marriage value. There were differing views among the experts as to how ‘hope value’ was to be assessed, assuming it to be an admissible extra item. The tribunal expressed its preferred approach (at 166–167 (paras 110–112)), following that of Mr Cullum for Cadogan. However that is not an issue before us in this appeal.
THE APPEALS
[9] The cases before the tribunal were all appeals from decisions of LVTs. They fell into three categories:
(i) Collective enfranchisement
(a) Cadogan v (1) 27/29 Sloane Gardens Ltd and (2) Wayhil Mahdi
Two adjoining houses, 27/29 Sloane Gardens, London SW1, converted to seven flats (one of which was caretaker‘s accommodation), with four of the tenants participating and two non-participating.
(b) Cadogan v Grandeden Property Management Ltd
59 Cadogan Square and 105 Cadogan Gardens, London SW1, an eight-storey mansion block consisting of 24 flats (including one caretaker‘s flat). There are 17 participating and seven non-participating tenants.
(c) Howard de Walden Estates Ltd v Maybury Court Freehold Company Ltd
Maybury Court, Marylebone Street, London W1, five conjoined blocks totalling 68 flats. There are 44 participating and 24 non-participating tenants.
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(ii) Lease extension
(d) Earl Cadogan and Cadogan Estates Ltd v Sportelli
Flat 14, 85 Cadogan Gardens, London SW3.
(iii) Enfranchisement of a single house
(e) Bircham & Co (Nominees) (No 2) Ltd and Ms SE Stowell v Mr MC and Mrs S Clarke
13 South Terrace, Kensington, London SW7.
[10] For ease of reference I shall refer to the main parties as ‘Cadogan’, ‘de Walden’, ‘Bircham’, ‘Grandeden’ and ‘Maybury’, all of whom were represented before the tribunal and before us by counsel.
[11] The appeals before us fall into two groups: (i) Appeals by Cadogan (represented by Mr Munro and Mr Rainey) and de Walden (Miss Jackson QC and Mr Pryor) against the tribunal’s decision that hope value should not be included in the price payable for collective enfranchisement or lease extensions. This is opposed by Maybury (Mr Jourdan) and Grandeden (Mr Jefferies). Mr and Mrs Sportelli (case (d)) were not represented before the tribunal or before us (although they were represented by Mr Jourdan in the LVT, which held that hope value was to be excluded from the valuation). Although theirs was the only lease extension case, it raises similar issues, which have been fully discussed in the course of the argument. There is no appeal from the tribunal’s decision in respect of the single house (case (e)), in which it was decided that hope value should be included. However, in a subsequent case, decided in May 2007 (Pitts v Earl Cadogan [2007] 42 EG 296), the President (Mr Bartlett QC) took a different view, holding that the previous decision was per incuriam in this respect. Permission to appeal has been granted in that case. Although the appeal is not formally before this court, the parties have made written submissions, to which I will refer when dealing with that issue. (ii) Appeals by Maybury and 27/29 Sloane Gardens Ltd (Mr Jourdan) against the decision to reject ‘market evidence’ in fixing the deferment rate. They are opposed by Cadogan and de Walden.
[12] I will deal first with the issue of hope value, which is one of statutory construction. The deferment rate issue is one of mixed law and valuation practice, and is also linked with the third question, that of the status of the Lands Tribunal decision.
THE HOPE VALUE ISSUE
Background
[13] Although the answer to this issue must be found in the statute as it now stands, reference to the history, over the 40 years since the 1967 Act, is necessary to set the context.
[14] In the 1967 Act, as originally enacted, the right to acquire the freehold was limited to houses below a specified rateable value. The price was to be ascertained under s 9(1), which provided:
‘Subject to subsection (2) below, the price payable for a house and premises on a conveyance under section 8 above shall be the amount which at the relevant time the house and premises, if sold in the open market by a willing seller, might be expected to realise . . .’
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[15] In two early Lands Tribunal decisions (Custins v Hearts of Oak Building Society (1969) 209 EG 239 and Haw v Peek [1969] CLY 2042), it was held that under this provision the lessee was assumed to be part of the market, so that account should be taken of the enhanced price he would be willing to bid to achieve an unencumbered freehold interest (in other words, ‘the tenant’s overbid’ or ‘the merger element’: Custins’s case (at 241).
[16] The effect of these decisions was quickly reversed by statute (as explained in Official Custodian for Charities v Goldridge (1973) 26 P & CR 191 at 208, 211). Section 82 of the Housing Act 1969 inserted, after the words ‘a willing seller’, the words ‘(with the tenant and members of his family who reside in the house not buying or seeking to buy)’. The tribunal held that this wording was apt to exclude not only a present bid by the tenant himself, now or in the future, but also bids by speculators looking to derive a profit from a sale to the tenant (Harrison v Representative Body of the Church in Wales [1970] RVR 581 at 583; Lake v Bennett [1971] RVR 415 at 420).
[17] The 1974 Act (not the 1993 Act, as indicated by the tribunal ([2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 166 (para 103))) extended the right to acquire the freehold to higher value houses, by insertion of a new s 9(1A) into the 1967 Act. The price, as under s 9(1), was to be fixed by reference to the open market value, but the words excluding the tenant and his family were not reproduced. In Norfolk v Trinity College, Cambridge [1976] 1 EGLR 215, the Lands Tribunal held that under these provisions, by contrast to s 9(1), the tenant’s overbid was not excluded.
[18] The tribunal’s treatment of hope value in Norfolk’s case is of particular interest in the light of subsequent statutory developments. Having held that under s 9(1A) the sitting tenant was not to be excluded from the assumed market, the tribunal (Mr Rees FRICS) considered how the tenant’s bid should be valued. He summarised (at 216) the approach of the landlord’s valuer (Mr Hopper):
‘To the value of the freehold subject to the tenancy he adds half the difference between (1) the value of the freehold in possession (having deducted the value of the improvements) and (2) the value of the leasehold interest in the house (similarly reduced by the value of the improvements) plus the value of the freehold subject to the tenancy.’
The tribunal accepted this approach which it regarded as ‘entirely logical’.
[19] The next important changes came in the 1993 Act. This introduced for the first time statutory rights for tenants of flats, either to extend their individual leases, or (collectively) to acquire all the reversionary interests. The two sets of provisions follow a similar pattern. However, in the case of collective enfranchisement, the picture is complicated by the fact that only some of the tenants (‘the participating tenants’) may be involved in the acquisition of the landlord’s interest; and that they will be doing so, not directly, but in the name of a ‘nominee purchaser’ (typically, a company set up for the purpose).
[20] In each case, the price payable to the freeholder was governed by detailed provisions, under which a share of ‘marriage value’ (as defined) became a distinct element of the price. The landlord was entitled to the value of his interest, and not less than 50% of the marriage value. The value of his interest was to be fixed by reference to an assumed open market transaction excluding the acquiring tenant, or (in the case of collective enfranchisement) the nominee purchaser and the participating tenants. In the latter case, the assumed market was further
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restricted in 1996 by excluding, not just the participating tenants, but all the tenants of the relevant premises (s 109 of the 1996 Act).
[21] Further important amendments—substantive and procedural—were made by the 2002 Act. In particular, the landlord’s share of marriage value was fixed at 50%, and marriage value was to be disregarded altogether for leases with more than 80 years to run.
The statutory provisions
[22] I turn to consider in more detail the current provisions, following the amendments made by the 2002 Act, so far as relevant to the issue of hope value.
Collective enfranchisement
[23] Schedule 6 to the 1993 Act provides for the ascertainment of the price payable by the nominee purchaser of the freehold. Under para 2(1), the price payable by the nominee purchaser is the aggregate of three elements, the first two being:
‘(a) the value of the freeholder’s interest in the premises as determined in accordance with paragraph 3,
(b) the freeholder’s share of the marriage value as determined in accordance with paragraph 4 . . .’
((c) is not in issue in these cases).
[24] By para 3(1) the value of the freeholder’s interest is defined as—
‘. . . the amount which at the relevant date that interest might be expected to realise if sold in the open market by a willing seller (with no person who falls within sub-paragraph (1A) buying or seeking to buy) . . .’
Those excluded by para 3(1A) are (so far as relevant): ‘(a) the nominee purchaser, or (b) a tenant of premises contained in the specified premises’. The valuation is made on the following assumptions:
‘(a) on the assumption that the vendor is selling for an estate in fee simple—
(i) subject to any leases subject to which the freeholder’s interest in the premises is to be acquired by the nominee purchaser, but
(ii) subject also to any intermediate or other leasehold interests in the premises which are to be acquired by the nominee purchaser;
(b) on the assumption that this Chapter and Chapter II confer no right to acquire any interest in the specified premises or to acquire any new lease (except that this shall not preclude the taking into account of a notice given under section 42 with respect to a flat contained in the specified premises where it is given by a person other than a participating tenant); (c) on the assumption that any increase in the value of any flat held by a participating tenant which is attributable to an improvement carried out at his own expense by the tenant or by any predecessor in title is to be disregarded; and
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(d) on the assumption that (subject to paragraphs (a) and (b)) the vendor is selling with and subject to the rights and burdens with and subject to which the conveyance to the nominee purchaser of the freeholder’s interest is to be made, and in particular with and subject to such permanent or extended rights and burdens as are to be created in order to give effect to Schedule 7.’
[25] Two of these assumptions deserve comment: (i) Under (b), the exception in relation to ‘a notice given under section 42’ refers to the notice by which a tenant initiates a claim for an individual lease extension. Such a notice is ‘suspended’ during the currency of any claim for collective enfranchisement of the property of which the flat forms part (s 54). The effect of (b) therefore seems to be that the prospect of a bid from a non-participating tenant can be taken into account where he has served a s 42 notice, but not otherwise. (ii) Under (c), it is to be noted that it is only improvements carried out by a participating tenant that are disregarded. It appears to follow that, in so far as the value of the reversion is enhanced by the value of improvements by non-participating tenants, they are to be reflected in the price.
[26] ‘Marriage value’ is covered by para 4:
‘(1) The marriage value is the amount referred to in sub-paragraph (2), and the freeholder’s share of the marriage value is 50 per cent of that amount.
(2) Subject to sub-paragraph (2A), the marriage value is any increase in the aggregate value of the freehold and every intermediate leasehold interest in the specified premises, when regarded as being (in consequence of their being acquired by the nominee purchaser) interests under the control of the participating tenants, as compared with the aggregate value of those interests when held by the persons from whom they are to be so acquired, being an increase in value—(a) which is attributable to the potential ability of the participating tenants, once those interests have been so acquired, to have new leases granted to them without payment of any premium and without restriction as to length of term, and (b) which, if those interests were being sold to the nominee purchaser on the open market by willing sellers, the nominee purchaser would have to agree to share with the sellers in order to reach agreement as to price.
(2A) Where at the relevant date the unexpired term of the lease held by any of those participating members exceeds eighty years, any increase in the value of the freehold or any intermediate leasehold interest in the specified premises which is attributable to his potential ability to have a new lease granted to him as mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(a) is to be ignored.’
Lease extensions
[27] The provisions for fixing the premium payable for a lease extension are set out in Sch 13, and follow a similar pattern. By para 2 the price again is the aggregate of three elements including:
‘(a) the diminution in value of the landlord’s interest in the tenant’s flat as determined in accordance with paragraph 3, (b) the landlord’s share of the marriage value as determined in accordance with paragraph 4 . . .’
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[28] By para 3(1) the diminution in value of the landlord’s interest is—
‘the difference between—(a) the value of the landlord’s interest in the tenant’s flat prior to the grant of the new lease; and (b) the value of his interest in the flat once the new lease is granted.’
[29] The value of each such interest is:
‘(2) . . . the amount which at the relevant date that interest might be expected to realise if sold on the open market by a willing seller (with neither the tenant nor any owner of an intermediate leasehold interest buying or seeking to buy) on the following assumptions—(a) on the assumption that the vendor is selling for an estate in fee simple or (as the case may be) such other interest as is held by the landlord, subject to the relevant lease and any intermediate leasehold interests; (b) on the assumption that Chapter I and this Chapter confer no right to acquire any interest in any premises containing the tenant’s flat or to acquire any new lease; (c) on the assumption that any increase in the value of the flat which is attributable to an improvement carried out at his own expense by the tenant or by any predecessor in title is to be disregarded; and (d) on the assumption that (subject to paragraph (b)) the vendor is selling with and subject to the rights and burdens with and subject to which the relevant lease has effect or (as the case may be) is to be granted.’
Single houses
[30] For comparison, I should mention also the provisions for single houses, which follow a different form, but were amended in 1993, 1996 and 2002. By s 9(1A) of the 1967 Act, the price payable is the open market value of the house, subject to the lease (but assuming no right to acquire the freehold). As already noted, the tenant’s overbid is not in terms excluded. However, specific provision is made for the allocation of ‘marriage value’ (s 9(1D), (1E)):
‘(1D) Where, in determining the price payable for a house and premises in accordance with this section, there falls to be taken into account any marriage value arising by virtue of the coalescence of the freehold and leasehold interests, the share of the marriage value to which the tenant is to be regarded as being entitled shall be one-half of it.
(1E) But where at the relevant time the unexpired term of the tenant’s tenancy exceeds eighty years, the marriage value shall be taken to be nil.’
The tribunal’s reasoning
[31] The tribunal accepted that in principle ‘hope value’, as defined by them, was identifiable as a separate ‘element of value’ capable of valuation as such:
‘We have identified the three elements of value in the landlord‘s interest that need to be considered - the right to receive the ground rent, the right to vacant possession at term, and the option of realising a share of the marriage value
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by an earlier sale to the tenant. Each of these elements has to be valued separately. The future income stream of the ground rent and the postponed realisation of vacant possession are such separate elements that their separate valuation is obviously appropriate. The right to vacant possession at term and the option of an earlier sale to the tenant are more closely linked, although they are distinct elements and are capable of separate valuation.’ (My emphasis ([2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 160 (para 50).)
[32] However, they determined that under the detailed provisions of Schs 6 and 13 hope value was excluded. Their reasoning started from their view of s 9(1) of the 1967 Act, as amended by the 1969 Act. The purpose of the amendment in their view was ‘to exclude any element of marriage value from the purchase price’. The exclusion of the tenant’s bid at the valuation date was to be regarded as applying ‘not only at the relevant time but also at any future time’. Otherwise it would have to be assumed that, although the tenant was not buying on the valuation date, ‘the purchaser could assume in accordance with the facts that he would wish to buy the next day’. The amendment to s 9(1) must be construed so as to achieve its undoubted purpose, and to exclude all hope value as well as marriage value (at 165–166 (paras 101–102)).
[33] In relation to extension of leases under the 1993 Act (Sch 13), the tribunal considered that the wording of para 3 excluding the tenant’s bid was ‘so manifestly derived from section 9(1) as amended’ that it was ‘inescapable’ that it should be given the same effect (at 166 (para 104)).
[34] Less categorically, they reached the same conclusion in relation to collective enfranchisement. They recognised that the words were not ‘well drawn’ to exclude the prospect of realising marriage value by the grant of extended leases to tenants, as opposed to sale of the freehold’s interest as such. However, they thought the intention of the words must be to the same effect as the similar words first used in the amendment of s 9(1) of the 1967 Act (at 166 (paras 105–106)).
[35] By contrast, they thought it clear that for higher value houses, in respect of which s 9(1A) of the 1967 Act followed the wording of the unamended s 9(1), the valuation in the open market should include the tenant’s bid (at 166 (para 103)).
The arguments in the appeal
[36] The tribunal’s reasoning is challenged by Mr Munro and Miss Jackson. Their arguments can I think, be summarised under three heads: (i) The tribunal has not applied the statutory wording; (ii) The decision produces unfair and capricious results; (iii) (Miss Jackson) The interpretation conflicts with that indicated by ministers to Parliament in 1993.
[37] There is, however, a significant difference in their respective positions in relation to collective enfranchisement. Mr Munro argues that ‘hope value’ is a permissible element in relation to the interests of both participating and non-participating tenants. Miss Jackson argues for hope value in respect only of non-participating tenants, in line with the distinction drawn between the two groups in the provisions relating to marriage value.
[38] The argument on the wording of the provisions is simple. The tribunal, it is said, should have concentrated on the wording of the material provisions themselves, rather than historical analysis. For lease extensions, Sch 13 requires
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the valuer to assume that the tenant is not in the market for the reversion on the valuation date, not that he will never seek a lease extension. For collective investments, the distortion of the statutory language (as the tribunal in effect recognised) is still greater. Schedule 6 requires the valuer to assume that neither the nominee purchaser nor any of the tenants is in the market for the whole of the landlord’s interest on the valuation date. It says nothing about, and does not exclude, the prospect of individual bids by lessees for lease extensions, at the valuation date or in the future.
[39] The result, it is said, is unfair to landlords. While the Schedule gives them a right to a share of the marriage value in respect of participating tenants, there is no such right in respect of non-participating tenants. The landlord’s hope of dealing with such tenants is a recognised element of the value of the reversion. There is no reason for Parliament to have wished to deprive a landlord of such value without compensation. The result is also capricious: (i) Where a tenant has served a notice under s 42, hope value is not excluded. From the landlord’s point of view, there is no logical reason for distinguishing between those participating tenants who have actually initiated claims for lease extensions, and those who are intending to but have not yet done so. (ii) Section 18 requires the disclosure of any agreements between the nominee purchaser and ‘a person other than a participating tenant’ of any agreements for the disposal of an interest in the property. This implies that, for example, an agreement between the nominee purchaser and a non-participating tenant for a future lease extension could be relevant in fixing the value. This would not be the case if the prospect of such an extension has to be disregarded.
[40] Finally Miss Jackson relies on statements in the House of Lords made by ministers, when the relevant parts of what became the 1993 Act were being debated in March and May 1993. For example, on 15 March (543 HL Official Report (5th series) col 1317) the minister, Lord Strathclyde, accepted (in response to a proposed amendment by Lord Boardman)—
‘that some element of the hope value, which is the expectation that new leases and other interests will be granted, should be taken into account when the freehold is valued. I understand that in valuation practice that is already calculated.’
[41] This position was reinforced in a series of exchanges in response to ‘probing amendments’ put forward by Lord Coleraine on 22 March and 18 May 1993. Lord Strathclyde accepted that ‘hope value’ or the ‘future potential for the granting of new leases or other interests’ was a legitimate part of the price payable, and that it would be ‘very unfair’ to landlords to exclude it. He summarised the position:
‘Marriage value, but not hope value, will be payable for the flats of participating tenants and hope value will be payable for the flats of non-participating tenants.’ (See 544 HL Official Report (5th series) col 42.)
[42] These arguments are answered by Mr Jourdan and Mr Jefferies by reference both to the history and to a detailed analysis of the provisions as they now stand.
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Conclusions on the hope value issue
[43] In my view the tribunal were correct in their conclusion that ‘hope value’ was not a permissible element in the valuations under Schs 6 or 13. However, I would express my reasoning somewhat differently.
[44] The starting point must be to identify what is in issue. For that we have the tribunal’s own definition of ‘hope value’. As the definition makes clear, and as appears to be common ground, hope value and marriage value are directly linked. Hope value represents no more than the anticipation of future marriage value. The scheme of the 1993 Act differs from its predecessors in that there is detailed provision for the definition and allocation of marriage value, as a separate element of the price payable to the landlord. The question is whether this leaves any scope for the separate inclusion of hope value.
‘Statutory marriage value’
[45] The tribunal’s understanding of hope value needs to be related to the various definitions of marriage value. It is to be noted from the statutory extracts set out above that in each of the three cases (collective enfranchisement, lease extension, and enfranchisement of single houses) ‘marriage value’ has a different definition, tailored to the nature of the particular transaction. Only in relation to single houses does it correspond directly to the ordinary understanding of marriage value (as in the passage from Hague, cited at [4], above) that is value arising from the coalescence of freehold and leasehold interests. In the other cases there is no ‘marriage’ in that sense; freehold and leaseholds continue as separate interests.
[46] However, by using the same term ‘marriage value’, the draftsman seems to be signalling that the underlying concept is the same. In each case the statute acknowledges the special value likely to be released for the lessee by the enlargement of his interest: whether by coalescence with the freehold, by control of the freehold (allowing for the grant of 999-year leases for no premium), or simply by adding a 90-year extension of the lease. It recognises that in the real world the respective shares of this special value would be a matter for negotiation between landlord and tenant. The purpose of the statute is to reduce uncertainty, by separately identifying this special value, and (since the 2002 Act) by fixing the landlord’s share at 50%, or excluding that element altogether for leases with 80 years to run.
[47] In relation to single houses, the draftsman seeks the same objective by a different route. The landlord’s share of marriage value is not a separate element to be added to market value determined under para 3. Rather the assumption is that it has already ‘fallen to be taken into account’ in fixing the price under s 9(1A). To the extent that it has resulted in an increase of the price, that increase is replaced by a 50% share of marriage value. The difference of approach appears to reflect the different historical treatment of higher value single houses. It only makes sense if the marriage value is being treated as the direct counterpart of the tenant’s overbid. In Schs 6 and 13 market value is defined under para 3 so as to exclude the tenant’s overbid; and a 50% share of marriage value is added under para 4. Under s 9(1A), historically, the tenant’s overbid was not excluded from market value, but under the 1993 Act it is stripped out and replaced by a 50% share of marriage value. It is notable that the approach bears a close resemblance to that adopted by the tribunal in Norfolk’s case [1976] 1 EGLR 215 under the unamended Act, on the basis of the valuation evidence of Mr Hopper. It seems
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likely that the draftsman of both the 1993 and 2002 Acts would have had that precedent in mind.
The issues in the present appeals
Lease extensions
[48] Turning to the present appeals, the position is clearest under Sch 13, in relation to lease extensions. The price is the aggregate of the value of the landlord’s interest and 50% of marriage value. In valuing his interest the tenant’s overbid is disregarded, but this is made up by giving him a fixed share of marriage value. To include a further element of hope value would involve double counting.
[49] Mr Munro objects that the exclusion of the tenant’s overbid, in para 3, is directed only at the present (the valuation date), not at the future. However, such a narrow interpretation leads to absurdity. On that view the market would disregard the prospect of a bid by the tenant himself on the valuation date, but not the prospect of exactly the same bid the following day. In my view, a purposive interpretation is required. The intention is to exclude the tenant’s overbid for all time, that element being properly reflected in the marriage value allowance. The words ‘the tenant . . . buying or seeking to buy’ in para 3(2) must be read as referring to the acquisition of any interest from the landlord, now or in the future. That seems to me the natural reading of the paragraph in context. It is also in line with the interpretation adopted by the tribunal in the first cases under the 1967 Act (at [16], above), which the draftsman would no doubt have had in mind.
Collective enfranchisement
[50] Under Sch 6, in relation to collective enfranchisement, the position is more complex, because of the various parties involved. However, the pattern of the provisions is similar to Sch 13, and one would expect the result to correspond. Mr Munro argues that under para 3 the only matter to be disregarded is a bid by the nominee purchaser or the tenants for the whole of the landlord’s interest, that is, the freehold, on the valuation date. It is true that there is no express exclusion of bids for lesser interests, such as lease extensions by individual tenants. However, again a narrow interpretation leads to absurdity. For example, on Mr Munro’s reading, the market would have to disregard the prospect of a bid by the tenants for the freehold, but not for a 999-year lease, which in valuation terms might be identical. Here again it is necessary to read the words ‘buying or seeking to buy’ in a purposive sense, as covering the prospect of acquisition by the nominee purchaser or individual tenants of any interests from the landlord, now or in the future.
[51] It is true that in this case, unlike Sch 13, there is no exact match between the exclusion of the tenants from the assumed market, under para 3, and the share of marriage value provided by para 4. All the tenants of the specified premises are excluded from the assumed market, but the landlord’s share of marriage value is limited to that arising from the interests of the participating tenants. In relation to non-participating tenants, there is no specific provision for a share of marriage value to be taken into account.
[52] As has been seen, this is a change from the 1993 Act as originally enacted. In that, there was a direct match between paras 3 and 4. Only the participating tenants were excluded from the assumed market. Potential bids for lease
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extensions from non-participating tenants were not excluded from open market value. This was in fact consistent with the position as described to Parliament by Lord Strathclyde: that marriage value was payable for flats of participating tenants and hope value for flats of non-participating tenants (see [41], above).
[53] The effect of the 1996 changes seems to have been to leave the position unchanged in respect of participating tenants, but to remove hope value for non-participating tenants. That must be taken as a matter of deliberate legislative policy. There is certainly no basis for the court to seek to redress the balance by bringing back hope value by a different interpretative route—whether generally, or (as Miss Jackson argues) only for non-participating tenants.
Possible anomalies
[54] I accept that there remain some problems, particularly in relation to the treatment of the interests of the non-participating tenants. It may seem unfair that, while the landlord is paid for marriage value in respect of the leases of participating tenants, he receives nothing for the prospective marriage value of the other leases, which the nominee purchaser is left free to exploit without having had to pay for it. Nor is it obvious why a specific exception was made only for the interests of non-participating tenants who have served s 42 notices. The answer may simply be the wish to limit uncertainty. Hope value in respect of the interests of tenants who have neither participated in the collective enfranchisement, nor actively sought a lease extension, may have been thought so speculative that it could be disregarded without injustice.
[55] As Mr Jefferies points out, the potential unfairness is not necessarily all one way. There is an apparent anomaly in the respective treatment of tenants’ improvements in para 3(1)(c) of Sch 6, as compared to the corresponding provision in Sch 13. As has been seen, in fixing the price payable by the nominee purchaser, increased value attributable to improvements made by the participating tenants is disregarded; but value attributable to improvements by non-participating tenants is taken into account. Yet, if and when the nominee purchaser comes to negotiate subsequent lease extensions with the same tenants, it will be unable to recoup that value, because the value of the improvements is specifically excluded.
[56] It is also difficult to explain fully the legislative intentions in respect of the disclosure of agreements under s 18. The requirement to disclose agreements involving non-participating tenants seems to have little purpose if the additional value reflected in such agreements has no effect on the price payable to the landlord. It would have had more relevance in the 1993 Act in its original form, in which hope value in respect of non-participating tenants was a material factor. However, the section is not confined to agreements with tenants. The fact that an ancillary provision of this kind may now be of limited relevance in relation to part of its original scope is not in my view a reason to alter my view of the substantive provisions.
Hansard
[57] The landlords’ arguments in this respect are not assisted by Miss Jackson’s references to Hansard, even assuming them to be admissible under Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593, as explained in R v Secretary of State, ex p Spath Holme Ltd [2001] 1 All ER 195, [2001] 2 AC 349. The amendments made in 1996 and 2002 have materially altered the context in which the relevant provisions have to be read. As I have said, the attention given to the
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concept of hope value in the debates is readily understandable under the Bill in its then form, at least in respect of non-participating tenants. It does not follow that the same statements can be applied to the Act in its amended form. The statement of Lord Strathclyde (quoted at [41], above) is of interest, since it emphasises the direct relationship between marriage value and hope value, and the need to avoid double counting. (As it was engagingly put in the course of argument: ‘where there is marriage there can be no hope’.)
Single houses
[58] Although there is no appeal before us in respect of hope value under s 9(1A), it will be apparent that I have also reached a clear view on this issue, at least on the basis of the arguments we have heard. In simple terms, the tribunal in the present case erred by having regard only to the exclusion of the tenant’s overbid under s 9(1A), and ignoring the context of the section as a whole, including the specific provision for allocation of marriage value. As Mr Walker aptly put it (in his written submissions) there is no reason for the landlord to be paid ‘both for the hope and its fulfilment’ in the same transaction.
[59] This is in line with the revised view of the tribunal, as expressed in Pitts’s case [2007] 42 EG 296. I think it right to indicate our view, since it is likely to be of relevance to cases before the LVTs, now and in the future. I see no prejudice to the parties to the appeals in that case, since they have had the opportunity to put their submissions in writing, and Cadogan has been represented before us. Although Cadogan has permission to appeal, it will no doubt wish to reconsider its position in the light of this judgment.
THE DEFERMENT RATE ISSUE
The issue in the tribunal
[60] I turn to the second preliminary issue, which must be seen in its historical context. This was explained by the tribunal:
‘For thirty or more years after the passing of the 1967 Act valuers dealing with leasehold enfranchisements agreed a deferment rate of 6% within the prime central London area (PCL). Somewhat higher rates were adopted in less high quality areas. In about 2003, however, freeholders in the PCL area began to question why, when yields on all other investments had been falling, the deferment rate should be assumed to be static. In Cadogan Holdings Ltd v Pockney (LRA/27/2003, 19 May 2004) the Tribunal (N J Rose FRICS) held that a deferment rate of 5·25% in respect of a house in the PCL area was not too low and applied this rate in the valuation. Following this a number of decisions by leasehold valuation tribunals became the subject of appeal to the Lands Tribunal on the deferment rate issue, and the Tribunal decided to hear together a number of these.’ (See [2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 154 (para 3).)
[61] In Arbib v Earl Cadogan [2005] 3 EGLR 139, the tribunal (Judge Michael Rich QC and PH Clarke FRICS) considered together five cases. Having heard valuation and financial evidence, they rejected the established rate of 6%, and determined instead a rate for the PCL area of 4·5% for houses and 4·75% for flats. I return to the tribunal’s account (at 154):
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‘5. By the time that the decision in Arbib was published there were appeals outstanding in a number of cases where the LVTs had followed the established rate which the Tribunal in Arbib had held to be wrong. The decision, however, left room for further evidence and argument as to what other figure was right. In those circumstances the Tribunal sought to collect up such further cases for hearing together, on the issue of the appropriate deferment rate. This, however, proved more difficult than might have been hoped from the point of view of the Tribunal‘s providing further guidance on the issue, having heard evidence which filled the gaps upon which it had commented in Arbib. A number of the outstanding appeals included other issues which were, in some cases, of greater importance to the parties than the deferment rate. In general, respondents who were concerned with the enfranchisement of a single dwelling were unwilling to incur heavy costs in opposing appeals by freeholders who had more extensive interests, and several appeals were settled.’
[62] It was against this background that the tribunal on 22 February 2006 directed the determination, as a preliminary issue of, ‘the proper deferment rate to be applied to vacant possession value’. Consistently with the importance which they attached to the case, a three-member tribunal was convened, presided over by the President (George Bartlett), sitting with Michael Rich QC (who had sat in Arbib’s case) and PR Francis FRICS. The tribunal heard evidence and argument over a period of eleven days. In the result they increased slightly the deferment rate as determined in Arbib’s case, to 4·75% for houses and for 5% for flats.
The tribunal’s reasoning
Methodology
[63] The tribunal had the assistance of an impressive array of financial and valuation experts, called by the main parties:
Financial experts
Cadogan Mr Clokey (PricewaterhouseCoopers LLP)
de Walden Mr Dumas (Lombard Street Research)
Grandeden Professor Lizieri (University of Reading Business School)
Maybury Mr Francis (Frontier Economics Ltd)
Valuation experts
Cadogan Mr Clark (Gerald Eve); Mr Cullum (Cluttons)
de Walden Mr Clark
Grandeden Mr Orr-Ewing (Knight Frank)
Maybury Mr Beckett (Beckett and Kay LLP).
[64] By way of introduction to the discussion I quote Mr Cullum’s comments on the nature of the task facing the valuers, which I found illuminating:
‘I am providing my view about what would happen in a hypothetical market; it is a market which has not existed at all (in terms conformable to the Act) for thirteen years. Indeed, for several years before that the market was under the threat of the Act and was already being distorted by anticipation of the legislation. Even before that the market was different
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from the hypothetical market I am to envisage today. Throughout the 1960’s, 1970’s and 1980’s the entire residential sector was regarded with great suspicion because of the Rent Acts. The hypothetical market today is one in which there is a political consensus against the Rent Act philosophy and so this hypothetical market will be operating with a degree of confidence which I have never experienced in a no Act world and neither will any of the other experts. At the youngest, one would have to be in one’s late 60’s or 70’s to have had actual experience of the hypothetical market I am to envisage.’
[65] In other words, the statute requires the landlord’s interest to be valued in an assumed open market, for which in the real world, as a result of statutory interventions, there is no counterpart.
[66] Not surprisingly, in such circumstances, the methods adopted by the experts varied considerably, as did their proposed deferment rates (ranging from 3·2% to 7%: [2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 156 (para 17), 158 (para 31)). The tribunal summarised the four principal methods used by the experts to arrive at a deferment rate (at 161 (para 54)):
‘(a) A form of financial valuation known as CAPM. This was the method used by three of the financial experts, Mr Clokey, Mr Francis and Professor Lizieri. It can be expressed by the basic formula DR = RFR – RGR + RP (deferment rate equals risk-free rate minus real growth rate plus risk premium). CAPM assesses RP by applying to the equity market risk premium (EMRP) (the addition for risk that an investor in equities generally would make) a factor, known as beta, that reflects the comparative riskiness of the particular investment under consideration. This would normally be an individual company, but here has to be long-term residential reversions as a whole.
(b) Determination by reference to rack rental yields. This was the method adopted by one of the financial experts, Mr Dumas.
(c) Derivation from an analysis of market sales of long-term residential reversions. This was the method as adopted by one of the valuer witnesses, Mr Beckett.
(d) As in (a) above, but, instead of reaching RP by the application of beta to EMRP, making an independent assessment of what the RP should be. This was the method adopted by this Tribunal in Arbib, and it was the method followed by the other valuer witnesses, Mr Cullum, Mr Clark and Mr Orr-Ewing, and Professor Lizieri used this as an alternative method.’
[67] The tribunal concluded that the first three methods all had ‘deficiencies that render them inappropriate for use’, and they preferred method (d). Applying that approach they arrived at the following: (i) risk free rate: 2·25%; less (ii) real growth rate: 2%; plus (iii) risk premium: (for houses) 4·5%; (for flats) 4·75%; resulting in (iv) deferment rate: (for houses) 4·75%, (for flats) 5%. (The higher rate for flats was intended to reflect ‘the greater management problems associated with flats’ (at 165 (para 95)).)
[68] Although the only issue raised by the appeal relates to the rejection of method (c) (market evidence), it is necessary also to understand the thinking
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behind the adoption of method (d). The tribunal had earlier summarised their general view of the investment under consideration (at 160 (para 52)):
‘The nature of the investment being assumed may be analysed thus: the value of the asset consists of its prospect of appreciation; it will appreciate through the lapse of time as the term date gets nearer (inherent growth); if, however, the vacant possession value of the property increases in real terms, the reversion will appreciate through real growth in the same way as the property in possession. On the other hand, set against the relatively secure long-term nature of the investment that the asset represents are the risks and disadvantages that are associated with it. There is volatility in the market in residential property, and there are prolonged periods of downturn. The property is illiquid in the sense that any sale will take time to achieve. While it is a tradeable asset, therefore, the reversion is subject to the risk that a sale may only be achievable after a delay and at a time when the market is low. It is an asset also that may become obsolescent and deteriorate physically.’
[69] Both methods (a) and (d) required the tribunal to arrive at a ‘risk premium’ to reflect the ‘comparative riskiness’ of an investment in long-term residential reversions, as compared to the equity market. Under the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) (method (a)) this would be arrived at by application of a factor beta, representing the volatility of the relevant investment as compared with the market generally. Choice of beta proved the main area of disagreement between the experts, attributable, in the tribunal’s view, to the inherent difficulty of comparing unlike investments, a problem also noted in Arbib’s case. The tribunal said (at 161 (para 58)):
‘It is in our judgment as impossible to arrive at an appropriate deferment rate for freehold reversions by seeking to assess the risk premium attaching to companies whose business includes some dealing in such reversions as compared with the equity market as a whole as it proved to be for the Tribunal in Arbib to draw conclusions from the price of a “financial product”.’
[70] They accordingly rejected reliance on the CAPM, in favour of method (d), observing (at 161 (para 59)) that—
‘Adjusting the EMRP to reach a risk premium appropriate to residential reversions lies at the interface between the expertise of the financial experts and the valuers . . .’
[71] Under method (d), it was necessary (at 163 (para 75))—
‘to assess the risk premium by a consideration of the individual components of the risks of investment in long reversions (volatility, illiquidity, deterioration and obsolescence) and to form an overall assessment of the premium that would be required by investors in the type of asset that we have to consider . . .'
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[72] In considering these factors, the tribunal preferred the evidence of Professor Lizieri (for Grandeden) to that of the landlords’ witnesses, which they thought ‘substantially underestimated the risks’. They had earlier summarised Professor Lizieri’s evidence, in which he had explained his approach to assessing the risk premium and concluded (at 157 (para 22)) that—
‘offsetting the extra volatility of equities against property‘s relative illiquidity and some additional allowance for the possibility of physical and functional depreciation . . . an appropriate risk premium would fall in a range of 4% to 5%, and that 4·5% was appropriate.'
[73] The tribunal commented (at 163 (para 77)):
‘We agree with Professor Lizieri that, since real house prices are shown to be prone to shocks and to be strongly cyclical, with persistent periods of negative growth, an investor in a long-term reversion would be very conscious of the risk that the market could be depressed at the point at which he wished to sell his interest, even though, as compared with equities, the residential property market is rather less volatile. Reversions would suffer in comparison with equities from illiquidity resulting from high transaction costs and the length of time to complete a transaction, and the latter factor would, we think, be perceived as adding substantially to the risk associated with volatility.'
[74] Having considered the various ‘investment comparators’ discussed in evidence (‘long gilts, equities, individual property companies and the Act-world market in reversions’), they concluded on ‘the totality of the evidence’ and in general agreement with Professor Lizieri that the risk premium should be 4·5% (at 163 (para 79)).
Market evidence
[75] Against this background, I turn to their treatment of the market evidence, which is in issue in the appeal. It is notable that, among the experts, this was adopted only by Mr Beckett, for Maybury. The other tenant body, Grandeden, through Mr Orr-Ewing and Professor Lizieri, had supported method (d) (although Mr Orr-Ewing also described Mr Beckett’s methodology as ‘basically sound’: at 159 (para 43)); and Professor Lizieri’s overall approach was closest to that eventually adopted by the tribunal.
[76] In Arbib’s case the then tribunal had noted the experts’ failure to identify and agree useful comparables, and had concluded that no assistance was to be gained from market evidence. Mr Beckett had not accepted this conclusion (at 160):
‘45. He therefore set about collecting and presenting evidence from auctions of reversions, which, of course, he accepted had been transactions in the real world rather than upon the assumptions required to be made by the Act, but which he proposed with some caveats to apply directly to the ascertainment of a deferment rate, which he placed in the range of 5·5% to 7·0% . . .
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47. Mr Beckett examined altogether some 200 transactions concerning sales of freehold reversions of flats and houses, including some mixed commercial properties, mostly at auctions, which took place between 2000 and 2004. He found the data available to him in 38 of them useable to derive deferment rates in the real world, in that he had information as to the leasehold interests and the prices paid, and was able to estimate a vacant possession value, from which a deferment rate could be calculated. He capitalised the ground rent in each case at 10%, in order to avoid understating the influence of the income stream, and he chose to use only transactions where the rental income was unlikely to have been the main driver of the transaction.
48. Discussing how the hope of marriage value interacted with the deferment rate, Mr Beckett concluded that it could be usefully subsumed in the deferment rate, its contribution to it being, he tentatively thought, 1%, meaning that, if it had to be totally excluded for the purposes of this decision, his figure for deferment would become 7·25%. If the hope value was separated out, at 1% it became approximately 20% of marriage value . . .’
[77] The tribunal rejected some of the criticisms of Mr Beckett’s approach; they were satisfied (at 162 (para 64))—
‘that the material is sufficient to establish the range of relativities in the with-Act world between vacant possession freehold values and the prices in fact paid for reversions of different lengths.’
[78] However, this was not sufficient for them to regard the evidence as of value in setting the deferment rate because the market in the real world is ‘substantially different from the one to be envisaged in the hypothetical no-Act world’ (at 162 (para 64)). They expanded (at 162 (paras 65–67)) on their reasons for rejecting the market evidence. In summary, they had three reasons: (i) That the real world market was fundamentally different from that to be assumed under the Act, because it was driven, not by the perception of the value of a secure long-term investment, but by the expectation of profit through the early realisation of marriage value. (ii) That prices in the real world were influenced by the expectations of purchasers about what an LVT might later determine to be the enfranchisement price under the Acts. (iii) That the real-world prices included hope value, which they had determined should be excluded from valuations under the Act.
The arguments in the appeal
[79] Mr Jourdan, for Maybury, starts by emphasising, rightly, the importance normally attached to comparable land market evidence (see eg Gallagher Estates Ltd v Walker (1973) 28 P&CR 113 at 117, 120–22; Curtis v London Rent Assessment Committee [1997] 4 All ER 842 at 863–864, [1999] QB 92 at 115–117). Credible market evidence, such as Mr Beckett’s was found to be, should not have been rejected altogether, particularly where the alternative method, relying on assessment of the risk premium, was ‘little more than guesswork’.
[80] He characterises the tribunal’s first and third reasons as in substance the same, depending on the effect of hope value as the prime factor driving the real world market. Rather than disregarding the market evidence altogether, it would
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have been possible (on the evidence of both sides) to have ‘stripped out’ the hope value element to arrive at a deferment rate without hope value. In any event the approach was irrational. If the same freeholds had been sold without hope value, then the prices would inevitably have been much lower, and the deferment rate higher. It was irrational to adopt a methodology which led to a freehold value without hope value substantially higher than that paid in the market for freeholds with hope value. Furthermore, the tribunal’s own findings negated the view (advanced on behalf of the landlords) that the market for long-term residential investments was different in kind from the real world market. They had rejected Mr Cullum’s assumption of an exclusive market of ‘pension funds and the great estates’ ([2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 163 (para 76)).
[81] Mr Jourdan criticises the tribunal’s second reason as unsound, both on the evidence and as a matter of law. It was inherently improbable that purchasers would anticipate LVT valuations. In any event, the Act did not require the real world to be ignored altogether, but merely the effect of the statutory rights to enfranchise.
[82] In conclusion Mr Jourdan helpfully summarises his submissions in two questions: (i) ‘As in [Curtis v London Rent Assessment Committee] did the tribunal err by failing to use the best evidence?’ (ii) ‘Was it rational for the tribunal to hold that the freehold reversion on a no-Act building with no prospect of doing deals with the tenants would sell for a substantially higher price (nearly double) than the freehold reversion on a subject-to-Act building where there is a good prospect of doing deals with the tenants?’
[83] Mr Munro and Miss Jackson support the tribunal’s reasons for rejecting the market evidence. Miss Jackson goes further, in a respondent’s notice, which challenges the tribunal’s limited acceptance of the reliability of the evidence within its own terms. For the reasons which follow it is unnecessary to consider that aspect.
Conclusion on deferment rate issue
[84] As he acknowledges, Mr Jourdan can only succeed on this issue if he can establish an error of law in the tribunal’s reasoning. This would include irrationality, or failure to have regard to a material issue (see Railtrack plc v Guinness Ltd [2003] EWCA Civ 188 at [4], [2003] 1 EGLR 124 at [4]). His two questions seem to me to come down to a single point. I accept that, if there had been useful market evidence before the tribunal, they would have been wrong in law to ignore it. However, if they were rationally satisfied that the evidence was of no practical assistance, nothing in law or common sense required them to take it into account. The only issue therefore is whether that was a rational conclusion.
[85] The tribunal’s second and third reasons seem to me subsidiary to the first. Without going into the merits of Mr Jourdan’s principal criticisms of the second reason, it is enough to note the tribunal’s observation that the evidence was no more than ‘weakly suggestive’ of a link between LVT decisions and transactions ([2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 162 (para 66)). I agree also that the third reason adds little to the first. If the only material issue was the need to exclude hope value, some appropriate adjustment might have been considered, rather than excluding the evidence altogether.
[86] The key to the tribunal’s reasoning, as I read it, lies in the first reason, which they expanded in para 65 (at 162):
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‘For the purpose of determining the deferment rate we have to consider a reversion that can be held until the end of the lease and can be sold at any time with this potential. Its attraction, therefore, is as a secure long-term investment, and its value consists entirely in the vacant possession value to be realised at the end of the lease. In the real world, by contrast, vendor and purchaser know that, because of the Acts, the reversioner can have no expectation that he will be able to retain the reversion until the end of the lease. Indeed the likelihood is that it will be enfranchised at some point, possibly at an early date. What drives the market, in consequence, is not the perception of the value of a secure long-term investment but the expectation of profit through the early realisation of marriage value. We consider that these differences are so fundamental as to mean that the market evidence cannot be used as the basis for calculating the deferment rate. This was the view that the Tribunal took in Arbib, and it is one that in our own minds is confirmed now that we have had the benefit of Mr Beckett’s outstandingly thought-provoking evidence.’
[87] Mr Jourdan does not, I think, challenge the tribunal’s conclusion that the assumed market was substantially different from the real market, mainly because of the longer term nature of the landlord’s security. Once that is accepted, the degree of difference, and its relevance to the valuation, must be a matter of judgment for the tribunal. The apparent paradox implied by Mr Jourdan’s second question proves nothing. The comparison is only surprising if one assumes a direct relationship between the no-Act and subject-to-Act valuations. Unless the comparison is of like with like, the degree of difference cannot of itself show irrationality.
[88] The tribunal’s position would of course have been clearer and simpler if they had rejected Mr Beckett’s evidence altogether, as Miss Jackson says they should have done. Instead they gave it very careful attention, and regarded it as making a useful contribution to the discussion. They also acknowledged the argument that it could at least provide a starting point, but they dismissed it (at 162 (para 67)):
‘Notionally, of course, the prospect of early profit ought to enhance the price paid for the reversion, so that, as Mr Beckett claimed, the factor calculated from such market evidence should provide a minimum figure for a deferment rate for the purpose of a valuation under the Acts. But in our judgment Mr Beckett’s calculation is not only rendered unreliable, because it is not the same thing that is being calculated, but it is inevitably distorted as a result.'
[89] Irrationality sets a high hurdle. This is not a case where the tribunal were indulging in a frolic of their own without regard to the weight of the evidence. Their general approach was in line with that of the majority of the experts, and very close to that of Professor Lizieri, an acknowledged expert in the field, who gave evidence on behalf of the other group of tenants. It was Mr Beckett who was somewhat isolated. This does not of course mean that he was wrong. But it makes it very difficult to hold that the alternative view was so wrong as to be irrational.
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[90] Accordingly, attractively and forcefully as Mr Jourdan has argued his case, I remain unpersuaded that he has established such an error of law. I would dismiss this appeal also.
THE PRECEDENT EFFECT OF THE TRIBUNAL‘S DECISION
[91] Finally I should comment on the tribunal’s guidance on the future effect of its decision as a precedent for LVTs. This is not strictly an issue in the appeal, since it does not affect the result in the instant cases. However, Mr Jourdan has criticised the tribunal as going beyond its proper role:
‘The tribunal took the unprecedented step of stating that its decision, on a factual valuation issue, must be followed by all LVTs in subsequent cases unless there are shown to be particular features warranting a departure from it . . . This was a fundamental misconception of the role of the Lands Tribunal and the status of its decisions. It may well have influenced the tribunal’s decision to reject the land market evidence, as a decision based on land market evidence would have rendered the prescription of a deferment rate impossible . . . The decision, which LVTs all over the country will feel bound to follow, is at odds with the basis on which enfranchisement prices outside PCL have been arrived at in the past. If the decision stands then it will effect a massive nationwide shift of the value in residential property away from tenants to landlords.’
[92] In my view these criticisms are unjustified at least as far as concerns future decisions within the PCL. I agree that some qualification is needed in respect of future decisions outside that area.
Within the PCL
[93] The tribunal invited LVTs to adopt the deferment rates determined by them in the absence of compelling evidence to the contrary. They explained (at 168 (para 121)):
‘This is justified because, as we have explained above, the deferment rate is unlikely to vary according to factors particular to the individual case. Some factors, including in particular the prospect of long-term growth, will not vary from case to case, while other factors, such as location and obsolescence, will already be reflected in the vacant possession value. Hope value would be a factor that could lead to different deferment rates for different lengths of term if it was not reflected elsewhere in the valuation; but we have concluded that hope value is excluded as a matter of law. The case for adopting a single deferment rate (with a standard adjustment for flats) for all reversions in excess of 20 years is thus, in our view, strong. Indeed we think that statutory prescription could well be appropriate and could usefully give a greater certainty to the market than a decision of the Lands Tribunal setting a guideline is capable of doing.’
[94] They added that the stability was necessary to the concept of a guideline, and that accordingly (at 168):
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‘122 . . . In our judgment the deferment rate may be treated as stable over time unless a trend movement in the risk-free rate can be identified or it can be established that the long term prospects of growth in residential property have changed or that, for some other reason, the attraction of investment in residential reversions can be shown to have increased or diminished.
123. The application of the deferment rate of 5% for flats and 4·75% for houses that we have found to be generally applicable will need to be considered in relation to the facts of each individual case. Before applying a rate that is different from this, however, a valuer or an LVT should be satisfied that there are particular features that fall outside the matters that are reflected in the vacant possession value of the house or flat or in the deferment rate itself and can be shown to make a departure from the rate appropriate.’
[95] They likened the task of determining a ‘guideline’ deferment rate to that of the courts in determining a discount rate in the context of damages for personal injury (before the rate was statutorily prescribed by the Damages (Personal Injury) Order 2001, SI 2001/2301). This was explained in Wright v British Railways Board [1983] 2 All ER 698, [1983] 2 AC 773 (followed in Wells v Wells [1998] 3 All ER 481, [1999] 1 AC 345), in which Lord Diplock said:
‘A guideline as to quantum of conventional damages or conventional interest thereon is not a rule of law nor is it a rule of practice. It sets no binding precedent; it can be varied as circumstances change or experience shows that it does not assist in the achievement of even-handed justice or that it makes trials more lengthy or expensive or settlements more difficult to reach. But, though guidelines should be altered if circumstances relevant to the particular guideline change, too frequent alteration deprives them of their usefulness in providing a reasonable degree of predictability in the litigious process and so facilitating settlement of claims without going to trial . . . [T]he guideline, if it is to serve its purpose in promoting predictability and so facilitating settlements and eliminating the expense of regularly calling expert economic evidence at trials of personal injury actions, should continue to be followed for the time being . . .’ (See [1983] 2 All ER 698 at 705–706, [1983] 2 AC 773 at 785.)
[96] In the past this approach has not been expressly applied to the role of the Lands Tribunal. The tribunal noted a comparable issue which arose in 1984, concerning the ‘decapitalisation rate’ for rating assessments made on the ‘contractor’s basis’. In Imperial College of Science and Technology v Ebdon (Valuation Officer) and Westminster City Council [1984] RA 213, the Lands Tribunal (CR Mallett FRICS) heard expert evidence from economists and valuers over 18 days in order to arrive at a rate of 3%. Although this was upheld in the Court of Appeal, Glidewell LJ emphasised that it was not to be taken as determining that 3% is necessarily the correct rate to be applied to all similar cases:
‘Each case depends upon its particular facts and the evidence called. My judgment is that the facts established and the opinion evidence called
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justified the Lands Tribunal’s decision in this case.’ (See [1986] RA 233 at 242.)
[97] Since that time the role of specialist appeal tribunals in providing guidance on factual as well as legal matters has become more clearly recognised. A comparable example, from a very different field of law, is found in the practice of the former Immigration Appeals Tribunal (IAT) (and its successor) of identifying suitable cases to provide authoritative guidance on conditions in particular countries (‘country guidance cases’) for use in asylum appeals. The status of such guidance was described by Laws LJ in S v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2002] EWCA Civ 539 at [28], [2002] INLR 416 at [28]:
‘While in our general law this notion of a factual precedent is exotic, in the context of the IAT’s responsibilities it seems to us, in principle, to be benign and practical. Refugee claims vis-à-vis any particular State are inevitably made against a political backdrop which over a period of time, however long or short, is, if not constant, at any rate identifiable. Of course the impact of the prevailing political reality may vary as between one claimant and another, and it is always the appellate authorities’ duty to examine the facts of individual cases. But there is no public interest, nor any legitimate individual interest, in multiple examinations of the state of the backdrop at any particular time. Such revisits give rise to the risk, perhaps the likelihood, of inconsistent results; and the likelihood, perhaps the certainty, of repeated and, therefore, wasted expenditure of judicial and financial resources upon the same issues and the same evidence.’
[98] Although the present context is very different, there is an equal public interest in avoiding wasted expenditure, and the risk of inconsistent results, in successive LVT appeals on an issue such as that of deferment rates. The tribunal could hardly have done more to ensure that the issues were fully ventilated and exhaustively examined. They had already been discussed in detail in Arbib’s case [2005] 3 EGLR 139. I have already referred to the steps taken by the tribunal to bring together the present group of cases. Furthermore it is difficult to envisage a better qualified panel of experts for the purpose than those called in this case, or of specialist counsel on both sides of the argument.
[99] I agree with the tribunal that an important part of its role is to promote consistent practice in land valuation matters. It was entirely appropriate for the tribunal to offer guidance as they have done in this case, and, unless and until the legislature intervenes, to expect LVTs to follow generally that lead. Mr Munro invited us to go further, and to consider the status of Lands Tribunal decisions respectively on issues of law, valuation and fact. However, I bear in mind that under the Tribunals, Courts and Enforcement Act 2007, the jurisdiction of the Lands Tribunal is likely in the near future to be subsumed into that of the new Upper Tribunal, which will be a ‘superior court of record’ under the Act. It will be principally for the new tribunal to lay down guidelines as to the precedent effect of its decisions for different purposes.
Outside the PCL
[100] The cases before the tribunals related entirely to properties within the PCL, and the evidence was directed principally to the market within that area. It
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seems that the tribunal of its own motion invited the experts to say whether the deferment rate would vary with location ([2007] 1 EGLR 153 at 164 (para 86)). A variety of views was offered. For example Mr Dumas and Professor Lizieri thought there would be no variation ‘since the compounding effects of different growth rates would eventually lead to differences in value that were unsustainable and would accordingly correct themselves’. On the other hand, Mr Clark accepted that different deferment rates might apply in different locations in London and in other parts of the country ‘having regard to local prospect for growth and local factors affecting risk’. Both Mr Orr-Ewing and Mr Beckett thought that location would make a difference, but could not provide evidence or ‘statistical justification’ for such differences (at 164 (paras 86–87)).
[101] The tribunal concluded (at 164 (para 88)):
‘While we accept the view of the valuers that the deferment rate could require adjustment for location, on the evidence before us we see no justification for making any adjustment to reflect regional or local considerations either generally or in relation to the particular cases before us. The evidence of the financial experts suggests that no adjustment to the real growth rate is appropriate given the long-term basis of the deferment rate, and locational differences of a local nature are, in the absence of clear evidence suggesting otherwise, to be assumed to be properly reflected in the freehold vacant possession value.’ (My emphasis.)
[102] The tribunal’s later comments on the significance of their guidance do not distinguish in terms between the PCL area and other parts of London or the country. However, there must in my view be an implicit distinction. The issues within the PCL were fully examined in a fully contested dispute between directly interested parties. The same cannot be said in respect of other areas. The judgment that the same deferment rate should apply outside the PCL area was made, and could only be made, on the evidence then available. That must leave the way open to the possibility of further evidence being called by other parties in other cases directly concerned with different areas. The deferment rate adopted by the tribunal will no doubt be the starting point; and their conclusions on the methodology, including the limitations of market evidence, are likely to remain valid. However, it is possible to envisage other evidence being called, for example, on issues relevant to the risk premium for residential property in different areas. That will be a matter for those advising future parties, and for the tribunals, to consider as such issues arise.
CONCLUSION
[103] For the reasons given above I would dismiss the appeals, in respect of both the hope value and deferment rate issues. There also remains outstanding an application for permission by Cadogan to cross-appeal on the deferment rate issue, which was adjourned pending this decision. As I indicated when dealing with that application in open court, I was minded to refuse the application, but was willing to defer a final decision until now. The purpose was to allow for the possibility of arguments about the scope of the issues which might be reopened, if we were to allow the appeal on the deferment rate issue, and remit the matter to the tribunal. In the event that contingency has not arisen, I would accordingly simply dismiss Cadogan’s application.
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SIR PETER GIBSON.
[104] I agree.
WARD LJ.
[105] I also agree.
Appeals dismissed.
Vanessa Higgins Barrister.
18 February 2008. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords refused leave to appeal.
Devenish Nutrition Ltd and others v Sanofi-Aventis SA (France) and others
[2008] 2 All ER 249
[2007] EWHC 2394 (Ch)
Categories: COMPETITION: EUROPEAN COMMUNITY; Competition Policy
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): LEWISON J
Hearing Date(s): 2–4, 19 OCTOBER 2007
European Community – Rules on competition – Agreements preventing, restricting or distorting competition – Fine imposed for infringement – Follow on proceedings – Damages – Commission imposing fine in respect of vitamin cartel – Claimants seeking exemplary and restitutionary damages in follow on proceedings – Principle of non bis in idem – Double jeopardy – Multiple claimants – Whether fine and exemplary damages serving same aim of punishment and deterrence – Whether Community law precluding national court taking decision running counter to decision adopted by Commission – Whether restitutionary damages available in antitrust cases – EC Treaty, art 81 EC – Council Regulation (EC) 1/2003, art 16.
The European Commission adopted a decision that found certain vitamin manufacturers, including the defendants, had entered into worldwide cartels in respect of various vitamins in breach of the prohibition of such arrangements contained in art 81 ECa and imposed fines in varying amounts upon those manufacturers. The fine imposed on one manufacturer was commuted due to its activities as ‘whistleblower’ by application of a leniency notice. The claimants, who were vitamin purchasers, brought ‘follow on’ proceedings claiming compensation for damage suffered as a result of the unlawful cartels. The master ordered trial of the preliminary issue whether the claimants would be entitled to all or any of the relief claimed, including, inter alia, exemplary or punitive damages (additional to compensation for a victim’s loss) and restitutionary damages (assessed by reference to the wrongdoer’s gain rather than the victim’s loss). The defendants submitted, inter alia, that an award of exemplary damages was precluded by the principle of double jeopardy both at common law and at Community law under the principle of non bis in idem and pursuant to Council Regulation (EC) 1/2003 (the modernisation regulation). Article 16b of the regulation provided, inter alia, that when competition authorities of the member states ruled on agreements, decisions or practices under art 81 EC which were already the subject of a Commission decision, they could not take decisions which would run counter to the decision adopted by the Commission. It was common ground, for the purposes of the trial of preliminary issues, that the claimants were entitled to compensatory damages.
Held – (1) Community rules precluded the award of exemplary damages in the instant case. The principle of non bis in idem precluded the award of exemplary damages in a case in which the defendants had already been fined (or had fines imposed and then reduced or commuted) by the European Commission. That principle prohibited the same person from being sanctioned more than once for
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the same unlawful conduct in order to protect one and the same legal interest and was subject to three cumulative conditions: the identity of the facts, the unity of offender and the unity of legal interest protected. In the present case, the Commission’s finding of a deliberate and conscious breach for the participants’ financial gain was a sufficient finding and accordingly there was identity of facts; the particulars of claim specifically alleged that all defendants were bound by the decision, and therefore there was identity of persons; and in antitrust cases the imposition of fines and an award of exemplary damages served the same aim, namely to punish and deter anti-competitive behaviour. Further, the application of the leniency notice served the important policy aim that it was of even more importance to encourage whistleblowers than to punish participants in a cartel, a policy which the national court should not undermine by an award of exemplary damages. Moreover, the Commission had decided on the adequacy of punitive measures that should be taken against the defendants as a result of their participation in the vitamin cartels. If the national court awarded exemplary damages that could only be because the national court had concluded that the fines imposed by the Commission (including those fines that had been reduced or commuted) were insufficient to punish and deter, a decision which would ‘run counter’ to the decision adopted by the Commission, contrary to the modernisation regulation (see [45]–[49], [52], [53], [55], [56], below); Kuddus v Chief Constable of Leicestershire Constabulary [2001] 3 All ER 193 and Archer Daniels Midland Co v European Commission [2006] 5 CMLR 28 considered.
(2) With regard to domestic law, the fact that a defendant had been fined for his conduct was a powerful factor against the award of exemplary damages, although it might not be conclusive in itself. So far as financial remedies were concerned, the principle of double jeopardy was good to the extent that there should be no practical danger of double counting or duplication of penalty, and that danger was particularly acute where a defendant had already been fined. Whilst the mere fact that there were multiple claimants was no an absolute bar to an award of exemplary damages, in the circumstances there might be no practical utility in the claim for exemplary damages and in a case where the discretionary remedy of exemplary damages was invoked in aid of rights arising under the EC Treaty, the court should be wary of granting a remedy which was potentially unavailable in most member states. In the instant case, there was no way of limiting the exemplary damages to avoid the danger of double counting, there was the problem of assessing the damages, and the fact that the claimants were only part of the class affected by the wrongful conduct, as well as the scale of fines imposed by the European Commission. Accordingly the claimants were not entitled to exemplary damages (see [62]–[64], [68], [69], [74], below); R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd [1997] Eu LR 475 and Borders (UK) Ltd v Metropolitan Police Comr [2005] EWCA Civ 197, [2005] All ER (D) 60 (Mar) considered.
(3) A restitutionary award was not an available remedy in the instant case. It was not available in all cases of tort and not, in particular, in an antitrust case. Even where a restitutionary award was available it was generally awarded where more traditionally based compensatory damages would have been inadequate to compensate the claimant for the invasion of his rights. Moreover, the claimants before the court were only part of the class of persons injured by the tort (see [107]–[110], below); Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd [1988] 3 All ER 394 and Halifax Building Society v Thomas [1995] 4 All ER 673 followed; A-G v Blake [2000] 4 All ER 385, Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER
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321 and Experience Hendrix LLC v PPX Enterprises Inc [2003] 1 All ER (Comm) 830 considered.
Notes
For Community aspects of competition law; procedural aspects; sanctions and penalties, see 47 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2001 reissue) paras 399–407, and for aggravated and exemplary damages, see 12(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 811.
Cases referred to in judgment
AB v South West Water Services Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 609, [1993] QB 507, [1993] 2 WLR 507, CA.
A-G v Blake [2000] 4 All ER 385, [2001] AC 268, [2000] 3 WLR 625, HL.
Archer Daniels Midland Co v European Commission Case T-59/02 [2006] 5 CMLR 1528, CFI.
Archer v Brown [1984] 2 All ER 267, [1985] QB 401, [1984] 3 WLR 350.
BASF AG v European Commission Case T-15/02 [2006] 5 CMLR 27, CFI.
Blayney (t/a Aardvark Jewelry) v Clogau St David’s Gold Mines Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 1007, [2003] FSR 19.
Borders (UK) Ltd v Metropolitan Police Comr [2005] EWCA Civ 197, [2005] All ER (D) 60 (Mar), (2005) Times, 15 April.
Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801, [1972] AC 1027, [1972] 2 WLR 645, HL.
Courage Ltd v Crehan Case C-453/99 [2001] All ER (EC) 886, [2002] QB 507, [2001] 3 WLR 1646, ECJ.
Crehan v Inntrepreneur Pub Co CPC [2004] EWCA Civ 637, [2004] 3 EGLR 128.
Elliniki Radiophonia Tileorass-AE v Pliroforissis Case C-260/89 [1991] ECR I-2925, ECJ.
Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Niad Ltd [2001] EWHC 6 (Ch), [2001] All ER (D) 324 (Nov).
Experience Hendrix LLC v PPX Enterprises Inc [2003] EWCA Civ 323, [2003] 1 All ER (Comm) 830.
Garden Cottage Foods Ltd v Milk Marketing Board [1983] 2 All ER 770, [1984] AC 130, [1983] 3 WLR 143, HL.
Halifax Building Society v Thomas [1995] 4 All ER 673, [1996] 1 Ch 217, [1996] 2 WLR 63, CA.
Kuddus v Chief Constable of Leicestershire Constabulary [2001] UKHL 29, [2001] 3 All ER 193, [2002] 2 AC 122, [2001] 2 WLR 1789.
Manfredi v Lloyd Adriatico Assicurazioni SpA, Cannito v Fondiaria Sai SpA, Tricarico and Murgolo v Assitalia SpA Joined cases C-295–C-298/04 [2007] All ER (EC) 27, ECJ.
Mediana (owners) v Owners, Master and Crew of the Lightship Comet, The Mediana [1900] AC 113, [1900–3] All ER Rep 126, HL.
R v Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries and Food, ex p First City Trading Ltd [1997] Eu LR 195.
R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd [1997] Eu LR 475, DC.
Ratcliffe v Evans [1892] 2 QB 524, [1891–4] All ER Rep 699, CA.
Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129, [1964] 2 WLR 269, HL.
Sempra Metals Ltd (formerly Metallgesellschaft Ltd) v IRC [2007] UKHL 34, [2007] 4 All ER 657, [2007] 3 WLR 354.
Severn Trent Water Ltd v Barnes [2004] EWCA Civ 570, [2004] 2 EGLR 95.
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Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd [1988] 3 All ER 394, [1988] 1 WLR 1406, CA.
Watson, Laidlaw & Co Ltd v Pott, Cassells and Williamson (1914) 31 RPC 104, HL.
Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 321, [1974] 1 WLR 798.
WWF-World Wide Fund for Nature (formerly World Wildlife Fund) v World Wrestling Federation Entertainment Inc [2007] EWCA Civ 286, [2008] 1 All ER 74.
Preliminary issues
In proceedings between the claimants, (1) Devenish Nutrition Ltd (claim no HC05C00468), (2) Faccenda Group Ltd (claim no HC05C00046) (3) GW Padley Poultry Ltd (claim no HC05C00467), (4) Moy Park Ltd (claim no HC05C00465) and (5) Castlemahon Food Projects (claim no HC05C01309) and the defendants, (1) Sanofi-Aventis SA (France), (2) Aventis Animal Nutrition SA (France), (3) Rohodia Ltd, (4) F Hoffmann-La Roche AG (Switzerland), (5) Roche Products Ltd, (6) BASF AG (Germany), (7) BASF plc and (8) Frank Wright Ltd, in which the claimants sought compensation for damage suffered as a result of unlawful vitamin cartels following a decision of the European Commission dated 21 November 2001 that the cartels were in breach of art 81 EC, Master Moncaster ordered that certain issues be tried as preliminary issues. The preliminary issues are set out at [5], below. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Alexander Layton QC and Jennifer Skilbeck (instructed by Irwin Mitchell) for the claimants.
Thomas de la Mare and Brian Kennelly (instructed by Ashurst) for the first, second and third defendants.
Mark Hoskins (instructed by Freshfields Bruckhaus Deringer) for the fourth and fifth defendants.
Mark Brealey QC (instructed by Mayer Brown International LLP) for the sixth, seventh and eighth defendants.
Judgment was reserved.
19 October 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
LEWISON J.
Introduction [1]
The cartels and the EC Commission’s findings [6]
Taxonomy [14]
Damages for breach of art 81 [15]
Compensatory damages [19]
Community rules [40]
Non bis in idem [40]
Allocation of responsibility between national court and competition authorities [53]
Exemplary damages in domestic law [56]
Common ground [56]
Double jeopardy [58]
Multiple claimants [65]
Amendment of pleadings [70]
Restitutionary award [75]
Account of profits [110]
Result [118]
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INTRODUCTION
[1] As Adam Smith said in The Wealth of Nations:
‘People of the same trade seldom meet together, even for merriment and diversion, but the conversation ends in a conspiracy against the public, or in some contrivance to raise prices.’
[2] In the present case the conspiracy against the public, which resulted in a contrivance to raise prices, was the so-called vitamins cartels. By a decision dated 21 November 2001 (the decision) the EC Commission adopted a decision that found that certain vitamin manufacturers had entered into worldwide cartels in respect of various vitamins in breach of art 81 of the EC Treaty. The manufacturers to whom the decision was addressed included F Hoffmann-La Roche AG (Roche), Aventis SA (Aventis) and BASF AG (BASF). The decision (art 3) imposed fines on these companies (which were record fines at the time) as follows: (i) Roche: ¹462m; (ii) Aventis: ¹5·04m; and (iii) BASF: ¹296·16m.
[3] The fine imposed on BASF was subsequently reduced on appeal to ¹236·845m by the Court of First Instance (CFI) (BASF AG v European Commission Case T-15/02 [2006] 5 CMLR 27). The fine imposed on Aventis was commuted because of its activities as ‘whistleblower’.
[4] The current proceedings are what are known as ‘follow on’ proceedings; that is to say they claim compensation for damage suffered as a result of the unlawful cartels. The claimants are all purchasers of vitamins, either directly or indirectly (in the form of animal feed containing the vitamins) from one or more of the defendants. Two claimants have been selected as representative. Devenish is a producer of animal and poultry feedstuffs. It purchased vitamins supplied by the three undertakings and incorporated them at the relevant times in its products which it sold on to third parties. The other claimants, of whom Moy Park is a representative example, are poultry producers and processors which purchased vitamins supplied by the three undertakings indirectly as part of animal and poultry feedstuffs for feeding to poultry. They sold on chickens and chicken products to supermarkets and others.
[5] The present trial is of certain issues which Master Moncaster ordered to be tried as preliminary issues. They are:
‘on the facts as pleaded in the Particulars of Claim and as found in the Commission Decision of 21st November 2001 (OJ 2003 L6, p.1) . . . whether the Claimants would be entitled to all or any of the following heads of relief as pleaded in the Particulars of Claim (including any subsequent amendments thereto):
a) an account of profits
b) restitution of unjust enrichment
c) exemplary damages.’
THE CARTELS AND THE EC COMMISSION’S FINDINGS
[6] The size of the vitamins market can be seen from the following extracts from the Commission’s decision:
‘(13) The total world bulk vitamins market (1999) is estimated at some EUR 3,25 billion.
(14) In volume terms, worldwide production of vitamins for animal feed . . . is around 60000 tonnes per year; pharmaceutical/food tonnage totals around 65000 tonnes.
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(15) The EEA market for the products which are the subject of the present Decision was worth around ECU 800 million, at ex-producer prices, in 1998.
(16) Vitamins A and E together comprise half the total market for vitamins. In 1998, the last full year of the cartel for these products, the vitamin E market in the Community was worth ECU 250 million; vitamin A sales aggregated some ECU 150 million.
(17) Sales of bulk vitamin C, which in 1995 had accounted for ECU 250 million in the Community, came to ECU 120 million, the price having more than halved since the ending of cartel arrangements at the end of 1995.’
[7] The cartels which the Commission found to exist fixed prices for the different products, allocated sales quotas, agreed on and implemented price increases, issued price announcements in accordance with their agreements, sold the products at the agreed prices, set up a machinery to monitor and enforce adherence to their agreements, and participated in a structure of regular meetings to implement their plans. The cartel arrangements permeated the vitamins industry and were mostly conceived, directed and encouraged at the highest levels of the undertakings concerned.
[8] On the basis of the Commission’s findings, Roche and BASF were the ringleaders.
[9] The Commission concluded that the cartels were ‘very serious infringements of Article 81(1)’. As the Commission found:
‘(664) The arrangements affecting vitamins A, E, C, B2, B5, D3, beta-carotene and carotinoids constituted deliberate infringements of Articles 81(1) of the Treaty and 53(1) of the EEA Agreement. With full knowledge of the illegality of their actions, the leading producers combined to set up secret and institutionalised systems designed to restrict competition in a major industrial sector.
(665) The cartel arrangements permeated the vitamins industry and were mostly conceived, directed and encouraged at the highest levels of the undertakings concerned. By their very nature, those agreements lead automatically to an important distortion of competition, which is of exclusive benefit to the participating producers and to the detriment of their customers and ultimately the general public.’
[10] In determining the amounts of the fines to be levied on each of the undertakings the Commission said:
‘(678) Within the category of very serious infringements, the proposed scale of likely fines makes it possible to apply differential treatment to undertakings in order to take account of the effective economic capacity of the offenders to cause significant damage to competition, as well as to set the fine at a level which ensures it has sufficient deterrent effect. The Commission notes that this exercise seems particularly necessary where, as in the present case, there is considerable disparity in the size of the undertakings participating in an infringement.
(679) In the circumstances of this case, which involves several undertakings, it is necessary in setting the basic amount of the fines to take account of the specific weight and therefore the impact of each undertakings offending conduct on competition.
(680) For this purpose undertakings can be divided into groupings according to their relative importance in each of the relevant vitamin
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product markets concerned. The placement of an undertaking in a particular grouping is subject to adjustment, where appropriate, to take into account in particular the need to ensure effective deterrence.
(681) The Commission considers it appropriate to appraise the relative importance of an undertaking in each of the vitamin product markets concerned on the basis of their respective worldwide product turnover. This is supported by the fact that each cartel was global in nature, the object of each was, inter alia, to allocate markets on a worldwide level, and thus to withhold competitive reserves from the EEA market. Moreover, the worldwide turnover of any given party to a particular cartel also gives an indication of its contribution to the effectiveness of that cartel as a whole or, conversely, of the instability which would have affected that cartel had it not participated. The comparison is made on the basis of the worldwide product turnover in the last complete calendar year of the infringement.’
[11] The Commission proceeded to set basic fines and then said:
‘(697) In order to ensure that the fine has a sufficient deterrent effect the Commission will determine whether any further adjustment of the starting point is needed for any undertaking.
(698) In the cases of BASF, Roche and Aventis, the Commission considers that the appropriate starting point for a fine resulting from the criterion of the relative importance in the market concerned requires further upward adjustment to take account of their size and their overall resources.
(699) On the basis of the foregoing, the Commission considers that the need for deterrence requires that the starting point of their respective fines for each relevant vitamin market, as determined under recitals 683 to 696, should be increased . . .’
[12] In the case of all defendants the increase was 100 per cent. The Commission then considered whether a further increase should be made to take account of the duration of the cartels. In the case of the defendants this resulted in a further increase of between 40 and 90 per cent (depending on the particular vitamin cartel). Having determined the basic fines, the Commission then considered whether there were aggravating or mitigating factors. In the case of Roche and BASF they concluded:
‘(712) The Commission considers that Roche and BASF were joint leaders and instigators of the collusive arrangements affecting the common range of vitamin products they produced and therefore their role in the different cartels are considered an aggravating factor.
(713) A key result of the anti-competitive agreements in each of the vitamin product markets was to combine the market power that the participants held in each of the individual markets. This was most effective for those companies which produced and sold the widest range of vitamin products, ie Roche and BASF . . .
(717) Both major European producers effectively formed a common front in conceiving and implementing the collusive arrangements with the Japanese and other European producers. Roche set out to implement a strategic plan to dominate and control the world market for all the vitamin products it produced, which constituted a very substantial part of all commercially available vitamins. Roche, in combination with BASF, set out to eliminate all effective competition between them in the Community and
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EEA across almost the whole range of important vitamins. Roche’s particular role as prime mover and main beneficiary of these collusive arrangements is to be noted.
(718) This aggravating circumstance justifies an increase of 50% in the basic amount of the fines to be imposed on Roche and an increase of 35% in the basic amount of the fines to be imposed on BASF for their infringements affecting the vitamin A, E, B2, B5, C, D3, beta-carotene and carotinoids markets.’
[13] The Commission then turned to mitigating factors, mainly concerned with the application of its leniency policy. Under this policy, a person who supplies information to the Commission about a cartel in which he has participated is entitled to a reduction of any fine imposed, depending on the stage at which he has supplied the relevant information. Since Aventis had turned ‘whistleblower’ before the Commission began its investigation, its fine was completely commuted in relation to the cartels relevant to the current proceedings. Roche and BASF received reductions of 50 per cent to take account of their co-operation. As mentioned, the fine that the Commission imposed upon BASF was further reduced by the CFI.
TAXONOMY
[14] Mr Layton QC, appearing for the claimants, rightly said that part of the problem lies in the different labels that have been attached to different kinds of monetary awards. I will therefore begin by saying what I mean by the various phrases that I use in this judgment. This is not intended to be in any way prescriptive; but is merely intended to help the reader understand what I say. (i) ‘Compensatory damages’: damages which compensate a claimant for loss (whether financial or not) which he has suffered as a result of wrongdoing; (ii) ‘user damages’: damages assessed by reference to the fair price for what has been taken from the claimant; (iii) ‘exemplary damages’: damages additional to an award which fully compensates the claimant for his loss, and which are intended to punish and deter; (iv) ‘restitutionary award’: an award of money assessed by reference to the wrongdoer’s gain rather than by reference to the victim’s loss.
DAMAGES FOR BREACH OF ARTICLE 81
[15] Article 81 EC of the EC Treaty provides:
‘1. The following shall be prohibited as incompatible with the common market: all agreements between undertakings, decisions by associations of undertakings and concerted practices which may affect trade between Member States and which have as their object or effect the prevention, restriction or distortion of competition within the common market, and in particular those which:
(a) directly or indirectly fix purchase or selling prices or any other trading conditions;
(b) limit or control production, markets, technical development, or investment;
(c) share markets or sources of supply;
(d) apply dissimilar conditions to equivalent transactions with other trading parties, thereby placing them at a competitive disadvantage;
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(e) make the conclusion of contracts subject to acceptance by the other parties of supplementary obligations which, by their nature or according to commercial usage, have no connection with the subject of such contracts.
2. Any agreements or decisions prohibited pursuant to this Article shall be automatically void . . .’
[16] It is the duty of the national court to give full effect to the provisions of art 81 EC. In the landmark case of Courage Ltd v Crehan Case C-453/99 [2001] All ER (EC) 886, [2002] QB 507 the Court of Justice of the European Communities (the ECJ) said that:
‘The full effectiveness of art 85 of the Treaty and, in particular, the practical effect of the prohibition laid down in art 85(1), would be put at risk if it were not open to any individual to claim damages for loss caused to him by a contract or by conduct liable to restrict or distort competition.’ (See [2001] All ER (EC) 886 at 899, [2002] QB 507 at 522 (para 26).)
[17] There are two general principles that the national courts must apply in awarding damages for breach of art 81, which the ECJ described as follows (para 29):
‘However, in the absence of Community rules governing the matter, it is for the domestic legal system of each member state to designate the courts and tribunals having jurisdiction and to lay down the detailed procedural rules governing actions for safeguarding rights which individuals derive directly from Community law, provided that such rules are not less favourable than those governing similar domestic actions (principle of equivalence) and that they do not render practically impossible or excessively difficult the exercise of rights conferred by Community law (principle of effectiveness) . . .’
[18] The ‘similar domestic action’ for the purpose of the principle of equivalence is an action for breach of statutory duty: Garden Cottage Foods Ltd v Milk Marketing Board [1983] 2 All ER 770, [1984] AC 130; Sempra Metals Ltd (formerly Metallgesellschaft Ltd) v IRC [2007] UKHL 34 at [69], [2007] 4 All ER 657 at [69], [2007] 3 WLR 354 per Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead. It is common ground that in an action for breach of statutory duty the claimant must prove not only that the relevant statutory duty has been broken, but also that the breach in question has caused him a relevant loss. Since the award of damages lies within the competence of the national courts, it is for the national courts to decide on the appropriate measure of damages, provided that the twin principles of effectiveness and equivalence are respected. The principle of effectiveness may have the effect that a claimant is entitled to be compensated for a broader spectrum of loss than would be awarded under an equivalent domestic statute (see Crehan v Inntrepreneur Pub Co CPC [2004] EWCA Civ 637 at [156], [2004] 3 EGLR 128 at [156], unaffected by the subsequent reversal of this decision by the House of Lords on a different point).
COMPENSATORY DAMAGES
[19] It is common ground, at least for the purposes of this trial of preliminary issues, that the claimants are entitled to compensatory damages. The broad outlines of the way in which the claimants say that compensatory damages should be assessed are described in the reports of their economic expert Dr Cento Veljanovski. In summary the methodology is as follows: (i) determine
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or estimate the actual prices charged by the cartel for each period; (ii) estimate the price (known as the ‘but for price’) which would have been charged if there had been no cartel; (iii) subtract the ‘but for price’ from the actual price, thus giving the amount of the overcharge; (iv) determine or estimate the quantity of vitamins purchased by each claimant; (v) estimate the proportion of the overcharge absorbed by upstream undertakings, and hence the proportion of the overcharge passed down to the claimant; (vi) estimate the proportion of the overcharge passed down in turn by the claimant to downstream undertakings; (vii) estimate the proportion of the overcharge absorbed by the claimant; (viii) multiply the overcharge absorbed by the claimant and the quantity of vitamins purchased.
[20] The result of taking these steps will be the amount of profit lost by the claimant. It may then need to be adjusted (eg by allowing for the incidence of taxation) in order to arrive at the net amount of compensation required to put the claimant in the position in which it would have been if there had been no cartels. Dr Veljanovski emphasises the difficulties of making these estimations and calculations. Some of the difficulties arise out of the fact that much historic paperwork has been lost or destroyed. Others arise out of the counterfactual nature of the exercise, and the complexity of the calculations. The particulars of claim in the case of Devenish do not elucidate the claim for compensatory damages any further. The particulars of claim in the Moy Park case allege that Moy Park absorbed the higher cost of vitamins because of the purchasing power of its customers (mainly supermarkets) which made it impossible to pass on the increase. Dr Veljanovski concludes, on the basis of the assumptions and estimates that he has made, that Moy Park is entitled to damages in the range of £1·76m to £1·78m and that Devenish is entitled to damages in the range £1·62m to £1·64m.
[21] The methodology that Dr Veljanovski adopted in his reports is one that appears to be typical in antitrust cases. The Commission Staff Working Paper annexed to the Commission’s Green Paper on Damages actions for breach of the EC antitrust rules (Comm (2005) 672 final) (19 December 2005) puts the matter thus (p 38):
‘126. Typically the measure of loss which shall be compensated in an antitrust damages case is taken to be the difference between the claimant’s actual position and the situation he would have been in “but for” the illegal conduct (the counterfactual). The former encompasses actual losses as well as profits that have not been gained, while the latter refers to the hypothetical situation in which the claimant would be had no competition law infringement occurred. The loss is thus compensated if the claimant is put into the financial situation he would have been in “but for” the infringement. A number of methods are used to establish this “but for” scenario, e.g. the prices, profits, costs, and the market situation etc., that would have prevailed in the absence of the infringement, to allow a comparison between the hypothetical and the actual situation.
127. The most commonly claimed types of antitrust damages are likely to be overcharges (i.e. increased prices in case of cartels or excessive prices in case of a dominant position) and damages claimed for other anti-competitive conduct (i.e. predatory pricing or refusal to supply) which has led to lost net profits to a continuing business or even lost going concern value of a terminated business.’
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[22] The ‘lost going concern value’ was the measure favoured by the Court of Appeal in Crehan v Inntrepreneur Pub Co CPC.
[23] Mr Layton put the difficulty of proof in the forefront of his argument in favour of the availability of exemplary damages and a restitutionary award for a claim under art 81 EC. He also emphasised that the cartels were, by their very nature, secret; and he drew attention to the existence of evidence to the effect that the cartels may have been in existence for longer periods than the Commission found. The important point is that the difficulties on which Mr Layton relies are not factual difficulties (in the sense that the facts necessary to amount to financial loss, either out-of-pocket losses or ungained profits, do not exist) but evidential difficulties (in the sense that it may be difficult to prove to the satisfaction of the court the facts that do exist, or would have existed in the ‘no cartel’ world). It is necessary, therefore, in my judgment, to examine whether evidential difficulties of proof are an insuperable barrier to effective compensation. I will do this by looking first at the position in domestic law.
[24] Mr Layton placed particular emphasis on the decision of the House of Lords in A-G v Blake [2000] 4 All ER 385, [2001] AC 268. The facts are well known. George Blake, a former member of the Secret Intelligence Service (SIS), was found guilty of spying and imprisoned for a long term. He escaped from prison, and went to live in Moscow. He subsequently published his memoirs, which in itself was a breach of an undertaking not to divulge information that he had given on his employment by the SIS. The Attorney General, on behalf of the Crown, sought and obtained an order for an account of Blake’s profits and an order that the profits be paid to the Crown. Lord Nicholls began his speech by a survey of the availability of remedies. Under the heading ‘Interference with rights of property’ he quoted well-known observations by the Earl of Halsbury LC in Mediana (owners) v Owners, Master and Crew of the Lightship Comet, The Mediana [1900] AC 113, [1900–3] All ER Rep 126 and by Lord Shaw in Watson, Laidlaw & Co Ltd v Pott, Cassells and Williamson (1914) 31 RPC 104. Mr Layton placed special reliance on these observations. It is, therefore, worth quoting a little more of them than found their way into Lord Nicholls’s speech in order to put them in context.
[25] In The Mediana a lightship was damaged by negligence. The claimant was a harbour board which kept a ship ready for emergencies, and consequently the damaged ship was replaced with the spare while she was being repaired. The question was whether the claimant could recover damages for the temporary loss of the damaged ship. The Earl of Halsbury LC said ([1900] AC 113 at 116–118):
‘Of course the whole region of inquiry into damages is one of extreme difficulty. You very often cannot even lay down any principle upon which you can give damages; nevertheless it is remitted to the jury, or those who stand in place of the jury, to consider what compensation in money shall be given for what is a wrongful act. Take the most familiar and ordinary case: how is anybody to measure pain and suffering in moneys counted? Nobody can suggest that you can by any arithmetical calculation establish what is the exact amount of money which would represent such a thing as the pain and suffering which a person has undergone by reason of an accident. In truth, I think it would be very arguable to say that a person would be entitled to no damages for such things. What manly mind cares about pain and suffering that is past? But nevertheless the law recognises that as a topic upon which damages may be given.
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Now, in the particular case before us, apart from a circumstance which I will refer to immediately, the broad proposition seems to me to be that by a wrongful act of the defendants the plaintiffs were deprived of their vessel. When I say deprived of their vessel, I will not use the phrase “the use of the vessel”. What right has a wrongdoer to consider what use you are going to make of your vessel? More than one case has been put to illustrate this: for example, the owner of a horse, or of a chair. Supposing a person took away a chair out of my room and kept it for twelve months, could anybody say you had a right to diminish the damages by shewing that I did not usually sit in that chair, or that there were plenty of other chairs in the room? The proposition so nakedly stated appears to me to be absurd; but a jury have very often a very difficult task to perform in ascertaining what should be the amount of damages of that sort. I know very well that as a matter of common sense what an arbitrator or a jury very often do is to take a perfectly artificial hypothesis and say, “Well, if you wanted to hire a chair, what would you have to give for it for the period”; and in that way they come to a rough sort of conclusion as to what damages ought to be paid for the unjust and unlawful withdrawal of it from the owner. Here, as I say, the broad principle seems to me to be quite independent of the particular use the plaintiffs were going to make of the thing that was taken, except—and this I think has been the fallacy running through the arguments at the bar—when you are endeavouring to establish the specific loss of profit, or of something that you otherwise would have got which the law recognises as special damage. In that case you must shew it, and by precise evidence, so much so that in the old system of pleading you could not recover damages unless you had made a specific allegation in your pleading so as to give the persons responsible for making good the loss an opportunity of inquiring into it before they came into court. But when we are speaking of general damages no such principle applies at all, and the jury might give whatever they thought would be the proper equivalent for the unlawful withdrawal of the subject-matter then in question.’ (See also [1900–3] All ER Rep 126 at 129.)
[26] There are a number of points I should make about this passage. First, Lord Halsbury LC was treating the award of damages for the temporary loss of the lightship as an award of general damages, akin to damages in personal injuries actions for pain and suffering, which need not be pleaded or proved with the same precision as special damage. Second, the damages are compensatory damages. Third, the damages are assessed on an objective (but to some extent hypothetical) basis, namely the price for the hire of the thing of which the claimant has been temporarily deprived. This is an example of the award of user damages, which are still compensatory. Fourth, once Lord Halsbury’s observations are seen as an aspect of the award of general damages (including damages for pain and suffering), the principle does not appear to be confined to interference with property rights.
[27] Watson, Laidlaw & Co Ltd v Pott, Cassells and Williamson was a case of patent infringement. The principal dispute about damages was whether the claimant was entitled to damages on infringing machines sold in Java. The argument was that the claimant had no market in Java, which the defendants only penetrated as a result of the exceptional abilities of their sales agent and, moreover, the defendants would have sold the same number of machines, even if they had not contained the infringing part. This was the context in which
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Lord Shaw made the observations on which Mr Layton relied. It is important to have in mind that Lord Shaw referred to the claimant’s right to choose between a claim for damages representing his own loss and a claim to an account of profits, representing the defendant’s gain. The case before the House was a claim for damages, not an account of profits. Thus the House was concerned with the claimant’s loss rather than the defendant’s gain. Lord Shaw said ((1914) 31 RPC 104 at 117–118):
‘In the case of damages in general, there is one principle which does underlie the assessment. It is what may be called that of restoration. The idea is to restore the person who has sustained injury and loss to the condition in which he would have been had he not so sustained it. In the cases of financial loss, injury to trade, and the like, caused either by breach of contract or by tort, the loss is capable of correct appreciation in stated figures. In a second class of cases, restoration being in point of fact difficult, as in the case of loss of reputation, or impossible, as in the case of loss of life, faculty, or limb, the task of restoration under the name of compensation calls into play inference, conjecture, and the like. This is necessarily accompanied by those deficiencies which attach to the conversion into money of certain elements which are very real, which go to make up the happiness and usefulness of life, but which were never so converted or measured. The restoration by way of compensation is therefore accomplished to a large extent by the exercise of a sound imagination and the practice of the broad axe. It is in such cases, my Lords, whether the result has been attained by the verdict of a jury or the finding of a single Judge, that the greatest weight attaches to the decision of the Court of first instance. The reasons for this are not far to seek . . . In all these cases, however, the attempt which justice makes is to get back to the status quo ante in fact, or to reach imaginatively, by the process of compensation, a result in which the same principle is followed.’
[28] He then turned to the question of the Java trade, on the footing that the claimant would not have been able to carry on trade in that part of the world. Lord Shaw continued (at 118–119):
‘It is said in such a case:—“Where is the damage which the patentee has incurred? On the other heads of the case he has obtained his damages; but on this part, which covers a section of trade which in no circumstances he could have touched, he can have sustained no damage, because he would never have sold his patented articles within that section. The duty of an infringer is covered by the principle of restoration, and the patentee has surely been restored to as good a position as he was in before the infringement, or would have been in but for it, if he has been put into the same financial position as he would have occupied in that region of trade where alone he would have been operating.”
It is at this stage of the case, however, my Lords, that a second principle comes into play. It is not exactly the principle of restoration, either directly or expressed through compensation, but it is the principle underlying price or hire. It plainly extends—and I am inclined to think not infrequently extends—to Patent cases. But, indeed, it is not confined to them. For wherever an abstraction or invasion of property has occurred, then, unless such abstraction or invasion were to be sanctioned by law, the law ought to
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yield a recompense under the category or principle, as I say, either of price or of hire. If A, being a liveryman, keeps his horse standing idle in the stable, and B, against his wish or without his knowledge, rides or drives it out, it is no answer to A for B to say: “Against what loss do you want to be restored? I restore the horse. There is no loss. The horse is none the worse; it is the better for the exercise.” I confess to your Lordships that this seems to me to be precisely in principle the kind of question and retort which underlay the argument of the learned Counsel for the Appellants about the Java trade.’
[29] A number of points emerge out of these passages. First, the principle underlying the assessment of damages is that of restoration. Second, the restoration by way of compensation is often accomplished by ‘sound imagination’ and a ‘broad axe’. This is true no less in claims for financial loss than in claims for personal injury: see Blayney (t/a Aardvark Jewelry) v Clogau St David’s Gold Mines Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 1007, [2003] FSR 19. Third, whatever method of assessment is followed, its object is the same, namely to get back to the position in which the victim would have been if the wrong had not occurred. This is true even where damages are assessed as user damages. Fourth, this range of remedies differs from, and is inconsistent with, an account of profits, whose object is to strip the wrongdoer of his personal gains.
[30] It is also the case that the common law has also taken a pragmatic view of the degree of certainty with which damages must be pleaded and proved. Ratcliffe v Evans [1892] 2 QB 524, [1891–4] All ER Rep 699 was a case of malicious falsehood. The plaintiff was an engineer and boiler-maker. He alleged that a statement in the local newspaper that he had ceased business had caused him loss. The evidence that was given at trial consisted of general evidence of a downturn in trade; but the plaintiff did not give evidence of the loss of any specific customer. The jury awarded him damages of £120. Upholding the award, Bowen LJ said ([1892] 2 QB 524 at 532–533, [1891–4] All ER Rep 699 at 704):
‘In all actions accordingly on the case where the damage actually done is the gist of the action, the character of the acts themselves which produce the damage, and the circumstances under which these acts are done, must regulate the degree of certainty and particularity with which the damage done ought to be stated and proved. As much certainty and particularity must be insisted on, both in pleading and proof of damage, as is reasonable, having regard to the circumstances and to the nature of the acts themselves by which the damage is done. To insist upon less would be to relax old and intelligible principles. To insist upon more would be the vainest pedantry.’
[31] This was a case where the only loss alleged was a loss in business. Yet the Court of Appeal upheld an award of substantial general damages. It did not require the loss of profits to be proved with exactness. Thus an award of general damages is regarded as sufficient to provide adequate compensatory damages for the wrong suffered, even where, at least in theory, the damages could have been the subject of more precise quantification.
[32] I am not therefore persuaded that evidential difficulties of exact proof are insuperable difficulties to effective compensation as a matter of domestic law. Nor am I persuaded that the usual techniques by which the courts award damages in domestic cases are inadequate to produce a fair result.
[33] Does the principle of effectiveness point to a different result in relation to a breach of art 81 EC? Within the European Union, an award of exemplary
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damages is only known in the jurisdictions of England and Wales, Cyprus and Ireland. It is unknown in all other member states (and in Scotland). Indeed in some member states (eg Germany) an award of exemplary or punitive damages is regarded as contrary to public policy. Nevertheless, the ECJ has held that, in principle, exemplary damages are not precluded by European law.
[34] In Courage Ltd v Crehan [2001] All ER (EC) 886 at 895–896, [2002] QB 507 at 516 (para 59 of the opinion) Advocate General Mischo said:
‘However, I must make clear that I do not believe it is a matter of inflicting some sort of penalty on the other party similar to the fine which the Commission can impose under Council Regulation 17/1962 (first regulation implementing arts 85 and 86 of the Treaty) (OJ English Sp Edn 1959–1962 p 87) in order to safeguard the effectiveness of Community law. It is simply a matter of accepting the implications of the direct effect of art 85.
I, therefore, agree with the United Kingdom government when it states that it—
“does not advocate that the party to the unlawful agreement should obtain more than it has lost by reason of the unlawful agreement. In certain cases the claimant, even if in a weaker bargaining position, may have obtained benefits from the unlawful provisions of the agreement, and, to avoid unjust enrichment and the imposition of penal damages on the defendant, such benefits should in principle be taken into account in the assessment of damages. The precise quantification of the damages is, of course, a matter for national courts.”’
[35] The court did not comment on this part of the Advocate General’s opinion.
[36] The ECJ returned to the question of exemplary damages in Manfredi v Lloyd Adriatico Assicurazioni SpA, Cannito v Fondiaria Sai SpA, Tricarico and Murgolo v Assitalia SpA Joined cases C-295–C-298/04 [2007] All ER (EC) 27. The case was a preliminary reference from Italy, where exemplary or punitive damages are unknown. The ECJ concluded (at 55):
‘92. As to the award of damages and the possibility of an award of punitive damages, in the absence of Community rules governing the matter, it is for the domestic legal system of each member state to set the criteria for determining the extent of the damages, provided that the principles of equivalence and effectiveness are observed.
93. In that respect . . . in accordance with the principle of equivalence, it must be possible to award particular damages, such as exemplary or punitive damages, pursuant to actions founded on the Community competition rules, if such damages may be awarded pursuant to similar actions founded on domestic law . . .’
[37] It is important to note that the possibility of an award of exemplary or punitive damages is an aspect of the principle of equivalence. It is not an aspect of the principle of effectiveness. Indeed it would be surprising if in those member states where exemplary or punitive damages are not recognised, the principle of effectiveness was automatically breached. In the Manfredi case itself the question referred to the ECJ was whether a national court was required to award punitive damages. If the principle of effectiveness had been in play, and if the court had considered that a remedy restricting damages to compensation for actual loss
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(including loss of profit) was ineffective, it would surely have answered the question referred by stating that an award of punitive damages was required. But it did not.
[38] I do not, therefore, consider that the principle of effectiveness leads to a different result.
[39] The defendants do not, of course, dispute the twin principles of equivalence and effectiveness. But they say that those principles apply ‘in the absence of Community rules governing the matter’; and they go on to say that there are two principles of Community law which preclude the award of exemplary damages on the assumed facts of this case.
COMMUNITY RULES
Non bis in idem
[40] The first principle is that which is called for short ‘non bis in idem’ (or ‘ne bis in idem’). This principle is a reflection of the common principle that a person is not to be punished twice for the same wrong (or the principle against double jeopardy). It is a fundamental principle of Community law. National measures adopted in order to give effect to Community rights must themselves comply with the fundamental principles of Community law: Case C-260/89 Elliniki Radiophonia Tileorass-AE v Pliroforissis Case C-260/89 [1991] ECR I-2925 at 2964 (para 43); R v Ministry of Agriculture, Fisheries and Food, ex p First City Trading Ltd [1997] Eu LR 195. This much is not controversial.
[41] In Archer Daniels Midland Co v European Commission Case T-59/02 [2006] 5 CMLR 1528 the CFI said (at 1556 (para 61)):
‘the principle of ne bis in idem prohibits the same person from being sanctioned more than once for the same unlawful conduct in order to protect one and the same legal interest. The application of that principle is subject to three cumulative conditions: the identity of the facts, the unity of offender and the unity of legal interest protected . . .’
[42] In the present case, the facts relied on by the claimants as founding liability are the same facts as those found by the Commission. However, Mr Layton says that although the facts as found by the Commission are sufficient to found liability for compensatory damages, there are additional facts that must be proved in order to found liability for exemplary damages. Those facts are (as alleged in the particulars of claim):
‘The Claimant avers that the Defendants’ wrongful actions have been carried out in the knowledge of and in wilful disregard of the Claimant’s rights, in a calculating fashion and/or with the expectation of profiting therefrom by amounts exceeding the amounts payable by them to the Claimant as a result of such wrongful actions. Such wrongful actions are properly such as to evoke a sense of outrage. The Claimant will ask for exemplary damages accordingly.’
[43] It is common ground that these pleaded facts bring the case within the second category identified in Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129 in which exemplary damages may be awarded. Indeed the plea is little more than a statement of the applicable legal test; but the defendants do not complain on that account (contrast AB v South West Water Services Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 609 at 623, 628, [1993] QB 507 at 526, 532 per Stuart-Smith LJ and Sir Thomas Bingham MR).
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[44] However, in my judgment these pleaded facts are not additional to those found by the Commission. The Commission found that the infringements of art 81 were ‘deliberate’ and carried out ‘with full knowledge of the illegality of their actions’. This is the same as a finding that the tort was carried out ‘in the knowledge of and in wilful disregard of the Claimant’s rights’. The Commission also found that there was ‘an important distortion of competition, which is of exclusive benefit to the participating producers’. Although the Commission did not expressly find that there was a calculation that the benefits outweighed the potential compensation payable, I do not regard that as material. The situation in which exemplary damages may be awarded is one where someone faces up to the possibility of having to pay damages for doing something which may be held to have been wrong but where nevertheless he deliberately carries out his plan because he thinks that it will work out satisfactorily for him: Cassell & Co Ltd v Broome [1972] 1 All ER 801, [1972] AC 1027 per Lord Morris of Borth-y-Gest; Borders (UK) Ltd v Metropolitan Police Comr [2005] EWCA Civ 197, [2005] All ER (D) 60 (Mar) per Rix LJ. The Commission’s finding of a deliberate and conscious breach for the participants’ financial gain is a sufficient finding. The sense of outrage is no more than a characterisation of the conduct and is not an independent fact. I consider therefore that there is identity of facts.
[45] Mr Layton also argued that there was not identity of persons, because one of the defendants (RPL) was not a person to whom the decision was addressed. However, the particulars of claim specifically allege that all defendants are bound by the decision. On that basis the defendants are bound by it for good or ill. The particulars of claim also allege that Hoffmann-La Roche and RPL were part of the same undertaking; and refer to them together, compendiously, as ‘Roche’. In my judgment this is identity of persons.
[46] Mr Layton next argued that there was not unity of interest. He said that the fines imposed by the Commission and an award of exemplary damages have different objectives. In my judgment it is plain that at least part of the purpose of the fine is deterrent. Recital (697) of the decision says as much. It is also by its nature punitive. In addition to both deterrence and punishment, the Commission considered the extent of the benefits derived by the participants in the cartels. Thus the fines were influenced by the worldwide turnover of each participant. In addition the guidelines on the method of setting fines imposed under art 81 EC state:
‘It will also be necessary to take account of the effective economic capacity of offenders to cause significant damage to other operators, in particular consumers, and to set the fine at a level which ensures that it has a sufficiently deterrent effect.’
[47] The classic statement of the purpose of exemplary damages is also to punish and deter. Many judicial statements to that effect could be quoted. One recent and authoritative one is that of Lord Nicholls in Kuddus v Chief Constable of Leicestershire Constabulary [2001] UKHL 29 at [51], [2001] 3 All ER 193 at [51], [2002] 2 AC 122:
‘Exemplary damages or punitive damages, the terms are synonymous, stand apart from awards of compensatory damages. They are additional to an award which is intended to compensate a plaintiff fully for the loss he has suffered, both pecuniary and non-pecuniary. They are intended to punish and deter.’
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[48] In my judgment in antitrust cases the imposition of fines and an award of exemplary damages serve the same aim: namely to punish and deter anti-competitive behaviour.
[49] Mr Layton sought to support his argument by pointing out that the fines did not take account of damages that might be awarded in civil actions. That is true up to a point. But the kind of damages that the Commission contemplated did not, in my judgment, include exemplary damages intended to punish and deter. The Commission explained its position as follows:
‘Finally, the possibility that undertakings may have been required to pay damages in civil actions is of no relevance. Payments of damages in civil law actions which have the objective of compensating for the harm caused by cartels to individual companies or consumers cannot be compared with public law sanctions for illegal behaviour.’ (My emphasis.)
[50] The damages that it was contemplating were compensatory damages. And the defendants accept that the claimants are entitled to compensatory damages. I do not therefore consider that this part of the decision assists Mr Layton’s case.
[51] Mr Layton also argued that in the case of the Aventis companies the fines had been commuted to zero as a result of the application of the leniency notice. Thus he said that these companies, at least, had not been sanctioned for the unlawful conduct at all. I do not accept this submission. The Commission decided in principle that fines should be imposed on the Aventis companies. It is true that by the application of the leniency notice, those fines were commuted to zero as a result of Aventis’s conduct as whistleblower; but the starting point for the application of the leniency notice was the finding of unlawful conduct coupled with the imposition, in principle, of a fine. The application of the leniency notice serves the important policy aim that it is of even more importance to encourage whistleblowers than to punish participants in a cartel. In my judgment the national court should not undermine that policy by an award of exemplary damages against a person who has had his fine commuted as a result of the application of the leniency notice. If Mr Layton’s submission were correct, then a more guilty wrongdoer would escape liability for exemplary damages, while a less guilty wrongdoer, whose fines had been commuted would not. This seems to me to be wrong in principle.
[52] In my judgment, therefore, the principle of non bis in idem precludes the award of exemplary damages in a case in which the defendants have already been fined (or had fines imposed and then reduced or commuted) by the European Commission.
Allocation of responsibility between national court and competition authorities
[53] Mr de la Mare, appearing for the Aventis companies, had a different way of putting a similar point. He said that under the Modernisation Regulation (Council Regulation (EC) 1/2003 (on the implementation of the rules on competition laid down in arts 81 and 82 of the Treaty) (OJ 2003 L1 p 1)) it was now clear that the national court had to defer to the Commission. In particular art 16 of the Regulation provides:
‘1. When national courts rule on agreements, decisions or practices under Article 81 or Article 82 of the Treaty which are already the subject of a Commission decision, they cannot take decisions running counter to the
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decision adopted by the Commission. They must also avoid giving decisions which would conflict with a decision contemplated by the Commission in proceedings it has initiated. To that effect, the national court may assess whether it is necessary to stay its proceedings. This obligation is without prejudice to the rights and obligations under Article 234 of the Treaty.
2. When competition authorities of the Member States rule on agreements, decisions or practices under Article 81 or Article 82 of the Treaty which are already the subject of a Commission decision, they cannot take decisions which would run counter to the decision adopted by the Commission.’
[54] Mr de la Mare submits that the Commission has decided on the adequacy of punitive measures that should be taken against the defendants as a result of their participation in the vitamin cartels. If the national court were to award exemplary damages that could only be because the national court had concluded that the fines imposed by the Commission (including those fines that had been reduced or commuted) were insufficient to punish and deter. Indeed, Mr Layton submitted, by reference to guidelines for the imposition of fines that came into force after the decision, that the fines were indeed insufficient. But Mr de la Mare submitted that the national court is not in a position to reach such a conclusion, because it would ‘run counter’ to the decision already adopted by the Commission. I agree. In my judgment this is a second reason why exemplary damages are not available in national proceedings following a decision by the Commission to impose (or to commute) fines.
[55] Accordingly, I agree with the defendants that before one gets to the principle of equivalence, there are Community rules that preclude the award of exemplary damages on the facts of this case.
EXEMPLARY DAMAGES IN DOMESTIC LAW
Common ground
[56] It is common ground that: (i) as a result of the decision of the House of Lords in Kuddus v Chief Constable of Leicestershire Constabulary, there is no longer a cause of action test for the award of exemplary damages. In other words the mere fact that a claim is brought under art 81 EC does not of itself rule out an award of exemplary damages. (ii) On the assumed facts, the case falls within the second of the categories described by Lord Devlin in Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367, [1964] AC 1129 in which exemplary damages may be awarded. (iii) The award of exemplary damages is discretionary. (iv) The discretion must be cautiously exercised.
[57] However, the defendants say that it is clear on the pleaded case that this is not a case in which the discretion could ever be exercised in the claimants’ favour. The first reason overlaps with that which I have already considered, namely the principle of double jeopardy. The second reason is that the claimants are multiple claimants which is said to preclude an award. The third, which is a variant of the second, is that the claimants are members of a class not all of whom are before the court.
Double jeopardy
[58] In Archer v Brown [1984] 2 All ER 267, [1985] QB 401 the claimant entered into an agreement to buy shares as a result of the defendant’s fraudulent misrepresentations. The defendant was subsequently convicted of offences
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under the Prevention of Fraud (Investments) Act 1958 and imprisoned. The claimant began proceedings in deceit in the course of which he claimed exemplary damages. Peter Pain J refused to award them. He said ([1984] 2 All ER 267 at 281, [1985] QB 401 at 423):
‘But what seems to put the claim under this head out of court is the fact that exemplary damages are meant to punish and the defendant has been punished. Even if he wins his appeal he will have spent a considerable time in gaol. It is not surprising that there is no authority whether this provides a defence, since there is no direct authority whether exemplary damages can be given in deceit. I rest my decision on the basic principle that a man should not be punished twice for the same offence. Since he has undoubtedly been punished, I should not enrich the plaintiff by punishing the defendant again.’
[59] The question of double jeopardy arose again in Borders (UK) Ltd v Metropolitan Police Comr [2005] All ER (D) 60 (Mar), (2005) Times, 15 April. Mr Jordan was sued by eight major book retailers for their losses of thousands of new books stolen from them by shoplifters and sold by him from his market stalls. He was convicted of conspiracy to steal books and of handling stolen books and sentenced to 30 months’ imprisonment. An application was made in the criminal proceedings for a compensation order in favour of the booksellers under s 130 of the Powers of Criminal Courts Act 2000. In parallel a civil action was brought, and while Mr Jordan was in gaol, judgment was entered on the claim for damages to be assessed. As another part of the criminal process, confiscation proceedings were initiated in the Crown Court under the Criminal Justice Act 1988. Those were adjourned pending appeal in the civil proceedings. The master assessed damages in the sum of £100,000. On appeal one of the arguments for Mr Jordan was that the master’s award exposed him to double jeopardy, because of the adjourned confiscation proceedings. He does not appear to have advanced the argument that the question of double jeopardy arose because of his sentence of imprisonment (which was the consideration on which Peter Pain J relied in Archer v Brown but which does not appear to have been cited in the Borders (UK) case). Sedley LJ gave the argument short shrift. He said ([2005] All ER (D) 60 (Mar) at [17]):
‘The argument from double jeopardy is not in my judgment a sound one. The convictions were a legitimate part of the evidence in support of the civil claim, but there is no duplication of penalty. If the £100,000 award of exemplary damages stands, the appellant’s available assets will be depleted by that amount by the time the matter returns to the Crown Court for completion of the confiscation proceedings. If confiscation does not reach all his assets, while this court cannot dictate what is to happen, it can confidently anticipate that Mr Jordan will not be mulcted in the same sum twice.’
[60] Rix and May LJJ seem to me to have had rather more difficulty but in the end agreed with Sedley LJ. What was decisive for both of them was that there was no practical danger of double counting. Rix LJ said (at [41]):
‘. . . It is arguable that the function of exemplary damages is nowadays better left to the confiscation regime, at any rate where there are parallel civil and criminal proceedings. However, the statutory regime has done nothing explicit to discourage the civil process, and I agree with what Sedley and May LJJ have said about the interrelationship of the Criminal Justice Act 1988
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and Master Leslie’s award in this case. In my judgment there is no danger in practice that Mr Jordan will be required to pay the £100,000 twice.’
[61] May LJ said:
‘[45] I was at first attracted by Mr Hellman’s twin submissions, on behalf of Mr Jordan, (a) that the Master should not have awarded exemplary damages as a scarcely concealed substitute for additional compensatory damages which the claimants did not claim and did not attempt to quantify; and (b) that exemplary damages, being punitive, were quite inappropriate in this case, when Mr Jordan has been punished by imprisonment, and is very probably going to be punished further by a swingeing confiscation order under ss 71 and 72AA of the Criminal Justice Act 1988.
[46] I am, however, persuaded by Mr Convey to the contrary. First, in my judgment, Pt VI of the 1988 Act was not intended to negate a proper claim for exemplary damages in civil proceedings. Section 71(1C) may not literally prohibit the Crown Court from making a confiscation order which overlaps a claim by the victim in civil proceedings. But it plainly contemplates that the victim’s proper civil claims are to be preserved and is a strong indication that the Crown Court should usually avoid double counting—see also the discretionary safeguards in s 72AA. In addition, at least in a case in which the defendant’s benefit from criminal conduct exceeds his realisable assets, the amount of any judgment in civil proceedings will reduce the defendant’s realisable assets, and thus reduce the amount of the confiscation order—see s 71(6).’
[62] I draw from the Borders (UK) case that the fact that a person has been imprisoned for an offence is not, in itself, enough to bring the principle against double jeopardy into play, but that so far as financial remedies are concerned, the principle is still a good one to the extent that there should be no practical danger of double counting or duplication of penalty.
[63] The danger is particularly acute where the defendant has already been fined. In AB v South West Water Services Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 609, [1993] QB 507 aluminium sulphate was accidentally introduced into the drinking water system at a water treatment works operated by the defendant water authority. The defendant had been prosecuted and fined. The plaintiffs (some 180 of the defendant’s customers) brought actions against the defendant claiming compensation in respect of injuries suffered as a result of drinking contaminated water. The claims included a claim for exemplary damages. The Court of Appeal dismissed the claim for exemplary damages on the principal ground that it had not been accepted before 1964 that exemplary damages were available in respect of the causes of action relied upon. This ground can no longer stand in the light of the decision of the House of Lords in Kuddus v Chief Constable of Leicestershire Constabulary. It was conceded in the Court of Appeal that the defendant’s conviction and fine was not an absolute bar to an award of exemplary damages, although Stuart-Smith LJ was careful to say that he was not to be taken as accepting that the concession was rightly made. However, Stuart-Smith LJ went on to say ([1993] 1 All ER 609 at 624, [1993] QB 507 at 527):
‘In the present case there is the further complication to which I have already referred of the conviction and fine of the defendants. These problems persuade me that there would be a serious risk of injustice to the defendants in this case if an award of exemplary damages were to be made against them.
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There is no injustice to the plaintiffs in refusing to permit such an award; they are not foregoing compensation to which they are entitled, but an additional windfall based solely on the defendants’ alleged improper conduct.’
[64] In my judgment the fact that a defendant has been fined for his conduct is a powerful factor against the award of exemplary damages, although it may not be conclusive in itself.
Multiple claimants
[65] There is also the problem that there are multiple claimants. The defendants submitted that this, of itself, was a bar to an award of exemplary damages. The defendants relied on an earlier part of the judgment of Stuart-Smith LJ in AB v South West Water Services Ltd [1993] 1 All ER 609 at 624, [1993] QB 507 at 527:
‘There is however one aspect of the case which in my view makes it peculiarly unsuitable for an award of exemplary damages, even if the first two hoops are negotiated, and that is the number of plaintiffs. Unless all their claims are quantified by the court at the same time, how is the court to fix and apportion the punitive element of the damages? Should the court fix a global sum of £x and divide it by 180, equally among the plaintiffs? Or should it be divided according to the gravity of the personal injury suffered? Some plaintiffs may have been affected by the alleged oppressive, arbitrary, arrogant and high-handed behaviour, others not. If the assessment is made separately at different times for different plaintiffs, how is the court to know that the overall punishment is appropriate?’
[66] Difficulties of a similar kind were referred to by the Divisional Court in R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd [1997] Eu LR 475 at 526 (I should add that the defendants did not rely on the decision of the Divisional Court that exemplary damages were not in any event available for breach of a statutory duty arising under the European Communities Act 1972, because that conclusion appears to derive from the application of the now discredited ‘cause of action’ test).
[67] Mr Layton submitted that the mere fact that there were multiple claimants was not an absolute bar to an award of exemplary damages. Thus far, I think he is right. On the unusual facts of the Borders (UK) case, damages labelled ‘exemplary damages’ were awarded to eight claimant booksellers. It was not argued before me that this was explicable on the basis that the theft of each book was a separate tort of conversion against the individual bookseller from whom it was stolen (and the multiple claimants point does not seem to have arisen in the Borders (UK) case itself).
[68] However, in the present case the claimants are not the only persons affected by the unlawful conduct. The cartels that the Commission found to exist affected the market in the whole of the European Union. If exemplary damages are awarded to the claimants, on what basis are they to be awarded? If the court attempts to fix a global amount by reference to the cartels as a whole, it would in effect be awarding a remedy that could not be awarded in most member states. Even if the court were to attempt to limit the exemplary damages to the activities of the cartel within England and Wales, the claimants are not the only ones who are affected within England and Wales. Why should they scoop the pool? Once the court has fixed the amount of the exemplary damages, how is it to take into
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account the fines that have been imposed? If it deducts the fines from the exemplary damages, then, taking BASF as an example, there is no practical utility in the claim for exemplary damages unless there is a real prospect that the exemplary damages would exceed ¹236m. It also seems to me that in a case where the discretionary remedy of exemplary damages is invoked in aid of rights arising under the EC Treaty, the court should be wary of granting a remedy which is potentially unavailable in most member states. As the Divisional Court observed in R v Secretary of State for Transport, ex p Factortame Ltd [1997] Eu LR 475 at 525–526:
‘For English law to give the remedy of penal damages for breaches of Community law would decrease the move towards uniformity, it would involve distinctions between the practice of national courts and the liabilities of different member states and between the United Kingdom and the Community institutions, and would, accordingly, in itself be potentially discriminatory since litigants in England would be treated differently from those elsewhere. The arguments of the applicants under this head need to be considered with great caution. Their acceptance would risk introducing into the law of Community obligations anomalies and conflicts which do not at present exist and would not serve a useful purpose.’
[69] The order for trial of the preliminary issues requires me to determine whether exemplary damages are or might be available on the assumed facts. The plea for exemplary damages is at large. As pleaded there is no way of limiting the exemplary damages to avoid the danger of double counting. There is also the serious problem of assessing the damages, and the fact that the claimants are only part of the class affected by the wrongful conduct, not to mention the scale of the fines imposed by the European Commission. These cumulative factors persuade me that the court would not, at trial, award exemplary damages to these claimants.
Amendment of pleadings
[70] Mr Layton sought to escape from that difficulty by saying that his claim for exemplary damages was really a claim for compensatory damages and was framed as a claim for exemplary damages only because of the difficulties of proof. However, as I have said, this is not how the claim has been pleaded. If Mr Layton were to limit his claim in the manner suggested, then an amendment to the pleadings would, in my judgment, be necessary. In submitting that this was a permissible basis on which to advance a claim for exemplary damages, Mr Layton relied heavily on the Borders (UK) case. I must therefore return to that case.
[71] I have already given a brief account of the facts; but it is now necessary to explain how the master came to award exemplary damages of £100,000. He first assessed compensatory damages. This was the difference in value between the retail value of the recovered books when stolen, and their retail value when recovered. No award of compensatory damages was made in relation to books that had been stolen and sold by Mr Jordan (and hence not recovered). The master found as a fact that Mr Jordan had made more profit from selling stolen books than the compensatory damages that the claimants had claimed. Since the claimants had limited their claim to the recovered books only, this was not surprising. He then quantified the exemplary damages by averaging the recommended retail price of the lost books at £10, and assuming that for each such book Mr Jordan was paying 60 per cent of recommended retail price (£6) and
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selling it at 80 per cent (£8). On that basis his estimated turnover of 700 books a week was yielding him, at £2 profit per book, £1,400 a week or £72,800 a year. The master accepted Mr Jordan’s evidence that he ran his ‘racket’ for three years; and gave him credit for certain expenses (eg rent of a lock-up garage). After making certain further adjustments the master arrived at round figures of £20,000 as the net proceeds of crime in the first year, £30,000 in the second and £50,000 in the third. The total, £100,000, became the amount of exemplary damages.
[72] In the Court of Appeal Sedley LJ pointed out that—
‘[i]f this part of the claim had been framed as a further claim for compensatory damages, it is evident from the master’s findings that it would have succeeded. Indeed it is evident that while Master Leslie had no difficulty in quantifying this element of the claim as part of the claimants’ losses, he had rather more difficulty in characterising it as exemplary damages. But neither at the hearing, where the claimants were represented by counsel, nor before this court, was any application made to amend . . . the claim so as to make it a further head of compensatory damages. Nor, however, did Mr Hellman [counsel for Mr Jordan] at any stage demur to this part of the pleading as unsustainable in law. Mr Convey [counsel for the booksellers], consistently but hazardously, has stuck throughout to his argument that, albeit they were computed so as to reflect the claimants’ losses, these were in law punitive damages.’ (See [2005] All ER (D) 60 (Mar) at [13].)
[73] Sedley LJ took the view that at first blush an award of compensatory damages and an award of exemplary damages were mutually exclusive. However, what persuaded him that the master’s decision was appropriate was that there was no windfall in the claimants’ hands. In his concluding observations he said (at [28]):
‘Notwithstanding therefore that the second element could, and in my judgment should, have been pleaded before judgment as a second head of compensation, the fact that it bore a compensatory character did not prevent it from ranking within the second common-law category of exemplary damages . . .’ (My emphasis.)
[74] In my judgment, in order to limit the claim for exemplary damages in the way that Mr Layton said that it was intended to be limited, an amendment to the pleadings will be necessary. But if the pleadings are to be amended in order to incorporate Mr Layton’s limitation, I can see no reason why the claim should not be framed as a claim for compensatory damages, in precisely the way that Sedley LJ said should be done. What Sedley LJ said also illustrates the ability of the court to award effective compensatory damages, even where the loss cannot be proved with precision. On that basis, the claim for exemplary damages serves no useful purpose. For all these reasons I have concluded that the claimants are not entitled to exemplary damages.
RESTITUTIONARY AWARD
[75] The claim for a restitutionary award is pleaded in the following terms:
‘Further or alternatively, in the premises, the Defendants have been unjustly enriched by their implementation of and/or giving effect to the Vitamins Cartel as a consequence of the difference between the prices actually paid and the prices that would have been paid in the absence of the Vitamins Cartel.
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Accordingly, the Defendants are liable in restitution and/or for restitutionary damages to the Claimant for the unjust enrichment of the Defendants.’
[76] In the course of his expert report Dr Veljanovski says:
‘I note that the Claimant has also pleaded for exemplary and restitutionary damages. I offer no comments on these other than to note that in theory compensatory and restitutionary damages are likely to be identical based on the overcharge or price difference method.’
[77] Mr Layton based his argument in support of the claim to a restitutionary award principally by reference to the decision of the House of Lords in A-G v Blake [2000] 4 All ER 385, [2001] AC 268 and subsequent cases in the Court of Appeal that have begun to work out its implications. The starting point, he said, was the decision of Brightman J in Wrotham Park Estate Co v Parkside Homes Ltd [1974] 2 All ER 321, [1974] 1 WLR 798 in which damages were awarded for a developer’s breach of a restrictive covenant on the basis of what could reasonably have been demanded by the plaintiff for relaxation of the covenant. Although Brightman J was awarding damages in lieu of an injunction, I accept that that fact makes no difference to the manner in which damages are assessed. It seems to me to be clear that in assessing damages Brightman J applied the usual principle that damages should be measured by reference to that sum that would place the victim in the position in which he would have been if the wrong had not taken place. On the facts he assessed the damages by reference to what the wrongdoer would have paid for permission to carry out the wrongful acts. This does not, in my judgment, amount to stripping the defendant of his gain, or even part of his gain. Rather, on the evidence, the judge concluded that the price for a relaxation of the covenant would have been negotiated by reference to the developer’s anticipated profit. As Potter LJ explained in the trespass case of Severn Trent Water Ltd v Barnes [2004] EWCA Civ 570 at [41], [2004] 2 EGLR 95 at [41]:
‘. . . It is, of course, the position that in cases of trespass of this kind there is no right to a share in, or account of, profits in any conventional sense. The only relevance of the defendant’s profits is that they are likely to be a helpful reference point for the court when seeking to fix upon a fair price for a notional licence . . .’
[78] The price is objectively ascertained. The sum awarded in the Wrotham Park case was treated by Brightman J as compensation for loss rather than as stripping a gain. The damages are user damages. In WWF-World Wide Fund for Nature (formerly World Wildlife Fund) v World Wrestling Federation Entertainment Inc [2007] EWCA Civ 286, [2008] 1 All ER 74 Chadwick LJ also said (at [29]) that Brightman J regarded himself as having awarded compensatory damages rather than a gains-based award.
[79] In A-G v Blake Lord Nicholls surveyed the way in which the courts award compensation. He began by considering interference with rights of property. As he pointed out ([2000] 4 All ER 385 at 391, [2001] AC 268 at 278):
‘Damages are measured by the plaintiff’s loss, not the defendant’s gain. But the common law, pragmatic as ever, has long recognised that there are many commonplace situations where a strict application of this principle would not do justice between the parties. Then compensation for the wrong done to the plaintiff is measured by a different yardstick.’
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[80] He referred to the price or hire cases, including The Mediana [1900] AC 113, [1900–3] All ER Rep 126 and Watson, Laidlaw & Co Ltd v Pott, Cassells and Williamson (1914) 31 RPC 104. He referred to the difficulty of aligning this measure of damages within the basic compensatory measure. He noted that the ‘label’ of restitutionary damages had been applied to damages calculated on this basis, although he regarded it as an ‘unhappy phrase’. His conclusion was that:
‘these awards cannot be regarded as conforming to the strictly compensatory measure of damage for the injured person’s loss unless loss is given a strained and artificial meaning. The reality is that the injured person’s rights were invaded but, in financial terms, he suffered no loss. Nevertheless the common law has found a means to award him a sensibly calculated amount of money. Such awards are probably best regarded as an exception to the general rule.’ (See [2000] 4 All ER 385 at 392, [2001] AC 268 at 279.)
[81] These observations do not, in my judgment, support the view that Lord Nicholls was supporting a restitutionary award based on the defendant’s personal gain. In the price or hire cases, the damages have been assessed as user damages. This is an objective measure and is awarded where, in financial terms, the claimant has suffered no loss. It is not a case of a claimant having suffered financial loss but having evidential difficulties in proving it. It is precisely because he has suffered no loss that the law’s response is to seek a different way to compensate him for the invasion of his rights.
[82] However, Lord Nicholls went on to examine cases in which a court of equity would grant a claimant an account of profits. This went further than the common law, because the wrongdoer was required to disgorge all his gains. Equity adopted this approach in cases where it was difficult to quantify the financial loss that the victim had suffered. Lord Nicholls commented ([2000] 4 All ER 385 at 393, [2001] AC 268 at 280):
‘Considered as a matter of principle, it is difficult to see why equity required the wrongdoer to account for all his profits in these cases, whereas the common law’s response was to require a wrongdoer merely to pay a reasonable fee for use of another’s land or goods. In all these cases rights of property were infringed. This difference in remedial response appears to have arisen simply as an accident of history.’
[83] He then considered the cases in which damages had been awarded in lieu of an injunction, including the Wrotham Park case. He said of these cases that:
‘The measure of damages awarded in this type of case is often analysed as damages for loss of a bargaining opportunity or, which comes to the same, the price payable for the compulsory acquisition of a right. This analysis is correct.’ (See [2000] 4 All ER 385 at 394, [2001] AC 268 at 281.)
[84] If analysed in the way that Lord Nicholls approved, these cases can be seen as cases in which the claimant is compensated for what he has lost, rather than cases in which the defendant is stripped of his gains. However, Lord Nicholls also said of these cases that:
‘In a suitable case damages for breach of contract may be measured by the benefit gained by the wrongdoer from the breach. The defendant must
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make a reasonable payment in respect of the benefit he has gained.’ (See [2000] 4 All ER 385 at 396, [2001] AC 268 at 283–284.)
[85] He then pointed out that the Crown sought to go further and obtain an account of all profits that Blake made from the book. This led him to a discussion of the circumstances in which a court could award the remedy of an account of profits as a response to a breach of contract. He said ([2000] 4 All ER 385 at 397, [2001] AC 268 at 284):
‘My conclusion is that there seems to be no reason, in principle, why the court must in all circumstances rule out an account of profits as a remedy for breach of contract . . . Remedies are the law’s response to a wrong (or, more precisely, to a cause of action). When, exceptionally, a just response to a breach of contract so requires, the court should be able to grant the discretionary remedy of requiring a defendant to account to the plaintiff for the benefits he has received from his breach of contract.’
[86] He then considered the circumstances in which an account of profits would be a just response to a breach of contract and concluded ([2000] 4 All ER 385 at 398, [2001] AC 268 at 285):
‘An account of profits will be appropriate only in exceptional circumstances. Normally the remedies of damages, specific performance and injunction, coupled with the characterisation of some contractual obligations as fiduciary, will provide an adequate response to a breach of contract. It will be only in exceptional cases, where those remedies are inadequate, that any question of accounting for profits will arise. No fixed rules can be prescribed. The court will have regard to all the circumstances, including the subject matter of the contract, the purpose of the contractual provision which has been breached, the circumstances in which the breach occurred, the consequences of the breach and the circumstances in which relief is being sought. A useful general guide, although not exhaustive, is whether the plaintiff had a legitimate interest in preventing the defendant’s profit-making activity and, hence, in depriving him of his profit.’
[87] The defendants point out that Lord Nicholls’s observations were all concerned with breach of contract, whereas the cause of action in the present case is breach of statutory duty. However, Lord Nicholls’s discussion of the law began with a consideration of remedies for torts. It is true that, as the defendants point out, the torts concerned were all concerned with invasion of proprietary rights. But in the context of Lord Nicholls’s speech that seems to be no more than a historical accident. Nevertheless the defendants argue that I am precluded by binding authority from applying Lord Nicholls’s approach to a claim for damages in tort, if the tort is not an invasion of proprietary rights. I will return to this point after I have considered the remaining cases in which A-G v Blake has been considered.
[88] In Esso Petroleum Co Ltd v Niad Ltd [2001] EWHC 6 (Ch), [2001] All ER (D) 324 (Nov) Esso entered into a solus agreement with Niad covering one filling station. Esso introduced a marketing scheme called ‘Pricewatch’ under which it made financial support available to its dealers in return for their selling petrol at recommended retail prices, designed to compete with or undercut Esso’s competitors. Niad agreed to join the scheme, but in fact sold petrol at prices in
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excess of the recommended prices. Sir Andrew Morritt V-C awarded Esso an account of Niad’s profits. His reasons for doing so (see [63]) were that:
‘. . . First, damages is an inadequate remedy. It is almost impossible to attribute lost sales to a breach by one out of several hundred dealers who operated Pricewatch. Second, the obligation to implement and maintain the recommended pump prices was fundamental to Pricewatch. Failure to observe it gives the lie to the advertising campaign by which it was publicised and therefore undermines the effectiveness of Pricewatch in achieving the benefits intended for both Esso and all its dealers within Pricewatch. Third, complaint was made of Niad on four occasions. On all of them Niad appeared to comply without demur. It now appears that the breaches of its obligation were much more extensive than Esso at first thought. Fourth, Esso undoubtedly has a legitimate interest in preventing Niad from profiting from its breach of obligation.’
[89] In addition the Vice Chancellor considered that Esso were in principle entitled to a restitutionary award. His reasons for that conclusion (see [64]) were:
‘. . . It is undoubted that Niad obtained a benefit, in the form of the price support, to which it was only entitled if it complied with its obligation to implement and maintain the recommended pump prices to be supported. In these circumstances it can hardly be denied that Niad was enriched to the extent that it charged pump prices in excess of the recommended prices. The enrichment was unjust because it was obtained in breach of contract. It was obtained at the expense of Esso because Esso was providing price support for a lower price than that charged by Niad. I can see no reason why this remedy should be unavailable to Esso if it wishes to pursue it. Indeed it appears to me to be the most appropriate remedy in that it matches most closely the reality of the case, namely that Niad took an extra benefit to which it was not entitled. It is just that it should be made to restore it to its effective source.’
[90] The extent of the restitutionary award was the amount by which the pump prices it charged its customers exceeded the recommended prices between certain dates. Esso would have to elect between these two remedies. It will be seen that the first and fundamental reason for awarding an account of profits was the impossibility of assessing any damage caused to Esso by conventional means. The legitimate interest that Esso had in preventing Niad from retaining its profit is seen in the fact that Niad had done precisely what it had agreed not to do, and the fact that Pricewatch was intended to benefit all Esso’s dealers.
[91] In Experience Hendrix LLC v PPX Enterprises Inc [2003] EWCA Civ 323, [2003] 1 All ER (Comm) 830 the Court of Appeal considered the question of compensation for breach of a settlement agreement. Under the terms of the agreement the defendant was entitled to license certain recordings by Jimi Hendrix at agreed royalty rates. In fact the defendant licensed other recordings. At the opening of the trial counsel for the claimant made it clear—
‘that he had no evidence, and he said that he did not imagine that he could ever possibly get any evidence, to show or quantify any financial loss suffered by the [claimant] as a result of PPX’s breaches. So it was accepted that, if this was the only available measure, then no (or perhaps strictly only a nominal) award of damages could be made . . .’ (See [14].)
Thus the question for the Court of Appeal was:
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‘whether the court can and should order the recovery of any damages or an account of profits in circumstances where the appellant has not proved that it has suffered any financial loss . . .’ (See [15].)
[92] Mance LJ said that A-G v Blake marked ‘a new start in this area’. He analysed the speech of Lord Nicholls and concluded (at [26]):
‘Whether the adoption of a standard measure of damages represents a departure from a compensatory approach depends upon what one understands by compensation and whether the term is only apt in circumstances where an injured party’s financial position, viewed subjectively, is being precisely restored. The law frequently introduces objective measures (eg the available market rules in sale of goods) or limitations (eg remoteness). The former may increase or limit a claimant’s ability to recover loss actually suffered . . . In a case such as the Wrotham Park case the law gives effect to the instinctive reaction that, whether or not the appellant would have been better off if the wrong had not been committed, the wrongdoer ought not to gain an advantage for free, and should make some reasonable recompense. In such a context it is natural to pay regard to any profit made by the wrongdoer (although a wrongdoer surely cannot always rely on avoiding having to make reasonable recompense by showing that despite his wrong he failed, perhaps simply due to his own incompetence, to make any profit). The law can in such cases act either by ordering payment over of a percentage of any profit or, in some cases, by taking the cost which the wrongdoer would have had to incur to obtain (if feasible) equivalent benefit from another source.’
[93] The important point to my mind is that the claimant in that case could not show that it had suffered any financial loss; and that it was for that reason that the law gave effect to the instinctive reaction that the wrongdoer ought not to gain an advantage ‘for free’. As I read the decision, this was not merely a case of evidential difficulties of proof, but the lack of facts that could be alleged to support a claim for compensatory damages. Mance LJ then turned to consider what constituted ‘exceptional circumstances’ such as to bring into play the remedy of an account of profits (either full or partial). He rejected the notion that skimped performance was enough; and also rejected the notion that doing what one had contracted not to do was enough. Nor was the fact that a breach of contract was deliberately or cynically committed. On the facts, Mance LJ concluded that the case was not exceptional in the sense that an account of profits was the just response. He held, however, that PPX should pay ‘a reasonable sum for its use of material in breach of the settlement agreement’ (see [45]). That sum was the amount that the claimant could reasonably have demanded for a relaxation of the contractual restrictions. In other words, the damages were user damages. Hooper J agreed with Mance J.
[94] Applying Lord Nicholls’s analysis in A-G v Blake this measure of damages is properly analysed as compensation for loss of a bargaining position even though, as Mance LJ recognised, the analysis has some elements of artificiality.
[95] Peter Gibson LJ took a slightly different approach. He said (at [58]):
‘In my judgment, because (1) there has been a deliberate breach by PPX of its contractual obligations for its own reward, (2) the claimant would have difficulty in establishing financial loss therefrom, and (3) the claimant has a legitimate interest in preventing PPX’s profit-making activity carried out in
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breach of PPX’s contractual obligations, the present case is a suitable one (as envisaged by Lord Nicholls . . .) in which damages for breach of contract may be measured by the benefits gained by the wrongdoer from the breach. To avoid injustice I would require PPX to make a reasonable payment in respect of the benefit it has gained. I agree with the guidance suggested by Mance LJ for the court assessing the damages.’
[96] These were the considerations to which Lord Nicholls referred in dealing with the criteria which might be appropriate before ordering an account of profits. Yet as Mance LJ pointed out, the award made in the Experience Hendrix case was not an account of profits. PPX’s profits did not enter into the equation at all. Rather, PPX were required to pay the price that the claimant could reasonably have demanded for relaxing the contractual restrictions. Hooper J also agreed with Peter Gibson LJ. In so far as I am permitted to choose between these two lines of reasoning, I respectfully prefer that of Mance LJ.
[97] In WWF-World Wide Fund for Nature (formerly World Wildlife Fund) v World Wrestling Federation Entertainment Inc [2008] 1 All ER 74 the Court of Appeal again considered the award of damages on the basis applied in the Wrotham Park case. Chadwick LJ concluded that damages awarded on that basis were not ‘gains-based’ but were compensatory. However, he went further, and held that an order for an account of profits is also a facet of compensatory damages. He said (at [59]):
‘When the court makes an award of damages on the Wrotham Park basis it does so because it is satisfied that that is a just response to circumstances in which the compensation which is the claimant’s due cannot be measured (or cannot be measured solely) by reference to identifiable financial loss. Lord Nicholls’s analysis in A-G v Blake demonstrates that there are exceptional cases in which the just response to circumstances in which the compensation which is the claimant’s due cannot be measured by reference to identifiable financial loss is an order which deprives the wrongdoer of all the fruits of his wrong. The circumstances in which an award of damages on the Wrotham Park basis may be an appropriate response, and those in which the appropriate response is an account of profits, may differ in degree. But the underlying feature, in both cases, is that the court recognises the need to compensate the claimant in circumstances where he cannot demonstrate identifiable financial loss. To label an award of damages on the Wrotham Park basis as a “compensatory” remedy and an order for an account of profits as a “gains-based” remedy does not assist an understanding of the principles on which the court acts. The two remedies should, I think, each be seen as a flexible response to the need to compensate the claimant for the wrong which has been done to him.’
[98] As Chadwick LJ points out, the underlying feature of each remedy is that the claimant ‘cannot demonstrate identifiable financial loss’. If, on the other hand, the claimant can demonstrate identifiable financial loss then principle would suggest that the compensation he receives should be commensurate with the loss that he demonstrates.
[99] The post-A-G v Blake cases thus far have all been cases of breach of contract. As I have said, the defendants say that this flexible response is not available in tort. In support of this proposition they rely on the decision of the Court of Appeal in Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd [1988] 3 All ER
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394, [1988] 1 WLR 1406. The council operated markets within its area on certain days of the week. The defendant set up a rival market on a different day of the week. The setting up of the rival market amounted to a nuisance, but one that is actionable without proof of actual loss. The trial judge awarded damages on the basis of the sum which the council could have charged for the right to operate a rival market. His decision was reversed by the Court of Appeal. Nourse LJ said ([1988] 3 All ER 394 at 397–398, [1988] 1 WLR 1406 at 1410):
‘The general rule is that a successful plaintiff in an action in tort recovers damages equivalent to the loss which he has suffered, no more and no less. If he has suffered no loss, the most he can recover are nominal damages. A second general rule is that where the plaintiff has suffered loss to his property or some proprietary right, he recovers damages equivalent to the diminution in value of the property or right. The authorities establish that both these rules are subject to exceptions. These must be closely examined, in order to see whether a further exception ought to be made in this case.’
[100] Nourse LJ went on to consider the trespass, detinue and infringement of patent cases and concluded ([1988] 3 All ER 394 at 400, [1988] 1 WLR 1406 at 1413–1414:
‘But it is only in the last-mentioned case [ie Wrotham Park] and in the trespass cases that damages have been awarded in accordance with either principle without proof of loss to the plaintiff. In all the other cases, the plaintiff having established his loss, the real question has not been whether substantial damages should be awarded at all, but whether they should be assessed in accordance with the user principle or by reference to the diminution in value of the property or right. In other words, those other cases are exceptions to the second, but not to the first, of the general rules stated above.’
[101] At the end of his judgment he said [1988] 3 All ER 394 at 402, [1988] 1 WLR 1406 at 1415):
‘It is possible that the English law of tort, more especially of the so-called “proprietary torts”, will in due course make a more deliberate move towards recovery based not on loss suffered by the plaintiff but on the unjust enrichment of the defendant: see Goff and Jones The Law of Restitution (3rd edn, 1986) pp 612–614. But I do not think that that process can begin in this case and I doubt whether it can begin at all at this level of decision.’
[102] Nicholls LJ agreed with Nourse LJ’s conclusion. He said ([1988] 3 All ER 394 at 404, [1988] 1 WLR 1406 at 1419):
‘If, on the one hand, the unauthorised, other-day market has caused and is causing no loss, either of stallage or of tolls or under any of the other heads of loss which may affect the owner of a market right, there is no cause of action. There is, in that event, no question of applying the user principle. If, on the other hand, the owner of the market right does sustain loss under one or more of those heads, damages must surely be commensurate with the quantum of the loss so sustained. The damages will correspond, so far as the court can fairly assess them, to the amount of the loss flowing to the owner of the market right from the respects in which he has in fact been damnified in his enjoyment of that right by the holding of the unauthorised, other-day
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market. Again, there would be no place for awarding, by application of the user principle, damages in a sum greater than the amount of that loss.’
[103] It is fair to say that the W & J Wass case has been criticised by commentators (eg Goff & Jones on Restitution (7th edn, 2007) pp 809–811 (para 36-006)). It has not, however, been suggested that the W & J Wass case has been overruled or disapproved in subsequent cases. Indeed Goff & Jones themselves say (p 46 (para 1-050)):
‘For example, not all torts ground a restitutionary claim. Existing authority suggests that only tortious acts which infringe the claimant’s proprietary or possessory title can ground a restitutionary claim.’
[104] In Halifax Building Society v Thomas [1995] 4 All ER 673, [1996] 1 Ch 217 the defendant had obtained a mortgage by means of fraudulent representations. He defaulted on the mortgage and the mortgagee sold the mortgaged property in exercise of its power of sale. The sales proceeds exceeded the amount of the mortgage debt; and the mortgagee claimed the surplus as a restitutionary award. The Court of Appeal rejected the claim. Peter Gibson LJ said ([1995] 4 All ER 673 at 680, [1996] 1 Ch 217 at 227–228):
‘Further, I am not satisfied that in the circumstances of the present case it would be right to treat the unjust enrichment of Mr Thomas as having been gained “at the expense of” the society, even allowing for the possibility of an extended meaning for those words to apply to cases of non-subtractive restitution for a wrong. There is no decided authority that comes anywhere near to covering the present circumstances. I do not overlook the fact that the policy of law is to view with disfavour a wrongdoer benefiting from his wrong, the more so when the wrong amounts to fraud, but it cannot be suggested that there is a universally applicable principle that in every case there will be restitution of benefit from a wrong. As Birks says [Introduction to the Law of Restitution (1989)] (p 24): “there are some circumstances in which enrichment by wrongdoing has to be given up. That is, the wrong itself is not always in itself a sufficient factor to call for restitution.” On the facts of the present case, in my judgment, the fraud is not in itself a sufficient factor to allow the society to require Mr Thomas to account to it.’
[105] Glidewell LJ (in observations later approved by Lord Nicholls in A-G v Blake) said ([1995] 4 All ER 673 at 682, [1996] 1 Ch 217 at 229):
‘The proposition that a wrongdoer should not be allowed to profit from his wrongs has an obvious attraction. The further proposition that the victim or intended victim of the wrongdoing, who has in the event suffered no loss, is entitled to retain or recover the amount of the profit is less obviously persuasive.’
[106] Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd and Halifax Building Society v Thomas do, in my judgment, show that a restitutionary award is not yet generally available in all cases of tort. Both these cases are decisions of the Court of Appeal and hence binding on me. Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd was not cited or referred to in A-G v Blake but since Lord Nicholls participated in Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd (as Nicholls LJ) and gave the leading speech in A-G v Blake it would be odd if he had undergone a Damascene conversion about the
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availability of restitutionary awards across the board in tort cases and yet had not referred to his earlier judgment.
[107] In addition there is (once again) the problem that there are multiple claimants and that the claimants before the court are only part of the class of persons injured by the tort. Goff & Jones, discussing the hypothetical case of a factory that creates a nuisance to a neighbourhood say (p 814 (para 36-008)):
‘The difficulties confronting a court in measuring and valuing the benefit gained by the factory owner at the expense of the individual householder (possibly the value of an individual licence) in this example persuade us that, in some situations, where there may well be multiple claimants who suffer loss from a tortious act, a restitutionary claim should be denied. Legal problems apart, any judicial inquiry, with the possibly complex attendant evidence which will have to be introduced, may well be inefficient in economic terms.’
[108] On the basis of the decisions of the Court of Appeal in Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd and Halifax Building Society v Thomas I conclude that whatever the law ought to be, it is not (yet) the law that a restitutionary award is available in all cases of tort. In my judgment a restitutionary award is not an available remedy in an antitrust case. If the law is to be changed, it must be done by a higher court than this one. Moreover, even where a restitutionary award is available, it is generally awarded where an award of more traditionally-based compensatory damages would be inadequate to compensate the claimant for the invasion of his rights. Yet in the present case, Dr Veljanovski says that the measure of restitutionary damages is the same as the measure of compensatory damages. If that is so, then on the assumed facts compensatory damages would be an adequate remedy.
[109] I conclude therefore that, on the assumptions I am required to make, a restitutionary award is not available in the present case.
ACCOUNT OF PROFITS
[110] The defendants’ primary position is that Stoke-on-Trent City Council v W & J Wass Ltd precludes an account of profits just as it precludes a restitutionary award. For the reasons I have given I consider that they are right.
[111] In addition as Lord Nicholls said in A-G v Blake [2000] 4 All ER 385 at 398, [2001] AC 268 at 285: ‘It will be only in exceptional cases, where those remedies are inadequate, that any question of accounting for profits will arise.’
[112] As I have said, on the assumptions that I am required to make, compensatory damages would be an adequate remedy. That being so, an account of profits is not an appropriate remedy in principle. But even if compensatory damages would not be adequate (because of the practical evidential difficulty of proof) I would still conclude that an account of profits is not an appropriate remedy in this case.
[113] First, the claimants are simply part of an EU-wide class of persons who have all been affected, to a greater or lesser degree, by the same tortious conduct. As members of a class, not all of whom are before the court, I cannot see how these particular claimants can be said to have a ‘legitimate interest’ in preventing the defendants from making a profit from their tort. Their interest is an interest common to all tort claims, not an exceptional interest such as to justify an account of profits remedy. Mr Layton points out that the cartel was secret and that it committed a wrong designed to secure profit. However, it is clear from A-G v Blake that the mere fact that the wrongdoing in question was deliberately committed is
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not enough; and from Experience Hendrix LLC v PPX Enterprises Inc [2003] 1 All ER (Comm) 830 that doing precisely what one had contracted not to do was likewise not enough.
[114] Second, the representative claimants (Moy Park and Devenish) occupy different levels in the supply chain. Each of them has downstream customers, and in the case of Moy Park upstream suppliers as well. But unless all relevant claimants are before the court, how is the profit made by the defendants to be allocated? There is no clear answer to that question. If no account is taken of whether a particular claimant passed through price increases to a downstream customer, then that claimant might itself be unjustly enriched. An avoidance of unjust enrichment of a claimant is a factor to which the ECJ drew attention in Courage Ltd v Crehan [2001] All ER (EC) 886, [2002] QB 507. But if account is taken of ‘pass through’, then an account of profits hardly differs from the measure of compensatory damages which the claimants advocate (and which I must assume will succeed). Moreover, if the two measures differ one cannot exclude the possibility that, if an account of profits were to be available, some claimants with better evidence might choose an award of compensatory damages, while other claimants with worse evidence might choose an account of profits. I do not think that it would be fair for remedies to be mixed and matched.
[115] Third, if an account of profits were available, the fact that all the defendants have been fined (even though the fine imposed upon Aventis has been commuted) would have to be taken into account. Mr Layton argues that part of the rationale for the award of an account of profits is deterrence. But as I see it the question of deterrence has already been dealt with by the imposition of fines and not to take those fines into account would be double punishment.
[116] Finally, the scale of the inquiry that would be required in the case of these defendants all of which are or are parts of multi-national groups must be taken into account. The evidence about this is contained in the witness statements of Mr McDougall, Mr Lawrence, Mr Brown and Dr Baechli. It is very likely that disclosure of documents would be both enormous and multi-lingual, would require consideration of taxation and accounting methods in differing jurisdictions and a difficult exercise in allocating profits as between vitamins that formed part of the cartels and other products. In addition in the case of the Roche defendants, the relevant vitamin businesses have been sold to a third party with the result that the Roche defendants no longer have access to the relevant documents. Mr Layton said that these concerns could be met by limiting the scope of the account, but no concrete suggestion was advanced.
[117] Accordingly, for the reasons I have given I consider that on the assumptions I am required to make, the claimants are not entitled to an account of profits.
RESULT
[118] I answer the preliminary issues ‘No’.
Order accordingly.
Vanessa Higgins Barrister
Revenue and Customs Commissioners v Trustees of the Peter Clay Discretionary Trust
[2008] 2 All ER 283
[2007] EWHC 2661 (Ch)
Categories: TAXATION; Income Tax: TRUSTS
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): LINDSAY J
Hearing Date(s): 25 OCTOBER, 15 NOVEMBER 2007
Income tax – Settlement – Discretionary trust – Income – Additional rate of tax – Expenses properly chargeable to income – Trust incurring expenses in administering trust – Whether expenses properly chargeable to income of trust – Whether trustees’ fees properly chargeable to income or capital – Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, s 686(2AA).
The case concerned a broad discretionary trust under which almost all the income was customarily accumulated. An additional rate of income was payable upon certain income arising to trustees of discretionary trusts, but statutory provision was made, by s 686(2AA)a of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, such that in computing the amount of the income so liable such of the expenses of the trustees as were properly chargeable to income might, in effect, be deducted. The trustees sought to attribute certain expenses to the income of the trust so as to take advantage of that provision. On appeal the Special Commissioners determined that whilst certain of the expenses in issue, namely investment management fees, were capital expenses not chargeable to income, some unspecified proportions of the trustees’ other expenses, including their own fees, in the tax year ending 5 April 2001 were properly chargeable to income, hence pro tanto reducing the amount of tax payable by the trustees. The Revenue appealed and the trustees cross-appealed.
Held – It was a principle or rule, within the general law of trusts, that trustees’ expenditure incurred for the benefit of the whole estate was to be regarded as a capital expense. In so far as the case law laid down a general rule that income had to bear all ordinary outgoings of a recurrent nature, such as rates and taxes and interest on charges and incumbrances, that rule was subservient to the principle that capital had to bear all costs, charges and expenses incurred for the benefit of the whole estate. One could not escape that general principle by pointing to some ability expressly conferred by a trust instrument to charge a given expenditure wholly or in part to income notwithstanding that under general law it was an expense incurred for the benefit of the whole estate. It was clear that whichever pocket the trustees might choose from which to pay an expense, that expense had an intrinsic nature under the general law, such that, as between the Revenue and the trustees, if it was incurred for the benefit of the whole estate, it was inescapably assigned to capital. The fact, were it so, that as between one class of beneficiaries and another or in the ultimate internal accounts of the trustees the given expense could be or was, by reason of some
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provision other than of the general law, treated or treatable as income would in such a case not overcome its intrinsic nature, as between the trustees and the Revenue, as capital because, for immediate purposes, s 686(2AA) of the 1988 Act required a look to what the position would be ‘but for any express provisions of the trust’. It followed that the Special Commissioners had erred in law: they had been wrong to resist that all costs, charges and expenses incurred for the benefit of the whole estate were inescapably to be treated as of a capital nature for the purposes of s 686(2AA). Having regard to the trustees’ fees, the starting point was that such remuneration should be regarded as incurred for the benefit of the whole estate. At lowest, there had to be a heavy evidential burden, which had not been satisfied in the instant case, upon those who asserted some other conclusion. The Revenue’s appeal would, accordingly, to that extent be allowed. The trustees’ cross-appeal would be dismissed (see [31], [33], [34], [36], [47], [49], [57], below).
Carver v Duncan (Inspector of Taxes), Bosanquet v Allen (Inspector of Taxes) [1985] 2 All ER 645 and Re Bennett, Jones v Bennett [1896] 1 Ch 778 discussed.
Notes
For the treatment of trust management expenses, see 23(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue), para 1549.
For the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988, s 686(2AA) (now replaced by the Income Tax Act 2007, ss 484(1), (2), (4), (5), 486(1), Sch 2, para 102), see 44(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue), 933.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bennett, Re, Jones v Bennett [1896] 1 Ch 778, CA.
Carver v Duncan (Inspector of Taxes), Bosanquet v Allen (Inspector of Taxes) [1985] 2 All ER 645, [1985] 1 AC 1082, [1985] 2 WLR 1010, HL; affg [1984] STC 556, [1985] AC 1082, [1984] 3 WLR 1209, CA; rvsg [1983] STC 310, [1983] 1 WLR 494.
Chesterfield’s (Earl) Trusts, Re (1883) 24 Ch D 643, [1881–5] All ER Rep 737.
Grimthorpe’s (Baron) Will Trusts, Re [1958] 1 All ER 765, sub nom Re Grimthorpe (decd) [1958] Ch 615, [1958] 1 WLR 381.
Hotchkys, Re, Freke v Calmady (1886) 32 Ch D 408, [1886–90] All ER Rep 1104, CA.
Howe v Earl of Dartmouth, Howe v Countess of Aylesbury (1802) 7 Ves 137, 32 ER 56, [1775–1802] All ER Rep 24, LC.
Lloyds Bank plc v Duker [1987] 3 All ER 193, [1987] 1 WLR 1324.
Norfolk’s (Duke) Settlement Trusts, Re, Earl of Perth v Fitzalan-Howard [1978] 3 All ER 907, [1979] Ch 37, [1978] 3 WLR 655.
Roberts’ Will Trusts, Re, Younger v Lewins [1937] 1 All ER 518, [1937] Ch 274.
Stott v Milne (1884) 25 Ch D 710, CA.
Wilkinson v Duncan (1857) 23 Beav 469, 53 ER 184.
Appeal
The Customs and Revenue Commissioners appealed and the trustees of the Peter Clay discretionary trust cross-appealed from the decision of the Special Commissioners (Adrian Shipwright and John F Avery Jones) dated 27 February 2007 [2007] STC (SCD) 362 that whilst part of the trustees’ expenses in issue, namely investment management fees, were capital expenses not chargeable to income, some unspecified proportion of the trustees’ other
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expenses in the year ending 5 April 2001 were properly chargeable to income. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Rupert Baldry (instructed by the Solicitor for Revenue and Customs) for the Revenue.
Christopher McCall QC (instructed by Speechly Bircham LLP) for the trustees.
Judgment was reserved.
15 November 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
LINDSAY J.
INTRODUCTION
[1] An additional rate of income tax is payable upon certain income arising to trustees of discretionary trusts but statutory provision is made such that in computing the amount of the income so liable such of the expenses of the trustees as are properly chargeable to income may, in effect, be deducted. It can thus behove trustees to claim that their expenses are regarded as income expenses whilst, conversely, it suits HM Revenue and Customs (the Revenue) to see them as outgoings of a capital nature.
[2] On 27 February 2007 the Special Commissioners had before them (for a decision in principle rather than one leading to a holding in a particular sum) a case between the trustees of the Peter Clay discretionary trust (the trustees) and the Revenue. The commissioners held that whilst part of the trustees’ expenses in issue—investment management fees—were capital expenses not chargeable to income, some unspecified proportions of the trustees’ other expenses in the year ended 5 April 2001 were properly chargeable to income, hence pro tanto reducing the amount of tax payable by the trustees (see [2007] STC (SCD) 362). The Special Commissioners adjourned to enable the parties to endeavour to agree the appropriate proportions. However, on 24 April 2007 the Revenue (appearing both before the Special Commissioners and before me by Mr Baldry) lodged an appellant’s notice; in deciding as they had, the Special Commissioners, said the Revenue, had erred in law in two main respects; one, as I shall explain, was said to be an error of principle and one more a question of timing.
[3] The trustees (appearing both here and below by Mr McCall QC) resist the appeal in both its aspects and raise a cross-appeal. These appeals, under s 56A of the Taxes Management Act 1970, raise questions as to the attribution to capital and to income respectively of trustees’ expenses under the general trust law and questions also as to the interaction between that attribution under the general law and the particular statutory provisions as to income tax which regulate the area. It is to those statutory provisions that I first need to turn.
STATUTORY PROVISION
[4] Section 16 of the Finance Act 1973 introduced a ‘charge to additional rate of certain income of discretionary trusts’. By the time of the relevant year of assessment the material provisions had become those of s 686 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988 which applies to certain income arising to trustees so far as it is ‘income which is to be accumulated or which is payable at the discretion of the trustees or any other person . . .’ (see s 686(2)(a)). Such income is chargeable to income tax at the higher Sch F trust rate (applicable to
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dividend income) or at the rate applicable to trusts. However, deduction therefrom is possible under s 686(2AA), which is the critical provision in the main part of the Revenue’s appeal. The section has been amended in ways that do not affect its sense for any immediate purpose and, in the form used at the hearing, it provides as follows:
‘The rate at which income tax is chargeable on so much of any income arising to the trustees in any year of assessment as—(a) is income to which this section applies, and (b) is treated in accordance with section 689B as applied in defraying the expenses of the trustees in that year which are properly chargeable to income (or would be so chargeable but for any express provisions of the trust), shall be the rate at which it would be chargeable on that income apart from this section, instead of the rate applicable to trusts or the Schedule F trust rate (as the case may be).’
It is not at this point necessary to set out s 689B.
[5] Apart from the timing issue, which I shall come on to and which is concerned with differences between the point at which an expense is incurred on the one hand or defrayed on the other, the chief question before the Special Commissioners was how far the trustees’ expenses were ‘properly chargeable to income’ within s 686(2AA) and how far to capital?
THE PETER CLAY DISCRETIONARY TRUST
[6] The Peter Clay Discretionary Trust was settled by Peter Robert Clay on 5 December 1995. It is a broad discretionary trust under which almost all of the income is customarily accumulated. There are two ‘non-executive’ trustees in respect of whom only limited fees are claimed for time spent by them preparing for and attending trustees’ meetings. There is a family trust company (which does not charge) and an ‘executive’ trustee, Mr Ralph Stockwell, a former senior partner of Messrs Rawlinson & Hunter, accountants to the trustees. He is engaged in managing this trust and other Clay family trusts. There are no beneficiaries with any prescribed or present entitlement to income but the trustees have wide discretionary powers over both capital and income and, in particular, have power to pay or apply current income to a class of ‘Beneficiaries’, power to accumulate income and power to apply the accumulated income as if it was income arising in a current year.
[7] The trust has an income of the order of seven figures but it was agreed below and remains the case that the precise amount of the income and of the capital of the trust fund is irrelevant. Mr Stockwell in the year in question was remunerated for his service to the trust as a partner in Rawlinson & Hunter; he divides up the cost of his time as between the various Clay trusts in respect of which he acts according to his best estimate of the amounts of time spent in dealing with each. Mr Stockwell’s rôle was held by the Special Commissioners to be very active. As for investment management, written agreements with investment managers were produced to the Special Commissioners and the remuneration of each was based on a fee calculated by reference to capital value. The Special Commissioners, Mr Adrian Shipwright and Dr John F Avery Jones CBE, received evidence from Mr Stockwell and from Mr Kevin Custis, a director of Rathbone Trust Company Ltd, an expert on the practice of trustees generally in relation to the attribution of expenses between capital and income and on practices in relation to very large and actively managed trusts.
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THE TRUSTEES’ EXPENSES
[8] In the year ended 5 April 2001 the trustees incurred the following relevant expenses or outlays:
Trustee fees:
Executive £41,712·00
Non-executive trustees £5,000·00
Investment managers’ fees £176,136·00
Bank charges £511·00
Custodian fees £38,024·00
Professional fees £33,488·00
Total fees £294,871·00
AN EVEN HAND
[9] Leaving aside bare trusts, trusts usually, perhaps invariably, create successive interests so that there is inevitably, says Mr McCall QC, on behalf of the trustees, a possible conflict in all trusts between the interests of those who are in possession and those who are for the time being in remainder. Thus at a simple level a question might arise whether work to be done to settled landed property is a repair such that its cost should be paid out of income and thus at the expense of the life tenant or is, instead, an improvement which might benefit the estate as a whole and hence in fairness ought to be paid, at least in part, out of capital. In a more complicated case, if an estate includes an income-yielding wasting asset, one not specifically devised, would it not be unfair to keep it, thus benefiting only those interested in income, but be better to sell the same before it wasted further so that those interested in remainder might also derive benefit from it? In such a case, under the court’s long-established practice, a sale would be likely to be directed ‘to give everyone an equal chance’ (see Howe v Earl of Dartmouth, Howe v Countess of Aylesbury (1802) 7 Ves 137 at 148–149, 32 ER 56 at 60). One might take as another example of the need for balance between conflicting interests a trust where its property included a valuable reversion which the trustees could have sold but which, instead, they had retained for some 19 years during which the life tenant derived nothing from its value. When it eventually fell into possession as a capital sum, ought not some compensation thereout to be payable to the tenant for life to reflect the years during which he had derived nothing from it? The task, said Sir John Romilly MR, was to devise a ‘fair mode of dealing with the case’ as between tenant for life and remainderman (see Wilkinson v Duncan (1857) 23 Beav 469 at 472, 53 ER 184 at 185–186). A complicated apportionment ensued—see also in Re Earl of Chesterfield’s Trusts (1883) 24 Ch D 643, [1881–5] All ER Rep 737 where it had been urged in the successful argument that the power to postpone conversion was a power not to be exercised for the benefit of the tenants for life as against the remaindermen, or for the benefit of the remaindermen as against the tenants for life, but for the benefit of the estate ‘without disarranging the equities between the successive takers’. Again, a complicated division was required between the interests of capital and income. As yet another example, where a trust consisted of an aggregate made up of one solvent landed estate and another which was subject to mortgages created by its prior owner and was out of repair, the court decided it would sanction repairs only in such a way as did not throw the burden entirely upon either the tenant for life or the remainderman. The division between those interested in income and those interested in capital
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was to be ‘done in a mode which is equitable as between the tenant for life and the remainderman, and not so as to throw the whole burden upon either’ (per Lindley LJ in Re Hotchkys, Freke v Calmady (1886) 32 Ch D 408 at 420 (see also [1886–90] All ER Rep 1104 at 1110) and Cotton LJ (1886) 32 Ch D 408 at 418, [1886–90] All ER Rep 1104 at 1109).
[10] A study of cases of such a kind, said Mr McCall, showed that, in allocating as between capital and income and in the absence of some specific provision to the contrary, trustees were under the general law always and unsurprisingly to be guided by what was, in all the circumstances, fair. He drew attention to Underhill & Hayton Law Relating to Trusts and Trustees (17th edn, 2007) p 694 (para 51.1) where the authors, in the beginning of a passage, said:
‘Subject to particular statutes a trustee has a general discretion to allocate outgoings out of income or capital as he sees fit, but using his powers to effectuate the settlor’s purposes and in accordance with his duty to keep a fair balance between the interests of income beneficiaries and capital beneficiaries . . .’
[11] Mr McCall also referred me to Lloyds Bank plc v Duker [1987] 3 All ER 193 at 199, [1987] 1 WLR 1324 at 1330 per Mr John Mowbray QC sitting as a Deputy High Court Judge in which the learned deputy judge, also distinguished as an editor of Lewin on Trusts, said that he could get some assistance from ‘the principle that trustees are bound to hold an even hand among their beneficiaries, and not favour one against another, stated for instance in [Snell’s Principles of Equity (28th edn, 1982) p 225]’ (see also para 27-08 in the current 31st edition of Snell). Of course, accepted Mr McCall, there would be instances where the ‘even hand’ had led to a particular outgoing being treated properly as wholly out of income or wholly out of capital. Re Bennett, Jones v Bennett [1896] 1 Ch 778, which I shall need to deal with in more detail, was, he said, an example of a case where, on the facts, it was not inappropriate and was fair that the whole cost—there of an audit of the business a loan to which was the trust’s main asset—should be paid for out of capital. But, said Mr McCall, there was nothing in Re Bennett to suggest that the case laid down a general rule or that earlier cases as to equity and fairness were to be overborne, nor was Re Hotchkys supra cited to the Court of Appeal in Re Bennett.
RE BENNETT
[12] In Re Bennett the trustee held as a chief remaining asset of an estate an unsecured loan to a firm of wine merchants. The loan was repayable by capital instalments over some ten years with interest payable on the reducing balance in the meantime. Amongst a number of other conditions applicable to the loan were conditions intended to ensure that the trustee could investigate into and establish the borrowers’ financial soundness (or otherwise) and their continuing ability to repay, inter alia, the loan. If the business was conducted at a loss or the interest was in arrear then the trustee would be entitled immediately to demand and recover the whole of the remaining capital of the loan. In order to ascertain, inter alia, whether the principal monies remaining owing had become immediately payable, the trustee considered it necessary that an independent audit of the books and stocktaking of the wine merchants’ business should be periodically made. One such audit, the first, had taken place at the expense of £213. But the trustee was in doubt as to how that expense should be borne and sought directions from the court.
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[13] At first instance, the Vice Chancellor of the Duchy of Lancaster held that the first audit, the only one by then undertaken, should be paid out of capital but that the expense of future audits should be paid out of income. There was no appeal against the decision that the first audit should be paid for out of capital; so far as concerned the expenses of audits it was thus only future audits that were in issue. The trustee, it seems, made no proposal for how the cost of future audits should be borne, leaving the argument wholly to a contest between the tenant for life and the reversioners. Down to the date of the appeal the wine merchants had duly paid off some capital and all current interest. The report includes ([1896] 1 Ch 778 at 783) Mr Cozens-Hardy QC’s argument for the tenant for life in reply as follows:
‘These expenses really come under the head of costs, charges and expenses properly incurred by the trustees for the benefit of the estate, and, therefore, like all other costs, charges and expenses of trustees, are payable out of capital. The opposite view would be very hard on the tenant for life, for the interest she receives will diminish as the debt is paid off, while the costs of the audits and stock-takings will not.’
[14] It is hard to see why the interest which the tenant for life would receive would diminish as the debt was paid off unless, which does not appear, the capital that was repaid, instalment by instalment, was re-invested at less than the five per cent per annum which was payable on the wine merchants’ debt. It was, however, Mr Cozens-Hardy’s argument which succeeded; Lindley LJ says (at 784):
‘I think the suggestion made by Mr. Cozens-Hardy was the true one—namely, that an expense of this kind is part of the costs, charges and expenses properly incurred by the executor and trustee in the performance of his duty. Why is this expense to be thrown upon the tenant for life? For whose benefit is it incurred? It is really for the benefit of the whole estate, though the practical effect of throwing it upon the whole estate will be that the tenant for life will lose the income of the sums expended.’
[15] Lindley LJ (in a passage to which I shall later refer) continued:
‘It has been suggested that such expenses are like annual outgoings. I do not think they are. By an “outgoing” is generally meant some payment which must be made in order to secure the income of the property.’
Lindley LJ held that there should be no distinction drawn between the expenses of the first stocktaking and the future stocktakings, thereby, as it seems to me, negating a distinction which Mr McCall wished to draw between a case in which only future outlay was in issue and a case which concerned both present and future. Kay LJ held it to be ‘a fair way of dealing with the case’ that the expense should be paid wholly out of capital. AL Smith LJ held that, as the expense was incurred ‘for the benefit of the whole estate’, it ‘therefore ought to come out of the capital and not out of income’. By his use of the word ‘therefore’ he emphasised more than had Lindley or Kay LJJ, the causal connection whereby an expense being incurred for the benefit of the whole estate led to that expense being taken to be a capital one. The payment, he held, was one which was for the benefit of the tenant for life as well as of the remainderman.
[16] Two at least of the Lords Justices had applied a form of ‘cui bono’ test; where the answer was that the expense was incurred for the benefit of the whole
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estate then it was right that the whole estate—the capital—should bear the burden. As I have mentioned, Mr McCall argues that, despite all the width of its language, Re Bennett laid down no inescapable rule that where a trustee’s expense was incurred for the benefit of the whole estate then its expense was to be borne by capital. Mr McCall is entitled to point out that not only was no relevant authority cited in Re Bennett but that no authority at all was cited in it, let alone authority that was said to be overruled. Re Hotchkys was unmentioned. The argument had proceeded on the basis of a questionable hardship upon the tenant for life and the case was, it seems, argued on an all or nothing basis, the trustee having made no suggestion of an apportionment such as would pass part of the expense to income, part to capital. It is tempting to wonder how adamant the court would have been had, for example, £50 been suggested by the trustees as to be taken from income with the rest out of capital.
THE SPECIAL COMMISSIONERS
[17] Putting Re Bennett aside, practice in Chancery, said Mr McCall, was not to adopt, with respect to trustees’ remuneration, the all or nothing approach of Re Bennett but rather, as could be seen in Re Duke of Norfolk’s Settlement Trusts, Earl of Perth v Fitzalan-Howard [1978] 3 All ER 907 at 928, [1979] Ch 37 at 62, to see that particular kind of outlay as chargeable at least in part to income in appropriate circumstances. In that case Walton J, speaking of trustees’ remuneration, said, à propos the court’s inherent jurisdiction to award trustees’ remuneration where otherwise none was authorised, that:
‘. . . it appears to me that any remuneration allowed ought to come out of income, if it be remuneration for running the affairs of the trust pure and simple, general remuneration. This, I have been informed by Chief Master Ball, was the invariable practice in those cases decided by the former Chancery judges whom he has served, and it accords with my own impressions. This would seem only logical. But in those cases such as the present where the special services rendered by the trustees have been, in substance, the development of the capital assets of their trust, it would be appropriate that any special remuneration should be paid out of capital.’
[18] Mr McCall, when appearing for the trustees before the Special Commissioners, pointed also to the provisions of s 22(4) of the Trustee Act 1925 as an illustration that even if a trustee’s expense could fairly be said to be for the benefit of the whole estate it did not follow from that that it was in its totality to be borne by income. Section 22(4) provides:
‘Trustees may, in their absolute discretion, from time to time, but not more than once in every three years unless the nature of the trust or any special dealings with the trust property make a more frequent exercise of the right reasonable, cause the accounts of the trust property to be examined or audited by an independent accountant, and shall, for that purpose, produce such vouchers and give such information to him as he may require; and the costs of such examination or audit, including the fee of the auditor, shall be paid out of the capital or income of the trust property, or partly in one way and partly in the other as the trustees, in their absolute discretion, think fit, but, in default of any direction by the trustees to the contrary in any special case, costs attributable to capital shall be borne by capital and those attributable to income by income.’
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[19] Mr McCall had argued before the Special Commissioners that s 22(4), coupled with the authorities as to fairness and apportionment as between capital and income, illustrated that, within the general law, there is no invariable rule, merely because a trustee’s outgoing has the character that it tends to the benefit of the whole estate, that, without more, the whole of its cost is to be borne by capital and without the trustees having any ability to apportion and then to attribute part to capital and part to income. Given that a tenant for life of a Settled Land Act settlement is trustee both of the relevant settled land and of his powers, attention could be drawn, as an example of a trustee’s outlay for the benefit of the whole estate being chargeable to income, to s 88 of the Settled Land Act 1925 whereunder the tenant for life is bound to insure against fire at his own expense even though the proceeds of the policy would be capital money (see also s 20 of the Trustee Act 1925, to which I shall later refer).
[20] The trustees’ argument proved attractive to the Special Commissioners who said ([2007] STC (SCD) 362 at 373 (para 17)):
‘We consider that in the light of the general principle of fairness “expenses incurred for the benefit of the whole estate” should not be understood widely as meaning anything that is for the benefit of both the income and capital beneficiaries should be charged to capital and should not be attributed. We therefore prefer the approach that one should attribute unless the expense really is a capital expense where the interest of the income beneficiary is merely the consequential loss of income on the capital that goes to pay the expense.’
It was such a view that led the Special Commissioners to their conclusion that there was a requirement to achieve a fair balance between income and capital beneficiaries and that, in accordance with that, a proportion of all the expenses in issue, with the exception of the investment management fees, should be attributable to income and hence should be properly chargeable to income for the purposes of s 686(2AA), thereby pro tanto reducing the amount susceptible to the higher rate of tax. All the investment management fees, they held, were chargeable to capital.
[21] It is worth noting that, leaving aside Re Duke of Norfolk’s Settlement Trusts, none of the cases I have cited deals with the proper treatment of trustees’ remuneration, none deals with statutory provision, and all, including the Duke of Norfolk case, dealt with matters that were internal to the trust concerned, concerning no others than the relevant trustees and their beneficiaries. By contrast, I am concerned in part with trustees’ remuneration, with statutory provision and in a context in a sense external to the trustees as involving a third party, the Revenue. It does not follow, even if fairness still has a role to play where statutory provision is concerned, that what is open to trustees to do as being fair between themselves and their beneficiaries is open to them to do when a third party is involved.
CARVER’S CASE
[22] Furthermore, I have so far left out of account the most authoritative case in the area. In Carver v Duncan (Inspector of Taxes), Bosanquet v Allen (Inspector of Taxes) [1985] 2 All ER 645, [1985] 1 AC 1082 the commissioners and courts involved considered the chargeability for the purposes of s 16(2) of the Finance Act 1973 of various classes of trustees’ expenditure. It is accepted before me, as to s 16(2)(d) of the 1973 Act, that it can be taken for all present purposes to be an
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indistinguishable forebear of s 686(2AA)(b) which I am considering. The reports in Carver’s case cover two trusts and the trust expenses involved varied from one trust to another but included assurance policies (of an investment character, having no surrender value and payable on the death of the settlor) which had been kept up out of and charged to income in the trustees’ accounts, other endowment life policies kept up out of income and, as is the more relevant to this decision, investment management fees.
[23] Vinelott J at first instance ([1983] STC 310, [1983] 1 WLR 494) had held that the outgoings were properly to be apportioned between that part chargeable to capital and that to income and remitted the matter to the Special Commissioners to make appropriate assessments. On the appeal the judgment of Oliver LJ in the Court of Appeal illustrates the immense difficulties of construction which the legislation gave rise to; there were difficulties (see [1984] STC 556 at 562–563, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1092) with either the trustees’ or the Revenue’s competing constructions. He spoke of the legislature having evolved a delphic pronouncement (see [1984] STC 556 at 564, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1094) and of the section being very ineptly drawn (see [1984] STC 556 at 567, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1097). But he held that for the purposes of the legislation the court was obliged to look beyond whether an outgoing was in fact paid or initially paid out of income or out of capital and beyond also (where the trustees had a discretion to apportion) looking at whether the trustees had treated the outgoing in their books as out of income or out of capital (as that would lead to different tax consequences in otherwise identical discretionary trusts: see [1984] STC 556 at 565, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1095). Instead the court had to fix the character of each outgoing by reference to the general law of trusts (see [1984] STC 556 at 567, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1097), disregarding express provisions of the trust instruments concerned.
[24] When he turned to the character, under the general law, of one of the various outgoings in issue (see [1984] STC 556 at 568, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1098) it appeared to Oliver LJ, with my emphasis:
‘and indeed [counsel for the trustee in the second of the two cases] has not really argued to the contrary, that the payment of the fees of the investment advisers, which were incurred for the benefit of the fund as a whole, would be properly chargeable to capital and would not . . . be deductible (see Re Bennett, Jones v Bennett [1896] 1 Ch 778).’
That passage does not in terms lay down that it was because the fees of the investment advisers were incurred for the benefit of the fund as a whole that they were chargeable to capital but it is, at the very lowest, consistent with that being so and with Re Bennett being regarded as authority for such a view. Stott v Milne (1884) 25 Ch D 710 could also be regarded as authority at least consistent with a view that where trustees’ expenses are incurred for the benefit of the estate as a whole they should be chargeable to capital. In that case the trustees’ expenses incurred by them in bringing in two actions were in issue. The Earl of Selborne LC said (at 714):
‘The actions were compromised before trial. That the result of the first action was beneficial to the estate is clear. Whether the estate was benefited by the second action is disputed, but I am disposed to think that it was. Looking at the whole circumstances, at the manifest bona fides of the trustees, and at the opinion of the Vice-Chancellor that the costs ought to be allowed,
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I am of opinion that the direction for payment of them out of the corpus must be sustained.’
Cotton and Lindley LJJ agreed.
[25] When, in Carver’s case, Oliver LJ came to look at the chargeability of various insurance or assurance premiums he again used, as had been the case in Re Bennett, a test of cui bono kind. He said ([1984] STC 556 at 568–569, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1099):
‘Accepting, however, that it may not be possible to derive an entirely clear picture of universal treatment of premiums from reported decisions, there does not appear to me to be any real difficulty in principle. Obviously individual trusts will vary, but the universal answer is, I should have thought, that one has to look in each case at the person or group of persons for whose benefit the policy is in fact being maintained under the relevant trust. If on such an investigation it is perfectly plain that the policy is being maintained as an investment of capital and for the benefit of capital, then I should have thought that it must inevitably follow that the premiums paid by the trustees, in the absence of express direction in the trust, would be chargeable to capital and not to income.’
Purchas LJ, in agreeing with Oliver LJ, himself referred to the legislation as being somewhat obscure (see [1984] STC 556 at 570, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1102) but he, too, recognised that it was the general law governing the administration of trusts by which the allocation to capital or income was to be adjudged. Waller LJ agreed with Oliver LJ. The determination by the Special Commissioners that, inter alia, the investment management fees were not allowable deductions but were chargeable to capital was thus restored.
[26] The trustees in both cases appealed, arguing, inter alia, that annual investment advisers’ fees were in any case expenses properly chargeable to income under the general law (see [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1107). Counsel for the Crown, though, argued ([1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1112) that the payment of fees to investment advisers, whilst properly to be described as expenses: ‘are chargeable to capital under the general law: see [Re Bennett] which states a general principle and has stood unchallenged since the last century.' In his reply Mr Robert Walker QC for the trustees specifically argued that Re Bennett had stated too wide a principle, drawing attention to many expenses, for instance, repairs, insurance and trustees’ ordinary remuneration, which were incurred for the benefit of the trust property as a whole but which were nonetheless, he said, chargeable to income (see [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1113).
[27] The reasoning of the majority of the House of Lords in Carver’s case, Lord Diplock having dissented on the construction of the material legislation, is wholly to be found in the speech of Lord Templeman, with whom Lord Fraser of Tullybelton, Lord Roskill and Lord Brandon of Oakbrook agreed. The decision of the Court of Appeal was affirmed. Lord Templeman says ([1985] 2 All ER 645 at 652, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1120):
‘Trustees are entitled to be indemnified out of the capital and income of their trust fund against all obligations incurred by the trustees in the due performance of their duties and the due exercise of their powers.’
So far the citation excites no controversy; indemnification of the trustees is not in issue before me although, in relation to trustees’ remuneration (with which
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Carver’s case was not directly concerned), the word ‘obligation’ might be thought unfitting. The citation continues:
‘The trustees must then debit each item of expenditure either against income or against capital. The general rule is that income must bear all ordinary outgoings of a recurrent nature, such as rates and taxes, and interest on charges and incumbrances. Capital must bear all costs, charges and expenses incurred for the benefit of the whole estate.’
CARVER’S CASE—THE ‘SECOND SENTENCE’
[28] It is not difficult to find instances where that ‘general rule’ in the second sentence would be unclear in its applicability; ‘rates and taxes, and interest on charges and incumbrances’ may have in common that they are all inescapable incidents of enjoyment of the trust property concerned and by referring to outgoings ‘such as’ those it is unclear whether Lord Templeman was requiring that some such inescapable character was required of an outgoing if it was to be attributed to income. He may have been adopting a meaning of ‘outgoing’ such as that referred to by Lindley LJ in Re Bennett in the passage which is cited at [15], above, but Lord Templeman does not say he was doing so and at that point in his speech he had not mentioned Re Bennett. The practical consequences of an application of Lindley LJ’s meaning are, I respectfully suggest, some way short of clear in the context of a modern trust fund of actively managed investments including, for example, works of art, commodity futures, hedge fund participation and advices taken with respect thereto. I am far from sure that Lindley LJ’s meaning could nowadays be taken to be a common one and it would be reasonable to expect Lord Templeman expressly to have said so if he was meaning to adopt something such as Lindley LJ’s description. He does not say so.
[29] If, conversely, some such meaning was not intended, then it would not be difficult to find examples of outgoings of a recurrent nature which are incurred for the benefit of the whole estate, thereby in some circumstances putting the second sentence of the citation in conflict with the third. In his argument in reply in Carver’s case, Mr Robert Walker QC, as I have mentioned, had pointed out that that many expenses (he included trustees’ remuneration) are incurred for the benefit of the trust property as a whole but are nonetheless properly chargeable to income. Thus, for example, as for insurance against loss or damage by fire to a trust building (as to which trustees have a power but not, in general, an obligation), s 19 of the Trustee Act 1925 provided that the premiums may be paid ‘out of the income thereof or out of the income of any other property subject to the same trusts without obtaining the consent of any person who may be entitled wholly or partly to such income’. Moreover it does so in the context (s 20) that the fruits of the policy would be for the benefit of the estate as a whole as capital money. I have referred above to s 22(4) of the Trustee Act 1925 and s 88 of the Settled Land Act 1925 as illustrating outlay incurred for the benefit of the whole estate being treated, independently of express trust provisions, as chargeable to income.
[30] As an example of the difficulties likely if the passage cited in the second sentence of the second citation in para [27], above, as to ordinary outgoings of a recurrent nature were to be regarded as a universal rule, the scope of the word ‘ordinary’ in context is far from clear; the annual fee for the firm of investment advisers to keep under review and advise changes in investments comprised in the trust fund, whilst plainly recurrent, was held in Carver’s case not to be an
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‘ordinary outgoing’ but whether that was because it was not an ‘outgoing’ in whichever sense was intended or was not ‘ordinary’; and, if the latter, by what test it was not was left unclear (see Carver’s case [1985] 2 All ER 645 at 653, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1120–1121).
[31] The fact, if such it is, that it is possible to point to real doubts as to the applicability of Lord Templeman’s ‘general rule’ as to ordinary outgoings of a recurrent nature in that second sentence and the fact also that it is possible to devise cases where an attribution under the second sentence would conflict with one under the third might suggest that Lord Templeman was propounding in the second sentence a rule which, although described as ‘general’, was nonetheless contemplated as likely to require many exceptions. But the rule or principle as to capital bearing all expenses incurred for the benefit of the whole estate in the third sentence is not dependent or consequential upon the second sentence. It appears as an independent rule and one, unlike that in the second sentence, having its own prior authority as a base. Difficulties with the second sentence thus do not necessarily infect the third, to which I turn.
CARVER’S CASE IN ‘THE THIRD SENTENCE’
[32] It is that third sentence—‘Capital must bear all costs, charges and expenses incurred for the benefit of the whole estate’—that is, for immediate purposes, the more important rule or principle. Lord Templeman stated that he derived it from Re Bennett supra (see [1985] 2 All ER 645 at 653, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1121). He added, thus accepting counsel’s argument as cited at [26], above:
‘Re Bennett, which has been accepted law for nearly 90 years, affirms the trust principle that expenditure incurred for the benefit of the whole estate is a capital expense.’
He thus cites the rule or principle twice—once ([1985] 2 All ER 645 at 652, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1120) in the passage I have called the third sentence and again at [1985] 2 All ER 645 at 653, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1121. He impliedly rejected Mr Walker’s submission that the principle which Re Bennett had stated was too wide. As I read his speech, he regarded ss 19 and 20 of the Trustee Act 1925—to which he referred at [1985] 2 All ER 645 at 653, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1121—and would have regarded the other provisions to which I have referred as particular statutory provisions which, in effect, (though he did not so put it) underlined the general rule he propounded in the third sentence by showing that a statute was needed to overcome it. It may also be that Lord Templeman was not contemplating such statutory provisions as part of the general law.
[33] Very attractive as the ‘fairness’ argument is and powerful as it might otherwise seem to be in supporting some apportionment of some of the trustees’ expenses between capital and income, I fail to see, to the extent that any particular expense is to be regarded as incurred for the benefit of the whole trust estate, that I am at liberty, with respect to that expense, to ignore a principle which the House of Lords has held to be derivable from Re Bennett, to have been accepted for nearly 90 years and which the House of Lords itself, by Lord Templeman, twice re-states. Whatever doubts I might otherwise have had as to Re Bennett as intending to ground a rule of inescapable application, bound, as I am, by Carver’s case, I am not free to read Re Bennett other than as establishing or re-stating the principle or rule, within the general law of trusts, as to trustees’ expenditure incurred for the benefit of the whole estate which Lord Templeman states, namely that it has to be regarded as a capital expense. Moreover, in a
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conflict between the second and third sentences, it is the latter, undoubtedly ratio, supported by prior authority and twice stated that has to be preferred as the more binding statement.
[34] Nor does one escape that conclusion by pointing to some ability expressly conferred by a trust instrument to charge a given expenditure wholly or in part to income notwithstanding that, under the general law, it was an expenditure incurred for the benefit of the whole estate. Carver’s case makes it plain (see [1985] 2 All ER 645 at 654, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1122) that whichever pocket the trustees may choose as the pocket from which an expense is paid, the expense has, so to speak, an intrinsic nature under the general law, as it were its own DNA, such that, as between the Revenue and the trustees, if it was incurred for the benefit of the whole estate, it is inescapably assigned to capital. The fact, were it so, that as between one class of beneficiaries and another or in the ultimate internal accounts of the trustees the given expense could be or was, by reason of some provision other than of the general law, treated or treatable as income would in such a case not overcome its intrinsic nature, as between the trustees and the Revenue, as capital because, for immediate purposes, s 686(2AA) requires a look to what the position would be ‘but for any express provisions of the trust’.
[35] Mr Baldry bolsters that conclusion by showing that in Underhill & Hayton Law Relating to Trusts and Trustees (17th edn, 2007), immediately after the reference to the trustees’ duty to keep a fair balance between the interests of income beneficiaries and capital beneficiaries (see [10], above) the learned editors continue, so far as here relevant:
‘and so taking account of the following traditional principles governing the incidence of outgoings (after the trustees have taken advantage of their initial right to resort to capital or income as they find easiest to discharge outgoings);
(a) the corpus bears capital charges incurred for the benefit of the whole trust estate . . .’
He draws attention also to the Law Commission’s consultation paper, Capital and income in trusts: classification and apportionment (Law Com no 175) which at pp 22–23 (para 2.51) and succeeding paragraphs cites Carver’s case but without doubting either of the principles that work done for the benefit of the whole estate leads to its cost being chargeable to capital or (as has not been in issue before me) that the express provisions of a trust instrument authorising apportionment as between capital and income are irrelevant where what is being considered is whether an outgoing was of an income or of a capital nature for the purposes of a particular statute (a fortiori for the purposes of s 686(2AA) which in terms, as I have mentioned, requires one to look at how expense may be chargeable ‘but for any express provision of the trust’).
[36] It does not, at any rate at this level, assist the trustees that the general third sentence rule or principle emerging, if not from Re Bennett then from Carver’s case, is unattractively inflexible or might in some circumstances be thought unfair. Mr Baldry was entitled to point to the likely impracticabilities if, in every case, the amount of tax depended on assessment of what was ‘fair’ and to point out also that in any event an attribution to capital was in one sense not all-or-nothing as it would affect both those interested in income and those in capital. The principle in Carver’s case is binding as stated. It follows, in my view, that the Special Commissioners erred in law; they were bound, as I am, by Carver’s case and thus they were wrong to resist that ‘all costs, charges and
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expenses incurred for the benefit of the whole estate’ were inescapably to be treated as of a capital nature for the purposes of s 686(2AA). Not only was that expressly stated in Carver’s case but it is the only conclusion consistent with the House of Lords’ treatment of the annual fees of investment advisers in that case. The Special Commissioners also erred in law in regarding Re Bennett, as they said in their para 17 ([2007] STC (SCD) 362 at 373), as ‘a case where only the capital was relevant’. The audit in Re Bennett could have been expected to throw light on both the ability of the wine merchants to continue to pay interest on the outstanding loan as well as the capital of the loan and taking the cost of the audit out of capital affected the income as well as the capital interest as, of course, the life tenant thereby lost the income that would otherwise have been derived from the £213 capital sum that was used to pay the cost of the audit. Had Re Bennett stood alone it might have been legitimate to doubt whether it did appear to state too widely the relevant principle and have been possible, notwithstanding the impracticalities, to let counsel argue for such an apportionment as even-handed fairness might generally require. However, in the light of the House of Lords’ conclusion in Carver’s case [1985] 2 All ER 645 at 653, [1985] 1 AC 1082 at 1121g, it was not open to the Special Commissioners, nor is it open to me, not to apply what I have called the third sentence.
FOR THE WHOLE ESTATE?
[37] If I am right in holding the Special Commissioners thus to have erred in law then the next stage is for me to examine whether particular outgoings were or were not incurred for the benefit of the whole estate. I am not invited, nor were the Special Commissioners, to go into figures but, as were the Special Commissioners, I am required to come to broad conclusions on different classes of outgoings. There is no dispute between the parties as to accountancy fees and custodian fees; in both of those cases the Revenue have accepted that an apportionment should be made so as fairly to attribute part of the expense to capital and part to income. Part of the bank charges are equally agreed properly to be apportioned. I have not been concerned to inquire into what has led the Revenue to accept that parts at least of such expenses were not incurred for the benefit of the whole estate.
[38] As for the investment management fees, outstandingly the largest type of expense within the overall total (see [8], above) the trustees accept that in the main they are properly chargeable to capital but there is an element thereof, says Mr McCall, by way of the trustees’ cross-appeal, which is properly chargeable to income. The trustees resolved to accumulate income but there was not an accumulation, properly so-called, he argues, until the trustees had invested the income and they had before that incurred expense in being advised as to how that income was to be invested. I have not had my attention drawn to any identifiable or identified element of the overall bill for investment management fees that was attributable to that particular type of advice but, in any event, the advice amounted to advice as to how best to make the income into capital, advice which, surely, redounded for the benefit of the estate as a whole. The Special Commissioners, in my judgment, were right in treating the totality of investment management fees as properly chargeable to capital.
[39] Of the various outgoings which I described in para [8], above, only two broad classes remain so far unmentioned, namely professional fees and trustees’ fees. I have not had my attention drawn to particular difficulties as to professional fees and I would therefore hope that an apportionment, if at all appropriate, can
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be agreed as to them, no doubt on similar lines, whatever they were, to those adopted as to accountancy fees. But, as to ‘trustees’ fees’, particular difficulties arise.
‘TRUSTEES’ FEES’
[40] It will be remembered that, broadly speaking, that which can be attributable to income under s 686(2AA) so as thereby to reduce the amount of income chargeable at the higher rate is income applied in ‘defraying the expenses of the trustees . . . which are properly chargeable to income (or would be so chargeable but for any express provisions of the trust)’. Two points arise.
[41] The first is this. I mentioned to Mr Baldry that (short of an award under the inherent jurisdiction as mentioned in Re Duke of Norfolk’s Settlement Trusts, Earl of Perth v Fitzalan-Howard [1978] 3 All ER 907, [1979] Ch 37, at [17], above) then, but for an express provision of the trust, the trustees would not be able to receive remuneration at all. The point had not been taken below and Mr Baldry confirmed that it was not taken by the Revenue before me. I do not need to investigate whether the point was sound or not.
[42] Secondly, one would not ordinarily speak of a trustee’s remuneration as an ‘expense’ of the trustees any more than, say, a businessman carrying on a business on his own account would describe the drawings he chose to make as an ‘expense’ of his business. The phrase used in s 686(2AA) is not the ‘expense of the trustees’ nor is it ‘the expenses of the trust fund’ but, rather, ‘the expenses of the trustees’. It would be proper to distinguish between the expenses of the trustees in the sense, for example, of their outlay in travelling to meetings between themselves, travelling to meet investment advisers, bankers or solicitors and so on, on the one hand, and remuneration for their service or services on the other. Moreover, it is possible to suppose a fear in the legislature that if all trustees’ remuneration were to be deductible there might be abuse in the over-remuneration of family members and friends who were trustees and thereby an abusive over-reduction of the amount of higher rate tax otherwise payable. Such a fear could be another reason to justify a reading of ‘expenses’ which excluded trustees’ own remuneration.
[43] However, in approaching any question of the construction of s 686(2AA), it is to be borne in mind that its language is very difficult to construe. The judgment of Oliver LJ in the Court of Appeal in Carver’s case shows the immense difficulties which were encountered in giving sense to all words in the then forebear of s 686(2AA), either on the construction preferred by the taxpayer or the construction preferred by the Crown, and I have already referred to high judicial comment on the delphic nature, ineptitude and obscurity of the draftsmanship of the section. Where the draftsmanship is of that quality it may be too much to expect that a distinction was intended to be drawn between expenses of the trustees properly so-called—their being paid back all that they had had to pay out—see, for example, Re Baron Grimthorpe’s Will Trusts [1958] 1 All ER 765 at 769, sub nom Re Grimthorpe (decd) [1958] Ch 615 at 623—on the one hand, and an outlay of a kind which the trustees had not been obliged to pay out but which they themselves decided upon, fixed in amount and gave to themselves. Moreover, if there truly had been a fear in the legislature of possible abuse of the kind I supposed one could reasonably expect that the draftsman, however inept, would have felt a need to go on to distinguish between the remuneration of professional trustees and the remuneration of trustees who happen to be family or friends and between expenses properly-so-called and
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remuneration. In the context of an inept section it would, in my judgment, be wrong to treat the expression ‘the expenses of the trustees’ as excluding their remuneration.
[44] In relation to the trustees’ remuneration, Mr McCall advanced three particular arguments. The first drew attention to in Re Roberts’ Will Trusts, Younger v Lewins [1937] 1 All ER 518, [1937] Ch 274. In that case Crossman J dealt with the case of a testatrix who had appointed a bank as one of her executors and trustees and had declared that the bank should be entitled to remuneration ‘in accordance with the bank’s scale of fees now in force’. That scale (see [1937] 1 All ER 518 at 521, [1937] Ch 274 at 276) provided for three kinds of fee, an ‘acceptance fee’ which was a capital fee charged when the bank took over the trust, an ‘income fee’ which was charged on income actually received whilst the trust continued and the third was a ‘withdrawal fee’, a capital fee charged when the trust came to an end and the trust fund came to be distributed. Crossman J held that the income fee must come out of the income of each settled legacy and the withdrawal fee out of the capital of each settled legacy. The decision was internal to the trust and was very much on its own facts and in the light of the particular terms of engagement which had been agreed. There is nothing in it, in my judgment, to suggest that but for the express provision of the trusts (the situation which s 686(2AA) requires me to consider) the general rule would not have applied, namely that outlay incurred for the benefit of the whole estate was a capital expense.
[45] The second argument advanced by the trustees was to emphasise the remarks of Walton J in the Duke of Norfolk case cited at [17], above. But the Duke of Norfolk case was decided in 1979, six years before Carver’s case. No example of the application of the practice spoken of by Walton J being adopted after Carver’s case was drawn to my attention and the Duke of Norfolk case had been cited in argument in Carver’s case. I have no reason to suppose that the practice has survived Carver’s case.
[46] Thirdly, Mr McCall based an argument on the unlikelihood of a double taxation having been intended. Suppose that a sum paid by the trust to one of its professional trustees as remuneration for his services was, for the purposes of s 686(2AA), to be taken (as the Revenue contended) to be a payment chargeable to capital. On that basis it would not be deductible in computing the income tax payable by the trustees yet would be liable to income tax in the hands of the professional trustee concerned. That, though, as it seems to me, is very far short of being offensive double taxation; one of those liabilities to tax falls to all the trustees and in their capacity as trustees of a particular trust and is computed by reference to the income of the trustees as such. The other separately falls to an individual in his quite separate capacity as, say, a practising solicitor, accountant or stockbroker and is computed by reference to his own separate income. There is nothing in the point.
[47] It is not necessary that I should state, as if a rule without possible exception, that trustees’ remuneration in discretionary trusts falling within s 686 should in total and always be regarded as having been incurred for the benefit of the estate as a whole and hence, falling within the rule in Carver’s case, such as to be taken to be capital in total and, in turn, as thus non-deductible for the purposes of s 686(2AA). It may be that in exceptional circumstances and on particular evidence some exceptions may be discovered with respect either to some particular remuneration ascribable to the doing of a particular task, to an unusual trust provision or to the activity of some particular trustee such that it could
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clearly be seen that the service rendered and remunerated was not incurred for the benefit of the estate as a whole and was of an income character. However, I have not understood there to have been any such evidence before the Special Commissioners in this case.
[48] Moreover, the very ‘even hand’ requirement emphasised by the trustees and to which I have referred in paras [9]–[11], above, assists the Revenue as it may tend to show how, at the level of the trustees in a properly administered trust, consideration of the respective interests of capital and income are often inseparable. Even a decision which has seemed at first glance to relate only to capital will, if considered properly in an even-handed way, be likely to have involved a consideration of who, if anyone, for the time being is or should be entitled to income, what his, her or their needs are and whether, having regard to them, it is nevertheless right to do as was being considered with capital. Of course, the test, in relation to a trustee’s expense, is whether it was incurred for the benefit of the whole estate not whether its outlay involved consideration of both the interests of capital and income but that the whole estate falls to be considered will often point also to the whole estate being intended to be benefited.
[49] The starting point, as it seems to me, should be that trustees’ remuneration should be regarded as incurred for the benefit of the whole estate. Whilst Carver’s case did not expressly deal with trustees’ remuneration, that starting point would be consistent with Carver’s case’s treatment of investment management fees. At lowest, there must be a heavy evidential burden (not satisfied in the case before me) upon those who assert some other conclusion.
THE TIMING POINT
[50] In order for a deduction from the income otherwise liable to tax at the higher rate to be made in any year of assessment by reason of trustees’ expenses, does the expense have to be actually defrayed within that year or does it suffice (irrespective of when it was defrayed) for it to have been incurred within that year? For convenience I shall repeat the relevant part of s 686(2AA) as follows:
‘The rate at which income tax is chargeable on so much of any income arising to trustees in any year of assessment as . . . (b) is treated in accordance with section 689B as applied in defraying the expenses of the trustees in that year which are properly chargeable to income (or would be so chargeable but for any express provisions of the trust) . . .’
Because of that reference to s 689B it now is necessary to set out part at least of that section as follows:
‘(1) The expenses of any trustees in any year of assessment, so far as they are properly chargeable to income (or would be so chargeable but for any express provisions of the trust), shall be treated—(a) as set against so much (if any) of any income as is income falling within subsection (2) [Schedule F income], (2A) [Case V savings income] or (3) below [other savings income] before being set against other income; and (b) as set against so much (if any) of any income as is income falling within subsection (2) or (2A) below before being set against income falling within subsection (3) below and (c) as set against so much (if any) of any income as is income falling within subsection (2) below before being set against income falling within subsection (2A) below.’
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It is unnecessary to set out yet more of s 689B.
[51] It is accepted there is ambiguity; do the words ‘in that year’ in sub-s (2AA)(b) relate to the point of time at which the income is applied or treated as applied in defrayal of expenses (which leads to what Mr Baldry calls the ‘cash basis’) or do the words, instead, (or perhaps as well) qualify the date the trustees incur or are treated as incurring the expense (an ‘accruals basis’)? The Revenue contend for the former, the trustees for the latter.
[52] The Special Commissioners deal with this question in their paras 20–22 (see [2007] STC (SCD) 362 at 375–376). Their conclusion was that, although the legislation was not prescriptive on the point and hence that a cash basis could not be said to be wrong, the fairer course, especially in the case of larger trusts, was the accruals basis. Before me the Revenue argue that that is wrong. On a true construction, says Mr Baldry, the legislation offers the trustees no choice; the true construction ineluctably requires the use of a cash basis and hence ‘fairness’ is not required to be considered. The trustees, whilst doubtless welcoming their ability, under the Special Commissioners’ decision, as trustees of a ‘larger trust’, to elect for the perceived fairness of the accruals basis, also argue that on a true construction it is the accruals basis which alone is strictly required.
[53] It is important to note that sub-s (2AA)(b) is not, it seems, expressly concerned with actual application of income in defrayal of expenses but with such income ‘as . . . is treated in accordance with section 689B as applied’ in defrayal. One thus has to turn to s 689B to see what treatment it applies to income and, in particular, to whether it requires any income to be treated as applied in defrayal in some particular way or as at or within some particular time or period. So far as concerns any particular way, it does apply a sequence, working through s 689B(1)(a), (b) and (c). But it does not, as it seems to me, require a treatment linking defrayal to some particular time or period.
[54] Then one might next ask whether s 689B requires any expense of trustees incurred in any year to be treated as if expenses attributable for tax purposes to some particular time or period? Again the answer would seem to be ‘No’. So reference to the effect of the words ‘is treated in accordance with section 689B’ does not, in my judgment, resolve the question of whether the words qualify application in defrayal on the one hand or the incurring of the expenses of the trustees on the other. However, the reference to ‘treating’ and the ‘but for’ provision in s 686(2AA)(b) does seem, as Mr McCall argued, to indicate a shift away from actual events and circumstances to deemed events or circumstances. One has to move away from the express provisions of the trusts to what would be the case, for example, ‘but for’ any express provisions of the trust. And reference to the ‘but for’ situation is repeated in s 686(2A)(a). Mr McCall therefore argues that the actual is to be disregarded in favour of a notional set of facts but it is not clear to me why, if I move away from the actual so far as concerns defrayal, I should not be at liberty or be required also to move away from the actual in relation to the timing of the incurring of the expenses of the trustees. This shift from actual to notional does not, of itself, as it seems to me, provide an answer.
[55] But why should it be supposed that the legislation itself must have contained an answer to so detailed an issue as to whether the cash or accruals basis should be applicable? Had an answer to that issue been intended to be provided by the legislation itself one can reasonably expect a clearer answer to have been given, even in ‘very inept’ provisions, than anything that emerges from s 686(2AA) and the provisions to which it refers. It respectfully seems to me that
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there is good sense underlying the Special Commissioners’ conclusion that the legislation was not trying to be prescriptive on this detailed issue. I have failed to see anything unreasonable or inconsistent with the provisions of the legislation about the conclusion I reach, namely that so long as trustees consistently year-by-year use either the accruals basis or, alternatively, the cash basis and so long as any movement from one to the other can be demonstrated to have been done for good reason (and not predominantly for the reduction of liability to tax) that it should be left open to trustees to choose which they should use.
[56] The Special Commissioners concluded (at 376 (para 23)) that: ‘The accruals basis adopted here is a proper way of allocating expenses to a particular year of assessment.' That suggests to me that there was nothing inconsistent in the trustees’ use of the accruals basis for the year of assessment in issue and, on that footing, I see no error of law in the Special Commissioners’ conclusion.
CONCLUSION
[57] For the reasons I have given, I allow the Revenue’s appeal in respect of the £46,712 described as ‘trustees’ fees’. I dismiss the Revenue’s appeal against the Special Commissioners’ decision that the accruals basis was proper. So far as concerns the trustees’ cross-appeal, it had two limbs. Under the first, the trustees argued that the Special Commissioners had been wrong to hold that no part of the remuneration paid to what were called non-executive trustees was properly chargeable to income. I have not seen any ground to distinguish between non-executive and other trustees for the purposes of applying the Carver test; if I am right, for the reasons I have given, to include trustees’ remuneration within what can be expenses of trustees for the purposes of s 686(2AA) then the incurring of such remuneration, being in my judgment to be taken to have been for the benefit of the trust as a whole, must be chargeable to capital under Carver and, to that extent, that first limb of the trustees’ cross-appeal fails.
[58] As to the second, investment management fees relating to how income is to be invested in order to accumulate it, or pending an expected decision to accumulate it, is, for the reasons given in para [38], advice for the benefit of the estate as a whole and, again, under the Carver rule, the fees are here chargeable only to capital. No error of law, in my judgment, is to be found in the Special Commissioners’ conclusion to that effect. I thus dismiss both limbs of the trustees’ cross-appeal.
[59] At a late stage in the relevant year of assessment—that to 5 April 2001—the Trustee Act 2000 came into force on 1 February 2001. Section 24 of that Act enables trustees to insure trust property against risks of loss or damage due to any event and (sub-s (5)) to pay the premiums out of ‘any income or capital funds of the trust’. Although I was referred to the provision, neither side claimed that it affected their arguments.
[60] I shall need to discuss with counsel the appropriate form of order to give effect to the conclusions which I have reached.
Appeal allowed in part. Cross-appeal dismissed.
Giovanni D’Avola Barrister.
Majorstake Ltd v Curtis
[2008] 2 All ER 303
[2008] UKHL 10
Categories: HOUSING: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD, LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND AND LORD CARSWELL
Hearing Date(s): 15 NOVEMBER 2007, 6 FEBRUARY 2008
Landlord and tenant – Lease – Right to acquire new lease – Landlord intending to redevelop – Redevelopment of any premises in which tenant’s flat contained – Whether ‘any premises in which the tenant’s flat is contained’ referring to existing recognisable unit – Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, s 47.
The claimant landlord was the freehold owner of two blocks of flats. The defendant tenant held a long lease of one of the flats. The block in which the flat was located was a block of fifty flats over nine floors. The term of the tenant’s lease expired in March 2008. In September 2003 the tenant gave notice to the landlord under the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993 that he claimed the right under that Act to acquire a new lease. The landlord served a counter-notice stating that it intended to apply for an order under s 47a of the 1993 Act. Under that section the court could by order declare that the right to acquire a new lease was not exercisable by a tenant by reason of the landlord’s intention to redevelop any premises in which the tenant’s flat was contained. Subsection (2)(b)(ii) provided that the court was not to make such an order unless it was satisfied that for the purposes of redevelopment the landlord intended to carry out substantial works of construction on the whole or a substantial part of ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’. The landlord duly commenced proceedings for a declaration that the tenant’s right to acquire a new lease was not exerciseable. The landlord intended to redevelop the ‘premises’ by combining the tenant’s flat with a flat owned by a subsidiary of the claimant and situated immediately below the tenant’s flat to form a single duplex apartment. Before the judge it contended that the two flats constituted ‘premises’ in which the tenant’s flat was contained within s 47(2)(b). The judge held that, for the purposes of s 47(2), the premises in which the tenant’s flat was contained had to be the whole block or at least some self-contained part of the block. He therefore dismissed the landlord’s application. The Court of Appeal allowed the landlord’s appeal, holding that any part of the block which comprised contiguous flats could constitute ‘premises’ in which, for s 47(2) purposes, each of the flats was contained. The tenant appealed to the House of Lords contending that ‘premises’ could not be a notional space defined by the landlord in whatever way it chose.
Held – ‘[A]ny premises in which the flat is contained’ in s 47(2)(b) of the 1993 Act had to be an objectively recognisable physical space. The 1993 Act had been designed to give long leaseholders of flats rights as close as possible to those of freeholders at a price approximating to the market price and its purpose would be frustrated if a landlord could defeat those rights by proposing to do comparatively minor works to the building involved. It could not have been Parliament’s
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intention to allow the landlord to define the ‘premises’ for itself as that would in many cases allow the landlord to defeat the right to a new lease. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed (see [1], [16], [18], [19], [37]–[39], [41], [43], [47], [49], below).
Decision of the Court of Appeal [2006] 4 All ER 1326 reversed.
Notes
For application to defeat tenant’s claim where landlord intends to redevelop, see 27(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 1694.
For the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, s 47, see 23 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 997.
Cases referred to in opinions
A-G v HRH Prince Ernest Augustus of Hanover [1957] 1 All ER 49, [1957] AC 436, [1957] 2 WLR 1, HL.
Maunsell v Olins [1975] 1 All ER 16, [1975] AC 373, [1974] 3 WLR 835, HL.
Metropolitan Water Board v Paine [1907] 1 KB 285, DC.
Willingale v Globalgrange Ltd [2000] 2 EGLR 55, CA.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
Aggio v Howard de Walden Estates Ltd; 26 Cadogan Square Ltd v Earl Cadogan [2007] EWCA Civ 499, [2007] 3 All ER 910, [2007] 3 WLR 542.
Cadogan v McGirk [1996] 4 All ER 643, CA.
Appeal
Monty Curtis, the lessee of Flat 77, Block B, Boydell Court, St John’s Wood Park, London NW8 (the appellant), appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 14 December 2006 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Neuberger and Moore-Bick LJJ, May LJ dissenting) on 8 August 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 1171, [2006] 4 All ER 1326) allowing the appeal of Majorstake Ltd, the freehold owner of Boydell Court (the respondent), from the decision of Judge Cowell in the Central London County Court dismissing its claim for a declaration that the right of the appellant to acquire a new lease under the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993 was not exercisable on the grounds that the respondent intended to redevelop premises in which the flat was contained. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Scott of Foscote.
Edward Denehan (instructed by Freeman Box) for the appellant.
Derek Wood QC and Emily Windsor (instructed by S J Berwin LLP) for the respondent.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
6 February 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD.
[1] I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speeches of my noble and learned friends, Lord Scott of Foscote and Baroness Hale of Richmond. I am grateful to Lord Scott for setting out the facts and the procedural history and to Baroness Hale for her explanation of the wider context in which the legislation
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that we are concerned with needs to be viewed. For the reasons Baroness Hale gives I would allow the appeal and make the order that she proposes.
[2] The question is whether the phrase ‘the whole or a substantial part of any premises in which the flat is contained’ in s 47(2)(b)(ii) of the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993 enables the landlord, unconstrained by their existing state, to identify the premises by drawing his own line around the tenant’s flat in support of his counter-notice or whether it refers to the existing and objectively recognisable state of the premises. No direct assistance can be gained from the provisions in Ch I of Pt I of the Act, and the interpretation provisions in s 62 at the end of Ch II, of which s 47 forms part, do not help either. The answer to the question must be found in the words used in s 47, read in the context in which they appear.
[3] I think that the use of the present tense, indicated by the word ‘is’, provides the best guide to what the phrase means. It directs attention to what can be seen on the ground at the time when the tenant serves his notice. What can be seen on the ground is not what is to be found only in the mind of the landlord. Of course, it is for the landlord to decide the extent of the development which he wishes to carry out. As the statute recognises, it is his intention with regard to this part of the statutory test that needs to be demonstrated. So long as the intended development extends to the whole or a substantial part of the premises in which the flat is contained, this requirement for the making of an order under s 47(1) of the Act will be satisfied. But the extent of the intended development is not determinative of the extent of ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’. The context indicates that the extent of those premises does not depend on the intention of the landlord. On the contrary, it is something to be determined objectively by examining the existing state of the building within which the tenant’s flat is situated.
[4] This interpretation has the merit of preserving an appropriate balance between the tenant’s interests as against those of the landlord. It gives due weight to the requirement that the redevelopment which the landlord wishes to carry out must extend, if not to the whole, at least to a substantial part of the premises. The right to acquire a new lease of a flat is given to the tenant by s 39 of the Act on payment of a premium. This right would be seriously undermined if all that the landlord needed to do to defeat the tenant’s right was to declare his intention to redevelop the flat. That is why an intention to redevelop something more than the flat itself is required. Section 62(3) also makes it clear that it will not be enough for the landlord to declare an intention to redevelop a garage or outhouse let with the flat. The argument that it is open to the landlord to determine the extent of the premises in which the tenant’s flat is contained by drawing an imaginary line around it of his own choosing and which suits his own interests is objectionable for an analogous reason. As May LJ said in the Court of Appeal, units of that kind would be artificial: [2006] EWCA Civ 1171 at [65], [2006] 4 All ER 1326 at [65], [2007] Ch 300. They would have been put together simply to achieve the statutory requirement. They could not, in the proper sense of the phrase, be said to be premises in which the flat is contained.
[5] The tenant’s concession that one floor in a block of flats, and even adjoining flats on the same floor, could be regarded as premises within which his flat was contained seems to me to be open to question. But it does not help the landlord, as his intention to redevelop does not extend in that direction. His case is that the premises extend to the flat immediately below and contiguous to the flat which the tenant occupies. In agreement with May LJ, I would hold that it
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overstrains the statutory language to say that two flats on different floors, and those two flats only, are premises in which the tenant’s flat is situated. Unless there is some other obvious subdivision within Boydell Court, the premises in which the flat is situated would seem to me to mean the entire structure of Block B but each case must, inevitably, depend on its own facts.
LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE.
[6] This appeal raises a short issue of construction of s 47(2)(b) of the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993. On this issue turns the question of whether the appellant, Monty Curtis, is entitled to acquire a new lease of his flat, flat 77, on the seventh floor of Block B, Boydell Court, St John’s Wood Park, London NW8.
[7] Boydell Court consists, for relevant purposes, of two blocks of flats, Block A and Block B. Block A contains 60 flats on 11 floors; Block B contains fifty flats on nine floors. The ground floor of Block B includes a caretaker’s flat and storage and other communal facilities. Lifts and a stairway run from the ground floor to the upper floors. The eight upper floors contain six flats each and common parts such as corridors. Flat 77 contains two bedrooms, one reception room, a kitchen, bathroom and a second toilet. The demise includes one-half in depth of the joists between the floor of flat 77 and the ceiling of the flat beneath and one-half in depth of the joists between the ceiling of flat 77 and the floor of the flat above. Mention needs to be made not only of flat 77 but also of two other flats in Block B. Flat 79 is a flat on the seventh floor adjoining flat 77. Flat 74 is the flat on the sixth floor immediately below flat 77.
[8] Mr Curtis holds flat 77 under an underlease dated 22 July 1957 which demised the flat for a term of 51 years from 25 March 1957 reserving a ground rent of £440 per annum.
[9] Chapter II of the 1993 Act gives a tenant of a flat who holds a lease granted for a term of more than 21 years the right to claim from the landlord a new lease of the flat for a term expiring 90 years after the expiry date of the current lease. The right is exercised by the service of a notice of claim under s 42 of the 1993 Act. The landlord must respond to the tenant’s notice by serving a counter-notice stating whether or not the tenant’s entitlement to a new lease is accepted (s 45). But, if the lease has less than five years to run when the tenant’s claim is made, the landlord may state in his counter-notice that he intends to apply to the court for an order under s 47(1) of the Act ‘on the grounds that he intends to redevelop any premises in which the flat is contained’ (s 45(2)(c)). Where such a counter-notice has been served:
‘. . . the court may . . . by order declare that the right to acquire a new lease shall not be exercisable by the tenant by reason of the landlord’s intention to redevelop any premises in which the tenant’s flat is contained . . .’ (Section 47(1).)
However, s 47(2) of the Act provides as follows:
‘The court shall not make an order under subsection (1) unless it is satisfied—(a) that the tenant’s lease of his flat is due to terminate within the period of five years beginning with the [date on which the section 42 notice
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of claim was given to the landlord]; and (b) that for the purposes of redevelopment the landlord intends, once the lease has so terminated—
(i) to demolish or reconstruct, or
(ii) to carry out substantial works of construction on,
the whole or a substantial part of any premises in which the flat is contained; and (c) that he could not reasonably do so without obtaining possession of the flat.’
[10] On 16 September 2003 Mr Curtis gave notice to the respondent, Majorstake Ltd, claiming to exercise his right to acquire a new lease of flat 77. It is accepted that the notice was a valid one. Majorstake responded by serving on 21 November 2003 a s 45 counter-notice stating its intention to apply to the court for an order under s 47(1) that Mr Curtis’ right to acquire a new lease should not be exercisable on the ground that it, Majorstake, intended to redevelop premises in which flat 77 was contained. It is accepted that the s 45 counter-notice was a valid one. Majorstake then duly commenced proceedings in the Central London County Court for a declaration that Mr Curtis’ right to a new lease was not exercisable. Attention must now shift to s 47(2) of the 1993 Act.
[11] Majorstake’s original redevelopment intention had been to combine flat 77 and flat 79 so as to create a single larger flat on the seventh floor. But by the time the case came to be heard in the Central London county court the intention had changed to an intention to combine flat 77 with flat 74, the flat beneath flat 77, so as to form a larger flat of the sort apparently known in the jargon of the trade as a ‘duplex’ apartment. The intention was that the former flat 74 would contain four bedrooms and three bathrooms and be connected by a stairway to the former flat 77 which would contain a reception room, a kitchen and dining area, a conservatory and a bathroom. The entrance to the new apartment would be through the existing entrance to flat 77. The existing entrance to flat 74 would become a fire escape exit. A complete re-wiring of the new apartment and the construction of new internal walls as well as the installation of the stairway would be necessary. The question was, and is, whether these proposals satisfied the conditions required by s 47(2) of the Act. It is accepted that these proposed works could not be carried out by Majorstake without obtaining possession of flat 77. So the s 47(2)(c) condition is satisfied. And it is accepted that the proposed works constitute ‘substantial works of construction’ within the meaning of those words in s 47(2)(b)(ii). The only remaining question is whether the proposed works of construction will be works on ‘the whole or a substantial part of any premises in which [flat 77] is contained’. The works will be works on flat 74 and flat 77. That much is clear. But what are the ‘premises in which [flat 77] is contained’? And, once the ‘premises’ have been identified, are flat 74 and flat 77 ‘a substantial part’ of those premises within the meaning of those words in s 47(2)(b)?
[12] It is clear that the ‘premises in which [flat 77] is contained’ must be something more than flat 77 itself. It is clear also that the ‘premises’ in which flat 77 is contained must be identified by reference to the state of affairs before the proposed works of development are carried out. If the proposed works were to be carried out, the new apartment would constitute, in the ordinary use of language, ‘premises’ in which the former flat 77 was contained. But s 47(2)(b) is looking for the pre-development ‘premises in which [flat 77] is contained’. In the county court Majorstake argued that flat 74 and flat 77 together constituted
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‘premises’ in which flat 77 was contained. But Judge Cowell thought that for s 47(2) purposes the premises in which flat 77 was contained must be Block B or at least some self-contained part of Block B. The question whether flats 74 and 77 constituted, for s 47(2)(b) purposes, a ‘substantial part’ of Block B was not addressed. Majorstake’s application for an order under s 47(1) was dismissed, so it was presumably assumed that they did not.
[13] The Court of Appeal, by a majority, disagreed with Judge Cowell on the ‘premises’ point: [2006] EWCA Civ 1171, [2006] 4 All ER 1326, [2007] Ch 300. Counsel for Mr Curtis accepted that the expression ‘the premises in which the flat is contained’ could not, in relation to flat 77, be restricted to Block B as a whole but submitted that the expression referred to an ‘existing recognisable unit’, such as a whole floor of a building, within which the flat in question was contained. If that were right, works on flat 77 and flat 79, both on the seventh floor, might have constituted works of construction on a part of premises within which flat 77 was contained, namely, the seventh floor of Block B, but the proposed works on flat 77 and flat 74, being works on flats on different floors, would not. However Moore-Bick LJ did not accept the legitimacy of the distinction between contiguous flats on the same floor and contiguous flats on different floors. He concluded that any part of Block B which comprised contiguous flats could constitute premises in which, for s 47(2) purposes, each of the flats was contained. Neuberger LJ agreed. He thought the word ‘contained’ in the s 47(2)(b) expression could ‘fairly be said to be capable of carrying with it the notion of the “premises” being a single piece of property which is greater than, and includes, the flat concerned’: at [37].
[14] Since neither of the learned Lord Justices accepted any necessary limitation on the size of the piece of property that, when added to the subject flat, could constitute the ‘premises’ in which the flat was contained, both accepted that a landlord might satisfy the s 47(2)(b) condition, and thereby deprive a tenant of his right under the 1993 Act to a new lease, by establishing an intention to redevelop the tenant’s flat together with a wholly insignificant adjacent area such as a box-room or a broom cupboard. For my part I doubt very much whether their construction would ever lead to that apparently absurd conclusion. Section 47(2) prevents the court from making a s 47(1) declaration unless the conditions of s 47(2) are satisfied. Section 47(1) enables, but does not oblige, the court to make the requested declaration if the s 47(2) conditions are satisfied. Subsection (1) says that the court ‘may . . . by order declare’ (my emphasis). It does not say ‘must’ or ‘shall’. Counsel, when this point was put to them, told your Lordships that it had been held by the Court of Appeal in Willingale v Globalgrange Ltd [2000] 2 EGLR 55 that ‘may’ in s 47(1) meant ‘must’. That case, in my opinion, is no authority for that broad proposition. The case was one in which a landlord had failed to serve any counter-notice in response to a notice served by tenants under Ch I of the 1993 Act to acquire the freehold of their leasehold premises. The issue was whether in those circumstances the landlord could challenge the terms of acquisition proposed by the tenants in their notice. The county court judge held that the landlord could not and a two-man Court of Appeal, giving extempore judgments, dismissed the appeal. It is true that May LJ, who gave the leading judgment, said (at 57) that the ‘statute does not work if there is a discretion’ but he was referring to the word ‘may’ in s 25(1) of the 1993 Act in a case where the landlord had failed to comply with the statutory procedural requirements of s 21. The case is no guide to how s 47(1) should be applied to a case where a landlord is seeking to satisfy the s 47(2)(b) condition by
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claiming an intention to redevelop the tenant’s flat together with an insignificant additional part of the building in which the tenant’s flat is contained, an additional part added to the tenant’s flat for the proposed development simply in order to produce ‘premises in which the flat is contained’ and thereby satisfy s 47(2)(b). The ‘box-room’ objection to Moore-Bick and Neuberger LJJ’s construction of ‘premises’ is an objection based on a premise that I am unable to accept. In the circumstances postulated the court would not, in my opinion, be obliged to make the s 47(1) declaration sought by the landlord.
[15] Moore-Bick and Neuberger LJJ, having held that flats 74 and 77 together constituted the ‘premises in which [flat 77] is contained’, did not need to consider whether the proposed works of construction were works on ‘the whole or a substantial part’ of those premises. They obviously were. May LJ dissented. He was prepared to accept that the expression ‘any premises in which the [tenant’s] flat is contained’ might apply to premises consisting of less than a whole building or block and was ‘prepared to suppose that the full seventh floor of this block of flats would qualify’ ([2006] 4 All ER 1326 at [64], [2007] Ch 300). But he did not accept at [65] that ‘some artificial unit . . . which would not otherwise be recognised as an existing containing unit’ could qualify and he did not accept that flat 77 on the seventh floor and flat 74 on the sixth floor could be described, for s 47(2)(b) purposes, as ‘premises in which [flat 77] is contained’. It was, of course, clear that Block B could constitute premises in which flat 77 was contained, but May LJ did not go on to consider whether the proposed works to flats 74 and 77 could be described as works ‘to a substantial part’ of Block B.
[16] My Lords I find myself in complete agreement with May LJ that the combination of flat 74 and flat 77 cannot be described, for s 47(2)(b) purposes, as ‘premises within which [flat 77] is contained’. A reasonably literate non-lawyer who read ss 45 and 47 of the 1993 Act would see the reference in ss 45(2)(c), 47(1) and 47(2)(b) to the landlord’s intention to redevelop ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’. If the reader knew about Block B and its constituent flats and were asked in what premises flat 77 was contained, it would take the reader no time at all to answer with confidence that flat 77 was contained in Block B. If the reader were then asked whether the premises in which flat 77 was contained could be described as the seventh floor of Block B he would, I think, look puzzled and find the question surprising. He might answer that to call each floor of Block B the ‘premises’ in which each flat on the floor was contained would be an unusual use of the word and would require a special definition of ‘premises’. But if he were asked whether a flat on one floor of Block B and the flat either immediately above or below that flat could be described as together constituting the ‘premises’ in which each flat was contained he would, I suggest, doubt the familiarity of his questioner with the English language. Harry Potter, we are told, received letters addressed to him at ‘The Cupboard under the Stairs, 4 Privet Drive, Little Winging’. ‘The Cupboard under the Stairs’ might have constituted ‘premises’ for the purpose of letters from Hogwarts but for the purposes of construction of the 1993 Act a normal use of the English language must be assumed. I do not accept that it could possibly have been the Parliamentary intention that the ‘premises in which [flat 77] is contained’ could consist of flat 77 and a contiguous flat, whether contiguous vertically or horizontally. The meaning of the word ‘premises’ in ss 45 and 47 of the 1993 Act is, of course, dependent on the context, but I can, for my part, find nothing in the statutory context that justifies attributing to the word a meaning that it would not ordinarily bear. In the context of Ch II of the Act ‘premises’ refers, in my opinion,
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to a self-contained unit of which the subject flat forms part. Thus adjoining houses in a row of terraced houses could be described as ‘premises’ in which each house was contained. And a house in which one or more flats was contained could be described as the ‘premises’ in which each flat was contained. But a floor of Block B could not, in my opinion, be described, for s 45 or s 47 purposes, as the ‘premises’ in which each flat on the floor was contained.
[17] The construction favoured by the majority in the Court of Appeal appears to me to have been over-influenced by the references in ss 45(2)(c), 47(1) and 47(2) to ‘any premises’. The use of the word ‘any’ indicates, it is suggested, that it was not simply the obvious premises, eg the block containing a number of flats, that Parliament had in mind. In my respectful opinion this is much too slender a reed to bear the weight of what I regard as an unnatural construction of ‘premises’.
[18] In my opinion, in respectful agreement with Judge Cowell, the ‘premises’ in which, for s 45 or s 47 purposes, flat 77 is contained is Block B. The question does, therefore, arise whether the proposed works of construction on flat 74 and flat 77 are works on ‘a substantial part of’ of Block B. This is not a question which was addressed either in the county court or in the Court of Appeal. Nor was it addressed in the printed cases of either Mr Curtis or Majorstake. It is accepted, however, that the proposed works of construction are ‘substantial works’ for the purposes of s 47(2)(b). In the expression ‘substantial works’ the adjective ‘substantial’ denotes, in my opinion, works that are not trivial or, as one might say, insubstantial. There is no other yardstick than impression. The issue is one of fact and degree. The same approach should, in my opinion, be taken to the question whether flats 74 and 77 constitute a ‘substantial’ part of Block B. They are two of the fifty flats in the block. In percentage terms two out of fifty, four per cent, does not sound substantial. I doubt, however, whether that is the right approach. Each flat is a substantial item of property, an item of considerable value. Each flat, as part of the block, could not, in my opinion, be regarded as a trivial or insignificant part. If this point had been the subject of proper examination and argument I would have taken a great deal of persuading that the proposed works of construction on flats 74 and 77 were not works on a ‘substantial part’ of Block B for the purposes of s 47(2)(b). As it is, however, in the absence of proper argument on the point, I will with some reluctance set aside my doubts and concur with my colleagues in allowing this appeal.
LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE.
[19] I am in complete agreement with the opinion of my noble and learned friend Baroness Hale of Richmond, which I have had the privilege of reading in draft. For the reasons given by Baroness Hale I would allow this appeal and make the order which she proposes.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[20] Part I of the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993 conferred two important new rights upon the long leaseholders of flats. Chapter I gave qualifying tenants of ‘flats contained in premises to which this Chapter applies’ the right collectively to acquire the freehold of those premises. This extended to leasehold flats the right of enfranchisement provided for leasehold houses by the Leasehold Reform Act 1967. Chapter II gave individual tenants the right to acquire a new lease which would last for 90 years from the date when their present lease would come to an end. In each case, a price must
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be paid in accordance with the valuation principles laid down in Schs 6 and 13 respectively. In summary this is the sum of the landlord’s present interest in the premises to be acquired, any diminution in value of other premises owned by the landlord, and half the so-called ‘marriage value’, in essence the extent to which the value of the whole is greater than the sum of the separate parts.
[21] Both were motivated by the well-known problems attached to the ownership of flats. Freehold ownership is possible but difficult because the burden of positive covenants (for example to maintain the lower floors so as to support the upper floors) cannot at present run with the land. Fresh covenants have to be negotiated each time there is a change in ownership. The Law Commission’s recommendations to remedy this problem have never been implemented: see Transfer of Land: the Law of Positive and Restrictive Covenants (1984) (Law Com No 127). Leaseholds, on the other hand, can contain positive covenants which bind successive landlords and tenants under the doctrine of privity of estate. But unless the lease has been granted for hundreds of years, it eventually becomes a wasting asset. The capital originally invested in it dwindles away. Eventually the lease becomes unmortgageable and unmarketable. The leaseholder therefore needs to negotiate the purchase of the freehold or a lease extension from the landlord. But, as the authors of Hague on Leasehold Enfranchisement (4th edn, 2003) p 11–12 (para 1.14) observe, ‘there are few comparable situations where the bargaining powers are quite so unequal’. There is also a positive disincentive to the leaseholder to spend any more money than absolutely necessary in maintaining or improving the flat.
[22] By the 1980s, long leaseholds had become an increasingly common form of tenure of flats, perhaps because rent control and Rent Act protection had made periodic tenancies so much less attractive to landlords. But in addition to the wasting asset problem, leaseholders might be faced with a combination of poor management and high service charges. The solutions attempted by the Landlord and Tenant Acts 1985 and 1987 were not wholly successful. All of this was well recognised by a government which was anxious to extend home ownership to as wide a section of the population as possible.
[23] The 1993 Act was passed to remedy the problems arising from long leaseholds of flats by enabling leaseholders to acquire either the whole premises or a new lease at a price which the legislators thought fair. It recognised that the relationship between the freehold owners of blocks of flats and their qualifying tenants was no longer an ordinary landlord and tenant relationship. It was thought to be a staging post on the journey towards freehold flats. Nevertheless, both Ch I and Ch II gave the landlord the right to resist either collective enfranchisement or the grant of a new lease if it intended to redevelop. Section 23(1) provides that the court may ‘by order declare that the right to collective enfranchisement shall not be exercisable in relation to those premises by reason of that landlord’s intention to redevelop the whole or a substantial part of the premises’. Section 23(2) sets out the matters of which the court has to be satisfied before making such an order. We are concerned with s 47, which makes the equivalent provision in Ch II.
[24] Section 47(1) provides that the court may ‘by order declare that the right to acquire a new lease shall not be exercisable by the tenant by reason of the landlord’s intention to redevelop any premises in which the tenant’s flat is contained’ (my emphasis). Section 47(2) provides that the court shall not make an order under sub-s (1) unless it is satisfied:
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‘(a) that the tenant’s lease of his flat is due to terminate within the period of five years beginning with the relevant date; and (b) that for the purposes of redevelopment the landlord intends, once the lease has so terminated—
(i) to demolish or reconstruct, or
(ii) to carry out substantial works of construction on,
the whole or a substantial part of any premises in which the flat is contained; and (c) that he could not reasonably do so without obtaining possession of the flat.’ (My emphasis.)
Mutatis mutandis, these mirror the conditions for resisting collective enfranchisement in s 23(2).
[25] The issue for us is as to the meaning of the phrase ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’ in s 47(2)(b). It is common ground that it cannot simply mean the flat itself. But the landlord argues that it means the tenant’s flat together with any other part of the building which is capable of being identified by a continuous line drawn on a three dimensional plan of the building; in other words, this is a space which is defined by the landlord itself when making its plans to develop within the building. In this particular case, the landlord wishes to convert the tenant’s flat and the one immediately below it into a single ‘duplex’ flat or ‘maisonette’ over the two floors. The tenant argues that it means a single recognisable unit of space containing the tenant’s flat within the building or the whole building.
[26] The Court of Appeal, by a majority, favoured the construction argued by the landlord: [2006] EWCA Civ 1171, [2006] 4 All ER 1326, [2007] Ch 300. May LJ dissented. He held, at [65], that ‘[t]he premises have to contain the flat and have to be an existing recognisable unit which may sensibly be said to do that, not some artificial unit, put together simply to achieve the statutory requirement, which would not otherwise be recognised as an existing containing unit.' The tenant appeals.
[27] I am grateful to my noble and learned friend, Lord Scott of Foscote, who has set out the facts and the procedural history in some detail. In summary, the appellant is the tenant of flat 77, on the seventh floor of Block B, Boydell Court, in St John’s Wood Park. His lease is for a term of 51 years from 25 March 1957 and thus expires on 24 March 2008. Boydell Court comprises two blocks of flats, Block A and Block B. Block A contains 60 flats on 11 floors. Block B contains fifty flats on nine floors. It has an entrance and communal facilities on the ground floor, and lifts and stairs serving all floors. The eight upper floors contain six flats on each floor and common parts.
[28] The respondent is the freehold owner of the whole of Boydell Court. The appellant’s immediate landlord is Luckworth Properties Ltd, a wholly owned subsidiary of the respondent, which has a headlease of 99 years from 25 March 1957. Luckworth also holds a 999-year lease of flat 74, Boydell Court, the flat immediately below flat 77. The appellant gave notice to the respondent under s 42 of the 1993 Act claiming to exercise his right to acquire a new lease in September 2003 (the respondent is the correct recipient of the notice because Luckworth does not have a long enough reversionary interest to enable it to grant a new lease of 90 years from 24 March 2008). The respondent served a counter-notice under s 45 of the 1993 Act, stating that it intended to apply to the court for an order under s 47(1).
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[29] That application was made in January 2004. The redevelopment then proposed was to combine flat 77 with the adjoining flat, flat 79, to create a single large flat. In December 2004, however, the proposal changed to combining flats 77 and 74 into a duplex apartment, with the entrance and living accommodation on the upper floor and four bedrooms on the lower. This would involve reducing both flats back to a shell, cutting through a floor to create an opening for a new staircase between them, installing the new staircase, replacing the windows in both flats, constructing new internal walls, rewiring, laying new flooring, installing four new bathrooms, a new kitchen, a new heating system and new false ceilings and doors.
[30] The respondent’s application was heard in the Central London county court in November 2005. The appellant accepted that the landlord did indeed intend to carry out the proposed development, that it consisted of substantial works to a substantial part of both flat 74 and flat 77, and that it was necessary to obtain possession of both to enable the development to be carried out. All the conditions in s 47(2) were thus fulfilled, save for the issue before us: were flats 74 and 77 together ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’ for the purpose of s 47(2)(b)?
[31] The judge dismissed the respondent’s application. He did so by finding a link between the concept of ‘premises’ in Ch II with the concept of ‘premises’ in Ch I. By virtue of s 3(1), the right of collective enfranchisement in Ch I applies to ‘any premises’ if, inter alia, ‘they consist of a self-contained building or part of a building’. Section 3(2) provides that a building is self-contained if it is structurally detached, and part of a building is self-contained if it constitutes a vertical division of the building and that part can be developed independently of the rest and the services are either provided independently or could be so provided without significantly interrupting the supply of services to the rest of the building. The judge therefore held that ‘any premises’ in s 47 meant Block B or, if there were any vertical division in Block B, that part of Block B in which flat 77 was contained.
[32] The Court of Appeal rejected that construction. Nor does the appellant now support it. Section 39 expressly applies the definitions of ‘qualifying tenant’ and ‘long lease’ in ss 5 and 7 of Ch I for the purposes of Ch II. Had Parliament wished also to apply the definition of ‘premises’ it could have done so, but it did not. Furthermore, s 101(1) defines a ‘flat’ for the purpose of Pt I as ‘a separate set of premises . . .’. Clearly, therefore, Parliament contemplated that ‘premises’ might mean something less than a whole building.
[33] Rather, the appellant argues that the ‘premises’ must be a physical space which is objectively recognisable at the time when the tenant serves his notice. It cannot be a notional space which is defined by the landlord in whatever way it chooses. The majority of the Court of Appeal, in adopting the respondent’s construction, had to accept that it would be open to a landlord to define a space containing the flat and an adjoining box-room or even part of the hallway outside the flat. This would allow landlords readily to defeat the right which Parliament had intended the tenant to have. Furthermore, it would deprive the concept of a ‘substantial part of [the] premises’ of any meaning; the smaller the space the landlord chose to define, the easier it would be to say that the proposed redevelopment was of a substantial part of the premises in which the flat is contained. Far from being clear and objective, as the Court of Appeal appeared to think, the landlord’s construction would be its own subjective creation. The
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tenant would have no idea when serving his initial notice what ‘premises’ the landlord might seek to redevelop and thus to defeat the tenant’s claim.
[34] For the landlord, it was pointed out that almost all the modern legislation interfering in freedom of contract between landlord and tenant has preserved a right in the landlord to redevelop the property. The Rent Acts did not do so expressly, but allowed a landlord to regain possession of the property if it provided the tenant with suitable alternative accommodation. The Housing Act 1985 allows a social landlord to regain possession of a dwelling let under a secure tenancy if it proposes to demolish or reconstruct or carry out work on the building or part of the building comprising the dwelling, provided that suitable accommodation will be available for the tenant: s 84(2)(b), Sch 2, Pt II, ground 10. The Housing Act 1988 gives the landlord of a dwelling let under an assured tenancy the right to regain possession if it proposes to demolish or reconstruct or carry out substantial works to the dwelling or part of it or any building of which it forms part, provided certain other conditions are fulfilled: s 7(3), Sch 2, Pt I, ground 6. The Agricultural Holdings Act 1986 contains provisions allowing the landlord to change the use of the land from agriculture to some other purpose: s 26(2) and Sch 3, Case B, and s 27(1), (3)(f). The Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 allows the landlord of business premises to oppose the grant of a new tenancy on the ground that he intends to demolish or reconstruct or do substantial work on the premises comprised in the holding or a substantial part of it: s 30(1)(f).
[35] In each of these cases, it is for the landlord to decide what works, if any, it wishes to do. Provided that the intention is genuine, the tenant cannot resist possession on the ground that it is not a sensible thing to do. Thus, it is said, in the present context the landlord can decide what works it wishes to do and the extent of the premises upon which it wishes to do them.
[36] My Lords, it will be noted that each of the statutory provisions cited is different, reflecting the different contexts in which they arise and the different social and economic purposes of the legislation in which they are contained. They are all of them directed mainly at the redevelopment of the particular dwelling or holding which has been let. They contain within them such conditions or qualifications as are designed to reflect the particular balance between the interests of landlords and tenants that the particular legislation wished to achieve.
[37] There can be no doubt about what the 1993 Act was designed to achieve. It was designed to give long-leaseholders of flats rights as close as possible to those of freeholders, at a price approximating to the market price, though subject to some statutory assumptions. That purpose would be frustrated if the landlord could defeat either of those rights by proposing to do comparatively minor works to the building involved. I accept that the definition of premises in Ch I is not applied in Ch II, but it is legitimate to look at the scale of redevelopment which would defeat the right of collective enfranchisement in Ch I in order to consider what scale of redevelopment would defeat the right to a new lease in Ch II. Section 23(2) is in almost identical terms to s 47(2). It contemplates demolition or reconstruction of or substantial works of construction to a whole or a substantial part of a whole building or self contained part of a building. These are major works, requiring a large investment in proportion to the value of the premises, not simply the reconstruction of a small part for the purpose of making a profit on that part.
[38] Nor can it have been Parliament’s intention to allow the landlord to define the ‘premises’ for itself. That would in many cases allow it to defeat the
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right to a new lease. The purpose of granting the right to buy a new lease was to support the value of the old. The final years of long leases can now be bought and sold with a reasonable expectation that they can be extended when they come to an end. There has to be some objective way of estimating how likely it is that the landlord will be able to prevent that.
[39] Hence it seems to me clear that ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’ must be an objectively recognisable physical space, something which the landlord, the tenant, the visitor, the prospective purchaser would recognise as ‘premises’. In common with Lord Scott, I have little doubt that, if one asked a visitor, ‘in which premises is flat 77, Boydell Court, contained?’, the visitor would say ‘Block B’. The visitor would not further sub-divide the space. In a row of terraced houses, or in a pair of semi-detached houses, the visitor would regard each house as the ‘premises’. In a single block of flats with several entrances leading to separate staircases, the visitor might also say ‘Block B’ rather than the whole building. Much would depend upon the physical facts on the ground. This is a much more objective test than that proposed by the landlord and in most cases would lead to very similar results to those in collective enfranchisement cases in Ch I.
[40] It has hitherto been taken for granted that, if the premises are Block B, then two flats out of the fifty do not constitute ‘a substantial part of’ the premises. Were it otherwise there would have been no point in the appellant pursuing matters to this House. The respondent has not hitherto sought to argue otherwise. In my view, it was right not to do so. ‘Substantial’ is a word which has a wide range of meanings. Sometimes it can mean ‘not little’. Sometimes it can mean ‘almost complete’, as in ‘in substantial agreement’. Often it means ‘big’ or ‘solid’, as in a ‘substantial house’. Sometimes it means ‘weighty’ or ‘serious’, as in a ‘substantial reason’. It will take its meaning from its context. But in an expression such as a ‘substantial part’ there is clearly an element of comparison with the whole: it is something other than a small or insignificant or insubstantial part. There may be both a qualitative element of size, weight or importance in its own right; and a quantitative element, of size, weight or importance in relation to the whole. The works intended by this landlord are substantial in relation to each of the flats involved, but those flats do not in my view constitute a substantial part of the whole premises. I would not in any event consider it right to decide the case against the appellant on a point which was not taken against him in the courts below by a respondent who has been represented by expert counsel at all levels in these proceedings.
[41] For these reasons, I would allow this appeal, dismiss the landlord’s claim under s 47(1) of the 1993 Act and declare that the counter-notice in question is of no effect. By virtue of s 47(4) the landlord is obliged to serve a further counter-notice, but I understand that that has already been done pursuant to the order of the county court judge, so the process of granting a new lease may now proceed.
LORD CARSWELL.
[42] The issue before the House is the interpretation of a statutory phrase ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’ in s 47(2)(b) of the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993. The phrase is at first sight deceptively simple, but, like many phrases in legislative documents, its interpretation gives rise to difficulties as one seeks to apply it in circumstances which may not have been envisaged by those who enacted it. It is an old calumny
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that lawyers almost never see meaning as simple or clear, but the extent of these difficulties may be seen from the differences of opinion which have developed between the several judges in the courts below and, to some degree, between your Lordships.
[43] The factual and legislative background have been set out in the opinions of my noble and learned friends, Lord Scott of Foscote and Baroness Hale of Richmond, which I have had the advantage of reading in draft, and I need not repeat them. The landlord wishes to carry out development work to the appellant’s flat number 77, on the seventh floor of Block B, Boydell Court, St John’s Wood Park, London. The proposal is to construct a duplex apartment out of that flat and number 74, situate immediately below 77. The issue is whether the combination of flats 77 and 74 comes within the definition of ‘any premises in which the flat [number 77] is contained’. The landlord’s contention, which prevailed with the majority of the Court of Appeal, is that the expression ‘any premises’ is perfectly general and apt to refer to the whole or any part of a building. The tenant’s contention, which has found favour with your Lordships, is that it means the building as a whole or a self-contained part of it.
[44] The word ‘premises’, stemming from the Latin praemissa, is in origin a conveyancer’s term, meaning everything in a deed which precedes the habendum: Sheppard’s Touchstone (7th edn, 1820) p 52, and cf Metropolitan Water Board v Paine [1907] 1 KB 285 at 297, per Ridley J, Maunsell v Olins [1975] 1 All ER 16 at 21, [1975] AC 373 at 386, per Lord Wilberforce. It is not in dispute that the meaning of the word in the present context must be its ordinary meaning, rather than the technical conveyancing meaning. As Lord Wilberforce went on to say in Maunsell v Olins:
‘From this it has passed into the vernacular, at least a quasi-legal vernacular, as referring to some sort of property, but not with any precise connotation. A reference to Stroud’s Judicial Dictionary shows that a number of different meanings have been acquired of which the most central appears to be buildings or some kinds of buildings, but it would be far too much to say that there is any prima facie, still less any grammatical meaning from which one should start.’
That ordinary meaning must be governed by the context of the statute in which it is found, for it does not have any universally applicable meaning as a matter of general usage. In the search for the meaning intended by Parliament, one may have regard to what Viscount Simonds said (facing a very different problem in a very different context) in A-G v HRH Prince Ernest Augustus of Hanover [1957] 1 All ER 49 at 53, [1957] AC 436 at 461:
‘For words, and particularly general words, cannot be read in isolation: their colour and content are derived from their context. So it is that I conceive it to be my right and duty to examine every word of a statute in its context, and I use context in its widest sense which I have already indicated as including not only other enacting provisions of the same statute, but its preamble, the existing state of the law, other statutes in pari materia, and the mischief which I can, by those and other legitimate means, discern that the statute was intended to remedy.’
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Viscount Simonds added a cautionary paragraph, in which he pointed out that the guiding principles of interpretation and exposition of statutes are stated in so many ways that ‘support of high authority may be found for general and apparently irreconcilable propositions’. One other cautionary note to which one should also have regard is the familiar advice that rules of construction are our servants and not our masters. As Thomas Jefferson expressed it in a letter in 1823:
‘Laws are made for men of ordinary understanding, and should, therefore, be construed by the ordinary rules of common sense.’
(The Writings of Thomas Jefferson (edited by HA Washington) (1854), 7:297).
[45] Applying principles of statutory interpretation is always much more difficult than enunciating them. The question in the present appeal is what the legislature is to be taken to have intended in using the chameleon-like word ‘premises’ in s 47(2)(b), bearing in mind that it is qualified by the adjective ‘any’. I think it is clear that it does not have the conveyancing meaning, and that one must look for the ordinary meaning in the context of this statute. Judge Cowell derived assistance from a comparison with the use of the word ‘premises’ in Ch I of the Act, in particular s 3, but all members of the Court of Appeal agreed, for what I consider convincing reasons, that he was wrong to do so. Nor do I think that there is any direct assistance to be derived from phrases in other legislation, although a contrast with the objects of earlier Acts may throw some light on the statutory intention behind this one.
[46] I do find some significance in the use of the qualifying word ‘any’. If it had been intended that the premises in s 47 were to be nothing less than an entire block of flats, it would give less weight to that word. Its effect would be limited to situations where the landlord’s holding consists of several blocks, as in the present case, and it would permit the redevelopment of one block, but not part of a block. I do not find it necessary to express a concluded opinion on the point, but I incline to the view that a portion of a building may be intended, in order to give effect to the word ‘any’. One can envisage a situation where a landlord wishes to obtain possession of a ground floor flat in order to carry out a scheme turning the whole of the ground floor, hitherto let in flats, into a shopping development. I doubt if such a scheme could be ruled out as being outwith s 47. It may also be necessary at some time to consider a proposal to redevelop a vertical portion of a building divided like an Oxford or Cambridge college into separate staircases. I do wish therefore to reserve my opinion for further argument on the extent of the portion of a building which might be said to qualify.
[47] If, as I think is probably correct, the premises may be less than an entire block, the question is how much is required to constitute ‘any premises in which the flat is contained’. I was originally attracted to the argument presented on behalf of the respondent and to the reasoning of the majority in the Court of Appeal. Having read and considered at some length the opinions prepared by your Lordships, however, I have come to the conclusion that I cannot accept the respondent’s case. Two factors in particular have led me to this conclusion. The first is that, as my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead emphasises in para [3] of his opinion, attention should be directed to what can be seen on the ground at the time when the tenant serves his notice. It could not be said of the proposed unit consisting of flats 77 and 74 that it would form a potential development readily visible to the observer. That reinforces the tenant’s
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contention that the development contemplated by s 47 is an existing recognisable unit. Secondly, I am influenced by consideration of the statutory objective of Parliament in passing the 1993 Act. The statutory focus was on the conversion of the rights of long-leaseholders of flats into rights akin to those of freeholders, compensating the landlords by receipt of a sum in the approximate region of market price. For this reason, as Lady Hale sets out in para [37] of her opinion, the scale of redevelopment required to allow a landlord to defeat the right of collective enfranchisement is relevant. That has to be major works, otherwise a landlord could too readily frustrate the object of allowing enfranchisement. It is right to say that the considerations in Ch II, dealing with the rights of individual tenants to renew their leases, are not entirely the same, but the Ch I requirements are something of a pointer. The landlord must be entitled to possession for the purpose of redevelopment, in the interests both of a fair balance between landlords and tenants in those of a healthy property market and the maintenance of good quality housing stock. I am impelled to agree, however, that to allow the landlord to ‘cherry-pick’ among separate flats, assembling what may be regarded as artificial units, and obtain possession in order to carry out small-scale conversions such as the present would be contrary to the apparent intention behind the legislation. There is likely to be some artificiality and possibly some ambiguity inherent in any construction of s 47, but I am now persuaded that the landlord’s case should not be accepted.
[48] On the question whether the proposed development could constitute works on a substantial part of the premises, I do not think it possible to form an opinion if the question has not been resolved of the extent of the building which can constitute the premises for the purposes of s 47. I therefore do not consider it profitable to speculate on the question whether the work on flats 77 and 74 would qualify if the whole of Block B were to be regarded as the relevant premises.
[49] For the reasons which I have given I would concur with your Lordships in allowing the appeal.
Appeal allowed.
James Wilson Barrister (NZ).
R v Salih
[2008] 2 All ER 319
[2007] EWCA Crim 2750
Categories: CRIMINAL; Other
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): HOOPER LJ, PITCHFORD AND DOBBS JJ
Hearing Date(s): 2, 21 NOVEMBER 2007
Firearms – Possession – Possession of firearms with intent to endanger life – Proof of intent – Whether intent to use firearm if necessary in lawful self-defence sufficient to prove offence – Firearms Act 1968, s 16.
The defendant owned and ran a shop dealing in, inter alia, imitation firearms. Following a surveillance operation, he was arrested and his shop was searched. In his pocket a .25 automatic calibre self-loading pistol was found, together with five rounds of ammunition. He was charged with and convicted of, inter alia, possession of a firearm with intent to endanger life, contrary to s 16a of the Firearms Act 1968. The defendant appealed against conviction of that offence, on the ground that, in the light of the way in which the prosecution had put its case, the judge should have directed the jury that if the only reason why the defendant had been in possession of the pistol might have been that he had intended to use it if necessary in lawful self-defence, he would not be guilty of an offence under s 16 of the 1968 Act. The prosecution submitted that it was no defence for a defendant to say that he only intended to use the firearm in lawful self-defence, except where the evidence tended to support a fear of imminent attack in circumstances where the defendant would be acting in lawful self-defence if he used the firearm.
Held – Whilst the effectiveness of the legislation designed to prevent the carrying or firearms or offensive weapons would be seriously impaired if anyone who reasonably feared that he might at some time be unlawfully attacked was allowed to carry such a weapon, the position might be different if at the moment at which the defendant was alleged to be in possession of a firearm or offensive weapon he was anticipating an imminent attack and carrying the weapon for his own defence against a specific danger. However, if the possession with intent to endanger life was alleged to have occurred at some time before that moment and at a time when the defendant was not in immediate fear of attack, he would not have a defence to the offence under s 16 of the 1968 Act. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [16]–[19], below).
R v Stubbs [2007] EWCA Crim 1714 and Malnik v DPP [1989] Crim LR 451 applied.
R v Bentham [1972] 3 All ER 271 and R v Georgiades [1989] 1 WLR 759 considered.
Notes
For possession of firearms with intent to endanger life, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 674.
For the Firearms Act 1968, s 16, see 12(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 487.
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Cases referred to in judgment
Malnik v DPP [1989] Crim LR 451, DC.
R v Bentham [1972] 3 All ER 271, [1973] QB 357, [1972] 3 WLR 398, CA.
R v Georgiades [1989] 1 WLR 759, CA.
R v Stubbs [2007] EWCA Crim 1714.
Appeal
Guner Salih appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal against his conviction for possession of a .25 automatic calibre Astra Cub self-loading pistol together with five rounds of ammunition with intent to endanger life contrary to s 16 of the Firearms Act 1968. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Christopher Blaxland QC (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Mark Gadsden (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
2 November 2007. The court announced that the appeal would be dismissed for reasons to be given later.
21 November 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
HOOPER LJ.
[1] At the conclusion of the hearing on 2 November we announced that the appeal against conviction was dismissed. We then considered the appellant’s appeal against sentence and applications for leave to appeal sentence brought by two of his co-defendants. In the judgment allowing the appellant’s appeal against sentence in part and dismissing the two applications we set out the facts of this case in detail (see [2007] EWCA Crim 2995). We now give our reasons for dismissing the appeal against conviction.
[2] The appeal concerns count 7 of the indictment. Count 7 alleged possession on or before 1 April 2003 of an Astra Cub self-loading pistol together with five rounds of ammunition in the magazine with an intent to endanger life contrary to s 16 of the Firearms Act 1968. Section 16 makes it an offence—
‘for a person to have in his possession any firearm or ammunition with intent by means thereof to endanger life or to enable another person by means thereof to endanger life whether any injury has been caused or not.’
The pistol was in fact a prohibited weapon under s 5 of the 1968 Act. Section 16 does not require the firearm to be a prohibited one.
[3] The pistol was found in the appellant’s trouser pocket at the police station following his arrest at his shop.
[4] The judge, Judge Forrester, said this about the offence:
‘What must the Crown prove? The Crown must prove that on or before 1 April 2003, he possessed that firearm and ammunition, with intent to endanger the life of another.
Those words “on or before 1 April” mean what they say. The Crown must prove not only that he possessed the firearm and ammunition, and there is no dispute about that, but also that he possessed it with the intent, if necessary, to use it to endanger the life of another.
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Those words “if necessary” are important. The reason for that is this. The mischief for which s 16 of the 1968 Act is aimed is that of a person carrying a firearm ready for use, if and when occasion might arrive, in a manner which might endanger the life of another person. Note those words “endanger life”. Not to kill, but to endanger life . . . The Crown is not required to prove an immediate unconditional intention to endanger the life of another. It is sufficient if the Crown proves that he had possession of this loaded pistol, ready to use against another person, in a manner which endangered the life of that other person, if occasion arose.
The Crown’s case in a nutshell is that he had this small pistol conveniently in his pocket because he was effectively dealing in guns, and therefore, within such a dangerous trade, he was a person who was arming himself in order for protection. Many shopkeepers, and other persons, may be in possession of quite large sums of money, either in the till or on the person, as Mr Salih was on 1 April. As I say, the Crown allege that he deliberately possessed it for his protection in the circumstances of him needing to protect himself.’
[5] The judge then went on to tell the jury what the defendant was saying about this pistol.
‘In answer to this charge, the defendant says that he had in fact possessed the gun for a long time. He says it was a relic from the days of his father-in-law in the shop. His father-in-law must have left it where the defendant found it, close to the till. His wife gives evidence to like effect, she saw a gun there. Therefore, even on the defendant’s account, he possessed it, undoubtedly he knew it was there, and he controlled it, in the sense that he said: he intended to hand it in on 1 April. He had undoubted control over it, a gun near the till in his own shop. But it is not a defence for the defendant to say, “I intended to hand it in as part of the amnesty” if—and this is the importance of the way the date is expressed—if you are sure he committed the offence before that date, days, months, even years before that date of 1 April 2003. If the Crown prove the charge as it is set out there, the fact that he intended to hand in the gun on 1 April, as he says, will not afford him a defence, if it is proved that he had previously committed that offence.
However, although he admits possession of the gun, he denies the intent charged. He says he had no intent to have it for self-protection. In fact, apart from handing it in on 1 April, he had no intent in respect of the weapon at all. He just left it there, where his father-in-law had left it, over all those months—indeed years—there, beside the till. You decide whether his account may or may not be true. You will need to ask yourselves, why was the magazine loaded? Why was it loaded with five bullets, when it had a capacity for six? Why was it in his pocket, rather than beside the till? Is [the expert] right, when he says that a cartridge casing in the desk tidy . . . had been fired in that Astra Cub. What about the evidence of [another expert] who found residue on the clothing and on the person if Mr Salih after his arrest? . . .
The Crown point to all the circumstances and submit this gun had not lain idly by all this time, it had in fact been recently fired, hence the finding of the casing and the residue, and that this small gun was in his pocket being carried for self-protection. That is what the Crown say about it; the defendant, in answer to the point, says, as I have reminded you, that it had simply lain
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there for a long time, with the defendant having nothing to do with it, but, on the announcement of the gun amnesty, he decided to hand it in. He says he was quite unaware of the contents of the desk tidy, whatever was there was nothing to do with him, and if that cartridge had been fired from the gun, that must have been the responsibility of someone else, perhaps his father-in-law some time before July 1998.
He says the gun came to be in his pocket in the circumstances he described: he had it intending to hand it in during the amnesty, but hastily put it in his pocket because he did not want that young man, who was returning with the tea, to see it, and so it was convenient to secrete it in his pocket, and then the police came in, and it was an unfortunate coincidence that the gun ended up in his pocket at that time. He intended to hand it in after his work that day.
Look at all the circumstances, and decide for yourselves. Undoubtedly, he did have possession of the gun, and the ammunition, and it was in his pocket. The question is, why was it there? On all the evidence, are you sure that he had it for self-protection, as alleged by the Crown, and that the ingredients of the offence are proved? Or may it be that it was there in the circumstances described by the defendant, in which case the intention alleged by the Crown is not proved, and he is not guilty of the offence?’
[6] It was the Crown’s case that the gun had been brought to the shop recently by the co-defendant Andrew Meekey. The appellant gave evidence and called witnesses to refute this suggestion. The appellant and the witnesses said that the appellant’s father-in-law had had the pistol for protection for himself and his family as well as the staff.
[7] During the course of the appeal we were provided with a defence note of part of Mr Gadsden’s final speech for the prosecution. According to that note Mr Gadsden says:
‘Count 7: Astra Cub self-loading pistol available to use as the situation requires. His brother-in-law said his father had it for precisely that reason. And we say the same: No one would have a loaded gun unless they were prepared to use it. [Guner Salih] was someone playing a dangerous game with dangerous people. His customer could of course turn on him, with a loaded gun and take him money back, [sic] or shoot him. So [Guner Salih] equips himself with a loaded gun, ready to rack and shoot.’
[8] Although the point now taken as a ground of appeal was not a point taken before the trial judge, Mr Gadsden said (during the course of the summing up and in the absence of the jury) that he had cross-examined the appellant on the basis that, in effect, he had the gun for self-protection, or the protection of himself, and his wife.
[9] It is submitted by Mr Blaxland QC (who was not counsel at trial) that the trial judge should have directed the jury along the following lines, in the light of the way the prosecution put the case:
‘If the only reason why the defendant was in possession of the pistol may have been that he intended to use it if necessary in lawful self defence, then he would not be guilty.’
To put it another way the prosecution would have to make the jury sure that he intended to endanger the life of another unlawfully, not in lawful self-defence.
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[10] Mr Gadsden submits that it is no defence for a defendant to say that he intended only to use the firearm in lawful self-defence, subject to one proviso. Mr Gadsden accepts that whether the defendant intended to endanger life lawfully would (only) arise where the evidence tends to support a fear of imminent attack in circumstances where the defendant would be acting in lawful self-defence if he used the firearm.
[11] Mr Blaxland relies in particular on R v Georgiades [1989] 1 WLR 759 in which he was counsel for the appellant.
[12] We start with the case of R v Bentham [1972] 3 All ER 271, [1973] QB 357. In that case this court held that it was not necessary to show an intention immediately to endanger life. The court also said ([1972] 3 All ER 271 at 275, [1973] QB 357 at 362–363) that the section did not require an unconditional intention. It would in most cases be impossible to establish an unconditional intention to endanger life until the moment before the firearm was fired. The mischief at which the section is aimed is that of a person possessing a firearm ready for use, if and when occasion arises, in a manner which endangers life.
[13] We turn to R v Georgiades. The appellant had been convicted of possession of two shortened shotguns with ammunition with intent by means thereof to endanger life. The possession was alleged to have occurred on 7 October 1986. The Court of Appeal quashed the conviction. It was the appellant’s case that he took the gun having heard his brother scream. The appellant thought that he might be attacked by persons entering the flat (in fact it was the police who were entering). He took the gun ‘in the hope that showing the gun to his assailants would cause them to run off, but that if they did not he would have put a shot in their legs . . .' The trial judge did not mention in his direction to the jury the possibility that the appellant had the gun in his possession with the intent to endanger life lawfully in his own defence. It was conceded by counsel for the respondent that ‘in certain rare circumstances’ it would be a defence to a charge under s 16 ‘that the intent was to endanger life for a lawful purpose’. That concession was accepted by the court. Having examined the evidence at the trial the court concluded that the issue of self-defence should have been left to the jury. If the intent to endanger life may have been in lawful self-defence then, the court held, the appellant was entitled to be acquitted.
[14] Mr Gadsden relied on a recent decision of another division of this court in R v Stubbs [2007] EWCA Crim 1714. The court refused a renewed application for leave to appeal conviction. The applicant Thomas was arrested with two others in a vehicle outside a railway station. He was found to be in possession of a loaded pistol. In evidence Thomas had claimed that he was in fear of his life following an incident some six days earlier. He feared that as a result of that incident others were out for revenge. He said that he was in fear of his life and in the event that they did attack him he would have used the gun to scare them by shooting above their heads. The court said (at [12]):
‘During the course of the trial there was an application for a ruling from the judge in respect of the issue of self-defence in the case relating to the applicant Thomas. It was submitted on his behalf that self-defence should be left to the jury in respect of count 5. In support of that submission the case of R v Georgiades [1989] 1 WLR 759 was cited to the judge. Having carefully considered the facts of R v Georgiades, and in particular the passage in the judgment of this court which appears at 763, the judge ruled (correctly in our view) that for the issue of self-defence to be left to the jury there had to be
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evidence of fear of imminent attack. The judge ruled that there was no such evidence in this case. Accordingly, he ruled that self-defence was not available to the applicant. In his ruling the judge said this:
“R v Georgiades [1989] 1 WLR 759. In that case it was held by the Court of Appeal that on a charge such as this it is a defence to show that the intent to endanger life had a lawful purpose, although cases where such a defence could be raised would be rare, that the question of whether the defendant had had a lawful purpose had arisen on the evidence and that, accordingly, that issue should have been left to the jury.
I have considered carefully the facts of that case, as set out in the judgment. I do not for one moment consider that the Court of Appeal intended to sanction in any way or in any circumstances the carrying of loaded firearms in the streets simply by reason of the fear of murderous attack, however genuine, or, indeed, justified that fear may be. For the issue of self-defence to be left to the jury there must, in my judgment, be evidence which tends to support a fear of imminent attack, as in the case cited above, in line with well-known authority on the issue of self-defence.”’
[15] The court went on to say (at [20], [21]):
‘On behalf of the applicant Thomas, Mr Scobie submitted that the trial judge had erred in law by failing to leave the issue of self-defence for the jury’s consideration as a possible defence to the offence of possession of a firearm with intent to endanger life. In support of that submission Mr Scobie relied on the authority of R v Georgiades to which we have already referred. Mr Scobie stressed that it was Thomas’s case that, at the time of his arrest, he had been recently handed the handgun for his own protection because he was in fear of his life. It was Mr Scobie’s submission that the jury should have been left to consider the possible defence of self-defence if they concluded that he might have used the gun to shoot the Crooks brothers in lawful self-defence. The judge gave the lack of immediate danger as to the reason for not leaving self-defence to the jury. It was Mr Scobie’s submission that the judge erred in law in reaching that conclusion.
[21] As we have already indicated, in our view the judge’s ruling on this aspect of the matter was entirely correct. However, we also quote the observations of the single judge in respect of this matter. He said this:
“The judge was right to say that self-defence was available only if the risk of serious harm was imminent. R v Georgiades makes it plain that this defence will be available only in very rare cases. It would wholly undermine this defence if members of criminal gangs could carry around guns because of the anticipation that they may be shot by others. Here there was no evidence at all to leave to the jury as to the question of whether there was any imminent fear of attack. For example, the applicant could have gone to the police station so there was no error of law by the judge in failing to leave this issue to the jury.”
We entirely agree with those observations. For those reasons, therefore, the renewed application for leave to appeal against conviction by the applicant Thomas is refused.’
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[16] In our view, and in accordance with R v Stubbs, the effectiveness of legislation designed to prevent the carrying of firearms or offensive weapons (as to which see Blackstone’s Criminal Practice (2008) p 755–756 (para B12.130)) would be ‘seriously impaired’ if anyone who reasonably feared that he might at some time be unlawfully attacked was allowed to carry such a weapon (see the commentary of Professor JC Smith QC in [1989] Crim LR 452). If at the moment at which the defendant is alleged to be in possession of a firearm (or offensive weapon, as to which see Blackstone) he is anticipating an imminent attack and carrying the weapon for his own defence against a specific danger then that may be different.
[17] Mr Blaxland submitted that given what was said about conditional intention in R v Bentham a person lawfully in possession of a shotgun who accepted that he might use the shotgun should armed raiders attack his house, would be guilty of the offence against s 16. Bingham LJ, as he then was, provides the answer to that problem in Malnik v DPP [1989] Crim LR 451 (a case not cited in argument before us). Malnik was charged with possession of an offensive weapon without reasonable excuse. Bingham LJ drew a distinction between the individual who arms himself with an offensive weapon and those concerned with security and law enforcement. In our view and by analogy the public policy reasons which prohibit a person from possessing a firearm with intent to endanger life (or an offensive weapon) even though he might only use the firearm in lawful self-defence would not apply to a person in lawful possession of a firearm whose intent is to use the firearm for purposes other than to endanger life, albeit he might have the conditional intention to which the court referred in R v Bentham.
[18] We add only this. R v Georgiades establishes that if the defendant was acting in self-defence at the moment when he is alleged to be in possession of a firearm, then he would not be guilty. However if the possession with intent to endanger life is alleged to have occurred at some time before that moment and at a time when he was not in immediate fear of attack, then, in accordance with R v Stubbs, R v Georgiades will not apply. In R v Malnik the defendant, armed with a rice flail for the purpose of ‘self-defence’, went to J’s house to inquire whether J had taken a valuable car belonging to X and without X’s authority. The defendant was an expert in martial arts and an ‘adviser’ to X. Bingham LJ, dismissing the appeal, said that if private citizens set out on expeditions such as this, armed with offensive weapons, the risk of unlawful violence and serious injury was great, and obvious. The policy of the law must therefore be against such conduct; a conclusion, he said, consistent with the very narrow limits on the freedom of the citizen to arm himself against attack.
[19] This appeal is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Carla Dougan-Bacchus Barrister.
Haw and another v City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court
[2008] 2 All ER 326
[2007] EWHC 2960 (Admin)
Categories: ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE; Contempt of Court, Courts
Court: DIVISIONAL COURT
Lord(s): THOMAS LJ AND GROSS J
Hearing Date(s): 28 NOVEMBER, 12 DECEMBER 2007
Contempt of court – Appeal – Jurisdiction – Appeal to High Court from any order or decision of a court in exercise of jurisdiction to punish for contempt – Appeal to Crown Court from magistrates’ court exercising power to punish for contempt – Persons convicted of contempt in magistrates’ court – Whether appeal lying to Crown Court – Whether concurrent appeal lying to High Court – Whether appeal by way of case stated or judicial review available – Administration of Justice Act 1960, s 13 – Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, s 108, 111 – Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 12(5).
H and T were convicted in a magistrates’ court of contempt of court contrary to s 12a of the Contempt of Court Act 1981. They appealed to the Crown Court on the grounds that their actions had not amounted to contempt. Section 12(5) provided that certain provisions of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, including s 108b (appeal to the Crown Court), applied in relation to an order under s 12 of the 1981 Act ‘as they apply in relation to sentence on conviction or finding of guilty of an offence’. However, observations had been made in an earlier judicial review to the effect that the jurisdiction of the Crown Court in the context of s 12 of the 1981 Act was limited to hearing an appeal against the penalty imposed and did not extend to hearing an appeal against the actual finding of contempt by the justices. H and T therefore also filed a notice of appeal to the Administrative Court under s 13c of the Administration of Justice Act 1960 which provided that an appeal lay to the High Court from any order or decision of a court in the exercise of jurisdiction to punish for contempt of court from any inferior court not specified in s 13; magistrates’ courts were not so specified. Directions were given for the issue of jurisdiction to be determined by the Administrative Court. The court therefore considered (i) whether an appeal lay to the Crown Court under s 12(5) of the 1981 Act; (ii) whether an appeal lay to the High Court under s 13 of the 1960 Act; and (iii) whether an appeal lay by way of case stated under s 111d of the 1980 Act or by way of an application for judicial review. Under s 111 any person who was a party to any proceeding before a magistrates’ court could question the proceeding on the ground that it was wrong in law or was in excess of jurisdiction by applying to the justices to state a case for the
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opinion of the High Court on the question of law or jurisdiction involved and under sub-s (4) on the making of such an application any right of the applicant to appeal against the decision to the Crown Court ceased.
Held – (1) An appeal lay to the Crown Court from a conviction or a sentence under s 12 of the 1981 Act at the magistrates’ court. The clear legislative intent had been to provide such a right of appeal and there was no good reason why it should not have been provided. The only other possible right of appeal on conviction was to the High Court under s 13 of the 1960 Act; Parliament would have known that an appeal at the Crown Court was conducted by a form of complete rehearing in which the prosecutor called his witnesses, the defendant called his witnesses and the Crown Court judge, sitting with magistrates, made a completely fresh determination on the evidence they heard and not by the form of rehearing usual in the higher courts so that an appeal to the Crown Court was a far more suitable form of appeal than an appeal to the High Court. Moreover, Parliament would no doubt have had regard to the efficient use of resources. It was probable that by inadvertence the draftsman might have omitted to give effect to the intended purpose of s 12(5) and the court was entitled to correct the error. In the instant case, as appeal to the Crown Court had been the route that H and T had originally intended to take, their appeal should therefore be listed at the Crown Court (see [17], [24]–[30], [42], below); Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42 and Inco Europe Ltd v First Choice Distribution [2000] 2 All ER 109 applied; dictum of May LJ in R v Havant Justices, ex p Palmer (1985) 149 JP 609 disapproved.
(2) There was no right of appeal against a conviction or sentence under s 12 of the 1981 Act to the High Court under s 13 of the 1960 Act. The provisions of s 12(5) of the 1981 Act, being specific provisions with regard to the right to punish created under s 12(1) had been intended by Parliament to apply in place of the very general provisions of s 13 of the 1960 Act. Parliament could not have intended two concurrent rights of appeal (see [34], [36], [37], [42], below).
(3) An appeal to the High Court lay by way of case stated and proceedings for judicial review could be brought where appropriate. The terms of s 111 of the 1980 Act were wide enough to encompass an appeal by way of case stated under s 12 of the 1981 Act and there was no reason why that route of appeal could not lie in a case where it was appropriate. There could be cases where the issue that arose was a question of whether, on the facts found, the magistrates’ court had been entitled to make a finding of contempt. The route of using a case stated appeal to the High Court lay happily with the route of appeal to the Crown Court in ordinary criminal cases as s 111(4) made express provision that on the making of an application for a case stated, any right of appeal to the Crown Court ceased. An application for judicial review on a conviction for contempt would cause no difficulty; the grounds upon which judicial review of the decision of the magistrates’ court could be advanced were limited and controlled by the well-known limitations on that form of review (see [39]–[42], below).
Notes
For contempt of court: appeal from order, see 9(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 512–517 and for the right of appeal from magistrates’ courts, see 11(4) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 1980.
For the Administration of Justice Act 1960, s 13, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 151.
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For the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, ss 108, 111, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 540, 543.
For the Contempt of Court Act 1981, s 12, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 698.
Cases referred to in judgment
Assicurazioni Generali SpA v Arab Insurance Group (BSC) [2002] EWCA Civ 1642, [2003] 1 All ER (Comm) 140, [2003] 1 WLR 577.
EI Du Pont De Nemours & Co v ST Dupont [2003] EWCA Civ 1368, [2004] IP & T 559, [2006] 1 WLR 2793.
Hooker, Re [1993] COD 190, DC.
Inco Europe Ltd v First Choice Distribution [2000] 2 All ER 109, [2000] 1 WLR 586, HL.
Jones v Wrotham Park Settled Estates [1979] 1 All ER 286, [1980] AC 74, [1979] 2 WLR 132, HL.
Lane v Gloucester Magistrates’ Court [2006] EWHC 3198 (Admin), DC.
Linnett v Coles [1986] 3 All ER 652, [1987] QB 555, [1986] 3 WLR 843, CA.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
R v Havant Justices, ex p Palmer (1985) 149 JP 609, DC.
R v Pateley Bridge Justices, ex p Percy [1994] COD 453, DC.
R v Serumaga [2005] EWCA Crim 370, [2005] 2 All ER 160, [2005] 1 WLR 3366.
R v Tamworth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Walsh [1994] COD 277, DC.
Tanfern Ltd v Cameron-MacDonald [2000] 2 All ER 801, [2000] 1 WLR 1311, CA.
Directions
Brian Haw and Barbara Tucker were convicted of contempt of court contrary to s 12 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 at the City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court by District Judge Daphne Wickham on 29 March 2007. On 12 April 2007 they appealed against conviction to the Crown Court at Southwark and also filed a notice of appeal to the High Court on 18 June 2007. Directions were given for the issue of jurisdiction to be determined by the High Court. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Guy Vassall-Adams (instructed by Bindman & Parters) for Mr Haw.
Ms Tucker appeared in person.
Catrin Evans (instructed by Treasury Solicitor) for the magistrates’ court.
Judgment was reserved.
12 December 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
THOMAS LJ.
[1] This is the judgment of the court.
THE JURISDICTIONAL ISSUE TO BE DETERMINED
[2] On 29 March 2007 the appellants, Mr Brian Haw and Ms Barbara Tucker, were convicted of contempt of court contrary to s 12 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 at the City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court by District Judge Daphne Wickham. Mr Haw was fined £250 and Ms Tucker £50. Both were ordered to pay costs of £50. The case against them was that on 26 March 2007 they had wilfully interrupted proceedings in the face of the court.
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[3] On 12 April 2007 the appellants appealed to the Southwark Crown Court on the grounds that their actions on 26 March did not amount to contempt of court, either in fact or in law.
[4] The question was immediately raised at Southwark Crown Court as to whether an appeal lay to that court on the issue of conviction. As we shall endeavour to explain, in the light of some observations in a previous decision of this court and the lack of any authoritative decision, there is a debated issue as to the correct route of appeal for a person convicted and sentenced in a magistrates’ court under s 12 of the 1981 Act. The appellants also filed a notice of appeal to this court on 18 June 2007; directions were subsequently given for the issue of jurisdiction to be determined by this court; if it was determined that this court had jurisdiction, then this court should determine whether the appeal was by way of rehearing or review. It is accepted, on all sides, that the appellants acted in time for whichever route of appeal is appropriate.
[5] There are, in essence, three possibilities, which we will consider in turn:
(i) an appeal to the Crown Court under s 12(5) of the 1981 Act;
(ii) an appeal to the Administrative Court under s 13 of the Administration of Justice Act 1960;
(iii) an appeal by way of case stated or an application for judicial review to the Administrative Court.
(i) WHAT APPEAL LIES TO THE CROWN COURT?
(a) The statutory provisions: s 12 of the 1981 Act
[6] Prior to the 1981 Act, the magistrates’ courts had no power to punish for contempt in the face of the court. They only had power to order a person to leave the court, to punish disobedience to their orders and to punish recalcitrant witnesses. The power to punish for contempt in the face of the court was given by s 12 of the 1981 Act which provides (as amended):
‘(1) A magistrates’ court has jurisdiction under this section to deal with any person who—(a) wilfully insults the justice or justices, any witness before or officer of the court or any solicitor or counsel having business in the court, during his or their sitting or attendance in court or in going to or returning from the court; or (b) wilfully interrupts the proceedings of the court or otherwise misbehaves in court.
(2) In any such case the court may order any officer of the court, or any constable, to take the offender into custody and detain him until the rising of the court; and the court may, if it thinks fit, commit the offender to custody for a specified period not exceeding one month or impose on him a fine not exceeding £2,500, or both.’
[7] The right of appeal was provided by sub-s (5) of s 12 in the following terms (as amended):
‘Section 135 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (limit on fines in respect of young persons) and the following provisions of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 apply in relation to an order under this section as they apply in relation to a sentence on conviction or finding of guilty of an offence; and those provisions of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 are sections 75 to 91 (enforcement); section 108 (appeal to Crown Court);
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section 136 (overnight detention in default of payment); and section 142(1) (power to rectify mistakes).’
Section 108 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 provides by sub-s (1) as follows:
‘A person convicted by a magistrates’ court may appeal to the Crown Court—(a) if he pleaded guilty, against his sentence; (b) if he did not, against the conviction or sentence.’
[8] An appeal at the Crown Court takes place by way of a complete rehearing of the matter in accordance with long-standing customary practice: s 79 of the Supreme Court Act 1981. The prosecutor calls his witnesses, the defendant calls his witnesses and the judge of the Crown Court, sitting with magistrates (usually two), makes a determination completely afresh on the evidence they hear.
[9] It might have been thought that there was nothing exceptional in providing a simple route of appeal of this kind to the Crown Court as that is the ordinary route of appeal for convictions in the magistrates’ courts and the only route where factual issues relating to the conviction are in issue. At first blush that would appear to be the natural meaning of s 12(5), not least given the cross reference to s 108 of the 1980 Act and the scope of that section. Indeed it is clear that this view is a view commonly held: in Lane v Gloucester Magistrates’ Court [2006] EWHC 3198 (Admin) at [5] this court stated:
‘The Administrative Court office wrote to Mr Lane on 22 November, almost a week ago, pointing out that the right of appeal against orders made under s 12 of the 1981 Act consists of a right of appeal to the Crown Court under s 108 of the 1980 Act, not to this court. That is indeed the position. Section 12(5) of the 1981 Act states that s 108 applies to an order under s 12 and in its turn s 108 creates a right of appeal to the Crown Court. No right of appeal to this court, whether by case stated or in any other form, is created. However, what is possible in these circumstances is to seek permission to begin judicial review proceedings. They are not excluded by any statutory provision. Judicial review may lie if something has gone wrong with the decision-making process, but, as we have explained to Mr Lane this afternoon, it does not provide a means of challenging a decision on its merits which appears to form at least part of what Mr Lane seeks.’
[10] Unfortunately, however, the position is not so simple, largely because of some observations made in this court in R v Havant Justices, ex p Palmer (1985) 149 JP 609. The observations (which were expressed by the judge who made them as unnecessary to the decision in that case) pointed to a different interpretation of s 12(5); it was said that s 12(5) was confined to appeals against sentence only and not to appeals against conviction.
[11] The correctness of those observations is challenged by counsel for Mr Haw, Mr Guy Vassall-Adams. Miss Catrin Evans who has appeared on behalf of the respondent, instructed by the Treasury Solicitor, has put forward before the court the arguments to the contrary; she has done so in effect as an amicus, as the respondent has taken the position that it is neutral on this issue. We must record our immense indebtedness to them both for the very diligent research they have carried out and for the excellence and clarity of the arguments they have advanced.
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(b) The legislative history of s 12
[12] Before dealing with the correctness of the observations made in Ex p Palmer, it is, we think, necessary to set out the background to the legislation.
[13] In December 1974 a committee under the chairmanship of Phillimore LJ reported on Contempt of Court (Cmnd 5794). At para 25 of that report it was pointed out that magistrates’ courts in England and Wales had no power to punish disruptive conduct in court, and that there had been recent instances of such conduct. At para 36 they recommended that as magistrates’ courts dealt with about 98% of all criminal cases in England and Wales, those courts should be given powers to deal with contempt in the face of the court similar to those enjoyed by the county court. At para 37 they concluded:
‘As in the case of superior courts, there should be the safeguard of an appeal which would need to be swift in the case of a custodial sentence. We recommend that appeals should lie to the nearest Crown Court, and that arrangements should be made for dealing with them expeditiously.’
[14] It was not until 1980 that a Bill was brought forward to implement those proposals. The provisions with regard to magistrates’ courts were modelled on powers that had been given to the county courts on their creation in 1846 and were then contained in cl 11 of the Bill. On the second reading of the Bill on 19 December 1980 the then Lord Chancellor (Lord Hailsham of Saint Marylebone) outlined the purpose of that clause:
‘Clause 11 confers powers on magistrates to punish disruption or contempt in the face of the court and allows appeal up to the Crown Court, as indeed appeals to the Crown Court are universally allowed from magistrates. This follows paragraph 36 of the Phillimore Report but with rather heavier sanctions after six years than Phillimore then recommended.’
[15] Clause 11 was considered at the committee stage on 20 January 1981. At that stage the paragraph in the Bill relating to appeals from the magistrates’ court read in the following terms:
‘The foregoing provision of this section shall have effect as if enacted in the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980; and for the purposes of section 108 of that Act (appeal to Crown Court) an order under this section shall be treated as an order made on conviction.’
[16] Lord Renton pointed out that the draftsmanship did not comply with the report of the Renton Committee on the Preparation of Legislation (Cmnd 6053 (1975)), as it was, in his view, a flagrant example of a non-textual amendment to the 1980 Act when there should have been a textual amendment to that consolidating Act. The Lord Chancellor, in response, accepted the point. He, however, made clear, as concern had been expressed that magistrates might too hastily use the powers under the provision, that there should be—
‘an appeal by way of re-hearing to the Crown Court if someone suffered any penalties under the preceding provisions [of the clause]. However, I shall of course refer what my noble friend said to the draftsman. He is one of the most experienced draftsmen in the business, so my noble friend can be sure that the point will be taken and examined in very safe hands, better than mine.’
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[17] It appears from the researches of counsel that it was as a result of this amendment that the clause emerged in its present form. We have set the history out, because we are of the view that, if the provision has an ambiguity, there can be no doubt that the clear legislative intent was to provide a right of appeal to the Crown Court against conviction and sentence as applied generally in the case of conviction at a magistrates’ court.
(c) The decision in Ex p Palmer
[18] It is against that background that we turn to consider the observations on s 12(5) in Ex p Palmer. Palmer was a witness to proceedings before a magistrates’ court. Whilst he and the defendant were waiting in the foyer outside the court for the magistrates to consider their decision Palmer threatened the defendant. The magistrates assumed jurisdiction, decided that by threatening the defendant Palmer was in contempt of court under s 12 of the 1981 Act and fined him £100. Palmer appealed against the finding of contempt and the fine to the Crown Court. The Crown Court judge decided he had no jurisdiction to hear the appeal. Palmer then sought a judicial review of the decision of the magistrates and of the judge. The applicant was represented by counsel and an amicus was instructed to put the contrary argument. The substantial judgment was given by the then May LJ, Nolan J merely adding a short judgment agreeing.
[19] The then May LJ found that the conduct of Palmer was not on the facts a contempt within s 12(1)(a) as his conduct was not an ‘insult’. That was, as the judge recognised, sufficient to dispose of the case. The judge none the less continued to express, first of all, a view on s 12(5) of the Act (at 612–613):
‘In those circumstances as again will be readily apparent, it becomes unnecessary for this court to express any final opinion on the decision of the learned circuit Judge at Portsmouth that he had no jurisdiction to hear the appeal by the applicant against the magistrates’ decision. However, well appreciating that any views which I now express may well hereafter be said to be obiter, having had the benefit of extensive argument on the point and also because it is perhaps a more important one than the one with which I have already dealt, I do propose to express a view upon it. Mr Foskett [counsel for Palmer] drew our attention to what at first sight appears to be the somewhat unhappy wording of s 12(5) of the 1981 Act, particularly the phrase “in relation to a sentence on conviction or finding of guilty of an offence”. At first reading, one might be forgiven for expecting either the word “to” or “a” before the words “finding of guilty of an offence”, but neither is there and for my part I think that it is not for the reason put forward in his submissions by Mr Foskett. By s 59 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933 it was provided that the words “conviction” and “sentence” were to cease to be used in relation to children and young persons dealt with summarily and any reference in any enactment passed before or after the commencement of that Act should in the case of a child or a young person be construed as including a reference to that person being found guilty of an offence, a finding of guilty, or an order made upon such a finding. A child or young person, therefore, is not to be convicted; he or she is to be found guilty of an offence. It is for this reason, Mr Foskett submits, that one finds the word “conviction” and the phrase “finding of guilty of an offence” side by side in subs (5). For my part, I accept that submission and that then leads one to the proper construction of that subsection. The relevant section of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980 in the instant case of those referred to in s 12(5)
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of the 1981 Act is s 108, which provides for a right of appeal to the Crown Court for a person convicted by magistrates – if he pleaded guilty, against sentence; if he did not, against the conviction or sentence. But s 12(5) of the 1981 Act merely refers to an “order” under s 12 and applies s 108 of the Act of the previous year to that order only as it applies “in relation to a sentence on conviction or finding of guilty of an offence.” Thus, in my opinion, the jurisdiction of a Crown Court in this context is limited to hearing an appeal against the penalty imposed by magistrates for the contempt which they have found to have been committed: there is no jurisdiction in a Crown Court to hear an appeal by a person against the actual finding of contempt by justices under s 12(1) of the Contempt of Court Act 1981. Thus, in my judgment, in the instant case the learned circuit Judge was wholly right to decline jurisdiction in so far as the appeal against the finding of contempt was concerned, although had he been minded to and had the applicant been prepared to proceed on that limited basis, he did, in my judgment, have jurisdiction in respect of penalty.’
The judge went on to deal with s 13 of the 1960 Act, but it is convenient to deal with that part of his judgment when we turn to consider the jurisdiction of the High Court under s 13 of that Act at [31] and following, below.
[20] The observations which we have set out have been criticised as unduly narrow: see The Law of Contempt by Professors Lowe and Sufrin (3rd edn, 1996) p 516; as questionable: see: Contempt of Court by Professor CJ Miller (2000) p 129 (para 3-105); and as somewhat restrictive in Arlidge, Eady and Smith on Contempt (3rd edn, 2005) p 1022 (para 13-129). As can be seen from the passage we have cited, the approach of the court was not to adopt a purposive construction to s 12(5) but rather to look at it syntactically by reference to s 59 of the Children and Young Persons Act 1933. Section 59 of that Act, as it stood in 1985, read:
‘(1) The words “conviction” and “sentence” shall cease to be used in relation to children and young persons dealt with summarily and any reference in any enactment whether passed before or after the commencement of this Act to a person convicted, a conviction or a sentence shall, in the case of a child or young person, be construed as including a reference to a person found guilty of an offence, a finding of guilt or an order made upon such a finding, as the case may be . . .’
First it can be noted that s 59 of the Act uses the term ‘found guilty of an offence, a finding of guilt or an order made upon such a finding’ and not the term in s 12(5) ‘finding of guilty of an offence’. The wording of s 12(5) therefore does not track the wording of s 59 of the 1933 Act. The summary of the provisions of s 59 by the then May LJ is therefore mistaken in so far as he summarises the section as referring to ‘a finding of guilty’. Those are the words used in s 12(5) but not in s 59.
[21] Furthermore, as the late Professor Sir John Smith pointed out in his commentary on the report of this decision in [1985] Crim LR 658, the draftsman did not, if the intention was to deal with the position of children and young persons, need to use words such as ‘or finding of guilty of an offence’ to deal with the position of children and young persons because s 59 makes it clear that the word ‘conviction’ is to be read in any Act, whether passed before or after the commencement of the 1933 Act, as including a reference to a child or young
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person found guilty of an offence, finding of guilt or an order made upon such a finding.
[22] Thus, we think that it is highly unlikely, for both of these reasons that the draftsman of s 12(5) intended to refer to s 59 of the 1933 Act. Thus the first premise of the then May LJ’s approach to construction on a syntactical basis cannot be sustained.
[23] The judge also based his view on the use of the term ‘order’ as only referring to s 12(2), both because of the use of the terms ‘order’ (which is used in s 12(2) and not in s 12(1)) and the words which then qualify the term ‘order’. However the term ‘order’ is used in s 12(2) as a reference to only one of the sentences that can be passed; the term ‘order’ is not used in relation to the other sentences that can be passed. Moreover an ‘order’ of the court would ordinarily specify both the conviction and the sentence and would not ordinarily be read as restricted to sentence; this is the case, for example, in the form specified for use in contempt in the High Court (Civil Procedure Form R8). Furthermore we do not consider that the qualifying words after order need be read in the very narrow and restrictive sense set out by the then May LJ.
(d) Our conclusion
[24] In his commentary, the late Professor Sir John Smith concluded (p 659):
‘All this suggests that some mishap has occurred in the drafting but exactly what it was is difficult to say. The result is unfortunate. There seems to be no good reason why the person convicted (or found guilty) under the section should have no right of appeal against the conviction (or finding) as well as against sentence (or any order made on conviction).’
We agree that there can be no good reason why a person convicted under s 12 should not have a right of appeal against conviction as well as against sentence.
[25] Leaving aside for a moment the legislative history we have set out, it is clear that Parliament must have known that the only other possible right of appeal on conviction was to the High Court under s 13 of the 1960 Act. Parliament would have known that such a right of appeal would present difficulties; there are no transcripts of the proceedings in the magistrates’ courts as neither the reasons for the judgment of the court nor the evidence is recorded or transcribed. Thus if the High Court was to hear an appeal on conviction, there would be no transcript of the judgment and no complete record of the evidence; the court would have to rely on the notes of the clerk. Furthermore, Parliament would have known that the ordinary route of appeal on a conviction by a magistrates’ court was to the Crown Court; it appears from the researches of counsel that there are no summary offences from which there is no right of appeal to the Crown Court. Although it may be debateable whether a conviction for contempt under s 12 is a conviction for a criminal offence (see for example the discussion in Arlidge, Eady and Smith on Contempt (3rd edn, 2005) p 1022 (para 13-129)), a conviction under s 12 carries some of the indicia of a criminal offence (as it is recorded on the Police National Computer). Parliament would have known that an appeal at the Crown Court was conducted by the form of complete rehearing to which we have referred at [8], above, and not the form of rehearing usual in the higher courts; it was therefore a far more suitable form of appeal than an appeal to the High Court. Moreover, Parliament would no doubt have had regard to the efficient use of resources; where an offence carried a maximum term of imprisonment of one month, there would be no good
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reason why the time of a judge of the High Court would be taken up in an appeal from such a decision when appeals on decisions where penalties could be up to six months were heard by judges and magistrates at the Crown Court. It is difficult therefore to think of any reason why Parliament may have considered a right of appeal to the Crown Court would have been appropriate in the case of sentence and inappropriate in the case of conviction. Indeed, even without consideration of the legislative history of s 12 of the 1981 Act, everything points to the fact that Parliament must have intended there be a right of appeal on conviction as well as sentence.
[26] We are, however, also entitled to take into account the legislative background in accordance with the decision in Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593. The provision is ambiguous; there are ministerial statements as to the intention; those statements are clear, as we have set out.
[27] It seems to us, therefore, that taking into account the materials we have set out, and attempting to give the section a purposive construction, s 108 applies not only to a sentence on conviction but also to the conviction; we think the words can be so read.
[28] However, as the then May LJ pointed out, if that had been the intention of Parliament, would one not have expected an indefinite article before the words ‘finding of guilty of an offence’? In the absence of such an indefinite article, it was not, in his view, permissible to construe s 12(5) in the way we think is correct. We do not agree for the reasons we have given. But even if he was right, we consider that this is one of those cases where there has been a drafting error which we are entitled to correct in accordance with the principles set out in Inco Europe Ltd v First Choice Distribution [2000] 2 All ER 109, [2000] 1 WLR 586. In a speech with which all of the other members of the House agreed, Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead set out ([2000] 2 All ER 109 at 115, [2000] 1 WLR 586 at 592) the circumstances in which a court could correct a drafting error:
‘I freely acknowledge that this interpretation of s 18(1)(g) involves reading words into the paragraph. It has long been established that the role of the courts in construing legislation is not confined to resolving ambiguities in statutory language. The court must be able to correct obvious drafting errors. In suitable cases, in discharging its interpretative function the court will add words, or omit words or substitute words. Some notable instances are given in Professor Sir Rupert Cross’ admirable opuscule, Statutory Interpretation (3rd edn, 1995) pp 93–105. He comments (p 103):
“In omitting or inserting words the judge is not really engaged in a hypothetical reconstruction of the intentions of the drafter or the legislature, but is simply making as much sense as he can of the text of the statutory provision read in its appropriate context and within the limits of the judicial role.”
This power is confined to plain cases of drafting mistakes. The courts are ever mindful that their constitutional role in this field is interpretative. They must abstain from any course which might have the appearance of judicial legislation. A statute is expressed in language approved and enacted by the legislature. So the courts exercise considerable caution before adding or omitting or substituting words. Before interpreting a statute in this way the court must be abundantly sure of three matters: (1) the intended purpose of
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the statute or provision in question; (2) that by inadvertence the draftsman and Parliament failed to give effect to that purpose in the provision in question; and (3) the substance of the provision Parliament would have made, although not necessarily the precise words Parliament would have used, had the error in the Bill been noticed. The third of these conditions is of crucial importance. Otherwise any attempt to determine the meaning of the enactment would cross the boundary between construction and legislation (see per Lord Diplock in Jones v Wrotham Park Settled Estates [1979] 1 All ER 286 at 289, [1980] AC 74 at 105–106). In the present case these three conditions are fulfilled.’
[29] It is clear from what we have set out what the intended purpose of s 12(5) was; it is probable that, by inadvertence, the draftsman may have omitted to give effect to that purpose; if Parliament had noticed the error, the indefinite article would have been inserted. We do not believe that in correcting an error in this way we are in any sense crossing the boundary between construction and legislation.
[30] For those reasons, therefore, we consider that there is a route of appeal to the Crown Court whether it be against conviction or sentence. As that was the route of appeal that the appellants originally intended to take, their appeal should be listed as soon as practicable at Southwark Crown Court in accordance with directions to be given by that court.
(2) Does an appeal lie to the High Court under s 13(1)?
[31] As we have indicated, there is the view that a right of appeal in cases such as this lies to this court under s 13 of the 1960 Act. In Re Hooker [1993] COD 190, this court considered an appeal under this section without the issue of jurisdiction being argued.
[32] The material provisions of s 13 are the following:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of this section, an appeal shall lie under this section from any order or decision of a court in the exercise of jurisdiction to punish for contempt of court (including criminal contempt); and in relation to any such order or decision the provisions of this section shall have effect in substitution for any other enactment relating to appeals in civil or criminal proceedings.
(2) An appeal under this section shall lie in any case at the instance of the defendant and, in the case of an application for committal or attachment, at the instance of the applicant; and the appeal shall lie—(a) from an order or decision of any inferior court not referred to in the next following paragraphs, to . . . the High Court; (b) . . .
(5) In this section “court” includes any tribunal or person having power to punish for contempt; and references in this section to an order or decision of a court in the exercise of jurisdiction to punish for contempt of court include references—(a) to an order or decision of the High Court, the Crown Court or a county court under any enactment enabling that court to deal with an offence as if it were contempt of court; (b) to an order or decision of a county court, or of any court having the powers of a county court, under section 14, 92 or 118 of the County Courts Act 1984; (c) to an order or decision of a magistrates’ court under subsection (3) of section 63 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980,
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but do not include references to orders under section five of the Debtors Act 1869, or under any provision of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, or the County Courts Act 1984, except those referred to in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this subsection and except sections 38 and 142 of the last mentioned Act so far as those sections confer jurisdiction in respect of contempt of court.’
[33] The other paragraphs of sub-s (2) do not refer to the magistrates’ courts and the subsection therefore provides, on its face a right of appeal to the High Court, provided the power of the magistrates’ courts is a power within sub-s (5). It was suggested before us that the power of the magistrates’ court under s 12 of the 1981 Act might not fall within sub-s (5) as it was not expressly referred to therein. However, it seems to us clear that the words ‘in the exercise of jurisdiction to punish for contempt of court include references’ are merely words that illustrate and are not exhaustive. Thus, on the face of s 13, there is a right of appeal to the High Court which by reason of the provisions of s 64 of the Access to Justice Act 1999 would be heard by a single judge.
[34] However, it would appear strange if Parliament had intended a concurrent right of appeal under this section. In Arlidge, Eady and Smith on Contempt (3rd edn, 2005) p 1022, the editors state at para 13-130 the following:
‘There remains some doubt, therefore, as to the circumstances in which it is appropriate to go to the Crown Court, or to the High Court for judicial review or to the High Court by way of appeal under s.13 of the 1960 Act. The answer may be that s.13 does not apply to the exercise of the jurisdiction under s.12 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981 at all, for the reason that it is a specific statutory jurisdiction which is, although analogous to the contempt jurisdiction, not in fact to be so classified.’
[35] In Ex p Palmer the then May LJ made the following further observation in relation to the relationship between s 12 and s 13 (at 613):
‘If that provision [s 13 of the 1960 Act] operated or was held to operate in relation to situations covered by s 12 of the 1981 Act, the position would be this. Parliament with one hand would have given by subs (5) of s 12 of the 1981 Act a right of appeal, albeit limited to the extent that I have indicated, but then would have taken it away again with its other hand by virtue of the second half of subs (1) of s 13 of the 1960 Act. In my judgment, that cannot have been the intention of parliament and cannot be a proper construction to put on s 13(1) of the Administration of Justice Act 1960, in the circumstances which obtained in the instant case.’
[36] It seems to us, therefore, on ordinary principles of statutory construction that the provisions of s 12(5) of the 1981 Act, being specific provisions with regard to the right to punish created under s 12(1) of that Act, were intended by Parliament to apply in place of the very general provisions of s 13 of the 1960 Act. Although this section of the 1960 Act was intended to provide a general right of appeal, at the time it was enacted the magistrates’ courts had no power to deal with contempt in the face of the court and Parliament therefore could not have contemplated providing a route of appeal by s 13. It is clear from the ministerial statement by the then Lord Chancellor (Viscount Kilmuir) introducing the Bill on the second reading on 24 March 1960 that cl 13 of the Bill was intended to deal with general rights of appeal for contempt as it then existed. The editors of
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Arlidge, Eady and Smith on Contempt (3rd edn, 2005) p 732 (para 10-119) have taken a similar view:
‘Another way of putting the point would be on the basis of generalia non specialibus derogant; that is to say, that the specific provisions of s.12(5), however poorly drafted they may be, must be taken to have priority over those of the earlier, more general provisions.’
This is also the view of Professor CJ Miller in Contempt of Court (2000) at para 3.105, fn 414.
[37] We consider for the reasons we have set out above that Parliament cannot have intended to create a right of appeal to the High Court by way of rehearing; nor can Parliament have intended two concurrent rights of appeal, as that would only lead to confusion. In our view therefore the provisions of s 12(5) of the 1981 Act apply to appeals under s 12 of that Act and there is no right of appeal under s 13 of the 1960 Act.
[38] As we have reached the view that there is no right of appeal under s 13 of the 1960 Act, it is not necessary for us to consider how a court would control the scope and manner of the appeal. We have not therefore considered the scope of the powers under CPR Pt 52 nor the powers under s 13(3) of the Act (see Linnett v Coles [1986] 3 All ER 652, [1987] QB 555; R v Serumaga [2005] EWCA Crim 370, [2005] 2 All ER 160, [2005] 1 WLR 3366) nor the nature of any such appeal and whether it would have been by way of review or re-hearing (see for example EI Du Pont De Nemours & Co v ST Dupont [2003] EWCA Civ 1368, [2004] IP & T 559, [2006] 1 WLR 2793; Tanfern Ltd v Cameron-MacDonald [2000] 2 All ER 801, [2000] 1 WLR 1311; Assicurazioni Generali SpA v Arab Insurance Group (BSC) [2002] EWCA Civ 1642, [2003] 1 All ER (Comm) 140, [2003] 1 WLR 577). We would merely observe that the draftsmen of CPR Pt 52 probably (and rightly) did not have in the forefront of their considerations appeals from the magistrates’ courts on contempt.
(3) Appeals by way of case stated and applications for judicial review
[39] The conclusions which we have set out in the preceding paragraphs do not, in our view, in any way affect the two other ways in which a decision of a magistrates’ court on a contempt issue can be brought before this court.
[40] Section 111 of the 1980 Act provides for a case to be stated by the magistrates’ court; its terms are wide enough to encompass an appeal by way of case stated under s 12 of the 1981 Act and there is no reason why this route of appeal cannot lie in a case where it is appropriate. Plainly there can be cases where the issue that arises is a question of whether on the facts found the magistrates’ court was entitled to make a finding of contempt. The route of using a case stated appeal to this court lies happily with the route of appeal to the Crown Court in ordinary criminal cases, as s 111(4) makes express provision that on the making of an application for a case stated, any right of appeal to the Crown Court ceases.
[41] Nor do we see any difficulties with an application for judicial review of a conviction for contempt: this court has considered such application as for example in R v Tamworth Magistrates’ Court, ex p Walsh [1994] COD 277; R v Pateley Bridge Justices, ex p Percy [1994] COD 453. The grounds upon which judicial review of the decision of the magistrates’ court may be advanced are limited and controlled by the well-known limitations on this form of review.
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CONCLUSION
[42] Our conclusion therefore on the points can be summarised as follows:
(i) An appeal lies to the Crown Court from a conviction or a sentence under s 12 of the 1981 Act at the magistrates’ court.
(ii) There is no right of appeal against a conviction or sentence under s 12 of the 1981 Act to the High Court under s 13 of the 1960 Act.
(iii) An appeal to the High Court lies by way of case stated and proceedings for judicial review can be brought where appropriate.
Directions accordingly.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Mucelli v Government of the Republic of Albania
[2008] 2 All ER 340
[2007] EWHC 2632 (Admin)
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: INTERNATIONAL; International Criminal Law
Court: DIVISIONAL COURT
Lord(s): RICHARDS LJ AND AIKENS J
Hearing Date(s): 3, 9 OCTOBER, 15 NOVEMBER 2007
Extradition – Extradition order – Appeal – Notice of appeal – Permitted period for giving notice of appeal being 14 days starting with day on which Secretary of State informing person of extradition order – Secretary of State making extradition order – Secretary of State informing person’s solicitor of order – Solicitor filing notice of appeal within permitted period – Solicitor failing to serve notice of appeal within permitted period – Whether court having jurisdiction to hear appeal – Whether Secretary of State required to inform person personally – Whether court should exercise discretion to dispense with requirements for service of documents – Extradition Act 2003, ss 100(1), 103(9) – CPR 6.9.
The Government of Albania sought the extradition of M. The district judge held the extradition hearing under Pt 2 of the Extradition Act 2003 and sent the case to the Secretary of State for the Home Department for his decision as to whether M was to be extradited. The Secretary of State made the extradition order on 18 July 2007. Section 100(1)a of the 2003 Act provided that if the Secretary of State ordered a person’s extradition under Pt 2 of the 2003 Act he had to, inter alia, ‘(a) inform the person of the order; (b) inform him in ordinary language that he has a right of appeal to the High Court’. Under s 103(9)b notice of appeal had to be given in accordance with rules of court before the end of the permitted period which was 14 days starting with the day on which the Secretary of State informed the person under s 100 of the extradition order. On 18 July the Secretary of State sent a letter by fax and post to M’s solicitors informing them that M’s extradition had been ordered, enclosing a copy of the order, and setting out M’s right of appeal. The letter explained that the giving of notice of appeal within the 14 day permitted period required the filing of the notice at the High Court and the service of the notice on the Home Office and the Crown Prosecution Service (the CPS). Also on 18 July the Secretary of State sent a letter by fax and post to the governor of the prison where M was in custody on remand enclosing a copy of the extradition order, stating that M had the right to appeal within 14 days and asking the governor to ‘notify M today and ensure he understands the contents’. On 23 July M’s solicitor received a telephone call from M who told him that he had received some documents from the Home Office. The solicitor explained the meaning of the documents to him and explained that he had a right of appeal. On 31 July, the last day of the 14-day period beginning on 18 July, the notice of appeal was filed with the Administrative Court. The next day M’s solicitor sent, by way of service, copies of the notice with grounds of appeal and skeleton argument of the CPS and the Home Office. However, there was no actual record of any documents being sent on that date or any evidence that any were received. Later
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in August, the Treasury Solicitor’s department wrote to M’s solicitors noting that as an appeal had been listed for hearing the solicitors had presumably lodged an appeal, noting the solicitors’ failure to serve the Home Office with the appeal papers within the time limit and requesting copies of the papers even though service would be out of time. The government of Albania raised a preliminary objection that the appeal was out of time and that the court had no jurisdiction to entertain it; they argued that time began to run when M had been informed of the order of the Secretary of State by the 18 July letter to M’s solicitors and that as the giving of the notice of appeal involved both filing and serving the notice the appeal was out of time. M submitted that s 100(1) of the 2003 Act required that he be informed of the extradition order personally, in terms that he was able to understand and that that had not been done until the information had been communicated to him by his solicitor in their conversation on 23 July. In the course of the hearing, in relation to the service of the appeal outside the 14-day permitted period, the court raised for consideration whether it might be possible to rely on the power to dispense with service of documents under CPR 6.9c as means of tempering the inflexibility of the time limits under the 2003 Act.
Held – (1) The Secretary of State could discharge his duty under s 100 of the 2003 Act by means of a letter in English sent to the person’s solicitor and such a letter could be sent by any of the normal methods of communication. The requirement in s 100(1)(b) that the Secretary of State inform the person ‘in ordinary language’ of his right of appeal was not inconsistent with the possibility that he could be informed through his solicitor. Section 100 could not have been intended to operate differently from those sections of the 2003 Act where the court had to provide information to a person who was not before it and in each case Parliament was to be taken to have intended that communication of the information by letter to the person’s solicitor would suffice. In the instant case, the letter sent by the Home Office on 18 July to M’s solicitors constituted compliance with the Secretary of State’s obligation under s 100 and 18 July was, accordingly, the first day of the permitted period for an appeal. It had been strictly unnecessary for the Secretary of State to have also sent a copy of the order to the prison governor; it had been for the solicitors to communicate with their client, in the knowledge that the time for appealing ran from the date of their receipt of the letter (see [57]–[59], [62]–[64], below).
(2) Although the court had the discretionary power under CPR 6.9 to achieve the result, by retrospectively dispensing with the requirement to serve the notice of appeal within the permitted period, that the fact of late service of the notice in the instant case would cease to have significance, there were compelling reasons why it should not so exercise its discretion. Under s 103(9) of the 2003 Act notice of appeal had to be given within the permitted period which could not be extended and the exercise of the power to dispense with service would have the same consequence as an extension of time and would circumvent the statutory time limit. Parliament had established a scheme which, whilst conferring the requisite protection for the individual through the availability of judicial supervision at all stages of the procedure, placed an emphasis at every stage on speed and certainty. Parliament had to be taken to have accepted the possibility of a person losing his right of appeal through the fault of his legal representative
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and not through any fault of his own in the interests of speed and certainty. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [77], [81]–[83], [86], [88], [89], [92], below); Godwin v Swindon BC [2001] 4 All ER 641 applied; District Court of Vilnius City v Barcys [2008] 1 All ER 733 and R (on the application of Mendy) v CPS [2007] EWHC 1765 (Admin) followed; Pollard v R [1995] 1 WLR 1591 considered.
Notes
For Secretary of State’s functions: information, and for appeal where case sent to Secretary of State; court’s powers on appeal under section 103, see Supp to 17(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 1472, 1474.
For the Extradition Act 2003, ss 100, 103, see 18 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 885, 887.
Cases referred to in judgments
Anderton v Clwyd CC [2002] EWCA Civ 933, [2002] 3 All ER 813, [2002] 1 WLR 3174.
Cranfield v Bridgegrove Ltd [2003] EWCA Civ 656, [2003] 3 All ER 129, [2003] 1 WLR 2441.
District Court of Vilnius City v Barcys [2007] EWHC 615 (Admin), [2008] 1 All ER 733, [2007] 1 WLR 3249, DC.
FP (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 13, [2007] All ER (D) 155 (Jan).
Godwin v Swindon BC [2001] EWCA Civ 1478, [2001] 4 All ER 641, [2002] 1 WLR 997, CA.
Government of Albania v Bleta [2005] EWHC 475 (Admin), [2005] 3 All ER 351, [2005] 1 WLR 3576, DC.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
Pollard v R [1995] 1 WLR 1591, PC.
R (on the application of Mendy) v CPS [2007] EWHC 1765 (Admin).
R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67, [1984] 3 WLR 643.
R v Immigration Appeal Tribunal, ex p Mehta [1976] Imm AR 38, CA.
R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340, [2005] 3 WLR 303.
Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439, [1989] ECHR 14038/88, ECt HR.
Appeal
Vullnet Mucelli appealed under s 103 of the Extradition Act 2003 from the decision of District Judge Anthony Evans in the City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court on 4 June 2007 to send his case to the Secretary of State for the Home Department for a decision as to whether he should be extradited to Albania. The Secretary of State appeared as an interested party. The facts are set out in the judgment of Richards LJ.
Ben Cooper (instructed by Shearman Bowen & Co) for the appellant.
Melanie Cumberland (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the government of Albania.
Ben Watson (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State for the Home Department.
Judgment was reserved.
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15 November 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
RICHARDS LJ.
[1] The appellant seeks to challenge a decision made on 4 June 2007 by District Judge Anthony T Evans, sitting at City of Westminster Magistrates’ Court, to send the appellant’s case to the Secretary of State for a decision on whether the appellant should be extradited. The request for extradition came from the Government of Albania, which is a category 2 territory within the meaning of the Extradition Act 2003. The case is therefore governed by Pt 2 of the Act.
[2] The request relates to a count of murder committed on 13 June 1997 and a further count of possession of firearms. The victim lived in a flat in Tirana with the appellant’s aunt. A few days prior to the killing there had been an argument over gold coins. On the day of the killing the appellant’s wife visited the flat, spoke to the victim and then went out of the building. About ten minutes later the appellant arrived with a large sports bag and went into the building. Some time later witnesses heard gunshots and saw the appellant walking down the stairs and putting a sub-machine gun into his bag.
[3] Criminal proceedings were commenced on the same day by the District Prosecutor’s Office at Tirana. Both the appellant and his wife were charged with murder. They left Albania but were tried in their absence, in a series of hearings between 15 April and 25 September 1998. The appellant’s wife was acquitted. The appellant himself, who was represented at trial by a lawyer, was convicted and sentenced to 25 years’ imprisonment on the murder count and to 1 year’s imprisonment on the firearms count. An order for the execution of the sentence was issued on 15 October 1998. It was not until 6 February 2007, however, that the appellant was arrested pursuant to a provisional arrest warrant. The full extradition request followed on 28 February 2007.
THE DISTRICT JUDGE’S DECISION
[4] The contested issues in the extradition proceedings were these. First, under s 79(1)(c), the judge had to decide whether the appellant’s extradition was barred by reason of the passage of time: by s 82, a person’s extradition to a category 2 territory is barred by reason of the passage of time if (and only if) it appears that it would be unjust or oppressive to extradite him by reason of the passage of time since he is alleged to have committed the extradition offence or since he is alleged to have become unlawfully at large (as the case may be). Secondly, since the appellant had been convicted in his absence, the judge had to decide, under s 85(3), whether the appellant had deliberately absented himself from his trial. If the answer to that question was in the negative, then the judge had to decide the alternative question, under s 85(5), whether the appellant would be entitled to a retrial on his return. An affirmative answer to one or other of the questions under s 85 would take the judge to s 87, under which he had to decide whether extradition would be compatible with the appellant’s convention rights under the Human Rights Act 1998 (European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act)).
[5] In his decision the judge said that in order to answer those questions it was necessary to look first at the evidence. He had heard evidence from the appellant himself and from the appellant’s mother.
[6] The gist of the appellant’s account was that he left Albania in October 1997 for economic reasons. He left on a false Greek passport and worked for some
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time in Greece and Italy before coming to the United Kingdom. He was adamant in evidence-in-chief that he arrived in this country on 22 February 1998, but was forced to concede in cross-examination that it was in fact on 22 October 1998. He said he had come for a better life, not because he was in trouble. After six months in this country he was given leave to stay here. He denied knowing any of the witnesses in the case against him and said that he had never owned a gun, had never been to Tirana and had never met his aunt who lived there.
[7] The judge did not believe or accept that evidence. He referred to various inconsistencies in it. He said that the reality was that the appellant had been living a lie for the whole of his time in this country. The appellant had used a variety of false names and given a false date of birth. It was apparent from a psychiatric report on him that, in the account given to the doctor, the appellant had invented yet another identity for himself, this time as a Kosovan.
[8] The judge also mentioned that it had been the intention of the defence to call the appellant’s wife as a witness, but after receipt of the psychiatric report, in which the appellant had made no mention to the doctor of his wife, the case was adjourned for further instructions to be taken and the wife was not called.
[9] The appellant’s mother was called, but the judge described her evidence as confused and confusing. He referred to inconsistencies between it and the appellant’s own evidence and what the appellant had told the doctor. The judge attached no weight to the mother’s evidence.
[10] It was in the light of his findings on the evidence that the judge considered the questions he had to decide.
[11] As to the first question, passage of time, he pointed out that in a category 2 case the request is made through government and diplomatic channels, and that until the whereabouts of the defendant are known that request cannot be made. He continued:
‘It can safely be assumed that the defendant had been circulated as wanted by the Albanian authorities. However, this would have been under his known name of Mucelli, not the various aliases he assumed. His assumed dates of birth and, indeed, nationality would not have been known to the Albanian authorities. It would only have been after his arrest on the provisional warrant that his whereabouts would have been known to the Albanian authorities. Thereafter, they acted with commendable speed. The delay is due entirely to the efforts of the defendant in assuming new identities and travelling through Europe and finally obtaining leave to stay in this country which again was done on the basis of lies. He cannot rely on the bar of passage of time.’
[12] On the second question, the judge said that there was no doubt that the appellant deliberately left Albania to avoid the consequences of his actions. The judge did not accept for one moment the explanation of leaving for economic reasons and to have a better life. When told that the arresting officer had a warrant for his arrest for murder, the appellant’s immediate reaction was not to express surprise or to question this, as would be expected if he knew nothing of it, but to try and force his way past the officers and escape. The judge went on:
‘I am satisfied that he left Albania to avoid prosecution. He must have been aware that a trial would follow and it is clear that he did not wish to attend . . . [T]he defendant must have been aware that a trial would follow
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with inevitable consequence if convicted. [This], I am satisfied, was what he was trying to avoid.’
[13] The judge then referred to Government of Albania v Bleta [2005] EWHC 475 (Admin), [2005] 3 All ER 351, [2005] 1 WLR 3576, which he either distinguished on the facts or declined to follow (I shall examine his reasoning further when considering the relevant ground of appeal), before concluding:
‘I am satisfied in this case that the defendant’s motive for fleeing Albania was to avoid his trial in due course. He knew that he would face trial if caught and this he was determined should not happen at all costs. The fact that he would not know its eventual date and place are, in this context, irrelevant, as due regard must be had to the practices and procedures of different jurisdictions.’
[14] The judge said that if that conclusion was not right and the appellant did not deliberately absent himself, he had to consider the question of the right to a retrial. Distinguishing Bleta’s case (on a basis that I shall again examine when considering the relevant ground of appeal), the judge concluded that he was satisfied by a ‘guarantee’ given in letters from the Albanian authorities that the appellant would be entitled to a retrial if extradited.
[15] Turning finally to s 87, the judge found that the appellant’s extradition would not give rise to a breach of his convention rights.
[16] The judge therefore sent the appellant’s case to the Secretary of State for a decision on whether the appellant should be extradited. On 18 July 2007 the Secretary of State ordered the appellant’s return to Albania.
THE GROUNDS OF APPEAL
[17] The appellant advances three main grounds of appeal: (1) that the judge erred in finding that the appellant deliberately absented himself from his trial; (2) that the judge erred in finding there to be an adequate guarantee that the appellant would be afforded a retrial if extradited; and (3) that the judge erred in finding that the appellant had caused in whole or in part the delay in the commencement of the extradition proceedings and that it would not be unjust or oppressive to extradite him.
[18] I propose to consider those grounds of appeal before moving to the procedural issues that became the primary focus of the argument before us.
[19] The judge’s finding that the appellant deliberately absented himself from his trial cannot readily be reconciled with the decision in Bleta’s case (cited above). The district judge in that case had found that, in the absence of any material to show that the defendant knew of the existence of the proceedings against him, and in particular to show that he knew or should have known of the date and place of his trial and that the trial might proceed in his absence, the defendant could not be said to have deliberately absented himself from his trial. The divisional court upheld that decision. It rejected a contention by the requesting state that, in leaving the country and, by inference, evading arrest the defendant had deliberately absented himself from the criminal process and thus his trial, and that the district judge had been wrong to rely on procedural criteria such as the formal charge and the moment of fixing the date and place of trial. Pill LJ, giving the leading judgment, expressed his reasons as follows (at [48]):
‘I reach the following conclusions: (a) In s 85(3) Parliament has adopted the expression “deliberately absented himself from his trial”. Consideration
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must be given to the concept of deliberate absence and to the concept of a trial. The respondent has deliberately absented himself from Albania but there is no evidence that he knew of the existence of a trial or of any proceedings which might lead to a trial. (b) The word “trial” was adopted by Parliament in the context of the presence of art 6 with its use of the word “hearing” and its reference to a right to a hearing and a right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation. Article 6 confers the right to a fair trial and the word “trial” would not have been used by Parliament in s 85(3) if a wider view of absence had been intended. (c) The subsection must be construed in a context in which capital importance is attached to the appearance of a defendant at his trial. The focus is on a specific event at which the respondent could expect to be present. Other factors, as well as the need to facilitate extradition, are at work. (d) Parliament could have used an expression such as “deliberately absenting himself from legal process” which could, on appropriate findings of fact, include leaving a jurisdiction to avoid arrest but Parliament has not done so and the sub-section cannot be construed as if it had. The expression “his trial” contemplates a specific event and not the entire legal process. (e) In the result, I am unable to construe the words of s 85(3) as covering the present circumstances. While the absence from the jurisdiction of Albania is established, it is not established that the respondent left that jurisdiction, or remained in the United Kingdom, with the intention expressed in the subsection.’
[20] On the face of it, that reasoning applies equally to the facts of the present case. In this case, too, there is no material to show that the appellant was aware of the proceedings against him, let alone that he knew of the date or place of his trial or had been informed that the trial might proceed in his absence. The judge found that his motive in leaving Albania was to avoid prosecution and all that would flow from it; but, to use the terms considered in Bleta’s case, that is tantamount to deliberately absenting himself from the legal process rather than deliberately absenting himself from his trial. I do not think that the judge’s findings of fact are sufficient to overcome the hurdle posed by Bleta’s case despite his evident determination to achieve that result.
[21] The judge also cited a passage in Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439 to the effect that it is increasingly in the interests of nations that suspected offenders who flee abroad should be brought to justice, and observed that consideration must always be given to the Strasbourg jurisprudence and that Soering’s case was not cited in Bleta’s case. If he intended thereby to suggest that Bleta’s case was decided per incuriam, the passage from Soering’s case upon which he relied did not provide any basis for such a suggestion. There may be grounds for thinking that Bleta’s case adopted an unduly restrictive approach to the meaning of ‘deliberately absented himself from his trial’ in s 85(3), but they are not to be found in the judge’s decision. Nor are they to be found in the material before this court. Miss Cumberland, for the requesting state, did not press any argument that Bleta’s case was wrongly decided. She preferred to put the weight of her argument on the alternative provision in s 85(5) as to a right to a retrial.
[22] In the circumstances I take the view that the judge was in error in distinguishing or declining to follow Bleta’s case. He ought to have decided, on the basis of Bleta’s case, that the appellant had not deliberately absented himself from his trial.
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[23] That brings me to the alternative question under s 85, whether the appellant would be entitled to a retrial on return to Albania. In Bleta’s case the Albanian Ministry of Justice had provided an ‘official guarantee’ that the defendant would have a retrial, but on examination of the available material the Divisional Court was not satisfied by that guarantee. Pill LJ stated (at [26]):
‘However, having made all allowances I properly can, I am unable to conclude that, upon examination of the Albanian provisions and the explanations given for them, I am satisfied that the respondent would be entitled to the required re-trial or (on appeal) review amounting to a retrial in Albania. I do not doubt the good faith in which the “guarantee” was given but I see considerable force in the submissions of [counsel for the respondent]. There are in my judgment too many open ends and insufficient clarity to be able to conclude that the information supplied belatedly and by instalments, following the concession before the judge, provides a sufficient assurance that the respondent would receive in Albania the retrial, or review amounting to re-trial, which the 2003 Act requires if extradition is to be ordered.’
[24] The judge in the present case distinguished Bleta’s case on the ground that the position there had to be explored over a period of time and the information was only forthcoming in instalments, whereas here ‘the guarantee has been given from the beginning’.
[25] It is true that a guarantee was given at an early stage in the present case, but that does not in itself provide a valid basis for distinguishing Bleta’s case. It is necessary to consider the substance of the guarantee given. The wording used here, in a letter dated 28 February 2007 from the Albanian Ministry of Justice, is as follows:
‘the Ministry of Justice guarantees in advance on behalf of the Albanian state and in conformity with the article 504/2 of the Albanian Code of Criminal Procedure:
1. The enforcement of the right for re-trial of the subject upon request, in accordance with the Albanian Constitution and pursuant to the articles 147, 148, 449, 450, 453 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of the Republic of Albania . . .’
A further letter, dated 10 May 2007, confirms that the appellant could exercise ‘the right of retrial’ within ten days from the moment he was taken over by the Albanian authorities.
[26] Article 504(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that—
‘[t]he Minister of Justice is competent to decide about the conditions eventually imposed by the foreign country to provide the extradition, when they do not run against the main principles of the Albanian rule of law. The proceeding authority is obliged to respect the accepted conditions.’
That might seem sufficient to ensure that the guarantee given in the body of the letter of 28 February 2007 would be honoured. But examination of the detailed provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure to which the letter then refers casts real doubt on the effectiveness of the guarantee. Article 147 appears to provide for the possibility of reinstating the time limit for an appeal, upon the request of a defendant who has been tried in his absence. But the decision whether to grant such a request is that of the court and there is no obvious mechanism whereby
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the government can require the court to accede to the request (nor would one expect there to be one if the independence of the judiciary is respected). Moreover art 450 lays down the grounds on which a ‘review’ may be requested, none of which could reasonably be said to be engaged on the facts of this case; and although it is not clear whether that article governs consideration of a request under art 147, the reference to it in the Ministry’s letter suggests that it does.
[27] The conclusion I reach is that the position is too uncertain to enable the court to conclude, on the strength of the guarantee provided, that the appellant would be entitled to a retrial on his return. There are still, in the words of Pill LJ in Bleta’s case, ‘too many open ends and insufficient clarity’. I have reached that conclusion without the need to take into account additional expert evidence filed at a late stage on the appellant’s behalf, to which the respondent objected and did not have a proper opportunity to respond. It is fair to say that if the evidence were admitted it would reinforce the appellant’s case on this point.
[28] If I am correct in the conclusions I have reached on the two relevant questions under s 85(3) and (5), as to deliberately absenting himself from trial and entitlement to retrial, then the district judge was wrong to send the case to the Secretary of State and ought, on the contrary, to have ordered the appellant’s discharge.
[29] On that basis the final ground of appeal, concerning the judge’s finding that the appellant’s extradition was not barred by the passage of time, does not need to be considered. In short, however, I consider it to be without merit. I do not see how it can be sustained in the face of the judge’s findings of fact as to the appellant leaving Albania to avoid prosecution and assuming a series of false identities thereafter.
THE PROCEDURAL ISSUES
[30] The favourable view I have formed on the first two of the appellant’s grounds of appeal can avail him only if he is able to overcome the procedural obstacles in his path.
[31] The respondent government raised a preliminary objection that the appeal was out of time and that this court had no jurisdiction to entertain it. Having heard initial argument on that issue from Miss Cumberland for the respondent and from Mr Cooper for the appellant, we decided to adjourn so as to give the Secretary of State the opportunity to make representations and to file evidence. The Treasury Solicitor’s department and the Home Office responded with commendable speed and we were greatly assisted by the submissions made by Mr Watson on behalf of the Secretary of State at the adjourned hearing.
[32] The court itself identified a further procedural issue, on which it sought and received written submissions from all the parties: namely, whether on the proper construction of the relevant documents the appeal was brought under s 103 of the Act against the judge’s decision to send the case to the Secretary of State, or under s 108 of the Act against the Secretary of State’s extradition order.
[33] I propose to deal first with the statutory basis of the appeal, then with the question whether the court has jurisdiction to entertain it.
THE STATUTORY BASIS OF THE APPEAL
[34] Section 103 of the Act allows an appeal to be brought against the decision of a judge to send a case to the Secretary of State for his decision on whether a person is to be extradited. If the Secretary of State then makes an extradition order, s 108 allows an appeal to be brought against that order. The difference
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between the two statutory bases of appeal is important, since the focus in an appeal under s 103 has to be on the questions decided by the judge, whereas in an appeal under s 108 it has to be on the questions decided by the Secretary of State (see ss 104 and 109 respectively). The challenge that the appellant seeks to make in this case, against the reasoning of the judge, can only be made in an appeal under s 103.
[35] The appellant’s notice as filed at court bears many of the hallmarks of an appeal under s 108. In section 1, the Secretary of State is named as the respondent to the appeal (though the CPS is also named, as an additional party). In section 2, the appeal is said to be from the ‘Decision of Secretary of State to grant extradition’ and the date of the decision is given as ‘18/07/07’. In section 5, it is described as a ‘statutory appeal against the decision of the Secretary of State (Home Office) to order the extradition of Vullnet Mucelli to Albania (Part 2) for the offences contained within the request from Albania dated 2nd March 2007’.
[36] On the other hand, filed together with the appellant’s notice, and referred to in section 6 of the notice (which requires the grounds for appeal and the supporting skeleton argument to be set out on a separate sheet or sheets), was a document entitled ‘Grounds of Appeal and Appellant’s Skeleton Argument’, headed ‘In the matter of an appeal under s.103 of the Extradition Act 2003’, identifying the Government of Albania as the respondent, stating clearly that the appeal was brought against the judge’s decision of 4 June 2007 to send the appellant’s case to the Secretary of State, and setting out detailed arguments directed solely at the judge’s decision.
[37] The explanation for the differences between the appellant’s notice and the accompanying document is that the former was settled by the appellant’s solicitor, who filled it in erroneously, whereas the latter was settled by counsel, who correctly understood the nature and statutory basis of the intended appeal and who settled the grounds and skeleton argument accordingly.
[38] It seems to me that regard must be had to the documentation as a whole when determining the true nature of the intended appeal, and that an appellant should not be defeated by errors in one part of the documentation which are counteracted in another part. Having considered the documentation in that light, I have overcome my initial doubts in the matter and am satisfied that the intended appeal can properly be treated as brought under s 103 rather than s 108. In those circumstances it is unnecessary to delve into factual evidence placed before the court as to communications between the appellant’s solicitor and the Administrative Court Office concerning the basis of the appeal, and as to amendments made to the appellant’s notice before it was served on the Home Office and on the Treasury Solicitor’s department.
[39] Before I move on from this topic, however, I would observe that the standard form of appellant’s notice was plainly not drafted with extradition appeals in mind and is not entirely appropriate for them. Section 2 presupposes that an appeal is being brought from a court, which is correct in the case of an appeal under s 103 but not in the case of an appeal under s 108. More importantly, part B of section 8 of the form contains tick boxes relating to an extension of time which are potentially misleading to an appellant since, as explained in the context of the next issue, the court has no power to grant an extension of time for an appeal in extradition proceedings.
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WHETHER THE NOTICE OF APPEAL WAS IN TIME: SETTING THE SCENE
[40] Notice of an appeal under s 103 must be given within the period of 14 days starting with the day on which the Secretary of State informs the requested person of the extradition order. The case for the respondent government, supported by the Secretary of State, is that (1) the appellant was informed of the order by letter to his solicitors on 18 July (and also by letter sent on the same date to the prison where the appellant was detained), so that time began to run on 18 July; and (2) the giving of notice of an appeal involves both filing and serving the appellant’s notice, and although the appeal notice was filed with the court on 31 July, just within the statutory time limit, service of the notice on the respondent did not take place until a later date, outside the time limit. The appellant takes issue with both limbs of that argument and contends that notice of an appeal was given in time. It is common ground that, if notice of an appeal was given outside the statutory time limit, there is no power in the court to extend time and the court has no jurisdiction to entertain the appeal.
[41] The two limbs of the argument call for individual consideration. It is, however, convenient first to set out the facts relevant to them both.
[42] By letter dated 9 July 2007, the appellant’s present solicitors, Shearman Bowen & Co, wrote to the Home Office to request that its records be updated ‘to reflect the fact that this firm will [now] be acting for Mr Mucelli in the above matter’, namely the ‘Request By Albania For The Extradition of Vullnet Mucelli’. The letter further stated:
‘For your records I enclose a signed authority from our client stating he wishes us to represent him on appeal to the High Court if The Secretary of State decides to order his extradition to Albania.’
A signed authority was duly enclosed with the letter. It was written in English. In it the appellant stated that he had sacked the solicitors who represented him at the extradition hearing in the magistrates’ court and that he now wished to instruct Shearman Bowen & Co ‘to represent me in my appeal’, and that his former solicitors had agreed that they would not oppose his request for his representation order to be transferred accordingly.
[43] The extradition order was made on 18 July. By letter of the same date the Home Office informed Shearman Bowen & Co that the Secretary of State had ordered the appellant’s extradition, and enclosed a copy of the order. The letter also stated:
‘Mr Mucelli has the right within 14 days to give notice of appeal against the Secretary of State’s decision (the giving [of] notice of appeal within 14 days requires the filing and service of the appellant’s notice within these 14 days). Under the Extradition Act 2003, these 14 days start with the day on which the Secretary of State informs you of his decision. If you attend [ie intend] to appeal, please note the Practice Direction supplementing Part 52 of the Civil Procedure Rules which governs extradition appeals and which requires that any papers filed at the High Court must also be served upon the Home Office and the Crown Prosecution Service. We should therefore be obliged if you would notify Colette Talbot here at the Home Office as to whether there is to be an appeal; and, in that event, if you would comply with the Practice Direction. Please note that the provisions in this paragraph also apply to an appeal under section 103 against the District Judge.’
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That letter was sent to the solicitors by first class post and by fax. There was a confirmation of its receipt by fax at 12.52 on 18 July.
[44] By letter dated 19 July Shearman Bowen & Co replied to the Home Office’s letter, stating that ‘notice and grounds of appeal will be lodged with the Administrative Court within 14 days’.
[45] The Home Office also sent a letter on 18 July to the Governor of HMP Brixton, where the appellant was in custody on remand, informing him that the Secretary of State had ordered the appellant’s extradition, enclosing a copy of the order, and stating in its final paragraph:
‘Mr Mucelli has the right to appeal to the High Court against the Secretary of State’s decision under Section 108 within 14 days. I should be grateful if you would notify him today and ensure that he understands the contents. Mr Mucelli’s solicitors have been notified. Should he decide not to appeal I would be grateful if you would inform me at the above address.’
That letter, too, was sent by post and fax. There was a confirmation of its receipt by fax at 12.53 on 18 July.
[46] The solicitor at Shearman Bowen & Co who was representing the appellant was Mr Ticehurst. In a witness statement he states that he received a telephone call from the appellant on 23 July. The appellant told him that he had received some documents from the Home Office which had been pushed under his cell door. According to Mr Ticehurst, the appellant can speak English but he does not read English very well. From their conversation it became apparent that the appellant had received the extradition order. The appellant seemed confused by the contents of the documents, so Mr Ticehurst explained the meaning of the documents to him and explained that he had a right of appeal. The appellant confirmed that he wished to appeal.
[47] There is nothing to gainsay the account set out in Mr Ticehurst’s witness statement. A helpful witness statement from Mr Wood, Joint Head of Casework in the Extradition Section of the Home Office, states that inquiries have been made at the prison and that no record appears to have been made of the means by which the correspondence was passed to the appellant, but that one possibility is that the documents may have been pushed under the appellant’s cell door by staff at the prison.
[48] On 31 July Mr Ticehurst filed the appellant’s notice with the Administrative Court.
[49] Mr Ticehurst’s evidence is that on 1 August, by way of service, he sent a letter enclosing copies of the appellant’s notice (including grounds of appeal and skeleton argument) to the Crown Prosecution Service via the document exchange and to the Home Office by post. There is, however, no actual record of any documents being sent on that date or any evidence that any were received.
[50] The position of the Crown Prosecution Service is that it had no knowledge of the appeal until 1 October.
[51] As to the Home Office, what happened is as follows. On 10 August the Treasury Solicitor’s department wrote to Shearman Bowen & Co, referring to the solicitors’ letter of 19 July and the stated intention to appeal, and continuing:
‘As your client’s case (CO/6536/2007) has been listed for hearing on 3 October 2007, you presumably lodged an appeal. However, you failed to serve the Home Office with the appeal papers. I refer you to the third
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paragraph of Miss Talbot’s letter to you of 18 July 2007, which sets out the provisions as to filing and serving.
You will, no doubt, wish to serve the Home Office with the appeal papers, even though such service is out of time. Please also send me a copy of the appeal papers.’
This resulted in a letter from Shearman Bowen & Co to the Treasury Solicitor’s department, enclosing a copy of the appellant’s notice. The letter was dated 10 August but was received on 13 August. It apologised for late service and said that papers had been sent to the Home Office on 1 August but seemed to have gone astray. In fact, a letter from Shearman Bowen & Co enclosing a copy of the appellant’s notice was received by the Home Office on 13 August. That letter was dated 1 August but was postmarked 10 August. In a further exchange of letters between the Treasury Solicitor’s department and Shearman Bowen & Co, the latter confirmed that the appeal was not intended to challenge the Secretary of State’s order but only the decision of the district judge.
WHEN DID THE SECRETARY OF STATE INFORM THE APPELLANT OF THE ORDER?
[52] Section 100 of the Act provides:
‘(1) If the Secretary of State orders a person’s extradition under this Part he must—(a) inform the person of the order; (b) inform him in ordinary language that he has a right of appeal to the High Court; (c) inform a person acting on behalf of the category 2 territory of the order . . .
(4) If the Secretary of State orders a person’s discharge under this Part he must—(a) inform him of the order; (b) inform a person acting on behalf of the category 2 territory of the order.’
[53] There is no specific statutory provision as to the method by which persons are to be so informed. Nor are there any rules prescribing the method to be adopted.
[54] The appellant’s case is that he had to be informed of the order personally, in terms that he was able to understand, and that that was not done until the relevant information was communicated to him by his solicitor in their conversation on 23 July. Mr Cooper prayed in aid the language of s 100(1)(a) and (b), that the Secretary of State must inform ‘the person’ of the order and must inform him ‘in ordinary language’ that he has a right of appeal, which he contrasted with the provision in s 100(1)(c) as to informing the agent of the requesting state.
[55] Mr Watson, for the Secretary of State, pointed to the range of situations in which the Act provides for the requested person to be informed of relevant matters, and submitted that the Act cannot sensibly be read as requiring a single method of communication in all cases. The phrase ‘inform the person’ is used in two broad circumstances. The first is where the requested person is brought before the judge and is physically present in court at a time when the judge is required to inform him: see ss 8(1)(b), 72(7), 74(7) and 92(2). In those cases it is clear that the Act contemplates direct personal communication of the information. The second broad circumstance is where a warrant or request is withdrawn and the court (which may be the High Court or the House of Lords where an appeal is pending) therefore orders the person’s discharge and, if he is not before the court at the time the order is made, is required to inform him of the order as soon as practicable: see ss 41(4), 42(4), 43(5), 122(4), 124(5) and 125(5). In those cases, it is submitted, the Act must contemplate that the court’s duty can
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be discharged by notifying the person in accordance with the relevant rules of procedure (for example, in accordance with the Civil Procedure Rules in the case of the High Court). The Secretary of State is in a similar position under s 100 and the Act must contemplate that he can discharge his duty to inform the requested person by adopting a method of communication of the same kind as is available to the court.
[56] Developing the point about normal rules of procedure, Mr Watson submitted that the sending of a letter by fax to a person’s solicitor, as occurred in this case, will generally constitute valid service under both criminal and civil rules: see Crim PR 4.3–4.6, and CPR 6.2 and 6.4. The same applies under the procedural regime established for immigration cases: see regs 4(3) and 7(1) of the Immigration (Notices) Regulations 2003, SI 2003/658. The duty to inform under s 100 of the Act should be interpreted as permitting the information to be communicated in the same way.
[57] In my judgment, Mr Watson is correct in his submission that the Secretary of State can discharge his duty to inform the requested person under s 100 by means of a letter sent to the person’s solicitor and that such a letter can be sent by any of the normal methods of communication, including fax. The language of the section does not compel the conclusion that there has to be direct personal communication to the requested person. The requirement in s 100(1)(b) to inform the person ‘in ordinary language’ of his right of appeal is perhaps a pointer in that direction but is not inconsistent with the possibility that he may be informed through his solicitor. The requirement in s 100(1)(c) that the information be given to the agent of the requesting government does not mean that, by contrast, the information must be given under s 100(1)(a) and (b) to the requested person himself rather than to an agent: the requesting government has to act through an agent in the extradition proceedings and it makes sense to provide for the information to be given to the agent rather than to the government itself. More generally, I do not think that s 100 can have been intended to operate differently from those sections where the court has to provide information to a person who is not before it; and in each case, as it seems to me, Parliament must be taken to have intended that communication of the information by letter to the requested person’s solicitor would suffice. That is the general position under the procedural rules of English law, against the background of which the statute was enacted.
[58] It does not follow that the full detail of those procedural rules, for example as to alternative methods of service and deemed date of service, is to be imported into s 100. The details differ in any event as between the Crim PR and the CPR, and I see no warrant for ‘selecting’ one set of rules in preference to another, as Mr Watson suggested the court might do. The rules assist in determining whether a particular form of communication can have been intended to be effective for the purposes of s 100, but they do not constitute a legislative code governing the communication of information under the section.
[59] If, as I have held, information can be given by means of a letter to the requested person’s solicitor, it is obvious that the letter can be English. In any event I would reject the contention that the information must be given to the requested person in a language that he understands and that a letter in English will therefore not suffice if the person cannot read English. Had it been intended to impose a requirement as to the language in which the information was to be given, I would have expected the section to contain express wording to that effect (just as there is an express requirement to inform the person ‘in ordinary
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language’ of the right of appeal). Moreover, there is no greater reason to imply such a requirement into s 100 than into any of the sections that provide for the court to give information to the requested person if he was not before the court when the relevant order was made; yet it cannot have been intended that the court, contrary to established practice, would have to translate documents into a language other than English (even assuming that it was able to ascertain what language or languages the requested person could read) in order to comply with its obligation to provide the information.
[60] Mr Watson took the court de bene esse to the report in Hansard of part of the debate by the Grand Committee of the House of Lords on the Extradition Bill (18 June 2003, 649 HL Official Report (5th series) cols GC320–GC326). An amendment to insert the words ‘in a language he understands’ into what is now s 100 was moved but was withdrawn following government opposition to it. I doubt whether the conditions in Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593 for recourse to such material are met; but if and to the extent it is admissible, it supports the Secretary of State’s contention that s 100 does not require the information to be given in a language other than English.
[61] Mr Watson also pointed to the practical difficulties that would arise if the appellant’s case in respect of s 100 were accepted. The Secretary of State would not necessarily know what language or languages the requested person understood. There would be scope for the person to feign a lack of comprehension. The Secretary of State would be burdened with an unprecedented duty of translation and personal communication which it would be extremely difficult to fulfil. There would be uncertainty as to precisely when the information was communicated and, therefore, when time began to run for removing the person. The efficacy of the strict statutory timetable for extradition procedures would be undermined. Those concerns serve to strengthen my view that Parliament cannot have intended s 100 to operate in such a way.
[62] Turning to the particular facts of this case, I am satisfied that the letter sent by the Home Office to Shearman Bowen & Co on 18 July (at [43], above) constituted compliance with the Secretary of State’s obligation under s 100 to inform the appellant of the extradition order and to inform him in ordinary language of his right of appeal. The firm had notified the Home Office that it was acting for the appellant and it had provided relevant contact details. It is sufficiently clear from the firm’s letter of 9 July and the enclosed legal authority signed by the appellant (at [42], above) that the firm’s authority to act for him was not limited to the intended appeal but encompassed dealings with the Home Office from the time when the firm was instructed.
[63] The Home Office’s letter communicating the information about the order was sent and received by fax on 18 July: its receipt on that date is confirmed by Mr Ticehurst. Accordingly, 18 July was the day on which the Secretary of State informed the appellant of the order and was the first day of the permitted period for an appeal as laid down by s 103(9) (see below).
[64] On the view I have taken of the matter, it was strictly unnecessary for the Secretary of State to do more than send the letter to the appellant’s solicitors. It was for the solicitors then to communicate in the normal way with their client, in the knowledge that the time for appealing ran from the date of receipt of the letter by them. Nevertheless the Secretary of State did also send a copy of the order to the governor of the prison where the appellant was detained, requesting the governor to notify the appellant as described at [45], above. I would reject Mr Cooper’s submission that this casts light on the extent of the Secretary of
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State’s duty under s 100 or even on his perception of that duty. It was a perfectly sensible additional measure to take even if the duty under s 100 was fulfilled by the letter to the solicitors. Whether, on the evidence as to what happened within the prison, it would in itself have been an effective method of fulfilling the duty under s 100 is questionable but does not need to be resolved.
WAS NOTICE OF AN APPEAL GIVEN IN TIME?
[65] As already mentioned, s 103 gives a right of appeal to the High Court against a judge’s decision to send a case to the Secretary of State. Such an appeal can be brought before the date of the Secretary of State’s decision, in which case the appeal must not be heard until after the Secretary of State has made his decision; or the requested person can wait until the Secretary of State’s decision before bringing the appeal. An appeal is, however, subject to a strict outer time limit laid down by s 103(9):
‘Notice of an appeal under this section must be given in accordance with rules of court before the end of the permitted period which is 14 days starting with the day on which the Secretary of State informs the person under section 100(1) or (4) of the order he has made in respect of the person.’
[66] The rules of court applicable to appeals under s 103 are contained in para 22.6A of CPR PD 52, the most important provisions of which are these:
‘(5) Where an appeal is brought under section 103 of the Act, the appellant’s notice must be filed and served before the expiry of 14 days, starting with the day on which the Secretary of State informs the person under section 100(1) or (4) of the Act of the order he has made in respect of the person . . .
(12) Where an appeal is brought under section 103 . . . of the Act, the appellant must serve a copy of the appellant’s notice on—(a) the Crown Prosecution Service; and (b) the Home Office,
if they are not a party to the appeal, in addition to the persons to be served under rule 52.4(3) and in accordance with that rule.’
CPR 52.4(3), to which reference is there made, provides that unless the appeal court orders otherwise, an appellant’s notice must be served on each respondent ‘(a) as soon as practicable, and (b) in any event not later than 7 days, after it is filed’.
[67] Reading those provisions together and in the context of the framework established by the Act, it would seem that the normal requirement in r 52.4(3) to serve the appellant’s notice on each respondent as soon as practicable, and in any event not later than 7 days, after it is filed is displaced by the specific requirement in para 22.6A(5) of the practice direction to file the notice and to serve it on each respondent before the end of 14 days starting with the day on which the Secretary of State informs the requested person under s 100(1) or (4) of the order he has made. If the Crown Prosecution Service and the Home Office are not parties to the appeal, there is an additional requirement to serve them. It is not altogether clear from the wording of para 22.6A(12) whether the requirement is to serve them within the same 14-day period or whether it is to serve them as soon as practicable, and in any event not later than 7 days, after the notice is filed; but nothing turns on the difference on the facts of the present case.
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[68] Before referring to the authorities on how those various provisions are to be applied, I should mention s 213, which governs the circumstances in which an extradition request is deemed to be disposed of. It provides, so far as material:
‘(2) A request for a person’s extradition is disposed of . . . (c) when an order is made for the person’s extradition in pursuance of the request and there is no further possibility of an appeal.
(3) There is no further possibility of an appeal against an order for a person’s . . . extradition—(a) when the period permitted for giving notice of an appeal to the High Court ends, if notice is not given before the end of that period . . .
(5) These must be ignored for the purposes of subsections (3) and (4)—(a) any power of a court to extend the period permitted for giving notice of appeal or for applying for leave to appeal; (b) any power of a court to grant leave to take a step out of time.’
[69] In District Court of Vilnius City v Barcys [2007] EWHC 615 (Admin), [2008] 1 All ER 733, [2007] 1 WLR 3249 the requesting authority’s appeal against the decision of a district judge to discharge the requested person was dismissed by the Divisional Court on the basis that notice of the appeal had been given out of time and the court therefore had no jurisdiction to entertain it. It was a Pt 1 case and the appeal fell under s 28, which provides in sub-s (5) that ‘[n]otice of an appeal under this section must be given in accordance with rules of court before the end of the permitted period, which is seven days starting with the day on which the order for the person’s discharge is made’. Para 22.6A(3)(a) of CPR PD 52 provides that in the case of an appeal under s 28 ‘the appellant’s notice must be filed and served before the expiry of seven days, starting with the day on which the order is made’. The appellant’s notice in Barcys’s case had been neither filed nor served within the permitted period of seven days.
[70] The court held that notice of an appeal is ‘given’ by filing and serving the appellant’s notice and that this must be done within the period of seven days, with no power to extend the statutory time limit: see, in particular, per Latham LJ at [11] and per Davis J at [18] and [26]. Applying R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340, it was held to be the legislative intention that acts done in breach of the statutory provision as to time limits be invalid and null. The effect of s 213 is that once the seven-day period permitted by s 28(5) has passed, there is no extant warrant justifying the continuation of proceedings, and s 213(5) is intended to ensure that the warrant cannot be resurrected by any exercise of the court’s power to extend the time limits.
[71] In R (on the application of Mendy) v CPS [2007] EWHC 1765 (Admin), Collins J held that the reasoning in Barcys’s case applied equally to an appeal by the requested person under s 26(4) as to an appeal by the requesting authority under s 28(5); and that, since the requested person had filed his notice of appeal out of time, the court had no jurisdiction to entertain it.
[72] In the present case, the appellant’s notice was filed within the 14-day permitted period under s 103(9) but was served on any view outside that period. Application of the reasoning in Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case would seem to lead inevitably to the conclusion that notice of appeal was given out of time and that this court therefore has no jurisdiction to entertain the appeal.
[73] Mr Cooper submitted that Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case were distinguishable or were wrongly decided and should not be followed. I am satisfied, however, that s 103(9) is materially identical to ss 26(4) and 28(5), even
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though the permitted period under it is longer, and that the reasoning in Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case bites upon it in exactly the same way. It is true that there is a factual difference between the cases, in that the appellant’s notice in this case, unlike that in both Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case, was filed in time, but in each case the notice was served out of time and the reasoning bites equally upon service as it does upon filing. I am also satisfied that this court should follow Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case. No detailed argument has been addressed to us to support the contention that they were wrongly decided, and the right course is for this court to follow them unless convinced that they were wrongly decided (R v Greater Manchester Coroner, ex p Tal [1984] 3 All ER 240, [1985] QB 67).
[74] In the course of the hearing the court raised for consideration whether it might be possible to rely on the power to dispense with service under CPR 6.9 as a means of tempering the inflexibility of the conclusion reached in Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case. The point was not considered in those cases and would have had no significance on their particular facts (given the failure to file as well as to serve the notice in time). It stems from the reasoning in Pollard v R [1995] 1 WLR 1591, a Privy Council case cited by Mr Cooper.
[75] Pollard’s case concerned an appeal to the Eastern Caribbean Court of Appeal by a man who had been convicted of murder and sentenced to death. Notice of appeal against conviction had to be made ‘in such manner as may be directed by rules of court’. The appellant’s notice was taken for filing within the time limit but was returned as defective because it had been signed by counsel rather than by the appellant, as the rules required. There was no power under the statute to extend the time limit. The Court of Appeal held that it had no jurisdiction to hear the appeal. The Privy Council, however, accepted a submission that found a way around the jurisdictional bar. Rule 11 of the West Indies Associated States Court of Appeal Rules 1968 allowed non-compliance with a rule to be waived in certain circumstances where it was in the interests of justice to do so. It was held that non-compliance with the rule requiring the appellant’s notice to be signed by the appellant could be waived pursuant to r 11, thereby validating the notice from the date of its lodging. Lord Jauncey of Tullichettle, giving the judgment of their Lordships, put the point this way (at 1594):
‘A notice which does not comply with a particular rule but in respect of which that non-compliance has been subsequently waived under another rule is nonetheless a notice “in such manner as may be directed by rules of court” within the meaning of [the statute]. The waiver validates the notice from the date of its lodging and does not merely bring into existence for the first time a valid notice when rule 11 is applied.’
[76] The question is whether an analogous procedural possibility exists here. Under CPR 6.9 the court may, on an application made without notice, make an order dispensing with service of a document. It has been held that the rule is sufficiently widely worded to entitle the court to dispense retrospectively with service of a claim form in an appropriate case (Anderton v Clwyd CC [2002] EWCA Civ 933, [2002] 3 All ER 813, [2002] 1 WLR 3174), and the same must in principle apply to an appellant’s notice. Mr Cooper invited the court to exercise the power here. If that course were adopted, the result would be that notice of an appeal was given in this case within the permitted period and the court would have jurisdiction to entertain the appeal. That is because notice of an appeal must be given under s 103(9) ‘in accordance with rules of court’; the requirement under
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the rules to file the appellant’s notice within the period was complied with; and there would be no further requirement under the rules to serve the notice within that period since the requirement would have been dispensed with, so that the fact of late service would cease to have any significance. Thus there would be a clear parallel with the reasoning in Pollard’s case.
[77] Whilst the court has the discretionary power under r 6.9 to achieve such a result, there are in my judgment compelling reasons why it should not exercise its discretion in that way.
[78] One of the questions addressed in Godwin v Swindon BC [2001] EWCA Civ 1478, [2001] 4 All ER 641, [2002] 1 WLR 997, was whether the court was entitled to dispense with service under r 6.9 in a case where the claim form had been issued just before expiry of the limitation period but had not been served within the time permitted and the conditions for an extension of time were not met. The court held that r 6.9 could not avail the claimant in such circumstances. May LJ, with whom Pill LJ agreed, put the matter this way:
‘[50] . . . The heart of the matter, in my view, is that a person who has by mistake failed to serve the claim form within the time period permitted by r 7.5(2) in substance needs an extension of time to do so. If an application for an extension is not made before the current time period has expired, r 7.6(3) prescribes the only circumstances in which the court has power to grant such an extension . . . I do not consider that . . . r 6.9 can extend to enable the court to dispense with service when what would be done is in substance that which r 7.6(3) forbids. If r 6.9 did so extend, it would be tantamount to giving the court a discretionary power to dispense with statutory limitation provisions . . .’
[79] The matter was considered further in Anderton’s case (cited above), in which Mummery LJ, giving the judgment of the court, stated:
‘[55] . . . As a general rule applications made for retrospective orders to dispense with service will be caught by the reasoning in Godwin’s case. There may, however, be exceptional cases in which it is appropriate to dispense with service without undermining the principle in Godwin’s case that r 6.9 should not be used to circumvent the restrictions on granting extensions of time for service as laid down in r 7.6(3) and thereby validate late service of the claim form.
[56] In our judgment there is a sensible and relevant distinction, which was not analysed or recognised in Godwin’s case, between two different kinds of case.
[57] First, an application by a claimant, who has not even attempted to serve a claim form in time by one of the methods permitted by r 6.2, for an order retrospectively dispensing with service under r 6.9. The claimant still needs to serve the claim form in order to comply with the rules and to bring it to the attention of the defendant. That case is clearly caught by Godwin’s case as an attempt to circumvent the limitations in r 7.6(3) on the grant of extensions of time for service of the claim form.
[58] Second, an application by a claimant, who has in fact already made an ineffective attempt in time to serve a claim form by one of the methods allowed by r 6.2, for an order dispensing with service of the claim form.’
[80] In Cranfield v Bridgegrove Ltd [2003] EWCA Civ 656, [2003] 3 All ER 129, [2003] 1 WLR 2441 the court emphasised (at [32]) that—
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‘[t]he principle in Godwin’s case is important, and must not be subverted. It will be subverted unless the power to dispense with service retrospectively is confined to truly exceptional cases.’
[81] The situation here seems to me to be caught squarely by the principle in Godwin’s case. The effect of the relevant statutory provisions, as held in Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case, is that notice of appeal must be given within the permitted period which cannot be extended. The statute does not address the possibility of dispensing with service and cannot be read as impliedly removing the power to dispense with service. But the reality is that the appellant needs an extension of time for service, which the statute precludes, and that the exercise of the power to dispense with service would have the same consequence as an extension of time and would circumvent the statutory time limit. Furthermore, on the facts there was no attempt to serve the appellant’s notice in time: even if an attempt at service was made on 1 August, it took place just outside the permitted period. The case is therefore directly comparable to the first category identified in Anderton’s case, which was held to be clearly caught by the principle in Godwin’s case.
[82] It is of course important to have regard to the difference in context. An extradition appeal engages issues of liberty and human rights that do not arise in relation to service of a civil claim form within the limitation period. Yet that does not take the matter very far in circumstances where Parliament has established a scheme which, whilst conferring the requisite protection for the individual through the availability of judicial supervision at all stages of the procedure, places an emphasis at every stage on speed and certainty. The non-extendable time limit for appeals is a prime example of that. And once the Secretary of State has made an extradition order, s 117 provides that the requested person must be extradited within 28 days if no notice of appeal under s 103 or s 108 is given before the end of the permitted period (again ignoring any power of a court to extend the permitted period for giving notice of appeal). That is a tight timetable and the Secretary of State needs to know clearly where he stands in order to comply with it. He would be placed in real difficulty if a notice of appeal, although not served within the statutory time limit, were liable to be validated by the later exercise of the court’s power to dispense retrospectively with service.
[83] It is true that in the particular circumstances of the present case the Secretary of State knew at all material times that there was going to be an appeal and was not misled by the absence of service of a notice. The letters of 9 July and 19 July from the appellant’s solicitor made clear the intention to appeal, and the correspondence in August shows that the Treasury Solicitor’s department was aware of the filing of the notice of appeal and that the Home Office was proceeding on the assumption of an appeal. Thus in this individual case there would be no prejudice to the Secretary of State if service were dispensed with. Nor would there be any prejudice to the respondent government. Nevertheless the general point of principle made in the preceding paragraph remains a weighty consideration.
[84] Another potentially relevant consideration, as mentioned in Anderton’s case at [59], is the explanation for late service. In this case the explanation is a lamentable failure by the appellant’s solicitor to effect service within the permitted period. There had been ample time for the purpose. A notice of appeal under s 103 could have been given at any time after the judge’s decision of 4 June; and Shearman Bowen & Co were instructed by 9 July and had the remainder of
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July in which to give such notice. Following notification on 18 July of the making of the extradition order it must have been appreciated that time was running out. In the event the appellant’s notice was filed on the last possible day and was not served until it was too late.
[85] Mr Cooper submitted that the appellant should not be penalised for the fault of his solicitor. He relied heavily on FP (Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] EWCA Civ 13, [2007] All ER (D) 155 (Jan). In that case an immigration judge had heard and dismissed the appellant’s appeal in her absence, as he was entitled to do under the relevant procedural rules because notice of the hearing had been sent to her at her last known address. The problem was that her solicitors had failed to inform the AIT and the Home Office of her change of address. The Court of Appeal rejected an argument on behalf of the Secretary of State that there is a general principle of law which fixes a party with the procedural errors of his or her representative. It cited, for example, an observation of Lord Denning MR in R v Immigration Appeal Tribunal, ex p Mehta [1976] Imm AR 38 at 42 that—
‘[w]e never let a party suffer because his solicitors made a mistake and are a day or two late in giving notice of appeal . . . If she is out of time for appeal, she will be removed from this country, and it would be of no consolation to her to say that she has a remedy against her solicitor.’
The court held that the rules in question were productive of irremediable procedural unfairness and unlawful, because the appellant had lost the opportunity to be heard through the default of her representative and not through her own fault.
[86] The possibility of a requested person losing his right of appeal through the fault of his solicitor and not through any fault of his own is a matter of real concern. But if Barcys’s case and Mendy’s case are right and there is no power to extend the time limit, the legislature must be taken to have accepted that possibility in the interests of speed and certainty. Just as there is no general principle of law which fixes a party with the procedural errors of his or her representative, so there is no general principle of law which protects a party against the consequences of procedural errors of his or her representative. Everything depends on the circumstances. A key feature here is that the Act does not permit the court to extend time even if the failure to give notice of an appeal within the time limit is not the fault of the appellant but of his representatives. If the court were to seize on the fact that the failure was the fault of the solicitor as a reason for exercising its discretion to dispense with service, it would be running directly counter to the legislative intention. One comes straight back to the principle in Godwin’s case.
[87] A further consideration to which I think it right to have regard in a discretionary decision of this kind is that of substantive merit. For reasons that I have covered earlier in this judgment, an appeal, if entertained, should in my view succeed on the basis of the decision in Bleta’s case, which this court would have to follow. That consideration tells in favour of the exercise of the power under r 6.9. Again, however, I do not think that it should be decisive, given the strength of the principle telling against exercising the power so as to circumvent the statutory time limit. Moreover, I have to say that in terms of broader merit this case does not strike me as one of the most sympathetic to come before the court, having regard to the nature of the charge against the appellant, the fact that he was convicted after a trial at which he had legal representation and at which
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his wife was acquitted, and the judge’s findings as to the appellant’s motivation for leaving Albania and as to his subsequent conduct.
[88] Taking all the above matters into consideration I have reached the conclusion that it would not be proper for this court to exercise its power under r 6.9 to dispense retrospectively with service.
CONCLUSION
[89] For those reasons, I would dismiss the appeal on the ground that it is out of time and the court has no jurisdiction to entertain it.
[90] At para [15] of Mendy’s case the question was raised whether a requested person whose appeal was out of time might have some other remedy open to him, at least where it was contended that removal would be in breach of his convention rights. I should make clear that in this case the respondent government disputed the existence of any such alternative remedy both in principle and on the facts, but the issue was not before us and has not been considered by us.
[91] At an extremely late stage, when arrangements had been made with counsel’s clerks for our judgment to be handed down and a draft to be circulated to counsel in advance, Mr Cooper sent further written submissions to the court in support of an argument that, by virtue of s 3 of the 1998 Act and in order to safeguard the appellant’s convention rights, s 213(5) of the 2003 Act should be read as if it included the words ‘save in exceptional circumstances where the interests of justice so require’. We accept that s 3 of the 1998 Act was touched upon in Mr Cooper’s original submissions, but we do not consider there to be any substance in the argument raised and in any event we are firmly of the view that the recent attempt to elaborate it came too late. The exchanges of submissions in this case have already been very protracted and should not be allowed to extend any further.
AIKENS J.
[92] I agree entirely with the analysis and conclusions of Richards LJ. For the reasons he gives, I also would dismiss this appeal. I also agree that it is far too late for Mr Cooper to attempt to make further submissions concerning the interpretation of s 213(5) of the 2003 Act in the context of s 3 of the Human Rights Act 1998.
Appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
6 March 2008. The Appeal Committee of the House of Lords refused permission to appeal.
Dobson and others v Thames Water Utilities Ltd (Water Services Regulation Authority (Ofwat) intervening)
[2008] 2 All ER 362
[2007] EWHC 2021 (TCC)
Categories: HUMAN RIGHTS; Other: TORTS; Nuisance
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION (TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION COURT)
Lord(s): RAMSEY J
Hearing Date(s): 19–21 MARCH, 24 AUGUST 2007
Nuisance – Sewer – Effectually dealing with contents of sewer – Sewage treatment works causing odour and mosquitoes – Statutory sewerage undertaker failing to take steps preventing odour and mosquitoes – Whether sewerage undertaker effectually dealing with contents of sewer – Whether sewerage undertaker potentially liable at common law – Whether sewerage undertaker potentially liable for breach of rights for respect for home and peaceful enjoyment of possessions – Approach to extension of limitation period for breach of human rights – Water Industry Act 1991, s 94(1)(b) – Human Rights Act 1998, s 7(5)(b).
The claimants lived in the vicinity of a sewage treatment works. They complained that odours and mosquitoes from the works had caused a nuisance and that that had been caused by the negligence of the defendant sewerage undertaker and claimed that the defendant had breached their rights to respect for private and family life and protection of property under the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). They brought proceedings and a group litigation order was made. The Water Services Regulation Authority was given permission to intervene. The trial of preliminary issues was ordered. The first preliminary issue was whether the claimants were seeking to enforce duties under s 94(1)(b)a of the Water Industry Act 1991 which provided that it was the duty of every sewerage undertaker to make provision for the emptying of the sewers it provided and to make such further provision as was necessary for effectually dealing, by means of sewage disposal works or otherwise, with the contents of those sewers. The defendant and the intervener contended that the claimants were seeking to enforce such duties and that the effect of authority of the House of Lords was that such a claim could not be brought. The other preliminary issues included how the court should exercise its discretion under s 7(5)(b)b of the 1998 Act to extend the period of limitation for an action for damages for breach of human rights if the court considered it equitable to do so, in particular the relevance of s 33c of the Limitation Act 1980, which permitted the court to direct that a primary period of limitation was not to apply if it appeared to the court that it would be equitable to allow an action to
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proceed, having regard to the extent to which prejudice would be caused to the claimant or the defendant as the case might be, and whether regard should be had to all the circumstances of an individual claimant or to all the circumstances of the group.
Held – (1) The claimants were seeking to enforce duties which arose under s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act in respect of odours and mosquitoes from the sewage treatment works. Where the contents of a sewer when emptied at a sewage treatment works caused odours and mosquitoes the contents of the sewers had not been effectually dealt with within s 94(1)(b) (see [73], [74], [83], [84], [260], below); dicta of Peter Gibson LJ in British Waterways Board v Severn Trent Water Ltd [2001] 3 All ER 673 at [41] applied.
(2) Authority precluded the claimants from bringing claims which required the court to embark on a process which was inconsistent with, and conflicted with, the statutory process under the 1991 Act, but they were not precluded from bringing a claim in nuisance involving allegations of negligence, or a claim in negligence, or a claim based on negligence under the 1998 Act, where, as matter of fact and degree, the exercise of adjudicating on the cause of action was not inconsistent with, and did not involve conflicts with, the statutory process under the 1991 Act (see [140], [143], [145], [148]–[155], [170]–[172], [260], below); Marcic v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2004] 1 All ER 135 considered.
(3) In determining a limitation issue under s 7(5)(b) of the 1998 Act, the court should exercise its discretion, by analogy with s 33 of the 1980 Act, having regard to all the circumstances of the individual claimant. In doing so, one of those circumstances would be the circumstances of the group in a group action (see [237], [245], [260], below); dictum of Sir Michael Turner in Cameron v Network Rail Infrastructure Ltd [2007] 3 All ER 241 at [43] applied.
Notes
For the duty to provide sewerage system, see 38 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 625, for water: liability and statutory authority, see 49(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2004 reissue) para 261, and for water: nuisance by public authority, see 49(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2004 reissue) para 671.
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For the Water Industry Act 1991, s 94, see 49 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 970.
For the Human Rights Act 1998, s 7, see 7 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 684.
Cases referred to in judgment
Allen v Gulf Oil Refining Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 353, [1981] AC 1001, [1981] 2 WLR 188, HL
A-G v Colney Hatch Lunatic Asylum (1868) 4 Ch App 146.
Anufrijeva v Southwark London BC, R (on the application of N) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of M) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 1406, [2004] 1 All ER 833, [2004] QB 1124, [2004] 2 WLR 603.
Baron v Portslade UDC [1900] 2 QB 588, CA.
Barrett v Enfield London BC [1999] 3 All ER 193, [2001] 2 AC 550, [1999] 3 WLR 79, HL.
British Waterways Board v Severn Trent Water Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 276, [2001] 3 All ER 673, [2002] Ch 25, [2001] 3 WLR 613.
Cameron v Network Rail Infrastructure Ltd [2006] EWHC 1133 (QB), [2007] 3 All ER 241, [2007] 1 WLR 163.
Chaplin v Hicks [1911] 2 KB 786, [1911-13] All ER Rep 224, CA.
Delamere Mansions Ltd v Westminster City Council [2001] UKHL 55, [2001] 4 All ER 737, [2002] 1 AC 321, [2001] 3 WLR 1007.
Dennis v Ministry of Defence [2003] EWHC 793 (QB), [2003] 2 EGLR 121.
Fadeyeva v Russia [2005] ECHR 55723/00, 9 June 2005, ECt HR.
Farley v Skinner [2001] UKHL 49, [2001] 4 All ER 801, [2002] 2 AC 732, [2001] 3 WLR 899.
Geddis v Proprietors of Bann Reservoir (1878) 3 App Cas 430, HL.
Goldman v Hargrave [1966] 2 All ER 989, [1967] 1 AC 645, [1966] 3 WLR 513.
Hammersmith and City Rly Co v Brand (1869) LR 4 HL 171, HL.
Holbeck Hall Hotel Ltd v Scarborough BC [2000] 2 All ER 705, [2000] QB 836, [2000] 2 WLR 1396, CA.
Hounslow London BC v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2003] EWHC 1197 (Admin), [2004] QB 212, [2003] 3 WLR 1243, DC.
Hunter v Canary Wharf Ltd; Hunter v London Docklands Development Corp [1997] 2 All ER 426, [1997] AC 655, [1997] 2 WLR 684, HL.
Hyde v Emery (1984) 6 Cr App R (S) 206, DC.
Kane v New Forest DC [2001] EWCA Civ 878, [2001] 3 All ER 914, [2002] 1 WLR 312.
Leakey v Natural Trust for Places of Historic Interest or Natural Beauty [1980] 1 All ER 17, [1980] QB 485, [1980] 2 WLR 65, CA.
Marcic v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2003] UKHL 66, [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42, [2003] 3 WLR 1603; affg [2002] EWCA Civ 64, [2002] 2 All ER 55, [2002] QB 929, [2002] 2 WLR 932; rvsg in part [2001] 3 All ER 698.
Metropolitan Asylum District Managers v Hill (1881) 6 App Cas 193, [1881–5] All ER Rep 536, HL.
Ministry of Defence v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1620, [2006] All ER (D) 391 (Nov).
Pride of Derby and Derbyshire Angling Association Ltd v British Celanese Ltd [1953] 1 All ER 179, [1953] Ch 149, [1953] 2 WLR 58, CA.
Queally v London Borough of Brent (6 December 1996, unreported), QBD.
Page 365 of [2008] 2 All ER 362
R v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions, ex p Spath Holme Ltd [2001] 1 All ER 195, [2001] 2 AC 349, [2001] 2 WLR 15, HL.
R v Falmouth and Truro Port Health Authority, ex p South West Water Ltd [2000] 3 All ER 306, [2001] QB 445, [2000] 3 WLR 1464, CA.
R (on the application of Greenfield) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 14, [2005] 2 All ER 240, [2005] 1 WLR 673.
Robinson v Mayor and Corp of the Borough of Workington [1897] 1 QB 619, CA.
Ruxley Electronics and Construction Ltd v Forsyth; Laddingford Enclosures Ltd v Forsyth [1995] 3 All ER 268, [1996] AC 344, [1995] 3 WLR 118, HL.
Scordino v Italy (No 1) [2006] ECHR 36813/97, 29 March 2006, ECt HR.
Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callagan (Trustees for St Joseph’s Society for Foreign Missions) [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880, HL.
Smeaton v Ilford Corp [1954] 1 All ER 923, [1954] Ch 450, [1954] 2 WLR 668.
South Wales Electricity plc v Director General of Electricity Supply (1999) Times, October 28, Ch D.
Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] AC 498, [1993] 2 WLR 120, HL.
Watts v Morrow [1991] 4 All ER 937, [1991] 1 WLR 1421, CA.
Preliminary issues
Hanifa Dobson and some 1,300 other residents of Isleworth and Twickenham (the claimants) brought proceedings against Thames Water Utilities Ltd. A group litigation order dated 21 December 2005 applied to the proceedings. The group statement of case served on 9 March 2006 pleaded that odours and mosquitoes from the Mogden Sewage Treatment Works in Mogden Lane, Isleworth, Middlesex had caused a nuisance, that they had been caused by the negligence of Thames Water and that Thames Water had breached rights under art 8(1) of, and art 1 of the First Protocol to, the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). The claimants sought damages for nuisance, negligence and damages under the 1998 Act. The Water Services Regulation Authority (Ofwat) was granted permission to intervene on 27 October 2006. Directions were given for the trial of the preliminary issues set out at [42]–[43], [84]–[85], [155]–[156], [159]–[160], [172]–[173], [178]–[179], [186]–[189], [211]–[212], [223]–[224], [236]–[237], [245]–[246], [252]–[253], below). The facts are set out in the judgment.
John Hand QC and John Bates (instructed by Hugh James) for the claimants.
David Hart QC and Michael Daiches (instructed by Osborne Clarke) for Thames Water.
Josh Holmes (instructed by Ofwat) for Ofwat.
Judgment was reserved.
24 August 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
RAMSEY J.
INTRODUCTION
[1] These proceedings between multiple claimants (the claimants) and Thames Water Utilities Ltd (Thames Water) arise from complaints made by the residents of Isleworth and Twickenham who live in the vicinity of the Mogden
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Sewage Treatment Works (Mogden STW) situated in Mogden Lane, Isleworth, Middlesex.
[2] A group litigation order dated 21 December 2005 applies to these proceedings. The claimants are divided into two categories: those who have occupied properties as owners or lessees and those who have occupied without any legal interest in the properties.
[3] The claimants served a group statement of case on 9 March 2006 in which they pleaded that odours and mosquitoes from the Mogden STW have caused a nuisance; that they have been caused by the negligence of Thames Water and that Thames Water have breached rights under art 8(1) of and art 1 of the First Protocol to the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998). As a result the claimants seek damages for nuisance, negligence and damages under the 1998 Act for breach of their human rights.
[4] In the defence to the group statement of case, Thames Water raised various threshold defences to the claims. In particular, it contended that complaints about odour or mosquitoes from Mogden STW were complaints of a failure of its duties under s 94(1)(b) of the Water Industry Act 1991 effectually to deal with the contents of sewers at Mogden STW and/or a failure to treat wastewater received and discharged by Mogden STW in accordance with the Urban Waste Water Treatment Regulations 1994, SI 1994/2841. Thames Water contends that such failures are enforceable under s 18 of the 1991 Act by the Water Services Regulation Authority (Ofwat), which was substituted for the Director General of Water Services by s 34 of the Water Act 2003.
[5] As a result, Thames Water submits that no common law remedy or remedy under the 1998 Act lies to enforce those duties, whether in nuisance, negligence, nuisance by reference to negligence or under the 1998 Act because such causes of action are precluded by the decision of the House of Lords in Marcic v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2003] UKHL 66, [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42. In addition Thames Water raises various other defences in relation to damages and limitation.
[6] Because these proceedings raise matters which concern the duties of a sewerage undertaker under the 1991 Act and the extent to which remedies involving Ofwat precluded other causes of action, Ofwat applied for permission to intervene in particular in relation to issues arising from the decision in Marcic’s case. I granted permission on 27 October 2006 under CPR 19.2.
[7] Directions were given for the identification and formulation of preliminary issues and for the agreement of any necessary factual assumptions. The final formulation of the issues was set out in an order dated 24 January 2007 which included at annex 1 the factual assumptions and legislative provisions on which the trial of the issues was to be based.
[8] Written submissions were provided on behalf of the claimants, Thames Water and Ofwat and a hearing limited to oral submissions was held on 19, 20 and 21 March 2007.
[9] Mr John Hand QC and Mr John Bates appeared for the claimants; Mr David Hart QC and Mr Michael Daiches appeared for Thames Water and Mr Josh Holmes appeared for Ofwat.
[10] The issues are conveniently divided into three categories: (1) The Marcic issues (issues 1 to 5); (2) Damages issues (issues 6 to 11); (3) Limitation issues (issues 12 to 14).
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THE MARCIC ISSUES
[11] The fundamental question which arises on issues 1 to 5 is the extent to which a common law remedy exists given the statutory provisions in s 94(1) of the 1991 Act. This issue requires an analysis of those common law remedies and the provisions of the 1991 Act in the light of the decision of the House of Lords in Marcic’s case.
[12] In Marcic’s case, a claim was made by Mr Marcic against Thames Water in respect of flooding to his property from an external sewer. He sought a mandatory order compelling Thames Water to improve its sewerage system. In addition he sought damages. He relied on a common law cause of action in nuisance and on art 8(1) of and art 1 of the First Protocol to the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950, as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act.
The decision in Marcic
[13] It is convenient to make some general observations on the decision in Marcic’s case before considering the issues which I have to determine.
[14] In the House of Lords, the two main speeches were by Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead and Lord Hoffmann. Lord Steyn and Lord Scott of Foscote agreed with both of those speeches. Lord Hope of Craighead agreed with the speech of Lord Nicholls but set out his own reasons in respect of art 8(1) and art 1. In summary, the House of Lords held that Mr Marcic could not succeed either on the basis of nuisance or under the 1998 Act.
[15] In relation to nuisance, Lord Nicholls held at [33] and [34] that the ‘common law of nuisance should not impose on Thames Water obligations inconsistent with the statutory scheme’ and that Mr Marcic’s claim was, in effect, that ‘Thames Water ought to build more sewers’. He said at [35] that:
‘. . . Individual householders may bring proceedings in respect of inadequate drainage only when the undertaker has failed to comply with an enforcement order made by the Secretary of State or the Director. The existence of a parallel common law right, whereby individual householders who suffer sewer flooding may themselves bring court proceedings when no enforcement order has been made, would set at nought the statutory scheme. It would effectively supplant the regulatory role the Director was intended to discharge when questions of sewer flooding arise.’
[16] Lord Hoffmann said at [64] that under the 1991 Act and under previous legislation ‘the question of whether more or better sewers should be constructed has been entrusted by Parliament to administrators rather than judges’ and that ‘[t]hese are decisions which courts are not equipped to make in ordinary litigation’. He said at [70] that the 1991 Act—
‘makes it even clear[er] than the earlier legislation that Parliament did not intend the fairness of priorities to be decided by a judge. It intended the decision to rest with the Director, subject only to judicial review. It would subvert the scheme of the 1991 Act if the courts were to impose upon the sewerage undertakers, on a case-by-case basis, a system of priorities which is different from that which the Director considers appropriate.’
Page 368 of [2008] 2 All ER 362
[17] In Marcic’s case the relevant provision of the 1991 Act was s 94(1)(a) which provides:
‘It shall be the duty of every sewerage undertaker—(a) to provide, improve and extend such a system of public sewers (whether inside its area or elsewhere) . . . as to ensure that that area is and continues to be effectually drained.’
[18] Section 94(3) of the 1991 Act provides that ‘[t]he duty of a sewerage undertaker under subsection (1) above shall be enforceable under section 18 above’ by Ofwat.
[19] Under s 18(1) if Ofwat is satisfied that the company is contravening or is likely to contravene any statutory requirement which is enforceable under s 18 then Ofwat shall by a final enforcement order make such provision as is requisite for the purpose of seeking compliance with that requirement.
[20] Although s 18(1) indicates that Ofwat ‘shall’ make a final enforcement order the mandatory nature of that requirement is reduced by two provisions. First, under s 18(2) Ofwat may, instead of making a final order, make a provisional enforcement order. Secondly, s 19(1) provides that, in summary, Ofwat shall not be required to make an enforcement order if satisfied that the contraventions are of a trivial nature or that the company has given and is complying with an undertaking or, importantly, that the duties imposed on Ofwat by Pt I of the 1991 Act preclude the making of an enforcement order. The provisions of Pt I impose various requirements on the manner in which Ofwat can perform its duties which take into account wider considerations in relation to such matters as finance and charging, the position of all customers and environmental considerations.
[21] In Marcic’s case therefore the House of Lords held that Mr Marcic could not bring a cause of action based on nuisance or breach of human rights in relation to the duty to provide, improve and extend the system of public sewers under s 94(1)(a) of the 1991 Act.
[22] In this case the question raised is whether that ‘Marcic principle’ applies to all the duties under s 94(1) and, in particular, those under s 94(1)(b) and, if so, whether that precludes the claimants’ pleaded causes of action based on nuisance, negligence and breach of human rights.
Nuisance
[23] The cause of action in nuisance alleged in Marcic’s case was based on a line of authority built on the decision in Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callagan (Trustees for St Joseph’s Society for Foreign Missions) [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880, as applied in Goldman v Hargrave [1966] 2 All ER 989, [1967] 1 AC 645 and Leakey v Natural Trust for Places of Historic Interest or Natural Beauty [1980] 1 All ER 17, [1980] QB 485, with a similar approach being adopted in Holbeck Hall Hotel Ltd v Scarborough BC [2000] 2 All ER 705, [2000] QB 836 and Delamere Mansions Ltd v Westminster City Council [2001] UKHL 55, [2001] 4 All ER 737, [2002] 1 AC 321. I shall refer to this as nuisance based on the ‘Leakey principle’.
[24] As Lord Nicholls said at para [32] of Marcic’s case, the Leakey principle establishes—
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‘that occupation of land carries with it a duty to one’s neighbour. An occupier must do whatever is reasonable in all the circumstances to prevent hazards on his land, however they may arise, from causing damage to a neighbour.’
[25] In the context of Marcic’s case the Leakey principle would require a court to decide, in particular, whether Thames Water owed a duty to take such steps as were reasonable in all the circumstances to prevent the discharge of surface and foul water onto Mr Marcic’s property. Mr Marcic contended that this duty, in his case, required the construction of new sewers.
The duty to build new sewers
[26] The duty to build new sewers is one imposed on Thames Water by s 94(1)(a) of the 1991 Act and is enforceable by Ofwat who have to take into account and balance a number of considerations. Under the 1991 Act Thames Water therefore only has to comply with any enforcement order and only to the extent of that enforcement order.
[27] In principle, therefore, the court could come to a conclusion that Thames Water should construct a new sewer as part of a remedy for the claim in nuisance whilst, at the same time, Ofwat might under the 1991 Act determine not to issue an enforcement order or decide to issue one on terms which required different works to be carried out by Thames Water, to those required to remedy any nuisance.
[28] The reason in Marcic’s case for not imposing a remedy at common law in nuisance was that the obligations imposed would be inconsistent with and conflict with the statutory scheme under the 1991 Act.
[29] Lord Nicholls and Lord Hoffmann both referred to a line of authority dealing with remedies for breach of an obligation to make ‘such sewers as may be needed for effectually draining their district’ under s 15 of the Public Health Act 1875 and a similar provision in s 14 of the Public Health Act 1936.
[30] That line of authority was dealt with in para [30] of Marcic’s case by Lord Nicholls and at paras [54]–[55] by Lord Hoffmann. Lord Nicholls cited a passage from the judgment of Lord Esher in Robinson v Mayor and Corp of the Borough of Workington [1897] 1 QB 619 at 621 where he said:
‘It has been laid down for many years that, if a duty is imposed by statute which but for the statute would not exist, and a remedy for default or breach of that duty is provided by the statute that creates the duty, that is the only remedy. The remedy in this case is under s. 299, which points directly to s. 15, and shews what is to be done for default of the duty imposed by that section. That is not the remedy sought for in this action, which is brought to recover damages.’
[31] Lord Nicholls said that the existence of this general principle of statutory interpretation had been constantly followed in relation to the 1875 and 1936 Acts.
[32] Lord Hoffmann dealing with the line of authority said at [54] that:
‘Until the decision of the Court of Appeal in this case, there was a line of authority which laid down that the failure of a sewage authority to construct new sewers did not constitute an actionable nuisance. The only remedy was
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by way of enforcement of the statutory duty now contained in s 94(1) of the 1991 Act, previously contained in s 14 of the Public Health Act 1936 and before that in s 15 of the Public Health Act 1875. The earlier acts also had a special procedure for enforcement which the courts held to be exhaustive . . .’
[33] At [55] Lord Hoffmann cited the following passage from the judgment of Denning LJ in Pride of Derby and Derbyshire Angling Association Ltd v British Celanese Ltd [1953] 1 All ER 179 at 202, [1953] Ch 149 at 190, as setting out the effect of the previous authorities:
‘When a local authority take over or construct a sewage and drainage system which is adequate at the time to dispose of the sewage and surface water for their district, but which subsequently becomes inadequate owing to increased building which they cannot control, and for which they have no responsibility, they are not guilty of the ensuing nuisance. They obviously do not create it, nor do they continue it merely by doing nothing to enlarge or improve the system. The only remedy of the injured party is to complain to the Minister [of Health, under the 1936 Act enforcement procedure].’
[34] Lord Hoffmann also referred at [56] to the passage in the judgment of Upjohn J in Smeaton v Ilford Corp [1954] 1 All ER 923, [1954] Ch 450, a case where overloading caused the corporation’s foul sewer to erupt through a manhole and discharge ‘deleterious and malodorous matter’ into Mr Smeaton’s garden. Upjohn J said, [1954] 1 All ER 923 at 928–929, [1954] Ch 450 at 464–465:
‘No doubt, the defendants are bound to provide and maintain the sewers (see the Public Health Act, 1936, s 14), but they are not thereby causing or adopting the nuisance. It is not the sewers that constitute the nuisance; it is the fact that they are overloaded. That overloading, however, arises not from any act of the defendants but because, under the Public Health Act, 1936, s 34 . . . they are bound to permit occupiers of premises to make connections to the sewer and to discharge their sewage therein . . . Nor, in my judgment, can the defendant corporation be said to continue the nuisance, for they have no power to prevent the ingress of sewage into the sewer.’
[35] The emphasis in those passages is on the lack of control or responsibility of the local authority where an adequate system existed and becomes inadequate because of the increased use from new connections or buildings. That reasoning, it appears, is a, if not the, relevant policy consideration for not imposing liability in nuisance but rather limiting the remedy to that under statute.
The Leakey principle
[36] The attack by Mr Marcic on those authorities in Marcic’s case was based on the Leakey principle.
[37] Lord Nicholls said at [33] that the cases from which the Leakey principle was to be derived—
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‘exemplify the standard of conduct expected today of an occupier of land towards his neighbour. But Thames Water is no ordinary occupier of land . . . The common law of nuisance should not impose on Thames Water obligations inconsistent with the statutory scheme . . .’
[38] Lord Hoffmann said at [62] and [63] that the difference between that line of authority and cases relating to sewers was that Sedleigh-Denfield v O’Callagan (Trustees for St Joseph’s Society for Foreign Missions) [1940] 3 All ER 349, [1940] AC 880, Goldman v Hargrave [1966] 2 All ER 989, [1967] 1 AC 645 and Leakey’s case were—
‘[62] . . . dealing with disputes between neighbouring land owners simply in their capacity as individual landowners. In such cases it is fair and efficient to impose reciprocal duties upon each landowner to take whatever steps are reasonable to prevent his land becoming a source of injury to his neighbour . . .’
He said that—
‘[63] . . . the court in such cases is performing its usual function of deciding what is reasonable as between the two parties to the action. But the exercise becomes very different when one is dealing with the capital expenditure of a statutory undertaking providing public utilities on a large scale . . .’
[39] Lord Hoffmann referred to the wider considerations which arise in respect of such decisions and added at [64]:
‘These are decisions which courts are not equipped to make in ordinary litigation. It is therefore not surprising that for more than a century the question of whether more or better sewers should be constructed has been entrusted by Parliament to administrators rather than judges . . .’
[40] It is evident from both speeches that in relation to a statutory undertaker’s duty under s 94(1)(a) of the 1991 Act ‘to provide, improve and extend such a system of public sewers’, the statutory scheme of enforcement under the 1991 Act was the only remedy and there was no remedy in nuisance.
[41] This case raises the wider question of whether the Marcic principle is limited to that particular duty under s 94(1)(a) of the 1991 Act or whether it applies more generally to the duties under s 94(1)(a) and (b).
[42] With these observations on the decision in Marcic’s case I now turn to issues 1 to 5.
Issue 1: Are the claimants seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act in respect of:
a. Odours from the Mogden STW and/or
b. Mosquitoes,
i. falling within para 19.1 of the factual assumptions and/or
ii. falling within para 19.2 of the factual assumptions?
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ISSUE 1(B)(II)
[43] I can deal immediately with the answer to issue 1(b)(ii). It is common ground that the claimants are not seeking to enforce duties under s 94(1)(b) in respect of mosquitoes which live and breed on the Mogden STW site but do so not as a result of the sewage or sewage sludge or the plant and equipment holding or treating the sewage sludge. In particular, there are mosquitoes which live and breed in areas of standing surface water and lush vegetation.
ISSUES 1(A) AND 1(B)(I)
[44] In relation to the other parts of this issue, I have to consider the claimants’ claims in respect of odours from Mogden STW and the effects of mosquitoes, which ‘live and breed as a result of sewage or sewage sludge at Mogden STW and/or the plant and equipment at Mogden STW holding or treating such sewage or sewage sludge’. Do those claims seek to enforce the duty under s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act?
[45] The claimants contend that they are not seeking to enforce duties under s 94(1)(b) whereas Thames Water, supported by Ofwat, contends that the claimants are seeking to enforce such duties.
[46] In construing the 1991 Act it has to be borne in mind that it is a consolidating statute. As Peter Gibson LJ said in British Waterways Board v Severn Trent Water Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 276 at [6], [2001] 3 All ER 673 at [6], [2002] Ch 25:
‘The Water Industry Act is a consolidation Act (with amendments, not material to this case, to give effect to recommendations of the Law Commission). As has recently been reaffirmed by the House of Lords in R v Secretary of State for the Environment, Transport and the Regions, ex p Spath Holme Ltd [2001] 1 All ER 195, [2001] 2 AC 349, the court when construing a consolidation Act will normally seek to ascertain the intention of Parliament by looking only to the way that intention was expressed in the words used in that Act and will not construe that Act by reference to the repealed statutes which the enactment has consolidated. The good sense of that rule is obvious: there would be little benefit in consolidation if the ascertainment of the intention of Parliament required recourse to the antecedent legislation in the hope that that would provide a sufficiently clear indication of the meaning of the statutory language in the consolidating Act. But that rule is subject to exceptions. If there is an ambiguity in the consolidation Act or if the court finds itself unable to interpret a provision in that Act in the social and factual context which originally led to its enactment, then it will be permissible to look at the superseded legislation for such help as it may give (see [2001] 1 All ER 195 at 208, [2001] 2 WLR at 28 per Lord Bingham of Cornhill, with whom on this point Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead and Lord Cooke of Thornden agreed). The starting point is the consolidation Act itself.’
[47] Here the relevant duty to consider is that under s 94(1)(b). It is appropriate to consider the whole of s 94(1) which provides:
‘It shall be the duty of every sewerage undertaker—(a) to provide, improve and extend such a system of public sewers (whether inside its area or elsewhere) and so to cleanse and maintain those sewers . . . as to ensure that
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that area is and continues to be effectually drained; and (b) to make provision for the emptying of those sewers and such further provision (whether inside its area or elsewhere) as is necessary from time to time for effectually dealing, by means of sewage disposal works or otherwise, with the contents of those sewers.’
The claimants’ submissions
[48] The claimants submit that s 94(1)(b) is only concerned with ‘effectually dealing . . . with the contents of those sewers’ and that this obligation is only concerned with getting rid of the contents of the sewers and not with environmental protection issues. In particular, the claimants contend that: (1) Unlike s 94(1)(a), there is no duty under s 94(1)(b) to ‘cleanse and maintain’ and one cannot be implied: South Wales Electricity plc v Director General of Electricity Supply (1999) Times, October 28. (2) ‘Effectually dealing’ with the contents is a question of degree. The existence of odours or mosquitoes does not mean the contents of the sewers have not been effectually dealt with. (3) Effectually dealing with the contents does not extend to treatment of the contents. The dictionary definition of to ‘deal with’ something is ‘to act in regard to, administer, handle, dispose in any way of (a thing)’. The claimants draw support for this meaning from the use of the word ‘disposal’ as describing the duty to deal effectually with the contents of sewers in the judgment of Simon Brown LJ in R v Falmouth and Truro Port Health Authority, ex p South West Water Ltd [2000] 3 All ER 306, [2001] QB 445. (4) British Waterways Board v Severn Trent Water Ltd [2001] 3 All ER 673 at [41], [2002] Ch 25 illustrates the claimants’ contention that the duty in s 94(1)(b) is concerned with ‘getting rid’ of the contents of sewers rather than environmental protection. The claimants contend that the reference to ‘provided that it does not cause pollution’ is a reference to the requirements of ss 117(5) and 186(3), even though these provisions do not apply to s 94 as set out in para 84 of the judgment, otherwise those provisions would be otiose.
[49] The claimants submit that the considerations which arose in Marcic’s case in relation to s 94(1)(a) do not apply here. The claimants refer to the assumed fact that the emission of odours and the infestation of mosquitoes have been caused by the negligence of Thames Water, and submit that there is no question of the nuisance arising because of the duty of Thames Water to accept connections to its sewerage system under s 106 of the 1991 Act. The claimants contend issues of capital expenditure and the regulation of the industry by Ofwat which arise under s 94(1)(a) do not arise under s 94(1)(b). The claimants submit that Thames Water has other sources of finance and the fact that Ofwat might allow works to abate the nuisance as part of the price-setting process is irrelevant. Further the claimants submit that the question here is not whether sewage works with greater capacity should be built, which is equivalent to ‘better sewers’ in Marcic’s case. The claimants submit that the relevant issue is the need for sewage works with ‘better environmental controls’ which falls outside Marcic’s case. Rather, the claimants contend that the issue is the use of the sewage works or a failure to cleanse and maintain, not a question of capacity.
[50] Therefore, the claimants submit that no complaint lies to Ofwat based on s 94(1)(b) in respect of pollution of waters by sewers or sewage treatment works or for odours and mosquitoes arising from that source.
[51] Further the claimants also say that if the causes of action which they seek to pursue were ones by which they were seeking to enforce s 94(1)(b) duties then
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under Marcic’s case a cause of action in nuisance would be excluded. In the circumstances, the claimants contend that if a cause of action in nuisance were not available then the effect of s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act would be to give a right to the statutory undertaker to cause a nuisance by odour and mosquitoes from sewage treatment works if measures to abate the nuisance would not be cost effective. The claimants point to agreed fact 15:
‘There is no statutory compensation scheme under the [Water Supply and Sewerage Services (Customer Service Standards) Regulations 1989, SI 1989/1159] (as amended) regarding nuisance in respect of odours, mosquitoes or otherwise from sewage treatment works.’
[52] Finally, the claimants refer to s 80 of the Environment Protection Act 1990 which enables a local authority to serve an abatement notice in respect of a ‘statutory nuisance’ and to s 82 which provides for an individual to issue a summons in the magistrate’s court in respect of such a nuisance. The claimants refer to the decision in Hounslow London BC v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2003] EWHC 1197 (Admin), [2004] QB 212, [2003] 3 WLR 1243 arising out of the odour at Mogden STW as showing that odour from sewage treatment works is capable of being a statutory nuisance under s 79(1)(d) of the 1990 Act.
[53] In addition, the claimants refer to a Code of Practice on Odour Nuisance from Sewage Treatment Works issued by the Department for Environment, Food and Rural Affairs (DEFRA) which sets out the practice to be followed by local authority environmental health officers in respect of statutory nuisance proceedings under the 1990 Act. The claimants refer to Ofwat’s response to the DEFRA consultation on that code and submit that Ofwat did not seek to argue that the enforcement regime under the 1991 Act was an exclusive regime, in the context of that provision of the 1990 Act.
[54] As a result, the claimants contend that they are not seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b) but are seeking to enforce separate common law rights or rights under the 1998 Act.
Submissions by Thames Water
[55] In response, Thames Water submits that s 94(1)(b) contains two duties. The first is a duty to make provision for emptying the sewers and the second is a duty to make provision for effectually dealing with the contents of the sewers.
[56] Thames Water submits that the duty to empty under the first part of s 94(1)(b) means that the second part of that sub-section applies to the contents when emptied and is aimed at dealing with the contents of the sewers. Further Thames Water submits that the contents cannot be effectually dealt with unless that phrase includes treatment where necessary, so as to reduce the harmful and polluting effects of the sewage, typically such treatment being carried out in a sewage disposal works.
[57] In particular Thames Water refers to: (1) s 219(1) of the 1991 Act where disposal is defined as including treatment; (2) s 219(2)(b) and (1) of the 1991 Act as showing that sewage disposal works do not fall within the definition of sewers.
[58] Thames Water also relies on the words ‘as is necessary from time to time’ in s 94(1)(b) as implying that what is necessary may vary over time and therefore requires a sewerage undertaker to improve or upgrade the treatment methods.
[59] Thames Water says that like the duty to ensure that an area is ‘effectually drained’ in s 94(1)(a), the duty to make provision for ‘effectually dealing’ with the
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contents of the sewer is not absolute. Rather, Thames Water submits that the duty in both cases is one which has to be complied with to the standard ultimately determined by Ofwat.
[60] Thames Water also relies on the provision of the 1994 Regulations which implements an EC Council Directive by amending s 94 of the 1991 Act as follows by reg 4(4):
‘The duty imposed by subsection (1)(b) of the said section 94 shall include a duty to ensure that urban waste water entering collecting systems is, before discharge, subject to treatment provided in accordance with regulation 5, and to ensure that—(a) plants built in order to comply with that regulation are designed (account being taken of seasonal variations of the load), constructed, operated and maintained to ensure sufficient performance under all normal local climatic conditions; (b) treated waste water and sludge arising from waste water treatment are reused whenever appropriate; and (c) disposal routes for treated waste water and sludge minimise the adverse effects on the environment.’
[61] This provision, Thames Water submits, shows that under this amendment Ofwat has the duty to ensure that disposal routes minimise the adverse effects on the environment and therefore it cannot be argued that s 94(1)(b) is not concerned with environmental protection.
[62] Thames Water states that it is not contending for an implied term or that the substance of the claimants’ complaint is that Thames Water failed to cleanse and maintain. Rather Thames Water submits that the claimants are saying that Thames Water omitted to make ‘further provision’ as was ‘necessary from time to time for effectually dealing’ with the contents of the sewers and that all such questions are matters solely for Ofwat.
[63] Thames Water does not accept that the statutory scheme differs between s 94(1)(a) and s 94(1)(b). It submits that the two sub-sections are clearly related and, although dealing with different operations, are both the subject of precisely the same statutory enforcement scheme.
[64] In response to the claimants’ contention that, as construed by Thames Water, s 94(1)(b) would give them a right to commit a nuisance without compensation, Thames Water submits that: (1) there is nothing objectionable in that conclusion and that this was the effect of the decision in Marcic’s case [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42 based on s 94(1)(a); (2) British Waterways Board v Severn Trent Water Ltd [2001] 3 All ER 673, [2002] Ch 25 was concerned with trespass which is actionable without proof of damage and is therefore distinguishable; (3) the ability of Ofwat to act by making enforcement orders means that the period for compensation under s 94(1)(b) would be limited.
[65] Thames Water submits that the claimants’ claim, in summary, is that Thames Water should have dedicated more resources to addressing odours and mosquito problems at Mogden STW. This, Thames Water contends, is where Ofwat’s involvement under the statutory scheme conflicts with such complaints being dealt with in court. Thames Water states that Ofwat is concerned with: (1) the impact of capital expenditure on water charges; (2) the impact of operating expenditure on water charges; (3) the requirement for water charges to represent a fair return on capital.
[66] Thames Water refers to paras 11–13 of the factual assumptions and submits that Ofwat’s authorisation of limited capital expenditure for reduction of
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odour emissions shows that, if the courts could decide on the requirement for emission reduction, there would be likely to be inconsistent determinations by Ofwat and the courts. Further, the fact that Thames Water has other sources of revenue does not, Thames Water submits, affect the position because there was the same situation in Marcic’s case.
[67] Thames Water submits that the decision in Baron v Portslade UDC [1900] 2 QB 588 is distinguishable because the breach of the duty to cleanse sewers was not enforceable by the statutory regime existing at that time, whereas here under s 94(1)(b) and (3) of the 1991 Act, the duty is only enforceable by Ofwat under s 18.
Submissions by Ofwat
[68] Ofwat supports the submissions made by Thames Water and submits that the duty to make provision for effectually dealing with the contents of sewers under s 94(1)(b), on its natural meaning, encompasses an obligation to treat the sewage in such a way as to render it reasonably harmless and inoffensive. Ofwat contends that sewage is not effectually dealt with if it gives rise to unreasonable odours or to insect infestations while at a sewage treatment works.
[69] Ofwat submits that the wider statutory context supports the natural meaning and it adopts Thames Water’s submissions regarding the 1994 Regulations. Ofwat also refers to its general environmental duty when formulating any proposals relating to any functions of a relevant undertaker. That duty, under s 3(2)(c) of the 1991 Act is to ‘take into account any effect which the proposals would have on the beauty or amenity of any rural or urban area or on any such flora, fauna, features, buildings, sites or objects’. In Ofwat’s submission, there is no basis for construing s 94(1)(b) as being concerned only with ‘getting rid of the contents of sewers’ to the exclusion of ‘environmental protection’.
[70] Ofwat submits that the claimants cannot gain support from various matters: (1) British Waterways Board v Severn Trent Water Ltd does not support the contention that s 94(1)(b) is confined to getting rid of the contents of sewers. On the facts of that case it was only the question of discharge of water from sewers into canals and watercourses which was in issue. The reference by Peter Gibson LJ to the need for a sewerage undertaker not to ‘cause pollution’ when discharging the contents of sewers is a corollary of the duty of effectual dealing and not, as the claimants contend, a reference to the requirements of ss 117(5) and 186(3) of the 1991 Act which Peter Gibson LJ notes in para [42] ‘do not extend to the functions in [s] 94’. (2) Ex p South West Water Ltd did not concern the scope of s 94(1)(b). Simon Brown LJ referred to the ‘disposal’ rather than the ‘treatment’ of sewage because the case involved discharge. In any event, the claimants appear to acknowledge that ‘disposal’ encompasses disposal by treatment at a sewage works. (3) The DEFRA Code of Practice on Odour Nuisance from Sewage Treatment Works and the judgment in Hounslow London BC v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2004] QB 212, [2003] 3 WLR 1243 do not support the proposition that s 94(1)(b) cannot encompass an obligation to avoid the unreasonable emission of odours from sewage treatment works. In so far as they might suggest that the statutory nuisance regime applies to the emission of odours from sewage treatment works, nothing in the DEFRA code could affect the proper construction of s 94(1)(b) and Hounslow London BC v Thames Water Utilities Ltd was decided before the House of Lords’ decision in Marcic’s case.
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Decision
[71] The central question is whether the claimants are seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act in respect of odours from the Mogden STW and/or mosquitoes.
[72] Thames Water, supported by Ofwat, contends that the claimants are seeking to enforce the duty on Thames Water, as a sewerage undertaker, to make such provision as is necessary from time to time for effectually dealing, by means of sewage disposal works or otherwise, with the contents of those sewers. The issue between the parties is whether the phrase ‘effectually dealing’ means that Thames Water has to deal with the contents of the sewers so as to avoid odours or mosquitoes.
[73] It is common ground that what is needed to deal effectually with the content of sewers is a matter of degree. However, where the contents of a sewer when emptied at a sewage treatment works causes odours and mosquitoes then I consider that, on the natural meaning of that phrase, the contents of the sewers have not been effectually dealt with.
[74] I reach this conclusion for the following reasons. (1) The provision in s 94(1)(b) has two obligations: to empty the contents and to deal with the contents. Whilst in some circumstances merely emptying the contents might ‘effectually deal’ with that contents, there will generally be something further that has to be done. (2) If the obligation to deal effectually were limited to ‘getting rid’ of the contents then it is difficult to see what more would have to be done that was not covered by the obligation to ‘empty’ the contents. (3) What has to be done is a matter of degree. The obligation under s 94(1)(b) expressly refers to ‘effectually dealing’ as being ‘by means of sewage disposal works or otherwise’. The fact that a sewage disposal works is one of the means indicates that such a process may be necessary. Under the 1991 Act ‘disposal’ is defined under s 219(1) which states ‘disposal . . . in relation to sewage, includes treatment’. In those circumstances, what has to be done to deal effectually with the contents of sewers includes treatment. (4) There is no need to imply any duty to ‘maintain or cleanse’, as suggested by the claimants. The obligation to deal effectually with the contents of sewers imposes a sufficient relevant obligation. (5) There is a requirement to have regard to environmental pollution as part of the duty under s 94(1)(b). This, in my judgment, is consistent with s 3(2)(c) of the 1991 Act and the amendment to s 94(1)(b) introduced by reg 4(4) of the 1994 Regulations which is premised on the basis that treatment may be included as part of the process of effectually dealing with the contents of sewers under s 94(1)(b). (6) One of the purposes of the requirement for effectually dealing with the contents is therefore to treat the sewage in such a way as to render it reasonably harmless and inoffensive. I consider that this would include treatment so that it does not give rise to unreasonable odours or to insect infestations, while at a sewage treatment works.
[75] I gain support for this view from the decision in British Waterways Board v Severn Trent Water Ltd [2001] 3 All ER 673, [2002] Ch 25. The question in that case was whether Severn Trent Water had an implied power, incidental to the power to lay and maintain pipes, to discharge the pipes into any available watercourse. In that case, they sought to discharge non-foul surface water into the Stourbridge Canal. In finding that there was no such implied power Peter Gibson LJ, with whom Chadwick and Keene LJJ agreed, relied on s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act as directly addressing the question of discharge and imposing on
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the sewerage undertaker provisions for emptying and effectually dealing with the contents of sewers.
[76] Peter Gibson LJ said at [41]:
‘. . . It can do this by discharge into rivers or the sea (provided that it does not cause pollution or offend environmental controls), by discharge onto its own land (and I have already noted the compulsory purchase power conferred by s 155 of that Act subject to the authority of the Secretary of State), including via its own sewage works, or by procuring the consent of the landowner, such as occurred in the present case until the licence was terminated . . .’ (My emphases.)
[77] The reference to the requirement that the discharge should ‘not cause pollution or offend environmental controls’ is, in my view, derived from the natural meaning of the phrase ‘effectually dealing’. It is not derived from ss 117(5)(b) or 186(3) of the 1991 Act, as the claimants suggest. Section 117(5)(b) requires a sewerage undertaker not to discharge ‘without the water having been so treated as not to affect prejudicially the purity and quality of the water’ into which it flows and s 186(3) prevents a sewerage undertaker from injuriously affecting ‘the supply, quality or fall of water’. As the 1991 Act shows and as Peter Gibson LJ expressly stated in para [42]: ‘the prohibitory provisions of ss 117(5)(b) and 186(3) of the Water Industry Act do not extend to the functions in [s] 94’. He did not, I consider, base his conclusions in para [41] upon any other provisions of the 1991 Act but on the meaning of s 94(1)(b).
[78] I derive no assistance on the need for treatment as part of disposal from the passage in the judgment of Simon Brown LJ in Ex p South West Water Ltd where after referring to the duty under s 94(1) to deal effectually with the contents of sewers he made the general comment ([2000] 3 All ER 306 at 312, [2001] QB 445 at 451) ‘It is, therefore, required to dispose of the sewage from Falmouth’. That has to be viewed in the context of a case dealing with discharge into an estuary. In any event ‘disposal’ is defined to include ‘treatment’ under the 1991 Act.
[79] Whilst I accept that Ofwat’s comments on the DEFRA Code of Practice on Odour Nuisance from Sewage Treatment Works and the judgment in Hounslow London BC v Thames Water Utilities Ltd might be seen as lending support to the claimants’ contention that a cause of action in nuisance is not seeking to enforce s 94(1)(b) duties, I do not consider that they do support it. Ofwat’s comments cannot affect the meaning of the statute and Hounslow London BC v Thames Water Utilities Ltd was decided before the House of Lords’ decision in Marcic’s case and proceeded on a narrow point as to whether the Mogden STW were ‘premises’ under s 79(1)(d) of the 1990 Act without considering the wider issues in Marcic’s case.
[80] I consider that if, in practical terms, the claimants are seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b) then it is under issue 2 that the effect of that conclusion falls to be determined in terms of its impact on causes of action in nuisance and negligence. Thus I consider that whether, in accordance with the assumed facts, the emission of odours and the infestation of mosquitoes have been caused by the negligence of Thames Water, are matters which may be relevant to issue 2 and the scope of the principle in Marcic’s case. Equally whether, if a cause of action in nuisance were not available then the effect of s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act would be to give a right to the statutory undertaker to
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cause a nuisance by odour and mosquitoes, is also a matter to be considered under issue 2.
[81] Issue 1 is concerned with whether the claimants are seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b). That is a question of interpretation of that statute in the light of the claim made by the claimants. In Marcic’s case the claim was not phrased as a claim under s 94(1)(a) any more than the claimants here seek to rely on s 94(1)(b). In Marcic’s case the claim was, in practical terms, that ‘Thames Water ought to build more sewers’. I consider that in this case the claim is, in essence, that ‘Thames Water ought to make further provision for effectually dealing with the contents of sewers’.
[82] In principle, I cannot see why issues of capital expenditure and the regulation of the industry by Ofwat which arise under s 94(1)(a) do not arise under s 94(1)(b). Thames Water may have other sources of finance but that is no different to the position in Marcic’s case. If, as the claimants submit, there is a need for sewage works with ‘better environmental controls’ then I do not consider that this falls outside the statutory regime of s 94(1)(b). I accept, as Thames Water submits, that questions of whether Thames Water omitted to make ‘further provision’ as was ‘necessary from time to time for effectually dealing’ are matters which are best determined by Ofwat.
[83] In summary, I therefore consider that the claimants are seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act in respect of odours from Mogden STW and/or mosquitoes which ‘live and breed as a result of sewage or sewage sludge at Mogden STW and/or the plant and equipment at Mogden STW holding or treating such sewage or sewage sludge’.
[84] Accordingly, the answer to issue 1(a) and issue 1(b)(i) is ‘yes’ and to issue 1(b)(ii) is ‘no’.
Issue 2: If so, are they precluded from bringing a claim in,
a. Nuisance, absent any negligence,
b. Nuisance involving allegations of negligence,
c. Negligence,
d. Under the 1998 Act
by reason of the principle in Marcic’s case, or does s 18(8) of the 1991 Act enable the bringing of such claims despite the principle in Marcic’s case?
[85] The parties’ cases on this issue 2, as finally formulated, were as follows:
Issue 2(a):
Claimants: No, so long as the nuisance is actionable at common law; in any event, nuisance, without negligence, is not alleged by the claimants.
Thames Water: Yes, the claimants’ exclusive remedy is by way of complaint to Ofwat.
Ofwat: Yes.
Issue 2(b):
Claimants: No.
Thames Water: Yes, the claimants’ exclusive remedy is by way of complaint to Ofwat.
Ofwat: No, in so far as the claims involve allegations of negligence in the operation of the sewage treatment works.
Issue 2(c):
Claimants: No.
Thames Water: Yes, the claimants’ exclusive remedy is by way of complaint to Ofwat.
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Ofwat: No, in so far as the claims involve allegations of negligence in the operation of the sewage treatment works.
Issue 2(d)
Claimants: Yes, if any 1998 Act claim is in respect of an alleged infringement of convention rights which on the facts would not be actionable at common law because it would be inconsistent with the 1991 Act; otherwise, no.
Thames Water: Yes, the claimants’ exclusive remedy is by way of complaint to Ofwat and Marcic’s case decides that the statutory scheme is within the margin of appreciation.
Ofwat: No, in so far as the claims involve allegations of negligence in the operation of the sewage treatment works.
NUISANCE, ABSENT NEGLIGENCE
[86] This issue appears to be of academic interest as the claimants do not rely on nuisance in the absence of negligence.
[87] In Marcic’s case the main ground for the claim was on the basis of nuisance. The Court of Appeal [2002] EWCA Civ 64 at [83], [2002] 2 All ER 55 at [83], [2002] QB 929 held that Thames Water were ‘under a duty to Mr Marcic to take such steps as, in all the circumstances, were reasonable to prevent the discharge of surface and foul water onto Mr Marcic’s property.' That decision was reversed by the House of Lords on the basis that an action in nuisance was inconsistent with and excluded by the statutory scheme. In doing so the House of Lords distinguished the position of a statutory undertaker from that of an ordinary occupier of land on whom a duty rests based on Goldman v Hargrave [1966] 2 All ER 989, [1967] 1 AC 645 and Leakey’s case [1980] 1 All ER 17, [1980] QB 485.
[88] In my judgment because, as determined in issue 1, the claimants are seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act in respect of odours from Mogden STW and/or mosquitoes, the principle in Marcic’s case would preclude them from bringing a claim in nuisance based on the Leakey principle, absent any negligence. The claimants are therefore precluded from bringing a claim in nuisance, absent any negligence.
NUISANCE INVOLVING ALLEGATIONS OF NEGLIGENCE
The claimants’ submissions
[89] The claimants submit that their claim is based on Allen v Gulf Oil Refining Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 353, [1981] AC 1001 which was a claim in nuisance involving allegations of negligence. On that basis they contend that the statutory scheme does not, and was not intended to, give Thames Water statutory immunity for negligence, which is not a cause of action which is inconsistent with the statutory scheme.
[90] In Marcic’s case [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42 the claimants submit that the basis of the cause of action in nuisance under the principle in Leakey’s case was confined to non-feasance in the form of the negligent failure to fulfil the statutory duty; it did not extend to misfeasence in the form of a negligent failure to cleanse or maintain the sewers: see Lord Nicholls at [34] and Lord Hoffmann at [53]. The claimants state, however, that in this case they base their claim not on Leakey’s case but on Allen’s case.
[91] The claimants submit that Marcic’s case is not authority that sewerage undertakers enjoy blanket immunity for negligence where they have created the
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harm. They submit that any such immunity would not be consonant with recent developments in the law, as in Kane v New Forest District Council [2001] EWCA Civ 878 at [33], [2001] 3 All ER 914 at [33], [2002] 1 WLR 312 and that making blanket exceptions for negligence is contrary to art 6 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the 1998 Act): Barrett v Enfield London BC [1999] 3 All ER 193 at 199, [2001] 2 AC 550 at 559.
[92] The claimants rely on the speech of Lord Hutton in Barrett v Enfield London BC [1999] 3 All ER 193 at 222, [2001] 2 AC 550 at 583 where he said:
‘It is only where the decision involves the weighing of competing public interests or is dictated by considerations which the courts are not fitted to assess that the courts will hold that the issue is non-justiciable on the ground that the decision was made in the exercise of a statutory discretion.’
They also refer to the distinction between ‘policy’ and ‘operational’ decisions drawn by Lord Browne-Wilkinson in Barrett v Enfield London BC [1999] 3 All ER 193 at 197, [2001] 2 AC 550 at 557.
[93] As a result, the claimants submit that where the operational decision of a statutory authority can be shown to have been negligent and caused harm to the claimants there is no weighing of competing public interests and the court is fitted to assess the negligence involved and its consequences. Such an action would not be inconsistent with the statutory scheme. Accordingly they submit that an action in nuisance involving allegations of negligence can be brought when a sewerage undertaker has created harm by its operations, even if odour and mosquito control fall under the duty in s 94(1)(b).
[94] The claimants also submit that s 18(8) of the 1991 Act enables them to bring an action where the breach of the duty in s 94(1)(b) is the result of an act or omission caused by negligence in the sense used by Lord Wilberforce in Allen’s case [1981] 1 All ER 353 at 355, [1981] AC 1001 at 1011. They also rely on the decision of Dyson J in Queally v London Borough of Brent (6 December 1996, unreported) paras 23–30.
[95] The claimants contend that Thames Water is wrong to submit that any action that requires spending by an undertaker is ruled out as that would mean that hardly any claim could be brought under s 18(8). The claimants rely on the judgment of Moses LJ in Ministry of Defence v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1620 at [50], [2006] All ER (D) 391 (Nov) at [50] as showing that claims for restitution could be brought and, in such a case would have to be met from the resources of Thames Water.
[96] The claimants rely on para 27 of Queally v London Borough of Brent as drawing a crucial difference on the wording of s 18(8) of the 1991 Act between remedies for acts or omissions which constitute contraventions of statutory or other requirements enforceable under s 18 and acts or omissions in the performance of statutory duties rather than acts or omissions which constituted breaches of those duties. They submit that common law claims are limited to acts or omissions which constitute a contravention of s 94(1)(b) but that an action may be brought, as here, in respect of acts or omissions involved in the performance of the duties under s 94(1)(b).
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Submissions by Thames Water
[97] Thames Water notes that the claimants’ claim is based on the principle in Allen’s case rather than Leakey’s case. Thames Water submits that if it can establish that, by reason of the Marcic principle, it was not under any relevant legal duty in relation to the omissions relied on by the claimants, it will have established that none of those omissions can be relied on by the claimants as constituting a failure by Thames Water to conduct its operations with all reasonable regard and care for the interests of other persons.
[98] Thames Water submits that it was not under any legal duty in relation to the omissions relied on by the claimants because any such duty is inconsistent with the statutory scheme which requires effectual dealing with the contents of sewers, and the claimants’ allegations all amount to complaints about the way in which Thames Water has failed properly to perform that duty.
[99] Thames Water submits that the decisions cited by the claimants (Kane v New Forest DC [2001] 3 All ER 914, [2002] 1 WLR 312 and Barrett v Enfield London BC [1999] 3 All ER 193, [2001] 2 AC 550) can be distinguished because it is not claiming blanket immunity whatever the facts; it is claiming a specific ‘immunity’ in relation to omissions which amount, if proven, to breaches of the statutory duty imposed by s 94(1) and for which the claimants have remedies under the statute.
[100] In relation to the claimants’ suggested distinction between ‘policy’ and ‘operational’ decisions, Thames Water submits that there is no relevant distinction and it is not clear that Lord Browne-Wilkinson in Barrett v Enfield London BC was accepting that there was. But in any event Thames Water submits that omissions which constitute a breach of the s 94(1)(b) statutory duty to treat the contents of sewers ‘effectually’ (including the omissions alleged at paras 18 and 21 of the agreed factual assumptions) are as capable of falling within the ‘policy’ category as they are in the ‘operational’ category; it is a matter of ‘policy’ as to what the relevant standard ought to be and it is up to Ofwat, not the courts, to determine the relevant standard. Thames Water refers, by way of example, to the question of an odour standard and submits that differing standards may have profound effects on the Ofwat price determination process.
[101] In relation to s 18(8) of the 1991 Act, Thames Water submits that the duties asserted by the claimants would, as set out above, be inconsistent with the statutory scheme. In Ministry of Defence v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1620, [2006] All ER (D) 391 (Nov) it was held that an ordinary claim for restitution was not inconsistent with the statutory scheme. As to Queally v London Borough of Brent (6 December 1996, unreported), it was a first instance decision which was decided before the House of Lords decision in Marcic’s case. In deciding a further issue of law on misfeasance/non-feasance grounds Dyson J appears to have rejected the Marcic principle completely at para 45.
[102] Moreover, Thames Water submits that a particular omission might be seen as either constituting a breach of a statutory duty or performance of a statutory duty. In Marcic’s case, the omission to build new sewers might have constituted negligent performance of the statutory duty. However, if it be relevant, Thames Water submits that the omissions relied on by the claimants constitute the non-performance of a statutory duty (under s 94(1)(b)), and do not constitute omissions in the performance of the statutory duty.
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Submissions by Ofwat
[103] Ofwat submits that the Marcic principle is not confined to s 94(1)(a) but extends beyond claims requiring more sewers to be built and also encompasses claims that better sewers should be built (overlapping with the s 94(1)(a) duty) and similarly that better sewage works should be built (overlapping with the s 94(1)(b) duty). Ofwat submits that all of these cases raise the same issues of resource expenditure and regulatory balancing which weighed with the House of Lords in Marcic’s case.
[104] However, Ofwat submits that in Marcic’s case a class of claims was expressly preserved where the cause of complaint arises from fault on the part of a sewerage undertaker in the manner in which it operated its sewers or sewage treatment works. Ofwat therefore submits that there is still scope for claims to be brought (whether framed in nuisance, negligence or under the 1998 Act) in so far as they involve allegations of negligence by the sewerage undertaker provided that they involve negligence in the physical operation of the works or the sewers.
[105] Ofwat submits that the decision in Marcic’s case was based on the need to preserve to Ofwat its statutorily assigned role in determining what level of resource it is in the public interest to commit to improving the sewer network; it was not confined to claims that more sewers should be built (s 94(1)(a)). Ofwat refers to the speech of Lord Hoffmann where he expressly extended it to encompass claims that ‘better sewers’ should be built. Ofwat submits that the principle applies with equal force to claims that better sewage treatment works should be built (s 94(1)(b)) and that any other interpretation would introduce an arbitrary distinction into this area of the law so that upgrading of sewers would be excluded under Marcic’s case whilst the upgrading of sewage treatment works would not and a claim related to flooding would be excluded under Marcic’s case whilst other consequences of the sewage or its treatment would not.
[106] Ofwat also submits that the speeches of Lord Nicholls and Lord Hoffmann not only explained the nineteenth and twentieth century case law on sewer flooding but also extended it to Mr Marcic’s action under the 1998 Act, on the basis of a broader policy concern to avoid undermining the statutory scheme under the 1991 Act and the role accorded to Ofwat under that scheme. Ofwat refers to paras [28] and [30]–[33] of the judgment of Pill LJ in Ministry of Defence v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1620, [2006] All ER (D) 391 (Nov) as supporting the broader interpretation of Marcic’s case.
[107] However, Ofwat does not support the defendants’ broad proposition that Marcic’s case decided that ‘all questions relating to a complaint which, in substance, amount to a complaint that a statutory sewerage undertaker has omitted to perform a statutory duty enforceable by Ofwat, must be determined solely by Ofwat’.
[108] Ofwat submits that the Marcic principle does not supply a defence against all claims in respect of matters which also fall within an undertaker’s statutory duties under s 94(1) of the 1991 Act. Ofwat points out that in Marcic’s case it was not alleged that the sewerage undertaker had failed to operate the sewerage system properly and both Lord Nicholls and Lord Hoffmann referred to the absence of any allegation that the defendant had failed to ‘cleanse and maintain’ its sewers. In doing so Ofwat submits that their Lordships were not suggesting that all breaches of an undertaker’s statutory duty under s 94 of the 1991 Act were immune from challenge at common law or under the 1998 Act.
[109] Ofwat submits that if the Marcic principle were given too wide an ambit, it would leave s 18(8) of the 1991 Act without any useful purpose. If claims in
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nuisance, negligence, or under the 1998 Act are subject to their own internal limitations such that they may never be brought against a sewerage undertaker where statutory duties under s 94(1) are engaged, there would be no need for s 18(8) expressly to preserve the scope for such claims.
[110] Ofwat submits that it is reasonable to assume that their Lordships in Marcic’s case intended to preserve scope for claims to be brought arising out of allegations of negligence in the physical operation of sewers or sewage treatment works. It refers to the emphasis placed on the fact that the defendant in Marcic’s case was not accused of having failed to operate its sewerage system properly. In addition, it submits that such allegations are unlikely to raise the issues of regulatory balancing and infrastructure investment which were the focus of the decision in Marcic’s case.
[111] Ofwat submits that as a matter of policy, their Lordships were concerned to reserve to Ofwat the task of determining an appropriate level of services to be supplied by sewerage undertakers given the resulting resource implications for undertakers and customers and it was those issues of prioritisation and the balancing involved which were regarded as being inherently unsuited for judicial determination. However, Ofwat submits that where sewage flooding, odour or insect nuisance can be shown to follow not from a failure to invest resources in upgrading the sewerage network, but rather from some specific operational failing on the part of an undertaker, the concern underlying the House of Lords’ decision in Marcic’s case does not arise.
[112] Ofwat states that it would not be unduly difficult to distinguish between allegations to the effect that more resources should have been committed under the regulatory framework which would fall under the Marcic principle and allegations that existing infrastructure has not been properly operated which would not.
Decision
[113] The claimants in this case assert claims on the basis of Allen’s case [1981] 1 All ER 353, [1981] AC 1001. In that case an inhabitant of a neighbouring village brought proceedings in relation to construction and operation of an oil refinery which had been constructed by Gulf Oil under the Gulf Oil Refining Act 1965. Those proceedings were for nuisance in the operation of the refinery, alternatively for negligence in the construction and operation of that refinery.
[114] Lord Wilberforce, with whom the majority agreed, set out the relevant principles which apply to a case where there is statutory authority. He said ([1981] 1 All ER 353 at 355, [1981] AC 1001 at 1011):
‘We are here in the well-charted field of statutory authority. It is now well settled that where Parliament by express direction or by necessary implication has authorised the construction and use of an undertaking or works, that carries with it an authority to do what is authorised with immunity from any action based on nuisance. The right of action is taken away (see Hammersmith and City Railway Co v Brand (1869) LR 4 HL 171 at 215, [1861–73] All ER Rep 60 at 72 per Lord Cairns). To this there is made the qualification, or condition, that the statutory powers are exercised without “negligence”, that word here being used in a special sense so as to require the undertaker, as a condition of obtaining immunity from action, to carry out the work and conduct the operation with all reasonable regard and care for the interests of other persons (see Geddis v Proprietors of Bann Reservoir
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(1878) 3 App Cas 430 at 455 per Lord Blackburn. It is within the same principle that immunity from action is withheld where the terms of the statute are permissive only, in which case the powers conferred must be exercised in strict conformity with private rights (see Metropolitan Asylum District Managers v Hill (1881) 6 App Cas 193, [1881–5] All ER Rep 536).’
[115] The question is whether the cause of action based on negligence which defeats the defence to statutory authority can also be relied on by the claimants to defeat or overcome the Marcic principle.
[116] In Marcic’s case in the House of Lords, whilst there was a reference to Allen’s case in argument, it was not referred to in the speeches. The case proceeded on the basis that liability in nuisance was to be established on the principles in Leakey’s case [1980] 1 All ER 17, [1980] QB 485. However, both before Judge Havery QC and in the Court of Appeal there was argument as to the existence of a cause of action in negligence, as in Allen’s case, to overcome the submission that there was statutory duty immunity from an action in nuisance. At [2001] 3 All ER 698 at 715, [2002] QB 929 at 950 (para 47), Judge Havery QC said this: ‘Nevertheless, the policy of the Act is clear: there is no statutory liability to pay compensation. I conclude that that policy excludes the existence of a common law duty of care to fulfil the duty.’
[117] At para [57] of the judgment of the Court of Appeal ([2002] 2 All ER 55, [2002] QB 929) Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers MR posed the question of how a common law cause of action might be affected by the provisions of the 1991 Act. At [61] he said that Mr Marcic’s case was pleaded in breach of statutory duty, negligence and nuisance. He rejected the plea that there was a cause of action for breach of statutory duty. He continued at [62]:
‘Under the concluding words of section 18(8) any common law claim will lie which does not involve the averment of violation of the Act. Thames have not sought to establish that the flooding of Mr Marcic’s property was the inevitable consequence of the exercise of their statutory duties or powers so that they have not been negligent in the special meaning of that word in Allen’s case. As that case makes plain, the burden of establishing this defence falls on Thames. In the event the judge held that Thames had the resources and the powers necessary to remedy the nuisance. It follows that no defence of statutory authority has been made out in relation to the claims founded in negligence and nuisance. The issue is whether such claims lie at common law. It is time to look at the line of authority which led the judge to conclude that they do not.’
[118] The Court of Appeal then held that Mr Marcic had a valid claim in nuisance under the common law on the Leakey principle. Lord Phillips MR returned to Allen’s case and said ([2002] 2 All ER 55 at [113], [2002] QB 929 at [112]):
‘Where a sewerage undertaker in performance of its statutory duty and in the exercise of its statutory powers constructs a new system it will be liable if this results in a foreseeable nuisance unless this was inevitable (see Allen v Gulf Oil Refining Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 353, [1981] AC 1001). It will be no answer
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to show that disproportionate expenditure would have been needed to avoid the nuisance . . .’
[119] The issue between the parties is how far the decision of the House of Lords in Marcic’s case on the interrelationship between s 94(1)(a) and nuisance on Leakey principles also applies s 94(1)(b) and nuisance based on negligence as in Allen’s case.
[120] I have come to the conclusion that there is a distinction to be drawn in this case so that certain causes of action in nuisance based on negligence will exist alongside the duties under the 1991 Act. I do so based on an analysis of the second limb of s 94(1)(a) and of s 18(8) of the 1991 Act and on the reasoning in Marcic’s case.
The second limb of s 94(1)(a)
[121] Marcic’s case was only concerned with the first of the two duties in s 94(1)(a) and did not deal at all with the duties in s 94(1)(b). However observations were made in Marcic’s case in relation to a duty to clean and maintain sewers. It is the second limb of s 94(1)(a) which contains a duty to ‘cleanse and maintain those sewers’.
[122] In Marcic’s case a distinction was drawn between a cause of action based on the duty under s 94(1)(a) to build more sewers expressed as a duty ‘to provide, improve or extend such a system of public sewers’ and a duty to clean and maintain sewers.
[123] In relation to this distinction, Lord Nicholls said [2004] 1 All ER 135 at [34], [2004] 2 AC 42 that Mr Marcic’s case came down to—
‘Thames Water ought to build new sewers. This is the only way Thames Water can prevent sewer flooding of Mr Marcic’s property. This is the only way because it is not suggested that Thames Water failed to operate its existing sewage system properly by not cleaning or maintaining it. Nor can Thames Water control the volume of water entering the sewers under Old Church Lane . . .’
That passage strongly suggests that the position might have been different if the case had related to a failure to clean or maintain the sewers.
[124] Secondly Lord Hoffmann at [53] said ‘The flooding has not been due to any failure on the part of Thames to clean and maintain the existing sewers. Nor are they responsible for the increased use.' Again that strongly suggests a different position if Thames Water had failed to clean and maintain the existing sewers.
[125] Lord Hoffmann said at [54] that the existence of the statutory procedure for the enforcement of statutory duties in the 1875 and 1936 Acts did not ‘exclude common law remedies for common law torts, such as a nuisance arising from failure to keep a sewer properly cleaned’. He referred to the decision in Baron v Portslade UDC [1900] 2 QB 588.
[126] That case was concerned with the duty under s 19 of the 1875 Act which provided that ‘Every local authority shall cause the sewers belonging to them . . . to be kept so as not to be a nuisance or injurious to health and to be properly cleaned and emptied’. The local authority discontinued a practice of cleaning the sewer at intervals and a nuisance was caused. Following the line of authority
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based on Robinson v Mayor and Corp of the Borough of Workington [1897] 1 QB 619, it was argued that the existence of a remedy under s 299 of the Act where the local authority ‘has made default in providing their district with sufficient sewers, or in the maintenance of existing sewers’ meant that the only remedy in such a case was under that section and not in nuisance.
[127] The Court of Appeal rejected that argument and the Earl of Halsbury LC said this ([1900] 2 QB 588 at 590–591):
‘I agree with the learned judge that the maintenance of a sewer is not the same thing as that which it is the duty of the local authority to do by virtue of s. 19—that is, to keep the sewer so that it shall not be a nuisance or injurious to health, and to see that it is properly cleansed and emptied. Sect. 299 does not, in my opinion, touch the duty of the local authority to use proper diligence in the management of existing sewers, and I cannot see either in the section or in the cases cited anything to take away the right of action of a person who has sustained an injury through the neglect of the local authority.’
[128] The decision in Baron v Portslade UDC was therefore based on the fact that the 1875 Act did not provide a remedy under s 299 and therefore did not ‘take away’ the cause of action in ‘neglect’ of the local authority.
[129] Historically the distinction has therefore been based on there being no remedy under the previous acts for what is now the second limb of the duty under s 94(1)(a) to ‘cleanse and maintain those sewers’. That, in my judgment, was the basis of the decision in Baron v Portslade UDC.
[130] However, it is clear that both Lord Nicholls and Lord Hoffmann considered that there was still a distinction to be drawn although, as was evident, the second limb of s 94(1)(a) also contained that other duty. Thus, although there was a duty which, like the duty to build new sewers under the first limb of s 94(1)(a), could be the subject of the remedy of an enforcement notice by Ofwat under s 18 of the 1991 Act, that did not exclude a remedy outside the Act.
[131] The distinction drawn by Lord Nicholls and Lord Hoffmann cannot have been founded on the narrow reasoning in the decision in Baron v Portslade UDC derived from s 299 of the 1875 Act because that reasoning would not apply to ss 94 and 18 of the 1991 Act. It must, in my judgment, have been based on a wider distinction which permitted causes of action for a failure to cleanse or maintain the sewer.
Section 18(8) of the 1991 Act
[132] In Marcic’s case Lord Nicholls, Lord Hoffmann and Lord Hope referred to s 18(8) of the 1991 Act and in doing so did not rule out the existence of other remedies, except that a cause of action for Leakey nuisance ([1980] 1 All ER 17, [1980] QB 485) was inconsistent with the first duty under s 94(1)(a).
[133] Section 18(8) of the 1991 Act provides:
‘Where any act or omission—(a) constitutes a contravention of a condition of an appointment under Chapter 1 of this Part or of a condition of a licence under Chapter 1A of this Part or of a statutory or other requirement enforceable under this section; or (b) causes or contributes to a contravention of any such condition or requirement,
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the only remedies for, or for causing or contributing to, that contravention (apart from those available by virtue of this section) shall be those for which express provision is made by or under any enactment and those that are available in respect of that act or omission otherwise than by virtue of its constituting, or causing or contributing to, such a contravention.’
[134] Therefore, in the case of the duties under s 94(1)(a) and (b) which are enforceable under s 18, the only remedies for any act or omission which constitutes causes or contributes to a contravention of those duties, apart from those available under s 18, are: (1) remedies for which express provision is made by or under an enactment; (2) remedies that are available in respect of that act or omission otherwise than by virtue of its constituting or causing or contributing to, such a contravention.
[135] What remedies are therefore available in respect of the act or omission otherwise than under s 18 of the 1991 Act?
[136] Section 18(8) is cited by Lord Nicholls at para [14] of Marcic’s case [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42 where he said that ‘[w]here contravention of a statutory requirement is enforceable under s 18, s 18(8) limits the availability of other remedies’. At [21] he said that Mr Marcic’s difficulty was this:
‘. . . Section 94(4) provides, so far as relevant, that a sewerage undertaker’s duty to provide an adequate system of public sewers under s 94(1) is enforceable by the Director under s 18, in accordance with a general authorisation given by the Secretary of State. Hence, as provided in s 18, the remedy in respect of a contravention of the sewerage undertaker’s general drainage obligation lies solely in the enforcement procedure set out in s 18. Thus, a person who sustains loss or damage as a result of a sewerage undertaker’s contravention of his general duty under s 94 has no direct remedy in respect of the contravention . . .’
[137] At [22] Lord Nicholls continued:
‘. . . Rather, in advancing claims based on common law nuisance and under the 1998 Act, Mr Marcic seeks to sidestep the statutory enforcement code. He asserts claims not derived from s 94 of the 1991 Act. Since the claims asserted by him do not derive from a statutory requirement, s 18(8) does not rule them out even though the impugned conduct, namely, failure to drain the district properly, is on its face a contravention of Thames Water’s general statutory duty under s 94. The closing words of s 18(8) expressly preserve remedies for any causes of action which are available in respect of an act or omission otherwise than by virtue of its being a contravention of a statutory requirement enforceable under s 18.’
[138] Lord Nicholls did not therefore rule out the remedies in nuisance and under the 1998 Act on the basis of s 18(8). Lord Hoffmann dealt with the position in a similar way at [51]–[52] and concluded:
‘[52] . . . Section 18(8) does not exclude any remedies “available in respect of [an] act or omission otherwise than by virtue of . . . constituting . . . a contravention [of a duty enforceable under section 18]”. It follows that if the
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failure to improve the sewers to meet the increased demand gives rise to a cause of action at common law, it is not excluded by the statute. The question is whether there is such a cause of action.’
[139] Lord Hoffmann said at [54] that the existence of a statutory enforcement procedure under the 1875 and 1936 Acts ‘did not (any more than s 18(8) of the 1991 Act) exclude common law remedies for common law torts, such as a nuisance arising from failure to keep a sewer properly cleaned’. Those comments and the existence of s 18(8) would indicate that there is not a complete removal of other remedies but that what is to be considered is whether, on consideration of the facts, a particular common law remedy can exist alongside the statutory regime of the 1991 Act.
Causes of actions which are not precluded by s 94(1)
[140] I consider that there is, in principle, a boundary to be drawn between matters which would fall within the duties under s 94(1) and are actionable solely under s 18 and matters which are actionable apart from the existence of any statutory duty. That boundary may be difficult to draw and may depend on such uncertain phrases as matters or decisions relating to ‘policy’ or ‘capital expenditure’ matters or decisions as contrasted with ‘operational’ or ‘current expenditure’ matters or decisions. In Marcic’s case the boundary fell between building new sewers and cleaning and maintaining the existing sewers.
[141] The existence of the boundary and the difficulty of defining it were dealt with, in a different context, in the House of Lords in Barrett v Enfield London BC [1999] 3 All ER 193, [2001] 2 AC 550. That was a case where it was alleged that there had been negligence whilst the plaintiff was in the care of the local authority between the ages of 10 months and 17 years. On an application to strike out the cause of action Lord Browne-Wilkinson ([1999] 3 All ER 193 at 196–197, [2001] 2 AC 550 at 556–557) said in relation to the requirement that the imposition of liability in negligence must be just and reasonable:
‘Lord Woolf MR also considered that the damage alleged (psychiatric illness) could not have been caused by the only kinds of negligence which could conceivably be actionable, ie operational acts done carelessly by the servants of the defendants in the course of carrying out policy decisions taken in relation to the plaintiff by the defendant council. He was of the view that the only damage suffered by the plaintiff must have flowed from the policy decisions which were not actionable and not from any operational acts which might be actionable . . . I find it impossible to say that all careless acts or omissions of a local authority in relation to a child in its care are not actionable: indeed I do not read the Court of Appeal so to have held. If certain careless conduct (operational) of a local authority is actionable and certain conduct (policy) is not, it becomes necessary to divide the decisions of the local authority between those which are “policy” and those which are “operational”. It is far from clear what the expressions “operational” and “policy” connote.’
[142] In Marcic’s case Lord Nicholls emphasised the ‘no fault’ position in which Thames Water found itself. At [34] he said: ‘it is not suggested that Thames Water failed to operate its existing sewage system properly by not
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cleaning or maintaining it’ and was ‘unable to prevent connections being made to the existing system . . . even if this risks overloading the existing sewers.' In those circumstances, he said at [35] that proceedings would ‘set at nought the statutory scheme’ and ‘effectively supplant the regulatory role’ of Ofwat. Again Lord Hoffmann at [53] referred to the same lack of a failure by Thames Water and at [63] referred to the distinction where the exercise involved ‘capital expenditure of a statutory undertaking’ as to which the statutory scheme not the court can make the relevant decisions. Otherwise as he said at [70] the courts would ‘subvert the scheme of the 1991 Act’.
[143] There are, in my judgment, two aspects to the reasoning. First, there is the emphasis on absence of fault. Secondly, there is the concept of an inconsistent court process which conflicts with the statutory scheme. If there is fault in the form of negligence and if there is a different cause of action which is not inconsistent and does not conflict then I consider there is nothing to preclude a claim being made on that basis. Policy matters are likely to lead to such inconsistency and conflict whilst operational matters are less likely to do so. It must be a question of fact and degree. Where an allegation is tantamount to requiring major plant renewal that will fall on one side of the line whilst an allegation that a filter should be cleaned will lie on the other side. The mere fact that the effect of the cause of action is to enforce the duty in s 94(1) does not in itself preclude the cause of action.
The assumptions of negligence
[144] It is convenient to consider the assumed basis for the claims. The assumed facts in this case include assumptions as to negligence, as follows:
(1) At para 18 of the assumptions, in relation to odours, that Thames Water had been negligent in the following areas:—
18.1 inadequate monitoring of odours at site,
18.2 inadequate odour control measures,
18.3 management failings in respect of, or indeed the failure to provide, appropriate technologies, including:—
18.3.1 failing to deal with gas leaks from sludge digestors;
18.3.2 inadequate ferric dosing;
18.3.3 no automatic storm washing equipment
18.3.4 no covers from the storm water tanks and primary settlement tanks (PSTs);
18.3.5 inadequate sludge consolidation capacity;
18.3.6 inappropriate scum accumulation on the PSTs;
18.3.7 inadequately controlled overflows from and lack of covers on the picket fence thickeners;
18.3.8 a more vigorous cleaning system.
(2) At para 21 of the assumptions, in relation to mosquitoes, that Thames Water had been negligent in failing and neglecting to take a variety of preventative measures in respect of:
21.1 leakages from plant or equipment at Mogden STW;
21.2 pooling of water from plant or equipment at Mogden STW and/or pooling of surface water unrelated to such plant or equipment;
21.3 surface water drains unrelated to such plant and equipment;
21.4 plant maintenance;
21.5 vegetation management;
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21.6 steps which should have been taken to minimise or eradicate mosquitoes (including better surveys and more chemicals).
[145] Whether and to what extent any of those matters give rise to a cause of action in nuisance involving those allegations of negligence will depend on the extent to which the allegation concerns policy matters or capital works such as building new or better facilities at Mogden STW rather than operational matters requiring current expenditure on matters such as maintenance. I do not consider that in Marcic’s case it would have been sufficient for Mr Marcic, relying on Allen’s case [1981] 1 All ER 353, [1981] AC 1001, to say that Thames Water failed ‘to carry out the work and conduct the operation with all reasonable regard and care for the interests of other persons’ to provide a cause of action in parallel to the remedy under s 18 of the 1991 Act. The nature of the policy considerations involved in capital expenditure would have meant that the court was embarking on similar considerations to those arising under the statutory scheme. However, I consider that if the allegation had been that Thames Water had failed to clean and maintain the sewer then Mr Marcic could have based a cause of action on the fact that Thames Water had failed ‘to carry out the work and conduct the operation with all reasonable regard and care for the interests of other persons’.
[146] At this stage any views on the existence of a cause of action must be provisional because, in my judgment, it is a matter of fact and degree whether the cause of action raises the concerns in Marcic’s case that the court is embarking on an exercise which conflicts with the statutory regime or comes within the sphere of operational matters such as cleaning and maintaining the sewer. It is inappropriate to come to a concluded view merely on the basis of an assumed pleaded allegation which has not been fully explored in evidence.
[147] However, on that provisional basis and subject to further argument, I consider that the assumptions in para 18.1 and any failings in the management of the plant under para 18.3 are likely to give rise to causes of action whilst the other allegations might require the court to embark on an exercise that conflicts with the statutory regime. In relation to para 21.1 to 21.6 the nature of the preventative steps indicate that they are all likely to give rise to causes of action.
Summary
[148] Whilst the principle in Marcic’s case precludes the claimants from bringing claims which require the court to embark on a process which is inconsistent and conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act, it does not preclude the claimants from bringing a claim in nuisance involving allegations of negligence where, as a matter of fact and degree, the exercise of adjudicating on that cause of action is not inconsistent and does not involve conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act.
Negligence
[149] The arguments relied on by the claimants, Thames Water and Ofwat in relation to negligence are the same as those relied on in relation to the cause of action arising from nuisance involving allegations of negligence.
[150] Accordingly, the answer to issue 2(c) is the same as the answer to issue 2(b): the claimants are not precluded from bringing a claim involving allegations of negligence where, as a matter of fact and degree, the exercise of adjudicating on that cause of action is not inconsistent and does not involve conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act.
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The 1998 Act
[151] The claimants accept that they are precluded from bringing a claim under the 1998 Act if that claim is in respect of an alleged infringement of convention rights, which would on the facts of the infringement not be actionable at common law because it would be inconsistent with the statutory scheme of the 1991 Act. Otherwise, the claimants contend that they are not precluded from bringing a claim.
[152] Thames Water submits that the claimants are precluded from bringing a claim under the 1998 Act and that Marcic’s case decides that the statutory scheme is within the margin of appreciation.
[153] Ofwat submits that the claimants are not precluded from bringing a claim under the 1998 Act if that claim involves allegations of negligence in the operation of the sewage treatment works. Otherwise, Ofwat contends that the claimants are precluded from bringing a claim.
[154] I consider that the answer to this issue should follow the answer to issue 2(b).
[155] Accordingly, the answer to issue 2(d) is that the claimants are not precluded from bringing a claim based on negligence under the 1998 Act where, as a matter of fact and degree, the exercise of adjudicating on that cause of action is not inconsistent and does not involve conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act.
Issue 3: In particular are any such claims limited to nuisance involving negligence or 1998 Act issues arising out of the physical operation and /or operational management of the works?
[156] The claimants submits that there is no prima facie reason why a cause of action cannot arise from an act or omission in the performance of a statutory duty which is not related to the physical and/or operational management of the works. They give an example of negligent advice to a claimant.
[157] Thames Water contends that all claims relate to the non-performance of the s 94(1)(b) duty and are precluded by Marcic’s case.
[158] Ofwat submits that claims involving allegations of negligence relating to the physical operation of a sewage treatment works are not excluded by the principle in Marcic’s case even where such negligence would also entail a breach of the duty laid down in s 94(1)(b). It also submits that the same applies to claims involving allegations of negligence arising out of the ‘operational management of the works’ if by that is meant managerial failures in directing the physical operation of the works, as opposed to such matters as a failure to press for more funding within the regulatory framework laid down in the 1991 Act.
[159] As set out above, there are limits on the causes of action where, as a matter of fact and degree, the exercise of adjudicating on that cause of action is not inconsistent and does not involve conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act. I consider that causes of action based on the physical operation and/or operational management of the works are not likely to be precluded. I cannot go further than that at this stage.
Issue 4: In particular does a claim lie against the defendant for failing or neglecting to press for capital funding for odour-related expenditure within the asset management plan (AMP) system prior to 2000 as pleaded in para 27.2 of the claimant’s group statement of case as further particularised in the schedule of responses—odour nuisance?
[160] The claimants submit that on the basis of the decision in Allen’s case [1981] 1 All ER 353, [1981] AC 1001 negligence means that the undertaker has to
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‘carry out the work and conduct the operation with all reasonable regard and care for the interests of other persons’.
[161] The claimants submit that any failure by Thames Water to try and obtain funding for works in the AMP system prior to 2000 so as to be able to fund odour abatement is a failure to conduct the operation with all reasonable regard and care for the interests of other persons. They state that this allegation has nothing to do with Marcic’s case because it is an allegation that the defendants should have sought a revision of the AMP process to include funding for odour-related expenditure and, prior to 2000, such expenditure was not included in the statutory regime. There is therefore no argument that it would be ‘inconsistent with the statutory regime’.
[162] The claimants accept that, once odour-related expenditure is within the statutory regime, then the Marcic principle may apply to prohibit a claim that Ofwat should have funded any works under the current AMP.
[163] Thames Water submits that the claimants’ contention that this allegation has nothing to do with Marcic’s case because, at the time, such expenditure was not included in the statutory regime, is not well founded. Thames Water refers to para 10 of the factual assumptions coupled with the appended annex to MD 190.
[164] It submits that, as set out in the third paragraph of the annex, odour management has always been ‘an integral element of a company’s functions’: Thames Water submits that, as set out in para 10 of the factual assumptions, the only change in the run up to AMP 4 was that sewerage undertakers now ‘submitted specific particularised proposals for funding necessary to reduce odour emissions from existing works’.
[165] Thames Water also submits that the Marcic principle extends to all questions relating to an issue which is, in substance, an issue relating to the non-performance of a statutory duty enforceable by Ofwat, and must be determined solely by Ofwat. The complaint referred to in issue 4 is a complaint that Thames Water failed to perform its statutory duty to treat the contents of the sewers effectually by failing to press for capital funding for odour-related expenditure. That complaint falls within the Marcic principle.
[166] Ofwat submits that a claim should not lie against the defendant for failing or neglecting to press for capital funding for odour-related expenditure within the AMP system because such a claim would inevitably involve exactly the types of detailed regulatory issue which the House of Lords in Marcic’s case sought to preserve for Ofwat to consider within the statutory scheme of the 1991 Act.
[167] Ofwat submits that such a claim would raise the intractable issues of proving that the ‘failure’ of Thames Water was caused by inadequate funding; of proving that the decision by Thames Water as to how to frame its submissions to Ofwat (including what aspects of its regulated activities required additional finance, and when) was so unreasonable as to be negligent; and of showing what Ofwat would have done if during the relevant price review the defendant had made further submissions to it, of an unspecified nature, regarding the need for capital funding for odour abatement.
[168] The factual assumption in para 10 is as follows:
‘During the price setting process for AMP 4, sewerage undertakers, for the first time, where they considered that relevant investment levels needed to increase from those compatible with price limits previously allowed,
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submitted specific particularised proposals for funding necessary to reduce odour emissions from existing works. When setting the price limits at AMP 4, where an undertaker showed strong evidence of odour problems, and of customer willingness to pay in order to tackle existing odour problems, Ofwat allowed specific additional (or new) odour abatement schemes to be funded—see the Annex to MD 190, attached.’
[169] As set out above, I consider that the principle in Marcic’s case precludes the claimants from bringing claims which require the court to embark on a process which is inconsistent and conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act.
[170] In this case, the allegation of negligence relates to a failure to press for capital funding for odour-related expenditure within the AMP system prior to 2000. I do not consider that such a cause of action would be precluded by the Marcic principle as being inconsistent and conflicting with the statutory regime. The court would be determining whether Thames Water owed a duty to press for such expenditure and whether they were negligent in not doing so. Those issues would not be inconsistent with or involve conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act. Questions of causation and damages would raise issues as to what would have happened pursuant to the statutory process under the 1991 Act. It would not be inconsistent with or conflict with that process.
[171] Whilst I accept that the adjudication upon the claim would raise the type of seemingly intractable issues which Ofwat identifies, the court has often to determine issues which are equally as complex. However such concerns as to intractability do not, in my judgment, go to the issue of whether the cause of action is precluded by the Marcic principle.
[172] I therefore consider that the Marcic principle would not preclude a claim against Thames Water for failing or neglecting to press for capital funding for odour-related expenditure within the AMP system prior to 2000.
Issue 5: Does it make any difference to the above conclusions if it were to be established at trial that any steps referred to in paras 18 and 21 of the factual assumptions were not taken because of a lack of funding from customer charges under the 1991 Act or otherwise for the taking of such steps?
[173] The claimants submit that in relation to negligence the court ought to bear in mind the passage from the speech of Lord Hatherley LC in A-G v Colney Hatch Lunatic Asylum (1868) 4 Ch App 146 at 158 where he said ‘this Court is not in the habit of listening to any argument on the ground of expense when it restrains the doing of a wrong.' They contend that, on that basis, if Thames Water cannot fund the works from customer charges it must reach into its own pockets and, if it cannot fund the works from either of these sources then it would have to provide evidence that the company would have been in severe financial difficulty if it had carried out the works. In determining ‘severe financial difficulty’, the claimants submit that the payments made to directors and shareholders by the company would be relevant.
[174] The claimants also submit that taking into account the financial position of Thames Water may be in breach of art 174.2 EC (formerly art 130r of the EC Treaty) which provides that:
‘Community policy on the environment shall aim at a high level of protection taking into account the diversity of situations in the various regions of the Community. It shall be based on the precautionary principle
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and on the principles that preventive action should be taken, that environmental damage should as a priority be rectified at source and that the polluter should pay.’
[175] Thames Water accepts that lack of funding from customer charges is not in itself a defence to the claim. If, contrary to its case, the court finds that Thames Water cannot rely on the Marcic defence on the basis of issues 1–4, then Thames Water does not seek to assert that it can nevertheless rely on the Marcic defence on the basis of issue 5. It submits however that lack of funding may be one factor relevant to proof of negligence, if such a claim lies in principle.
[176] Ofwat submits that the principle in Marcic’s case is unrelated to the ability of a sewerage undertaker to draw on other sources of finance to improve the sewerage network or sewage treatment works. It submits that the issue is not whether a given undertaker could, in practice, find resources elsewhere; rather it is whether the courts should become involved in decisions as to such expenditure, thereby supplanting the regulatory role reserved for Ofwat under the 1991 Act.
[177] In relation to any cause of action based on allegations of negligence in respect of odours and mosquitoes then, as Thames Water submits, it could not seek to raise the Marcic principle by contending that certain actions were not taken because of a lack of funding from customer charges under the 1991 Act or otherwise.
[178] Whilst Thames Water might seek to raise questions of funding in relation to negligence, I consider that, in general, the ability to fund expense will not provide a defence to an allegation of negligence.
DAMAGES ISSUES
Issue 6: Should damages for nuisance—where there is unlikely to be an award for diminution of capital values because the nuisance is not a permanent one—be based on:
a. The difference in rental value between:
i. The property unaffected by smells and mosquitoes sufficient to cause a nuisance and
ii. The property affected by smells and mosquitoes sufficient to cause a nuisance;
b. The physical inconvenience and distress to the claimant; or
c. A general loss of amenity?
[179] There is common ground between the claimants and Thames Water that where nuisance has been caused to a property by smells and mosquitoes then the diminution in letting value is the proper measure of damages. There is also common ground that an assessment by reference to the physical inconvenience and distress to the claimant is not an appropriate measure of damages.
[180] Finally there is common ground that a sum for general loss of amenity will, in certain circumstances, provide an appropriate measure. The claimants submit that general loss of amenity is only appropriate if no assessment can be made as to the difference in rental values. Thames Water submits that general loss of amenity will be appropriate if the differences in values cannot be reliably ascertained.
[181] Whilst there is a difference in language between the parties as to whether a sum for general loss of amenity will apply when ‘no assessment can be made’ or ‘values cannot be reliably ascertained’, the underlying consideration
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depends on what is reasonable and practicable on the facts and circumstances of the case. If, on the facts, no assessment can be made then a sum for general loss of amenity is more likely to be an appropriate measure. If values cannot be reliably ascertained then the matter is more likely to depend on whether such ascertainment as can be made is a reasonable or practicable measure of damages.
[182] I accept that, as the claimants submit, even if the court cannot arrive at a figure for diminution of value with certainty, damages can still be assessed. They refer to the passage in the well-known judgment of Vaughan Williams LJ in Chaplin v Hicks [1911] 2 KB 786 at 792 where he said in relation to assessment of damages:
‘Sometimes, however, there is no market for the particular class of goods; but no one has ever suggested that, because there is no market, there are no damages. In such a case the jury must do the best they can, and it may be that the amount of their verdict will really be a matter of guesswork. But the fact that damages cannot be assessed with certainty does not relieve the wrong-doer of the necessity of paying damages for his breach of contract.’ (See also [1911–13] All ER Rep 224 at 227.)
[183] I also accept that, as Thames Water submits, at this stage and in the absence of valuation evidence, the matter cannot be taken further. There may be a number of difficulties in reasonably and practicably assessing diminution in value so that general damages for loss of amenity may be the correct measure. Whether and to what extent the difficulties arise will depend on the issues raised above and the evidence. I do not think that it is necessary or desirable to go further at this stage.
[184] I consider that the common ground between the parties properly reflects the position on the award of damages which may be summarised as follows. (1) That damages awarded for nuisance, where there has been personal discomfort, are assessed on the basis of compensation for diminution of the amenity value of the land rather than damages for that personal discomfort. In Hunter v Canary Wharf Ltd; Hunter v London Docklands Development Corp [1997] 2 All ER 426 at 451, [1997] AC 655 at 706 Lord Hoffmann said that in the case of—
‘nuisances “productive of sensible personal discomfort”, the action is not for causing discomfort to the person but . . . for causing injury to the land. True it is that the land has not suffered “sensible” injury, but its utility has been diminished by the existence of the nuisance. It is for . . . the diminution in such utility that he is entitled to compensation.’
He said that in such cases ‘the owner or occupier is entitled to compensation for the diminution in the amenity value of the property during the period for which the nuisance persisted.' He added:
‘[b]ut inconvenience, annoyance or even illness suffered by persons on land as a result of smells or dust are not damage consequential upon the injury to the land. It is rather the other way about: the injury to the amenity of the land consists in the fact that the persons upon it are liable to suffer inconvenience, annoyance or illness.’
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Lord Hope said ([1997] 2 All ER 426 at 468, [1997] AC 655 at 724–725):
‘I do not see how an assessment of the damages appropriate for claims for personal injury at the instance of all those who happened to be on the land can be the right measure. If this were so, the amount recoverable would depend on the number of those affected, not the effect on the amenity of the land. At best it is no more than a guide to the true measure of liability, which is the extent to which the nuisance has impeded the comfortable enjoyment of the plaintiff’s property.’
(2) That damages for diminution of amenity value are measured by reference to the size, commodiousness and value of the property not the number of occupiers. In Hunter’s case [1997] 2 All ER 426 at 452, [1997] AC 655 at 706–707 Lord Hoffmann said:
‘It follows that damages for nuisance recoverable by the possessor or occupier may be affected by the size, commodiousness and value of his property but cannot be increased merely because more people are in occupation and therefore suffer greater collective discomfort. If more than one person has an interest in the property, the damages will have to be divided among them. If there are joint owners, they will be jointly entitled to the damages. If there is a reversioner and the nuisance has caused damage of a permanent character which affects the reversion, he will be entitled to damages according to his interest. But the damages cannot be increased by the fact that the interests in the land are divided; still less according to the number of persons residing on the premises.’
Lord Lloyd said ([1997] 2 All ER 426 at 442, [1997] AC 655 at 696):
‘The effect of smoke from a neighbouring factory is to reduce the value of the land. There may be no diminution in the market value. But there will certainly be loss of amenity value so long as the nuisance lasts. If that be the right approach, then the reduction in amenity value is the same whether the land is occupied by the family man or the bachelor.’
Lord Hope said ([1997] 2 All ER 426 at 468, [1997] AC 655 at 724–725):
‘I do not see how an assessment of the damages appropriate for claims for personal injury at the instance of all those who happened to be on the land can be the right measure. If this were so, the amount recoverable would depend on the number of those affected, not the effect on the amenity of the land. At best it is no more than a guide to the true measure of liability, which is the extent to which the nuisance has impeded the comfortable enjoyment of the plaintiff’s property.’
(3) That damages for compensation for diminution of amenity value of the land may be reflected either in diminution of capital value or rental value. In Hunter’s case [1997] 2 All ER 426 at 468, [1997] AC 655 at 724 Lord Hope said:
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‘Diminution in the value of the plaintiffs’ interest, whether as owner or occupier, because the capital or letting value of the land has been affected is another relevant head of damages. When the nuisance has resulted only in loss of amenity, the measure of damages must in principle be the same.’
Lord Hoffmann said ([1997] 2 All ER 426 at 451, [1997] AC 655 at 706):
‘But diminution in capital value is not the only measure of loss. It seems to me that the value of the right to occupy a house which smells of pigs must be less than the value of the occupation of an equivalent house which does not. In the case of a transitory nuisance, the capital value of the property will seldom be reduced.’
(4) That damages for diminution in value frequently raise difficult issues of assessment which can usually be resolved by expert evidence. If such assessment is not reasonable or practicable then the principles on which damages are assessed are sufficiently flexible to do justice between the parties by arriving at a sum for general damages for loss of amenity. In Hunter’s case [1997] 2 All ER 426 at 442, [1997] AC 655 at 696 Lord Lloyd said:
‘Damages for loss of amenity value cannot be assessed mathematically. But this does not mean that such damages cannot be awarded (see Ruxley Electronics and Construction Ltd v Forsyth, Laddington Enclosures Ltd v Forsyth [1995] 3 All ER 268 at 277–278, 289, [1996] AC 344 at 360–361, 374 per Lord Mustill and Lord Lloyd of Berwick).’
Lord Hoffmann said ([1997] 2 All ER 426 at 451, [1997] AC 655 at 706):
‘. . . the owner or occupier is entitled to compensation for the diminution in the amenity value of the property during the period for which the nuisance persisted. To some extent this involves placing a value on intangibles. But estate agents do this all the time. The law of damages is sufficiently flexible to be able to do justice in such a case (cf Ruxley Electronics and Construction Ltd v Forsyth, Laddington Enclosures Ltd v Forsyth [1995] 3 All ER 268, [1996] AC 344).’
[185] In addition, there is an issue between the parties as to the extent that the decision of Buckley J in Dennis v Ministry of Defence [2003] EWHC 793 (QB), [2003] 2 EGLR 121 correctly follows the principles in Hunter’s case. In that case, the owner of a property and his wife brought a claim in nuisance and for breach of human rights for noise caused by Harrier jets from the defendant’s neighbouring Royal Air Force station. In considering damages for nuisance reference was made to Farley v Skinner [2001] UKHL 49, [2001] 4 All ER 801, [2002] 2 AC 732 where damages for distress and inconvenience for non-performance of a contract were awarded under the rule in Watts v Morrow [1991] 4 All ER 937, [1991] 1 WLR 1421.
[186] I consider that in Dennis’s case the judge was assessing loss of amenity and made reference to the air noise case of Farley v Skinner merely by way of background in arriving at that loss of amenity. He arrived at a loss of amenity of £50,000, having rejected the claim for diminution in letting value on evidential
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grounds. I do not consider that in Dennis’s case the sum was assessed on the basis of a sum to reflect damages for distress and inconvenience.
Issue 7: To what extent, if at all, are the above conclusions dependent on or affected by any evidence of valuers as to the difficulty or otherwise of assessing diminution in rental value in the case of non-permanent nuisance?
[187] As set out above, damages for diminution in value frequently raise difficult issues of assessment which can usually be resolved by expert evidence. If such assessment is not reasonable or practicable then the principles on which damages are assessed are sufficiently flexible to do justice between the parties by arriving at a sum for general damages for loss of amenity.
Issue 8: What is the position in damages for nuisance where no diminution in rental value can be shown?
[188] Again, if no diminution in rental value can be shown then the principles on which damages are assessed are sufficiently flexible to do justice between the parties by arriving at a sum for general damages for loss of amenity.
Issue 9: Do, or might, damages for nuisance confer a sufficient remedy on those with a legal right to occupy such as to disentitle those living in the same household without such a legal right to a separate remedy under art 8 and/or the 1998 Act?
[189] The claimants rely on the fact that, as set out above, damages for nuisance do not take into account the number of people living in the affected property as they are awarded in respect of the damage to the land. The claimants submit that this does not accord ‘just satisfaction’ to victims of an unlawful act under s 8(3) of the 1998 Act because an award of damages under s 8(3) must be made to the individual victim of the unlawful act so as to be ‘just satisfaction to the injured party’.
[190] The claimants accept that in awarding any damages the court must, under s 8(3)(a), take into account ‘any other relief or remedy granted’. However they submit that in the case of lodgers or residents of a retirement or children’s home, an award of damages in nuisance to the owner could not be just satisfaction for the affected lodgers or residents or be taken into account for the purposes of s 8(3)(a) as any such award would not be bound to be shared.
[191] The claimants refer to Fadeyeva v Russia [2005] ECHR 55723/00 where ¹6,000 was awarded as damages for inconvenience and mental distress and a degree of physical suffering over a seven-year period.
[192] In the case of non-proprietary partners or children the claimants accept that an award of damages in nuisance to the partner or parent(s) who have a proprietary interest in the home is a matter to be taken into account for the purposes of s 8(3)(a), although they submit that the position of foster children may be different.
[193] In these proceedings, there is a pleaded case on behalf of Thomas Bannister. Thames Water submit that, if his parents obtain an award in a nuisance action, then it is not necessary to make a further award in Thomas’s favour. The claimants submit that Thomas is a ‘victim’ of the assumed violation of his rights by the defendant and that, even if there has been an award to Thomas’s parents which may be favourable to him, the court is concerned with ‘whether he or she has received reparation for the damage caused.' The claimants submit that the fact that his parents, who are also victims, have received appropriate and sufficient redress for the violations in respect of them cannot be relevant to violations in respect of Thomas.
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[194] The claimants refer to the decision in Scordino v Italy (No 1) [2006] ECHR 36813/97 where the court said:
‘180. The Court also reiterates that a decision or measure favourable to the applicant is not in principle sufficient to deprive him of his status as a “victim” unless the national authorities have acknowledged, either expressly or in substance, and then afforded redress for, the breach of the Convention . . .
181. The issue as to whether a person may still claim to be the victim of an alleged violation of the Convention essentially entails on the part of the Court an ex post facto examination of his or her situation. As it has already held in other length-of-proceedings cases, the question whether he or she has received reparation for the damage caused—comparable to just satisfaction as provided for under Article 41 of the Convention—is an important issue. It is the Court’s settled case-law that where the national authorities have found a violation and their decision constitutes appropriate and sufficient redress, the party concerned can no longer claim to be a victim within the meaning of Article 34 of the Convention . . .’
[195] The claimants submit that the correct approach in cases like this where there are victims of a violation other than the proprietors living in a home is that the court first assesses the damages in nuisance to the proprietors, it then considers, in isolation from those damages, whether damages would be awarded to the other victims under s 8 of the 1998 Act (R (on the application of Greenfield) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 14 at [6], [2005] 2 All ER 240 at [6], [2005] 1 WLR 673) and determines the amount of those damages. Next the court considers whether the damages in nuisance amount to ‘full reparation’ to the other victims of the violation, which the claimants submit would be rare. If the damages do not amount to ‘full reparation’, then the court determines the amount of damages that should be awarded to the other victims so that full reparation is made.
[196] In terms of damages for continuing nuisance, the claimants note that in Scordino v Italy (No 1) [2006] ECHR 36813/97 the court said at para 204:
‘Regarding non-pecuniary damage, the Court . . . assumes that there is a strong but rebuttable presumption that excessively long proceedings will occasion non-pecuniary damage. It also accepts that, in some cases, the length of proceedings may result in only minimal non-pecuniary damage or no non-pecuniary damage at all . . .’
They submit that these considerations apply equally to the continuing nuisance in this case.
[197] Thames Water submits that the only factual basis against which this question can be considered is the claim of Thomas Bannister. He is 13 and lives with his parents who own their property. Thames Water contends that if Mr and Mrs Bannister recover damages in nuisance in respect of loss of letting value or loss of amenity, the purpose of those damages is to compensate them for the temporary past impairment in their interest in the whole of their house. In those circumstances, if Thomas has an art 8 claim, Thames Water submits that it is not ‘necessary’ for him to receive damages within s 8 of the 1998 Act in order to afford
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him just satisfaction because the family is receiving sufficient compensation via the parents’ claim in respect of the house in which he lives.
[198] Thames Water points out that the claimants accept that an award of damages to his parents is ‘a matter to be taken into account for the purposes of s 8(3)(a)’ and submits that, on the Bannister facts, the court should say that compensation in nuisance for the parents will mean that the family is properly compensated, and that no further damages should be payable under the 1998 Act.
[199] Thames Water refers to the judgment of Buckley J in Dennis v Ministry of Defence [2003] 2 EGLR 121 where a claim was also brought under the 1998 Act, at [91] he said this, based on the Court of Appeal decision in Marcic’s case:
‘As in Marcic, since I have awarded damages for common law nuisance, and I regard them as “just satisfaction”, the Human Rights Act claims add nothing save that it was mooted that Mrs Dennis herself would have such a claim. Whilst that is theoretically true, my figure for damages, in particular loss of amenity, is based on loss of enjoyment of the estate, which envisages enjoyment by a family as opposed to one individual. I do not therefore consider it appropriate to add to the figure at which I have arrived. If I am invited to make a separate award, it would be £20,000 to Mrs Dennis, and I would reduce the damages for nuisance accordingly.’
[200] Thames Water relies on this and on the reference in Marcic’s case as showing that given the damages payable to her husband, there had been proper compensation for loss of enjoyment ‘by a family as opposed to one individual’.
[201] Thames Water refers to the reliance by the claimants on Scordino v Italy (No 1) but submits that Scordino v Italy (No 1) does not assist. It was a complaint that the state was in breach of the claimants’ art 6(1) rights to have proceedings determined within a reasonable time. The issue in the passage referred to by the claimants was whether the applicants were still victims despite having received some damages from the domestic court for breach of their art 6(1) rights. The Grand Chamber of the European Court of Human Rights (ECt HR) held that they were still victims, not least because the domestic court’s assessment of damages awarded no more than about 10% of what the applicants would have been entitled to under the ECt HR’s own case law for the same breach. Thames Water submits that this is not relevant to the present issue which assumes that Thomas’s parents have received compensation for the continuing nuisance, and poses the question whether Thomas is entitled to further damages to afford him just satisfaction. Thames Water states that the fact that the Scordinos had not received proper compensation for the delays does not reflect on the issue.
[202] In relation to other claims by those without a proprietary interest, Thames Water submits that the court should not consider any case, other than that of Thomas Bannister, because there are no facts upon which the court could proceed. None of the five claims by lodgers have been pleaded out and Thames Water know nothing about their circumstances, nor of the position of residents of a retirement or children’s home or of foster children.
[203] In this case I cannot consider the position of those living in the same household as those with a proprietary interest other than Thomas Bannister, who is a boy living with his parents. For him, the claimants accept that an award of damages in nuisance to parents who have a proprietary interest in the home is a matter to be taken into account for the purposes of s 8(3)(a).
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[204] I accept that damages for nuisance are based on the loss of amenity value of the property and do not take into account the number of people living in that affected property. That raises the possibility that damages for nuisance may not accord ‘just satisfaction’ to the individual victims of an unlawful act as required by s 8(3) of the 1998 Act. I do not consider that the decision of the ECt HR in Fadeyeva v Russia [2005] ECHR 55723/00 assists in resolving the question in this case. In that case the wife of a worker at a steel plant suffered from pollution from the steel plant. She lived in a flat which the steel plant let to her husband on a tenancy agreement. It does not appear that there was any claim by the husband and the award to the wife of ¹6,000 does not reflect on the issues which I have to consider as to the sufficiency of a remedy in nuisance.
[205] The decision of the ECt HR in Scordino v Italy (No 1) also provides little assistance. It was a length of proceedings case where the court held that the quantum of damages awarded by the domestic court was significantly less than would have been awarded by the European Court. The observation at para 181 that ‘[t]he issue as to whether a person may still claim to be the victim of an alleged violation of the Convention essentially entails on the part of the Court an ex post facto examination of his or her situation’ would indicate that there is no settled principle and that whether a person can still be described as a victim after an award of damages for nuisance will depend on the facts.
[206] In Dennis v Ministry of Defence [2003] 2 EGLR 121 Buckley J held that because the award of loss of amenity was based on loss of enjoyment of the estate which envisages enjoyment by a family as opposed to one individual, it was not appropriate to award further sums to the wife of the owner. It seems to me that this was a finding which depended on the facts and was not a finding that, as a matter of law, an award of damages in nuisance would provide just satisfaction to all those in the same household.
[207] Buckley J based his decision on the passage from the judgment of the Court of Appeal in Marcic’s case [2002] 2 All ER 55 at [104], [2002] QB 929 where, having found that Mr Marcic had a claim in nuisance against Thames Water, the court considered—
‘What are the consequences of this? We have been dealing with matters that Judge Havery dealt with as preliminary points, and no argument has been addressed to us as to the measure of damages to be applied to his claim in nuisance. It is reasonable to assume, however, that the damages to which Mr Marcic is entitled will afford him “just satisfaction” for the wrong that he has suffered. On that premise, and having regard to the provisions of s 8(3) of the Human Rights Act 1988, Mr Marcic’s right to damages at common law displaces any right that he would otherwise have had to damages under the Act. Thames’ appeal against the judge’s finding that they were in breach of s 6 of that Act and art 8 of the convention thus becomes academic . . .’
[208] That a person who receives damages for the loss of amenity in his property will receive ‘just satisfaction’ again does not resolve the position of those who do not directly receive such damages.
[209] I consider that when the court awards damages for nuisance to those with a legal interest that will usually afford just satisfaction to partners and children but that there might be circumstances where they will not. In the case of Thomas Bannister, he lives in the same household as his parents who will receive damages for the loss of amenity of their property. There is nothing in the
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claim to show that such damages received by the household would not afford just satisfaction as they did for Mrs Dennis or would have done for Mr Marcic. I conclude that those damages would afford Thomas Bannister just satisfaction.
[210] There may be circumstances where others without a legal right to occupy may have a right to a separate remedy under art 8 and/or the 1998 Act for which there will not be just satisfaction by an award of damages for nuisance.
[211] I therefore consider that the appropriate answer to issue 9 is that damages for nuisance might confer a sufficient remedy on those with a legal right to occupy such as to disentitle those living in the same household without such a legal right to a separate remedy under art 8 and/or the 1998 Act but whether they do will depend on the facts.
Issue 10: Are:
a. The alternative remedies referred to in:
(i) Paragraph 9 of the claimant’s amended statement of case on preliminary issues (ss 80 and 82 of the 1990 Act) and/or
(ii) Paragraph 29 of the defendant’s defence thereto (the complaint to Ofwat under s 94 of the 1991 Act and the earlier availability of that route for complaint (if these matters do constitute a breach of s 94(1)(b) duties)) and/or
b. The current abatement notice as pleaded in paras 21–24 of the claimant’s group statement of case
relevant to the issue of whether damages for owners/occupiers and/or those without a legal interest in their homes are necessary to afford just satisfaction under s 8(3) of the 1998 Act?
[212] The claimants accept that these issues may be relevant but submit that, on the assumed facts of a nuisance lasting 87 months, are unlikely to constitute appropriate and sufficient redress.
[213] In relation to s 82 of the 1990 Act the claimants accept that an individual can issue a summons in the magistrates’ court to obtain an order for the abatement of a nuisance and for payment of compensation of up to £5,000 under ss 130–134 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000. However, the claimants submit that compensation is only awarded in clear cases where the amount of compensation can be readily and easily ascertained: Hyde v Emery (1984) 6 Cr App R (S) 206. In a case like this, where there are issues as to what damages are payable and limitation issues, the magistrates’ court is not suitable. Further the claimants point out that proceedings must be brought within six months and as there are no group action provisions in the magistrates’ court; each of the 1,300 claimants would have to issue a summons every six months.
[214] In relation to the procedure under s 80 of the 1990 Act which enables a local authority to issue an abatement notice to require the abatement of a nuisance, the claimants rely on the fact that neither the authority nor the court can award compensation. Further the claimants submit that the s 80 procedure cannot amount to an alternative remedy for a claimant because it is dependent on action by the local authority and if that third party does not consider that there is a nuisance, the claimants have no remedy under s 80.
[215] The claimants submit that the abatement notice in this action is not an alternative remedy for a claimant. Whilst it may, in July 2008, abate the nuisance through the programme of works the claimants may by then have suffered a nuisance for 112 months and the claimants submit that this would not be a sufficient remedy or afford just satisfaction to the claimants.
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[216] In relation to a complaint to Ofwat, the claimants submit that it is not an alternative remedy as it depends on Ofwat reaching a decision as to whether a nuisance exists and it is not clear how Ofwat would approach a case where Thames Water says that there is no nuisance or negligence. There is no provision for a public hearing by Ofwat or any procedure for the hearing of witnesses, for disclosure of documents or for expert evidence. As set out under agreed fact 15, there is no provision for any compensation in respect of nuisance under the 1991 Act.
[217] As a result, the claimants submit that a complaint to Ofwat in a case like this is a wholly unsuitable remedy.
[218] Thames Water submits that there is consensus between the claimants and the defendants that, as the claimants submit ‘these issues may be relevant.' Given that and that Thames Water submits that no definitive view can be reached without considering the evidence, Thames Water says that the issue cannot be taken further at this stage.
[219] Thames Water relies on the underlying principles of damages under the 1998 Act and refers to the passage in Anufrijeva v Southwark London BC, R (on the application of N) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R (on the application of M) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 1406, [2004] 1 All ER 833, [2004] QB 1124 which was adopted by the House of Lords in R (on the application of Greenfield) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] 2 All ER 240 at [9], [2005] 1 WLR 673, where Lord Woolf CJ, giving the judgment of the Court of Appeal said:
‘[52] . . . The remedy of damages generally plays a less prominent role in actions based on breaches of the articles of the European Court of Human Rights, than in actions based on breaches of private law obligations where, more often than not, the only remedy claimed is damages.
[53] Where an infringement of an individual’s human rights has occurred, the concern will usually be to bring the infringement to an end and any question of compensation will be of secondary, if any, importance . . .’
[220] Thames Water submits that the fact that there are alternative remedies available to the claimants, including the Ofwat remedy and that the claimants have had in recent times the benefit of the abatement notice, all have to be weighed in the balance.
[221] In relation to the claimant’s observations about procedure in respect of complaints to Ofwat, Thames Water states that the claimants are wrong to claim that in the absence of a public oral hearing with disclosure, Ofwat’s procedures violate the claimants’ art 6(1) rights. Thames Water refers to the availability of judicial review in the event of an adverse decision and points out that such a submission is inconsistent with the decision in Marcic’s case [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42 where Lord Nicholls at [40]–[46], Lord Hoffmann at [71] and Lord Hope at [83] addressed art 6(1) issues.
[222] In terms of the issue posed, I consider that the alternative remedies under ss 80 and 82 of the 1990 Act, the complaint to Ofwat under s 94 of the 1991 Act and the current abatement notice are all relevant to the issue of whether damages for owners/occupiers and/or those without a legal interest in their homes are necessary to afford just satisfaction under s 8(3) of the 1998 Act.
[223] So far as the issue of whether they constitute appropriate and sufficient redress, I do not consider that I am in a position to answer that question.
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However, I accept that the question must be answered bearing in mind that for an infringement of an individual’s human rights, the concern will usually be to bring the infringement to an end and any question of compensation will be of secondary, if any, importance.
Issue 11: In the light of the answers to the above and given the terms of s 8(3) of the 1998 Act:
a. What are the potential correct measures of damages in this type of case for a claimant who succeeds in an action under s 7(1)(a) of the 1998 Act?
b. If damages for nuisance are lower than those a claimant with a legal interest in his or her home could obtain under the 1998 Act, can these damages be ‘topped up’ under the Act?
The potential correct measures of damages under s 7(1)(a) of the 1998 Act
[224] The claimants submit that the measure of non-pecuniary damages for a victim of a human rights violation in this type of case is that in Fadeyeva v Russia [2005] ECHR 55723/00, para 136, namely damages for inconvenience, mental distress and physical suffering. This should take into account factors such as age, the victim’s state of health and the duration of the situation complained of. The claimants submit that there may also be pecuniary (special) damages.
[225] Thames Water submits that, based upon the sample cases before the court, the proprietary claimants are entitled to damages under the law of nuisance and 1998 Act damages would simply be duplicative of this, and hence those claimants would have already received just satisfaction at common law and non-proprietary members of the family with proprietary claimants as parents, for similar reasons, have no additional claim.
[226] I consider that, where such damages are to be awarded to an individual, the measure of non-pecuniary damages for a victim of a human rights violation in this type of case is damages for inconvenience, mental distress and physical suffering, taking into account all relevant circumstances including factors such as age, the victim’s state of health and the duration of the situation complained of, together with any special damages that can be proved.
[227] However, I consider that such damages would only be awarded if taking account of the measure of damages for nuisance and the availability of the alternative remedies, such damages were necessary to afford just satisfaction.
Can damages for nuisance be ‘topped up’ under the 1998 Act?
[228] The claimants again refer to Scordino v Italy (No 1) [2006] ECHR 36813/97 where the court indicated—
‘268. That the amount it will award under the head of non-pecuniary damage under Article 41 may be less than that indicated in its case-law where the applicant has already obtained a finding of a violation at domestic level and compensation by using a domestic remedy. Apart from the fact that the existence of a domestic remedy is fully in keeping with the subsidiarity principle embodied in the Convention, such a remedy is closer and more accessible than an application to the Court, is faster and is processed in the applicant’s own language; it thus offers advantages that need to be taken into consideration.
269. The Court considers, however, that where an applicant can still claim to be a “victim” after exhausting that domestic remedy he or she must be awarded the difference between the amount obtained from the court of
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appeal and an amount that would not have been regarded as manifestly unreasonable compared with the amount awarded by the Court if it had been awarded by the court of appeal and paid speedily.’
[229] The claimants submit that there is a clear ‘top-up’ provision in the convention jurisprudence and that recourse to common law precedent is unnecessary. For the purposes of art 41 of the convention there is only ‘partial reparation’.
[230] The claimants rely on what the court said in Scordino v Italy (No 1), para 189:
‘Where a State has made a significant move by introducing a compensatory remedy, the Court must leave a wider margin of appreciation to the State to allow it to organise the remedy in a manner consistent with its own legal system and traditions and consonant with the standard of living in the country concerned. It will, in particular, be easier for the domestic courts to refer to the amounts awarded at domestic level for other types of damage—personal injury, damage relating to a relative’s death or damage in defamation cases for example—and rely on their innermost conviction, even if that results in awards of amounts that are lower than those fixed by the Court in similar cases.’
[231] The claimants refer to Sandra Weston’s statement of case and submit that the court may consider that the awards in the sums set out in para 16 were within the margin of appreciation as compared to the award in Fadeyeva v Russia [2005] ECHR 55723/00 of about £4,300 and that the sums in para 17 may be inside or outside of that margin. The claimants submit that, if they are outside that margin then they are ‘manifestly unreasonable’: see Scordino v Italy (No 1), paras 214 and 269 and should then be ‘topped up’. In relation to para 18, to make no award because there was no diminution in value would not be just satisfaction for the violation of her human rights. She would still be a victim of the violation.
[232] Thames Water submits that, based upon the sample cases before the court, the proprietary claimants are entitled to damages under the law of nuisance and that 1998 Act damages would simply be duplicative of this, and hence those claimants would have already received just satisfaction at common law and non-proprietary members of the family with proprietary claimants as parents, for similar reasons, have no additional claim.
[233] Thames Water submits that there is nothing about the law of damages in nuisance which prevents proper compensation being awarded to claimants and loss of amenity amounts to such proper compensation. Thames Water says that it does not argue for no compensation at common law if the facts are as assumed and so no question of 1998 Act top-up arises, as there is no basis for a more generous award under the 1998 Act than at common law. Thames Water submits that the premise envisaged in the question, and under consideration in Scordino v Italy (No 1), simply does not arise.
[234] The court in awarding damages for nuisance assesses them on principles that are sufficiently flexible to do justice as between the parties. In such circumstances it is unlikely that any further damages are necessary to give ‘just satisfaction’.
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[235] I consider that if, despite the considerations set out above, there is a claimant who still remains a victim because he or she has not received just satisfaction then that person would be entitled to further damages.
[236] However, as stated above, I consider that when the court awards damages for nuisance to those with a legal interest in the property that will usually be just satisfaction to partners and children. Unless there are particular circumstances there will not be any further damages.
LIMITATION ISSUES
Issue 12: In determining a limitation issue under s 7(5)(b) of the 1998 Act does the court:
a. Exercise its discretion—by analogy with s 33 of the Limitation Act 1980—with regard to all the circumstances of the individual claimant? And/or
b. In a group action, with regard to all the circumstances of the group?
[237] The claimants refer to the decision in Cameron v Network Rail Infrastructure Ltd [2006] EWHC 1133 (QB), [2007] 3 All ER 241, [2007] 1 WLR 163 where Sir Michael Turner said at [43]:
‘Section 7 of the 1998 Act prescribes a limitation period of one year from the date of the occurrence giving rise to, and the initiation of, the proceedings except that, if the court considers it equitable to extend the period, it may do so. The word “equitable” in this statutory context has an obvious resonance with its use in the Limitation Act 1980. Section 33(1) of that Act permits the court to direct that the primary period of limitation shall not apply if it appears to the court that it would be “equitable” to allow an action to proceed, having regard to the extent to which prejudice would be caused to the claimant or the defendant as the case might be. While it would not be right to incorporate all the circumstances to which the court is enjoined to have regard as set out in sub-s (3) of s 33, which are inclusive and not exclusive of “all the circumstances”, it would not make any sense to disregard them as having no relevance to the circumstances which the court should consider in exercising its discretion whether or not to extend time under these provisions of the 1998 Act.’
[238] However the claimants submit that s 33 is aimed at personal injury actions, not actions in nuisance in which there is no allegation of personal injury: see Stubbings v Webb [1993] 1 All ER 322, [1993] AC 498. They submit that s 7(5) should be considered in the light of the type of action being brought.
[239] The claimants contend that they were entitled to wait until the conclusion of the statutory nuisance proceedings in the magistrates’ court on 5 November 2004 and there was no prejudice to Thames Water by them so doing. Further the claimants submit that the court should be consistent. It is ‘equitable’ that the 1998 Act claimants have the same limitation period as the nuisance claimants.
[240] As far as the circumstances of the group are concerned, the claimants refer to the final Access to Justice Report (July 1996) in which multi-party actions were considered in Ch 17 and, in particular, in para 45 where Lord Woolf wrote:
‘In some circumstances defendants and the Legal Aid Board may be well aware that there are large numbers of people who might be affected by the
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product in question. In those circumstances the claim may be more manageable if the initial certification puts any further individual applications for legal aid on hold and provides for deemed inclusion of unidentified potential claimants on an “opt-out” basis until definitive criteria can be established to provide for the effective filtering of potential claims before they are entered on the register. There is, however, a need for action to be taken in relation to the limitation period and this can only be effective if there are provisions to suspend or freeze the running of the limitation period on certification of the [multi-party situation], as in many other jurisdictions, so that further claimants whose claims were not being considered in detail at this stage were not disadvantaged. This will require primary legislation. In the absence of such legislation I have no doubt that courts will continue to exercise their discretion to admit latecomers since the existence of the [multi-party situation] ensures that defendants are already aware of the potential claims against them.’
[241] In exercising a discretion under s 7(5)(b), the claimants submit that the court can rule that the relevant date for all claimants is 1 March 2005 as, at that date, Thames Water were aware of the potential claims against them.
[242] Thames Water submits that the discretion must be exercised in respect of the individual claimant and that the circumstances of the group (of which the individual forms a part) whilst not irrelevant are not determinative. It submits that this is consistent with Cameron v Network Rail Infrastructure Ltd.
[243] Thames Water submits that the claimants put forward no justification as to why nuisance and personal injury claims ought to be governed by different principles, despite that assertion.
[244] Thames Water submits that it would be entirely inappropriate for the court to rule, on the basis of the exiguous evidence adduced, that the relevant date was 1 March 2005, when the claimants say that Thames Water became aware of the potential claims against them. Of more relevance, Thames Water submits, is the date when the claimants became aware that they might have a claim—and that will involve consideration not only of group material, such as consultations with solicitors and the deliberation of the Mogden pressure group (known as MRAG) but also of individual material. If a claimant has known since October 2000 that he has a claim in nuisance and under the 1998 Act, Thames Water submits that the claim should be out of time.
[245] I respectfully adopt the reasoning of Sir Michael Turner in Cameron v Network Rail Infrastructure Ltd which I consider reflects the correct approach in these cases. I consider that in determining a limitation issue under s 7(5)(b) of the 1998 Act the court should exercise its discretion, by analogy with s 33 of the 1980 Act, having regard to all the circumstances of the individual claimant. In doing so, one of those circumstances will be the circumstances of the group in a group action. Those circumstances may affect the individual. At this stage, it is not possible to make a finding of a particular date in response to this issue.
Issue 13: In a continuing nuisance action should a court start the discretionary exercise under s 7(5)(b) in a case where damages may be awarded as ‘just satisfaction’ for any interference in a claimant’s rights under art 8 of the First Protocol to the convention on the basis of a period of:
a. Six years from the date of the commencement of the action—by analogy with s 2 of the 1980 Act or
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b. The whole time a claimant was subject to the interference with his or her rights, but excluding any period before 1 October 2000—Fadeyeva v Russia [2005] ECHR 55723/00, para 138.
[246] The claimants refer to the case of Mrs Weston. If she is found to have suffered a nuisance then she would be entitled to bring her claim within six years of the cause of action accruing. However there is a risk she may not be awarded damages for that nuisance. If she can only be awarded damages under the 1998 Act then the six-year period would drop to one year under s 7(1)(a).
[247] The claimants submit that it is inequitable that she should have two different limitation periods for the same harm and that the law should be consistent.
[248] The claimants refer to the fact that in human rights cases under art 26, a complaint to the commission must be made within six months of the final decision of the national court being taken and so issues such as those in s 33 of the 1980 Act do not arise in such cases and the applicant will be well aware of his or her legal rights, having exhausted all domestic remedies.
[249] The claimants submit that the fact that in Fadeyeva v Russia the complaint was made in time is irrelevant to the discretion of the court under s 7(5)(b). The issue is whether, in a complaint to the ECt HR, the court would award damages for non-pecuniary loss under art 41 to cover the whole period over which the nuisance occurred. The claimants submit that following Fadeyeva v Russia it would.
[250] Thames Water submits that the limitation period in nuisance may be a relevant consideration when looking at the appropriate period under s 7(5)(b) but accepts that so are other individual and group considerations.
[251] Thames Water also submits that the decision in Fadeyeva v Russia does not assist a domestic court when seeking to construe s 7(5)(b). No limitation issue arose in Fadeyeva v Russia; the convention came into force against Russia in May 1998 and the application was lodged with the ECt HR in December 1999 and her award appears to have been computed from May 1998 until judgment in June 2005. If no limitation issue arose and was adjudicated upon in Fadeyeva v Russia, Thames Water submits that the conclusion that Mrs Fadeyeva was entitled to non-pecuniary loss for over seven years cannot assist the present limitation question.
[252] I do not consider that the decision in Fadeyeva v Russia assists in this case, for the reasons submitted by Thames Water. I consider that the six-year limitation period may be a relevant factor when considering the appropriate period under s 7(5)(b). The court may also take account of the period of time when a claimant was subject to the interference with his or her rights, excluding any period when the rights did not exist.
Issue 14: In the case of infants should the court apply the same rules as those in s 28(1) and (2) of the 1980 Act so that they are treated as being under a disability so that they have either one year (s 7(5)(a)) or a discretionary period (s 7(5)(b)) from ceasing to be an infant to bring their action?
[253] The claimants refer to the fact that under CPR 21.2(3) a court can authorise a child to conduct proceedings on his or her own based, usually, on an assessment of the maturity of the child and his or her ability to understand what is being done.
[254] However the claimants submit that the fact that one child may be able to bring an action or that another’s parents may do so on his behalf, is no reason
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to say that all children have to do so within the time limit set by s 7(5)(a) and that this would discriminate between active parents or children and inactive ones.
[255] In 1998 Act terms the claimants submit that if a child must bring an action when he or she is unable to do so under CPR 21 then he or she has been denied access to the court under art 13. The claimants therefore submit that the answer to issue 14 should be ‘Yes’.
[256] Thames Water states that the 1980 Act periods of disability do not apply to the 1998 Act but agrees that they may be a relevant consideration though such periods are not necessarily determinative of the 1998 Act issue.
[257] Thames Water submits that the procedural considerations of children needing litigation friends prior to the age of 18 are irrelevant to the issue of the relevance of the statutory period of disability under s 28 of the 1980 Act to the present period of limitation which is not governed by the 1980 Act.
[258] Thames Water submits that the claimants’ contentions ignore the fact that a child can start an action at any age, if he or she has a litigation friend and hence Thomas Bannister is a claimant. There is therefore no question of any child being denied access to the court, per art 13 of the convention. Thames Water questions why he and his parents did not begin their actions earlier, and submits that there is no a priori reason why the merits of their reasons for not doing so should not be considered together and ruled upon using similar considerations.
[259] Again, I consider that the provisions of s 28(1) and (2) of the 1980 Act may be relevant to this issue but they are not determinative of the limitation periods under s 7(5) of the 1998 Act.
SUMMARY
[260] I summarise my conclusions on the issues as follows, subject to any argument on the form of the wording.
(1) Issue 1: The claimants are seeking to enforce duties which arise under s 94(1)(b) of the 1991 Act in respect of odours from Mogden STW and/or mosquitoes which live and breed as a result of sewage or sewage sludge at Mogden STW and/or the plant and equipment at Mogden STW holding or treating such sewage or sewage sludge. The claimants are not seeking to enforce duties under s 94(1)(b) in respect of mosquitoes which live and breed on the Mogden STW site but do so not as a result of the sewage or sewage sludge or the plant and equipment holding or treating the sewage sludge.
(2) Issue 2: The claimants are precluded from bringing a claim in nuisance, absent any negligence by reason of the principle in Marcic’s case [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42. The claimants are precluded by the principle in Marcic’s case from bringing claims for nuisance involving allegations of negligence, negligence or based on negligence under the 1998 Act where the exercise of adjudicating on that cause of action is inconsistent and conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act. The claimants are not precluded from bringing a claim in nuisance involving allegations of negligence, negligence or based on negligence under the 1998 Act where, as a matter of fact and degree, the exercise of adjudicating on that cause of action is not inconsistent and does not involve conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act. In such a case, s 18(8) of the 1991 Act enables the bringing of such claims despite the principle in Marcic’s case.
(3) Issue 3: The claims in nuisance involving allegations of negligence, negligence and under the 1998 Act which are not precluded are those where, as a matter of fact and degree, the exercise of adjudicating on the cause of action is not
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inconsistent and does not involve conflicts with the statutory process under the 1991 Act. Causes of action based on the physical operation and/or operational management of the works are not likely to be precluded but that will depend on the facts.
(4) Issue 4: The Marcic principle would not preclude a claim against Thames Water for failing or neglecting to press for capital funding for odour-related expenditure within the AMP system prior to 2000.
(5) Issue 5: In relation to any cause of action based on the allegations of negligence in respect of odours and mosquitoes, Thames Water could not seek to raise the Marcic principle by contending that certain actions were not taken because of a lack of funding from customer charges under the 1991 Act or otherwise. In general, the ability to fund expense will not provide a defence to an allegation of negligence.
(6) Issue 6: Where an award for diminution of capital values cannot be made because the nuisance is not permanent, damage for nuisance caused to a property by smells and mosquitoes should be based on diminution in letting value. An assessment by reference to the physical inconvenience and distress to the claimant is not an appropriate measure of damages. A sum for general loss of amenity is an appropriate measure where the ascertainment of diminution in letting value is not reasonable or practicable.
(7) Issue 7: Damages for diminution in value frequently raise difficult issues of assessment which can usually be resolved by expert evidence. If, after taking account of any expert evidence, the court concludes that such assessment is not reasonable or practicable then the principles on which damages are assessed are sufficiently flexible to do justice between the parties by arriving at a sum for general damages for loss of amenity.
(8) Issue 8: If no diminution in rental value can be shown then the principles on which damages are assessed are sufficiently flexible to do justice between the parties by arriving at a sum for general damages for loss of amenity.
(9) Issue 9: Damages for nuisance might confer a sufficient remedy on those with a legal right to occupy such as to disentitle those living in the same household without such a legal right to a separate remedy under art 8 and/or the 1998 Act. When the court awards damages for nuisance to those with a proprietary interest those damages will usually afford just satisfaction to partners and children but there might be circumstances where they will not. Equally, there may be circumstances where others without a legal right to occupy may have a right to a separate remedy under art 8 and/or the 1998 Act for which there will not be just satisfaction by an award of damages for nuisance.
(10) Issue 10: The alternative remedies under ss 80 and 82 of the 1990 Act, the complaint to Ofwat under s 94 of the 1991 Act and the current abatement notice are all relevant to the issue of whether damages for owners/occupiers and/or those without a legal interest in their homes are necessary to afford just satisfaction under s 8(3) of the 1998 Act.
(11) Issue 11: (a) Damages would only be awarded under s 8(3) of the 1998 Act if taking account of the measure of damages for nuisance and the availability of the alternative remedies, such damages were necessary to afford just satisfaction. Where they are awarded, the measure of non-pecuniary damages for a victim of a human rights violation in this type of case might include damages for inconvenience, mental distress and physical suffering, taking into account all relevant circumstances, including factors such as age, the victim’s state of health and the duration of the situation complained of, together with any special
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damages that can be proved. (b) Damages would only be awarded under s 8(3) of the 1998 Act if taking account of the measure of damages for nuisance and the availability of the alternative remedies, such damages were necessary to afford just satisfaction. An award of damages for nuisance to those with a proprietary interest will usually afford just satisfaction to partners and children. If, despite that, there is a claimant who still remains a victim because he or she has not received just satisfaction then that person would be entitled to further damages under s 8(3) of the 1998 Act.
(12) Issue 12: In determining a limitation issue under s 7(5)(b) of the 1998 Act the court should exercise its discretion, by analogy with s 33 of the 1980 Act, having regard to all the circumstances of the individual claimant. In doing so, one of those circumstances will be the circumstances of the group in a group action.
(13) Issue 13: In determining the relevant period under s 7(5)(b) in a case of damages for interference in a claimant’s rights under art 8 by a continuing nuisance the six-year limitation period under the 1980 Act may be a relevant factor and the court may also take account of the period of time when a claimant was subject to the interference with his or her rights, excluding any period when the rights did not exist.
(14) Issue 14: In the case of infants the provisions of s 28(1) and (2) of the 1980 Act may be relevant to but are not determinative of the limitation periods under s 7(5) of the 1998 Act.
Order accordingly.
Vanessa Higgins Barrister.
Revenue and Customs Commissioners v Total Network SL
[2008] 2 All ER 413
[2008] UKHL 19
Categories: TAXATION; VAT & Customs and Excise
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD, LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE, LORD MANCE AND LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY
Hearing Date(s): 26, 27 NOVEMBER 2007, 12 MARCH 2008
Value added tax – Tax avoidance scheme – Zero-rating – Civil conspiracy – Carousel fraud – Spanish company selling goods to United Kingdom company and subsequently buying them back as part of carousel fraud – United Kingdom conspirator claiming and receiving from commissioners input tax on acquisition of goods – Commissioners claiming damages at common law from Spanish company for unlawful means conspiracy – Whether commissioners entitled to maintain action at common law against person not made accountable or otherwise liable for value added tax by Parliament – Whether levying money for use of the Crown without grant of Parliament – Whether unlawful means conspiracy requiring conduct giving rise to unlawful means to be separately actionable against at least one of conspirators – Bill of Rights (1688), art 4.
The defendant was a company incorporated in Spain and had a bank account in the United Kingdom. The claimant commissioners alleged that the defendant was involved in a number of carousel (or intra-Community missing trader) frauds. At its simplest, such a fraud began with the sale of taxable goods by a trader, A, registered for value added tax (VAT) in one member state to a registered trader, B, in another member state. Such a supply was exempted from VAT (or in the language of the United Kingdom legislation zero-rated). B then resold the goods to another VAT-registered trader, C, in its own member state, charging and receiving VAT on the consideration. B failed to account for that VAT to the tax authorities and disappeared (becoming a ‘missing trader’). Before doing so, it provided a tax invoice to C (the broker), who claimed and received from the tax authorities the VAT that it had paid to B as input tax. C then sold the goods to a registered trader in another member state. In the simplest form of the fraud that trader was A. That sale was zero-rated, so there was no output tax to set off against the input tax which C had received. B’s disappearance resulted in a profit to the conspirators which was equivalent to the amount of the input tax received by C. The frauds alleged followed that model, with more conspirators and two missing traders involved, with the defendant filling the role of A. The commissioners issued proceedings against the defendant for damages at common law relying on the tort of unlawful means conspiracy. The unlawful means on which they relied included (a) commission by one of the missing traders and/or the broker of the common law offence of cheating the revenue and (b) the making by the broker of a fraudulent misrepresentation that the transactions had a genuine economic purpose and that the VAT was chargeable and/or recoverable on them by the submission to the commissioners of a VAT return in the relevant form claiming that it was entitled to a VAT credit. A preliminary
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issue was tried as to whether the commissioners had a cause of action in conspiracy where the unlawful means alleged was the common law offence of cheating the public revenue. The judge held that they did. The Court of Appeal, on the defendant’s appeal, disagreed. On appeal by the commissioners and cross-appeal by the defendant, two issues arose. First, whether it was open to the commissioners to maintain a cause of action in damages at common law as a means of recovering VAT from a person who had not been made accountable or otherwise liable for that tax by Parliament. Part of the defendant’s argument in that regard was that in light of the comprehensive statutory regime set out in the Value Added Tax Act 1994 for the administration and collection of VAT it was not open to Revenue and Customs to bring such an action at common law. Alternatively it was said that such an action was contrary to art 4a of the Bill of Rights (1688), which provided that no money should be levied for or to the use of the Crown except by grant of Parliament. Secondly, whether, if it was permissible for the commissioners to bring such an action, it was an essential requirement of the tort of unlawful means conspiracy that the conduct which was said to amount to the unlawful means should give rise to a separate action in tort against at least one of the conspirators.
Held – (1) (Lord Hope and Lord Neuberger dissenting) There was nothing in the scheme of the 1994 Act or the Bill of Rights to preclude the commissioners pursuit of a common law action against the defendant. (Per Lord Scott and Lord Walker) The commissioners’ statutory powers in connection with VAT were not solely derived from the 1994 Act. They were also derived from the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005. Moreover, the commissioners regularly presented bankruptcy and winding-up petitions against defaulting taxpayers of all sorts. They did so in order to recover tax (not to levy it). They did not appear to have any express statutory power to seek such remedies, but it was not doubted that those remedies were available. The instant case concerned not merely fraudulent tax evasion, but the fraudulent extraction of money from the exchequer. The commissioners would undoubtedly have had a civil remedy against robbers who had stolen cash representing collected taxes from it; the instant case was essentially the same. (Per Lord Mance) For the statutory scheme to supersede and displace the common law rights and remedies which the commissioners would otherwise have, the 1994 Act had positively to be shown to be inconsistent with the continuation of the ordinary common law remedy otherwise available, and further that had to be shown against the particular defendant. In light of the statutory scheme it would appear that the commissioners could not pursue an independent actionable remedy (outside the 1994 Act) against the broker (or the other United Kingdom companies in the carousel). However, the commissioners’ inability in law to pursue anything other than a statutory remedy against those entities did not mean that they could not still pursue the defendant for the conspiracy to which it was alleged that all those in the carousel were party. No statutory remedy to recover VAT or repayment of a VAT credit from the defendant was available to the defendant in that regard. Neither the defendant’s overseas status nor the fact that it was not a taxable person took it outwith the scope of a claim for conspiracy (see [47], [60], [61], [106]–[110], [130]–[137], [139], below).
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(2) Criminal conduct at common law could constitute unlawful means in unlawful means conspiracy, provided that it was indeed the means of intentionally inflicting harm. That was so whether or not that conduct, on the part of an individual, would be actionable as some other tort. To hold otherwise would be to deprive the tort of conspiracy of any real content, as the conspirators would be joint tortfeasors in any event. However, in the phrase ‘unlawful means’ each word had an important part to play. It was not enough that there was an element of unlawfulness somewhere in the story. Although the intentional harm tort and the unlawful means variety of conspiracy shared the ingredient of the intentional infliction of harm on the claimant, unlawful means conspiracy was not simply the intentional harm tort committed by joint tortfeasors. The gist of the intentional harm tort (apart from exceptional two party cases) was striking at the claimant through a third party, and doing so by interfering with his freedom of economic activity. The gist of conspiracy was damage intentionally inflicted by persons who combined for that purpose. As the economic torts had developed ‘unlawful means’ had a wider meaning in conspiracy than it had in the intentional harm tort. The commissioners’ appeal would, accordingly, be allowed. The defendant’s cross-appeal would be dismissed (see [43]–[45], [47], [61], [94], [95], [100], [116], [124], [126], [139], [217], [221]–[225], [231], below); Powell v Boladz (1998) 39 BMLR 35 overruled; OBG Ltd v Allan [2007] 4 All ER 545 considered.
Notes
For the essential ingredients of the tort of conspiracy, see 45(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 697.
For cheating the public revenue, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 322.
For taxation: general principles, see 8(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 228.
For the Bill of Rights (1688) see 10 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2007 reissue) 42.
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Appeal
The claimants, the Revenue and Customs Commissioners, appealed and the defendant, Total Network SL (Total) (a company incorporated in Spain), cross-appealed with permission of the Court of Appeal (Ward, Chadwick and Gage LJJ) from their decision on 31 January 2007 ([2007] EWCA Civ 39, [2007] 2 WLR 1156) striking out the commissioners’ claim allowing Total’s appeal from the decision of Hodge J on 10 January 2005 ([2005] EWHC 1 (QB), [2005] STC 637) that, as a preliminary issue, the Customs and Excise Commissioners (as they then were) had a cause of action against the defendant in conspiracy where the unlawful means alleged was the common law offence of cheating the public revenue. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Hope of Craighead.
John Martin QC and Philip Coppel (instructed by the Solicitor for Revenue and Customs) for the commissioners.
Charles Flint QC and Tom Weisselberg (instructed by Byrne & Partners) for Total.
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Their Lordships took time for consideration.
12 March 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD HOPE OF CRAIGHEAD.
[1] My Lords, the issue in this case is whether the commissioners can maintain a civil claim for damages under the tort of unlawful means conspiracy against a participant in a missing trader intra-community, or carousel, fraud. Two questions need to be considered. The first is whether it is open to the commissioners to maintain a cause of action in damages at common law as a means of recovering value added tax (VAT) from a person who has not been made accountable or otherwise liable for that tax by Parliament. The second is whether, if so, it is an essential requirement of the tort of unlawful means conspiracy that the conduct which is said to amount to the unlawful means should give rise to a separate action in tort against at least one of the conspirators.
[2] On the second issue the Court of Appeal (Ward, Chadwick and Gage LJJ) considered itself bound by prior Court of Appeal authority to hold that the unlawful means had to be independently actionable: [2007] EWCA Civ 39 at [78]–[79], [2007] 2 WLR 1156 at [78]–[79]. Its decision to strike out the commissioners’ claim for this reason is the subject of the appeal to this House by the commissioners. The Court of Appeal decided the first issue in favour of the commissioners: at [31]–[32]. Total Network SA (Total) has cross-appealed on the first issue.
THE FACTS
[3] Total is a company incorporated in Spain which has a bank account in the United Kingdom. The commissioners claim that Total is liable to them in damages at common law for conspiracy in sums equivalent to amounts of VAT which the commissioners say they have lost as a result of 13 carousel frauds which were participated in by Total. There are alleged to have been 13 such conspiracies over five months from May to October 2002.
[4] In its simplest form a carousel fraud begins with the sale of taxable goods by a trader registered for VAT in one member state, A, to a VAT-registered trader in another member state, B. Under art 28c(A)(a) of Council Directive (EC) 77/388 of 17 May 1977 on the harmonisation of the laws of the member states relating to turnover taxes—common system of value added tax: uniform basis of assessment (OJ 1977 L145 p 1) (the Sixth Directive), the supply of goods to a trader in another member state is exempted from VAT. In the words of s 30 of the Value Added Tax Act 1994, it is zero-rated. B then sells the goods to another VAT-registered trader, C, in its own member state, charging and receiving VAT on the consideration. It fails to account for that VAT to the taxing authorities and disappears. It becomes a missing trader. But before doing so it provides a tax invoice to C, which claims and receives the VAT that it has paid to B as input tax. C, the middleman or broker, then sells the goods to a registered trader in another member state. In the simplest form, this is A. This sale is zero-rated, so there is no output tax to set off against the input tax which C has received. B’s disappearance has resulted in a profit to the conspirators which is equivalent to the amount of the input tax received by C. It is the circularity of the transaction that gives rise to the description of the fraud as a carousel.
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[5] The fraud is the product of a dishonest application of the system of VAT. C has a claim for input tax arising from its transaction with the missing trader, B, which it is entitled to recover under art 17(2)(d) of the Sixth Directive. Its sale to A is zero-rated in its own member state. So it is not required to account to the taxing authorities for any output tax on that sale. The result of the fraud is that the missing trader, B, has received the VAT from C. But it has not accounted for that VAT as output tax to the taxing authorities. They must nevertheless pay the VAT, or give credit for it, to C when it is claimed as input tax. The goods are no more than a token to give the transaction the semblance of reality. A has no genuine business motive in buying back what it has sold. Typically the goods are high volume articles such as computer chips or mobile telephones.
[6] As the Court of Appeal observed (at [3]) this type of fraud is not confined to the United Kingdom. It is common in other countries within the European Union. It has been described as a sophisticated attack on the VAT system. It was estimated to have cost in excess of £1bn in the year 2004/2005 to the United Kingdom by way of lost revenue. The commissioners refer in their written case to estimates that show that this figure was exceeded substantially in the succeeding financial years. There is no doubt that this is a pernicious stratagem, and that member states are justified in making use of every means at their disposal within the scope of the Sixth Directive to eradicate it.
[7] It is sufficient for the purposes of this case to summarise the details of the first of the 13 conspiracies alleged in the statement of claim. It has been treated as representative of all of them. On or about 15 October 2002 Total sold 3,780 Nokia mobile phones to Redlaw Ltd, a company incorporated in England and Wales, for £1,672,224·75. On the same day Redlaw sold the mobile phones to LockPts Ltd for £1,423,170 plus £249,054·75 as VAT, amounting in total to £1,672,224·75. On the same day Lockparts sold them to GAK Ltd, for £1,428,840 plus £250,047 as VAT, amounting in total to £1,678,887. Both Redlaw and Lockparts thereafter ceased to trade and did not pay the VAT due on these transactions. On the same day GAK sold the mobile telephones to The Accessory People plc, for £1,436,400 plus £251,370 as VAT, amounting in total to £1,687,770. On the same day The Accessory People sold them to Alldech Ltd, the broker, for £1,447,740 plus £253,345.50 as VAT, amounting in total to £1,701,094.50. In due course GAK and The Accessory People paid VAT on the transactions which they had entered into. Finally, on the same day Alldech sold the mobile telephones to Total for £1,508,220. That sale, being a sale out of the United Kingdom, was zero-rated. Alldech claimed and was paid a refund of input tax from the commissioners which included the sum of £253,345·50 of VAT which it had paid to The Accessory People.
[8] Reduced to its essentials, the position is that Redlaw, the first missing trader, was liable to pay VAT of £249,054·75 on its taxable supply which it failed to pay to the commissioners. The intermediaries in the chain, other than Lockparts, did properly account for and pay VAT on the supplies. Alldech, the broker, did actually pay VAT of £253,345·50 on the supply it received from The Accessory People. Alldech then claimed and received a VAT credit for £253,345 in respect of the zero-rated supply out of the United Kingdom to Total. If Redlaw, the first missing trader, had paid the VAT due from it of £249,054·75 the result would have been that substantially all the VAT due on these transactions would have been paid or accounted for. The difference between the amounts paid and due at each end of the chain is accounted for by the fact that VAT of
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£992·25 due by Lockparts, the second missing trader, was not paid to the commissioners.
[9] The total number of mobile phones involved in the 13 conspiracies was 30,704. They were sold by Total to the various missing traders for a total of £12,299,117·40 and re-purchased by Total from the various brokers for a total of £11,663,423. The total amount of VAT due but unpaid on the sales by the missing traders is £1,921,331·12. The total amount of the VAT refund claimed by the brokers and allowed by the commissioners is £1,958,714·95. That is the sum claimed in this action.
[10] The cause of action relied on by the commissioners is the tort known as unlawful means conspiracy. The unlawful means on which they rely in their re-re-amended particulars of claim are (a) the commission by Redlaw and/or Alldech of the common law offence of cheating the revenue and (b) the making by Alldech of a fraudulent misrepresentation that the transactions had a genuine economic purpose and that VAT was chargeable and/or recoverable on them by the submission to the commissioners of a VAT return in the relevant form claiming that it was entitled to a VAT credit. The claim relating to four of the alleged conspiracies was issued on 2 July 2003. On the same day Fulford J granted a freezing injunction against Total, the amount of which was increased on several subsequent occasions as other alleged conspiracies were added to the claim. On 10 January 2005 Hodge J held that the commissioners had a cause of action in conspiracy where the unlawful means alleged was the common law offence of cheating the public revenue. On 31 January 2007 the Court of Appeal allowed Total’s appeal against that order. The commissioners were granted permission to appeal to this House and Total were granted permission to cross-appeal. The freezing injunction was continued pending the determination of the appeal and the cross-appeal.
THE STATUTORY SCHEME
[11] Value added tax is a creature of statute. More precisely, it is the product of a series of EC Directives, of which the Sixth Directive was the most recent. (The Sixth Directive was repealed and replaced by Council Directive (EC) 2006/112 of 28 November 2006. But it was still in force at the time when the transactions that gave rise to this case were entered into.) They provided for the harmonisation of this form of sales tax throughout all the member states of the European Union: see Pt I of the Finance Act 1972, which brought the then directives into force in the United Kingdom following its accession to the EEC. It is a Community tax. There is no common law to which reference can be made. So it is important, to set the issues into their proper context, to identify the provisions of the statute that apply to the transactions that were involved in the alleged fraud. They are to be found in the 1994 Act, as amended. It is important also to identify the extent of the remedial steps that are available under the Act to the commissioners. There are, as Mr Flint QC for Total explained, three aspects of the statutory scheme that need to be considered. These are: (a) the application of the 1994 Act to transactions of the type complained of in this action; (b) whether the 1994 Act creates an exclusive regime for the enforcement of liabilities arising out of the failure to account for or pay VAT; and (c) the nature of the duties and rights of the commissioners.
[12] Section 1(1) of the 1994 Act provides that VAT shall be charged, in accordance with the provisions of the Act, on the supply of goods or services in
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the United Kingdom and on the acquisition in the United Kingdom from another member state of any goods. Section 1(2) provides that VAT on the supply of goods or services is a liability of the person making the supply and that, subject to provisions about accounting and payment, it becomes due at the time of the supply. That section must be read with ss 4(1) and 10(1) which make it clear that VAT is charged on the events referred to in s 1 only when the person who makes the supply or acquisition is a taxable person. Section 3(1) provides that a person is a taxable person while he is, or is required to be, registered under the Act. Total is not, and does not require to be, registered as it is a Spanish company carrying on business outside the United Kingdom. On the other hand Redlaw, the first missing trader, was registered under the Act, as was the broker, Alldech.
[13] Section 7 of the 1994 Act deals with the place of supply. It applies for determining whether, for the purposes of the Act, goods or services are supplied in the United Kingdom. Section 13 deals with the place of acquisition. It applies for determining whether, for the purposes of the Act, goods acquired from another member state are acquired in the United Kingdom. Section 25(1) provides that a taxable person shall account for and pay VAT in respect of supplies made by him and in respect of the acquisition by him of goods from another member state. This is to be done by reference to prescribed accounting periods. Section 25(2) provides that he is entitled at the end of each accounting period to credit for so much of his input tax as is allowable under s 26 and then to deduct that amount from any output tax that is due from him. So Redlaw was liable under s 25(1) of the 1994 Act to pay the output tax due on the supplies of the mobile telephones that it made in the United Kingdom, and Alldech was entitled under the same subsection to recover the VAT that it paid on their supply to it as input tax allowable under s 26.
[14] Part IV of the 1994 Act, which is headed ‘Administration, Collection and Enforcement’, is introduced by s 58, which provides that Sch 11 shall have effect with respect to the administration, collection and enforcement of VAT. Paragraph 1(1) of Sch 11, as originally enacted, provided that VAT was to be under the care and management of the commissioners. Paragraph 5(1) provides that VAT due from any person shall be recoverable as a debt due to the Crown. These provisions must now be read together with the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, which provides for the appointment of the commissioners to exercise the functions previously vested in the Commissioners of Customs and Excise and for the transfer to them of the ancillary powers that were conferred on the former commissioners by the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979.
[15] Various provisions are included within Pt IV to enable the commissioners to collect and to enforce the payment of VAT. Section 60 enables a civil penalty to be recovered in cases of dishonest evasion of VAT or the making of false input tax or repayment claims. Section 61 extends liability to a civil penalty to the director or managing officer where the person liable under s 60 is a body corporate. Section 72 makes it an offence for a person to be knowingly concerned in, or in the taking of steps with a view to, the fraudulent evasion of VAT by him or by any other person. This provision supplements other common law offences with which the offender may be charged, including conspiracy to cheat the revenue. All persons knowingly concerned in the fraudulent evasion who are subject to the criminal jurisdiction of the relevant part of the United Kingdom are within its reach. Section 73 enables the commissioners to assess the amount of
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VAT due where there has been a failure for whatever reason to make any returns required by the Act. The making of assessments under this provision is subject to the time limits set out in s 73(6). They may not be made after the later of two years after the end of the prescribed accounting period or one year after the evidence of the facts came to the knowledge of the commissioners. Section 76 enables the commissioners to assess amounts due by way of penalty, interest or surcharge. Section 77 prescribes a long-stop time limit, normally six years in the section as originally enacted and now three as substituted by s 47(10) of the Finance Act 1997, on the making of assessments, including assessments for penalties, interest or surcharge, under s 76.
[16] Two further provisions, added to the 1994 Act by amendment to address the problem of intra-community fraud, are also relevant to an understanding of the scheme of the 1994 Act. First, s 77A was added by s 18(1) and (4) of the Finance Act 2003 with effect from 10 April 2003. It enables the commissioners, where a taxable supply of goods to which the section applies has been made to a taxable person, and at the time of supply that person knew or had reasonable grounds to suspect that some or all of the VAT payable in respect of that supply would go unpaid, to serve a notice on the taxable person making him jointly and severally liable with the person who is liable to the commissioners for that amount. Section 77A(1) provides that the section applies to telephones and equipment made or adapted for use in connection with telephones, computers and equipment made or adapted for use in connection with computers and various other equipment of a similar nature which it specifies.
[17] Secondly, s 55A was added by s 19(1) of the Finance Act 2006, together with s 26AB which provides for the adjustment of accounts to give effect to it. It introduced a system known as reverse charge accounting which had been permitted by a derogation from art 21(1)(a) of the Sixth Directive that had been requested by the United Kingdom government under art 27(1) to combat missing trader intra-community fraud. Its core is to be found in s 55A(3) by which the purchaser rather than the seller is liable to account for and pay the VAT on the supply. It applies to goods of a description specified in an order made by the Treasury. In June 2007 reverse charge accounting was implemented in respect of mobile phones and computer chips.
[18] Neither of these additional measures to combat fraud has the effect of enabling the commissioners to obtain a statutory remedy against persons in another member state whom it believes to have been involved in intra-community fraud who are not registered for VAT in the United Kingdom. No provision for this is made in the Sixth Directive. There is no statutory remedy against Total. Redlaw and Alldech on the other hand are within the reach of the statute. Redlaw’s failure to pay was a breach of s 25(1) of the 1994 Act. Alldech can be assessed under s 73(2) for an amount as being VAT due from it to the commissioners which is equivalent to the amount of the VAT that it recovered as input tax, on the ground that the commissioners would have been entitled to withhold payment of the VAT if the purpose of the transaction had been disclosed to them.
[19] Mention should also be made of the provision which the 1994 Act makes for appeals. Section 82(1) provides that a reference to a tribunal is a reference to a tribunal constituted in accordance with Sch 12. Section 83 provides that an appeal shall lie to a tribunal with respect to the various matters listed in that section which, as amended, include the amount of any input tax that may be
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credited to any person, any liability to a penalty or a surcharge under ss 59 to 69, any assessment made under s 73 and any liability arising by virtue of s 77A.
[20] Overall the impression that is conveyed by the 1994 Act as amended is of a comprehensive scheme for the administration, collection and enforcement of VAT by the commissioners under the powers that are given to them by the statute. This is consistent with the propositions which I set out at [11], above: VAT is a creature of statute, the limits of which are set by the Sixth Directive which requires member states to comply strictly with the harmonised rules that it lays down. It is designed to apply throughout the European Union. So there is no common law to which reference can be made to fill any gaps in the scheme as to the persons from whom the commissioners may collect amounts due to it as VAT. This is the background to the first issue, which is whether the commissioners can maintain a cause of action in damages at common law as a means of recovering VAT that ought not to have been paid or credited from a person who has not been made accountable or otherwise liable for that tax by Parliament.
THE FIRST ISSUE: THE EXCLUSIVE REGIME ISSUE
[21] Total submits that it is a fundamental constitutional principle that no money shall be levied for or to the use of the Crown except by grant of Parliament, and that this in substance is what the commissioners are seeking to do in this case without Parliamentary authority. Although their claim is presented as one for the award of damages, what they are really seeking to do is to recover by indirect means sums due as tax. Their action was ultra vires of the statute, from which alone they derive their powers. It was also contrary to art 4 of the Bill of Rights 1688, which declares: ‘That levying money for or to the use of the Crown, by pretence of prerogative, without Grant of Parliament for longer time, or in other manner than the same is or shall be granted, is illegal.' The commissioners had no power under the 1994 Act to raise an assessment on Total for the tax that had been not been paid on the transactions. Nor was there any power under the Act to commence civil proceedings by action to recover unpaid tax from Total as a debt, as Total was not a taxable person. The absence of any such power was to be contrasted with the powers to recover unpaid tax that were now available to the commissioners in terms of ss 55A and 77A of the Act, as amended.
[22] The Court of Appeal did not, of course, question the fundamental constitutional principle. Ample support for it is to be found in the authorities. In Gosling v Veley (1850) 12 QB 328 at 407, 116 ER 891 at 921, Wilde CJ said:
‘The rule of law that no pecuniary burden can be imposed upon the subjects of this country, by whatever name it may be called, whether tax, due, rate or toll, except upon clear and distinct legal authority, established by those who seek to impose the burden, has been so often the subject of legal decision that it may be deemed a legal axiom, and requires no authority to be cited in support of it.’
In A-G v Wilts United Dairies Ltd (1921) 37 TLR 884 the Food Controller under the Defence of the Realm Acts sought to impose a charge as a condition of the grant of a licence to purchase milk in certain areas for which no authority had been given by Parliament. It was held that he had no power to do so. Atkin LJ referred
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at 886 to the Bill of Rights and to what he described as the elaborate custom of Parliament by which money for the service of the Crown is only granted at the request of the Crown made by a responsible minister and assented to by the House of Commons. He went on to draw this conclusion:
‘In these circumstances, if an officer of the executive seeks to justify a charge upon the subject made for the use of the Crown (which includes all the purposes of the public revenue), he must show, in clear terms, that Parliament has authorised the particular charge.’
In the House of Lords, where the decision was affirmed, Lord Buckmaster said that the imposition could only be properly described as a tax, which could not be levied except by direct statutory means: (1922) 38 TLR 781.
[23] Having recognised the principle, the Court of Appeal said ([2007] STC 1005 at [31]) that the crucial issue was to determine the nature of the claim in conspiracy:
‘Assuming for the purpose of this argument that a claim in conspiracy does lie, then this is a claim for damages for a perfectly proper, well-recognised tort, the tort of conspiring together to defraud the claimant. That the measure of damages suffered by such a claimant may be measured by reference to the amount by which the Exchequer’s income is depleted does not in our view alter the essential character of the claim as one for damages, not as a levy of money for the use of the Crown without grant of Parliament.’
Having distinguished the nature of the claim in the Wilts United Dairies case, the court summed up its conclusion with these words:
‘Properly characterised this claim by the commissioners is not a direct claim for VAT. It is a claim brought on a wholly different basis. It is a claim against conspirators to recover loss occasioned by fraud. It would make a mockery of the law to suggest that a fraudster can escape with impunity by piously claiming the benefit of the Bill of Rights designed for the innocent down-trodden citizen, not the scheming international fraudster.’
[24] The Court of Appeal took a different view, at a later stage in its judgment, of the possibility that the commissioners might have an independent actionable claim of damages at common law against Alldech: at [83]–[85]. The commissioners had a statutory method for clawing back tax wrongly paid or credited to a trader under ss 73(2) and 77 of the 1994 Act. So the common law claim would be met by the defence that the only remedy was one provided by the statute. In that respect the statutory provisions could be said to provide a comprehensive regime for collecting tax which had been wrongly paid or credited. The commissioners have issued an assessment under s 73(2) against Alldech to recover the amount of VAT with which they were wrongly credited.
[25] At first sight the argument that Total is entitled to invoke the Bill of Rights to avoid liability for its part in the alleged conspiracy seems to fly in the face of common sense. But, as Mr Flint pointed out, the protection of the Bill of Rights is available to everyone. Fraudsters and cheats are as much entitled to be
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protected against the levying of taxes without the authority of Parliament as anyone else. At the heart of his argument however there lie more fundamental questions about the nature of the commissioners’ claim and their interest, if any, to seek to recover tax wrongly paid or credited as damages against a person upon whom no liability to pay that amount can be imposed under the statute.
[26] The claim that is made in this case is presented as a claim for damages. As presented it is, as the Court of Appeal said, a claim for the loss caused by a perfectly proper, well recognised tort. I agree with my noble and learned friend Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury (at [172], below) that such a claim is simply not within the territory of art 4 of the Bill of Rights. But I do not think that the claim in this case is truly of that character. The function of an action of damages is to provide a remedy for interests that are recognised by the law as entitled to protection. Obvious examples are protection against injury to the person, to reputation and to privacy. Economic interests are entitled to protection too, such as a person’s business or his property. As Hazel Carty An Analysis of the Economic Torts (2001) p 3, puts it, the economic torts are to be seen as protecting against the infliction of economic harm. Tony Weir A Casebook on Tort (10th edn, 2004) p 17, makes the same point. Compensation, he says, is the principal function of tort law. The very concept of compensation entails the notion or harm or damage, since only harm or damage can be compensated.
[27] It is not difficult to think of situations where the commissioners could properly bring a claim of damages for loss sustained with regard to some interest that falls within the law’s protection, such as damage to their buildings or their equipment. In IRC v Hambrook [1956] 3 All ER 338, [1956] 2 QB 641 the Revenue’s claim for loss resulting from its being deprived of the services of a taxing officer due to a vehicle accident was dismissed. But this was because an action for that kind of loss did not lie where its relationship was with an established civil servant. In this case it is said that an action lies for loss sustained as a result of an unlawful means conspiracy. But can the amount sued for be said to be a loss sustained by the commissioners for which they can sue in damages?
[28] The commissioners’ duties and responsibilities are set out comprehensively in the statute. Paragraph 1(1) of Sch 11 to the 1994 Act, as originally enacted, stated that VAT was to be under the care and management of the commissioners. Section 1(1) of the 1994 Act states that references in the Act to VAT are references to value added tax charged in accordance with the provisions of the Act. Paragraph 5(1) of Sch 11 states that VAT due from any person shall be recoverable as a debt due to the Crown. The commissioners are not authorised by the statute to carry on a business for profit. They have no commercial interests that need to be protected by the tort of conspiracy: see Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 464, [1982] AC 173 at 189 per Lord Diplock. Their only function is to gather in and account to the Crown for VAT charged in accordance with the provisions of the Act. My noble and learned friend Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe, very properly, draws attention to the fact that the point that the commissioners have no commercial interests needing to be protected by the tort of conspiracy was not raised by Mr Flint in his written and oral submissions (para 40). But in my respectful opinion it follows inevitably from his analysis of the statute.
[29] The sum that is claimed as damages in this action is the amount of the VAT that the commissioners say was wrongly paid to Alldech in response to its claim for a refund or credit of input tax. It is the same amount as is recoverable
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as a debt due to the Crown from Alldech by means of an assessment made under s 73(2). It is not recoverable from Total under the 1994 Act because the statute makes no provision for the recovery of VAT from someone who is not a taxable person within the meaning of s 3. There is, it may be said, a gap in the statute. But this does not mean that the commissioners have suffered a loss for which they can sue in damages. All that can be said is that payment was made to Alldech which ought not to have been made. It is an amount that can be recovered as a debt due to the Crown from Alldech. It does not change its character as a debt due to the Crown because, when it is sought to be recovered from someone else, it is described as damages. It is an inescapable fact that the sums claimed as damages will become VAT for the purposes of the statute if and when they are paid to the commissioners because they have no power under the statute to deal with those sums in any other way. But the commissioners have no power to recover such a debt from strangers to the Act such as Total. In form the claim is one for damages, outside the scope of art 4 of the Bill of Rights. But in substance it is a claim for the recovery of VAT from a person who is under no liability to pay that tax under the statute. No provision for this is made in the Sixth Directive. Total do not need to invoke the protection of art 4. The issue is resolved by the terms of the statute. The statutory code precludes the claim.
[30] As the Court of Appeal noted when it was considering, and then rejecting, the possibility of an independent actionable claim in damages at common law against Alldech, the statutory provisions can properly be said to provide a comprehensive regime for collecting VAT which has been wrongly paid or credited to a taxable person. Various aspects of that regime sit uneasily with the idea that there is an independent common law remedy. For example, time limits are built into the provisions for the making of assessments under s 73(2) of the 1994 Act that are different from those that apply to a common law remedy: see s 77. And exclusive jurisdiction for the determination of all appeals arising from the commissioners’ exercise of their powers under the Act is given by s 82 to a tribunal constituted under Sch 12. As Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead said in Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2005] UKHL 54 at [13], [2005] 4 All ER 1141 at [13], [2006] 1 AC 118, the taxpayer must use the remedies provided by the tax legislation. It would seem odd for the court to have the exclusive jurisdiction to determine disputes about the amount of VAT claimed as damages from a non-taxable person such as Total, when a tribunal has exclusive jurisdiction to determine disputes as to exactly the same amount of VAT at the instance of a taxpayer who, under the tort on which the commissioners rely, is jointly and several liable.
[31] These additional points reinforce the fundamental point that the regime for the administration and collection of VAT which is set out in the 1994 Act is indeed comprehensive and does not admit the use by the commissioners of means for collecting VAT which are not provided for by the statute. The steps which Parliament has taken to address the problem of carousel fraud by conferring additional statutory powers on the commissioners, authorised where necessary by a derogation from the Sixth Directive, are entirely consistent with this view. The taking of these powers would not have been necessary if common law remedies were available. The fact that Parliament has followed this route is, of course, due to its long tradition of insisting that power to raise money for the public revenue may be exercised only with statutory authority. In my opinion
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the commissioners’ attempt to resort to the common law for this purpose, which is without precedent, is contrary to principle.
[32] I do not think, with the greatest of respect, that it is an answer to say, as Lord Walker does, that the commissioners regularly seek and obtain remedies against defaulting taxpayers which are not conferred on them expressly by statute or that the courts must be astute to deal with progressive techniques of tax avoidance when they are construing the taxing statutes. These points do not meet the fundamental objection that the purpose of this action is to recover VAT from a person who is not, for any of the purposes of the 1994 Act, a taxpayer. Nor is it met by the example of cash representing collected taxes which was stolen from a vehicle belonging to the commissioners while in transit. I agree that the commissioners would have a civil remedy to reclaim the money if it could be traced to the robbers’ bank account. But it would be recovered as a debt due by them to the commissioners, not from a third party as damages. If the claim is properly to be seen as one for damages, the amount due would need to be assessed, as my noble and learned friend Lord Scott of Foscote points out. But the fact that techniques are available for the assessment of damages does not answer the question whether the commissioners are in a position to make such a claim.
[33] For these reasons I consider that the Court of Appeal was wrong to hold that this ground of appeal was wholly devoid of merit. I would hold, in agreement with Lord Neuberger, that the commissioners’ claim is precluded by the statute and ought to have been struck out on this ground.
THE SECOND ISSUE: UNLAWFUL MEANS CONSPIRACY
[34] The Court of Appeal said (at [67]) that it could see no reason, on the assumed facts of this case, why the commissioners ought not to be able to rely on the tort of conspiracy by unlawful means. If it had been open to it to do so, it would have held that the allegation of conspiracy to cheat the commissioners, provided there was an intention, albeit not a predominant intention, to injure them, was sufficient. But it felt itself prevented from doing so by the decision of the Court of Appeal in Powell v Boladz (1998) 39 BMLR 35 in which Stuart-Smith LJ said, in a judgment with which the two other members of the court agreed, that the unlawful act relied upon must be actionable at the suit of the plaintiff and that it was not sufficient that it amounted to a crime or a breach of contract with a third party.
[35] The authorities relied upon by Stuart-Smith LJ in support of that proposition were Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (17th edn, 1995) para 23-80, Marrinan v Vibart [1962] 1 All ER 869, [1963] 1 QB 234 and [1962] 3 All ER 380, [1963] 1 QB 528, Hargreaves v Bretherton [1958] 3 All ER 122, [1959] 1 QB 45 and Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 462, [1982] AC 173 at 186 and following per Lord Diplock. The discussion of the topic in Clerk and Lindsell, as can be seen from the nineteenth edition (2006) pp 1615–1620, is wide-ranging and does not come down firmly on either one side or the other. Mr Flint accepted in the Court of Appeal and in your Lordships’ House that neither Marrinan v Vibart nor Hargreaves v Bretherton supports the proposition for which they were cited. So the question is whether support for it is to be found in Lord Diplock’s speech in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) and, if it can be found there, how what Lord Diplock said in that case stands up to examination in the light of the speech
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of Lord Bridge of Harwich in Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303, [1992] 1 AC 448.
[36] The background to Lord Diplock’s speech in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) is to be found in the way the issue was dealt with in the Court of Appeal: [1981] Com LR 74. The judge, Parker J, had held that there was no claim in conspiracy because the acts, if done, were not done with intent to harm the plaintiff and were not in themselves actionable. Lord Denning MR made it clear at the outset of his discussion that the important point was that the agreement, if any, to which Shell was a party was not made with any intent to injure the pipeline companies. The point of law was whether the agreement to do an unlawful act was actionable by anyone who suffers damage even though there was no intention to injure him. He pointed out that the problem only arises where the unlawful act is one which does not itself give rise to a cause of action but it is sought to make it actionable by reason of an agreement by two or more to do it. His answer to it was that the tort was a conspiracy to injure. That intention may not be the predominant motive. It might be mixed with others. But it was sufficient if the conspiracy was aimed or directed at the plaintiff, it could reasonably be foreseen that it might injure him and it did in fact do so. Eveleigh LJ’s judgment was to the same effect. Fox LJ said:
‘I agree with the judge, that where persons combine to do an unlawful act with the intention of injuring another person there is every reason why that person should have a cause of action if he suffers damage. The position is otherwise if, there being no cause of action in respect of the act if done by an individual, there was no intent by the combiners to injure the complainant. To give such a cause of action gives undue weight to the mere fact of the combination. An intention to injure is, it seems to me, a necessary element in the tort.’
[37] In the House of Lords counsel for the appellants made it clear in his speech that his cause of action based on conspiracy assumed that no breach of contract, no private rights arising out of breach of the sanctions orders and no allegations of intent to injure. All that was alleged was actual knowledge that the acts done could cause damage to Lonrho: [1982] AC 173 at 180. Having held that there was no independent cause of action against any of the alleged conspirators, Lord Diplock proceeded ([1981] 2 All ER 456 at 463, [1982] AC 173 at 188) nevertheless to consider the conspiracy claim. In the discussion which followed he said that the civil tort of conspiracy to injure the plaintiff’s commercial interests, where that was the predominant purpose of the agreement and of the acts done in execution of it, was too well established to be discarded: [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 464, [1982] AC 173 at 189. Turning to actions for damages for conspiracy where the damage-causing acts, although neither done for the purpose of injuring the plaintiff nor actionable at his suit if they had been done by one person only, he said that the House had an unfettered choice whether to confine the civil action of conspiracy to a narrow field or to extend it beyond the narrow limits which were all that common sense and the application of the legal logic of the decided cases required. He concluded these remarks with this passage ([1981] 2 All ER 456 at 464, [1982] AC 173 at 189):
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‘My Lords, my choice is unhesitatingly the same as that of Parker J and all three members of the Court of Appeal. I am against extending the scope of the civil tort of conspiracy beyond acts done in execution of an agreement entered into by two or more persons for the purpose not of protecting their own interests but of injuring the interests of the plaintiff.’
[38] I agree with the Court of Appeal (at [57]) that the real point decided in that case was that to establish the tort the plaintiff had to prove that the defendant’s purpose in the conspiracy was to injure the plaintiff. It is difficult to find in what Lord Diplock said a clear and unequivocal statement that where there is such an intention, and the plaintiff suffers the intended damage, the unlawful acts that were used by the conspirators to bring this about must themselves be actionable. When account is taken of the absence of any indication of disapproval of the judgments in the Court of Appeal, which were to the contrary, the argument that Lord Diplock intended to confine the unlawful means conspiracy to cases where the unlawful acts were themselves actionable becomes even more tenuous. But the previous cases to which he had referred were concerned with lawful means conspiracy, where there is no liability unless the predominant motive of the conspirators was to injure the plaintiff. This gave rise to doubt in subsequent cases as to whether a predominant motive to injure the plaintiff was also an essential element in unlawful means conspiracy.
[39] In Lonrho plc v Fayed, Lord Bridge of Harwich quoted Lord Diplock’s speech in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) without disapproval. He said ([1991] 3 All ER 303 at 307, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 463) that the tort of conspiracy where no unlawful means were used is regarded as an anomaly, for the reasons that had been explained by Lord Diplock. But he observed ([1991] 3 All ER 303 at 308, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 464) that there were many cases where dicta had indicated that the predominant purpose requirement did not apply where the means used to effect the conspirators’ purpose were unlawful. He said ([1991] 3 All ER 303 at 309–310, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 465–466):
‘Where conspirators act with the predominant purpose of injuring the plaintiff and in fact inflict damage on him, but do nothing which would have been actionable if done by an individual acting alone, it is in the fact of their concerted action for that illegitimate purpose that the law, however anomalous it may now seem, finds a sufficient ground to condemn their action as illegal and tortious. But when conspirators intentionally injure the plaintiff and use unlawful means to do so, it is no defence for them to show that their primary purpose was to further or protect their own interests; it is sufficient to make their action tortious that the means used were unlawful.’
No mention is made in this passage of a requirement that the unlawful means must be independently actionable.
[40] A clear indication in these speeches that the unlawful means need not be independently actionable is not easily found. Statements to that effect can be seen in the judgments of the Court of Appeal in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2), and the assumptions to which counsel for the appellants referred in his speech in the House of Lords are a further pointer to the conclusion that ought to be drawn. The Court of Appeal concluded in this case that an allegation of
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conspiracy to cheat was sufficient, provided there was an intention to injure the claimant, albeit not a predominant intention: see [67]. I respectfully agree. But I think that it has to be acknowledged that textual analysis of this kind is an incomplete answer to the problem. The question then is whether the general principles on which the tort is based support the proposition that the unlawful means must be independently actionable.
[41] When Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142, [1942] AC 435 was in the Court of Session Lord Jamieson said (1940 SC 141 at 155–156):
‘When the end of a combination is not a crime or a tort in the accepted sense, and the means are not in the accepted sense criminal or tortious—cases which give rise to no difficulty—the question always is—What is the real purpose of the combination? If it is to injure, without reference to anyone’s lawful gain, or the enjoyment of one’s rights, or the furtherance of one’s legitimate interests, then what is done may become a wrongful act and be actionable. If, on the other hand, the real purpose of the combination is to further the lawful interests of the parties to it—these not necessarily being identical interests—no wrong is committed even when the means employed, not being in themselves illegal, are calculated, and even intended, to injure the persons against whom they are directed.’
He did not understand there to be any real dispute about the law, which was to be found in the cases from Allen v Flood [1898] AC 1, [1895–9] All ER Rep 52 to Sorrell v Smith [1925] AC 700, [1925] All ER Rep 1. The question was whether a purpose to injure was the real root of the acts that grew from it: Sorrell v Smith [1925] AC 700 at 717, [1925] All ER Rep 1 at 8 per Lord Dunedin. If that was its purpose, he saw no reason to distinguish between means that were criminal and means that were tortious. As Lord Wright put it in the House of Lords, it is in the fact of the conspiracy that the unlawfulness resides: [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 158, [1942] AC 435 at 462. That is the essence of the lawful means conspiracy. It is for the claimant to show that to harm his economic interests was the predominant purpose of the conspiracy. The situation that was contemplated in that case was one where the combination had more than one purpose, which Viscount Simon LC described ([1942] 1 All ER 142 at 149, [1942] AC 435 at 445) as ‘the quagmire of mixed motives’. In a case of that kind the issue has to be resolved by ascertaining the predominant intention. If the predominant intention of the combination is to injure, what is done is actionable even though the means used were lawful. Harm caused by a conspiracy where the means used were unlawful would seem no less in need of a remedy.
[42] The means that are alleged in this case are the commission by Redlaw and/or Alldech of the common law offence of cheating the revenue and the making by Alldech of a fraudulent misrepresentation: see [10], above. The second alternative can be ignored for the purposes of the argument. The conduct alleged was tortious, but on the evidence it may be the weaker alternative. So the commissioners wish to have their argument tested on the first alternative. Their primary contention is that where the conspirators agree to engage in conduct against the claimant which amounts to a criminal offence, and the carrying out of that conduct results in loss or damage to the claimant, the conduct will supply the unlawful means for the purposes of an unlawful act conspiracy although it is not
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itself actionable. They do not offer to prove that harm to their economic interests was the predominant purpose of the conspiracy. But the case does not appear to be one of mixed motives where predominant purpose is a necessary ingredient. Their case is more straightforward. It is that the criminal offence was directed at the commissioners for the purpose of persuading them to give Alldech a VAT credit to which it was not entitled. The unlawful means chosen by the conspirators were intended to secure that result which could not have been secured by either of them acting alone.
[43] In OBG Ltd v Allan [2007] UKHL 21 at [56], [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [56], [2007] 2 WLR 920 Lord Hoffmann said that the courts should be cautious in extending the tort of causing loss by unlawful means beyond the description given by Lord Watson in Allen v Flood [1898] AC 1 at 96, [1895–9] All ER Rep 52 at 69 and Lord Lindley in Quinn v Leathem [1901] AC 495 at 535, [1900–3] All ER Rep 1 at 16, which was designed only to enforce standards of civilised behaviour in economic competition between traders or between employers and labour. I entirely appreciate the point that he makes that caution is needed where the unlawful act is directed against a third party at whose instance it is not actionable because he suffers no loss. There the claimant’s cause of action is, as Hazel Carty An Analysis of the Economic Torts (2001) p 274 puts it, parasitic on the unlawful means used by the defendant against another party. As to that situation I would prefer to reserve my opinion. But in this case there was no third party. The means used by the conspirators were directed at the claimants themselves. This is a case where the claimants were persuaded by the unlawful means to act to their own detriment which, in the OBG case [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [61], Lord Hoffmann said raises altogether different issues. One has to ask why, in this situation, the law should not provide a remedy.
[44] The situation that is contemplated is that of loss caused by an unlawful act directed at the claimants themselves. The conspirators cannot, on the commissioners’ primary contention, be sued as joint tortfeasors because there was no independent tort actionable by the commissioners. This is a gap which needs to be filled. For reasons that I have already explained, I do not accept that the commissioners suffered economic harm in this case. But assuming that they did, they suffered that harm as a result of a conspiracy which was entered into with an intention of injuring them by the means that were deliberately selected by the conspirators. If, as Lord Wright said in Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 158, [1942] AC 435 at 462, it is in the fact of the conspiracy that the unlawfulness resides, why should that principle not apply here? As a subspecies of the tort of unlawful means conspiracy, the case is virtually indistinguishable from the tort of conspiracy to injure. The fact that the unlawful means were not in themselves actionable does not seem, in this context at least, to be significant. As Professor Joe Thomson put it in Carey Miller and Meyers (ed) An island legacy—The delict of conspiracy, Comparative and Historical Essays in Scots Law (1992) p 148, the rationale of the tort is conspiracy to injure. These factors indicate that a conspiracy is tortious if an intention of the conspirators was to harm the claimant by using unlawful means to persuade him to act to his own detriment, even if those means were not in themselves tortious.
[45] I would hold that the decision of the Court of Appeal in Powell v Boladz was erroneous and that it should be overruled. I would also hold, in agreement with all your Lordships that criminal conduct at common law or by statute can constitute unlawful means in unlawful means conspiracy. Had it been open to
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the commissioners to maintain a civil claim of damages the tort of unlawful means would have been available to them, even though the unlawful means relied upon were not in themselves actionable.
CONCLUSION
[46] For these reasons I would allow the appeal by the commissioners. But I would also allow the cross-appeal by Total. For reasons that are different from those given by the Court of Appeal, I would affirm that part of the Court of Appeal’s order by which the commissioners’ claim was struck out.
LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE.
[47] My Lords, I have had the great advantage of reading in advance the opinions prepared by all my noble and learned friends. The relevant facts are fully set out in the opinion of Lord Hope of Craighead and I gratefully adopt his exposition. The close, and to my mind completely convincing, analysis of the legal principles applicable to the two issues that arise on this appeal (see Lord Hope’s opinion at [1], above) contained in the opinion of Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe probably say all that needs to be said. In view, however, of the importance of the two issues I propose to express in my own words why I have reached the same conclusions.
[48] It is important to keep in mind that the two issues arise from a preliminary issue directed to be tried by a consent order made on 9 July 2004. The preliminary issue asked this question: ‘Does the claimant [ie the commissioners] have, as a matter of law, a cause of action in conspiracy against the defendant [ie Total] as pleaded in the consolidated and amended particulars of claim?' The question directs attention to the facts as pleaded by the commissioners. These facts must, for the purposes of the preliminary issue, be assumed to be true. Whether they will, or which of them will, be proved to be true, only time will tell.
[49] There are some aspects of the pleaded facts that I wish to emphasise for they bear upon each of the two issues that arise. Paragraph 6 of the agreed statement of facts and issues, signed by leading and junior counsel for both parties, described the litigation, of which this appeal is the latest, but almost certainly not the last, stage as arising out of ‘a series of carousel, or missing trader intra-community, frauds’. An alternative, and equally apt, description of each carousel, as pleaded by the commissioners in this case, would be ‘charade’. ‘Charade’ is the name given to a game played frequently at birthday and Christmas parties but has also the colloquial meaning of an ‘absurd pretence’ (see The Concise Oxford Dictionary (9th edn, 1995). The description of a ‘carousel fraud’ taken from the decision of the VAT Tribunal in Bond House Systems Ltd v Customs and Excise Comrs [2003] V&DR 210, quoted by Ward LJ in his judgment in the present case ([2007] EWCA Civ 39 at [2], [2007] 2 WLR 1156 at [2]), refers to the fraud as consisting of a series of sales of taxable goods, of which sales the initial one is zero-rated, under the next one the initial buyer sells the goods and receives value added tax (VAT) from its buyer but then disappears without accounting to the Revenue for the VAT it has received, and the third sale made by the buyer from the ‘missing trader’, is a zero-rated sale of the goods back to the original vendor. This seller, who has paid VAT to the ‘missing trader’, then claims back from the Revenue as input tax the amount of the VAT paid to the missing trader. The invoices are all in order so the Revenue accepts the claim for repayment of the input tax but because the ‘missing trader’ has not accounted to the Revenue
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for the VAT it had apparently received, the Revenue is out-of-pocket by the amount it has had to pay to the vendor under the third sale. This description of a ‘carousel fraud’ assumes valid sales of goods at each step.
[50] A charade, however, a pretence and in the present case a fraudulent pretence, is something else. Diplock LJ (as he then was) in Snook v London & West Riding Investments Ltd [1967] 1 All ER 518 at 528, [1967] 2 QB 786 at 802 described as a ‘sham’—
‘acts done or documents executed by the parties to the “sham” which are intended to give to third parties or to the court the appearance of creating between the parties legal rights and obligations different from the actual legal rights and obligations (if any) which the parties intend to create.’
A ‘sale’, at its simplest, is the exchange of property for money and it is, I suggest, plain that a contract of sale of goods requires, if the contract is to justify that description, an intention that there should be the payment of a price in exchange for the transfer of property in the goods (see s 2(1) and (3) of the Sale of Goods Act 1979). Consider these requirements against the facts of the ‘First Conspiracy’ set out in para 5 of the commissioners’ consolidated particulars of claim and taken to be typical of each of the other 12 pleaded conspiracies.
[51] Paragraph 5 pleads that Total ‘carried out and otherwise participated in a series of transactions in a chain of supply that had no economic purpose other than to cheat and/or defraud [the commissioners] of revenue’. The transactions, as pleaded, related to 3,780 Nokia mobile telephones and consisted of the following events, all taking place on 15 October 2002. (1) Total sold the telephones to Redlaw Ltd for £1,672,224 under a zero-rated transaction. (2) On the same day Redlaw sold the telephones to Lockparts Ltd for £1,423,170 plus VAT of £249,054, a total of £1,672,224. If this is taken to be a genuine sale it would have been a sale at an immediate loss of £249,054, the amount of the VAT for which Redlaw was accountable to the Revenue. But it was plainly never intended that Redlaw should pay £249,054 to the Revenue and Redlaw did not do so. Redlaw simply disappeared and became the ‘missing trader’. (3) On the same day Lockparts sold the telephones to GAK Ltd for £1,428,840 plus VAT of £250,047, a total of £1,678,887. The VAT payable by Lockparts on its purchase from Redlaw was £249,054. Lockparts was therefore accountable to the Revenue for the balance, £993. But Lockparts, too, became a ‘disappeared’ trader and the £993 remains unaccounted for. Leaving aside the £993 VAT balance, Lockparts made an instant paper profit of £6,550 odd on its transaction with GAK. (4) On the same day GAK, pursuant to written instructions given on that day by Lockparts, paid £1,672,224 into Total’s United Kingdom bank account, thereby purporting to discharge the sum owing by Redlaw to Total and owing to Redlaw by Lockparts. That left £6,663 still owing by GAK to Lockparts. (5) On the same day GAK sold the telephones to The Accessory People for £1,436,400 plus VAT of £251,370, a total of £1,687,770. GAK had paid, or purported to have paid, £250,047 VAT on its transaction with Lockparts and so was accountable, and did account, to the Revenue for the balance, £1,323. GAK had made an instant paper profit of over £6,200 on its transaction with Lockparts. (6) On the same day The Accessory People sold the telephones to Alldech Ltd for £1,447,740 plus VAT of £253,345. The Accessory People were liable to pay £251,370 VAT under their transaction with GAK and so were liable to account, and did account, to the Revenue for the
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balance, £1,975. The Accessory People had made an instant paper profit of over £9,375. (7) Finally, on the same busy day, Alldech sold the telephones back to Total for £1,508,220 under a zero-rated transaction. So Total made an instant paper profit of £164,004 (ie £1,672,224 less £1,508,220). Alldech later claimed, and obtained, from the commissioners the repayment as input tax of the £253,345 VAT that it had paid to The Accessory People. Alldech had made, therefore, an instant profit of £60,480. This profit, and Total’s £164,004 profit, The Accessory People’s profit of £9,375, GAK’s profit of £6,200 odd and Lockpart’s profit of £6,660 odd (if the £6,663 was ever paid by GAK to Lockparts) were funded by the £253,345 input tax repayment made by the commissioners to Alldech (less, of course, the £1,323 and £1,975 for which GAK and The Accessory People accounted to the Revenue).
[52] What are your Lordships to make of these transactions that had ‘no economic purpose other than to cheat and/or defraud [the commissioners] of revenue’ and, as pleaded in para 4 of the consolidated particulars of claim, were entered into ‘with intent to cheat [the commissioners] of revenue and/or to defraud the Revenue’? The telephones, if they existed, did not physically move from the place or custody in which they were in the morning of 15 October 2002, when the carousel began, to anywhere else or anyone else’s custody by midnight. At best, if they existed, they started and ended with Total. If it is to be said that property in these telephones, if they existed, left Total, passed down the chain of companies and ended back with Total, at what point during 15 October 2002 did this process begin? We know that no money was ever paid to or by Redlaw and it does not appear that any authority was ever given by Redlaw for the payment made by GAK to Total. But these questions are, perhaps, pointless for it seems clear that the telephones, as objects of an intended sale, were irrelevant. The passing of property in the telephones was not the purpose of the transactions. The purpose was the creation of book entries enabling a claim for repayment of input tax to be made.
[53] Article 2 of the Council Directive (EC) 67/227 of 11 April 1967 on the harmonisation of legislation of member states concerning turnover taxes (OJ 1967 L71, p 1301) (the First Directive) says that ‘The principle of the common system of value added tax involves the application to goods and services of a general tax on consumption’ (emphasis added) and art 2(1) of Council Directive (EC) 77/388 of 17 May 1977 on the harmonisation of the laws of the member states relating to turnover taxes—common system of value added tax: uniform basis of assessment (OJ 1977 L145 p 1) (the Sixth Directive) says that ‘a supply of goods and services effected for consideration by a taxable person acting as such is subject to VAT’. Article 4(1) of the Sixth Directive defines ‘taxable person’ as ‘any person who independently carries out in any place any economic activity’ and ‘economic activities’ are defined in art 4(2) as comprising ‘all activities of producers, traders and persons supplying services’. On what basis could it be suggested that the carousel of 15 October 2002, on the basis of the facts as pleaded, involved the participants in trading in goods or supplying services? The several transactions were plainly orchestrated and pre-ordained. None of the participants wanted mobile telephones. All that they wanted was to obtain a money profit at no risk and without doing anything that could remotely be described as trading or supplying goods in a commercial transaction.
[54] On the commissioners’ pleaded case Alldech was a fraudulent conspirator, not an innocent trader caught up in somebody else’s fraudulent
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scheme. The pleaded case does not allege that GAK or The Accessory People were conspirators. It is difficult to believe that they did not know or suspect the fraudulent purpose of a scheme under which they were to sign up to buy goods they had never seen and immediately to sell on the goods for an enhanced price. And if they did not know of the fraudulent purpose it is difficult to believe that their lack of knowledge was not attributable to a decision not to inquire, a convenient adoption of a Nelsonian blind eye. Be that as it may, Alldech, on the pleaded case, was a participating conspirator with knowledge of all the pleaded features of the conspiracy and neither expected nor intended to become the owner of mobile telephones. That was not the purpose of the carousel. In my opinion, there was, on 15 October 2002 when the several transactions were entered into, no supply or intention to supply mobile telephones, no change of the property rights in any mobile telephones and no transaction that could claim the description of a contract of sale or a contract for the supply of telephones. This was a fraudulent scheme designed to extract by deception money from the Revenue. If the pleaded facts had been known to the Revenue at the time that Alldech’s input tax repayment claim was made, the Revenue would not have paid and would not have been liable to pay.
[55] The Court of Justice of the European Communities’ (ECJ) judgment in Optigen Ltd v Revenue and Customs Comrs (Cases C-354/03, C-355/03, C-484/03) [2006] STC 419, [2006] Ch 218 is no authority to the contrary. The ECJ emphasise in their judgment that the terms ‘supply of goods’ and ‘taxable person acting as such’ in the Sixth Directive require an objective assessment to be made (see para 44 of the judgment). In para 46 of the judgment the ECJ said this:
‘An obligation on the tax authorities to take account, in order to determine whether a given transaction constituted a supply by a taxable person acting as such and an economic activity, of the intention of a trader other than the taxable person concerned involved in the same chain of supply and/or the possible fraudulent nature of another transaction in the chain . . . of which that taxable person had no knowledge and no means of knowledge, would a fortiori be contrary to [the objectives of the Sixth Directive].’
And in para 51 the ECJ repeated that whether a supply of goods had been made by a taxable person acting as such was to be objectively ascertained—
‘regardless of the intention of a trader other than the taxable person concerned involved in the same chain of supply and/or the possible fraudulent nature of another transaction in the chain, prior or subsequent to the transaction carried out by that taxable person, of which that taxable person had no knowledge and no means of knowledge . . .’ (emphasis added).
It follows from this that if a trader becomes innocently involved in a fraudulent and/or sham chain of supply, the innocent trader does not necessarily cease to be a person liable to pay output VAT and eligible to claim input VAT. If objectively assessed without regard to the fraud, there would appear to have been a supply of goods by or to the innocent trader, the innocent trader does not by reason of the fraud fall outside the VAT loop. None of this, in my opinion, assists Total in the present case. Alldech was not an innocent trader. GAK and The Accessory
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People may have been. If Alldech was not an innocent trader but a conspirator in the fraud there is no need to disregard the intentions of the conspirators, the fraudsters, in assessing the true nature of the transactions into which they entered. In my opinion, on the facts as pleaded, neither Total when it entered into its transaction with Redlaw, nor Alldech when it entered into its transaction with The Accessory People, nor Total and Alldech when they entered into the final transaction with one another, were intending to buy or sell, as the case may be, mobile telephones. They were intending to produce pieces of paper invoices, in order to pretend to the Revenue that genuine commercial transactions had taken place and thereby to deceive the commissioners into paying-up on a spurious input tax repayment claim. The issue is whether in these circumstances the commissioners have a civil action in tort to recover from Total, as damages for the tort, the loss suffered by the commissioners by the success of the fraudulent scheme.
THE TORT OF CONSPIRACY
[56] The pleaded tort is a conspiracy to cheat and/or defraud the commissioners by unlawful means. The issue is whether this tort requires that the unlawful means relied on include some civil wrong actionable by the claimant against at least one of the conspirators. On this issue I can add nothing of value to the conclusion and reasoning of my noble and learned friends. The Court of Appeal (Ward, Chadwick and Gage LJJ) felt bound to follow the earlier Court of Appeal decision in Powell v Boladz (1998) 39 BMLR 35 in which Stuart-Smith LJ, with whose judgment the other two members of the court agreed, had said at 49 that ‘the unlawful act relied upon must be actionable at the suit of the plaintiff. It is not sufficient that it amounts to a crime or breach of contract with a third party’. My Lords, in agreement with my noble and learned friends and for the reasons they have given I too would hold that criminal conduct can constitute unlawful means for the purposes of a tortious conspiracy to injure by unlawful means (see Lord Walker’s opinion at [95], below). It must, in my opinion, be kept in mind that the whole of this branch of the law of tort is the result of a step by step development by judges of the action on the case. We were taught at law school that the action on the case was the means whereby our judicial forbears allowed tortious remedies in damages where harm had been caused in circumstances where the conduct of the authors of the harm had been sufficiently reprehensible to require the conclusion that they ought to be held responsible for the harm. The law whereby harm caused by negligence can be remedied by an action in tort for damages results from a development of the action on the case. The law enabling an action for tortious damages to be brought where two or more persons have joined together with the predominant intention of injuring another person and have successfully carried out their intention is another, and for present purposes highly relevant, example of a judicial development of the action on the case. This is the so-called ‘lawful means’ conspiracy which is tortious notwithstanding that the means employed to cause the harm are themselves neither criminal nor tortious. The essential ingredient of this type of action is the combination of people all intent on causing harm to the victim, not on the type of means employed for doing so. As it was put by Viscount Simon LC in Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 149, [1942] AC 435 at 445:
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‘If that predominant purpose is to damage another person and damage results, that is tortious conspiracy. If the predominant purpose is the lawful protection or promotion of any lawful interest of the combiners (no illegal means being employed), it is not a tortious conspiracy, even though it causes damage to another person.’
Where, however, unlawful means are employed by the conspirators to achieve their object and their object involves causing harm to the victim, the intent to cause that harm does not have to be the predominant purpose of the conspiracy. This difference between the torts of lawful means conspiracy and unlawful means conspiracy is sometimes described as anomalous. In my opinion it is not. The difference reflects and demonstrates the essential flexibility of the action on the case. It is not all conduct foreseeably likely to cause, and that does cause, economic harm to another that is tortious. Nor should it be. The circumstances must be such as to make the conduct sufficiently reprehensible to justify imposing on those who have brought about the harm liability in damages for having done so. Bearing that in mind, the proposition that a combination of two or more people to carry out a scheme that is criminal in its nature and is intended to cause economic harm to some person does not, when carried out with that result, constitute a tort actionable by that person is, in my opinion, unacceptable. Such a proposition is not only inconsistent with the jurisprudence of tortious conspiracy, as Lord Walker has demonstrated and explained, but is inconsistent also with the historic role of the action on the case.
[57] In my opinion, any coherent law of tortious liability for conspiracy must hold Total liable in tort if the facts of the conspiracies pleaded in this case can be proved.
THE SECOND ISSUE
[58] The second issue is whether the commissioners can bring a private law action to recover the loss they have been caused by the fraudulent conspiracy. It is said that the damages claim is, in substance, a claim to recover the tax that Redlaw has failed to pay. The action constitutes, it is said, an attempt to make Total liable to pay the tax, an attempt that is barred by art 4 of the Bill of Rights 1688 (see Lord Hope’s opinion at [21], above). It is said, alternatively, that the statutory VAT scheme establishes exclusive remedies for the recovery of tax or for dealing with false input tax repayment claims and that these remedies cannot be supplemented by a tortious action for damages. Lord Hope, at [15], above, has listed the various statutory remedies available under the statutory VAT scheme.
[59] My Lords, there is, in my opinion, nothing whatever in the Bill of Rights point. It is true that Total are not taxable under the statutory VAT scheme in respect of any of the pleaded transactions, but the claim against Total is not a claim for tax. It is a claim for damages, for loss, caused by the fraudulent conspiracy. The consolidated particulars of claim claim from Total damages (for the first conspiracy) of ‘not less than £253,345.50’. That was the sum paid by the Revenue to Alldech in response to Alldech’s claim for repayment of the VAT Alldech had paid as input tax to The Accessory People. It was not the amount of the VAT in respect of which Redlaw, the missing trader, should have accounted to the Revenue. The claim for a sum in damages not less than the sum paid by the Revenue to Alldech is, however, capable of leading to a
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misunderstanding. The sum recoverable by the commissioners as damages may well be less than £253,345. A tortious damages claim must bring into account benefits, as well as losses, that have accrued to the victim from the wrongful conduct. So the commissioners must give credit for the £1,323 and £1,975 for which GAK and The Accessory People accounted to the Revenue and must give credit, also, for the value of any statutory right of the commissioners under the VAT scheme to recover the £253,345 from Alldech (see s 73(2) of the Value Added Tax Act 1994). But this would all be part of the assessment of the quantum of damages recoverable by the commissioners from Total if the commissioners succeed in establishing the tort. It is not the levying of tax.
[60] As for the point that the statutory VAT scheme prescribes exclusive remedies for the commissioners, I can, for my part, see no reason why the statutory scheme should be thought to provide protection against tort claims for those who by fraudulent schemes succeed in extracting money from the commissioners. If the commissioners have a statutory remedy against Alldech to recover the £235,345 and if Alldech are good for the money, then the economic damage caused by the conspiracy will, presumably, be nil. But if Alldech is not good for the money, or if there is no statutory remedy available in a case such as this, I can see no reason why the commissioners, the victims of a fraudulent conspiracy, should be barred from recovering damages against the principal conspirator, Total. An intention that that should be so cannot, in my opinion, be attributed to the legislature in enacting the VAT scheme.
CONCLUSION
[61] In agreement, therefore, with all my noble and learned friends on the tort of conspiracy point and with Lord Walker and Lord Mance on all other points, I would allow the commissioners’ appeal, dismiss Total’s cross-appeal, restore para 1 of the order of Hodge J made on 10 January 2005 ([2005] EWHC 1 (QB), [2005] STC 637) and set aside para 1 of the order of the Court of Appeal made on 31 January 2007.
LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE.
THE TWO ISSUES
[62] My Lords, this appeal on a preliminary point of law raises two issues, each of which is important. The first is whether the appellants, the Commissioners of Revenue and Customs (the commissioners) are entitled to resort to a private law remedy—an action for damages for the tort of conspiracy—in order to recoup value added tax (VAT), which would otherwise be irrecoverable. The second issue is whether (on the facts which the House is required to assume for the purposes of the preliminary issue) the requirements of the common law tort of conspiracy can be established.
[63] Although they are distinct the two issues touch at a single point. That is whether (if, contrary to the commissioners’ primary case, a claimant alleging an ‘unlawful means’ conspiracy must establish that the unlawful means consisted of or included the commission of a civil wrong actionable at the suit of the claimant) the commissioners would have been able to bring a private law claim for fraudulent misrepresentation against a company called Alldech Ltd (Alldech),
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which was (on the assumed facts) a participant in a fraudulent conspiracy with the respondent Total Network SL (Total).
[64] I have set out the two issues in what seems to be their logical order. But the commissioners’ appeal (on the second issue) was opened before Total’s cross-appeal (on the first issue) and I will follow the same course. I gratefully adopt the exposition of the facts and the legislation set out in the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead.
THE TORT OF CONSPIRACY: BACKGROUND
[65] The essential dispute between the parties, on the commissioners’ appeal, is whether the Court of Appeal (Ward, Chadwick and Gage LJJ) ([2007] EWCA Civ 39, [2007] 2 WLR 1156) was right in holding that, in order to establish the tort of ‘unlawful means’ conspiracy, the claimant must show that the unlawful means constituted or included a civil wrong which had been committed by at least one of the conspirators, and was actionable at the suit of the claimant himself. The Court of Appeal made clear that it would not have reached that conclusion had it not felt bound to follow the decision of the Court of Appeal in Powell v Boladz (1998) 39 BMLR 35.
[66] That decision referred (on the material point) to only three authorities, only one being a decision of this House, that is Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456, [1982] AC 173. It might therefore appear to be a short point. But your Lordships have had the advantage of full argument and full citation of authority. Mr Flint QC for Total (echoing Lord Diplock in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 464, [1982] AC 173 at 189) urged the House not to extend the scope of an already anomalous tort. Against that Mr Martin QC for the commissioners argued that on Total’s case the tort would be reduced to no more than a barren iteration of joint tortfeasance. In these circumstances it is necessary, I think, to go back to some of what Lord Diplock ([1981] 2 All ER 456 at 463, [1982] AC 173 at 188) called the tort’s ‘chequered history’ between the first-instance decision of Lord Coleridge CJ in Mogul Steamship Co Ltd v McGregor Gow & Co (1888) 21 QBD 544 and Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142, [1942] AC 435. The decision of this House in the Crofter case can, I think, be seen as the final emergence of the tort of conspiracy in its modern form. But it is necessary to go back further to see why the tort is generally regarded as anomalous, and why the notion of ‘predominant purpose’ or ‘real and predominant purpose’ was defined in the Crofter case (especially in the speeches of Viscount Simon LC and Lord Wright [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 149–150, 165, [1942] AC 435 at 445–447 and 477–478 respectively) as a necessary ingredient of an ‘unlawful object’ (or ‘lawful means’) conspiracy.
[67] In looking at the older cases I have the advantage of traversing some of the same ground as has recently been covered by Lord Hoffmann in his opinion in OBG Ltd v Allan [2007] UKHL 21 at [6]–[21], [45]–[64], [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [6]–[21], [45]–[64], [2007] 2 WLR 920. In the latter group of paragraphs Lord Hoffmann concluded (with the concurrence of the majority) that a wrong actionable in private law is a necessary ingredient of the tort of intentionally causing harm by unlawful means (which I shall for brevity call ‘the intentional harm tort’). That may be thought to add a further layer of anomaly to the tort of conspiracy, if the commissioners are right on the first issue. That there is an anomaly, or at least something calling for explanation, was recognised as long
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ago as 1889, when Bowen LJ said in the Mogul Steamship case in the Court of Appeal (1889) 23 QBD 598 at 616: ‘Of the general proposition, that certain kinds of conduct not criminal in any one individual may become criminal if done by combination among several, there can be no doubt.' He proceeded to state what he saw as sound reasons for the distinction, but some other distinguished judges have been more sceptical.
[68] In the Mogul Steamship case the plaintiffs complained that the defendants (an association of shipowners) had conspired to obtain a monopoly of the China tea trade, mainly by offering a discount on the freight charged to those who confined their shipments to the defendants’ vessels. The claim failed at first instance before Lord Coleridge CJ sitting without a jury (1888) 21 QBD 544, before the Court of Appeal (Bowen and Fry LJJ, Lord Esher MR dissenting) (1889) 23 QBD 598 and in this House [1892] AC 25, [1891–4] All ER Rep 263. The distinction between the two varieties of the tort was seen in terms of combination for an unlawful object, or combination to cause harm by unlawful means. The real difficulty (exemplified in the difference of opinion in the Court of Appeal) was in identifying what was unlawful, either as an object or as a means to an end, in the laissez-faire Victorian world of trade competition.
[69] Lord Coleridge CJ described the two categories of the tort (21 QBD 544 at 550):
‘And in this case it is clear that if the object were unlawful, or if the object were lawful but the means employed to effect it were unlawful, and if there were a combination either to effect the unlawful object or to use the unlawful means, then the combination was unlawful, then those who formed it were misdemeanants and a person injured by their misdemeanour has an action in respect of his injury.’
He was almost but not quite persuaded (at 553–554) that there was a ‘wrongful and malicious combination to ruin a man in his trade’. He concluded that: ‘I cannot see that these defendants have in fact passed the line which separates the reasonable and legitimate selfishness of traders from wrong and malice.' Here Lord Coleridge CJ was identifying the problem of mixed motives—the trader who wants to damage his competitor’s business because that will make his own business more profitable—which runs through the development of the law of economic torts, including conspiracy. This point was recently made by Lord Hoffmann (in the context of causing loss by unlawful means) in the OBG case [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [134]–[135], quoting Lord Sumner in Sorrell v Smith [1925] AC 700 at 742, [1925] All ER Rep 1 at 163: ‘When the whole object of the defendants’ action is to capture the plaintiff’s business, their gain must be his loss.’
[70] In the Court of Appeal in the Mogul Steamship case Lord Esher MR stated nine rules (23 QBD 598 at 609–610). The first seven enunciated a doctrine of ‘fair trade competition’ which, had they prevailed, would have set the development of the law on a very different course. They applied to all traders, whether or not they were acting in concert, and Lord Esher MR treated the defendants’ combination as a sort of a fortiori footnote (at 710). But the views of Bowen and Fry LJJ (which were approved unanimously by this House) insisted in much-quoted passages (at 614–618 and 626–628) that trade competition, however fierce, was not unlawful unless it involved fraud, misrepresentation, intimidation or molestation; that the defendants did not intend to injure their competitors
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further than was necessarily involved in the activity of competition; and that a combination of traders to engage in such activity did not amount to an unlawful conspiracy, although the doctrine of restraint of trade might make it unenforceable.
[71] Allen v Flood [1898] AC 1, [1895–9] All ER Rep 52, the case about the demarcation dispute between the ironworkers and the woodworkers at a shipyard in Millwall, was regarded at the time as a case of the highest importance, and its importance is still recognised over a century later. It was first argued over four days before an appellate committee of seven, and then again over six days before a committee of nine (three Lords of Appeal in Ordinary and six other peers who held or had held high judicial office). On the second occasion eight judges attended to give the House the benefit of their opinions (the last time that ever occurred). The judges divided 6–2 in favour of the plaintiffs (the respondents in the appeal) but the House divided 6–3 in favour of Allen (one of the three original defendants, but by then the only appellant). The Lord Chancellor, Lord Halsbury, presided but was in the minority. The case is of enormous interest as a matter of legal and social history (see RFV Heuston ‘Legal Prosopography’ (1986) 102 LQR 90). But as regards conspiracy it is of limited importance since although conspiracy was an issue on the pleadings, at first instance (Kennedy J with a jury) the judge ruled that there was no evidence of conspiracy (or of intimidation, coercion or breach of contract). Allen, the London representative of the Boilermakers’ Society, had simply been summoned to the shipyard, and (acting on his own initiative) told the management what would happen if Flood and Taylor (woodworkers who were known to have done ironwork at another yard) were not discharged (as they could be without a breach of contract, since they were employed by the day). The absence of a conspiracy was most strongly emphasised by Lord Macnaghten [1898] AC 1 at 153, [1895–9] All ER Rep 52 at 93:
‘. . . the decision of this case can have no bearing on any case which involves the element of oppressive combination. The vice of that form of terrorism commonly known by the name of “boycotting”, and other forms of oppressive combination, seem to me to depend on considerations which are, I think, in the present case conspicuously absent.’
[72] To my mind the main significance of Allen v Flood to the present appeal is in explaining the delicacy with which, about four years later, the House approached Quinn v Leathem [1901] AC 495, [1900–3] All ER Rep 1. The Earl of Halsbury LC was again presiding, and the committee included several law lords who had sat in Allen v Flood. (Heuston’s article does not advert to the curious fact that when this House gave judgment on 5 August 1901, there were according to the Law Reports six speeches, given by the Earl of Halsbury LC, Lord Macnaghten, Lord Shand, Lord Brampton, Lord Robertson and Lord Lindley. Lord Davey is recorded as having read the speeches of Lord Shand, Lord Robertson and Lord Lindley but not as having given any speech of his own. Mr GR Dymond of the House of Lords Library has kindly checked that the Lords’ Journals confirm what is in the Law Reports.)
[73] Quinn was treasurer of a Belfast butchers’ association. Leathem, who traded as a butcher, employed some non-union men, although when the union made difficulties he asked for them to be admitted to the union, and offered to pay their dues. The union put pressure on Munce, a wholesale customer of
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Leathem, to stop buying his meat. It also called out Dickie, one of Leathem’s employees. The jury found for Leathem, holding that there had been a malicious conspiracy between Quinn and other officers of the union. The Irish Court of Appeal affirmed this. So, unanimously, did this House. The House’s anxiety to explain why Allen v Flood was not in point makes it quite difficult to discern what Quinn v Leathem did decide. But it can, at any rate with hindsight, be recognised as a case of ‘unlawful object’ (or ‘lawful means’) conspiracy, since (on the facts found) the union did not have the justification of advancing its own interests, and was acting primarily for the purpose of punishing and injuring Leathem (see especially the speeches of Lord Macnaghten and Lord Shand respectively [1901] AC 495 at 511, 515, [1900–3] All ER Rep 1 at 9, 12; Lord Lindley, however, [1901] AC 495 at 538, [1900–3] All ER Rep 1 at 19 seems to have regarded it as a case of unlawful means). In Sorrell v Smith [1925] AC 700, [1925] All ER Rep 1 most of the House saw Quinn v Leathem as a case of unlawful object, not unlawful means (see especially [1925] AC 700 at 712, 719, 724, 735, 744, [1925] All ER Rep 1 at 5, 9, 11, 17, 22 per Viscount Cave LC, Lord Dunedin, Lord Sumner and Lord Buckmaster respectively).
[74] In Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142, [1942] AC 435 the House, building on Sorrell v Smith, finally established the basic principles of the modern tort. There is a key passage in the speech of Viscount Simon LC ([1942] 1 All ER 142 at 149, [1942] AC 435 at 445):
‘The combiners may feel that they are killing two birds with one stone, and, even though their main purpose may be to protect their own legitimate interests notwithstanding that this involves damage to the plaintiffs, they may also find a further inducement to do what they are doing by feeling that it serves the plaintiffs right. The analysis of human impulses soon leads us into the quagmire of mixed motives, and even if we avoid the word “motive”, there may be more than a single purpose or object. It is enough to say that if there is more than one purpose actuating a combination, liability must depend on ascertaining the predominant purpose. If that predominant purpose is to damage another person and damage results, that is tortious conspiracy. If the predominant purpose is the lawful protection or promotion of any lawful interest of the combiners (no illegal means being employed), it is not a tortious conspiracy, even though it causes damage to another person.’
[75] Another very important passage is in the speech of Lord Wright ([1942] 1 All ER 142 at 158, [1942] AC 435 at 462) and it has been the subject of a good deal of discussion before your Lordships:
‘The rule may seem anomalous, so far as it holds that conduct by two may be actionable if it causes damage, whereas the same conduct done by one, causing the same damage, would give no redress. In effect the plaintiff’s right is that he should not be damnified by a conspiracy to injure him, and it is in the fact of the conspiracy that the unlawfulness resides. It is a different matter if the conspiracy is to do acts in themselves wrongful, such as to deceive or defraud, to commit violence, or to conduct a strike or lock-out by means of conduct prohibited by the Conspiracy and Protection of Property
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Act 1875, or which contravenes the Trade Disputes and Trade Unions Act 1927.’
[76] My Lords, I would draw attention to three general features of the authorities down to, and including, the Crofter case. First, the debate is overwhelmingly about intention (or purpose, or object) culminating in the approval of ‘real and predominant purpose’ (Viscount Simon LC in the Crofter case [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 150, [1942] AC 435 at 446) as the essential ingredient of the ‘unlawful object’ variety of the tort. Second, there is little or no discussion of whether unlawful means can include conduct which is a criminal offence but cannot found a civil cause of action. Most of the examples of unlawful means given in the speeches and judgments are expressed in general, fairly non-technical terms (fraud, misrepresentation, molestation, intimidation, obstruction). Lord Wright, in the passage just quoted from his speech in the Crofter case, includes some statutory offences, but he does not seem to have regarded it as a point calling for reasoned discussion. Third, there are frequent references (again, the quotation from Lord Wright in the Crofter case is an example) to the anomaly that the conduct of two or more persons may be actionable whereas the same conduct on the part of a single person would not be.
[77] This third point calls for a little more discussion. In the Mogul Steamship case, Bowen LJ (23 QBD 598 at 616) gave two reasons for it:
‘The distinction is based on sound reason, for a combination may make oppressive or dangerous that which if it proceeded only from a single person would be otherwise, and the very fact of the combination may shew that the object is simply to do harm, and not to exercise one’s own just rights.’
The first reason is not very satisfactory, since (as has very often been pointed out, for instance by Lord Sumner in Sorrell v Smith [1925] AC 700 at 741, [1925] All ER Rep 1 at 19 and Lord Diplock in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 464, [1982] AC 173 at 189) it all depends on the particular facts. The second reason seems to me more principled, focusing as it does on the fact that the claimant’s damage is caused by two or more persons acting in concert to carry out an unlawful plan. That is, I think, what was behind an observation of Lord Dunedin in Sorrell v Smith [1925] AC 700 at 725, [1925] All ER Rep 1 at 12:
‘Now the moment that that is recognised, i.e., that the essence of conspiracy on which civil action is founded is a criminal conspiracy, though of course unless actual damage has followed no civil action will lie, the moment that fact is recognised, you at once bring in the spirit of the criminal law, where motive or intention—the mens rea—is everything.’
That identifies what sets conspiracy apart from other torts, and emphasises the first point made above—the intense focus, in the tort of conspiracy, on intention. It is also worth noting that in some factual situations (such as that in the present appeal) the fraud disclosed by the assumed facts could not have been carried out otherwise than by a number of persons acting in concert.
[78] I suspect that the judges at the end of the nineteenth century also had a third reason, largely unarticulated but appearing in Lord Macnaghten’s dictum
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about boycotts in Allen v Flood. That was the deep suspicion which the governing class had, in Georgian and Victorian England, of collective action in the political and economic spheres, as potential threats to the constitution and the framework of society. It is a theme from the Gordon Riots in 1780 to the Land League in Ireland a century later (see R v Parnell (1881) 14 Cox CC 508), with the conventions called by the corresponding societies in the 1790s, the Peterloo Massacre in 1819, the Tolpuddle Martyrs in 1834 and the Chartist Movement (1838–1848) and the rise of the trades unions in between.
THE TORT OF CONSPIRACY: THE MODERN CASES
[79] The litigation in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456, [1982] AC 173 arose from sanctions imposed against Southern Rhodesia, after unilateral declaration of independence, under the Southern Rhodesia Act 1965. Lonrho’s claim was that Shell and its co-defendant BP had breached the sanctions and caused loss to Lonrho and its Portuguese co-owner of a pipeline from Beira in Mozambique to a refinery in what was then Southern Rhodesia. The matter came before the court as issues of law arising on assumed facts in the course of an arbitration. The relevant issue was numbered 5(b): ‘Whether the claimants have a cause of action for damage alleged to have been caused by such breaches [of the sanctions orders] by virtue only of the allegation that there was an agreement to effect them.' That is a rather bald way of putting the issue: the essential point was whether it was fatal that there was no pleading of an intention to injure Lonrho and its co-plaintiff, as Lord Diplock explained ([1981] 2 All ER 456 at 463, [1982] AC 173 at 188):
‘Question 5(b), to which I now turn, concerns conspiracy as a civil tort. Your Lordships are invited to answer it on the assumption that the purpose of Shell and BP in entering into the agreement to do the various things that it must be assumed they did in contravention of the sanctions order, was to forward their own commercial interests; not to injure those of Lonrho. So the question of law to be determined is whether an intent by the defendants to injure the plaintiff is an essential element in the civil wrong of conspiracy, even where the acts agreed to be done by the conspirators amount to criminal offences under a penal statute.’
[80] So the question was clearly understood as being one of intention, and the reference to ‘criminal offences under a penal statute’ (introduced as it was by the words ‘even where’) does not suggest that the criminal element was seen as a potential flaw in Lonrho’s case. Lord Diplock then briefly discussed the classic authorities on the tort of conspiracy; I have already mentioned some of his observations. He stated ([1981] 2 All ER 456 at 464, [1982] AC 173 at 189) that none of the authorities ‘was directed to a case where the damage-causing acts although neither done for the purpose of injuring the plaintiff nor actionable at his suit if they had been done by one person alone, were nevertheless a contravention of some penal law’. He concluded that the House had an unfettered choice, and his unhesitating choice (agreeing with the courts below in their conclusion if not in their reasoning) was not to extend the scope of the tort, and to answer question 5(b) in the negative. The other members of the House agreed.
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[81] My Lords, the reasoning in Lord Diplock’s speech seems to me to be very compressed, especially in the passage from which I have just quoted. I am very conscious of the danger of trying to expound speeches and judgments (even of the most eminent judges) as if they were Acts of Parliament. It is a danger of which Slade LJ (delivering the judgment of the Court of Appeal in Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14, [1990] 1 QB 391) was conscious. Nevertheless he did subject the speech of Lord Diplock to ‘detailed textual analysis’ (as Lord Bridge of Harwich put it in Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303 at 312, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 468). In analysing Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2), Slade LJ also quoted from and paid close attention to the reasoning of the arbitrators, Parker J and the Court of Appeal, although it is far from clear that Lord Diplock (whose speech on this issue runs to no more than one-and-a-half pages) had the reasoning in the lower courts at the forefront of his mind.
[82] In Lonrho v Fayed this House unanimously disapproved of the views which the Court of Appeal in the Metall und Rohstoff case had expressed about the effect of Lord Diplock’s speech in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2). In doing so the House also clarified the law, which had fallen into some confusion as a result of Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) as interpreted in the Metall und Rohstoff case. In those circumstances it is unnecessary and inappropriate, I suggest, for your Lordships to revisit the exegesis of Lord Diplock’s speech. It is sufficient to repeat that it was concerned solely with the issue of intention, and that Lord Diplock uncharacteristically failed to make a clear distinction between the requirement of predominant purpose under one variety of the tort of conspiracy and the lower requirement of intentional injury needed for the other variety.
[83] Clarity was restored by the speech of Lord Bridge in Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303, [1992] 1 AC 448, with which the rest of the House agreed. (Lord Templeman also stated, with the agreement of the majority, that the ambits and ingredients of the torts of conspiracy and unlawful interference might require further analysis and reconsideration.) The key passage in the speech of Lord Bridge is [1991] 3 All ER 303 at 308, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 464, after a citation of Lord Diplock’s reference to injury to the plaintiff being the predominant purpose of the conspiracy:
‘But this reasoning has no relevance to the second type of conspiracy which employs unlawful means. Of this type Lord Devlin said in his speech in Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 397, [1964] AC 1129 at 1204 . . . “In the latter type . . . the element of conspiracy is usually only of secondary importance since the unlawful means are actionable by themselves.”
It is no doubt for the reason mentioned by Lord Devlin that there is no direct authority, unless it be Rookes v Barnard itself, establishing the negative proposition that the tort of conspiracy to injure by unlawful means may be established without proof that the intention to injure the plaintiff was the predominant purpose of the conspirators. But in the many cases where plaintiffs have asserted a conspiracy to injure, but have been unable to prove that any unlawful means were used, judgments in the Court of Appeal and speeches in your Lordships’ House emphasising the requirement of a predominant purpose to injure have repeatedly included dicta indicating that
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this requirement does not apply where the means used to effect the conspirators purpose are unlawful.’
[84] Lord Bridge then gave some examples, including a passage from the speech of Lord Wright in the Crofter case, of which I have already quoted part. He also quoted from the judgments below in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) before coming to the Metall und Rohstoff case. Of that case he said ([1991] 3 All ER 303 at 312, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 468):
‘My Lords, I am quite unable to accept that Lord Diplock or the other members of the Appellate Committee concurring with him, of whom I was one, intended the decision in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd to effect, sub silentio, such a significant change in the law as it had been previously understood. The House, as is clear from the parties’ printed cases, which we have been shown, had never been invited to take such a step. Moreover, to do so would have been directly contrary to the view of Lord Denning MR expressed in the judgment which the House was affirming and inconsistent with the dicta in what Lord Diplock described as “Viscount Simon LC’s now classic speech in Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 146, [1942] AC 435 at 439” (see [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 463, [1982] AC 173 at 188). I would overrule the Metall case in this respect.’
[85] I now come to Powell v Boladz (1998) 39 BMLR 35, which the Court of Appeal saw as compelling it to require civil actionability as an ingredient of unlawful means. It was a very unusual conspiracy claim, alleging falsification of hospital records. I need not go further into the complicated facts. Stuart-Smith LJ (with whom Morritt and Schiemann LJJ agreed) saw three answers to the claim for conspiracy. The second (at 49) is in point:
‘Secondly, the unlawful act relied upon must be actionable at the suit of the plaintiff. It is not sufficient that it amounts to a crime or breach of contract with a third party (see Clerk & Lindsell on Torts (17th edn, 1995) para 23–80; Marrinan v Vibart [1962] 3 All ER 380, [1963] 1 QB 234; Hargreaves v Bretherton [1958] 3 All ER 122, [1959] 1 QB 45; Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 462, [1982] AC 173 at 186 per Lord Diplock). For this reason this form of unlawful act conspiracy adds little to the remedies available to a plaintiff.’
[86] Mr Martin QC (for the commissioners) described this passage as plainly wrong. Mr Flint QC (for Total) showed little enthusiasm for its reasoning. But to say that the reasoning in Powell v Boladz is unsound is only the first step towards identifying the correct principle. That question has been considered in a number of recent cases, which (to say the least) do not speak with one voice. The judgment of the Court of Appeal in this case, holding itself bound by Powell v Boladz, was handed down on 31 January 2007. That judgment referred to the unreported decision of Davis J in Mbasogo v Logo Ltd [2005] EWHC 2034 (QB), [2005] All ER (D) 116 (Sep) but not to the fact that that case had by then gone to the Court of Appeal (Sir Anthony Clarke MR, Dyson and Moses LJJ) [2006] EWCA Civ 1370, [2007] QB 846 which gave its reserved judgment on 23 October
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2006. That division of the Court of Appeal declined to go far into the law on unlawful means conspiracy (since it held the claim unjusticiable on wider grounds) but the court did (at [104]) express doubt as to whether it was bound by Powell v Boladz.
[87] Davis J’s judgment in Mbasogo’s case contains an admirable discussion of the ‘unlawful means’ issue, with mention of all the recent cases. Because the judgment is unreported I will give a brief summary. Davis J pointed out that in an interlocutory appeal in Associated British Ports v Transport and General Workers’ Union [1989] 3 All ER 796, [1989] 1 WLR 939, Stuart-Smith LJ had (in agreement with Butler-Sloss LJ but contrary to the view of Neill LJ) taken the view, for the purposes of the intentional harm tort ([1989] 3 All ER 796 at 819, [1989] 1 WLR 939 at 966): ‘. . . that at the very least it is strongly arguable that where the unlawful act relied upon in this tort is a breach of statute, it is not necessary that it should be one that is actionable in tort at the suit of the plaintiff.' That case was not referred to in Powell v Boladz (decided on 1 July 1997), nor in Credit Lyonnais Bank Nederland NV v Export Credits Guarantee Dept [1998] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 19, decided by the Court of Appeal (Stuart-Smith, Hobhouse and Thorpe LJJ) on 23 July 1997. At 32 Stuart-Smith LJ recorded (using the same language and referring to the same authorities) counsel’s concession that the unlawful act must be actionable at the suit of the plaintiff. That statement of the law was followed by Toulson J in Yukong Line Ltd of Korea v Rendsburg Investments Corp of Liberia, The Rialto (No 2) [1998] 4 All ER 82 at 98–101, [1998] 1 WLR 294 at 311–314. Toulson J’s reasoning was based, it seems to me, on an over-elaborate textual analysis of Lord Diplock’s speech in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2), without regard to the authoritative explanation given by Lord Bridge in Lonrho v Fayed. I would make the same respectful criticism of the judgment of Laddie J in Michaels v Taylor Woodrow Developments Ltd [2000] 4 All ER 645 esp at 655–656, [2001] Ch 493 at 505–506 (paras 30–34).
[88] In Surzur Overseas Ltd v Koros [1999] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 611, the Court of Appeal refused to strike out a claim alleging an unlawful means conspiracy by deception of the court (leading it to lift an order preventing the sale of three ships). Waller LJ (with whom Hirst and Aldous LJJ agreed) stated at 617:
‘This aspect was not debated in any detail before Mr Justice Longmore at all and was raised very much at the last moment in argument [before] us. It would clearly be wrong to reach any final conclusion. What is clear, in my view, is that it is eminently arguable that in an unlawful means conspiracy the unlawful means do not have to be actionable at the suit of the plaintiff.’
CRIME AS UNLAWFUL MEANS
[89] My Lords, faced with this confusion in the recent case law, the House must, I suggest, go back to the general principles to be derived from the older cases in which the economic torts have been developed. It is however necessary to bear in mind that their development has been a long and difficult process, and may not yet be complete, as Lord Templeman observed (with the concurrence of the majority) in Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303 at 314, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 471. A particular difficulty is that it has been generally assumed, throughout the twentieth-century cases, that ‘unlawful means’ should have the same meaning in the intentional harm tort and in the tort of conspiracy. A good deal of legal
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reasoning in the speeches and judgments (as to the ingredients of one or other of these torts) has been based on the assumption that the meaning must be the same in both. That assumption is however challenged, if the commissioners are correct, by the speech of Lord Hoffmann in the OBG case (with which the majority concurred). I shall have to come back to that difficulty.
[90] In searching for general principle I start with a very simple, even naive point. The man in the street, if asked what an unlawful act was, would probably answer ‘a crime.’ He might give as an example theft, obtaining money by false pretences, or assault occasioning actual bodily harm. He might or might not know that each of these was also a civil wrong (or tort) but it is unlikely that civil liability would be in the forefront of his mind.
[91] The reaction of a lawyer would be more informed but it would not, I suggest, be essentially different. In its ordinary legal meaning ‘unlawful’ certainly covers crimes and torts (especially intentional torts). Beyond that its scope may sometimes extend to breach of contract, breach of fiduciary duty, and perhaps even matters which merely make a contract unenforceable, but the word’s appropriateness becomes increasingly debatable and dependent on the legal context. In the very important criminal case of R v Clarence (1889) 22 QBD 23, [1886–90] All ER Rep 133 (in which a question of law on ss 20 and 47 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861 was argued before a court of 13 judges, several of whom later gave their opinions to the House in Allen v Flood) Stephen J (22 QBD 23 at 40, [1886–90] All ER Rep 133 at 143) expressed the view that—
‘[t]he word “unlawfully” must here be construed to mean “unlawfully” in the wide general sense in which the word is used with reference to acts which if done by conspirators are indictable, though not if they are done by individuals. This general sense may, I think, be said to be “immoral and mischievous to the public”. I do not agree with the doctrine that the word “unlawfully” is used here in this wide sense. The use of the word in relation to conspiracy appears to me to be exceptional.’
What was exceptional about it was its extension downwards in the scale of blameworthy conduct. The unlawfulness of criminal conduct was at the top end of the scale, and too obvious to call for mention.
[92] The inquiry how far downwards to go seems to me to be a feature common to all the leading cases in which the tort of unlawful means conspiracy has been developed. Until Lord Diplock’s speech in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) there was never a clear issue as to whether the alleged unlawful means must be actionable (as a separate tort) at the suit of the plaintiff. Lord Diplock himself acknowledged this [1981] 2 All ER 456 at 464, [1982] AC 173 at 189. His attention may have been drawn to the point by his earlier disapproval ([1981] 2 All ER 456 at 462, [1982] AC 173 at 187) of some wide observations made by Lord Denning MR in an interlocutory appeal in Ex p Island Records Ltd [1978] 3 All ER 824, [1978] Ch 122.
[93] In the long period during which this issue did not arise for decision there is, unsurprisingly, little discussion of it in the authorities. They concentrate on the issue of intention (which was also at the heart of question 5(b) in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2)). But all the statements of general principle in the classic cases seem to me to be consistent with the proposition that unlawful means, both in the intentional harm tort and in the tort of conspiracy, include
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both crimes and torts (whether or not they include conduct lower on the scale of blameworthiness) provided that they are indeed the means by which harm is intentionally inflicted on the claimant (rather than being merely incidental to it). I do not want to multiply citations but I would instance Lord Watson in Allen v Flood [1898] AC 1 at 96, [1895–9] All ER Rep 52 at 69 (emphasising ‘illegal means directed against that third party’); Viscount Cave LC in Sorrell v Smith [1925] AC 700 at 714, [1925] All ER Rep 1 at 6 (‘means which are in themselves unlawful, such as violence or the threat of violence or fraud’); Lord Wright in the Crofter case [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 158, [1942] AC 435 at 462 (quoted in [75] above, and instancing some statutory offences); Lord Devlin in Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 400, [1964] AC 1129 at 1209 (‘in some of the dicta [on conspiracies] the language suggests that the means must be criminal or tortious and in others that breach of contract would do; but in no case was the point in issue’; in the earlier much-discussed sentence [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 397, [1964] AC 1129 at 1204 I would not give much weight to the position that the word ‘usually’ occupies in the sentence); and Lord Denning MR and Russell LJ in Daily Mirror Newspapers Ltd v Gardner [1968] 2 All ER 163 at 169, 171, [1968] 2 QB 762 at 783, 785 (though that decision is questionable: see (1968) 84 LQR 310).
[94] From these and other authorities I derive a general assumption, too obvious to need discussion, that criminal conduct engaged in by conspirators as a means of inflicting harm on the claimant is actionable as the tort of conspiracy, whether or not that conduct, on the part of a single individual, would be actionable as some other tort. To hold otherwise would, as has often been pointed out, deprive the tort of conspiracy of any real content, since the conspirators would be joint tortfeasors in any event (and there are cases discussing the notion of conspiracy ‘merging’ into some other tort, but I need not go far into those: Surzur Overseas Ltd v Koros [1999] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 611; Kuwait Oil Tanker Co SAK v Al Bader [2000] 2 All ER (Comm) 271).
[95] In my opinion your Lordships should clarify the law by holding that criminal conduct (at common law or by statute) can constitute unlawful means, provided that it is indeed the means (what Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead in the OBG case [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [159] called ‘instrumentality’) of intentionally inflicting harm. In Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) the sanctions order against Southern Rhodesia was part of the story, but it was not the instrument for the intentional infliction of harm. With great respect to Lord Hoffmann (in the OBG case at [57]) it is in my view what Shell and BP did not intend, rather than what Parliament did not intend, that is most relevant to that decision.
[96] Having said that I would accept that the sort of considerations relevant to determining whether a breach of statutory duty is actionable in a civil suit (Cutler v Wandsworth Stadium Ltd [1949] 1 All ER 544, [1949] AC 398) may well overlap, or even occasionally coincide with, the issue of unlawful means in the tort of conspiracy. But the range of possible breaches of statutory duty, and the range of possible conspiracies, are both so wide and varied that it would be unwise to attempt to lay down any general rule. What is important, to my mind, is that in the phrase ‘unlawful means’ each word has an important part to play. It is not enough that there is an element of unlawfulness somewhere in the story.
OBG REVISITED
[97] I must now come back to the OBG case [2007] 4 All ER 545, [2007] 2 WLR 920. It was a case about an invalid appointment of receivers in which the
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appellants sought to widen the scope of the tort of conversion. It was heard with Douglas v Hello! Ltd, which raised issues about breach of confidence, and Mainstream Properties Ltd v Young, a case which might have been run as a claim for dishonest assistance in breach of fiduciary duty. Despite these disparate issues the appeals were heard together because they all raised issues as to the intentional harm tort. In a passage of his opinion with which the majority concurred (at [45]–[60]) Lord Hoffmann observed in relation to the intentional harm tort (at [49]):
‘In my opinion, and subject to one qualification, acts against a third party count as unlawful means only if they are actionable by that third party. The qualification is that they will also be unlawful means if the only reason why they are not actionable is because the third party has suffered no loss.’
Lord Nicholls took a different view (at [149]–[163]).
[98] Lord Hoffmann stated at [56]:
‘Your Lordships were not referred to any authority in which the tort of causing loss by unlawful means has been extended beyond the description given by Lord Watson in Allen v Flood [1898] AC 1 at 96, [1895–9] All ER Rep 52 at 69 and Lord Lindley in Quinn v Leathem [1901] AC 495 at 535, [1900–3] All ER Rep 1 at 16. Nor do I think it should be.’
He added at [57] (on which I have already commented):
‘Likewise, as it seems to me, in a case like [Lonrho v Shell], it is not for the courts to create a cause of action out of a regulatory or criminal statute which Parliament did not intend to be actionable in private law.’
And at [60]:
‘I do not think that the width of the concept of “unlawful means” can be counteracted by insisting upon a highly specific intention, which “targets” the plaintiff. That, as it seems to me, places too much of a strain on the concept of intention.’
[99] These passages (on which Mr Flint relied in his printed case and his oral submissions) prompted me to mention, near the beginning of this opinion, the risk of a new layer of anomaly being added to the tort of conspiracy (that is, that ‘unlawful means’ would have a meaning for the purposes of a conspiracy claim different from its meaning for the purposes of a claim based on the intentional harm tort). But as Lord Hoffmann develops his reasoning at [51]–[58] of his opinion it becomes apparent that he is concerned, not only with the legal quality of the unlawful means (tort or crime?) but also with their effect in interfering with a third party’s freedom of economic action. Cases like RCA Corp v Pollard [1982] 3 All ER 771, [1983] Ch 135 and Oren v Red Box Toy Factory Ltd [1999] FSR 785, show that a trader may suffer economic loss as the result of a civil wrong by a bootlegger actionable by the proprietor (or sometimes, an exclusive licensee) of
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intellectual property rights, without the trader having a remedy. The breach of the intellectual property rights is a statutory tort, but it is actionable only by those with a sufficient title to them. As I understand his opinion, Lord Hoffmann was concerned to limit the intentional harm tort to cases where the claimant has been ‘intentionally struck at through others’ (in the words of Lord Lindley in Quinn v Leathem [1901] AC 495 at 535, [1900–3] All ER Rep 1 at 16, quoted by Lord Hoffmann at [46]). He made clear (at [61]) that ‘two party intimidation’ raises quite different issues. This point is developed at [43] in the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Hope of Craighead, and at [124] in the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Mance, and I respectfully agree with their observations.
[100] The intentional harm tort and the ‘unlawful means’ variety of conspiracy share the ingredients of the intentional infliction of harm on the claimant. But that variety of conspiracy is not simply the intentional harm tort committed by joint tortfeasors. The gist of the intentional harm tort (apart from exceptional ‘two party’ cases) is striking at the claimant through a third party, and doing so by interfering with his freedom of economic activity. The gist of conspiracy is damage intentionally inflicted by persons who combine for that purpose (Viscount Simon LC in the Crofter case [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 149, [1942] AC 435 at 444) and the claimant need not be a trader who is injured in his trade, though that is the most common case. In my opinion your Lordships are driven to the conclusion that, as the economic torts have developed, ‘unlawful means’ has a wider meaning in the tort of conspiracy than it has in the intentional harm tort.
[101] Some scholars have classified the tort of unlawful means conspiracy as a form of secondary liability (notably Hazel Carty An Analysis of the Economic Torts (2001) p 22, agreeing with Philip Sales ‘The Tort of Conspiracy and Civil Secondary Liability’ [1990] CLJ 491). They would not apply this classification to a conspiracy to injure by lawful means. If an unlawful means conspiracy is indeed a form of secondary liability for a civil wrong then the need for the unlawful means to be actionable as a civil wrong would be self-evident.
[102] However the premise is in my opinion mistaken. The best judicial support for it seems to be some comments by Palles CB in Kearney v Lloyd (1889) 26 LR Ir 268, but in the Crofter case [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 157–158, [1942] AC 435 at 461–462 Lord Wright said that later cases have decisively held the contrary (this passage immediately precedes the passage which I have set out in [75], above). Sales’s article was written (like other scholarly comments such as John Eekelaar ‘The Conspiracy Tangle’ (1990) 106 LQR 223) in the uneasy period after this House’s decision in Lonrho v Shell and the Court of Appeal’s decision in Metall und Rohstoff and before the House’s decision in Lonrho v Fayed. A later well-regarded article by Sales and Stilitz ‘Intentional Infliction of Harm by Unlawful Means’ (1999) 115 LQR 411 repeated (p 435) the proposition:
‘It is now clear that conspiracy to injure another by unlawful means is a distinct form of liability, under which the conspirators are made jointly liable for acts committed by one or more of them, which are acts which would be independently actionable by P if committed by only one person. Unlawful means conspiracy is thus an example of secondary liability, and is quite
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distinct from the intentional harm tort (for which the unlawful means involved do not have to be actionable independently of the tort itself).’
[103] The last part of this passage has been shown to be incorrect by the decision of this House in the OBG case (see the speech of Lord Hoffmann [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [59]–[61]). In my opinion the first part of the passage is also unsustainable. The authors cite in support of it Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2); Lonrho v Fayed; Rookes v Barnard; Marrinan v Vibart; and Powell v Boladz. I need not repeat why those authorities do not in my opinion support it, beyond noting the passage relied on in the speech of Lord Bridge in Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303 at 310, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 466:
‘As the judgments in both courts below and the speech of Lord Diplock make clear, the fact dictating a negative answer to the second question was the absence of any intention to injure Lonrho. Parker J said:
“The claimants accept that there is no case in which an undirected crime, not itself a civil wrong, committed without intent to injure, has been held, or, I think, even alleged to be actionable on the mere ground that it was committed pursuant to agreement.”’
The whole context of Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) shows that the emphasis in this passage (and the other passages quoted) was on the absence of an intention to injure, and not on the need for an independently actionable wrong.
[104] In short, and with great respect to those who take a different view, any suggestion that the unlawful means conspiracy is a form of secondary liability, and must therefore have an actionable wrong as an essential ingredient, seems to me to be a circular argument which assumes what it sets out to prove.
IS A PRIVATE LAW ACTION OPEN TO THE COMMISSIONERS?
[105] All the foregoing discussion is academic if, as my noble and learned friend Lord Hope would hold, a private law action for damages for conspiracy is not open to the commissioners. Lord Hope founds his conclusion, as I understand it, not so much on the Bill of Rights 1688 as on the comprehensive and exhaustive nature of the statutory code for the administration and collection of VAT contained in the Value Added Tax Act 1994. My noble and learned friend also considers that the commissioners have no commercial interests needing to be protected by the tort of conspiracy. This last point was not, so far as I can see, raised by Mr Flint in his written and oral submissions.
[106] I respectfully differ from Lord Hope on this part of the case. The commissioners’ statutory powers are not derived solely from the 1994 Act. They are also derived from the commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, which lays down the commissioners’ statutory functions in connection with VAT (s 5(1)(b) and (2)(b)). The commissioners have ancillary powers (s 9) and specific power to conduct civil proceedings (s 25).
[107] The commissioners regularly present bankruptcy petitions and winding-up petitions against defaulting taxpayers of all sorts. In a winding up they can if necessary proceed against a receiver for misfeasance (IRC v Goldblatt [1972] 2 All ER 202, [1972] Ch 498). They do so in order to recover tax (not to ‘levy’ it). So far as I can see they have no express statutory power to seek these
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remedies, but it has never been doubted that they are available. Similarly (though your Lordships heard no argument on the point from either side) there does not appear to be any specific statutory power for the commissioners to obtain a freezing order. But it was only by obtaining a freezing order in private law proceedings that the commissioners were able to prevent the conspirators from removing their ill-gotten gains out of the jurisdiction. But for a freezing order, there would have been a severe loss to the commissioners and to the general body of taxpayers.
[108] The commissioners’ action in this case has been described in Total’s written and oral submissions as unprecedented. That may be so. The first-ever application for a freezing order (originally called a Mareva injuction) was unprecedented, but it has proved very efficacious in strengthening civil remedies against fraud. In the well-known case of WT Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865 at 873, [1982] AC 300 at 326, Lord Wilberforce said: ‘While the techniques of tax avoidance progress and are technically improved, the courts are not obliged to stand still. Such immobility must result either in loss of tax, to the prejudice of other taxpayers, or to Parliamentary congestion or (most likely) to both.' Lord Wilberforce said that in relation to artificial (but not unlawful) tax avoidance which was then costing the Exchequer millions of pounds a year. Your Lordships are now concerned with illegal, fraudulent tax evasion which is costing the Exchequer more than a billion pounds a year. Indeed it is worse than evasion: it is the fraudulent extraction of money from the Exchequer.
[109] The commissioners do not now handle large sums of cash, since there are safer means for the transfer of money. But if an official vehicle carrying cash belonging to the commissioners (cash representing collected taxes) were hijacked and the cash stolen, it seems to me that the commissioners would undoubtedly have a civil remedy available to reclaim it, if the robbers were apprehended and the proceeds of the robbery traced to a bank account. In my opinion the present case is essentially the same.
[110] For these reasons I disagree with the conclusion of the Court of Appeal on what it called the third issue ([2007] STC 1005 at [80]–[87]). I would therefore, if necessary, have upheld the commissioners’ fallback position (see [63], above). I would allow the commissioners’ appeal and dismiss Total’s cross-appeal.
LORD MANCE.
[111] My Lords, I have had the benefit of reading in draft the opinions of my noble and learned friends, Lord Hope of Craighead, Lord Scott of Foscote, Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe and Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury. I gratefully adopt the summary of the facts at [3] to [10] of Lord Hope’s and [49] and [51] of Lord Scott’s opinions. The questions to which they give rise are (a) whether the pursuit of any claim by the commissioners against Total Network SL in conspiracy is precluded by (i) the Bill of Rights 1688 and/or (ii) the statutory scheme of the Value Added Tax Act 1994 and (b) whether, if it is not, it can as pleaded exist in law.
[112] I will start with issue (b). All of your Lordships are of the view on issue (b) that the commissioners’ pleaded claim can as pleaded exist in law. The commissioners put their claim in two alternative ways, as Lord Neuberger explains at [142] and [164]–[167], below. I agree with him that both are arguable
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under the domestic and European legal principles that he examines. But I would put this on a narrow basis.
[113] One way in which the commissioners put their case focuses on the non-payment of value added tax (VAT) by Redlaw (£249,054·75) and, to a much lesser extent, Lockparts (£993); the other on the VAT credit which was claimed by, and in respect of which the commissioners were induced to pay £253,345·50 to, Alldech. The commissioners allege a conspiracy to cause them loss by unlawful means, consisting of the commission of the common law offence of cheating the public revenue either in respect of the VAT which the commissioners should have received from Redlaw and Lockparts or out of the VAT credit they were induced to pay to Alldech. It is not, for present purposes, disputed that there is a good case for saying that Total, Redlaw, Lockparts and Alldech were together guilty of this common law offence of cheating the revenue. There is nothing in the scheme of the 1994 Act, or in the various civil and criminal remedies for which it provides, to prevent prosecution for the common law offence such as was pursued under the predecessor legislation in R v Mavji [1987] 2 All ER 758, [1987] 1 WLR 1388.
[114] Total’s primary response is that the commission of a crime alone is insufficient to constitute ‘unlawful means’ for the purposes of grounding a tortious cause of action for conspiracy. Total submits that for this purpose ‘unlawful means’ would have to consist in conduct that was itself actionable by the commissioners in tort (or possibly breach of contract). In the case of the payment made to Alldech, the commissioners do allege that the cheating was accompanied by positive deceit, itself actionable by them in tort against Alldech. In response to this, Total submits, and the Court of Appeal held, that the statutory scheme of the 1994 Act precludes any independent actionable remedy in tort against Alldech.
[115] The House is not concerned with an alleged conspiracy committed with the predominant intention of injuring the commissioners. In the Court of Appeal, counsel for the commissioners declined on instructions, for reasons which he explained to the court, to seek to amend to plead that the conspirators’ predominant purpose was to injure the commissioners. The House is concerned with the other branch of conspiracy depending upon an intention (although not a predominant intention) to injure by unlawful means. The existence of unlawful means is therefore critical to the commissioners’ case.
[116] In agreement with the reasoning of Lord Walker and Lord Neuberger, I consider that the history and jurisprudence relating to this type of conspiracy point clearly to the conclusion that at least some criminal acts, not amounting to torts, may suffice to ground the tort. Lord Wright’s speech in Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142, [1942] AC 435, cited by Lord Walker, contains particularly clear support for the view that this type of conspiracy is not to be regarded as a purely secondary form of liability, limited (apart from the possibility that the wrongful means might consist of breach of contract) to duplicating liability that the conspirators would anyway have as joint tortfeasors. The decision in Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456, [1982] AC 173 proceeded, as explained in Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303, [1992] 1 AC 448, on the basis that a purely criminal act, consisting of Shell’s alleged breach of the United Kingdom’s sanctions Orders making it a criminal offence to supply oil to Rhodesia, could constitute relevant unlawful means for the purposes of the tort of conspiracy by unlawful means. The
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conclusion that no tort had been committed derived from the absence—admitted by counsel for Lonhro plc [1982] AC 173 at 180)—of any allegation of any intention at all to injure Lonhro plc. (It was also the fact that the sanctions orders were ‘not passed for the protection of any particular section of the public and [gave] rise to no special duty to [Lonhro]’: see the concession [1982] AC 173 at 179).
[117] In Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303 at 311, [1992] 1 AC 448 at 467–468 Lord Bridge of Harwich, giving the leading speech with which all other members of the House agreed, quoted extensively from the judgment of Lord Denning MR in the Court of Appeal as well as from Lord Diplock’s speech in the House of Lords in Lonhro Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) to show that what was fatal in the latter case had been the absence of any intent at all to injure; and on that basis he concluded that conspiracy by unlawful means, where there was an intention to injure the claimant, even if this was not the defendant’s predominant intention, continued to exist as an English law tort. It is also worth noting that in Lonhro plc v Fayed the unlawful means alleged consisted in misleading the board of directors of the House of Fraser and the Secretary of State, in other words of torts committed at most against third parties. Yet the House accepted that the claim for conspiracy by unlawful means was arguable.
[118] Liability in conspiracy has been described as an anomaly. But it is again to be noted that in Metall und Rohstoff AG v Donaldson Lufkin & Jenrette Inc [1989] 3 All ER 14 at 42, [1990] 1 QB 391 at 460, the Court of Appeal thought that to interpret Lonhro Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) as preventing a plaintiff from relying on a damage-causing act which was merely a breach of the criminal law but gave no right of action in tort would be to treat the House as having intended to introduce a new anomaly. It would mean that ‘a cause of action in conspiracy would exist where it was least needed (ie where the acts done pursuant to the agreement were torts, which would in themselves provide a cause of action) but not where it was most needed’. The Court of Appeal’s understanding of Lonhro Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) in another respect (that on which its decision was overruled by Lonhro plc v Fayed) does not detract from this observation.
[119] Caution is nonetheless necessary about the scope of the tort of conspiracy by unlawful means. Not every criminal act committed in order to injure can or should give rise to tortious liability to the person injured, even where the element of conspiracy is present. The pizza delivery business which obtains more custom, to the detriment of its competitors, because it instructs its drivers to ignore speed limits and jump red lights (Lord Walker in OBG Ltd v Allan [2007] UKHL 21 at [266], [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [266], [2007] 2 WLR 920) should not be liable, even if the claim be put as a claim in conspiracy involving its drivers and directors. And—as in relation to the tort of causing loss by unlawful means inflicted on a third party—there is a legitimate objection to making liability ‘depend upon whether the defendant has done something which is wrongful for reasons which have nothing to do with the damage inflicted on the claimant’: the OBG case at [59] per Lord Hoffmann.
[120] But the same concern does not apply where, as here, the offence exists in its very nature to protect the Revenue; where its commission is necessarily, directly and intentionally targeted at and injurious to the Revenue; and where its intended result is the wrongful non-payment of VAT by Redlaw and Lockparts of statutorily recoverable VAT or the payment to Alldech of a VAT credit not properly due under the 1994 Act. Like others of your Lordships, I think that there
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would be an evident lacuna if the law did not respond to this situation by recognising a civil liability.
[121] It may be asked why the liability should only exist through the medium of a claim for unlawful means conspiracy, and not on the basis of the cheating alone. There is force in the point. It was not argued on this appeal that mere cheating of the Revenue would (without either conspiracy or the commission of another recognised tort such as deceit) give rise to liability in tort. But I would reserve my opinion about that. The assumption in the case law recognising the common law offence of cheating the public revenue appears to have been that cheating would as between subject and subject be actionable (though actionable only) by civil action: see eg R v Bembridge (1783) 22 State Tr 1 at 155 per Lord Mansfield CJ, cited in R v Hudson [1956] 1 All ER 814 at 817, [1956] 2 QB 252 at 260 per Lord Goddard CJ (and [1956] 2 QB 252 at 253, in counsel’s argument). I note the observations of Sales and Stilitz in Intentional Infliction of Harm by Unlawful Means (1999) 115 LQR 411 pp 420–425 as well as by Lord Hoffmann and Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead in the OBG case [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [61] and [161], [2007] 2 WLR 920 about the possibility of civil liability in the case of deliberate infliction of harm in ‘two-party’ situations. In practical terms, however, the possibility of the point now arising in relation to cheating the public revenue must be negligible, having regard to the statutory scheme of civil liability arising under the VAT and other taxing statutes. The statutory scheme would in a two-party situation be likely to supersede any tortious liability: see further below.
[122] Assuming that cheating the public revenue is not, even apart from the statutory scheme of the VAT and other taxing statutes, itself tortious in the absence of some other recognised tort such as deceit, the fact of conspiracy in my opinion offers a sufficient justification for recognising tortious responsibility in the present context, as it does in cases of predominant purpose to injury. The present appeal illustrates the extent to which cheating the revenue is a crime likely to be facilitated by a combination of conspirators. A devious individual or entity might—possibly—achieve the same result by himself or itself, but would be a great deal less likely to try or succeed.
[123] Heavy reliance was placed by Total on the OBG case. In that case, the House considered and distinguished the accessory or secondary liability which exists under the principle in Lumley v Gye (1853) 2 E & B 216, 118 ER 749, where C induces B to break B’s contract with A, and the primary liability which exists under the tort of causing loss to a person (A) by unlawful means where C commits acts (including the threat to do acts) against B which are actionable by B or would be if B had suffered loss and which affect B’s freedom to deal with A (see [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [49], [51], [129] and [136] per Lord Hoffmann). The majority of the House in the OBG case held the actionability (or potential actionability) of C’s acts against B to be a pre-requisite to A having a claim in tort against C for causing loss by unlawful means. The submission made to the House on this appeal is that the House should adopt the same view of unlawful means in the context of the tort of conspiracy to injure. The submission has on its face attraction, as I have myself said in Grupo Torras SA v Al-Sabah [1999] CLC 1469 at 1649 (though in support of an analysis according to which actionability at the suit of the plaintiff was not necessary). But another view has been suggested at the highest level (Rookes v Barnard [1964] 1 All ER 367 at 400, [1964] AC 1129 at 1210–1211 per Lord Devlin), and, on reflection, there can be danger in what Lord Goff of Chieveley called ‘the temptation of elegance’ (Henderson v Merrett Syndicates Ltd, Hallam-Eames v Merrett
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Syndicates Ltd, Hughes v Merrett Syndicates Ltd, Arbuthnott v Feltrim Underwriting Agencies Ltd, Deeny v Gooda Walker Ltd (in liq) [1994] 3 All ER 506 at 525, [1995] 2 AC 145 at 186). The two torts are different in their nature, and the interests of justice may require their development on somewhat different bases.
[124] Lord Hope (at [43]) and Lord Neuberger (at [223]) note that Lord Hoffmann in the OBG case [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [61], in ‘defining the tort of causing loss by unlawful means as a tort which requires interference with the actions of a third party in relation to the plaintiff’, made clear that ‘a case of “two party intimidation” raises altogether different issues’. In relation to the three-party tort of causing loss by unlawful means, Lord Hoffmann’s criticism of the Court of Appeal’s reasoning in the OBG case was that it first expanded the concept of ‘unlawful means’, and then sought to counteract the width of the concept ‘by insisting upon a highly specific intention, which ‘targets’ the plaintiff’; this, he considered, ‘places too much strain on the concept of intention’ (see [60] and [135]). That problem does not to my mind arise with anything like the same force in the present context. I accept that conspiracy can be categorised as a three- rather than two-party tort, in that liability depends on at least two persons joining together to injure another: see also Hazel Carty in An Analysis of the Economic Torts (2001) at eg pp 271 and 278. Nevertheless, there is in my view a distinction between the infliction of harm through the intermediary of a third party (as in the case of the tort of causing harm by unlawful means under consideration in the OBG case) and the present situation where two wrongdoers join and act together to inflict injury directly upon another person or body; and to do so, moreover, by committing an offence integrally related to the Revenue and recognised specifically to protect it from such injury. This in turn assists to delimit the liability for conspiracy by unlawful means which the House is recognising by its present decision.
[125] So far as the commissioners’ claim relates of the VAT credit paid to Alldech, I would only add that the commissioners ought on any view to succeed on issue (b). It matters not if the commissioners’ only remedy to recover the VAT credit as against Alldech (as opposed to other conspirators responsible for the deceit) is under s 73(2) of the 1994 Act. The wrongful extraction of the money from the commissioners by deceit involved unlawful means and a sufficiently actionable wrong to justify a civil claim in conspiracy.
[126] I would therefore answer affirmatively issue (b) identified in [112], above. This brings me to the issue on which my opinion proves critical to the outcome of this appeal. It is a curious feature that the appeal was in terms brought only on part (i) of issue (a), that is the Bill of Rights point. Part (ii), the inconsistent statutory scheme point, was taken below, but not in either the cross-notice of appeal or the statement of issues. Total’s case only mentions the statutory scheme as a background factor to its submissions on issue (b) and to the Bill of Rights. Even during oral argument before the House, Mr Charles Flint QC for Total did no more than say that issue (a) could also be put on a pure ‘ultra vires/statutory’ basis, but that art 4 of the Bill of Rights was how they had formulated it. However, as all aspects of issue (a) involve pure questions of law and raise questions of general importance, I agree that they need deciding.
[127] Lord Hope and Lord Neuberger have helpfully analysed the detailed provisions of the 1994 Act. The Act was of course passed in the context of Council Directive (EC) 77/388 of 17 May 1977 on the harmonisation of the laws of the member states relating to turnover taxes—common system of value added
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tax: uniform basis of assessment (OJ 1977 L145 p 1) (the Sixth Directive), but it has not been suggested by counsel that the Directive contains anything presently material. I agree with Lord Scott (at [59]) and Lord Neuberger (at [168]–[172]) in rejecting Total’s submission that the commissioners’ claim infringes art 4 of the Bill of Rights (issue (a) part (i)). For the reasons they give the commissioners’ claim is a damages claim for being wrongfully cheated of moneys or revenue with the management or collection of which the commissioners were entrusted, rather than a claim to levy money for or to the use of the Crown within the meaning of art 4. The commissioners are claiming damages against a conspirator (Total) whose wrongdoing either prevented the recovery of tax which was due under Parliamentary authority (from Redlaw and Lockparts) or led to the commissioners mistakenly paying (to Alldech) a VAT credit which was not due and which is in law recoverable under Parliamentary authority (from Alldech). In short, although the claim is against Total, it is a claim aimed at the recovery of damages to uphold, not to extend, the tax system. Such a claim is in my view outside the language and mischief of art 4. Article 4 aims to prevent the levying of taxation for which there is no Parliamentary authority, not the recovery of compensation for wrongdoing causing the loss of monies belonging or due to the commissioners.
[128] The statutory scheme point (issue (a) part (ii)) is, self-evidently in view of the division in the House, more difficult. Lord Neuberger identifies and examines various aspects of the point: the commissioners’ functions, the remedial rights given to them and the procedural and other stipulations relating to such rights. Some of his reasoning in relation to the commissioners’ functions echoes Mr Flint’s reference to vires. But for my part, I do not find vires a problem. First, no question of vires in a strict sense has ever been raised. The most that was argued below or touched on in the House is the suggestion that the statutory scheme excludes the ordinary common law rights that the commissioners would otherwise have in respect of Total’s alleged conduct. Second, the commissioners had, in the language which applied until 2005, ‘the care and management’ of VAT (para 1(1) of Sch 11 to the 1994 Act). They were charged with ‘the duty of collecting and accounting for, and otherwise managing, the revenues of customs and excise’ (s 6(2) of the Customs and Excise Management Act 1979). If, as their alternative case involves, their loss consists in paying out in respect of a false claim to a VAT credit, that involves loss of money under their direct management. Lord Neuberger accepts (at [184]) that the commissioners could bring tortious claims for theft of moneys in their possession. Wrongful abstraction of moneys as a result of a successful deceit or conspiracy seems no different in principle. And if, as their primary case involves, the commissioners’ loss is their inability, as a result of the conspiracy, to recover VAT due from the missing traders, the recovery of such loss seems to me also to fall within the scope of their competence. I see no reason why it should be outside the commissioners’ competence, if the statutory scheme otherwise permits, to take common law action in respect of a successful conspiracy which abstracts moneys en route to the commissioners or which prevents the commissioners from recovering from others what is due from such others to the commissioners. It is in my view neither wrong nor artificial to describe the commissioners as having suffered loss or as seeking compensation, in whichever way their case is put; and I see no incongruity in their and the public’s interests being in this respect protected by a common law action for conspiracy. Again, the claim is not for the VAT due or
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for repayment of the VAT credit, it is for damages in respect of loss suffered by the commissioners due to a successful conspiracy to manipulate the VAT system.
[129] The decision in IRC v Goldblatt [1972] 2 All ER 202, [1972] Ch 498 is in my opinion of interest, even though, and to some degree because it was taken for granted that the commissioners were entitled to pursue private law remedies to recoup loss which they had suffered through the receivers’ and/or debenture holder’s failure to pay tax out of moneys available for the purpose. Goff J accepted that the commissioners could bring both a misfeasance claim for breach by a receiver and/or debenture holder of the statutory duty to pay the Revenue preferentially ([1972] 2 All ER 202 at 206, 207, 207–208, [1972] Ch 498 at 505, 506, 506–507), and claim in equity on the footing of constructive trusteeship ([1972] 2 All ER 202 at 208, [1972] Ch 498 at 507–508). Goff J based his decision on each of these grounds, and the existence of the latter as well as the former appears to me to strengthen, rather than weaken, the significance of the case. A claim for breach of a statutory duty specifically designed to protect preferential creditors such as the commissioners might be argued to fall into a different category to the commissioners’ present claim to invoke the common law tort of conspiracy. Nonetheless, a claim on this basis enables the commissioners to recover compensation for wrongdoing causing a loss of tax due to them. In that respect, it mirrors the commissioners’ present claim. A claim in equity on the footing of constructive trust cannot on any view be distinguished as belonging to some special category associated with breach of statutory duty.
[130] The critical question, in my view, is whether the statutory scheme supersedes and displaces the common law rights and remedies which the commissioners would otherwise have: see Deutsche Morgan Grenfell Group plc v IRC [2006] UKHL 49 at [135], [2007] 1 All ER 449 at [135], [2007] 1 AC 558 per Lord Walker. For this to be the case, it seems to me that the statute must positively be shown to be inconsistent with the continuation of the ordinary common law remedy otherwise available, and further that this must be shown to be the case as against the particular defendant. In support of the passage cited above, Lord Walker referred to two cases where an exclusive scheme would have been ‘set at nought’ or ‘defeated’ if a common law claim had been permitted. In Marcic v Thames Water Utilities Ltd [2003] UKHL 66, [2004] 1 All ER 135, [2004] 2 AC 42, the statutory scheme for ensuring that water undertakers performed their statutory duties appropriately would have been set at nought if a common law claim for damages in nuisance had been possible; and in Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2005] UKHL 54, [2005] 4 All ER 1141, [2006] 1 AC 118, the majority in this House held that, at least where the time limit for use of the statutory scheme had not expired, a taxpayer’s only way of challenging a taxing provision as contrary to European law was by making use of the statutory tribunal scheme, as opposed to judicial review. In contrast, in Woolwich Equitable Building Society v IRC [1992] 3 All ER 737, [1993] AC 70, also cited by Lord Walker, there had been no lawful assessment, it was not therefore possible to seek a remedy through the statutory scheme (which ‘where applicable, overlaid and replaced the common law principles’) and so a common law claim for restitution could lie: [1992] 3 All ER 737 at 756–758, esp at 758, [1993] AC 70 at 168–170, esp at 169–170 per Lord Goff of Chieveley. The case of Johnson v Unisys Ltd [2001] UKHL 13, [2001] 2 All ER 801, [2003] 1 AC 518 falls in my opinion into the same category. The claimant was contending for a common law remedy covering the same ground as the statutory right available to him under the Employment Rights Act 1996 through
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the Employment Tribunal system, and it was held that it would have been contrary to Parliament’s intention to recognise such a remedy: per Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead at [2] and Lord Hoffmann at [58]–[59].
[131] As against any taxable person, including in the present case Redlaw, Lockparts and Alldech, the legislation provides direct remedies for the recovery of any VAT due as well as of any sums paid as a VAT credit which ought not to have been so paid: cf para 5 of Sch 11 to the 1994 Act and s 73(2). In each case, as I read the statute, the commissioners could only pursue the person concerned in respect of VAT due from or a VAT credit paid to him, her or it.
[132] Section 77A, introduced only with effect from 10 April 2003 by the Finance Act 2003 and so not applicable at the times relevant to this appeal, contains a major extension, by creating potentially joint and several liability for unpaid VAT on the part of any taxable person who, at the time a supply was made to such person, ‘knew or had reasonable grounds to suspect that some or all of the VAT payable in respect of that supply, or on any previous or subsequent supply of those goods, would go unpaid’ (s 77A(2)). The permissibility and validity of that extension under art 21(3) of the Sixth Directive were upheld by the Court of Justice of the European Communities in Customs and Excise Comrs v Federation of Technological Industries Case C-384/04 [2006] STC 1483. But, even s 77A would not have created a liability for VAT on the part of Total, which was not a taxable person. The possibility that art 21(3) might have permitted the United Kingdom to go further than it did in s 77A, by imposing liability for VAT on an otherwise non-taxable overseas company such as Total, was not raised or explored before the House. It may be the case that this would not be possible. But, assuming for the moment that it would, it did not happen. Nothing in the language of art 21(3) of the Sixth Directive seems to me (or was suggested by Mr Flint QC before the House) to exclude, or preclude the pursuit by the commissioners of, any ordinary civil remedy that would otherwise be available to them against a third party for tortiously causing the commissioners a loss of VAT or a loss by way of payment of a VAT credit.
[133] In the light of the statutory scheme, I would accept as correct the Court of Appeal’s answer to the third question before it, namely that the commissioners cannot pursue an independent actionable remedy (outside the statute) against Alldech. But the issue on the present appeal is whether the commissioners can pursue such a remedy against Total. It was not, as I understand it, suggested, nor would it in my view be correct to suggest, that the commissioners’ inability in law to pursue anything but a statutory remedies against Alldech (or any other of the United Kingdom companies in the chain) means that they cannot still pursue Total for the conspiracy to which it is alleged that all were in fact party.
[134] No statutory remedy to recover VAT or repayment of a VAT credit from Total has been identified as available to the commissioners in this respect. Total happens to be a company in the chain of suppliers and purchasers involved in the present alleged ‘carousel’ fraud, and it is its overseas status and the fact that it is not a taxable person that takes it outside the statutory scheme. But the claim for conspiracy does not depend upon its membership of the chain of suppliers and purchasers or its overseas status. It is quite possible to conceive of other conspirators here or abroad, including financial and legal advisers, involved in the conception, preparation and implementation of a carousel fraud, who would themselves have no liability under the statutory scheme for VAT or its
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repayment (except perhaps criminal liability under eg s 72, which I address below).
[135] It is, I think, on the statutory scheme of liability for VAT and the repayment of VAT paid that attention should primarily be focused when considering whether a separate common law claim for being cheated by a conspiracy out of VAT can be pursued. A penalty is a sanction, and differs in nature from compensation for loss. But, when one does look at the penalty provisions which the 1994 Act also contains, they also do not apply to Total. Section 60 in particular is, as I read it, concerned with evasion of VAT by the person liable to the VAT or claiming a credit or refund. Section 61 provides a minor qualification to this, by allowing a penalty to be imposed on a director or managing officer of a body corporate liable to a penalty under s 60. Neither the liability for VAT which the 1994 Act imposes on taxable and some other persons, nor the potential liability to a penalty or criminal offences which it also imposes on certain persons, including some who are not themselves taxable persons under the Act, seem to me reasons for treating the Act as excluding or precluding the exercise of ordinary civil remedies against non-taxable persons like Total against whom the Act provides no parallel statutory remedy.
[136] Section 72 of the 1994 Act creates a criminal offence of considerable width, which may lead to a court ordering a penalty of up to three times the VAT evaded and/or imprisonment. In so far as the evasion of VAT—which Total in combination with other companies is alleged to have been concerned in or to have taken steps with a view to—took place in England, it is arguable, and I am ready for present purposes to assume, that the principle of territoriality of criminal legislation would not preclude the application of s 72 to Total. But s 72 is capable of co-existing with the common law offence of cheating the revenue (cf R v Mavji cited in [113], above), and I see nothing in the existence of either of these criminal offences to exclude or preclude the use of ordinary civil law remedies, if otherwise available. The practicalities, the ease of pursuit, the aims and results and the enforcement of civil and criminal proceedings all differ radically. There are under the 1994 Act provisions whereby a conviction under s 72 or for cheating the revenue will preclude the assessment of a penalty under s 60 or s 63 (see ss 60(6) and 63(11)(a)), and the assessment of a penalty under s 60 will preclude the assessment of a penalty under s 63 (see s 63(11)(b)). But I see no inconsistency or even incongruity in it being possible, despite the conviction of one conspirator under s 72, to pursue a common law remedy in tort against another conspirator. I do not think that the conspirator who has been convicted can be regarded as having escaped liability. The likelihood is, if anything, that s/he will suffer a considerably heavier penalty, including it may well be a financial penalty in excess of any loss that the Revenue could claim to have suffered in civil proceedings.
[137] It is of course the case that, if a common law claim against Total is possible, it will be pursued through the courts, and the statutory rules, procedures and mechanisms relating to such matters as limitation, appeals against assessments and mitigation of penalties will not apply. But, as I have already noted, the commissioners might have a claim for conspiracy against persons such as financial and legal advisers, against whom the statutory scheme could not afford any right to recover the VAT or VAT repayment in issue. If such persons have by a successful conspiracy caused the commissioners to pay out a false VAT credit to other conspirators, is it to be said that the statute precludes
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any civil claim against them? Further, it is of the essence of any such civil claim that it is brought to recoup any loss that the commissioners may ultimately suffer after all statutory remedies reasonably available have been exhausted. The commissioners have to mitigate their loss by taking reasonable steps in that regard. A court assessing damages will have to take into account the commissioners’ statutory rights and, so far as they have not been exhausted and enforced, make an assessment as to their value. That is a different exercise from any which a tax tribunal will have to undertake. Parallel, though different, exercises of this nature have not infrequently to take place in various legal contexts, where all connected proceedings cannot be combined, and I do not see their possibility as any indication that the statutory scheme should be treated as precluding the commissioners claiming damages for conspiracy at common law.
[138] The possibility under s 70(1) of a tax tribunal reducing a penalty imposed under the statute (though not by reference to any of the matters specified in s 70(4)) appears to me irrelevant. As I have already said, the sanction of a penalty is conceptually distinct from the compensation afforded by a common law claim for damages. There is no call or basis in the case of a common law claim for reducing whatever the court may find to be the properly recoverable loss suffered by a claimant.
[139] For these reasons, I would, in common with Lord Scott and Lord Walker, answer issue (a)(ii) in the commissioners’ favour, by holding that there is nothing in the statutory scheme to preclude the commissioners’ pursuit of a common law claim for conspiracy against Total. It follows that I would allow the commissioners’ appeal on issue (b) and hold that the commissioners’ common law conspiracy claim based on unlawful means can as pleaded exist in law, while I would dismiss Total’s cross-appeal on issue (a) and hold that the pursuit of such a claim is not precluded by either the Bill of Rights or the statutory scheme of the Value Added Tax Act 1994.
LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY.
INTRODUCTORY
[140] My Lords, the commissioners’ pleaded case raises a claim for damages against Total based on the tort of conspiracy. The core allegation is that Total was party to a so-called carousel fraud, which resulted in the commissioners not recovering value added tax (VAT) which they should have recovered, or paying an alleged VAT credit which they should not have paid. The preliminary issue to be determined is whether the commissioners ‘have, as a matter of law, a cause of action’ against Total ‘as pleaded in [their] consolidated and amended particulars of claim’.
[141] The preliminary issue proceeds on the assumption that the commissioners will make out the factual allegations which they have pleaded. These allegations have been very clearly set out and explained by my noble and learned friends, Lord Hope of Craighead, and Lord Scott of Foscote, in [3] to [10] and [49] and [51] of their respective opinions, which I have had the privilege of seeing in draft.
[142] The commissioners put their case on conspiracy on two bases. The first involves accepting the carousel transactions, as summarised by Lord Hope at [7],above, and by Lord Scott at [51], above, as effective for VAT purposes, on the ground that each transaction constituted an economic activity within the
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meaning of art 4(2) of the Council Directive (EC) 77/388 of 17 May 1977 on the harmonisation of the laws of the member states relating to turnover taxes—common system of value added tax: uniform basis of assessment (OJ 1977 L145 p 1) (the Sixth Directive). On this basis, the loss suffered by the commissioners is the output tax that ought to have been paid by Redlaw, but was not. The second basis involves treating the carousel transactions as deceitful shams falling outside the ambit of art 4(2) of the Sixth Directive. On this basis, the commissioners’ loss arises from the credit claimed by and accorded to Alldech in respect of input tax, which was paid by the commissioners.
[143] As a result of the arguments which have been advanced before your Lordships, it seems to me that the issues which need to be resolved are as follows:
a. whether, even if otherwise justified, the commissioners’ claim based on conspiracy must fail because:
i. the claim falls foul of art 4 of the Bill of Rights 1688 (‘the Bill of Rights issue’);
ii. the Value Added Tax Act 1994 constitutes a regime which excludes the claim (‘the complete code issue’);
b. whether the claim cannot in any event be made out on the commissioners’ pleaded case (‘the conspiracy tort issue’).
[144] I set out the issues in this way, because it appears to me that the Bill of Rights issue and the complete code issue are to some extent connected. The conspiracy tort issue involves a rather different argument, which, if successful, may have the same effect. Before considering those three issues, which raise points of difficulty and significance, it is convenient briefly (a) to summarise the relevant provisions of the Value Added Tax Act 1994, as they play such a crucial part in the arguments on the first two issues, and (b) to consider the viability of the commissioners’ two ways of putting their case in the light of the Sixth Directive, which is, of course, the overarching legislative code relating to VAT. All references to sections and schedules hereafter are to those of the 1994 Act unless the contrary is stated.
THE VALUE ADDED TAX ACT 1994
[145] Part I of the 1994 Act is concerned with the ‘Charge to Tax’ and it identifies the items upon which tax is chargeable, the persons who are chargeable, and when they are chargeable. Section 24(1) defines ‘input tax’ as VAT on the supply to a taxpayer of goods or services or on the acquisition by him of goods from another member state. Section 24(2) defines ‘output tax’ as VAT on the supply by a taxpayer of goods and services or on the acquisition by him of goods from another member state. Section 25(1) effectively requires a taxable person to account for and pay output tax by reference to ‘accounting periods’, in accordance with regulations. Sections 25(2) and 26 entitle a taxable person to credit for input tax, again in accordance with regulations. Those regulations enable a taxpayer whose input tax exceeds his output tax to recover the difference from the commissioners.
[146] Part II of the 1994 Act, which deals with ‘Reliefs, Exemptions and Repayments’, and Pt III, which is concerned with ‘Application of [the 1994 Act] in Particular Cases’, are not relevant for the purposes of this appeal.
[147] Part IV of the 1994 Act is entitled ‘Administration, Collection and Enforcement’ and is of significance in the present context. Section 58 provides that Sch 11 shall have effect ‘with respect to the administration, collection and enforcement of VAT’. The functions of the commissioners are defined in para 1
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of Sch 11. Until 2005, this provided that VAT should be ‘under the care and management of the commissioners’. This was amplified by s 6(2) of the Customs and Excise Management 1979 which charged the commissioners with ‘the duty of collecting and accounting for, and otherwise managing, the revenues of customs and excise’. (In 2005, s 6 of the 1979 Act was repealed by the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005, and para 1 of Sch 11 was amended so that it states that the commissioners are ‘responsible for the collection and management of VAT’.)
[148] Paragraphs 2 to 4 of Sch 11 concern procedures for accounting for and paying VAT. They include obligations to register for VAT and to make periodic returns, and to pay VAT, by certain dates. Paragraph 5(1) provides that ‘VAT due from any person shall be recoverable as a debt due to the Crown’, and it has further provisions dealing with the recovery of VAT. Paragraphs 6 to 13 are concerned with taxpayers’ duties to keep records and the like, and the Commissioner’s powers to inspect etc.
[149] Section 59(1) makes provision for a default surcharge where a taxable person fails to make a return on time or to pay tax on time. The amount is specified in sub-ss (4) to (6) and is calculated by reference to the amount of the outstanding VAT. By sub-s (7), no surcharge is payable if the person concerned satisfies the commissioners ‘or, on appeal, a tribunal’ either that the return or VAT was despatched in time or that he had ‘a reasonable excuse’. By sub-s (9), any penalty under s 69 for the same default is to be credited against any s 59 liability.
[150] Section 60(1) provides:
‘In any case where—(a) for the purpose of evading VAT, a person does any act or omits to take any action, and (b) his conduct involves dishonesty (whether or not it is such as to give rise to criminal liability), he shall be liable, subject to subsection (6) below, to a penalty equal to the amount of VAT evaded or, as the case may be, sought to be evaded, by his conduct.’
Section 60(2) gives an extended meaning to ‘evading VAT’, so that it includes ‘obtaining . . . a VAT credit . . . in circumstances where the person concerned is not entitled to that sum’, and s 60(3)(a) states that a ‘VAT credit’ extends to an amount ‘falsely claimed by way of credit for input tax’. Section 60(6) excludes the application of s 60(1) where ‘by reason of conduct falling within subsection (1) above, a person is convicted of an offence’.
[151] (It has not been suggested that s 60(1) can be relied on by the commissioners against a person, such as Total, who was not liable for the VAT evaded or sought to be evaded. As a matter of language, there may be an argument for saying that s 60(1) is capable of bearing such a meaning, although, apart from anything else, the way in which sub-s (2) is worded may well call the argument into question. In any event, for present purposes, one must proceed on the common assumption of the parties, which I am inclined to think is right, namely that the section cannot be relied on by the commissioners against Total.)
[152] Section 61 states that, where s 60 applies and the person concerned is a company, its directors can, in some circumstances, be liable for the penalty. Section 62 provides for a penalty where a person gives an invalid certificate in relation to zero rating, s 63(1) provides for a penalty (in addition to the VAT recoverable) where a person’s VAT return contains a ‘misdeclaration’—ie it
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understates his liability for VAT or overstates his entitlement to a VAT credit in a single accounting period, in excess of an amount specified in succeeding subsections. Section 63(10) provides that such a penalty can be avoided if ‘there is a reasonable excuse’ for the misdeclaration. Section 63 is disapplied by sub-s (11) where the person concerned is penalised under s 60, or convicted, in respect of the mis-declaration.
[153] Section 64(1) provides for a penalty, specified in sub-s (3) for ‘repeated misdeclarations’, and, like s 63, it is disapplied where the misdeclarations have been the subject of a s 60 penalty or a criminal conviction—see s 64(6). Section 65 to 69 also provide for specified penalties for various other defaults, including (in ss 65 and 66) failure to comply with rules relating to EC sales statements, (in s 67) failure to register for VAT or to comply with the rules relating to invoices, and (in s 69) failure to comply with various other regulatory provisions in the 1994 Act. They include exoneration provisions if the person concerned satisfies ‘the commissioners or, on appeal, a tribunal that there is a reasonable excuse’ for the default, and disapplication provisions if a penalty has been exacted under other sections (eg s 60) or there has been a criminal conviction (see for instance sub-ss (8) and (9) of s 69).
[154] Section 70 entitles the commissioners or, on appeal, the VAT Tribunal, to mitigate any penalty levied under ss 60, 63, 64 or 67. However the grounds set out in s 70(4) are specifically excluded from being taken into account. Those grounds include (a) ‘the insufficiency of . . . funds available’, (b) ‘in the case in question or in that case taken with any other cases . . . no significant loss of VAT’, and (c) the person liable for the penalty ‘has acted in good faith’.
[155] Section 72(1) is in these terms:
‘If any person is knowingly concerned in, or in the taking of steps with a view to, the fraudulent evasion of VAT by him or any other person, he shall be liable—(a) on summary conviction, to a penalty of the statutory maximum or of three times the amount of the VAT, whichever is greater, or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both; or (b) on conviction on indictment, to a penalty of any amount or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years or to both.’
Section 72 (2) gives a wide meaning to ‘evasion of VAT’, and it includes, in para (a), ‘the obtaining of . . . the payment of a VAT credit’, and the reference to VAT credit is extended by sub-para (i) to an ‘amount (if any) falsely claimed by way of credit for input tax’. Subsections (8) and (10) of s 72 create further offences, in connection with the production of false documents, and dealings with goods and services upon which VAT was evaded; conviction of such offences can give rise to substantial fines as well as imprisonment.
[156] Section 73(1) empowers the commissioners to make assessments for VAT where a person makes no or ‘incomplete or inaccurate’ returns or fails to maintain satisfactory records. Section 73(2) enables the commissioners to assess a person who transpires to have wrongly received a refund of VAT or a VAT credit. Section 73(6) imposes a time limit of two years (or, if later, one year after sufficient facts come to the attention of the commissioners) for such assessments. Section 73(7B), added in 1996, enables the commissioners to assess a person who removed goods, on which VAT had not been paid, from certain types of
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warehouse. Section 74 entitles the commissioners to interest on sums recovered under s 73, and it is normally subject to a three-year maximum.
[157] Section 75(1) enables the commissioners to assess ‘a person who . . . was not a taxable person’ for VAT in cases involving the import of certain classes of goods from other member states. Subsection (2) imposes similar time limits to those in s 73(6). Section 76 enables the commissioners to make assessments of amounts due, where a person is liable for a surcharge under s 59, for a penalty under ss 60 to 69, or for interest under s 74.
[158] Section 77 provides for certain time limits within which the commissioners have to bring claims and make assessments. The period in question is normally three years (although it is sometimes two years) in relation to assessments under ss 73 and 76, but, where the assessment is based on s 60(1), or is made in circumstances where s 67 applies, the period is 20 years. Section 80 enables overpayments of VAT to be recovered from the commissioners by a taxpayer, albeit usually subject to a limitation period of six years.
[159] Section 77A was introduced by the Finance Act 2003, and was therefore not in force when the events in this case occurred. It applies where, at the time of a taxable supply of telecommunication goods, the taxable person to whom the supply was made ‘knew or had reasonable grounds to suspect’ that VAT would go unpaid on that supply ‘or on any previous or subsequent supply of those goods’. It enables the commissioners to recover such unpaid VAT from that person notwithstanding the fact that he would not otherwise be liable. The section appears to have been specifically designed to ensure that, in the case of a carousel fraud, the commissioners could recover any VAT not just from the person who would normally be liable, but from many of the other parties involved in transactions in the carousel. However, as my noble and learned friend Lord Mance points out, it would appear that the new section would not catch a party such as Total.
[160] Part V of the 1994 Act is concerned with ‘Appeals’. Section 82 incorporates Sch 12, which establishes and sets out the procedures of VAT Tribunals. Under para 9, the Lord Chancellor is empowered to make rules including provisions ‘(a) for limiting the time within which appeals may be brought’ and for other purposes. Section 83 sets out a list of over 30 different types of matter on which an appeal lies to such a tribunal. They include in para (n) ‘any liability to a penalty or surcharge by virtue of any of sections 59 to 69A’ and any assessments or penalties under ss 73, 75, 76 or 77.
THE COMMISSIONERS’ CASE AND THE SIXTH DIRECTIVE
[161] As I have mentioned, the commissioners have pleaded and argued their case on two alternative bases, which I have summarised in [142], above. On the first basis, the commissioners allege no tort other than the conspiracy involving Total, Redlaw, and Alldech (and, quite possibly, some or all of the other parties to the carousel transactions). The second basis additionally involves an allegation of deceit, most specifically on the part of Alldech when it claimed the VAT credit from the commissioners. The way the commissioners put this point is that, by claiming a VAT credit from the commissioners, Alldech deceitfully, if impliedly, represented that the transactions to which it was party had a genuine economic purpose.
[162] In their written cases, the parties did not give much consideration to the viability of these two ways of putting the commissioners’ case in the light of the
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provisions of the Sixth Directive. And they gave even less consideration to that aspect in their oral submissions. In view of the difficulties thrown up by the three points on which the preliminary issue was treated as focusing, and the time available for the hearing, this is scarcely surprising, and is not meant as a criticism. However, it does seem to me that this aspect requires some discussion, albeit of a limited nature, given that domestic courts should not proceed on a basis which conflicts with the provisions of the Sixth Directive.
[163] In this connection, it is necessary to consider the decision of the Court of Justice of the European Communities (ECJ) in Optigen Ltd v Revenue and Customs Comrs Cases C-354/03, C-355/03, C-484/03 [2006] STC 419, [2006] Ch 218. The effect of that decision was that the fact that a transaction was a step in a carousel fraud did not prevent an innocent party to the transaction contending that it constituted a supply and a genuine economic activity, so that it was within the ambit of the Sixth Directive and subject to the VAT regime.
[164] In the light of the remarks of the ECJ in paras 46 and 51 (quoted by Lord Scott at [55], above), it seems to me that the reasoning and conclusion in the Optigen case may very well only apply to traders in a carousel fraud who are innocent of any involvement in the fraud, as was assumed in relation to the traders in that case. Further, it may be difficult to reconcile the suggestion that the reasoning in the Optigen case applies to parties to the fraud with the conclusion reached by the ECJ in a case decided a month later, Halifax plc v Customs and Excise Comrs Case C-255/02 [2006] STC 919, [2006] Ch 387. If, as was held in that latter case, the steps in an honest but ‘abusive’ scheme designed to avoid VAT should be ‘redefined’ in relation to the parties to the scheme so that VAT is not avoided, it is not easy to see why each step in a dishonest and ‘abusive’ scheme designed to evade VAT should be treated, in effect, as genuine and effective in relation to the parties to the dishonesty.
[165] In my opinion, it is therefore well arguable that each of the two ways in which the commissioners seek to put their case against Total is consistent with the Sixth Directive. So far as the first basis is concerned, the assumption that the transactions constituting the carousel fraud in the present case are similarly effective for VAT purposes, even in relation to a party to the fraud, such as Total, may well be right (and, indeed, it appears to have been assumed by the legislature when enacting s 77A). However, that conclusion does not necessarily follow from the Optigen case, as already explained. Even if the transactions could be treated as a sham, which is the assumption made by the second basis, it seems to me that, at least as a matter of domestic law, it is open to a victim of the sham transaction to treat the transaction as genuine if he wishes to do so. The parties to a sham transaction must, I would have thought, be estopped from raising the argument that it was a sham, at the very least where, as here, the person seeking to treat the transaction as genuine has suffered loss in the belief that it was genuine. Nonetheless, it may conceivably be the case that such an estoppel argument could not be relied on under the Sixth Directive as interpreted by the ECJ.
[166] As to the second basis, it appears to me likely, at least in the absence of compelling authority to the contrary, that, if a transaction in a carousel fraud involves a party to the fraud, it should be possible to allege against him that the transaction is a sham not merely for domestic law purposes but for VAT purposes as well. A carousel transaction is not so much one of a pre-ordained set of transactions: it is, in reality, not a transaction at all. It is merely a chimera which
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is used as an excuse or a front to justify the creation of one of several purported invoices, which are brought into existence by the parties to the fraud to obtain money dishonestly from the commissioners. However, whether that argument is correct in the light of the Sixth Directive is not entirely clear, in the light of the reasoning in the Optigen case (and see especially the reasoning of the Advocate General (M Poiares Maduro) at para 28 of his opinion).
[167] For the reasons I have given, at least on the basis of the arguments that have been put before your Lordships’ House, I would not regard it as clear that both the ways in which the commissioners put their case would withstand scrutiny under Community law. However, it may very well be that they both would withstand such scrutiny, and, as at present advised, I think that at least one of them must do so. I do not regard it as necessary to consider the question further, at least at this stage. Your Lordships are only concerned with a preliminary point, which throws up the three issues identified above, and, in view of the analysis just undertaken, I am prepared to proceed for that purpose on the basis that each of the two ways in which the commissioners put their case is strongly arguable as a matter of Community law.
THE BILL OF RIGHTS ISSUE: IS THE CLAIM BARRED BY THE BILL OF RIGHTS?
[168] Article 4 of the Bill of Rights 1688 renders ‘illegal’, ‘levying money for or to the use of the Crown’, if it is ‘by pretence of prerogative, without grant of Parliament’. It appears to me that, in order to decide whether this provision bars the present claim, it is necessary to identify the proper characterisation of the commissioners’ claim. In particular, is their claim for damages in tort, or for recovery of tax, or indeed should it be characterised in some other way? In my judgment, the claim is not for recovery of tax, but for damages in tort. It is quite clear that the commissioners’ case is pleaded, and has been argued throughout, solely in tort, as explained by Lord Hope at [7] to [10], above. The commissioners accept that Total is not liable for any VAT (whether by way of payment or repayment of tax or penalty) under the 1994 Act, in so far as it was in force at the time relevant for the purpose of these proceedings: hence the complete code issue. Indeed, they go further, and accept that, in order to succeed, they have to establish that a claim in common law is made out: hence the conspiracy tort issue.
[169] Further, as my noble and learned friend Lord Scott has explained at [59], above, the amount which the commissioners would recover in these proceedings by way of damages would not necessarily be the same as the amount of tax out of which the commissioners were cheated. The amount of output tax which should have been paid by Redlaw or, on the commissioners’ alternative case, the amount that they wrongly paid to Alldech is not necessarily the same as their recoverable damages in tort. Unlike any tax so payable, the award of damages in tort would, of course, have to give credit for any VAT which had been paid to the commissioners in the context of the totality of the transactions involved in the carousel fraud: such VAT would not have been paid if there had been no such fraud.
[170] Once one concludes that the claim which the commissioners make is for damages in tort, it seems to me, in agreement with the Court of Appeal, that the basis of Total’s case on the Bill of Rights issue falls away. While the claim for damages may be assailable on one of the other two grounds which have been raised on this appeal, I am of the view that a genuine claim for damages in tort does not fall within either the spirit or the literal meaning of the words of art 4 of
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the Bill of Rights. Seeking damages under a claim which is made pursuant to a properly established common law ground does not fall within the expression ‘levying money’ within the meaning of the article, which, in my view, is directed to claims which would have no other legal basis than the fact that they are made by or on behalf of the Crown. That point is, I think, made clear by the words ‘by pretence of prerogative’ in the article. Looking at the realities of the early twenty-first century, as opposed to those of the late seventeenth century, the effect of the article is that the executive cannot impose or claim a tax or other imposition without the authority of the legislature.
[171] If the Crown has suffered a wrong which, in common law, would give it the right to claim damages, art 4 of the Bill of Rights would not serve to prevent the Crown from raising a claim. If the Crown were to sue in debt for a sum due under an agreement or for damages for breach of an agreement, there would similarly be no ‘levying [of] money’, and no ‘pretence [or invocation] of prerogative’, because the juridical basis for the Crown’s claim would be an established legal right in contract, such as that enjoyed by any other individual or entity. So, too, if money were stolen from the Crown, it could maintain a claim for recovery or damages: again, there would be no ‘levying’ or reliance on the prerogative: the claim would be based on an established legal right in tort.
[172] I should add that, if art 4 of the Bill of Rights had otherwise applied, I would have unhesitatingly agreed with Lord Hope and disagreed with the Court of Appeal on the issue of whether it would have been open to Total to invoke the article. Far from it being ‘a mockery of the law’ for Total ‘as a fraudster’ to invoke the article, as the Court of Appeal suggested, it seems to me that such a statutorily enshrined unqualified fundamental right, intended to curb the powers of the Crown (and the executive), exists for the benefit of everyone. Indeed, it is when the unmeritorious seek to rely on such a right that it truly comes into its own and is properly put to the test. Outlawry, which is what the reasoning of the Court of Appeal appears to me to involve, may have existed in the past, but the concept has long ceased to be recognised by the law. As it is, however, it seems to me that this case is simply not within the territory of art 4 of the Bill of Rights.
THE COMPLETE CODE ISSUE: DOES THE 1994 ACT PRECLUDE THE CLAIM?
[173] That, then, leads to the question whether a common law claim, such as that sought to be raised by the commissioners in the present case, is precluded by the 1994 Act, and in particular its provisions relating to the functions of the commissioners, the recovery of VAT and other sums, and procedures and the like.
[174] The issue is not dissimilar from that in Deutsche Morgan Grenfell Group plc v IRC [2006] UKHL 49, [2007] 1 All ER 449, [2007] 1 AC 558, to which your Lordships were referred and in which my noble and learned friend Lord Walker of Gestingthorpe said at [135]:
‘When Parliament enacts a special regime providing special rights and remedies, that regime may (but does not always) supersede and displace common law rights and remedies (or more general statutory rights and remedies). Whether it has that effect is a question of statutory construction . . .’
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(A comparable point in relation to equitable rights was made by Lord Wilberforce in Shiloh Spinners Ltd v Harding [1973] 1 All ER 90 at 102, [1973] AC 691 at 724–725.) In other words, one is seeking to discern from the terms of the legislation concerned whether the legislature intended a common law claim to be displaced by the statute, as in the Deutsche Morgan Grenfell Group case or to exist outside the statute, as in this case.
[175] It is convenient initially to consider this issue separately in relation to the two alternative bases upon which the commissioners put their case. The first is that each of the transactions in the carousel should be taken as genuine for VAT purposes, so that the payment by the commissioners to Alldech was a proper credit of input tax. On that basis, the commissioners contend that the conspiracy deprived them of the receipt of output tax due from Redlaw. The alternative basis is that the whole set of alleged transactions was a fraud and a deceit on the commissioners, in which case the conspiracy resulted in Alldech being wrongly credited with, and paid, input tax by the commissioners.
THE CLAIM BASED ON UNPAID OUTPUT TAX: GENERAL
[176] Does the 1994 Act constitute a ‘complete code’ which excludes the commissioners from raising claims for damages based on unlawful means conspiracy (which would otherwise be well-founded) in respect of any tax which should have been, but was not, paid to them? The reasoning of Lord Walker, Lord Scott, and Lord Mance (whose draft opinions I have had the benefit of seeing) as to why the commissioners are entitled to maintain a common law claim in tort is powerful, and has resulted in even greater diffidence than I had already felt about reaching a conclusion to the contrary effect.
[177] Nonetheless, in agreement with Lord Hope, I am of the view that the statutory scheme of the 1994 Act precludes the commissioners from pursuing a common law claim for non-payment of VAT which they should have recovered. In other words I consider that not only the commissioners’ right to recover VAT, but also their right to recover compensation for not recovering, or for wrongly being induced to pay, VAT, are exclusively governed by the 1994 Act, and that it is thus not open to them to raise claims outside that Act to recover damages for loss of tax which they should have recovered or which they should not have paid. Three aspects of the 1994 Act are relevant in this connection: the functions of the commissioners, the remedial rights given to the commissioners, and the procedural and similar stipulations relating to such rights.
THE CLAIM BASED ON UNPAID OUTPUT TAX: THE COMMISSIONERS’ FUNCTIONS
[178] The contents of para 1 of Sch 11 changed in 2005, and, although it makes no difference to my conclusion, the relevant provisions are, in my view, those in force when the tax was lost and when these proceedings were issued. The fact that VAT was to be ‘under the care and management of the commissioners’ does not, as a matter of ordinary language, appear to me to carry with it a right to pursue a common law claim for damages, based on the contention that tax has been wrongly not paid to them or which has been wrongly paid by them, against someone who is not liable for VAT or any other sum under the 1994 Act. Nor can it be fairly claimed, in my opinion, that the pursuit of such a claim is within the ambit of the duty in the 1979 Act to ‘collect’, ‘account for’ or ‘manage’ the customs and excise revenues. In these proceedings, the commissioners are claiming neither VAT nor a penalty or similar sum under the 1994 Act, as is
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emphasised by their successful rebuttal of Total’s argument based on art 4 of the Bill of Rights.
[179] The commissioners, an arm of the executive, appear to have suffered no loss if VAT which ought to have been paid or recovered is not paid or recovered: they have merely collected less tax then the 1994 Act intended. In this connection, para 1-39 of Clerk and Lindsell on Torts (19th edn, 2006) starts with the proposition that ‘the primary function of the law of tort remains to protect private rights and private interests’. The exceptions that it then considers constitute breaches of public rights, which can give rise to claims by private persons who suffer particular damage. I consider that this reinforces the view that an action which results in non-payment of tax due under a statute should not amount to a tort actionable at the suit of the commissioners.
[180] In another leading textbook, McGregor on Damages (17th edn, 2003), it is stated at para 1-021 that ‘the object of an award of damages is to give the claimant compensation for the damage, loss or injury he has suffered’. At least on the face of it, it is difficult to say that the commissioners have suffered loss or damage simply because tax which they ought to have been entitled to collect is not capable of collection or because they have paid tax they ought not to have paid. The answer to that point might lie in para 5(1) of Sch 11, which specifically empowers the commissioners to recover VAT payable under the 1994 Act as a debt due to the Crown. However, that appears to me to be directed to identifying how the tax is to be juridically characterised for the purpose of legal proceedings. Indeed, the paragraph gives some indirect support for the conclusion that there is no room for a tortious claim such as that raised in the present case. If the commissioners were entitled to maintain a claim in tort arising out of non-payment of VAT, their right to claim VAT due under the 1994 Act as a debt would be a fortiori, and there would be no need for such a right to be expressly conferred. I would add that para 5(1) cannot have been inserted to defeat any argument based on art 4 of the Bill of Rights, as the right to ‘levy’ VAT is clear from other provisions of the 1994 Act, especially elsewhere in Sch 11.
[181] Mention has been made of ss 5, 9, and 25 of the 2005 Act. They did not come into force until 2005, and I therefore do not think that they could be relied on in this case, where the alleged tort occurred in 2002 and the proceedings were started in 2003. In any event, they would not cause me to change my view. Section 5 of the 2005 Act takes matters no further. Section 9 of the 2005 Act gives the commissioners power to do things which are ‘necessary or expedient’ for, or ‘incidental or conducive to’, the exercise of their functions. These are general words, which are all contingent on their existing functions (ie the recovery of VAT and other sums statutorily levied on persons statutorily designated as liable), and cannot, to my mind, possibly extend the nature of the commissioners’ powers to enable them to bring a common law claim against someone not liable for tax or other payment under the 1994 Act. Section 25 of the 2005 Act is only concerned with rights of audience.
[182] It is true, as Lord Walker has pointed out, that the commissioners seek freezing orders and present winding-up petitions against defaulting taxpayers. However, it seems to me that such applications or petitions can fairly and properly be said to fall within the ambit of their statutory function of ‘collect[ing]’ VAT as a ‘debt’, and are now plainly within the powers given to the commissioners by s 9 of the 2005 Act. I cannot agree that the fact they bring such proceedings with a view to recovering what is undoubtedly VAT (or other sums
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due under the 1994 Act), from someone who is undoubtedly liable under the terms of the 1994 Act, assists the commissioners’ argument that they can bring proceedings for damages in tort against someone who is not a taxable person or otherwise liable under the 1994 Act.
[183] The successful claim for misfeasance by the commissioners, as preferential creditors, against the receiver, and the debenture holder to whom he had wrongly paid out money, in IRC v Goldblatt [1972] 2 All ER 202, [1972] Ch 498 appears at first sight to present greater difficulties. However (although Goff J said [1972] 2 All ER 202 at 209, [1972] Ch 498 at 509 that counsel for the defendants ‘took every point that could possibly be taken’) the contention that the Inland Revenue Commissioners had no power to bring the claim for misfeasance was not run—see [1972] Ch 498 at 501–502. In any event, even if the point had been taken, the claim would, I think, still have succeeded, on the basis that the money paid by the receiver to the debenture holder was impressed with a trust for the payment of the tax—see [1972] 2 All ER 202 at 208, [1972] Ch 498 at 507–508.
[184] It is also true that the commissioners could bring claims in tort in some circumstances; for instance, if cash belonging to them was stolen from a vehicle. However, that would be a claim for money which was their property in their possession, albeit money representing what had been paid as tax. Such a claim would be covered by the passage quoted above from Clerk and Lindsell, as it would be a private law claim, albeit by a public body. Such examples do not, to my mind, assist on the issue whether the statutory scheme under the 1994 Act permits extra-statutory common law claims by the commissioners to recover damages for not having recovered tax which should have been paid to them.
THE CLAIM BASED ON UNPAID OUTPUT TAX: STATUTORY CLAIMS AND REMEDIES
[185] The second relevant group of provisions in the 1994 Act are ss 59 to 69, 72 and 73, which, when taken together, have a long and broad reach. It is important in the present context to note that those provisions extend (a) to many more payments than of the simple VAT which is described in ss 24 to 26, and (b) to persons other than the primarily taxable person under those three sections.
[186] Thus, the 1994 Act deals with recovery of other payments (such as surcharges, penalties and assessments) effectively compensating for failure to pay VAT or to comply with other statutory requirements, where the non-payment, or non-compliance, has occurred through dishonesty, recklessness negligence or mistake. It is hard to believe that a common law right to claim for such failures should co-exist with those statutory rights. The legislation also often extends the commissioners’ rights of recovery of such sums from the person responsible for paying the tax to others who are involved with the failure. Examples where others are rendered liable include ss 61, 72, 73(7B) and 75; many aspects of ss 65 to 69 also appear to me to be capable of extending to those who are not taxable persons. Again, it seems to me unlikely that the legislature envisaged common law claims being brought against such persons in addition to claims under the 1994 Act.
[187] Further, a s 60(1) claim is excluded by s 60(6) where there has been a conviction, and many of the succeeding sections are expressly disapplied where s 60 has been successfully invoked or where there has been a criminal conviction. It cannot have been intended that the commissioners could get round such exclusions, in cases where there had been criminal convictions, by bringing common law claims based on the defaults covered by those sections.
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[188] An answer to these points might be that common law claims can only be brought where the statute does not provide a remedy. I am unimpressed with that argument for two reasons. First, and more generally, it strikes me as unconvincing and unattractive that the common law should be invoked to ‘fill in the gaps’ in a taxing statute in favour of the Crown, by providing remedies for non-compliance, where the statute has many provisions which clearly provide such remedies. Secondly, and more particularly, it seems unlikely that it can have been intended that the principal wrongdoer, if convicted (eg under s 72, or of cheating the revenue), can escape liability, whereas a person jointly liable with him, who has similarly been convicted, should not. It also seems unlikely that the principal wrongdoer could only be liable under s 60, while his fellow wrongdoers could only be liable in tort.
THE CLAIM BASED ON UNPAID OUTPUT TAX: PROCEDURE AND MITIGATION
[189] The third strand of relevant statutory provisions are those relating to assessment, appeal, interest, limitation, and mitigation. If common law, as well as statutory, claims could be brought, these provisions serve to emphasise the curious differences which would arise between the two types of case. In my judgment, the differences become positively capricious once one considers a case of conspirators or other joint wrongdoers, some of whom are within the ambit of the statutory code and others of whom are not.
[190] The assessment provisions in ss 75 and 76, which enable the commissioners to determine the surcharges, penalties and interest for which a person is statutorily liable under the preceding sections, would not apply in relation to common law damages, which would have to be assessed by the court. Nor would the procedural provisions of those sections apply to common law claims brought by the commissioners. This would be particularly odd if one conspirator was liable statutorily (eg Redlaw under s 60) and the co-conspirators (eg Total) were liable at common law.
[191] The statutory appeal provisions in Sch 12 to the 1994 Act are designed to provide an exclusive set of routes and procedures whereby any liability determined by the commissioners, whether to VAT or to any statutory surcharges, penalties or assessments, can be challenged. It would seem somewhat surprising if claims such as the present, which, while they do not strictly constitute claims for payment of VAT, nonetheless involve very similar considerations, should be subject to different procedures in different tribunals, namely the CPR in the High Court or the county court. Again, this would be particularly odd in a case such as this, where s 60 appears to apply to Redlaw, but not to Total.
[192] If common law claims could be brought, the interest provisions in s 74 would mean that different rates of interest could apply to claims under the 1994 Act and common law claims, and, indeed, that the interest might run for different periods. Once again, this would appear particularly odd where the Act applied only to the person who failed to pay the tax, but not to his co-conspirators.
[193] As for the time limits, ss 73(6) and 75(2) contain two-year time limits, and, more generally, s 77 contains two- or three-year time limits and twenty-year time limits. Thus, penalties, surcharges and assessments under the 1994 Act are subject sometimes to shorter, and sometimes to longer, time limits than would apply to any claims brought in tort, which would be governed by the Limitation Act 1980. Most claims under the 1994 Act are subject to a three- or two-year
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limitation period, which would represent an eccentric mismatch with the six-year limitation period which would normally apply under the 1980 Act. If the commissioners had an unrestricted right to sue in tort, then they would often be able to avoid the shorter limitation period in s 77. If the commissioners could only rely on tort to ‘fill the gaps’ in the 1994 Act, then it would be equally unsatisfactory. There would, in a case such as this, be different time limits for claims against joint wrongdoers, with the principle wrongdoer being liable under the 1994 Act, and therefore often benefiting from a shorter limitation period than could avail his co-conspirators.
[194] In relation to some claims under the 1994 Act, including those under s 60, the limitation period is 20 years, which is again different from that in tort. In many cases it would be longer than the period under the 1980 Act, but bearing in mind the fraud and concealment provisions in s 32 of the 1980 Act, that would not always be the case. In any event, there would still be a curious mismatch between the limitation period appropriate for the principal wrongdoer under s 60, and that applicable to his collaborators if they are liable in tort. Accordingly, these procedural provisions also suggest to me that no claim such as that sought to be raised here could have been intended by the legislature.
[195] A claim based on tort for loss of VAT on a transaction would, as Lord Scott points out, have to give credit for any VAT paid on another transaction which was part of the same scheme; yet that would not be true of a claim based on s 60—see s 70(4)(b). Further, although this may be less significant in practice, good faith would be a defence to a claim in tort involving dishonesty, but it would not operate as a defence to a s 60 claim—see s 70(4)(c). Even if common law claims are limited to ‘filling gaps’, it seems unlikely that the legislature could have intended that quantum in statutory claims should be subject to different mitigation from that in common law claims, especially as common law claims will normally be against co-conspirators of the person who is statutorily liable.
THE CLAIM BASED ON WRONGLY CREDITED AND PAID INPUT TAX
[196] As already explained, the alternative basis of the claim involves treating the whole carousel, and each purported transaction within it, as a fraud and a deceit on the commissioners. If each transaction can be treated as bogus, then the commissioners’ claim fastens not on the output tax which should have been paid by Redlaw to the commissioners, but on the payment by the commissioners to Alldech in respect of purported input tax which should not have been paid. On that basis, the commissioners’ case is that, as a result of a deception (to which Total was a party), they were dishonestly deprived of money.
[197] The question is whether this way of putting the commissioners’ claim is also defeated on the ‘complete code issue’. At least on the face of it, on this basis, the commissioners would appear to have a strong argument to the effect that, while, at the time the money was paid to Alldech, they may have believed it to have been a payment in respect of input tax, it was not, and therefore the whole transaction was outside the ambit of the 1994 Act, and could properly be the subject of a common law claim. In other words, the commissioners would argue that this was a straightforward case of claimants being defrauded of money by a deceitful statement, and the fact that they were led to believe by the deceit that the money was paid in the context of the VAT regime does not mean that that regime governs the claim.
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[198] Attractive though that submission (and indeed its consequences) may be, it does not appear to me to tie in with the wide way in which the provisions of the 1994 Act, and ss 60 and 72 in particular, are drafted. Sections 60(2)(b) and 60(3)(a) extend the concept of ‘evading VAT’ in s 60(1) to ‘obtaining . . . a VAT credit’ where ‘the person concerned is not entitled to that sum’ so that it plainly applies to a case where a non-existent VAT credit is falsely claimed. Section 72(2)(a), especially sub-para (i), contains similar provisions for the purpose of extending the ambit of s 72(1). It appears to me, therefore that the legislature has decided to extend the statutory regime in explicit terms to cases where money is wrongly claimed and paid out as a VAT credit, which would apply here in relation to the claim made by Alldech.
[199] Further, as already mentioned, in view of its wide words, s 72(1) would extend to all the other parties involved in the fraud, including (in the present case) Total; indeed, in view of s 61, s 60 has a longer reach than merely to the taxable person. It is also worth mentioning that ss 63 and 64 apply to cases where a person ‘overstates his entitlement to a VAT credit’. Although not quite as specific as the provisions of ss 60 and 72, these provisions also seem to me to embrace a case such as this, where a VAT credit has been wrongly claimed.
[200] In these circumstances, it appears to me that the same principles and conclusions apply in relation to the second way in which the commissioners put their case as in relation to the first.
CONCLUSION ON THE EFFECT OF THE 1994 ACT ON THE CLAIM
[201] If a common law claim, whether based on unpaid tax or on a payment of an unjustified claim for a tax credit, could be maintained, it would either sometimes overlap with statutory remedy or be limited to cases where there was no statutory remedy. It would plainly be unsatisfactory and inappropriate to have concurrent claims under the statute and in tort. It would also, as I have just been discussing, risk rendering the limitation, procedural and mitigation provisions in the 1994 Act nugatory. The notion of the common law filling in the holes in a taxing statute, particularly one containing many remedial rights in favour of the commissioners, often not only against the primarily taxable person, appears wrong in principle, as I have already indicated; indeed, it is getting very close to art 4 of the Bill of Rights territory. Further, it would lead to many and significant substantive and procedural inconsistencies, and indeed duplication of process, in claims against co-conspirators, where one or more of the conspirators are liable under the statute and others are not.
[202] For these reasons, I am of the view that a claim in tort such as that raised by the commissioners in these proceedings is precluded as a matter of law. It is tempting to hold that an exception should be made in the case of those who dishonestly evade paying VAT or make dishonest claims, and of those who assist in their dishonesty. However, simply to invoke the doctrine that ‘fraud unravels everything’ would seem to me to involve palm tree justice. In other words, one would be relying on a general sense of morality or indignation, without regard to principle or the rule of law. Such a course would be inconsistent with principle, especially in the context of a taxing statute, and would effectively represent carte blanche for any tribunal to do what it likes.
[203] A more principled approach might appear to involve holding Total liable on the basis that it was seeking to invoke the 1994 Act ‘as an engine of fraud’. This doctrine has, so far as I am aware, only been applied to s 4 of the
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Statute of Frauds 1677 (re-enacted in a partial and amended form in s 40 of the Law of Property Act 1925, which has now been replaced by s 2 of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989). The basis of the doctrine and the consequent development of the law of part performance was explained by Lord Selborne LC in Maddison v Alderson (1883) 8 App Cas 467 at 474–480, [1881–5] All ER Rep 742 at 746–750.
[204] The present case can be said to be in some ways a stronger candidate for the application of the doctrine than the normal case where part performance is invoked. Total has not merely been fraudulent in the equitable sense, but has been guilty of conspiracy to deceive and to cheat the revenue. Nonetheless, it seems to me that the doctrine is inapplicable here, as its invocation would involve the commissioners pulling themselves up by their own bootstraps: the only reason they have a claim at all is because of the existence of the 1994 Act, so they can scarcely complain if the person against whom they are claiming relies on that Act.
[205] The conclusion that the commissioners cannot claim common law damages from a party to a dishonest ‘scam’ which deprived the public purse of substantial sums might appear surprising and unsatisfactory. However, although art 4 of the Bill of Rights does not come directly into play in this case, I consider that there is a policy argument for rejecting the existence of such a claim which as mentioned is similar to the policy behind art 4. If the government wishes to raise tax, or to recover compensation for not having received tax which it ought to have received, it is for the legislature to give the executive, presumably the commissioners, the appropriate powers and duties; it is not for the courts to permit the executive to rely on the common law to fill in gaps in the legislation.
[206] According to Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead, ‘the taxpayer must use the remedies provided by the tax legislation’ (see Autologic Holdings plc v IRC [2005] UKHL 54 at [13], [2005] 4 All ER 1141 at [13], [2006] 1 AC 118). Although that statement was made in a case where the legislation concerned contained a remedy, it has some resonance here. It does appear appropriate, as a matter of principle, and consistent with the spirit of art 4, that the commissioners should be limited to their statutory remedies. The law relating to direct and indirect tax is comprehensively reviewed annually by the legislature through a Finance Bill which is presented by the Chancellor of the Exchequer, no doubt after consultation with the commissioners. Other changes in revenue law can be introduced relatively easily during the year (particularly during the passage of a Finance Bill), and this presumably sometimes happens at the instigation of the commissioners. Such reviews and changes are often retrospective, in the sense of taking effect from the date they are publicly announced.
[207] In the present connection, I am unpersuaded that the commissioners can gain any assistance from the way the court has treated ‘artificial transactions’ for the purposes of taxing statutes in cases since WT Ramsay Ltd v IRC, Eilbeck (Inspector of Taxes) v Rawling [1981] 1 All ER 865, [1982] AC 300. I appreciate that there have been dicta (eg [1981] 1 All ER 865 at 873, [1982] AC 300 at 326 per Lord Wilberforce in that very case) which appear to suggest that the court in such cases was almost acting as a quasi-legislator, filling in gaps in the legislation. However, the rationale of such cases has been conclusively explained in MacNiven (Inspector of Taxes) v Westmoreland Investments Ltd [2001] UKHL 6, [2001] 1 All ER 865, [2003] 1 AC 311 as involving the normal principles of a purposive approach
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to interpretation and giving effect to the statutory language (see [7] per Lord Nicholls, and [33]–[64] per Lord Hoffmann).
[208] In his opinion, Lord Mance, also relying on the Deutsche Morgan Grenfell case, suggests that, in order for Total to succeed, the 1994 Act must positively be shown to be inconsistent with the existence of a common law claim such as the commissioners seek to bring. I have already identified the points which seem to me to support such a conclusion in this case. However, I should also mention the reasoning of your Lordships’ House in Johnson v Unisys Ltd [2001] UKHL 13, [2001] 2 All ER 801, [2003] 1 AC 518, to which my attention has been drawn by Lord Mance. In that case, it was held to be inappropriate to develop the common law in relation to employee dismissal because (at [2] per Lord Nicholls):
‘[A] common law right embracing the manner in which an employee is dismissed cannot satisfactorily coexist with the statutory right not to be unfairly dismissed. A newly developed common law right of this nature, covering the same ground as the statutory right, would fly in the face of limits Parliament has already prescribed on matters such as the classes of employees who have the benefit of the statutory right, the amount of compensation payable and the short time limits for making claims. It would also defeat the intention of Parliament that claims of this nature should be decided by specialist tribunals, not the ordinary courts of law.’
Lord Hoffmann (after full consideration of the legislation) and Lord Millett said much the same at [43] to [66] and [80] respectively.
[209] Many of the factors relating to statutory rights and remedies which persuaded the House that there should be no common law claim in Johnson’s case are applicable here. It is true that the commissioners’ claim would not involve extending the common law, as in Johnson’s case. However, unlike in Johnson’s case, the claim here is not based on a relationship recognised by the common law, but on obligations created by the very statute which contains the rights and remedies. In those circumstances, I do derive some support for my conclusion from Johnson’s case.
[210] In reaching my conclusion, I do not rely directly on the existence of s 77A of the 1994 Act, which now enables the commissioners to visit liability for VAT on any party to a transaction who ‘knew or had reasonable grounds to suspect’ that it was part of a carousel fraud. However, its relatively recent enactment illustrates both the principle and the practicality of the legislature dealing with carousel fraud by claiming the unpaid VAT from a party such as Total. Perhaps of greater support is what the Advocate General said in the Optigen case [2006] STC 419 (para 42 of the opinion) in answer to the United Kingdom government’s concern about combating carousel fraud. He accepted the desirability of ‘member states . . . taking appropriate measures against carousel fraud’, and went on to point out that ‘art 21 of the Sixth Directive gives member states the opportunity to introduce joint and several fiscal liability’, so that a person can be made responsible for the VAT due from a ‘co-contractor, if he knew or should have known of his co-contractor’s fraudulent activities’. Another point arises from s 77A. Parliament has now legislated to ensure that certain parties involved in a carousel fraud, in addition to the primary taxpayer, should be liable for the VAT the commissioners have lost as a result of the fraud, but this new legislation does not extend to a party such as Total. In those
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circumstances, it would seem wrong for the common law to intervene and hold Total nonetheless effectively liable to the commissioners for that VAT. The alternative possibility, namely that the enactment of s 77A would now exonerate Total from common law liability would appear to run counter to the notion that the common law can ‘fill the holes’ in the statutory scheme.
[211] Article 21.3 of the Sixth Directive provides that, where there is a taxable supply, ‘Member States may provide that someone other than the person liable for payment of the tax shall be held jointly and severally liable for payment of the tax’. (This only came into effect in October 2000, but the predecessor article contained similar provisions in at the end of art 21.1(a) and 21.1(b).) The 1994 Act was intended to give effect to the Sixth Directive. The fact that the Directive clearly permits the legislature to extend liability for payment of VAT to persons not primarily liable for payment reinforces the conclusion that, as it did not do so in relation to cases such as this, it is not for the courts to do so. All the more so where the legislature has taken advantage of that right in the 1994 Act in relation to other types of case.
[212] For these reasons, and for those given by Lord Hope (which I believe are much the same), I am of the view that the commissioners’ claim in these proceedings, whether based on the contention that they were wrongly deprived of output tax or on the contention that they were wrongly induced to credit and pay input tax, is effectively precluded by the 1994 Act. This conclusion renders it unnecessary to resolve the third issue, but I shall nonetheless consider it, not least because I understand that the majority of your Lordships consider that the commissioners’ claim is not barred by the 1994 Act.
IF A CLAIM IN TORT IS PERMISSIBLE, IS IT MADE OUT ON THE PLEADINGS?
[213] The commissioners’ case, as advanced both in writing and orally, against Total relies on the tort of unlawful means conspiracy. It is common ground that that tort involves an arrangement between two or more parties, whereby they effectively agree that at least one of them will use ‘unlawful means’ against the claimant, and, although damage to the claimant need not be the predominant intention of any of the parties, the claimant must have suffered loss or damage as a result. It is also common ground that all those ingredients are present in the pleaded case against Total.
[214] The reason the Court of Appeal, albeit with regret, held that the commissioners had not made out the claim in the present case was that there was an additional requirement of the tort which was not present. That requirement was that the unlawful means relied on must be independently actionable by the claimant against at least one of the parties to the alleged conspiracy. The question for your Lordships is whether that is correct.
[215] This issue appears to me only to arise in relation to the first basis upon which the commissioners put their case. That claim alleges a conspiracy which involves no independent cause of action on the part of any of the alleged conspirators; what is relied on is that the conspiracy involved criminal means, namely cheating the revenue. However, the second basis upon which the case is put seems to me to avoid the problem identified by the Court of Appeal. That is because, as already mentioned, the commissioners contend that the conspiracy involved means which included an independently actionable tort, namely deceit on the part of Alldech. However, in case it transpires that this second basis is not
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maintainable and the first basis is otherwise maintainable, the Court of Appeal’s reason for holding the tort was not made out needs to be addressed.
[216] Unlawful means conspiracy is one of the so-called economic torts, which include procuring a breach of contract, unlawful interference, causing loss by unlawful means, intimidation, and conspiracy to injure (or lawful means conspiracy). These torts present problems even if they are considered individually (and yet more problems arise if they are treated as a genus). This is as true of unlawful means conspiracy as of any of the other economic torts. The issue in the present case is what constitutes ‘unlawful means’ in unlawful means conspiracy, and in particular whether, at least in a case such as the present, a criminal act is enough, or whether it must involve an act by at least one of the conspirators which is actionable at the suit of the claimant.
[217] This issue had not been expressly addressed by any court before it was specifically discussed and decided by the Court of Appeal in Powell v Boladz (1998) 39 BMLR 35. The reasoning of Stuart-Smith LJ (who gave the only reasoned judgment) is not only brief but, with respect, unsatisfactory. He cited three cases to justify the proposition that the unlawful means in the tort of unlawful conspiracy must be a civil wrong committed by at least one of the conspirators, actionable at the suit of the claimant; however, none of those cases in fact provides such support. In their opinions, Lord Walker and Lord Mance have authoritatively and fully considered the decisions which touched on this issue, before Powell’s case, and I agree with their analyses.
[218] Not only has the issue not been addressed in your Lordships’ House, but it has really only been considered in any detail at first instance, most fully and impressively by Davis J in Mbasogo v Logo Ltd [2005] EWHC 2034 (QB) at [51]–[89], [2005] All ER (D) 116 (Sep) at [51]–[89]. As Davis J said at [69], referring to Lonrho Ltd v Shell Petroleum Co Ltd (No 2) [1981] 2 All ER 456, [1982] AC 173 and Lonrho plc v Fayed [1991] 3 All ER 303, [1992] 1 AC 448, ‘there are statements in the various speeches in the cases on this topic in the House of Lords which are capable of being read either way’, but they do not really grapple with the issue (because it was not relevant to the conclusion in either appeal).
[219] Accordingly, it appears to me that your Lordships’ House is free to decide the issue as it sees fit. However, we should plainly resolve the issue on a principled basis, in so far as that is possible in this very tricky area.
[220] In OBG Ltd v Allan [2007] UKHL 21 at [57], [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [57], [2007] 2 WLR 920, Lord Hoffmann (expressing the majority view in this House) said that the fact that the means involve a crime, without also involving a civilly actionable wrong, was insufficient to establish a claim for loss caused by unlawful means. Given the obvious desirability of consistency and coherence as between the economic torts, it can fairly be said that the same rule should apply to a claim in unlawful means conspiracy. Further, the point made by Lord Hoffmann at para [57] of the OBG case, that ‘it is not for the courts to create a cause of action out of a . . . criminal statute which Parliament did not intend to be actionable in private law’ can fairly be said to be as applicable to unlawful means conspiracy as to causing loss by unlawful means.
[221] On the other hand, it appears that the law of tort takes a particularly censorious view where conspiracy is involved. Thus, a claim based on conspiracy to injure can be established even where no unlawful means, let alone any other actionable tort, is involved. That tort is therefore frequently described as anomalous; yet its existence is very well established. Its centrally important
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feature is that the conspiracy must have as its primary purpose injury to the claimant. In my judgment, given the existence of that tort, it would be anomalous if an unlawful means conspiracy could not found a cause of action where, as here, the means ‘merely’ involved a crime, where the loss to the claimant was the obvious and inevitable, indeed in many ways the intended, result of the sole purpose of the conspiracy, and where the crime involved, cheating the revenue, has as its purpose the protection of the victim of the conspiracy. The difference between intending to make a profit at the claimant’s expense and intending to cause injury to the claimant is pretty fine and, in economic terms, artificial: that point emerges most clearly from the discussion in Lord Hoffmann’s opinion in the OBG case at [130]–[134].
[222] I do not think that the conclusion, at least on the facts of in this case, that the ‘mere’ crime of cheating the revenue can constitute unlawfulness for unlawful means conspiracy can be said to involve illegitimately creating a tort out of a crime, as mentioned in the OBG case at [57]. First, there is the narrow point that the crime (or at least the crime primarily relied on in the commissioners’ argument) in the present case is a common law one, and therefore there is no question of disregarding the legislature’s intention, which only arises where the tort is statutory. Secondly, there is the more general and telling point that the tort in this case involves the element of conspiracy, which is, of course, lacking in the tort considered in the OBG case. The importance of the ingredient of conspiracy has been examined and explained by Lord Walker and Lord Mance in their speeches, and is, as already mentioned, underlined in the field of economic torts by the anomalous tort of conspiracy to injure (or lawful means conspiracy). Thirdly, as already mentioned, the crime in the present case exists for the protection of the victim.
[223] Further, in the OBG case at [61], Lord Hoffmann made it clear that his ‘discussion of unlawful means’ was limited to cases involving ‘interference with the actions of a third party in relation to the plaintiff’, and did not necessarily apply to ‘a case of “two party intimidation”’, which, he said, ‘raises altogether different issues’. In this case, as Lord Hope and Lord Mance have explained, the tort is of a ‘two party’ nature, in that the conspiracy could be said to have been directed against the commissioners. After all, it was directly intended (albeit for the purpose of enriching the conspirators) to deprive the commissioners of money to which they were entitled, and, if successful, it was inevitably and foreseeably going to do so, and no tort, harm or crime as against any party other than the commissioners was involved. As Lord Hoffmann implicitly recognised, it may therefore not be inappropriate to hold that the commissioners have a cause of action in such circumstances, even though they might not have had a claim if they had suffered loss (particularly if it was as an incidental result) as a result of a crime directed at a third party.
[224] Thus the notion that the commissioners have a claim here is not, in my view inconsistent with the reasoning of the majority in the OBG case¸ upon which Total relies. In any event, the notion of a single consistent approach as to what constitutes unlawfulness in relation to all the economic torts can be said to be inconsistent with what Clerk and Lindsell refer to as the ‘ramshackle’ nature of the economic torts (para 25-001) and with the statement in Stevens Torts and Rights (2007) p 297 that the economic torts ‘have no inherent unity’ and that it is ‘a mistake to group these “torts” together’. I would in any event, at least in a case such as this, where injury to the claimant is the direct, inevitable and foreseeable
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result of the conspiracy succeeding, and where the crime can be said to exist for the protection of the victim, I would find it far less offensive to hold that unlawfulness can extend to a ‘mere’ crime in unlawful means conspiracy, when it cannot do so in causing loss by unlawful means, than to hold that a ‘mere’ crime cannot in any circumstances constitute unlawfulness in unlawful means conspiracy, when there is a tort of conspiracy to injure by means which are neither tortious nor criminal.
[225] In this connection, I should record my agreement with Lord Walker and Lord Mance that, for the reasons they give, the tort of unlawful means conspiracy is not a form of secondary liability. Furthermore, although it involves an element of pulling oneself up by one’s own bootstraps, it is hard to see what role the tort of unlawful means conspiracy, whose existence is accepted by Total, could have if it did not apply in a case such as this. This is well illustrated by Stevens’s suggestion, at p 249, that there is no need for the tort of unlawful means conspiracy. This is on the basis that there are three well-established tortious principles which, between them, effectively ‘catch’ almost all who would be caught by a claim in unlawful means conspiracy. First, there is the tort of causing loss by unlawful means, the tort considered in the OBG case. Secondly, there is the tort of conspiracy to injure, where injury to the claimant has to be the principle purpose of the conspiracy. Thirdly, there is the well-established principle that, where two or more parties join together in some way with a view to assisting or enabling one or more of them to commit a tort, all are liable for the tort as joint tortfeasors.
[226] On this basis, Stevens suggests that there is really no role for an additional tort of conspiring to injure by unlawful means. However, if a criminal act is sufficient unlawful means, at least in some circumstances (which Stevens challenges), the present case is an example of a claim which can (at least on the basis that the case has been argued by both parties) only succeed in unlawful means conspiracy. Conspiracy to injure cannot be relied on as injury to the commissioners was not, it is apparently accepted by the commissioners, the primary aim of the carousel fraud. Total could not be a joint tortfeasor if there is no claim in unlawful means conspiracy, because unlawful means conspiracy is the only tort relied on. There can be no claim in causing loss by unlawful means, as if the means involve a crime which is not civilly actionable, it does not count as unlawful means for that purpose (see the OBG case [2007] 4 All ER 545 at [57]).
[227] Accordingly, in my view, on the basis of the arguments before your Lordships, a claim in unlawful means conspiracy could have been maintained on the commissioners’ first basis of claim, as well as on the second basis, were it not precluded by the 1994 Act representing a ‘complete code’. That is because, at least where the conspiracy has loss or damage to the claimant as the direct, foreseeable and inevitable consequence of its success, the fact that the means ‘only’ involve a crime, at least where that is other than incidentally, appears to me to give rise to sufficient unlawfulness to establish a claim in unlawful means conspiracy.
[228] However, it seems to me that, although this argument was abandoned by the commissioners, it may be that the better route to this conclusion is that this is a case of conspiracy to injure, and that, as Stevens suggests, there is no need for the tort of unlawful means conspiracy. I referred earlier to the point that the reasoning in the OBG case at [130]–[134] supports the view that, in this case, there is little, if any, difference between the conspirators’ intention to make money and
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their intention to deprive the commissioners of money: each is the obverse of the other. On that basis, it may well be that it could be said that the predominant purpose of Total and the other conspirators was indeed to inflict loss on the commissioners just as much as it was to profit the conspirators, and hence the claim in tort is made out in conspiracy to injure.
[229] That analysis would not, I am inclined to think, significantly extend the ambit of the tort of conspiracy to injure. A defence often available to a claim based on that tort is that the conspirators inflicted the loss for ‘the lawful protection . . . of any lawful interest . . . (no illegal means being employed)’ or that ‘the object is the[ir] legitimate benefit’ (see Crofter Hand Woven Harris Tweed Co Ltd v Veitch [1942] 1 All ER 142 at 149, 161, [1942] AC 435 at 445, 469 per Viscount Simon LC and Lord Wright respectively). Such a defence would not, as I see it, be open to the conspirators here: they used ‘illegal means’ and the benefit they sought, and indeed obtained, was plainly not ‘legitimate’.
[230] However, because the claim based on conspiracy to injure was not argued, indeed was abandoned, by the commissioners, and because Total accepts that there is such a tort as unlawful means conspiracy, I think it is more appropriate to rest my decision on the basis of that latter tort, and leave open for another case any argument along the lines discussed in the preceding two paragraphs.
CONCLUSION
[231] For these reasons, I would allow both the commissioners’ appeal and Total’s cross-appeal, and consequently would uphold the order of the Court of Appeal dismissing the commissioners’ claim.
Appeal allowed. Cross-appeal dismissed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister
Prosecution Appeal (No 2 of 2008);
R v Y
[2008] 2 All ER 484
[2008] EWCA Crim 10
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Evidence, Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): HUGHES LJ, SAUNDERS J AND SIR CHRISTOPHER HOLLAND
Hearing Date(s): 21, 25 JANUARY 2008
Criminal law – Appeal – Appeal by Crown – General right of appeal in respect of rulings – Ruling in relation to trial on indictment – Right of appeal in respect of evidentiary rulings – Availability of appeal – Criminal Justice Act 2003, ss 58, 62.
Criminal evidence – Hearsay – Admissibility of hearsay evidence – Interests of justice – Preservation of certain common law categories of admissibility – Hearsay confession implicating defendant – Crown applying for admission of hearsay confession – Whether confession excluded by preservation of common law rule – Criminal Justice Act 2003, ss 114, 118.
Part 9 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 had created two species of interlocutory appeal in criminal cases which were open only to the Crown. They required leave of the Court of Appeal or of the trial judge. The first kind of appeal, found in ss 58–61, had been brought into force but the second kind, found in ss 62–67 had not. By sub-s (1), s 58a applied where a judge made a ruling in relation to a trial on indictment and the ruling related to one or more offences included in the indictment. The prosecution could appeal in respect of the ruling; it had to inform the court that it intended to appeal and under sub-s (8) it could not so inform the court unless it also informed the court that it agreed that, in respect of the offence which was the subject of the appeal, the defendant should be acquitted of that offence if leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal was not obtained or the appeal was abandoned before it was determined by the Court of Appeal. The defendant had to be acquitted if leave to appeal was not obtained, the appeal was abandoned, or if it failed when heard. Section 62b provided an appeal for the prosecution in respect of a qualifying evidentiary ruling which was defined as an evidentiary ruling of a judge in relation to a trial on indictment made at any time before the opening of the case for the defence. An ‘evidentiary ruling’ meant a ruling which related to the admissibility or exclusion of any prosecution evidence. The defendant, Y, was on trial alone for murder. The prosecution applied under s 114(1)(d)c of the 2003 Act to admit hearsay evidence consisting of a confession by X—who had subsequently pleaded guilty—implicating Y. Section 114(1) provided that in criminal proceedings a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings was admissible as evidence of any matter stated if, but only if, (a) any provision of Pt 11 of the 2003 Act or any other statutory provision made it admissible, (b) any rule of law preserved by s 118 made it admissible, (c) all parties to the proceedings agreed to it being admissible, or (d) the court was satisfied that it was in the interests of
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justice for it to be admitted. Section 114(2) listed the factors to which the judge had to have regard in addressing the question whether it was in the interests of justice to admit hearsay under s 114(1)(d). Section 118 of the 2003 Act was headed ‘Preservation of certain common law categories of admissibility’. Sub-s (1) provided: ‘The following rules of law are preserved . . . 5 Any rule of law relating to the admissibility of confessions or mixed statements in criminal proceedings’. The judge ruled that s 114(1)(d) had no application to a hearsay statement contained in a confession of another person. He accepted the argument of the defence that it followed from the terms of s 118(1), para 5, read with s 114(1)(b) that the common law rule preserved by s 118 preserved was not only the rule that a confession was admissible in the case of its maker but also the concomitant proposition that it was not admissible in the case of anyone else. The judge therefore ruled that the prosecution’s application did not fall to be considered on its merits. The prosecution sought to appeal his ruling under s 58 of the 2003 Act as a ruling in relation to a trial on indictment. The defence submitted that the ruling could not be appealed under s 58 because it was an evidentiary ruling falling within s 62.
Held – (1) An ‘evidentiary ruling’ within s 62 of the 2003 Act could also be a ruling ‘which relates to one or more offences included within the indictment’ within s 58. In the instant case the ruling was clearly, as a matter of ordinary language, a ruling which related to the counts on the indictment because it was a decision about what evidence was admissible for the Crown in its attempts to prove them. It was also squarely within the definition of evidentiary ruling because it was a ruling that Crown evidence was not admissible. Although s 62 was not in force its appearance in the statute as passed by Parliament was a powerful aid to construction and s 62(11) expressly contemplated that an evidentiary ruling within s 62 could also be the subject of a s 58 appeal. Accordingly, the ruling had been within s 58(1) and since the Crown had volunteered the s 58(8) agreement an appeal lay to the Court of Appeal with leave, which the judge had granted. Therefore the appeal would be determined on its merits (see [22]–[26], below).
(2) Section 114(1)(d) of the 2003 Act was available in law for all types of hearsay and on an application by any party to a criminal trial. In the case of an out-of-court statement contained in, or associated with, a confession, para 5 of s 118(1) did not exclude the application of s 114(1)(d). However, the greatest care had to be taken, before admitting an out-of-court statement under s 114(1)(d), to ensure that the factors in s 114(2) were fully considered and that overall it was genuinely in the interests of justice that the jury should be asked to rely on the statement without seeing its maker and without any question being addressed to him about it. The difficulties of assessing hearsay evidence remain critical to the determination of the interests of justice test. It was not the effect of s 114(1)(d) that out-of-court statements, whether by co-accused or anyone else, were routinely to be admitted. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed (see [42]–[63], below).
Per curiam. It is likely to remain the position that in the great majority of cases it will not be in the interests of justice to admit, under s 114(1)(d), the contents of police interviews in the case of a defendant other than the interviewee (see [57], below).
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Notes
For admissibility and discretionary exclusion of hearsay evidence and for confessions and admissions, see 11(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 1520, 1526 and for the general right of appeal in respect of rulings and the right of appeal in respect of evidentiary rulings, see 11(4) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 1899, 1914.
No order has been made under s 336(3), (4) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 bringing into force s 62 of the 2003 Act.
For the Criminal Justice Act 2003, ss 58, 62, see 12(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 1433, 1436.
For the Criminal Justice Act 2003, s 114, see 18 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 428.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v Clark (application under s 58 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) [2007] EWCA Crim 2532, [2007] All ER (D) 120 (Oct), (2007) Times, 29 October.
R v Finch [2007] EWCA Crim 36, [2007] 1 WLR 1645.
R v Hayter [2005] UKHL 6, [2005] 2 All ER 209, [2005] 1 WLR 605.
R v Ibrahim (4 June 2007, unreported), Woolwich Crown Ct.
R v M [2007] EWCA Crim 219, [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Feb).
R v Myers [1997] 4 All ER 314, [1998] AC 124, [1997] 3 WLR 552, HL.
R v Taylor [2006] EWCA Crim 260, [2006] 2 Cr App Rep 222.
Interlocutory appeal
The defendant Y was on trial alone for murder. The Crown applied under s 114(1)(d) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 to admit hearsay evidence consisting of a confession made by X, who had subsequently pleaded guilty, which confession implicated Y. The trial judge ruled that the application did not fall to be considered on its merits as s 114(1)(d) had no application to a hearsay statement contained in the confession of another person. The Crown sought to bring an interlocutory appeal under s 58 of the 2003 Act against that ruling. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Brendan Finucane QC and Oliver Glasgow (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Peter Griffiths QC (instructed by EBR Attridge) and Bill Evans of that firm for the defendant.
Judgment was reserved.
25 January 2008. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
HUGHES LJ.
SUMMARY
[1] In a case of murder where man Y was on trial alone, the Crown applied to the trial judge to admit hearsay evidence consisting of a confession made by man X, who had subsequently pleaded guilty, which confession implicated the defendant Y. The application was made under s 114(1)(d) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003. The judge was persuaded that s 114(1)(d) had no application to a hearsay statement contained in a confession of another person, and accordingly ruled that the Crown’s application did not fall to be considered on its merits.
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Against that ruling, the Crown seeks to bring an interlocutory appeal under s 58 of the 2003 Act.
ISSUES BEFORE US
[2] There are two issues of law for us: (a) Can an interlocutory appeal under s 58 be brought when the ruling is as to the admissibility of evidence? The defence submit not. We will call that ‘the appeal jurisdiction issue’. (b) If Yes, is s 114(1)(d) capable of applying to allow the admission of hearsay material which is contained in a confession by another person or is it excluded by the presence in the Act of s 118(1), para 5? We will call that ‘the s 114/118 issue’.
ISSUES NOT BEFORE US
[3] The man (X) whose confession the Crown wants to prove is not, it is agreed, a co-accused of the defendant. He and the defendant are accused of complicity in the same offence, but they do not face trial together, X having pleaded guilty to murder some time ago. Indeed, as it happens, in this case they have never been charged on the same indictment. Moreover, the application to admit X’s confession is made by the Crown and not by a co-accused. It follows that s 76A of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 has no application and is not in issue before us, as both counsel agree. We are therefore not concerned with the question how far statements associated with a confession are to be regarded as a confession automatically admissible in the hands of a co-accused: see R v Finch [2007] EWCA Crim 36, [2007] 1 WLR 1645.
[4] Much more significantly, we are not asked to decide whether this hearsay evidence should in fact be admitted. Nor could we decide that question. Because the judge ruled that s 114(1)(d) was not available, he never got to the merits of the application. He never considered whether it is or is not in the interests of justice that this hearsay should be admitted, in this case where the Crown concedes that, without it, it does not have a prima facie case against the defendant. Since that latter question has not been ruled upon by the trial judge, no question of an appeal (by either side) against a ruling upon it can yet arise. Moreover we simply do not have the material to decide this question. We have not seen the witness statements comprising the Crown case, or any evidence in this case, except the hearsay statements which are in issue in this interlocutory appeal. We are confined by the appeal before us to the question of principle whether s 114(1)(d) is altogether ruled out because the hearsay is contained in a confession. That is one of the common features of an interlocutory appeal.
THE CROWN CASE
[5] In summarising the factual background, we are conscious that we have very limited material. What we set out is the Crown’s case only. The murder was the result of a street fight between youths. The deceased was walking with his girlfriend. He was accosted, she says, by two youths. There was an argument, at that stage verbal only. The deceased was left angry, to the extent that he refused to get into a car and leave the street, but rather insisted upon walking on. No one, however, suggests that he brought about the violence which ensued, as distinct from responding to it.
[6] A little further on, the deceased was confronted again by the same two youths, and this time one of the assailants (said to be Y) went for him with a cosh. The deceased responded and a fight ensued. Y called for X, who was carrying a knife, to stab the deceased. X did so and occasioned fatal wounds.
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[7] X was arrested nine days later. He refused, as he was entitled to do, to answer questions in interview by the police. But in due course he pleaded guilty to murder, accepting that he was the second assailant, and that he stabbed the deceased.
[8] Prior to arrest, X is said by a girlfriend (or perhaps ex-girlfriend) to have had two conversations with her about his activities generally and this offence in particular. Her witness statement asserts that in both conversations he admitted to her that he had killed someone. And she asserts that in the second conversation he told her that the other assailant had been Y.
[9] When he pleaded guilty to murder, X advanced a basis, handwritten by counsel or solicitor, though unsigned, which in the end was not put before the judge. That document adhered substantially to the same account which the girl says he had previously given, namely that he did not start the altercation but intervened at the request of the other, and was the one who stabbed the deceased. In that document, the first assailant is referred to in all places but one as ‘the first youth’. However, in one place he is named as Y. A subsequent, second written basis of plea was then prepared, signed by X, and put before the judge. In that second document, the other assailant is not named.
[10] X had not made any written witness statement. The judge was told that he had expressed himself unwilling to do so or to give evidence. No attempt had been made to compel him to court as a witness for the Crown.
[11] Y was arrested soon after the event. He made no comment in interview. He was not charged, and still had not been charged when X pleaded guilty. Subsequently he has been charged and sent for trial. The indictment charges murder, and there is a second count of assault occasioning actual bodily harm upon the girlfriend of the deceased as part of the same incident. As we understand it, Y’s case is that he denies that he was there at all.
[12] The Crown’s hearsay application was to admit under s 114(1)(d): (i) the statement of the girlfriend; and (ii) both the written bases of plea. In this court, the Crown has abandoned (ii). We were told that it has done so because informal inquiries have revealed that the inclusion of the name of Y at one point in the first handwritten basis of plea was made without the instructions of X.
THE APPEAL JURISDICTION ISSUE
[13] Part 9 of the 2003 Act creates two new species of interlocutory appeal in criminal cases. Both are open only to the Crown. The first is found in ss 58–61; the second in ss 62–67. Both appeals require the leave either of this court or the trial judge. The first has been brought into effect. The second has not, nor has any date for commencement been set.
[14] The defendant’s submission that there is no right of appeal depends on the argument that this ruling fell within ss 62–67, which have not been brought into force, rather than ss 58–61 which have.
[15] Section 58 provides, so far as material, as follows:
‘(1) This section applies where a judge makes a ruling in relation to a trial on indictment at an applicable time and the ruling relates to one or more offences included in the indictment.
(2) The prosecution may appeal in respect of the ruling in accordance with this section . . .
(7) Where—(a) the ruling is a ruling that there is no case to answer, and (b) the prosecution, at the same time that it informs the court in accordance with subsection (4) that it intends to appeal, nominates one or more other
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rulings which have been made by a judge in relation to the trial on indictment at an applicable time and which relate to the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal, that other ruling, or those other rulings, are also to be treated as the subject of the appeal.
(8) The prosecution may not inform the court in accordance with subsection (4) that it intends to appeal unless, at or before that time, it informs the court that it agrees that, in respect of the offence or each offence which is the subject of the appeal, the defendant in relation to that offence should be acquitted of that offence if either of the conditions mentioned in subsection (9) is fulfilled.
(9) Those conditions are—(a) that leave to appeal to the Court of Appeal is not obtained, and (b) that the appeal is abandoned before it is determined by the Court of Appeal.’
[16] By ss 58(12) and 61(3), which it is not necessary to set out fully, the defendant must be acquitted if leave to appeal is not obtained, the appeal is abandoned, or if it fails when heard. Those provisions mirror the requirement for a s 58 appeal that the Crown must agree formally that if it does not succeed, the acquittal of the defendant must follow. There is also a residual power under s 61(4) and (5) for the Court of Appeal to order acquittal even if the appeal succeeds, but only if it is necessary in the interests of justice to do so.
[17] Section 62, so far as material, provides:
‘(1) The prosecution may, in accordance with this section and section 63, appeal in respect of—(a) a single qualifying evidentiary ruling, or (b) two or more qualifying evidentiary rulings.
(2) A “qualifying evidentiary ruling” is an evidentiary ruling of a judge in relation to a trial on indictment which is made at any time (whether before or after the commencement of the trial) before the opening of the case for the defence . . .
(9) In this section—
“evidentiary ruling” means a ruling which relates to the admissibility or exclusion of any prosecution evidence,
“qualifying offence” means an offence described in Part 1 of Schedule 4 . . .
(11) Nothing in this section affects the right of the prosecution to appeal in respect of an evidentiary ruling under section 58.’
[18] By s 63 leave to appeal under s 62 may not be given unless the ruling(s) ‘significantly weaken’ the prosecution case in relation to the count(s) under consideration. The effect of s 66 is that whether the appeal under s 62 succeeds or fails, the trial is either resumed or begun afresh. The defendant cannot be acquitted unless the Crown indicates that it does not intend to continue with the prosecution.
[19] We accept that the new s 58 right of appeal, which is in force, must be construed strictly. It is a significant shift of rights towards the Crown as against an individual.
[20] For s 58 the critical condition which must be met before any appeal can be launched is that contained in s 58(8). In effect the Crown is bound to accept, as the price of bringing an interlocutory appeal under s 58, the consequence that if it fails the defendant must be acquitted (as well as the possibility that this court may order such acquittal on the grounds that it is necessary in the interests of justice to do so). It is no doubt this s 58(8) condition which led to the use of the
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expression ‘terminating ruling’ during the consultation process preceding this part of the Act and its passage through Parliament. It is no doubt true that the Crown will not ordinarily embark on an appeal against a ruling which requires the giving of the s 58(8) undertaking, unless the ruling, if effective, will bring the case to an end. But whilst the expression ‘terminating ruling’ may have, and have had, its convenience as shorthand, its use is best avoided when considering how the Act must be construed, for it appears nowhere in the statute. For that reason, we do not think that it is helpful to try to answer the jurisdictional question by asking whether or not the ruling presently in question would bring the prosecution to an end. As a matter of law, it would not; in practice, unless the Crown altered its position, it would. It would not in law because the Crown could continue with the trial and seek to persuade the judge that other evidence establishes a prima facie case against the defendant Y. That in this case the Crown told the judge that it did not feel able to argue that there is a prima facie case unless the hearsay evidence goes in does not alter that legal position. However, no doubt if that is the Crown’s view the effect of the ruling, in practice if not in law, would be to bring the case to an end.
[21] For the defendant, the submission of Mr Griffiths QC is that the ruling in this case that hearsay evidence is not admissible is not a ruling within s 58(1) because whilst it is a ruling in relation to a trial on indictment, it is not one which ‘relates to one or more offences included in the indictment’. Rather, he submits, this is an ‘evidentiary’ ruling; such, he argues, falls only within s 62 and following, and not within s 58. Section 58, in being strictly construed, should, he submits, be confined to rulings which are in similar case to rulings that there is no case to answer, and should not include rulings which are within s 62.
[22] The expression ‘evidentiary ruling’ is defined in s 62(9) of the Act. We accept that this ruling was squarely within that definition, because it was a ruling that Crown evidence was not admissible. It is therefore a ruling against which the Crown will be enabled to appeal if, despite the impact on the currency of trials and the work of this court, s 62 and following are ever brought into force. But it does not follow from the fact that this is an evidentiary ruling that it is not also a ruling which ‘relates to one or more offences included in the indictment’, and thus is within s 58 if the Crown is prepared to give the s 58(8) agreement that if the appeal fails the defendant must be acquitted. As a matter of ordinary language this clearly is a ruling which relates to the counts on the indictment. It relates to them because it is a decision about what evidence is admissible for the Crown in its attempt to prove them. The matter is made quite clear by s 62(11) which expressly contemplates that an evidentiary ruling within s 62 may also be the subject of a s 58 appeal. Although that section is not in force, its appearance in the statute as passed by Parliament is a powerful aid to construction.
[23] There is thus no reason why a single ruling should not qualify both as a s 58 ruling in relation to a count on the indictment (assuming the Crown to agree to acquittal if the appeal fails) and also as an evidentiary ruling under s 62, in respect of which the right of appeal will be broader if implemented. In the ordinary language of the criminal trial, many rulings made daily by trial judges can properly be described both as relating to counts on the indictment and as being evidentiary. The difference between the two types of interlocutory appeal lies in the s 58(8) condition. Given the enormous practical difficulties created by interlocutory appeals for the work of this court and, much more importantly, for the progress of trials before juries in the Crown Court, it is not surprising that the
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former group of provisions should have been brought into force and not the latter.
[24] That construction of s 58(1) is supported by the terms of s 58(7)(b). Section 58(7) provides for the Crown, if it is appealing a ruling that there is no case to answer, to ‘piggy-back’ onto that appeal a challenge also to any other ruling made in the course of trial which the Crown nominates. It is accepted before us that one point of that subsection (among, it may be, others) is to enable the Crown to deal with the familiar situation where the judge first excludes evidence which the Crown wants admitted, and then, because of its absence, properly finds that there is no case to answer. In that event, the Crown can, provided it complies with s 58(8), challenge not only the no case decision, but also the evidentiary ruling which preceded it. But in achieving this result, s 58(7)(b) defines the ‘piggy-backed’ evidentiary ruling in terms substantially identical to those of s 58(1):
‘. . . one or more other rulings which have been made by a judge in relation to the trial on indictment at an applicable time and which relate to the offence or offences which are the subject of the appeal . . .’
In other words, the ‘piggy-backed’ evidentiary ruling is treated by the statute as a ruling which is ‘in relation to the trial on indictment’, and which ‘relates to the offence or offences . . .' If such an evidentiary ruling is within s 58(7)(b), it follows that it is also within s 58(1). Thus, such an evidentiary ruling is within both ss 58 and 62. And if that kind of evidentiary ruling is within both ss 58 and 62, there is no reason why other evidentiary rulings should not also be within both sections. Furthermore, s 58(7) identifies rulings that there is no case to answer as just one example of rulings that may be appealed under s 58; that is inconsistent with Mr Griffiths’ submission that s 58 is limited to rulings equivalent to those of no case.
[25] In R v Clark (application under s 58 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) [2007] EWCA Crim 2532, [2007] All ER (D) 120 (Oct), (2007) Times, 29 October this court accepted that an interlocutory appeal lay under s 58 against a refusal by the judge to grant any further adjournment to the Crown to enable it to make yet further attempts to get its principal witness to court. The present point did not arise for decision. It is, however, to be observed that it was held that what was essentially a case management decision, to refuse adjournment, was capable of giving rise to an interlocutory appeal if the Crown was ready to give the s 58(8) agreement to acquittal in the event of failure in this court.
[26] For those reasons, we conclude that this ruling was within s 58(1) and that, since the Crown has volunteered the s 58(8) agreement, an appeal lies to this court with leave. The judge granted leave. We must accordingly determine the appeal on its merits.
THE SECTION 114/118 ISSUE
[27] Section 114(1) of the 2003 Act provides as follows:
‘(1) In criminal proceedings a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings is admissible as evidence of any matter stated if, but only if—(a) any provision of this Chapter or any other statutory provision makes it admissible, (b) any rule of law preserved by section 118 makes it admissible, (c) all parties to the proceedings agree to it being admissible, or
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(d) the court is satisfied that it is in the interests of justice for it to be admissible.’
[28] Section 114(2) goes on to list particular (but non-exclusive) factors to which the judge must have regard if he is considering admitting hearsay evidence under s 114(1)(d) and is addressing the question whether it is in the interests of justice to do so. As we have said, the judge did not get to that issue. That was because he accepted the argument of Mr Griffiths QC which was, and is here, that s 114(1)(d) is ruled out as even a possible route for the admission of hearsay contained in a confession. That consequence, says Mr Griffiths, follows from the terms of s 118(1), para 5, when read with s 114(1)(b).
[29] Section 118 has the side heading ‘Preservation of certain common law categories of admissibility’. Subsection (1), so far as material, provides as follows:
‘The following rules of law are preserved . . .
5. Any rule of law relating to the admissibility of confessions or mixed statements in criminal proceedings.’
The other paragraphs of sub-s (1), which we need not set out in full, itemise a number of other rules of common law under which hearsay evidence was admissible. Examples are the rules relating to statements admissible as part of the res gestae, those relating to published works of a public nature and public documents, and those relating to evidence of reputation or character. All the rules itemised in s 118(1), and preserved by it, were rules creating exceptions to the general proposition of common law that hearsay was inadmissible.
[30] Mr Griffiths submits that in relation to confessions the common law rule was clear. A confession was admissible, as an exception to the general exclusion of hearsay, but the exception extended only to make it admissible in the case of the person making the confession. He cited authority for that proposition, but there is no need to set it out. To it, there was at least one common law modification, established by the House of Lords decision in R v Myers [1997] 4 All ER 314, [1998] AC 124 and now largely reflected in s 76A of the 1984 Act, namely that one co-defendant could prove the confession of another co-defendant and rely on it in his own case as well as using it to incriminate the maker. There were also the special rules, also preserved by s 118(1), relating to admissions by agents and cases of common enterprise. But we unhesitatingly accept that the general common law rule was as Mr Griffiths states it.
[31] The kernel of Mr Griffiths’ argument in this case is that that is the rule which s 118 preserves. Section 118 preserves, he says, not only the rule that a confession is admissible in the case of its maker, but also the concomitant proposition that it is not admissible in the case of anyone else.
[32] The argument which Mr Griffiths advances in this case appealed to Fulford J in R v Ibrahim (4 June 2007, unreported), where the judge had to deal with a difficult application by one defendant in a multi-defendant case with ‘cut-throat’ defences. There, defendant A sought to rely on what defendant B had said in interviews, which amounted to confessions, (i) to exonerate himself and (ii) to implicate defendants C, D and E. The judge largely propounded the argument now advanced, albeit it had not been raised by any counsel in the case. He said (at para 22):
‘The interests of justice provision in s 114(1)(d) is incompatible with the common law rule. The latter rule is absolute in prohibiting the use of a confession against a defendant who was not present when it was made,
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whereas a discretionary decision under s 114(1)(d) admitting confession evidence would result in the confession becoming generally available for use against the defendants who were not present when the incriminating out of court statement was made.’
[33] Mr Griffiths supports this argument, as did Fulford J, by the citation of a passage from the speech of Lord Rodger in R v Hayter [2005] UKHL 6, [2005] 2 All ER 209, [2005] 1 WLR 605:
‘[55] . . . the Law Commission conducted a wide survey of the law and did not support any change in relation to Crown evidence of extrajudicial admissions of co-defendants in criminal trials. In their report on Evidence in Criminal Proceedings: Hearsay and Related Topics (Law Com No 245) (1997) (para 8.96) they said:
“A hearsay admission is still evidence only against the person who made it, and a jury must be warned accordingly. A number of our respondents thought it extremely important that this principle be retained, and we agree.” . . .
[56] Even more importantly, Parliament agreed with, and gave effect to, the Law Commission’s conclusion. Section 118(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 specifically preserves any common law “rule of law relating to the admissibility of confessions or mixed statements in criminal proceedings”.’
[34] R v Hayter was decided under the common law, prior to the 2003 Act. The issue in R v Hayter was quite different from the issue in the present case. No one there sought to assert that the confession of A could be evidence against B. In R v Hayter, the Crown sought (i) to prove the guilt of A by way of his unequivocal confession that he was guilty, and (ii) once that was done to invite the jury to say that, on the facts, if A was guilty, then so must B be. The issue before the House was whether in so reasoning the Crown in effect wrongly bypassed the common law which prevented the confession of A from being direct evidence in the case of B. The decision of the House of Lords was that it did not. Their Lordships held that since s 74 of the 1984 Act permitted the Crown to prove the guilt of A by his conviction, and from that to invite the jury to say that it followed on the facts that B must also be guilty, it was by analogy entitled to invite the jury to reason similarly from guilt proved against A via his confession. Their Lordships were clear that that could only be done providing that the jury was directed that whilst the guilt of A, if established, might be evidence in the case of B, the confession of A, and anything said in it about B, was not. Thus the jury must be directed that in considering the case of B, it must disregard the confession of A; it was only if the jury was sure that A was guilty that it could use that fact as evidence against B.
[35] Lord Rodger dissented in this result. His minority opinion was that such reasoning effectively amounted to admitting the confession of A in evidence against B. That was contrary to the decision of the House. In so far as the extract cited amounts to a restatement that at common law the exception to the general inadmissibility of hearsay in the case of a confession was limited to making the confession evidence only in the case of its maker, it is uncontroversial. In so far as it draws conclusions from the report of the Law Commission and asserts the effect of Parliament’s enactment of the 2003 Act, it is necessary to say a little more. What needs to be said is the same whether one starts from the dissenting opinion of Lord Rodger, or from the majority decision, in R v Hayter.
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[36] The provisions of Pt 11, Ch 2, of the 2003 Act, as to hearsay, are closely modelled on the recommendations of the Law Commission. To an extent, therefore, the reasoning of the Commission and its assessment of what it wished to achieve are relevant to construction of the Act. There are two qualifications to that proposition. First, whilst the Commission’s assessment of the mischief at which the provisions of the Act were aimed is directly relevant when, in construing the Act, one asks what was the mischief it set out to meet, the Commission’s predictions about how its proposed new provisions should be applied cannot be conclusive on the question of what the Act means, nor how it is now to be applied. Secondly, the Act as enacted does not precisely follow the Commission’s draft Bill.
[37] Paragraph 8.96 of the Commission’s report, quoted by Lord Rodger (see [33], above), is to be found in its discussion of the then current common law rules of evidence. But very shortly afterwards, at para 8.99 the Commission directly addressed the issue of reliance upon the confession of a non-defendant. It said this:
‘Under our proposals, a relevant third party confession could be admitted if the confessor has died, is too ill to attend court, cannot be found or is outside the United Kingdom: such statements would be automatically admissible . . . Where the confessor is too frightened to testify, the confession could be admitted with the leave of the court. In other cases—for example, where the confessor’s whereabouts are known but he or she disobeys a witness order, or the confessor testifies but refuses to answer questions which may incriminate him or her—the confession will still be unavailable to the court. In such cases, the defence would have to fall back on the safety-valve in order to have evidence of the confession admitted.’ (Our emphasis.)
[38] The ‘safety valve’ there referred to was the proposed provision which became s 114(1)(d). In the part of its report dealing with this proposal, the Commission gave the advice that—
‘[a]n integral part of our preferred option is a limited inclusionary discretion to admit hearsay which falls within no other exception. Its purpose would be to prevent potential injustice which could arise though the exclusion of hearsay evidence. We envisage that it would only be used exceptionally.’ (Paragraph 8.133.)
‘. . . our purpose is to allow for the admission of reliable hearsay which could not otherwise be admitted, particularly to prevent a conviction which that evidence would render unsafe.’ (Paragraph 8.136.)
[39] When it came to give examples of the operation of its proposed ‘safety valve’, the Commission included this illustration:
‘D is charged with assault. X, who is not charged, admits to a friend that he, X, committed the assault. D and X are similar in appearance. X’s confession is inadmissible hearsay unless the safety-valve is used.’ (Paragraph 8.147.)
[40] Those extracts from the Commission’s report, which are by no means the only ones which might be cited to similar effect, demonstrate conclusively that the aim of the Commission, in proposing the enactment of what has become s 114(1)(d), was to provide a residual judicial power to admit hearsay evidence
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which would not otherwise be admissible. And the example given at para 8.147 demonstrates that the Commission contemplated that one of the situations in which that residual power would be capable of being exercised is where the hearsay is contained in a confession by a non-defendant, which would not be admissible at common law, nor for that matter under any other provision of the proposed Act, nor under s 76A of the 1984 Act, also the product of the Commission’s work and introduced by the 2003 Act.
[41] With that background, we turn to our primary task, which is not to analyse the Commission’s report, but to construe the statute.
[42] Section 114(1) replaces the common law rule that hearsay is prima facie inadmissible with the rule that hearsay is admissible ‘if but only if’ it falls within one or other of sub-paras (a)–(d). It is perfectly clear that those subparagraphs are alternatives, that is to say that hearsay is admissible if it falls within any one of them. That is apparent from the use of the word ‘or’ linking the final two subparagraphs, which means, grammatically, that the last and each of the foregoing conditions is alternative to the others.
[43] The scheme of the four subparagraphs is then this. Subparagraph (a) refers to hearsay made admissible by specific provisions in the new Act. Examples, selected at random, include the new provision in s 116 making always admissible the statement of a witness who has died, and the provision in s 119(2) making a previous witness statement proved as an inconsistent statement admissible as to the truth of its contents.
[44] Next, sub-para (b) makes admissible any evidence which is admissible under a rule of law preserved by s 118. Thus, s 118 is expressly stated to be concerned with the admissibility of material, not with its inadmissibility. As we have previously stated (see [29], above) s 118 preserves rules by which hearsay evidence was admissible by way of exception to the general common law exclusion of hearsay.
[45] Thirdly, sub-para (c) introduces a wholly new idea, namely that hearsay evidence may become admissible if the parties agree. At common law, hearsay was inadmissible whether the parties agreed or not.
[46] And fourthly, sub-para (d) introduces a second wholly new idea, namely that the judge may admit otherwise inadmissible hearsay evidence if he is satisfied that it is in the interests of justice that he should do so.
[47] It follows that hearsay contained in a confession is, in law, as open to admission under sub-para (d) as any other hearsay. There is no basis on which s 114(1) can be read so as to subordinate sub-paras (d)–(b). If that had been intended, the Act would have said so. And in any event, the rules of common law preserved by sub-para (b) and s 118 are rules of admissibility and not of inadmissibility. That conclusion is wholly consistent with the Law Commission recommendations cited above. It does not of course follow that hearsay in, or associated with, third party confessions should routinely be allowed to be admitted under s 114(1)(d): see below.
[48] We respectfully take the view, accordingly, that Fulford J’s proposition, cited at [32], above, is in some danger of putting the cart before the horse and thus assuming what it seeks to prove. Explicit statutory provision prevails over the common law, not the other way round. The residual power to admit hearsay under s 114(1)(d), if the interests of justice genuinely require it, does indeed prevail over the general common law rule that hearsay is inadmissible, and thus it prevails over the particular common law rule that hearsay contained in a confession is inadmissible except against its maker. We do not dissent from the
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practical result to which Fulford J came in a difficult case, but only from the route to it. Nor, although the point does not directly arise in this case, are we to be taken as endorsing the proposition, which appears to be part of the reasoning in that case, that the common law permitted defendant A to rely on the out-of-court statements of defendant B if those statements assisted A (other than by implicating C or D). If such out-of-court statements themselves amounted to confessions, that result might be achieved via s 76A of the 1984 Act (see [3], above). It they did not, they could only be admissible, as it seems to us, under s 114(1)(d), providing of course that the interests of justice test was satisfied.
[49] Mr Griffiths alternatively submits: (i) that s 114(1)(d) only permits the admission in evidence of hearsay contained in a confession to the extent that it is an admission against interest by the maker, and not to the extent that it is an accusation against someone else, here Y; and/or (ii) that s 114(1)(d) only permits admission of confessional hearsay at the instance of a defendant, to avoid the injustice of a wrongful conviction, and does not extend to admission at the instance of the Crown to prove a case it otherwise cannot.
[50] In support of those alternative submissions, Mr Griffiths took us once again to the Law Commission report. He relies on paras 8.133 and 8.136, which we have already set out at [38], above. The report also contains the following:
‘The vast majority of respondents agreed with our provisional view that the safety-valve should be available to both the prosecution and the defence. We believe that this is consistent with principle. We do not think that there is any danger of hearsay evidence of poor quality being admitted against a defendant, nor of a principle which exists to protect the defendant being undermined, because the court will admit hearsay under the safety-valve only where it is in the interests of justice for it to be admitted.’ (Paragraph 8.149; our emphasis.)
And in illustrating what it meant by ‘a principle which exists to protect a defendant’, the Commission explained:
‘Such as the principle that a confession is only admissible against its maker . . . We have already considered the position where one co-accused seeks to adduce the admission of another co-accused . . .’ (See note 214 to para 8.149.)
[51] We do not think that it is possible to construe the statute in either of the alternative ways for which Mr Griffiths contends. Shortly stated, our reasons are as follows.
[52] As to (i), what may be admitted under s 114(1)(d) is a hearsay statement; the nature of the vehicle which carries that statement (and whether it is associated with a confession or otherwise) is certainly relevant to whether it is in the interests of justice to admit it, but it is irrelevant to whether s 114(1)(d) is capable of applying to it. A bare accusation against someone, whether associated with a confession by the maker or not, is capable of falling within s 114(1)(d). It follows that if such an accusation is in fact associated with a confession by the maker, it cannot ipso facto become incapable of falling within s 114(1)(d).
[53] As to (ii), the statute would have had to provide specifically if the rules of admissibility were to be different as between the Crown and a defendant. It does no such thing. The provisions of s 114(1) are quite clearly general in application. They govern when hearsay is admissible, irrespective of who seeks to have it admitted. Additionally, that, it is plain from para 8.149 of the Commission report, cited at [50], above, is what the Commission intended.
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[54] It follows that neither the fact that the hearsay in question is an accusation against the defendant, rather than an admission against interest by the maker, nor the fact that it is the Crown which seeks to adduce it, can rule out the application of s 114(1)(d) as a matter of law. But what we certainly do accept is that those two factors, together with all other material ones, are extremely relevant to the exercise of judicial judgment under s 114(1)(d) and (2).
[55] What is now s 114(1)(d) appeared in the Commission’s draft bill in a slightly different form:
‘9. In criminal proceedings a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings is admissible as evidence of any matter stated if the court is satisfied that, despite the difficulties there may be in challenging the statement, its probative value is such that the interests of justice require it to be admissible.’
[56] Although s 114(1)(d) as enacted does not contain the cautionary reminder, which draft cl 9 did, namely that the probative value of the out-of-court statement must outweigh the difficulties of challenging it before it will be in the interests of justice for it to be admitted, the statute as enacted is not less rigorous. That is because s 114(2) lists specific factors which must, together with any other relevant matter, be considered before addressing the question whether it is in the interests of justice for the hearsay statement to be admitted. Those specified factors are:
‘(a) how much probative value the statement has (assuming it to be true) in relation to a matter in issue in the proceedings, or how valuable it is for the understanding of other evidence in the case;
(b) what other evidence has been, or can be, given on the matter or evidence mentioned in paragraph (a);
(c) how important the matter or evidence mentioned in paragraph (a) is in the context of the case as a whole;
(d) the circumstances in which the statement was made;
(e) how reliable the maker of the statement appears to be;
(f) how reliable the evidence of the making of the statement appears to be;
(g) whether oral evidence of the matter stated can be given and, if not, why it cannot;
(h) the amount of difficulty involved in challenging the statement;
(i) the extent to which that difficulty would be likely to prejudice the party facing it.’
As this court explained in R v Taylor [2006] EWCA Crim 260, [2006] 2 Cr App Rep 222, s 114(2) does not mean that the judge must hear evidence on, and make specific findings of fact about, each factor seriatim; but he must exercise his judgment in the light of consideration of all of them. Then, after those factors, and any other relevant to the particular case have been evaluated, the judge must stand back and ask whether it is in the interests of justice that the statement be admitted. In doing so, he will of course remember that the statute does not render hearsay automatically admissible, and the reasons why it is not. Put broadly, they are that hearsay is necessarily second best evidence, and that it is for that reason much more difficult to test and to assess. The jury never sees the person whose word is being relied upon. That person cannot be asked a single exploratory or challenging question about what he said. Those very real disadvantages of hearsay evidence, which underlay the common law rule
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generally excluding it, remain critical to the assessment of whether the interests of justice call for its admission. The history of the basis of plea document in the present case (see [12], above) is a salutary example. If it had not turned out that the naming of Y had been a plain error by lawyers, ascertainable by informal inquiry by the Crown, and the first basis of plea document had been put in evidence as hearsay, it would almost certainly not have been possible for the defence to challenge it; no inquiry could have been made of X because he would not have been at the trial, and no inquiry of his solicitors or counsel could have been pressed because of legal privilege; the jury would have been left with an apparently official document, prepared by lawyers on behalf of X.
[57] It emerged in the course of argument that in some quarters the decision of this court in R v M [2007] EWCA Crim 219, [2007] All ER (D) 21 (Feb) is being cited, on behalf of the Crown or co-defendants, as authority for the proposition that the inhibition upon the police interviews of one defendant being relied upon against another has simply been ‘abrogated’. If that means that it is thought that such material is routinely to be admitted under s 114(1)(d), it both proceeds upon a misreading of the case and misstates the law. R v M is certainly authority for the conclusion which we have independently reached in this case that s 114(1)(d) is capable of application to any out-of-court statement; thus it is, we accept, capable of application to a hearsay statement contained in a police interview. In that case the judge had held that even if an out-of-court statement made by one co-defendant was admitted under s 114(1)(d) on the application of another co-defendant, the jury should still be told that it was to be disregarded except in the case of the maker. Neither the Crown, nor three appellants with conflicting interests, argued that he was right. It is because we did not, in that case, hear any argument to the contrary that we have thought it right in the present case to approach the s 114/118 issue afresh, and not simply to rely on our previous decision. Moreover, because in that case the judge took the view he did, he never reached the question whether it was in the interests of justice that the particular statement be admitted or not. This court was at some pains to hold that it was not to be taken to be endorsing any provisional view that the judge might have expressed to the effect that the s 114(2) considerations did not point away from admission; indeed several of them did: see paras [26] and [27]. For present purposes it is enough to say that the existence of s 114(1)(d) does not make police interviews routinely admissible in the case of persons other than the interviewee, and that the reasons why they are ordinarily not admissible except in the case of the interviewee are likely to continue to mean that in the great majority of cases it will not be in the interests of justice to admit them in the case of any other person.
[58] The interests of justice test will require, in a case such as the present, attention to the difference between an admission against interest and an accusation against someone else. That consideration no doubt also comes into play under s 114(2)(e), the reliability of the maker of the statement, and (d), the circumstances in which the statement was made. Absent inducement, mental instability or perhaps an incentive to protect someone else, it can no doubt normally be said that a person is unlikely to confess to a serious crime unless he did it. Precisely the reverse may well be true of an accusation against someone else, whether it is combined with a reliable confession or not. It may be evident that the maker of the accusation has a possible motive to blame someone else when no one else was in fact involved, or (where plainly someone else was involved) to cast the blame on the wrong person. Self-interest, to which
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Judge Gordon sagely referred in his ruling in the present case, is one obvious such motive; it is of course not the only one, for diversion of the accusation to protect another or out of animus against the person accused, may also, on the facts of different cases, fall for consideration. Sometimes it may be impossible to know whether such a motive exists or not. Sometimes it will be significant that the possibility of mistake cannot adequately be explored. In a few cases, it is possible that the accusation can be regarded as sufficiently reliable for it to be in the interests of justice to admit it, even though it cannot be tested by questioning the maker. It seems to us that it is likely that that will be the unusual case.
[59] Although s 114(1)(d) is available to the Crown as it is to a defendant, the identity of the applicant is plainly relevant to the interests of justice test. It does not necessarily follow that the interests of justice will point in the same direction upon an application by the Crown as they might upon an application made by a defendant. Section 114(2)(i) moreover requires consideration of the injurious consequences of admission (‘prejudice’) to the party facing the evidence which will arise from the difficulty of challenging it. Since the burden of proving the case is upon the Crown and to the high criminal standard, very considerable care will need to be taken in any case in which the Crown seeks to rely upon an out-of-court statement as supplying it with a case against the defendant when otherwise it would have none. In such a case if there is genuine difficulty in the defendant challenging, and the jury evaluating, the evidence, the potential damage to the defendant from that difficulty is very large.
[60] Both the interests of justice test and s 114(2)(g) command attention to the question whether oral evidence can be given, rather than reliance be placed on the hearsay statement. We would expect that before reaching the conclusion that it is in the interests of justice to admit a hearsay statement, the judge must very carefully consider the alternatives. The alternatives may well include the bringing of an available, but reluctant, witness to court. It by no means follows in practice that a witness who has declined an invitation to make a statement will in fact refuse to give evidence if brought to court. If he may do so, then consideration will also need to be given to whether justice would better be served by putting him before the jury so that they can see him, with the possibility of applying to cross-examine him upon the previous statement, rather than simply putting in that statement for evaluation in the abstract by the jury. The statement itself can serve as notice to the defendant of the evidence which it is sought to adduce. The judge will need to weigh the untidiness of this for the Crown (or other party), but it may be that in some cases he will conclude that it will enable the jury to see the source of the vital accusation and to weigh up what if anything he says about it. Such a course would not necessarily prevent a subsequent application under s 114(1)(d) if it became apparent that there was sufficient reliability in the statement to justify it. For the Crown, Mr Finucane QC reminded us that the maker of the out-of-court statement could only be cross-examined on it if the reporter of it stuck to his/her evidence that it was made; that is so, but if there is doubt about whether the reporter will still verify the making of the out-of-court statement, that is itself a factor material to its admission as hearsay. We emphasise that we do not purport to lay down any rule as to how a particular case should be handled; everything will depend on the infinitely varied circumstances of each case, and the individual judgment of the judge.
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CONCLUSIONS ON SECTION 114/118
[61] Section 114(1)(d) is available in law for all types of hearsay, and on application by any party to a criminal trial. In the case of an out-of-court statement contained in, or associated with, a confession, s 118(1) para 5 does not exclude the application of s 114(1)(d).
[62] But the greatest care must be taken, before admitting an out-of-court statement under s 114(1)(d), to ensure that the s 114(2) factors are fully considered and that overall it is genuinely in the interests of justice that the jury should be asked to rely on the statement without seeing its maker and without any question being addressed to him about it. It is not the effect of s 114(1)(d) that out-of-court statements, whether by co-accused or anyone else, are routinely to be admitted. The considerations set out in [49]–[60], above exemplify, but do not purport exhaustively to list, some of the reasons.
ORDER
[63] We allow the appeal and reverse the ruling of the judge that the Crown is prevented by s 118(1), para 5, from making its application under s 114(1)(d). The merits of that application are for the trial judge. Since as we understand it the jury, which had been sworn but had heard neither opening nor any evidence, has not been discharged, the appropriate order is that the trial of Y may be resumed.
Appeal allowed.
Vanessa Higgins Barrister.
Aziz v Aziz and others (Sultan of Brunei intervening)
[2008] 2 All ER 501
[2007] EWCA Civ 712
Categories: CONSTITUTIONAL; Other
Court: COURT OF APPEAL (CIVIL DIVISION)
Lord(s): SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR, SEDLEY AND LAWRENCE COLLINS LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 11 JUNE, 11 JULY 2007
Constitutional law – Heads of foreign states – Inviolability – Obligation of receiving state to take all appropriate steps to prevent attack on person, freedom or dignity of head of foreign state – Legal proceedings in United Kingdom – Third-party head of foreign state applying in personal capacity for directions preventing publication of any matters capable of leading to his being identified in connection with proceedings – Whether obligation of receiving state extending to personal acts of head of foreign state – Extent of obligation – Diplomatic Privileges Act 1964, Sch 1, art 29 – State Immunity Act 1978, s 20.
The claimant had been divorced from the Sultan of Brunei in February 2003. In January 2005 she brought proceedings against the defendants. The litigation involved audio cassette tapes containing confidential information. An order was made anonymising the proceedings and interlocutory orders were made prohibiting one of the defendants, A, from disclosing the information. The claimant made a committal application against A. The Sultan, relying on his status as a foreign head of state, sought directions preventing the publication of his name, or the publication of any matters which could lead to him being identified, in connection with the proceedings. Section 20a of the State Immunity Act 1978 provided that the Diplomatic Privileges Act 1964 was to apply to a sovereign or other head of state as it applied to the head of a diplomatic mission. The 1964 Act provided that the articles of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961 (Vienna, 18 April 1961; TS 19 (1965); Cmnd 2565) (the Vienna Convention) set out in Sch 1 to the 1964 Act were to have the force of law in the United Kingdom. Under art 29b: ‘The person of a diplomatic agent shall be inviolable . . . The receiving State shall treat him with due respect and shall take all appropriate steps to prevent any attack on his person, freedom or dignity.' The judge refused the relief sought by the Sultan, basing his decision on a distinction between a head of state in his public and his private capacity, so as to remove the private sphere from the scope of s 20 of the 1978 Act. Subsequent judgments in the proceedings were redacted to remove material of a confidential nature. The Sultan appealed. He sought to reverse the judgment denying relief sought as head of state and sought redactions to the subsequent judgments to remove any material which would lead to him being identified.
Held – (1) The obligations of the United Kingdom under art 29 of the Vienna Convention as applied to heads of state by s 20 of the 1978 Act or by customary
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international law applied equally to a foreign head of state in his personal capacity as they applied in his public capacity. The privileges and immunities of a head of state were not limited to official acts of a head of state or to particular situations where the head of state would be prevented from carrying out her or his functions. The immunity was, however, functional in that it had a function in international relations to protect the ability of the head of state to carry out his functions and to promote international co-operation. It was settled law that s 20 had not been intended to confer on heads of state any privileges or immunities beyond those conferred by customary international law. In relation to the right to dignity of a head of state it was doubtful that there was a rule of customary international law which imposed an obligation on a state to take appropriate steps to prevent conduct by individuals which was simply offensive or insulting to a foreign head of state abroad. However, in the instant case, there had been no relevant attack on the dignity of the Sultan and in any event all appropriate steps had been taken to prevent any such attack (see [51], [56]–[61], [76], [78], [86], [89], [91], [93], below); R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Pinochet Ugarte (No 3) [1999] 2 All ER 97 and Harb v King Fahd Bin Abdul Aziz [2005] 2 FCR 342 applied.
(2) Accepting the proposition that an attack on the dignity of a head of state connoted simply a deliberate attack intended to lower the estimation of the head of state or to injure his honour or that of his office would be an impermissible invasion of the principle of free speech. It was difficult to envisage any situation in which speech, otherwise permitted under English law, could be prohibited on the ground that it was an attack on the dignity of a foreign head of state. In the instant case the Sultan was entitled to expect no less protection from possible embarrassment than any other third party to litigation but equally no more. The judges had dealt sensitively with the confidential and personal information which had been before them and had made appropriate orders. Their judgments had been redacted to remove confidential or potentially embarrassing material. Nothing discreditable was said about the Sultan in the judgments. No finding was made against him or about him. No confidential information relating to him was contained in the judgments. Accordingly there was no basis for the proposition that the identification of the Sultan in the judgments could be a breach of the international obligations of the United Kingdom and there was no other reason why he should not be identified. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see [94], [96]–[98], [119], [121], [125], [128]–[133], below); Colombani v France [2002] ECHR 51279/99 considered.
Notes
For privileges and immunities of heads of state, 18(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) see para 825.
For the Diplomatic Privileges Act 1964, Sch 1, art 29, see 10 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2007 reissue) 996.
For the State Immunity Act 1978, s 20, see 10 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2007 reissue) 1076.
Cases referred to in judgment
Al-Adsani v UK (2001) 12 BHRC 88, ECt HR.
B v UK (2002) 11 BHRC 667, ECt HR.
Boos v Barry (1988) 485 US 312, US SC.
Page 503 of [2008] 2 All ER 501
Colombani v France [2002] ECHR 51279/99, ECt HR.
Compania Naviera Vascongada v Steamship Cristina [1938] 1 All ER 719, [1938] AC 485, HL.
Democratic Republic of the Congo v Uganda (Armed activities on the territory of the Congo) [2005] ICG Rep 168, ICJ.
English v Emery Reimbold & Strick Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 605, [2002] 3 All ER 385, [2002] 1 WLR 2409.
Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia v State of Eritrea (19 December 2005, unreported), ICJ.
Harb v King Fahd Bin Abdul Aziz [2005] EWCA Civ 632, [2005] 2 FCR 342.
Holland v Lampen-Wolfe [2000] 3 All ER 833, [2000] 1 WLR 1573, HL.
I Congreso del Partido [1981] 2 All ER 1064, [1983] 1 AC 244, [1981] 3 WLR 328, HL.
JAM v Public Prosecutor (1969) 73 ILR 387, Neth SC.
Jones v Ministry of the Interior of the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia; Mitchell v Al-Dali [2006] UKHL 26, [2007] 1 All ER 113, [2007] 1 AC 270, [2006] 2 WLR 1424.
Martinie v France [2006] ECHR 58675/00, ECt HR.
Mighell v Sultan of Johore [1894] 1 QB 149, [1891–4] All ER Rep 1019, CA.
Minister for Foreign Affairs and Trade v Magno (1992–3) 112 ALR 529, Aust Fed Ct.
Moser v Austria [2006] ECHR 12643/02, ECt HR.
Novello v Toogood (1823) 1 B & C 554, 107 ER 204, [1814–23] All ER Rep 786.
Parlement Belge, The (1880) 5 PD 197, [1874–80] All ER Rep 104, CA.
R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Pinochet Ugarte (No 3) [1999] 2 All ER 97, [2000] 1 AC 147, [1999] 2 WLR 827, HL.
R v Legal Aid Board, ex p Kaim Todner (a firm) [1998] 3 All ER 541, [1999] QB 966, [1998] 3 WLR 925, CA.
R v Roques (1 August 1984, unreported).
R v Ward (29 June 1963, unreported).
Rio Tinto Zinc Corp v Westinghouse Electric Corp, RTZ Services Ltd v Westinghouse Electric Corp [1978] 1 All ER 434, [1978] AC 547, [1978] 2 WLR 81, HL.
Schooner Exchange v McFaddon (1812) 11 US 116, US SC.
Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1, HL.
United States of America v Iran (Case concerning United States diplomatic and consular staff in Tehran) [1980] ICJ Rep 3, ICJ.
Wei Ye v Jiang Zemin (2004) 383 F 3d 620, US Ct of Apps (7th Cir).
Wright v McQualter (1970) 17 FLR 305, Aust Fed Ct.
Appeal
The claimant, Mariam Aziz, brought proceedings against a number of defendants. The Sultan of Brunei, from whom the claimant had been divorced in February 2003 applied to the court in connection with a committal application by the claimant against one of the defendants, Aviva Amir, for directions preventing the publication of his name or of any matters which could lead to him being identified in connection with the proceedings. On 1 November 2005 Gray J refused the Sultan’s application and on 8 November made a suspended committal order. On 29 January 2007 Underhill J gave judgment for the claimant following trial. Underhill J redacted the judgment of Gray J of 8 November and his own judgment of 29 January to remove material of a confidential nature. The Sultan appealed from the decision of Gray J on 1 November 2005 and sought further redactions to the redacted judgments to
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remove any material which would lead to him being identified. The court requested the Attorney General to appoint an advocate to the court. The Foreign and Commonwealth Office was invited to intervene in the appeal or to make representations to the court on the issues and it made written submissions. The facts are set out in the judgment of Lawrence Collins LJ.
Sir Franklin Berman QC, Neil Hart and Tim Taylor (Solicitor Advocate) (instructed by and of SJ Berwin) for the Sultan.
Max Mallin (instructed by Davenport Lyons) for the claimant.
Mrs Amir appeared in person.
Sir Michael Wood (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) as advocate to the court.
11 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
LAWRENCE COLLINS LJ.
I INTRODUCTION
[1] This is an extraordinary case. The claimant, Mariam Aziz, met the tenth (and main) defendant, Mrs Aviva Amir, at a casino in 2003. Mrs Amir is a fortune teller born in Iraq, but now of Israeli nationality. The claimant came to regard Mrs Amir as a trusted friend and confidant. In early 2004 Mrs Amir purported to introduce the claimant over the telephone to a gentleman called Mr Aziz. The claimant and Mr Aziz never met, but over the following months they developed what appeared to be a close relationship conducted by telephone and text message, and involving exchanges of gifts. Between May and November 2004 the claimant made bank transfers totalling over £1 million which were intended for Mr Aziz, as well as payments of more than £1 million in cash via Mrs Amir’s driver. The claimant in the summer of 2004 recorded for Mr Aziz, and had delivered (as she believed) to him, two audio cassette tapes containing material of a confidential nature.
[2] Although Mr Aziz was originally named as first defendant it became the claimant’s case that Mr Aziz never existed and that the other party to most, if not all, of her telephone and text message exchanges was in fact Mrs Amir, using an assumed voice on the telephone, and that it was Mrs Amir who had the benefit of the £2 million and who had possession of the cassettes. Mr Aziz was named as first defendant but he has never been traced or served. After a trial in 2006, Underhill J found for the claimant against Mrs Amir, and ordered return of the payments and awarded damages in relation to the value of the gifts.
[3] The second unusual aspect of the case (and which gives rise to the present appeal) is that the claimant is the former wife of His Majesty the Sultan of Brunei (the Sultan), from whom she was divorced in February 2003.
[4] The status of the Sultan first arose in connection with a committal application by the claimant against Mrs Amir, which was heard before Gray J in November 2005. Early in the proceedings an order was made anonymising them, and interlocutory orders were made prohibiting Mrs Amir from disclosing the confidential information on the audio cassettes. The claimant alleged (inter alia) that, in breach of these orders, Mrs Amir, in the course of a meeting with the Sultan’s representative, Pengiran Yusof (Mr Yusof), had disclosed to him information which was likely to lead to the identification of the claimant as a party to the action, and had disclosed to him the nature of the tape recorded
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information; and also that what was said by Mrs Amir at her meeting with Mr Yusof amounted to improper pressure directed at the claimant to withdraw the proceedings, in particular by threatening to reveal confidential information said to have been supplied by the claimant about her married life with the Sultan.
[5] The Sultan, relying on his status as a foreign head of state, sought directions preventing the publication of his name, or the publication of any matters which could lead to him being identified, in connection with the proceedings.
[6] He relied on the application to a head of state by s 20 of the State Immunity Act 1978 (the 1978 Act) of art 29 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations 1961 (the Vienna Convention) (Vienna, 18 April 1961; TS 19 (1965); Cmnd 2565), which is given the force of law by the Diplomatic Privileges Act 1964 (the 1964 Act) and which, it is said, requires the United Kingdom (including its courts) to ‘treat him with due respect and . . . take all appropriate steps to prevent any attack on his . . . dignity’.
[7] On 1 November 2005, Gray J refused the relief which the Sultan sought, and following a hearing made a suspended committal order on 8 November 2005. Underhill J gave judgment in January 2007 for the claimant following trial, and committed Mrs Amir to prison following further contempts.
[8] On this appeal the Sultan seeks to reverse Gray J’s judgment of 1 November 2005 denying the relief sought as head of state, and seeks redactions to the judgments of Gray J on the committal application and to Underhill J’s judgments to remove any material which would lead to him being identified.
II THE PROCEEDINGS
[9] The proceedings were commenced in January 2005. Mr Aziz was named as first defendant. On 12 January 2005 Butterfield J made an order anonymising the name of the claimant and preventing publication of her identity.
[10] On 18 January 2005 Field J gave the claimant permission to join Mrs Amir to the proceedings and enjoined her from ‘communicating, disseminating, divulging or otherwise disclosing’ the audio cassette recordings, and ordered her to deliver them up to her solicitors. He also granted a worldwide freezing injunction.
[11] On 15 April 2005 Roderick Evans J made a further order which restrained Mr Aziz and Mrs Amir from communicating, disseminating, divulging or otherwise disclosing any of the audio cassettes or other recordings referred to in a letter received by the claimant on 10 April 2005. This letter was addressed to the claimant purportedly from Mr Aziz and contained threats to reveal matters of a personal nature about the claimant and the Sultan.
[12] Mrs Amir refused to deliver up the audio cassettes, and the claimant applied by notice dated 12 August 2005 for her committal.
[13] Shortly before the application to commit her for contempt was to be heard, Mrs Amir applied to discharge the anonymity order. On the claimant’s application and Mrs Amir’s application, Sir Franklin Berman QC appeared on behalf of the Sultan, on the basis that the Sultan had an interest in the preservation of the claimant’s anonymity and in ensuring the privacy of the proceedings.
[14] Sir Franklin Berman sought on behalf of the Sultan orders that the evidence on the committal application should be taken in private; that legal
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submissions be subject to an express prohibition on any reference to the name of the Sultan or any matter which could lead to his identification; and that directions be given preventing the publication of his name in connection with the proceedings and preventing the publication of any matters which could lead to his being identified in connection with the proceedings. Those orders were sought on the footing that there would be continued anonymity for the claimant herself.
[15] In his judgment, on 1 November 2005, Gray J said that he was not persuaded that it would be right to rule that the committal proceedings should in their entirety be private and permanently remain so. In particular he said that he did not think he would be justified in taking the exceptional course of directing, pursuant to CPR 39.2(4), that the identity of the claimant should not be disclosed, nor that information that she was the former wife of the Sultan should be withheld.
[16] The judge accepted that particular care needed to be taken to ensure that third parties to litigation were not inappropriately injured by the fact that proceedings took place in public. But he held that the Sultan did not have, independently of the claimant, a right as head of state to insist that no mention be made in public of the fact that the claimant was his former wife. As a practical matter he decided that the balance between privacy and publicity for the committal proceedings should be achieved by directing that the whole of the hearing would be in private, and that at the conclusion of the hearing he would be able to give a direction, pursuant to s 11 of the Contempt of Court Act 1981, as to those matters publication of which would be prohibited.
[17] The committal application was heard on 1–4 November 2005, and on 8 November 2005 Gray J delivered judgment, and held Mrs Amir in contempt. He decided in particular that Mrs Amir had breached the anonymity order in that, in the course of a meeting with Mr Yusof, she had disclosed to him information which was likely to lead to the identification of the claimant as a party to the action, and she had also disclosed to him the nature of the tape recorded information in breach of the order of Roderick Evans J. She had also attempted by threats and/or other forms of improper persuasion directed at the claimant to influence her to withdraw the proceedings and/or to discharge the freezing order and/or to discharge other injunctions made against Mrs Amir by threatening to disclose the information, and the disclosure of the Aziz letter, in conjunction with what was said by Mrs Amir at her meeting with Mr Yusof, amounted to further threats or other improper pressure directed at the claimant.
[18] Gray J committed Mrs Amir to prison for three months, suspended for twelve months. He also ordered Mrs Amir not to communicate in any way with the claimant except through her solicitors.
[19] Following the committal application an order was made, pursuant to s 11 of the 1981 Act, prohibiting publication of those parts of the judgment which disclosed information about other proceedings to which the claimant was a party; the contents of any of the audio cassettes; and information of a confidential nature contained in the letter sent on 10 April 2005.
[20] On 25 October 2006 the claimant issued an application for an order to activate Gray J’s suspended committal order on account of further breaches. That application was listed to be heard at the same time as the trial, but Underhill J subsequently ruled that it should be dealt with as a separate matter following judgment.
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[21] After judgment on the committal application had been given on 8 November an application was made on behalf of the Sultan for Gray J to reconsider his judgment of 1 November 2005 on the basis that he had made an error when he referred to the Sultan’s application as having been brought in a capacity distinct from his sovereign capacity. He refused that application, and indicated that the proper course to be taken on behalf of the Sultan was to pursue the issue by way of an appeal to the Court of Appeal. On 29 November 2005 Gray J granted permission to appeal and ordered that no publicity should be given to the committal proceedings pending the outcome of the appeal.
[22] The trial of the action came on for hearing before Underhill J on 27 November 2006. On the third day of the trial he directed that the hearing be in private and that consideration of the anonymity issue should be deferred until closing submissions. This was on the basis that if the proceedings were in open court the confidentiality of the contents of the tapes and of the other confidential matters disclosed, or allegedly disclosed, by the claimant to Mr Aziz was liable to be lost. For the same reason he provided a redacted version of his judgment in favour of the claimant, which was given on 29 January 2007.
[23] Underhill J also held the application for committal of Mrs Amir (on which he gave judgment on 1 February 2007) in private in accordance with RSC Order 52, r 6(1)(d). That judgment was given in private, but he gave a short summary in open court at the conclusion of the full judgment. He activated the three month term of imprisonment on Mrs Amir imposed by Gray J on 8 November 2005 for contempt of court, but suspended on condition that she committed no further contempts.
[24] The judgments of Gray J of 8 November 2005 and of Underhill J dated 29 January 2007 were redacted by Underhill J to remove material of a confidential nature. They were not redacted in any other way.
[25] On this appeal the Sultan seeks orders the effect of which would be that the judgments given in these proceedings by Gray and Underhill JJ be redacted to remove any references which could lead to him being identified and that the publication of any matters which could lead to him being identified in connection with the proceedings would be prohibited; in particular the Sultan seeks the continued anonymisation of the claimant’s name, the names of his personal representative in London, and the claimant’s niece, housekeeper and bodyguards. Most of them gave oral or written evidence, which went in particular to whether Mrs Amir had been guilty of contempt in relation to incidents in which she had spoken to them on the telephone or in person.
[26] This appeal first came on for hearing on 18 December 2006, when the court ordered that it should be adjourned so as to enable the court to request the Attorney General to appoint an advocate to the court to make written and oral submissions, and to invite the Foreign and Commonwealth Office to intervene in the appeal or to make representations to the court on the issues arising on the appeal.
[27] In particular the assistance of an advocate to the court was requested on the following matters: (a) whether art 29 of the Vienna Convention (as applied by the 1964 Act and s 20 of the 1978 Act) enured for the protection of a serving foreign head of state ratione personae, ie without regard to whether the affected interest touches his personal life or his public functions; (b) what modifications (if any) under s 20 of the 1978 Act were necessary or appropriate in the
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application of the terms of art 29 to a serving head of state, as opposed to a serving ambassador; (c) what should be understood, in the terms of art 29, by an ‘attack’ on the head of state’s ‘dignity’; (d) what steps were open to an English court to take for the protection of a third party who is not a head of state but who is or may be affected by offensive materials, and in what circumstances may it be open to and appropriate for the court to take such steps, for example by prohibiting publication of the name of the third party in connection with the proceedings or of any other matters which could lead to his being identified in connection with the proceedings; (e) what steps might be thought to be appropriate to be taken to ‘prevent’ an attack on the dignity of a head of state; (f) whether art 29 imposed any direct obligation on an English court hearing judicial proceedings to which a head of state was not a party, but in the course of which one of the parties adduced or might adduce offensive material touching on the personal life of the head of state; (g) whether it was a matter of discretion or of obligation for the court to give effect to art 29 in such a case; (h) what measures were appropriate for an English court to take in the light of art 29 and of the normal rule that proceedings in the English courts take place in public, and of CPR 39.2 and the reference to a public hearing in art 6 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) (the ECHR).
[28] This appeal was heard in private, because to have heard it in public would have defeated the object of the Sultan’s appeal.
[29] On this appeal this court has had the great benefit of argument from two former legal advisers to the Foreign and Commonwealth Office, Sir Franklin Berman on behalf of the Sultan, and Sir Michael Wood as advocate to the court (who, in particular, drew attention to such points as might properly be made on behalf of Mrs Amir in opposition to the appeal), as well as a written submission from the Foreign and Commonwealth Office. The court also had the assistance of Mr Max Mallin, counsel for the claimant, as regards the procedural history, and Mrs Amir also made submissions through an interpreter, but these were not directed to the matters in issue on the appeal.
III THE ARGUMENTS
A Submissions on behalf of the Sultan
[30] Sir Franklin Berman argued that Gray J was wrong to refuse the order sought on the ground that the Sultan was making the application in his personal capacity. In its application to a head of state (through s 20 of the 1978 Act) art 29 protects the person of the head of state in whatever capacity he acts.
[31] There is a very wide variation between the duties and functions conferred on the head of state by the constitutional dispensations of different states, ranging from virtual dictatorships, through executive presidencies and constitutional monarchies, to the largely or entirely ceremonial; but even a head of state who was a mere ceremonial figurehead with no executive duties of any kind would be entitled to claim the same immunities, privileges and other courtesies as any other head of state.
[32] Attacks on dignity are not linked or limited to physical assault, or to acts which impede the head of state in the carrying out of his functions. The attack on the dignity of the Sultan consists simply in the attempt to gain publicity, through the process of the court, for embarrassing and scurrilous material. The
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sting can be drawn from that material by protecting the Sultan’s identity from disclosure.
[33] Article 29 refers to ‘all appropriate steps’, which the receiving state ‘shall take’. This is the language of obligation, not discretion; and while the obligation allows the state to select the most suitable means in all the circumstances of the case, the test of their ‘appropriateness’ is not their convenience to the receiving state but their effectiveness in aiming at the stated result. The duty of the court is a duty to prevent Mrs Amir from being able to carry out such an affront through the process of the court—provided that the means necessary to that end would be an ‘appropriate step’.
[34] Particular weight should be given to the fact that the party seeking the restriction may not be the claimant—because, unlike the claimant, that party did not choose to bring the proceedings—and even more weight if the party seeking the restriction is a third party, ie if it is not the defendant either: R v Legal Aid Board, ex p Kaim Todner (a firm) [1998] 3 All ER 541, [1999] QB 966.
[35] Even if the Sultan were a private individual with no official status, it would be appropriate for the court to take steps to protect his identity by ordering the relief sought. He is neither the claimant nor the defendant, nor even a witness in the proceedings; he did not choose to bring the proceedings, and yet the allegations in them are uniquely embarrassing to him. There is room for the inference that his name was drawn into the transactions that led to the underlying litigation by Mrs Amir with the deliberate intention of using that unique embarrassment as a means of bringing pressure to bear on the claimant in that litigation, a point which relates directly to the responsibilities falling to the court under art 29.
[36] It cannot properly be expected of the Sultan that he should descend into the arena of the domestic court in order to defend his reputation. That would be at odds with the immunity which a head of state enjoys from the jurisdiction of domestic courts, which extends to immunity from being indirectly impleaded. There would be no way in which, even hypothetically, the Sultan could appear for the sole purpose of correcting false imputations, since any such appearance would amount to a waiver of his immunity.
[37] The directions sought would not impinge on the ability of either party to advance its case before the court, or on the ability of the court to do justice between the parties. The Sultan has not sought to interfere in any way with the conduct of Mrs Amir’s case, or to prevent her or her representatives advancing whatever arguments they think best in her defence against the claimant’s actions; the issue is simply that of wider publicity outside the court. Such interest as Mrs Amir may lay claim to, to gain wider currency for scurrilous allegations, is not an interest entitled to respect in circumstances in which the allegations are neither matters before the court nor ones on which the court can or will pronounce.
[38] There is nothing in the Human Rights Act 1998, or the jurisprudence of the European Court of Human Rights which affects this conclusion. The State of Brunei is not party to the ECHR, and it cannot affect third party states: Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (Vienna, 23 May 1969; TS 58 (1980); Cmnd 7964), arts 34, 35 and 36. The general public interest in the administration of justice (even within the specific human rights regime created by the ECHR) does not stand in the way of the implementation by states of their obligations towards one another under international law: Al-Adsani v UK (2001) 12 BHRC 88;
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Holland v Lampen-Wolfe [2000] 3 All ER 833 at 847–848, [2000] 1 WLR 1573 at 1588. It is therefore not open to the court to balance the asserted right of a private litigant against an international obligation owed by the United Kingdom to a foreign state and its head of state.
B Submissions of the advocate to the court
[39] Sir Michael Wood accepts the Sultan’s contention that art 29 applies, by virtue of s 20 of the 1978 Act, to a serving foreign head of state ratione personae, without distinction between his personal or public acts. To the extent that Gray J based his decision on a distinction between a head of state in his public and his private capacity, so as to remove the private sphere from the scope of s 20, he misdirected himself.
[40] In the second half of the third sentence of art 29 (‘take all appropriate steps to prevent any attack on his person, freedom and dignity’) ‘attack’ primarily or principally imports a physical act that is aimed at infringing the dignity of the head of state. In the alternative, it means an act, whether physical or not, that is immediate and direct and that has as its purpose the infringement of the dignity of the head of state. An attack on the ‘dignity’ of a head of state would only occur if the action concerned was deliberately offensive and serious enough to impede the exercise of the head of state’s functions.
[41] The obligation ‘to take all appropriate steps’ to ensure leaves a wide discretion to the court. The negotiating history shows that the inclusion of the word ‘appropriate’ was deliberate, and intended to qualify the duty on the state.
[42] Disclosure in the judgments of the material in question would not amount to either a failure by the court to treat the Sultan with due respect or to an attack on his dignity.
[43] In the alternative, even if disclosure of the material in question could amount to an attack on the dignity of a head of state, redaction of the judgments in the way sought by the Sultan would not be an appropriate step. The protection afforded by the English courts to a person who is not a head of state is sufficient to fulfil the duty under international law to take all appropriate steps to prevent an attack on the dignity of a head of state that may be caused by disclosures in court proceedings.
[44] English law already strikes a balance between the publicity of judicial proceedings and the protection of certain interests of individuals. The ordinary rules are sufficient to meet the requirements of international law. To introduce and apply special measures would probably violate art 6(1) of the ECHR: Colombani v France [2002] ECHR 51279/99.
[45] There is no suggestion that denying the Sultan the privacy he seeks will have any impact on justice being done in the substantive proceedings. Potential embarrassment is not sufficient. That a person’s identity has no relevance to the substantive issues to be determined in the case, and that therefore the administration of justice will not be prejudiced, does not mean that anonymity should be granted.
C Submissions of the Foreign and Commonwealth Office
[46] The submissions of the Foreign and Commonwealth Office were that the English court was under a duty to comply with the obligations in art 29; the use of the term ‘appropriate’ allowed the court a margin of appreciation; art 29 applied to a foreign head of state ratione personae, without any distinction
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between his or her personal or public acts; an attack on ‘dignity’ must have a wider application than a purely physical attack; an attack on the dignity of a head of state can occur even when he or she is not present in the state where the acts prejudicial to his or her dignity have occurred, and they include verbal abuse and the publication of insulting material; there was a proper analogy between the dignity of a diplomatic mission, as referred to in art 22, and the dignity of an individual under art 29, but in agreement with Sir Franklin Berman the concept may not be identical in its application in both cases; the obligation to treat a head of mission (and by extension a head of state) with due respect, and take all appropriate steps to prevent attacks on his dignity, derived as much from the ‘representative character’ theory as from considerations of strict functional necessity.
[47] An ‘attack’ on the ‘dignity’ of a foreign head of state must entail some element of deliberately offensive or insulting words or behaviour, and mere protest, no matter how noisy, or criticism, no matter how robust, would not appear to be sufficient.
[48] Where an ‘attack’ is threatened in the course of litigation, the court as the appropriate organ of the state has a wide margin of appreciation determining what steps may be appropriate in preventing it and should assess the matter in the light of all the circumstances of the case, and should, in particular, strike a balance between its duty to prevent such attacks and the rights of the parties in litigation.
IV CONCLUSIONS
The application of s 20 of the 1978 Act
[49] Section 14(1)(a) of the 1978 Act provides that references to a state in Pt I of the Act include references to the sovereign or other head of that state ‘in his public capacity’. Section 20 provides:
‘(1) Subject to the provisions of this section and to any necessary modifications, the Diplomatic Privileges Act 1964 shall apply to—(a) a sovereign or other head of State . . . as it applies to the head of a diplomatic mission . . .
(5) This section applies to the sovereign or other head of any State on which immunities and privileges are conferred by Part I of this Act and is without prejudice to the application of that Part to any such sovereign or head of State in his public capacity.’
[50] In the course of the proceedings in R v Bow Street Metropolitan Stipendiary Magistrate, ex p Pinochet Ugarte (No 3) (Amnesty International intervening) [1999] 2 All ER 97, [2000] 1 AC 147 it emerged that what became s 20 originally related to a sovereign or head of state ‘who is in the United Kingdom at the invitation or with the consent of the Government of the United Kingdom’: [1999] 2 All ER 97 at 112, [2000] 1 AC 147 at 203. But those words were deleted, and the present form of s 20 was introduced, according to the mover of the clause, to ensure that heads of state would be treated like heads of diplomatic missions ‘irrespective of presence in the United Kingdom’.
[51] Consequently it was accepted by all of the members of the House (except Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers, [1999] 2 All ER 97 at 190–191, [2000]
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1 AC 147 at 291-292, and perhaps Lord Browne-Wilkinson, [1999] 2 All ER 97 at 112, [2000] 1 AC 147 at 203) that s 20 was not designed merely to equate visiting heads of state with diplomats. But it is clear from the speeches that s 20 was not intended to confer on heads of state any privileges or immunities beyond those conferred by customary international law: see Lord Browne-Wilkinson, [1999] 2 All ER 97 at 112, [2000] 1 AC 147 at 203; Lord Hope of Craighead, [1999] 2 All ER 97 at 145, [2000] 1 AC 147 at 240.
Article 29 of the Vienna Convention
[52] Section 20 of the 1978 Act applies the 1964 Act to heads of state. Section 2(1) of the 1964 Act provides that the articles of the Vienna Convention set out in Sch 1 to the 1964 Act are to have the force of law in the United Kingdom. Among those articles is art 29:
‘The person of a diplomatic agent shall be inviolable. He shall not be liable to any form of arrest or detention. The receiving State shall treat him with due respect and shall take all appropriate steps to prevent any attack on his person, freedom or dignity.’
[53] The International Law Commission’s draft articles, which were the basic text before the conference which drew up the Vienna Convention, referred to ‘all reasonable steps’. At the conference a proposal simply to delete the word ‘reasonable’ was adopted, whereupon the British delegate explained that removal of the word ‘reasonable’ would give the article unlimited scope, and impose an impossible task on receiving states, and the conference thereupon decided to introduce the word ‘appropriate’: Denza Diplomatic Law (2nd edn, 1998) p 212. Article 1 of the Institute of International Law Resolution on Immunities from Jurisdiction and Execution of Heads of State and of Government in International Law Annuaire (2000–2001) vol 69, p 743, which largely reflects the language of art 29 of the Vienna Convention, but is limited to cases where the head of state is in the territory of another state, refers to ‘all reasonable steps’ to be taken to prevent any infringement of his or her person, liberty or dignity.
[54] Whether the obligation is to take ‘appropriate steps’ or ‘reasonable steps’ may not matter. What matters is that the obligation is not an absolute one to prevent an attack on the dignity of a head of state.
Personal immunity
[55] The first question which arises on this appeal is whether Gray J was wrong in deciding that the protection afforded by art 29 (if it applies) was not available to a head of state in his personal capacity. Sir Franklin Berman and Sir Michael Wood were in agreement that he was wrong, and I agree with their submissions.
[56] Although the existence and scope of the relevant duty is in issue, and for reasons given below is not a rule of immunity, I accept that it enures to the head of state in his personal capacity. A head of state is entitled to immunity ratione personae. In 1885 the Sultan of Johore came to England, and according to the plaintiff, Miss Mighell, took the name Albert Baker and promised to marry her. It was held that the Sultan was entitled to immunity even though up to the time of suit ‘he has perfectly concealed the fact that he is a sovereign, and has acted as a private individual’: Mighell v Sultan of Johore [1894] 1 QB 149 at 159,
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per Lord Esher MR. More than 100 years later, art 3.2 of the United Nations Convention on Jurisdictional Immunities of States and Their Property 2004 (A/RES/59/38) provided: ‘The present Convention is without prejudice to privileges and immunities accorded under international law to heads of state ratione personae.’
[57] I have no doubt that the obligations of the United Kingdom under art 29 as applied to heads of state by s 20 or by customary international law apply equally to the foreign head of state in his personal capacity as they apply in his public capacity. This is consistent with Harb v King Fahd Bin Abdul Aziz [2005] EWCA Civ 632, [2005] 2 FCR 342, in which it was assumed that art 29 was capable of applying (through s 20) in support of an application that a claim to immunity in divorce proceedings against the King of Saudi Arabia be heard in private.
[58] There was some discussion at the hearing of the question whether the privileges and immunities of a head of state are functional. First, if functional immunity connotes that the privilege or immunity is limited to official acts of the head of state, then I am satisfied that it is not a functional immunity.
[59] Secondly, the concept of functional immunity has also been used to connote that art 29 applies where the interference is with the carrying out of the functions of the embassy. It was used in this sense in the context of diplomats and diplomatic missions in two partial awards of the Eritrea Ethiopia Claims Commission dated 19 December 2005, to which the court was referred: Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia v State of Eritrea (19 December 2005, unreported) (Eritrea Ethiopia Claims Commission, Partial Award, Ethiopia’s Claim 8); Democratic Republic of the Congo v Uganda (Armed activities on the territory of the Congo) [2005] ICG Rep 168 (Eritrea Ethiopia Claims Commission, Partial Award, Eritea’s Claim 20). In Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia v State of Eritrea, the Claims Commission considered Ethiopia’s claim that Eritrea was liable for injuries sustained by Ethiopia’s diplomatic mission and personnel in Eritrea as a result of Eritrea’s violation of diplomatic law. The Claims Commission held that:
‘26. A critical standard for the Commission in applying international diplomatic law must be the impact of the events complained about on the functioning of the diplomatic mission. Particularly in light of the limited resources and time allocated to this Commission and the serious claims of international humanitarian law violations presented by the Parties, and remaining attentive to the principle of reciprocity, the Commission again is constrained to look for serious violations impeding the effective functioning of the diplomatic mission . . .
35. Similarly, the Commission dismisses the related claim that the Respondent violated Article 29 of the Vienna Convention . . . by failing to protect the Chargé from students allegedly throwing rocks at his car . . . The Claimant failed to prove that this relatively minor incident chilled the Chargé’s performance of his functions.’
[60] Thirdly, the concept of functional immunity may connote that the immunity has a functional basis. Functional immunity in this sense is reflected in the preamble to the Vienna Convention, which states: ‘the purpose of such privileges and immunities is not to benefit individuals but to ensure the efficient
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performance of the functions of diplomatic missions as representing States’. It was used in this sense, in relation to the privileges and immunities of heads of state in the Institute of International Law Resolution on Immunities from Jurisdiction and Execution of Heads of State and of Government in International Law, Annuaire (2000–2001) vol 69, p 743. The third preamble to the resolution reads:
‘Affirming that special treatment is to be given to a Head of State or a Head of Government, as a representative of that State and not in his or her personal interest, because this is necessary for the exercise of his or her functions and the fulfilment of his or her responsibilities in an independent and effective manner, in the well-conceived interest of both the State or the Government of which he or she is the Head and the international community as a whole.’
[61] Sir Michael Wood suggested that, applied to a head of state, the relevant offensive conduct must interfere with performance of the head of state’s functions in the second sense. I am satisfied that it is not a functional immunity in the sense that it can only be invoked where in the particular case the head of state would be prevented from carrying out his or her functions. That would be an inappropriate test in the case of a serving head of state. In my judgment it is functional in the third sense, namely that it has a function in international relations to protect the ability of the head of state to carry out his functions and to promote international co-operation.
Content of the obligation and the concept of ‘dignity’
[62] Sir Michael Wood and Sir Franklin Berman are agreed that authority on the content and scope of the obligation is very scant.
[63] The emphasis on the dignity of a foreign sovereign as the basis for sovereign immunity, and on the dignity of an ambassador for the purposes of diplomatic immunity, goes back at least to Vattel Law of Nations in the eighteenth century.
[64] In the famous decision in 1812 of the United States Supreme Court on sovereign immunity, Schooner Exchange v McFaddon (1812) 11 US 116 at 137, Marshall CJ said that a foreign sovereign was ‘bound by obligations of the highest character not to degrade the dignity of his nation, by placing himself or its sovereign rights within the jurisdiction of another’.
[65] In The Parlement Belge (1880) 5 PD 197 at 206, [1874–80] All ER Rep 104 at 108, Brett LJ said that the reason for immunity was ‘the character of the sovereign authority, its high dignity, whereby it is not subject to any superior authority of any kind’ and he referred ((1880) 5 PD 197 at 206–207, [1874–80] All ER Rep 104 at 109) to Vattel’s statement:
‘S’il est venu en voyageur, sa dignité seule, et ce qui est dû à la nation qu’il représente et qu’il gouverne, le met à couvert de toute insulte, lui assure des respects et toute sorte d’égards, et l’exempte de toute jurisdiction.’
Brett LJ went on to say that the exercise of jurisdiction ‘would be incompatible with his regal dignity that is to say, with his absolute independence of every superior authority’ ((1880) 5 PD 197 at 207, [1874–80] All ER Rep 104 at 109); and
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that the same immunity must be granted by each state to similar property of all other states, because ‘[t]he dignity and independence of each state require this reciprocity’ ((1880) 5 PD 197 at 210, [1874–80] All ER Rep 104 at 111). See also eg Novello v Toogood (1823) 1 B & C 554 at 564, 107 ER 204 at 208; Compania Naviera Vascongada v Steamship Cristina [1938] 1 All ER 719 at 725–726, [1938] AC 485 at 498; I Congreso del Partido [1981] 2 All ER 1064 at 1070, [1983] 1 AC 244 at 262. The formulation in art 29 itself can be traced back to art 17 of the 1932 Harvard Draft on Diplomatic Privileges and Immunities (1932) 26 AJIL Supp 90 which provided: ‘A receiving state shall protect a member of a mission and the members of his family from any interference with their security, peace, or dignity.’
[66] According to the current edition of Oppenheim’s International Law (9th edn, 1992) vol 1, pp 379–380 (para 115):
‘Consequences of the dignity of states Traditional international law has ascribed certain legal consequences to the dignity of states as inherent in their international personality. These are chiefly the right to demand that their Heads of State shall not be libelled and slandered; that their Heads of State . . . shall be granted special treatment when abroad, and that at home and abroad in the official intercourse with representatives of foreign states they shall be granted certain titles . . . But while a government of a state, its organs, and its servants are bound in this matter by duties of respect and restraint, it is doubtful whether, apart from obligations in such matters as the protection of diplomatic and consular property, a state is bound to prevent its subjects from committing acts which violate the dignity of foreign states, and to punish them for acts of that kind which it was unable to prevent. There is, of course, nothing to prevent a state from enacting legislation calculated to ensure respect for the dignity of other states, and many have done so.
Mere criticism of policy, judgment concerning the past attitude of states and their rulers, or utterances of moral indignation condemning immoral acts of foreign governments and their Heads of State, need neither be suppressed nor punished. The position is different when the persons in question are in governmental service or otherwise associated with the government of the country.’
[67] The previous edition (8th edn, 1955) edited by Sir Hersch Lauterpacht, also contained this passage (p 282 (para 120)), which in substance dates from the first edition in 1905:
‘The majority of text-book writers maintain that there is a fundamental right of reputation attaching to every State. Such a right, however, does not exist, because no duty corresponding to it can be traced within the Law of Nations. Indeed, the reputation of a State depends just as much upon behaviour as that of every citizen within its boundaries. A State which has a corrupt Government and behaves unfairly and perfidiously in its intercourse with other States will be looked down upon and despised, whereas a State which has an upright Government and behaves fairly and justly in its international dealings will be highly esteemed.’
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[68] The first edition of Oppenheim included the following passage (which was in substance repeated in later editions by McNair and Lauterpacht, but omitted by Sir Hersch Lauterpacht in the seventh edition in 1948):
‘No law can give a good name and reputation to a rogue, and the Law of Nations does not and cannot give a right to reputation and good name to such a State as has not acquired them through its attitude. There are some States—nomina sunt odiosa!—which indeed justly enjoy a bad reputation.’
[69] Sir Arthur Watts QC ‘Legal Position in International Law of Heads of States, Heads of Governments and Foreign Ministers’ (1994) 247 Recueil des Cours pp 35–48, discusses ‘dignity’ in relation to foreign heads of state.
[70] Sir Arthur makes the following points (pp 41–45): (a) dignity is ‘an elusive notion, although it is still a convenient label’; (b) the dignity of a head of state may be violated whether or not he is present in the state where the acts prejudicial to his dignity have occurred, and particularly with the publication of offensive material, it would usually be the case that the head of state is not present when publication occurs; (c) the respect owed to the dignity of a head of state is respect for the office of head of state, rather than the personal dignity of the individual for the time being holding the office; (d) a state is under a duty in international law to refrain from offensive conduct against the head of another friendly state, and accordingly if an official representative of a state makes offensive remarks about the head of another state, the latter is entitled to complain and request appropriate redress.
[71] But he goes on to say that it is uncertain to what extent international law imposes a positive obligation on states to prevent offensive conduct by private individuals directed against foreign heads of state, or requires them to punish such conduct if it nevertheless occurs; state practice is limited, but states periodically complain to other states about what they perceive to be undignified and offensive treatment of their heads of state, and the states to which complaint is made do not seem to deny in principle the right to complain, and have sometimes taken action against those who have perpetrated the offensive conduct and have apologised to the offended state; but it is not always clear that the apology is anything more than a diplomatic courtesy rather than any recognition of legal fault; states called upon to suppress and punish statements which are said to be defamatory of foreign heads of state may have to reconcile such a request with their traditions of, and constitutional guarantees of, freedom of speech, and ‘[t]he State where the offensive conduct occurs has a considerable margin of appreciation as to the kind of conduct which is sufficiently offensive as to call for punitive action against the offender’ (p 44). He concludes (at p 45):
‘During the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, and in the early years of [the twentieth] century, States tended to treat particularly severely the publication of offensive material about foreign Heads of State. In more modern times this tendency is much less marked, and States have been less willing to take action against the publication of material which foreign Heads of State perceive to be offensive to them.’
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[72] This is borne out by the state practice in relation to heads of state and heads of government collected in Parry Digest of International Law (1965) vol 7, pp 84–91 and in Whiteman Digest of International Law (1965) vol 5, pp 154–181. From the early nineteenth century the law officers consistently advised that the remedy for the foreign sovereign (or ambassador) lay in the ordinary law of the land. When the Spanish Ambassador complained in 1815 about newspaper reports of insults to the King of Spain in the House of Commons, the law officers said that any failure to act did not—
‘originate in any disinclination in any persons forming part of His Majesty’s Government . . . to render prompt and ample justice to the King of Spain, but is imposed upon them by difficulties growing out of our free form of Government over which as far as regards the administration of our Courts of Justice the executive Government has not the least power or control.’ (Parry, p 86–87.)
When in 1850 Bavaria asked Britain to confirm that it would on the basis of reciprocity introduce a law against libelling a foreign sovereign the law officers advised:
‘A Libel published in England of or concerning a Foreign Sovereign or the Chief of a Foreign Sovereign State, would not be treated and punished by the English law differently from one published of or concerning any private person.’ (Parry, p 89.)
[73] State practice makes it clear that when a state complains about offence given to its head of state or its head of government by private parties the state against which complaint is made regularly refers the complainant state to the remedies available in its courts, but subject to its constitutional guarantees of free speech. So when the German government complained to the US State Department in 1934 about a proposed mock trial of Hitler in Madison Square Garden, the State Department reminded the German Ambassador of the constitutional guarantee of freedom of expression: Whiteman, p 161.
[74] In Harb v King Fahd Bin Abdul Aziz [2005] EWCA Civ 632, [2005] 2 FCR 342 Mrs Harb issued proceedings against His Majesty King Fahd Bin Abdul Aziz for maintenance under the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973. The King challenged the jurisdiction of the court on the ground of state immunity. Dame Elizabeth Butler-Sloss P acceded to an application that the challenge should be heard in private, and subsequently upheld the claim to immunity, and ordered that her judgment on the matter should neither be published nor referred to the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia. The question for the Court of Appeal was whether the appeal from her judgment should be heard in open court. Counsel for the King, relying on art 29 as applied to heads of state by s 20 of the 1978 Act, argued that the Court of Appeal was a limb of the United Kingdom, and that were the Court of Appeal to sit in public, the court would be failing in its duty to prevent an attack on the King’s dignity. The King also sought an anonymity order under CPR 39.2(4).
[75] The argument was rejected. Thorpe LJ held that a claim to state immunity was a public claim which demanded open litigation. There was no
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legitimate ground for imposing reporting restrictions which would thinly disguise the identity of the King. The identity of the sovereign was relevant to any public debate of the issues raised by the plea of immunity. Wall LJ said (at [40]):
‘In my judgment, art 29 is not breached either by the court hearing the issue relating to sovereign immunity in open court, or by this court hearing an appeal in public against the President’s decision to hear the sovereign immunity issue in private. The prevention of any attack on the [King’s] person, freedom or dignity seems to me a concept which goes to the substance of the [King’s] argument that he is entitled to immunity from suit because enforced engagement in litigation relating to his private life is an attack on his dignity: it does not seem to me an argument which—certainly on the facts of this case—can properly be raised to protect the [King] from publicity arising from the deployment of his plea of sovereign immunity in open court.’
[76] The reference in this decision to ‘dignity’ does no more than confirm that the notion of dignity underlies immunity, but it is not authority for the proposition that respect for dignity requires confidentiality of court proceedings.
[77] In Wei Ye v Jiang Zemin (2004) 383 F 3d 620 the plaintiffs were practitioners of Falun Gong, and sued Jiang Zemin (the President of China at the time of the commencement of proceedings) and the Falun Gong Control Office, alleging (inter alia) genocide and torture. Service was purportedly effected on the President (both in his personal capacity and on behalf of the control office) on a visit to the United States. It was held that the President was immune from suit; and that service on the control office through service on the President was invalid. The court deferred to the view of the United States Government that permitting service on heads of state is often viewed by foreign governments and their heads of state as an affront to the dignity both of the leader and the state; and that such attacks on the dignity of a visiting head of state could easily frustrate the US President’s ability to reach the diplomatic objectives of the United States. It is easy to understand why the US State Department took the view that a foreign head of state while in the United States could not be served with process.
[78] I do not find much assistance in the material which touches on the duty to take appropriate steps to prevent an attack on the dignity of diplomats or diplomatic premises. They are concerned with the right of the receiving state under its own law to impose restrictions on its citizens to demonstrate outside embassy premises. They do not throw any light on the content of the duty to prevent an attack on the dignity of diplomats or diplomatic premises, and consequently do not assist in relation to the content of the duty (if any) to do the same in relation to a head of state. They are concerned with art 29 (inviolability of the person of diplomats) and also with art 22 on the inviolability of diplomatic premises, which provides:
‘1. The premises of the mission shall be inviolable. The agents of the receiving State may not enter them, except with the consent of the head of the mission.
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2. The receiving State is under a special duty to take all appropriate steps to protect the premises of the mission against any intrusion or damage and to prevent any disturbance of the peace of the mission or impairment of its dignity.’
[79] The decision of the Australian Federal Court in Minister for Foreign Affairs and Trade v Magno (1992) 112 ALR 529 concerned the validity of regulations enacted to enable the minister to certify that in his opinion the removal of prescribed objects from prescribed land was an appropriate step within the meaning of arts 22 and 29 of the Vienna Convention. Armed with such a certificate, the police could remove the objects.
[80] The regulations had been made to enable the removal of 124 white crosses planted outside the Indonesian Embassy in Australia in protest against a massacre perpetrated by Indonesian troops in East Timor. The question was whether the regulations were within the power under the Australian Diplomatic Privileges and Immunities Act 1967 to make regulations prescribing matters required or permitted by the Act or necessary or convenient to be prescribed for carrying out or giving effect to the Act. By a majority, the Federal Court upheld the validity of the regulations.
[81] French J said that the notion of the ‘dignity’ of the mission in arts 22 and 29 of the Vienna Convention would extend to enjoin some classes of ‘mere insult,’ but he accepted that the content of the ‘dignity interest’ divorced from security considerations was more contentious: (1992) 112 ALR 529 at 551 and 554. After referring (at 555), to offensive or insulting behaviour in the vicinity of and directed to the mission, or the burning of the flag of the sending state, or the mock execution of its leader in effigy in the immediate vicinity of the mission, he went on:
‘But subject to protection against those classes of conduct, the sending State takes the receiving State as it finds it. If it finds it with a well established tradition of free expression, including public comment on matters of domestic and international politics, it cannot invoke either art 22(2) or art 29 against manifestations of that tradition.’
[82] Gummow J referred to Wright v McQualter (1970) 17 FLR 305 at 321–322, where Kerr J had said:
‘If there were in the last analysis no more in this case than a quite peaceful gathering on the lawn [in front of the premises of the United States Embassy] of persons shouting slogans and carrying placards of the kind in question here, with no risk of intrusion or damage to the premises, I would have some doubt whether there was any basis for believing that such action in such a place could reasonably amount to impairing the dignity of the mission, which is, after all, a political body. As such it must presumably accommodate itself to the existence of strong disagreement with some of the policies of its government and to the direct and forceful verbal expression of such disapproval. I appreciate that something may turn on the closeness of those concerned to the premises and on the extravagance
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or insulting nature of the language used, but, for myself, I would like to keep this whole subject open until, if ever, it arises for decision.’
[83] In the wake of the shooting of WPC Fletcher from the Libyan People’s Bureau in St James’ Square in 1984, the House of Commons Foreign Affairs Committee considered the duty to protect mission premises in their report on the abuse of diplomatic immunities and privileges. The Foreign Affairs Committee also noted that in the case of R v Roques (1 August 1984, unreported), the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate had refused to uphold the right of the police to move demonstrators from the pavement immediately outside the South African Embassy, taking the view that the dignity of mission premises was impaired only if there was abusive or insulting behaviour or actual violence. The committee considered that to impose higher standards of protection would impinge on British political freedoms: Denza Diplomatic Law (2nd edn, 1998) pp 144–145. The Foreign Office response was: (a) the duty of the United Kingdom to protect the peace of diplomatic missions could not be interpreted so widely that no demonstrations were allowed outside them: (b) the essential requirements were that the work of the mission should not be disrupted, that mission staff were not put in fear, and that there was free access for staff and visitors. It said: ‘how to preserve the peace and dignity of a mission is essentially a matter of sensible policing practice rather than a question of law’: Diplomatic Immunities and Privileges (1985) (Cmnd 9497) p 17 (para 39(e)).
[84] The decision of the United States Supreme Court in Boos v Barry (1988) 485 US 312 concerned the constitutionality of a provision in the District of Columbia Code which prohibited the display of any sign within 500 feet of a foreign embassy if the sign tended to bring the foreign government into public odium or disrepute, and also prohibited any congregation of three or more persons within 500 feet of a foreign embassy. The law was said by the mayor of Washington DC and his officials, and by the United States government as intervener, to be justified (among other reasons) on the basis of the obligation in art 22(2) of the Vienna Convention to take appropriate steps to prevent the impairment of the dignity of a foreign mission. The Supreme Court upheld the prohibition on congregation, because it was crafted to prevent disruption of normal embassy activities. But the law was found by the Supreme Court to be contrary to the free speech guarantee of the First Amendment to the extent that it prohibited displays of banners containing critical statements.
[85] The fact that what was described as the ‘dignity interest’ in art 22 of the Vienna Convention was recognised in international law did not make it ‘compelling’ for the purposes of the First Amendment. Justice Sandra Day O’Connor, delivering the opinion of the court, said (at 324):
‘Thus, the fact that an interest is recognized in international law does not automatically render that interest “compelling” for purposes of First Amendment analysis. We need not decide today whether, or to what extent, the dictates of international law could ever require that First Amendment analysis be adjusted to accommodate the interests of foreign officials. Even if we assume that international law recognizes a dignity interest and that it should be considered sufficiently “compelling” to
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support a content-based restriction on speech, we conclude that [the law relating to display of signs] is not narrowly tailored to serve that interest.’
[86] What this practice indicates is that in the context of diplomatic immunity mere speech (except perhaps of an extreme kind), as distinct from conduct which impedes the conduct of the activities of a mission, is not conduct which the receiving state is obliged to take steps to prevent, or which it is constitutionally entitled to prevent.
[87] This is consistent with the fact that the obligations in arts 22 and 29 are mainly concerned with protection against physical attack or obstruction. Thus according to Denza (a noted authority), at p 212 the third sentence of art 29 provides for ‘the positive duty to treat the diplomatic agent with due respect and to protect him from physical interference by others with his person, freedom or dignity.' This is because the requirement of the physical protection of diplomats and diplomatic premises is a fundamental requisite for the conduct of diplomatic relations: see United States of America v Iran (Case concerning United States diplomatic and consular staff in Tehran) [1980] ICJ Rep 3 at 38; and also Democratic Republic of the Congo v Uganda (Armed activities on the territory of the Congo) [2005] ICG Rep 168 (Eritrea Ethiopia Claims Commission, Partial Award, Eritea’s Claim 20), judgment of 19 December 2005 (physical attacks on Ugandan diplomatic staff by Democratic Republic of the Congo army personnel); Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia v State of Eritrea (19 December 2005, unreported) (Eritrea Ethiopia Claims Commission, Partial Award, Ethiopia’s Claim 8) (detention and mistreatment of diplomats).
[88] What then is the present state of international law on the right to dignity of a head of state? There is no doubt that a state is obliged to take steps to prevent physical attacks on, or physical interference with, a foreign head of state who is in this country. This would be so equally under customary international law, and the combination of s 20 of the 1978 Act and art 29. Nor would I doubt that the duty would apply to acts in this country preparatory to, or directed at, some form of physical attack against a head of state who is in his or her own country or in a third country.
[89] But, outside physical attack or interference, the material in relation to the prevention of offensive conduct supports the view that to the extent there is any uniform practice (which is doubtful) it amounts to no more than courtesy or comity. That view is in substance suggested by what Sir Arthur Watts (co-editor of Oppenheim’s International Law, and a former legal adviser to the Foreign and Commonwealth Office), said in his Hague Lectures ‘Legal Position in International Law of Heads of States, Heads of Governments and Foreign Ministers’ (1994) 247 Recueil des Cours pp 35–48, to which I have already referred. Sir Arthur draws a distinction between offensive conduct by an official representative of the state, and conduct by a private party. As regards the latter, Sir Arthur says that it is uncertain to what extent international law imposes a positive obligation on states to prevent offensive conduct by private individuals directed against foreign heads of state, or requires them to punish such conduct if it occurs. His view is that it is not clear in state practice whether it is a matter of diplomatic courtesy rather than a recognition of legal responsibility.
[90] A similar view is expressed that it is ‘rather a matter of etiquette or comity than of law’ in Eagleton International Government (3rd edn, 1957), quoted in the passages from Whiteman Digest of International Law (1965) vol 5, p 154, to
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which the court referred counsel. But Whiteman also quotes Stowell ‘Courtesy to our Neighbors’ (1942) 36 AJIL 99, who says that it is a generally recognised principle of international law that a head of state should not be insulted or treated with disrespect; and that when the head of state is responsible for foreign policy a certain latitude of criticism abroad must be tolerated, but this should not involve the person of the head of state or the use of opprobrious language. He gives examples of Secretary of State Cordell Hull’s apology to Japan in 1935 for a cartoon of the Mikado published in Vanity Fair, and President Roosevelt’s apology in 1941 to Chile for a reference to the President of Chile as ‘spending more and more time with the red wine he cultivates.’
[91] The establishment of a rule of customary international law requires settled state practice on the basis that the practice is rendered obligatory by the existence of a rule of law requiring it: Oppenheim (9th edn, 1992) vol 1, p 28 (para 10), quoting the North Sea Continental Shelf Cases, 1969 ICJ Rep 3 at 44. I am far from convinced by the material before us that there is a rule of customary international law which imposes an obligation on a state to take appropriate steps to prevent conduct by individuals which is simply offensive or insulting to a foreign head of state abroad.
[92] This is not a case in which the Attorney General has been instructed to intervene (as, for example, in Rio Tinto Zinc Corp v Westinghouse Electric Corp, RTZ Services Ltd v Westinghouse Electric Corp [1978] 1 All ER 434, [1978] AC 547) to submit that the court should exercise its powers in a particular direction on the ground that foreign relations are affected. The submission by the Foreign and Commonwealth Office to this court is, quite properly, limited to the applicable legal principles, but it does indicate the view of Her Majesty’s Government on the current position in international law. The Foreign and Commonwealth Office submitted that an ‘attack’ on the ‘dignity’ of a foreign head of state must entail some element of deliberately offensive or insulting words or behaviour, and mere protest no matter how noisy, or criticism, no matter how robust, would not appear to be sufficient: para 13. The view of Her Majesty’s Government was set out as follows (submission, para 15):
‘. . . States have been reluctant to take any action against the publication by the press and other media of offensive material about foreign heads of state. In the United Kingdom, the government takes the view that, given the legal right to freedom of expression, it would be inappropriate to curtail publication even of offensive material and that its obligation under art 29 is satisfied by the existence of the ordinary law on defamation which would enable heads of state to seek a remedy themselves in appropriate cases.’
[93] I have said that I am far from convinced of the existence of a rule of customary international law requiring states to take steps to prevent individuals from insulting foreign heads of state abroad, and if it were necessary to do so I would have decided that there is insufficient material to support such a rule. But it is not necessary to do so because I am satisfied that there was no relevant attack on the dignity of the Sultan, and that in any event all appropriate steps have been taken to prevent any such attack.
[94] Sir Franklin Berman submitted that ‘an attack on the dignity of a head of state’ connoted simply a deliberate act intended to lower the estimation of the head of state or to injure his honour or that of his office. I cannot accept so wide
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a proposition, which would be a wholly impermissible invasion of the principle of free speech.
[95] As the law officers advised in the nineteenth century, a head of state who is subject to false vilification may have a remedy in defamation.
[96] I find it extremely difficult, if not impossible, to envisage any situation in which speech, otherwise permitted under English law, could be prohibited on the ground that it was an attack on the dignity of a foreign head of state.
[97] What seems to me beyond doubt is that, whatever the content of the duty in international law of the United Kingdom to take appropriate steps to prevent an attack on the dignity of a foreign head of state, there is not the slightest trace of any conduct in the present case which could, even on the most extensive interpretation of the notion of ‘attack on dignity’, be such an attack. First, mentioning the identity of the claimant’s former husband could not possibly be an ‘attack’ itself. Second, the fact that in some way the judgments have come about because of conduct by Mrs Amir in meetings with the Sultan’s representative which was designed to embarrass the Sultan is neither itself an ‘attack’ nor could it possibly be complicity in any such attack.
[98] Nor is there any interference with the ‘dignity’ of the Sultan. The fact that he was married to the claimant is of course well known, and to identify him as the former husband of a claimant who has been defrauded, or as the employer of an official through whom Mrs Amir tried to put pressure on the Sultan in order to cause the claimant to withdraw the proceedings, does not, in my judgment, affect his dignity in the sense that it is used in the international law authorities.
Remedies
[99] Sir Franklin Berman was at pains to emphasise that the Sultan was not submitting to the jurisdiction and thereby waiving immunity in making the application. But in my judgment the final sentence of art 29 or any equivalent principle in customary international law is not a rule of immunity at all. It is about the obligation of the United Kingdom to take appropriate steps to prevent an attack on the diplomat or (as the case may be) head of state.
[100] It was, quite rightly, always said from the nineteenth century onwards, that where a foreign head of state had been publicly insulted, the remedy was in the law of defamation, and subject to constitutional guarantees of free speech. The remedy of the foreign state lay either in international law (by formal protest or more extreme measures) or in national law, by an action in the ordinary courts. Where the head of state or head of government took the latter course, no question of immunity would arise. There would be a submission to the jurisdiction.
[101] This is not, of course, a case in which the head of state sues because offensive and actionable statements have been made. Here the question is whether, on the application of the head of state, the judgments should be further redacted.
[102] Scott v Scott [1913] AC 417, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 is still the leading authority on the general principle that justice should be open. All the speeches emphasised the fundamental importance of the general rule in favour of public justice, both in order to ensure appropriate behaviour on the part of the court, and to maintain public confidence in the administration of justice.
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[103] Viscount Haldane LC referred ([1913] AC 417 at 435, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 8) to ‘the broad principle which requires the administration of justice to take place in open Court’. He said ([1913] AC 417 at 437–438, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 9):
‘As the paramount object must always be to do justice, the general rule as to publicity, after all only the means to an end, must accordingly yield. But the burden lies on those seeking to displace its application in the particular case to make out that the ordinary rule must as of necessity be superseded by this paramount consideration.’
[104] Earl Loreburn ([1913] AC 417 at 445, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 13) referred to the inveterate rule that justice shall be administered in open court, and went on to say ([1913] AC 417 at 446, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 14):
‘. . . in all cases where the public has been excluded with admitted propriety the underlying principle, as it seems to me, is that the administration of justice would be rendered impracticable by their presence, whether because the case could not be effectively tried, or the parties entitled to justice would be reasonably deterred from seeking it at the hands of the Court.’
[105] The mere consideration that the evidence is of an unsavoury character is not enough, and a mere desire to consider feelings of delicacy or to exclude from publicity details which it will be desirable not to publish is not enough: [1913] AC 417 at 438–439, [1911–13] All ER Rep 1 at 10.
[106] By CPR 39.2(1): ‘The general rule is that a hearing is to be in public’. But by CPR 39.2(3) a hearing, or any part of it, may be in private if (inter alia) ‘publicity would defeat the object of the hearing’: CPR 39.2(3)(a); or if ‘it involves confidential information . . . and publicity would damage that confidentiality’: CPR 39.2(3)(c); or if ‘the court considers this to be necessary, in the interests of justice’: CPR 39.2(3)(g).
[107] RSC Order 52 (in Sch 1 to the CPR), provides in r 6(1) that the court hearing a committal application may sit in private in certain cases, including ‘(d) where it appears to the Court that in the interests of administration of justice . . . the application should be heard in private’, but except in such cases ‘the application shall be heard in public’. By RSC Order 52, r 6(2) if the court hearing an application in private by virtue of r 6(1) decides to make an order of committal against the person sought to be committed, it shall in public state the name of that person; in general terms the nature of the contempt; and the length of the period for which he is being committed. These provisions are reflected in the practice direction, para 9.
[108] By CPR 39.2(4) the court may order that the identity of ‘any party or witness must not be disclosed if it considers non-disclosure necessary in order to protect the interests of that party or witness.' There was some discussion on the present appeal of the question whether the word ‘party’ is used in the sense of party to proceedings, or in the more general sense of any person. In my judgment it does not matter. The Sultan is an intervening party, and even if he were not a party, and the expression were used in its technical sense I have no
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doubt that the court would have an inherent jurisdiction to order that the identity of any person not be disclosed if it were necessary to protect the interests of that party.
[109] In R v Legal Aid Board, ex p Kaim Todner (a firm) [1998] 3 All ER 541, [1999] QB 966 the Legal Aid Board made a decision to withdraw the legal aid franchise of a firm of solicitors because of dishonesty. The firm challenged the decision in judicial review proceedings, and sought an order of anonymity. An order was refused, and the firm appealed to the Court of Appeal, where it sought an order that the appeal be heard in private, and indicated that if the order were refused it would withdraw the appeal or consent to its dismissal. The Court of Appeal refused to make the order and indicated that it would not consent to withdrawal of the appeal.
[110] The starting point was that there was a general presumption in favour of open justice. Lord Woolf MR, giving the judgment of the court, made ([1998] 3 All ER 541 at 550–551, [1999] QB 966 at 978) the following points. In deciding whether to accede to an application for protection from disclosure of the proceedings it is appropriate to take into account the extent of the interference with the general rule which was involved. In particular, if the restriction related only to the identity of a witness or a party that was less objectionable than a restriction which involves proceedings being conducted in whole or in part behind closed doors. A distinction could also be made depending on whether what was being sought was anonymity for a claimant, a defendant or a third party. It was not unreasonable to regard the person who initiated the proceedings as having accepted the normal incidence of the public nature of court proceedings. A witness who had no interest in the proceedings had the strongest claim to be protected by the court if he or she would be prejudiced by publicity, since the courts and parties might depend on their co-operation. In general, however, parties and witnesses had to accept the embarrassment and damage to their reputation and the possible consequential loss inherent in being involved in litigation. The protection to which they were entitled was normally provided by a judgment delivered in public which would refute unfounded allegations. Any other approach would result in wholly unacceptable inroads on the general rule. There must be some objective foundation for the claim to anonymity.
[111] There is no doubt that the court has a power to order that any judgments or orders, or any part of them, should be private (as contemplated by CPR PD 39, paras 1.12 to 1.13). By s 11 of the 1981 Act, where a court allows a name or other matter to be withheld from the public in proceedings before the court, the court may give such directions prohibiting the publication of that name or matter in connection with the proceedings as appear to the court to be necessary for the purpose for which it was so withheld.
[112] By CPR PD 39, para 1.4A, in deciding whether to hold a hearing in public or in private the judge should have regard to art 6(1) of the ECHR, and in particular the judge may need to consider whether the case is within any of the exceptions permitted by art 6(1).
[113] By art 6(1) of the ECHR, in the determination of his civil rights and obligations, everyone is entitled to ‘a fair and public hearing’. It goes on to provide that (a) ‘judgment shall be pronounced publicly’ and (b) ‘but the press and the public may be excluded from all or part of the trial in the interests of morals, public order or national security in a democratic society, where the
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interests of juveniles or the protection of the private life of the parties so require, or to the extent strictly necessary in the opinion of the court in special circumstances where publicity would prejudice the interests of justice.’
[114] Article 6(1) provides that ‘judgment shall be pronounced publicly’ and the specific exceptions referred to above relate, at least expressly, only to the public hearing. But the European Court of Human Rights has held that a judgment need not be pronounced publicly if to do so would frustrate the aims of the trial being held in private: B v UK (2002) 11 BHRC 667; contrast Moser v Austria [2006] ECHR 12643/02.
[115] In Martinie v France [2006] ECHR 58675/00, the Grand Chamber said, repeating consistent earlier jurisprudence:
‘39. The Court reiterates that the public character of proceedings before the judicial bodies referred to in Article 6(1) protects litigants against the administration of justice in secret with no public scrutiny; it is also one of the means whereby confidence in the courts, superior and inferior, can be maintained. By rendering the administration of justice visible, publicity contributes to the achievement of the aim of Article 6(1), namely a fair trial, the guarantee of which is one of the fundamental principles of any democratic society . . .
40 . . . Article 6(1) does not, however, prohibit courts from deciding, in the light of the special features of the case submitted to them, to derogate from this principle . . . [H]olding proceedings, whether wholly or partly, in camera, must be strictly required by the circumstances of the case . . .’
[116] Sir Franklin Berman suggested that the guarantees in the ECHR could not be relied upon to defeat the Sultan’s application. The argument was as follows: first, the State of Brunei is not bound by the convention; second, both the European Court of Human Rights and the English courts have held that the rules of public international law relating to state immunity are not affected by the convention: Al-Adsani’s case (2001) 12 BHRC 88; Holland’s case [2000] 3 All ER 833, [2000] 1 WLR 1573; thirdly, accordingly there is no warrant for the proposition that the general public interest in the administration of justice (even within the four walls of the specific human rights regime created by the ECHR) stands in the way of the implementation by states of their obligations towards one another under international law.
[117] I do not consider that these authorities are of any assistance. In Al-Adsani’s case the question was whether the immunity granted by the English court to the government of Kuwait in respect of a civil action for torture was in conformity with the prohibition on torture in art 3 and the right to access to a court under art 6. It was held unanimously that the United Kingdom was not under a duty to provide a civil remedy in respect of torture, and that (by a bare majority) the limitation on access to a court as a result of the application of state immunity was a legitimate limitation proportionate to the aim pursued, namely compliance with international law to promote comity and good relations between states through the respect of another state’s sovereignty. The court, while noting the growing recognition of the overriding importance of the prohibition of torture, did not find it established that there was yet acceptance in international law of the proposition that the states were not entitled to immunity in respect of civil claims for damages for alleged torture committed
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outside the forum state. See also Jones v Ministry of the Interior of the Kingdom of Saudi Arabia [2006] UKHL 26, [2007] 1 All ER 113, [2007] 1 AC 270.
[118] In Holland’s case [2000] 3 All ER 833 at 847–848, [2000] 1 WLR 1573 at 1588 Lord Millett said:
‘Article 6 requires contracting states to maintain fair and public judicial processes and forbids them to deny individuals access to those processes for the determination of their civil rights. It presupposes that the contracting states have the powers of adjudication necessary to resolve the issues in dispute. But it does not confer on contracting states adjudicative powers which they do not possess. State immunity, as I have explained, is a creature of customary international law and derives from the equality of sovereign states. It is not a self-imposed restriction on the jurisdiction of its courts which the United Kingdom has chosen to adopt. It is a limitation imposed from without upon the sovereignty of the United Kingdom itself.’
[119] All that these cases decide is that application of the rules of state immunity is compatible with the right to a hearing under art 6(1). In my judgment, this is not on any view a classic case of immunity. It is not a case in which it is suggested that the ECHR is overriding any immunity or privilege. It is a case which is analogous to the state practice in which the state whose nationals have been guilty of allegedly abusive conduct informs the complaining state that it has remedies in the national court but reminds the complaining state of the free speech guarantees under its law. In such a case the foreign head of state has an option to sue for (say) libel, but will plainly have to submit to the jurisdiction and waive its immunity if it does so. I do not consider that an application like that in the present case is any different in principle.
[120] In JAM v Public Prosecutor the Dutch Supreme Court held that a conviction for a scurrilous attack on a foreign head state by displaying a banner with the words ‘Johnson War Criminal’ was compatible with the right of freedom of speech under art 10 of the ECHR: (1969) 73 ILR 387. But in Colombani v France [2002] ECHR 51279/99, the European Court of Human Rights held that a French law of 1881, which made it an offence ‘publicly to insult a foreign head of State’, infringed art 10. The editor-in-chief of Le Monde and a journalist were convicted under the law for insulting the King of Morocco, and fined. The European Court of Human Rights accepted that the rationale behind the law was to protect senior foreign political figures from certain forms of attack on their dignity (para 24), similar to the provision in the same law relating to the President of the Republic. It mentioned that the Cour de Cassation had ruled in 1986 that the actus reus of the offence of insulting a foreign head of state was constituted by any expression of contempt or abuse or any accusation which was liable to undermine the honour or dignity of the head of state in his or her private life or in the performance of his or her functions (para 25). The court noted that there was no defence of justification (para 66), and held that the offence of insulting a foreign head of state was liable to inhibit freedom of expression without meeting any pressing social need. It said:
‘68. The Court notes that the effect of a prosecution under section 36 of the Act of 29 July 1881 is to confer a special legal status on heads of State,
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shielding them from criticism solely on account of their function or status, irrespective of whether the criticism is warranted. That, in its view, amounts to conferring on foreign heads of State a special privilege that cannot be reconciled with modern practice and political conceptions. Whatever the obvious interest which every State has in maintaining friendly relations based on trust with the leaders of other States, such a privilege exceeds what is necessary for that objective to be attained.
69. Accordingly, the offence of insulting a foreign head of State is liable to inhibit freedom of expression without meeting any “pressing social need” capable of justifying such a restriction. It is the special protection afforded foreign heads of State by section 36 that undermines freedom of expression, not their right to use the standard procedure available to everyone to complain if their honour or reputation has been attacked or they are subjected to insulting remarks.’
[121] The French government does not seem to have argued that the interference with freedom of expression was justified by international law. The argument appears to have been that the legislation pursued a legitimate aim, namely the protection of the reputation and rights of others: see para 47. But I accept the submission by Sir Michael Wood that the decision strongly suggests that the court would not lightly accept that greater protection should be given to the dignity of a head of state than to ordinary members of the public.
[122] The duty of a judge to give reasons has been the subject of many recent decisions: see in particular English v Emery Reimbold & Strick Ltd [2002] EWCA Civ 605, [2002] 3 All ER 385, [2002] 1 WLR 2409. In that decision Lord Phillips of Worth Matravers MR said (at [12]) that the European Court of Human Rights required that a judgment contain the reasons which were sufficient to demonstrate that the essential issues which had been raised by the parties had been addressed by the national court and how those issues had been resolved. He pointed out that common law countries had developed a tradition of delivering judgments which detailed the evidence and explained the findings in much greater detail than was to be found in the judgments of most civil law jurisdictions.
[123] The duty to give reasons is a function of due process and therefore justice, both at common law and under art 6. Justice will not be done if it is not apparent to the parties why one has lost and the other has won. That is the minimum duty of a judge, but of course it is common for judges to go beyond the minimum necessary and to expound fully the facts and background circumstances. Judges vary greatly in the degree of detail or background material which they include in their judgments, and in my judgment it would be quite wrong for the Court of Appeal to interfere with the way in which judgments are composed.
[124] Judges are, however, normally sensitive to the interest of parties and non-parties, particularly to the need to avoid making findings of fact adverse to persons who have not been given an opportunity to be heard.
[125] In my judgment, Gray and Underhill JJ have dealt sensitively with the confidential and personal information which was before them, and have made appropriate orders. CPR 39.2(3)(a) deals with cases where publicity would defeat the object of the hearing, and Gray and Underhill JJ made orders for privacy in relation to the committal applications and to the trial to the extent
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necessary to alleviate this danger. Similarly, with regard to CPR 39.2(3)(c) (situations where the hearing involves confidential information), there is no suggestion that any confidential information will be disclosed, since it is already covered by the order of Gray J of 8 November 2005. Their judgments have been redacted to remove confidential or potentially embarrassing material.
[126] The alterations which the Sultan seeks in relation to the redacted judgment of Gray J of 8 November 2005 are to (a) delete the name of the claimant; (b) remove the identification of the Sultan as the claimant’s former husband, substituting in its place a reference to the claimant being the ex-wife of a foreign head of state, and remove all references to the Sultan or to Brunei; (c) substitute for the name of Mr Yusof a reference to a London representative of the head of state; (d) delete references to Brunei. Similar alterations are sought to the judgment of Underhill J of 29 January and 1 February 2007, except that (no doubt in error) no deletion of the name of the claimant is sought. Ms Hussain, the claimant’s niece, gave evidence at the trial, about the claimant’s state of mind when she discovered that Mr Aziz and Mrs Amir were one and the same person. The Sultan seeks the deletion of Ms Hussain’s name from the judgment of 29 January 2007. In his judgment of 1 February 2007 Underhill J found that Mrs Amir had spoken to Ms Lim, the claimant’s bodyguard, on 16 and 17 June and 2006. One of the conversations was recorded. Underhill J said it was not necessary to set out what was said, but found that the conversation was a breach of the order not to communicate with the claimant. He also found that what she said to Mr Al Cader, the claimant’s housekeeper (whose affidavit was relied on by the judge), on 6 July 2006 and 9 September 2006 and to Ms Minudin, one of the claimant’s bodyguards, on 21 September 2006 was intended to be reported to the claimant and was designed to put pressure on the claimant. The Sultan seeks the deletion of the names of Ms Lim, Mr Al Cader, and Ms Minudin, and the substitution simply of a description of their positions in the claimant’s household.
[127] For reasons already given, I do not consider that the application by the Sultan is a claim to immunity. But I would, at least in this case, be prepared to accept that the Sultan is entitled to make the application that the judgments be redacted, without waiving his immunity for any other purpose. I would also accept that the court, in exercising its discretion to make part of a judgment private, may take into account the fact that the applicant is a foreign head of state, and may also take into account the international obligations of the United Kingdom to the foreign state of which he is head.
[128] This is not on any view a case where mentioning the Sultan is irrelevant to the findings. The episode involving Mr Yusof was central to the committal proceedings. It was Mr Yusof who on about 12 May 2005 received a telephone call purportedly from Mr Aziz, in which he was told that Mr Aziz wanted to have a private letter delivered for the attention of the Sultan by a woman who would call and make an appointment. It was Mr Yusof who, on 18 May 2005, received a telephone call from Mrs Amir during which it was arranged that she would deliver the letter that afternoon. It was Mr Yusof who gave evidence that Mrs Amir had made it plain to him that the purpose of her visit was to try to find a way to put pressure on the Sultan and that she had threatened to cause embarrassment by making public allegations concerning the claimant’s conduct and confidences concerning her private life during and after her marriage to the Sultan. Mr Yusof also gave evidence to the effect that Mrs Amir began speaking
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as if on behalf of Mr Aziz but the mask soon slipped and she dealt with him as if she were the principal.
[129] Nothing discreditable is said about the Sultan in the judgments. No finding is made against him or about him. No confidential information relating to the Sultan is contained in the judgments. In substance what is said about him in Gray J’s judgment of 8 November 2005 is that the letter sent on 10 April 2005 sets out private details which the writer (Mr Aziz) says he had been told about Mrs Aziz’s married life with her former husband; that Mrs Amir threatened, in her conversation with Mr Yusof on 18 May 2005, to cause embarrassment by making public allegations concerning confidences the claimant had revealed concerning her private life during and after her marriage to the Sultan; that Mrs Amir had told Mr Yusof that Mr Aziz wanted the letter to go the Sultan, so that he would put pressure on the claimant to withdraw the proceedings; that the letter refers to a ‘revelation’ relating to the Sultan and to private information about the personal relationship between the Sultan and the claimant. Underhill J’s judgments of 29 January 2007 and 1 February 2007 also record that in June 2006 the Sultan was sent a tape containing material from the audio cassettes, and in the latter judgment he found that it was a further contempt by Mrs Amir.
[130] I see no basis for the proposition that the identification of the Sultan in the judgments could be a breach of the international obligations of the United Kingdom, nor do I see any other reason why he should not be identified. Consequently in my judgment there is no basis for a further redaction of the judgments and the appeal should be dismissed.
SEDLEY LJ.
[131] I agree that the Sultan is entitled to expect no less protection from possible embarrassment than any other third party to litigation, but equally no more. Such protection is routinely given by judges. When damaging or distressing allegations are made in the course of public litigation about people who are not directly involved in it, judges can be expected to—and in my experience always do—take steps to ensure that such people are shielded from any serious embarrassment that is not an unavoidable consequence of doing justice in public. (Whether this ordinarily requires intervention at the bar of the court is more doubtful. One of the best known phrases in the English language—‘He would, wouldn’t he?’—was prompted by counsel asking a witness whether she knew that a prominent individual, who was not a party to the proceedings, denied what she had alleged about him (R v Ward (29 June 1963, unreported)).
[132] Irrespective of his status as a head of state, the Sultan has been amply protected by both judges below from any unnecessary embarrassment in the course of this bizarre litigation. Whether this reflects a legal entitlement vested in him as an individual, or an obligation of the court carrying no correlative individual right, or no more than a salutary practice, does not fall for determination on this appeal. What does fall for determination is whether his claim to protection is enhanced by the State Immunity Act 1978. For the reasons fully and clearly set out by Lawrence Collins LJ, I agree that it is not. What makes the issue one of wider importance is that the obligations of courtesy and comity which states undertake towards one another do not determine the obligations of their citizens. It is the right of litigants to full and open justice in
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the courts, a limb of the state, which can generate a consequent tension. If it does, there is no supervening right in a foreign sovereign to complete protection irrespective of the interests of justice; but the courts will do all that can be done consonantly with the interests of justice to protect any third party, a foreign sovereign included, from the fallout of other people’s litigation.
SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR.
[133] I agree with both judgments.
Appeal dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
Moody v General Osteopathic Council
[2008] 2 All ER 532
[2007] EWHC 2518 (Admin)
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE: PROFESSIONS; Other
Court: QUEEN’S BENCH DIVISION
Lord(s): WYN WILLIAMS J
Hearing Date(s): 21 AUGUST 2007
Osteopath – Professional conduct and fitness to practise – Professional Conduct Committee – Interim suspension powers – Committee empowered to make interim suspension order if satisfied order necessary to protect members of public – Appeal – Committee finding osteopath guilty of professional incompetence – Committee ordering removal of name from register – Committee making interim suspension order – Osteopath appealing to High Court against interim suspension order – Power of court on appeal – Osteopaths Act 1993, s 24(2), (6) – CPR 52.11(3).
The appellant, M, was an osteopath and the respondent council was the body corporate whose duty under the Osteopaths Act 1993 was to develop, promote and regulate the profession of osteopathy. M appeared before the professional conduct committee of the council during a four day hearing at the end of which the committee announced its decision that he had been guilty of professional incompetence. The committee decided that the most severe sanction open to it to impose, namely that M’s name should be removed from the register of osteopaths, was the appropriate sanction. Under s 24a of the 1993 Act the committee had the power to make an interim suspension order which meant that M would be suspended from practice pending the determination of any appeal. Under s 24(2) the committee could make such an order if it was satisfied that it was necessary to do so in order to protect members of the public. Section 24(6) provided that an osteopath against whom an interim suspension order was made could appeal to the High Court. At a further hearing the committee decided that an interim suspension order was necessary. M appealed against the finding of professional incompetence and against the sanction imposed. He also appealed under s 24(6) against the interim suspension order. CPR Pt 52 applied to appeals and r 52.11(3)b provided that the appeal court would allow an appeal where the decision of the lower court was wrong or unjust because of a serious irregularity in the proceedings.
Held – An appeal under s 24 of the 1993 Act was within the remit of the CPR and governed by r 52.11(3). Although it was permissible to look at the merits of the substantive appeal in order to assess whether it had been wrong of the committee to have imposed an interim suspension order, save in unusual cases, it would not
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be possible to form a definitive view on the merits of the substantive appeal, and unless the High Court, exercising its appellate jurisdiction, was strongly of the view that the substantive appeal was bound to succeed, it should be slow to categorise as wrong a decision which had at its heart the protection of the public. In the instant case the court could not reach the conclusion that the appeal was bound to succeed and accordingly the appeal against the interim suspension order would be dismissed (see [7], [11], [13], [14], [16], below).
Notes
For interim suspension orders, see 30(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 553.
For the Osteopaths Act 1993, s 24, see 28 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2001 reissue) 365.
Appeal
Donald Moody appealed under s 24 of the Osteopaths Act 1993 from the decision of the Professional Conduct Committee of the General Osteopathic Council imposing an interim suspension order. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Barbara Hewson (instructed by William Graham Law Ltd, Cardiff) for Mr Moody.
James Norman (instructed by the General Osteopathic Council) for the council.
21 August 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
WYN WILLIAMS J.
[1] On 27 November 2006 a hearing began before the Professional Conduct Committee (the committee) of the General Osteopathic Council. The hearing concerned allegations made against Mr Donald Moody that he had been guilty of unacceptable professional conduct contrary to s 20(1)(a) of the Osteopaths Act 1993 or, alternatively, professional incompetence contrary to sub-s (1)(b) of s 20 of the 1993 Act.
[2] Those allegations were themselves founded upon what I will call five charges relating to events which occurred in September 2005 and which concerned a patient of Mr Moody’s who I shall refer to as ‘Mr W’. The hearing before the committee took place over four days. It took place on 27 and 28 November and the 1 and 2 February of the following year, 2007. On 2 February the committee announced its decision. It concluded that the charges which had been numbered 1, 3 and 4 had been proved and that as a consequence Mr Moody was guilty of professional incompetence.
[3] On 14 March a further hearing took place in order that the committee could decide upon an appropriate sanction. After hearing from counsel for Mr Moody, the committee decided that the appropriate sanction was that Mr Moody’s name should be removed from the register of osteopaths. In other words, it imposed the most severe sanction open to it. Following the announcement of that sanction, counsel representing the Osteopathic Council applied for an order which is known as an interim suspension order. If granted it meant that Mr Moody was suspended from practice pending determination of any appeal to this court. The making of such an order was resisted on his behalf. Nonetheless, the committee made the order.
[4] Mr Moody has appealed to this court against the finding of professional incompetence and also against the sanction imposed upon him. That appeal is to
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be heard at some future date. He has also appealed against the decision to make an interim suspension order and it is this appeal which is before me for determination.
[5] It is common ground that before an interim suspension order can be made the committee must be satisfied that it is necessary to make such an order in order to protect members of the public. The transcript of the hearing on 14 March shows that the committee was advised that under r 40 of the General Osteopathic Council Professional Conduct Committee (Procedure) Rules 2000, SI 2000/241, if a committee reaches a decision to impose a suspension order or a decision to remove an osteopaths name from the register then:
‘. . .the Committee may, if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in order to protect members of the public, order the Registrar to suspend the registration of the osteopath concerned (an Interim Suspension Order) in accordance with section 24 of the Act.’
[6] It is clear that the committee had that provision well in mind when they decided to impose the interim suspension order. In this case, as in all cases of this type, there is a written decision of the committee. Under the heading ‘Application for interim suspension’, there is recorded the following:
‘We have considered the application made by Mr Leale on behalf of the Council that there be an interim suspension order and we have considered the submissions made by Ms Hewson opposing the application on behalf of Mr Moody. The Committee has been advised that the test is that it can make such an order if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in order to protect members of the public as set out in section 24(2) of the Osteopaths Act 1993. The Committee have considered this matter and are satisfied that it is necessary to make such an order in light of all of the evidence it has heard concerning the deficiencies in Mr Moody’s practice. Accordingly we order the Registrar to suspend the registration of Mr Moody with immediate effect.’
[7] The hearing before me is a statutory appeal. Nonetheless, as I understand it, it is an appeal which is within the remit of the CPR and that being so it is governed by CPR 52 and, in particular, 52.11 sub-rule (3). That provides that I am only empowered to allow this appeal if I consider that the decision to impose an interim suspension order was wrong. The issue for me, therefore, is whether or not it can be said that the committee was wrong to make the interim suspension order.
[8] Before it imposed the order, as I have indicated, the committee imposed the sanction of removing Mr Moody’s name from the register. In order to justify that sanction, it gave a number of reasons and it gave those reasons in its written decision from which I have already quoted. The relevant parts, so far as the substantive sanction is concerned, are as follows:
‘We concluded, based upon the evidence that we have heard, in particular from Mr Moody, that the way he conducts his practice relies heavily upon a framework of assessing spinal curves and the observable abnormalities of them. He does not undertake a sufficient comprehensive clinical assessment
Page 535 of [2008] 2 All ER 532
which may mean that he could miss underlying pathology; we further concluded that by reason of this, he poses a significant risk to patient safety . . . We would wish to make clear that osteopaths are not simply concerned with the treatment of musculoskeletal problems but are primary health care providers and are therefore in the front line in terms of the evaluation and diagnosis of any patient’s health status. Mr Moody’s approach to osteopathy does not take account of this. We consider that this is a fundamental flaw in his approach to practice. Further, he appears to have no insight into the deficiencies in his knowledge base and in his approach to practice. We first considered whether an admonishment would be the appropriate sanction and concluded that this matter is too serious for such a disposal. We went on to consider whether a conditions of practice order would be the appropriate sanction, and in particular whether a test of competence could be devised which would address the deficiencies in Mr Moody’s practice. We concluded that the deficiencies in his knowledge base are so extensive that no conditions of practice order could adequately protect the public. The Committee went on to consider whether the suspension of Mr Moody’s registration would achieve the necessary improvement in his practice and would allow him to treat patients safely. We concluded that a period of suspension, whilst it would protect the public in the short term, would not achieve this end. Consequently, we concluded that the only way that we could ensure that the public were properly protected was by ordering the Registrar to remove Mr Moody’s name from the Register.’
[9] In the light of those findings, it would at first blush be difficult, if not impossible, to conclude that the decision to make an interim order was wrong. Counsel for the respondent (Mr Norman) submits that in the light of those findings it is impossible to conclude that the decision to impose an interim suspension was wrong. It was an inevitable consequence of those conclusions, so he submits.
[10] Ms Hewson appearing for the appellant, as she did before the committee, submits that I should take the contrary approach. She submits that Mr Norman’s approach is too restrictive. She says, in effect, that I am entitled to look at the merits of the substantive appeal and form a judgment about the prospects of success and then, in the light of that, conduct a review of whether or not an interim order is justified in the sense that I should apply to myself the test of whether or not the order is necessary for the protection of the public.
[11] I am prepared to accept that it is permissible to look at the merits of the substantive appeal in order to assess whether or not it was wrong of the committee to have imposed an interim suspension order. However, it seems to me that, save in fairly unusual cases, it will not be possible to form a definitive view upon the merits of the substantive appeal, and in my judgment unless this court, exercising its appellate jurisdiction, is strongly of the view that the substantive appeal is bound to succeed, it should be slow to categorise as wrong a decision which has at its heart the protection of the public.
[12] In this case I say without hesitation that there are aspects of the committees decision which make this appeal truly arguable. This is certainly a case, for example, where I would grant permission to appeal if such were necessary. It seems to me, however, that unless I am strongly of the view that a finding of professional incompetence will be set aside, or unless I am strongly of
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the view that the penalty for such incompetence as is proved would not even involve suspension measured in months, I should not categorise a decision to impose an interim suspension as wrong.
[13] I have given this matter considerable thought but I do not think I can take either of those views of this appeal. Given that the merits of this appeal are to be debated at length, it would serve no useful purpose for me to set out provisional views about the detailed points which were debated before me. I have to apply the test which I think I have clearly enunciated; namely whether or not I am strongly of the view that this appeal is bound to succeed and, applying that admittedly difficult hurdle for this appellant, I do not think that I can reach that conclusion.
[14] Accordingly, and in that light, it seems to me that I should uphold the interim suspension order. To repeat, it is imposed for the protection of the public. It was imposed after a hearing which lasted four days where detailed evidence was given, and, to repeat, a court should be slow to categorise a decision to impose it as wrong when it conducts no more than a comparatively limited review of the merits of a substantive appeal.
[15] Having said all that, I am conscious that in this case the interim suspension order is capable of causing significant hardship to the appellant. He is a sole practitioner and has been for very many years. It is obvious that his practice may be adversely and detrimentally affected if there is any undue delay in the bringing on of his substantive appeal in this case. Accordingly, and in an attempt to ameliorate that aspect of the case, I propose to direct that there should be an expeditious hearing of the substantive appeal.
[16] For the reasons which I have given, the actual appeal is dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Rakesh Rajani Barrister.
Phillips and another v Symes and others
[2008] 2 All ER 537
[2008] UKHL 1
Categories: CIVIL PROCEDURE
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND, LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD AND LORD MANCE
Hearing Date(s): 12–14 NOVEMBER 2007, 23 JANUARY 2008
Claim form – Service – Service out of the jurisdiction – Dispensing with service – Proceedings involving same cause of action between same parties in courts of different states – Proceedings commenced in England against Swiss defendants – Failure to serve claim form on Swiss defendants – Swiss defendants commencing proceedings in Switzerland – English claimants applying for order in English proceedings dispensing with service of claim form – Whether proper exercise of court’s jurisdiction – Whether English court seised of proceedings before Swiss court – Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982, Sch 3C, art 21 – CPR 3.10, 6.9.
On 16 December 2004 the claimants issued a claim form out of the High Court in London. The second defendant was a Swiss national resident in Switzerland and the third defendant was a Swiss company. The proceedings therefore had to be served on them in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on the Service Abroad of Judicial and Extrajudicial Documents 1965. On 19 January 2005 a package was served on the second defendant containing all the documents which had been intended to be served on her, save the English language claim form, which the Swiss judge or his clerk had removed from the packet in consequence of a mistake. The package included the German translation of the claim form. On 3 February 2005 the defendants instituted proceedings in Switzerland against the claimants. In March 2005 the claimants learned that no documents had been served on the third defendant because of an error on the part of the Swiss Post Office. Under art 21a of the Lugano Convention on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgments in Civil and Commercial Matters 1988 (as set out in Sch 3C to the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982), where proceedings involving the same cause of action and between the same parties were brought in the courts of different contracting states, any court other than the court first seised was of its own motion to stay proceedings until such time as the jurisdiction of the court first seised was established and where the jurisdiction of the court first seised was established, any court other than the court first seised was to decline jurisdiction. Under Swiss law the Swiss court became seised of the Swiss proceedings when they were issued. Under CPR 6.9b the English court could dispense with service of a document and CPR 3.10c provided that where there had been an error of procedure such as a failure to comply with a rule or practice direction the error did not invalidate any step taken in the proceedings unless the court so ordered and the court could make an order to remedy the error. The claimants applied for an order under CPR 6.9 to dispense with service of the copy of the claim form
Page 538 of [2008] 2 All ER 537
intending that the effect of such an order would be that the High Court had become seised of the proceedings on 19 January 2005 so that the English proceedings would obtain priority over the Swiss proceedings. The judge held that he had a discretion under CPR 6.9 to dispense with service of the claim form, that he should exercise that discretion, and that in the light of the provisions of CPR 3.10, those proceedings thus achieved art 21 priority over the Swiss proceedings. The defendants appealed successfully to the Court of Appeal which held that it would be ineffective or, if effective, inappropriate to invoke CPR 6.9 to enable the English proceedings to enjoy art 21 priority because dispensing with the necessary service of the claim form could not take effect earlier than when the dispensing application was made and by then the Swiss proceedings had already obtained art 21 priority and that it would be wrong to apply CPR 6.9 retrospectively. The claimants appealed.
Held – There was power in the court, in the instant case, by virtue of CPR 3.10 and CPR 6.9 to determine that the service of documents actually effected on 19 January 2005 constituted sufficient service for the English court then to be seised of the proceedings. The Court of Appeal had concluded that the service effected could not be declared valid on the basis that an order under CPR 6.9 would by its very nature involve retrospective validation of what ex hypothesi would otherwise fall to be regarded as ineffective service. However, in making the order pursuant to CPR 6.9 the judge had not been thereby declaring valid and effective service which had previously been ineffective, he had been holding the previous service to have been valid and declaring that it had been unnecessary to have served the English language claim form to make it so. It had been in that sense that he had been dispensing with service. Moreover, even if a dispensing order under CPR 6.9 was properly to be regarded as retrospectively validating what would otherwise have been ineffective service it would have been within the court’s power to make such an order even though the effect would be to alter the jurisdictional precedence under an international convention. The power to make an order which had that effect should be exercised sparingly and only in the most exceptional circumstances, as were those of the instant case. The defendants had suffered no prejudice by the failure to serve the original claim form but had sought to exploit it. The essential faults had been those of the Swiss authorities—of the judge or his clerk mistakenly removing the claim form from the package of documents for service and the Swiss Post Office in failing to find the third defendant’s post box. Accordingly, the service effected on 19 January 2005 should be declared valid and effective. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see [1]–[3], [29]–[41], [54], below.
Golden Ocean Assurance Ltd v Martin, The Goldean Mariner [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 215 applied.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [2006] 3 All ER 838 reversed.
Notes
For stay of proceedings: lis alibi pendens, see 8(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 128.
For art 21 of the Lugano Convention, as set out in the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982, Sch 3C, art 21, see 11(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 957.
Page 539 of [2008] 2 All ER 537
Cases referred to in opinions
Canada Trust Co v Stolzenberg (No 2) [2000] 4 All ER 481, [2002] 1 AC 1, [2000] 3 WLR 1376, HL.
Dresser UK Ltd v Falcongate Freight Management Ltd, The Duke of Yare [1992] 2 All ER 450, [1992] QB 502, [1992] 2 WLR 319, CA.
Golden Ocean Assurance Ltd v Martin, The Goldean Mariner [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 215, CA.
Grupo Torras SA v Al-Sabah [1995] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 374; [1996] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 7, CA.
Knauf UK GmbH v British Gypsum Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1570, [2002] 2 All ER 525, [2002] 1 WLR 907.
Maciej Rataj, The, Tatry (cargo owners) v Maciej Rataj (owners) Case C-406/92 [1995] All ER (EC) 229, [1999] QB 515n, [1999] 2 WLR 181, [1994] ECR I-5439, ECJ.
Neste Chemicals SA v DK Line SA, The Sargasso [1994] 3 All ER 180, CA.
Tavoulareas v Tsavliris [2004] EWCA Civ 48, [2004] 2 All ER (Comm) 221.
Zelger v Salinitri (No 2) Case 129/83 [1984] ECR 2397, ECJ.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
Anderton v Clwyd CC [2002] EWCA Civ 933, [2002] 3 All ER 813, [2002] 1 WLR 3174.
Banco Popolare di Cremona v Agenzia Entrate Ufficio Cremona Case C-475/03, (2005) Transcript (judgment), 17 March, ECJ.
BAS Capital Funding Corpn v Medfinco Ltd [2003] EWHC 1798 (Ch), [2004] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 652.
Boss Group Ltd v Boss France SA [1997] 1 WLR 351, CA.
European Commission v Denmark Case C-467/98, [2002] ECR I-9519, ECJ.
Cranfield v Bridegrove Ltd [2003] EWCA Civ 656, [2003] 3 All ER 129, [2003] 1 WLR 2441.
Erich Gasser GmbH v MISAT Srl Case C-116/02 [2005] All ER (EC) 517, [2005] QB 1, [2004] 3 WLR 1070, [2003] ECR I-14693, ECJ.
Fourie v Le Roux [2007] UKHL 1, [2007] 1 All ER 1087, [2007] 1 WLR 320.
Fox v Taher [1997] IL Pr 441, CA.
Glencore International AG v Metro Trading International Inc (Banque Trad-Crédit Lyonnais (France) SA, third party), Metro Trading International Inc v Itochu Petroleum Co (S) Pte Ltd (Banque Trad-Crédit Lyonnais (France) SA, third party) [1999] 2 All ER (Comm) 899.
Gubisch Maschinenfabrik AG v Palumbo Case C-144/86 [1987] ECR 4861, ECJ.
Maciej Rataj, The [1992] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 552, CA.
Messier-Dowty Ltd v Sabena SA (No 2) [2001] 1 All ER 275, [2000] 1 WLR 2040, CA.
Molins plc v GD SpA [2000] IP & T 603, [2000] 1 WLR 1741, CA.
Owusu v Jackson (t/a Cilla Holidays Bal-Inn Villas) Case C-281/02 [2005] 2 All ER (Comm) 577, [2005] QB 801, [2005] 2 WLR 942, ECJ.
R v County of London Quarter Sessions Appeal Committee, ex p Rossi [1956] 1 All ER 670, [1956] 1 QB 682, [1956] 2 WLR 800, CA.
R (on the application of Bidar) v Ealing London BC Case C-209/03 [2005] All ER (EC) 687, [2005] QB 812, [2005] 2 WLR 1078, ECJ.
Spectrum Plus Ltd, Re, National Westminster Bank plc v Spectrum Plus Ltd [2005] UKHL 41, [2005] 4 All ER 209, [2005] 2 AC 680, [2005] 3 WLR 58.
Scania Finance France SA v Rockinger Spezialfabrik fur Anhangerkupplungen GmbH & Co Case C-522/03 [2005] All ER (D) 146 (Oct), ECJ.
Segers and Rufa BV v Mabanaft GmbH (1987) 144 NJ 764, NJ SC.
Page 540 of [2008] 2 All ER 537
Shiblaq v Sadikoglu [2004] EWHC 1890 (Comm), [2004] 2 All ER (Comm) 596.
Turner v Grovit Case C-159/02 [2004] 2 All ER (Comm) 381, [2005] 1 AC 101, [2004] 3 WLR 1193, [2004] ECR I-3565, ECJ.
Tyne Improvement Comrs v Armement Anversois SA, The Brabo [1949] AC 326, [1949] 1 All ER 294, HL.
Volkswagenwerk Aktiengesellschaft v Schlunk (1988) 486 US 694, US SC.
Appeal
Jonathan Guy Anthony Phillips and Robert Andrew Harland, the administrators of the estate of Christo Michailidis (the appellants), appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 18 October 2006 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Pill, Neuberger and Wilson LJJ) on 19 May 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 654, [2006] 3 All ER 838 sub nom Phillips v Nussberger) allowing the appeal of Frieda Nussberger and Galerie Nefer AG (the respondents) from the decision of Peter Smith J on 19 August 2005 ([2005] EWHC 1880 (Ch), [2005] All ER (D) 85 (Aug)) allowing the application of the appellants for an order under CPR 6.9 dispensing with service of the certified copy claim form in relation to proceedings brought by the appellants against the respondents and others issued in the High Court on 16 December 2004. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood.
Alan Steinfeld QC, Richard Millett QC, John Stephens and Jessica Chappell (instructed by Lane & Partners LLP) for the appellants.
John Martin QC and Thomas Lowe (instructed by Withers LLP) for the respondents.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
23 January 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1]
I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. I am in full agreement with it and would, for the reasons which he gives, allow the appeal and make the order which he proposes.
LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[2]
I have the advantage of considering the speech of my noble and learned friend, Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood, in draft. I agree with it and, for the reasons he gives, I too would allow the appeal and make the order which he proposes.
BARONESS HALE OF RICHMOND.
[3]
I agree that this appeal should be allowed, for the reasons given by my noble and learned friend, Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. It is not strictly necessary, therefore, to express a view on the issues discussed by my noble and learned friend, Lord Mance, in paras [42] to [53] of his opinion. But they were fully canvassed in argument before us. I feel it only fair, therefore, to confess that I share Lord Mance’s views upon those issues. In my view the English court is seised of proceedings for the purpose of the Lugano Convention on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgments in Civil and
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Commercial Matters 1988 (as set out in Sch 3C to the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982) when the claim form is issued or when the court first makes an order against the defendant in connection with them, whichever is the earlier.
[4]
The particular facts of this case happen to provide a good illustration of the artificiality of a different solution. These proceedings were a by-product of the estate’s proceedings against Mr Symes, in which Mrs Nussberger had already been involved as a witness. They were effectively begun by a worldwide freezing order against her of which she rapidly became aware. In the county courts, the general rule has always been that the court itself effects service of the claim form, a rule which now applies throughout the civil justice system. In this particular case, the court itself accepted the documents for service outside the jurisdiction in accordance with the Hague Convention on the Service Abroad of Judicial and Extrajudicial Documents in Civil or Commercial Matters 1965 (15 November 1965; TS 50 (1969); Cmnd 3986). It is unsatisfactory if a claimant who has in fact begun his proceedings first in a court of competent jurisdiction can be excluded from that jurisdiction as a result of the vagaries of a service procedure over which he has no control. There is no compelling reason for English law to adopt a service rule, given the lack of a concept of lis pendens. All of this adds up to a powerful case for holding that the English court was seised of these proceedings long before 19 January 2005. But, for the reasons Lord Brown has explained, it was certainly seised of them no later than that.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[5]
The appellants are the administrators of the estate of Christo Michailidis who before his death was in partnership with Robin James Symes (now bankrupt) dealing in antiquities. Following Mr Michailidis’ death the appellants took proceedings against Mr Symes and various court orders were made. On 14 February 2003, in breach of those orders, Mr Symes sold a rare statue (an inlaid alabaster statue of the Egyptian Pharaoh, Akhenaten) to the second respondent for $US3m, no part of which has been paid. The second respondent is a Swiss company, Galerie Nefer AG (Nefer) whose sole proprietor and sole officer is the first respondent, Frieda Nussberger (Mrs Nussberger), herself of Swiss nationality. Nefer seeks to justify the non-payment of the statue’s purchase price by reference to various claims exceeding $US3m which Mrs Nussberger asserts against the appellants and seeks to set off.
[6]
By the present proceedings, begun by claim form issued out of the High Court on 16 December 2004 (the English proceedings), the appellants claim $US3m against the respondents and in the alternative certain lesser sums or damages against four further defendants, including Mr Symes and his joint trustees in bankruptcy, whom I shall call simply ‘the English defendants’.
[7]
Subsequently, on 3 February 2005, in circumstances which I must shortly recount in some detail, the respondents themselves issued proceedings against the appellants in Switzerland (the Swiss proceedings), claiming negative declaratory relief in respect of exactly the same facts as those the subject of the English proceedings.
[8]
The question for the House is whether, in the light of the Swiss proceedings, the English court must itself now decline jurisdiction over the English proceedings and impose a stay. This in turn depends upon which court
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was first seised of proceedings within the meaning of art 21 of the Lugano Convention on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgments in Civil and Commercial Matters 1988 (the Lugano Convention) scheduled to the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982. Article 21 provides:
‘Where proceedings involving the same cause of action and between the same parties are brought in the courts of different Contracting States, any court other than the court first seised shall of its own motion stay its proceedings until such time as the jurisdiction of the court first seised is established. Where the jurisdiction of the court first seised is established, any court other than the court first seised shall decline jurisdiction in favour of that court.’
[9]
It is common ground that the English proceedings (at any rate as between the appellants and the respondents) and the Swiss proceedings (at least in so far as they seek declarations relating to the Akhenaten statue and the sale and proceeds of sale thereof) involve ‘the same cause of action’ and are ‘between the same parties’.
[10]
The European Court of Justice held in Zelger v Salinitri [1984] ECR 2397 that a court’s obligation under art 21 to decline jurisdiction in favour of another court only arises if it is established that the parallel proceedings have been ‘definitively brought before a court in another state’ (para 14 of the court’s judgment) and that it is for each state to determine when this is:
‘. . . the Court “first seised” is the one before which the requirements for proceedings to become definitively pending are first fulfilled, such requirements to be determined in accordance with the national law of each of the courts concerned.’ (Para 16 of the court’s judgment.)
[11]
English law has hitherto determined that proceedings become ‘definitively pending’ only when they are served on the defendant—see particularly Dresser UK Ltd v Falcongate Freight Management Ltd, The Duke of Yare [1992] 2 All ER 450, [1992] QB 502 (the Court of Appeal decision which first so decided) and Neste Chemicals SA v DK Line SA, The Sargasso [1994] 3 All ER 180 (a subsequent Court of Appeal decision holding that there could be no exceptions to the rule). Under Swiss law, however, proceedings are held to be ‘definitively pending’ as soon as they are issued.
[12]
In this case, therefore, the Swiss court became seised of the Swiss proceedings on 3 February 2005 when the respondents’ claim was issued. Had there already by then been service of the English proceedings upon the respondents such as to make the High Court ‘the court first seised’? That logically is the first question for your Lordships’ determination.
[13]
The detailed circumstances of the case as to service are as follows. On 15 December 2004, the day before the English claim form was issued, the appellants sought and obtained from Peter Smith J a worldwide freezing order against the respondents, restraining them from disposing of their assets up to a value of $US3m. The appellants undertook through counsel to issue a claim form and serve it on the respondents together with particulars of claim and various other documents underlying and including the order itself.
Page 543 of [2008] 2 All ER 537
[14]
On 16 December 2004, as already stated, the court issued the appellants’ claim form against the respondents and the English defendants. In issuing the form, the staff at the court registry of the High Court erroneously stamped it ‘Not for service out of the jurisdiction’. This was a plain mistake because the claim form had expressly been rendered eligible for service out of the jurisdiction by a statement upon it, verified as true, stating that the High Court had power under the 1982 Act to hear the claim and that no proceedings concerning it were pending in any other relevant country.
[15]
Mrs Nussberger resides in the canton of Aargau in Switzerland, Nefer’s registered office being in Zurich. The proceedings, therefore, had to be served on them in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on the Service Abroad of Judicial and Extrajudicial Documents in Civil or Commercial Matters 1965 (15 November 1965; TS 50 (1969); Cmnd 3986) (the Hague Convention). Articles 2 and 3 of the Hague Convention require each contracting state to designate a ‘Central Authority’ to effect service of such documents as are forwarded to it with a request in the appropriate form by the ‘authority or judicial officer competent under the law of the State in which the documents originate’. The competent judicial officer for English proceedings is the senior master of the Queen’s Bench Division, and the relevant Swiss central authority is, in Mrs Nussberger’s case, the Obergericht of Aargau; in Nefer’s case, the Obergericht of Zurich.
[16]
On 18 December the appellants filed requests for attachment (akin to freezing orders in England) with the Zurzach Court in Aargau and attachments were duly granted ex parte on 20 December.
[17]
On 21 December 2004 Mrs Nussberger was served by the authorities in Zurich with the ex parte attachment orders together with Peter Smith J’s order of 15 December and (untranslated) particulars of claim in the English proceedings dated 17 December (a fully detailed claim extending to 22 pages).
[18]
All the documents required by the order of 15 December 2004 to be served had first to be translated. On 31 December, when this had been done, the appellants’ solicitors presented these documents to the foreign process section of the High Court for service on the respondents. Included in these documents was the claim form, erroneously stamped ‘Not for service out of the jurisdiction’ (and the German translation of the form including the stamp), an error noticed both by the appellants’ solicitors and by the official at the foreign process section who nonetheless accepted the document for service. The senior master then arranged for the documents to be forwarded to the relevant legal authorities in Switzerland for service under the Hague Convention.
[19]
On 7 January 2005 the proceedings were served on the English defendants.
[20]
On 19 January 2005, at the end of a hearing in the Zurzach court held to review the Aargau attachment order made on 20 December, the Zurzach judge (deputed by the Aargau Obergericht to effect service on Mrs Nussberger under the Hague Convention) in the presence of the appellants’ solicitors handed her a package of documents for which she signed a receipt. By then, however, unknown to anyone else, the judge or his clerk had in fact inspected the documents, removed from the package the English language claim form because of the words erroneously stamped upon it, and resealed the package without it.
Page 544 of [2008] 2 All ER 537
[21]
On 24 January 2005 Mrs Nussberger and her lawyers learned that the claim form (although not the German translation of it) had been removed from the package of documents served upon her and on 3 February 2005, as already stated, she and Nefer issued their own proceedings against the appellants in the Swiss court.
[22]
Only on receipt of a letter from the respondents’ Swiss lawyers dated 9 February 2005 did the appellants become aware that the claim form had been removed from the package of documents served upon Mrs Nussberger and that the respondents had themselves now commenced proceedings in Zurich.
[23]
In a Hague Convention certificate dated 11 March 2005 an official of the Obergericht Aargau recorded that all the documents sent to the Zurzach court had been served on Mrs Nussberger except only the claim form, this document not being served because of the stamp it bore.
[24]
In March 2005 the appellants also learned that no documents had been served on Nefer because of an error on the part of the Swiss post office.
[25]
Having learned of the errors made in serving the respondents and the subsequent issue of Swiss proceedings, the appellants sought orders designed to ensure that the English proceedings had priority over the Swiss proceedings under article 21 of the Lugano Convention. Following a five-day hearing, Peter Smith J on 19 August 2005 gave judgment ([2005] EWHC 1880 (Ch), [2005] All ER (D) 85 (Aug)) allowing the appellants’ application, dispensing with service of the claim form upon the respondents pursuant to CPR 6.9 and declaring that the High Court had become seised of the proceedings as against the respondents on 19 January 2005. Consequential directions were given and orders made to provide for further service of documents including acknowledgment of service forms to enable the action to proceed.
[26]
On 19 May 2006 the Court of Appeal (Pill, Neuberger and Wilson LJJ) allowed the respondents’ appeal, discharged the judge’s order, set aside the further service of documents effected pursuant to it, and stayed the proceedings pursuant to art 21 ([2006] EWCA Civ 654, [2006] 3 All ER 838, [2006] 1 WLR 2598). The principal argument had centred upon CPR 3.10 and CPR 6.9 which provide as follows:
‘Where there has been an error of procedure such as a failure to comply with a rule or practice direction—(a) the error does not invalidate any step taken in the proceedings unless the court so orders; and (b) the court may make an order to remedy the error . . .
(1) The court may dispense with service of a document.’
[27]
Put shortly, the court held that it would be ineffective (or, if effective, inappropriate) to invoke CPR 6.9 to enable the English proceedings to enjoy art 21 priority: ineffective, because dispensing with the necessary service of the claim form could not take effect earlier than when the dispensing application was made (or perhaps, indeed, granted) and by then the Swiss proceedings had already obtained art 21 priority; inappropriate, because in any event it would be wrong to apply CPR 6.9 retrospectively specifically to disturb an already established order of priority. (The court in addition rejected the appellants’ contention, pursuant to a respondent’s notice, that the English court becomes seised of proceedings under art 21 when the claim is filed at the High Court’s
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foreign process section rather than when thereafter it is actually served upon the defendant abroad.)
[28]
Before your Lordships the appellants have advanced a series of alternative arguments essentially as follows: (i) the Dresser case was wrongly decided and English proceedings should be held ‘definitively pending’ as soon as they are issued; (ii) The Sargasso was wrongly decided and the Dresser rule admits of exceptions, one of which should be that English proceedings are ‘definitively pending’ once the court makes an interlocutory order against the defendant (as here the freezing order against the respondents) on the claimant’s undertaking to serve the proceedings; (iii) proceedings are ‘definitively pending’ once the claimant delivers the required documents to the foreign process section for service; (iv) in a case involving multiple defendants, service on any of them (as here service on the English defendants on 7 January 2005) is sufficient for the English court to be seised of the proceedings against all the defendants for the purposes of art 21; (v) the court below should have found that the service effected upon the respondents on 19 January 2005 was sufficient to satisfy the Dresser rule so as to confer first seisin upon the English court. As I have already suggested, it is logical to address that final issue first.
[29]
It is clear that the claim form should have been included amongst the documents served upon the respondents on 19 January 2005. That is provided for by CPR 7.5 which dictates the period within which the claim form ‘must be served on the defendant’ (six months if it is to be served out of the jurisdiction). It is no less clear, however, that (i) but for the error made by the Swiss judge or his clerk in removing the claim form from the package of documents sent to the Swiss authorities under the Hague Convention specifically for service, it would have been served, (ii) the documents in fact served included both the German translation of the claim form and (served again in English and this time in German translation too) the particulars of claim which set out in altogether greater detail than the claim form itself the nature of the appellants’ case, and (iii) the respondents accordingly suffered no prejudice from the omission of the English language claim form from the package of documents served but rather used the omission as the opportunity to seek to achieve first seisin in Switzerland.
[30]
In these circumstances essentially two questions fall for your Lordships’ consideration: first, is there power in the court by virtue of CPR 3.10 and 6.9 to determine that the service of documents actually effected on 19 January 2005 constituted sufficient service for the court then to be seised of the proceedings as definitively pending before it under the Dresser rule? Secondly, if so, ought the court in its discretion to exercise that power?
[31]
I have already set out the relevant rules. It seems to me at least arguable that even without resort to CPR 6.9 the court could simply order under para (b) of CPR 3.10 that the respondents are to be regarded as properly served, certainly for the purposes of seisin. The ‘error of procedure’ here was, of course, the omission of the English language claim form from the package of documents served: there was in this regard ‘a failure to comply with a rule’ (CPR 7.5). But that, says para (a) of CPR 3.10, ‘does not invalidate any step taken in the proceedings unless the court so orders’. The relevant ‘step’ taken here was service of the proceedings out of the jurisdiction.
[32]
It seems to me that this was essentially the view taken by the majority of the Court of Appeal (McCowan LJ and Sir John Megaw, Lloyd LJ dissenting)
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in Golden Ocean Assurance Ltd v Martin, The Goldean Mariner [1990] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 215. Several defendants were there served out of the jurisdiction with copies of the writ, but in each case the wrong copy, addressed not to him but to a different defendant. Another defendant, by an oversight, was served with no writ at all, only a form of acknowledgment of service. The court’s procedure at that time was governed by the RSC and the rule in point was RSC Ord 2, r 1. For present purposes I can see no material differences between that rule and CPR 3.10. All three members of the court accepted that RSC Ord 2, r 1 was a most beneficial provision, to be given wide effect. The majority held that service, the step in the proceedings which had plainly been attempted, was to be regarded as valid in the case of all of the above defendants. In the case of the defendants served with the wrong copy writs, Lloyd LJ accepted (at 219) that the court had a discretion: ‘The service was grossly defective. But service, or purported service, it remained.’ Unlike the majority, however, he would not have exercised that discretion in the claimant’s favour. As to the defendant served only with an acknowledgment of service, Lloyd LJ thought it ‘an omission which is so serious that . . . [i]t cannot be described “as a failure to comply with the requirements of the Rules by reason of something left undone” . . . The service of the form of acknowledgment cannot make up for the absence of the writ’ (at 218–219). The majority thought otherwise. There was, be it noted, no rule at that time akin to CPR 6.9. For my part I regard the errors and omissions committed in the process of effecting service there as if anything more, rather than less, serious than the error here (given the documents that were served here).
[33]
The Court of Appeal thought The Goldean Mariner ‘simply not in point’ because ‘there was no question in that case of the retrospective validation of an ineffective attempt to serve the writ operating to affect, let alone to alter, the priority between English and foreign proceedings under an international convention’ (at [104]). With respect, I cannot accept this reasoning. The question in the The Goldean Mariner, just as the question here, is whether the ‘attempt to serve the writ’ was or was not ‘ineffective’. It was held there to have been, not ineffective, but effective. That was not a ‘retrospective validation’. Why should service not similarly be declared to have been effective here? The question is purely one for our domestic law, just as the question of when an English court is seised of proceedings is purely one for domestic law (and, indeed, the question of precisely what documents have to be served to achieve effective service out of the jurisdiction under the Hague Convention is purely one for domestic law).
[34]
As I have said, therefore, it may not be necessary to invoke CPR 6.9 at all in order to declare the service of documents effected on 19 January 2005 to have been valid and effective. But assume, as both courts below clearly thought, that it is necessary for the court actually to dispense with service of the claim form under CPR 6.9 before the service in fact effected can be declared valid. Is that within the court’s power? The court below concluded not, on the basis that an order under CPR 6.9 would by its very nature involve the retrospective validation of what ex hypothesi would otherwise fall to be regarded as ineffective service. And this essentially is the argument by which the respondents now seek to uphold the Court of Appeal’s judgment.
[35]
There are, however, as it seems to me, two complete answers to this argument. The first is this. In making the order pursuant to CPR 6.9,
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Peter Smith J was not thereby declaring valid and effective service which had previously been ineffective; rather he was holding the previous service to have been valid and declaring that it was unnecessary to have served the English language claim form to make it so. It was in this sense that he was dispensing with service. There was no more question here, therefore, than in the The Goldean Mariner of ‘retrospective validation’. The second answer is that even if a dispensing order under CPR 6.9 was properly to be regarded as retrospectively validating what would otherwise have been ineffective service, in my judgment it would have been within the court’s power to make such an order. True, its effect would then be to alter the jurisdictional precedence under an international convention. But if, as is uncontested, your Lordships could now overrule the Dresser case (just as the Court of Appeal in the Dresser case itself departed from the ruling at first instance that English courts are seised of proceedings at the date of issue), the question of seisin being purely one for the national court, so too can an English court, applying its own procedural rules to dispense with service of a particular document, make an order which is effective retrospectively to validate what would otherwise have been an invalid form of service. I do not believe that this conclusion involves any exception to the Dresser rule: the rule surely is that the English court is seised of proceedings at the date of effective service, whatever that date may eventually be declared to have been. If, however, it does constitute an exception, so be it: to this limited extent I would if necessary qualify the decision in The Sargasso.
[36]
So much for the court’s power to dispense with service under CPR 6.9. Should the court in its discretion exercise such power? That the court would do so in a purely domestic context is surely clear beyond argument, and this notwithstanding that the exercise of the power would operate to defeat a prospective Limitation Act defence. Is it, however, appropriate to make an order which has the effect of altering the priority of the seisin of proceedings under an international convention?
[37]
On any view the power is one to be exercised sparingly and only in the most exceptional circumstances. It is difficult to suppose, for example, that it could ever properly be exercised if there had been no process of service whatever. Consider in this regard art 27 of the Lugano Convention:
‘A judgment shall not be recognised . . . 2. where it was given in default of appearance, if the defendant was not duly served with the document which instituted the proceedings or with an equivalent document in sufficient time to enable him to arrange for his defence. . .’
There can be no question here but that the respondents were served with ‘an equivalent document’: they had not only the German translation of the omitted claim form but the detailed particulars of claim (in both English and German) as well.
[38]
In my judgment the circumstances here were indeed exceptional, the call on the exercise of the court’s discretion compelling. As stated, the respondents plainly suffered no prejudice whatever by the failure to serve the original claim form but rather sought to exploit it, to steal a march on the appellants. And the essential faults here were those of the Swiss authorities: of the judge or his clerk at the Zurzach court (however well-intentioned) in
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mistakenly removing the form from the package of documents for service and the Swiss post office in failing to find Nefer’s post box (in each case substantially delaying notification of the problem to the appellants). If, moreover, the respondents are correct in their arguments under arts 21 and 22 of the Lugano Convention that, if the Swiss court here is properly to be regarded as first seised of the proceedings as between the appellants and the respondents, then neither the English court (in respect of the appellants’ claim against the English defendants) nor the Swiss court (in respect of the respondents’ claim against the appellants) has even a discretion to stay those respective claims, that would provide yet a further compelling reason for declaring the English court to be first seised of the whole action.
[39]
In short, the facts of this case could hardly be further from those of Knauf UK GmbH v British Gypsum Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1570, [2002] 2 All ER 525, [2002] 1 WLR 907 which involved a naked attempt to use CPR 6.8 to subvert the Brussels Convention on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgments in Civil and Commercial Matters 1968 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982). I for my part have no doubt that discretion under CPR 6.9 should (if necessary) be exercised here in the appellants’ favour and that the service effected on the respondents on 19 January 2005 should be declared valid and effective. If your Lordships share my view, it follows that none of the other issues needs to be considered. Given, moreover, that a completely new regime has now been put in place both by the European Union (see Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 on jurisdiction and the recognition and enforcement of judgments in civil and commercial matters (OJ 2001 L12 p 1)) and by the Lugano Convention states (see the new Lugano Convention signed on 30 October 2007 and expected shortly to be ratified)—whereby the time of seisin is defined autonomously instead of by the member states themselves—it is surely inappropriate to review cases like Dresser UK Ltd v Falcongate Freight Management Ltd, The Duke of Yare [1992] 2 All ER 450, [1992] QB 502 and The Sargasso which will imminently lose all relevance.
[40]
In the result I would allow this appeal, set aside the judgment of the Court of Appeal, restore paras 1 and 4 of the order of the judge at first instance, and order the respondents to pay the appellants’ costs here and below.
LORD MANCE.
[41]
I have had the benefit of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend, Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood. For reasons appearing in his opinion, I agree with him that, for the purposes of both English law and the Lugano Convention on Jurisdiction and the Enforcement of Judgments in Civil and Commercial Matters 1988 (as set out in Sch 3C to the Civil Jurisdiction and Judgments Act 1982) (the Lugano Convention), effective service of the proceedings out of the jurisdiction was, and falls to be regarded as, made on Mrs Nussberger on 19 January 2005 without any retrospective validation. The English court was thus on any view definitively seised of the proceedings as served on her on that date.
[42]
I would, for my part, also be prepared to go further and review the decisions of the Court of Appeal in Dresser UK Ltd v Falcongate Freight Management Ltd, The Duke of Yare [1992] 2 All ER 450, [1992] QB 502 and Neste Chemicals SA v DK Line SA, The Sargasso [1994] 3 All ER 180. I would conclude, having done so, that the English court was definitively seised of the whole
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proceedings from a still earlier date, being the date either of issue (16 December 2004) or of the freezing order (15 December 2004). In deciding whether to review those previous Court of Appeal decisions, the imminent replacement of the Lugano Convention would seem to me at best a neutral factor, once permission was given, as it was, to appeal to this House. I would not have been deterred from such a review by the suggestion that it might affect any other current cases where jurisdiction in one state or another had been accepted on the basis of the Dresser case and The Sargasso. If such cases exist, then, unless they are at a sufficiently early stage for issues of jurisdiction to be raised and argued in the ordinary course, it would probably be too late to raise them at all, but, even if not, I believe that it could well be possible for any decision by the House on this appeal to be so framed as to ensure that the settled course of such other cases was not disturbed.
[43]
The Court of Appeal in the Dresser case was faced with a choice, which it resolved in a different way to Hobhouse J at first instance who had taken the issue of the writ as the moment of seisin. In my view, the choice made by Hobhouse J is, and would have been, preferable on several grounds.
[44]
First, the Court of Appeal’s contrary solution in the Dresser case was influenced by a view of the Advocate General’s reasoning in Zelger v Salinitri (No 2) Case 129/83 [1984] ECR 2397 and of the significance of the European Court’s use in its judgment in that case of the word ‘definitively’, which were the subject of a, to my mind convincing, critique in the judgment of my noble and learned friend Lord Hoffmann in Canada Trust Co v Stolzenberg (No 2) [2000] 4 All ER 481 at 496–497, [2002] 1 AC 1 at 18–19.
[45]
Second, the Court in the Dresser case never contemplated the rigid rule later laid down by the Court in The Sargasso—indeed, one may even speculate that, if it had, then the advantages in this respect of issue over service might have prevailed. The important qualification which Bingham LJ stressed in his leading judgment in the Dresser case in 1991 was that it would be wrong, at so early a stage in the life of the convention, ‘to attempt to formulate any rule which will govern all problems which may arise in the future’, and in this regard Bingham LJ said ([1992] 2 All ER 450 at 468, [1992] QB 502 at 523) that ‘[t]he most obvious exception is where an actual exercise of jurisdiction (as by the granting of a Mareva injunction or the making of an Anton Piller order or the arrest of a vessel) precedes service: plainly the court is seised of proceedings when it makes an interlocutory order of that kind’. Yet in The Sargasso in 1994 the Court of Appeal was prepared to re-examine this qualification and to reject the existence of ‘any genuine exceptions to the rule that the date of service marks the time when an English court becomes definitively seised of proceedings’ ([1994] 3 All ER 180 at 188, per Steyn LJ; and see per Peter Gibson LJ and Sir Tasker Watkins at 189–190). It adopted the argument (with which I would respectfully disagree) that the power, under art 24 of the former Brussels and present Lugano Convention, to give interim relief in aid of foreign proceedings militates against Bingham LJ’s view in the Dresser case that an English court giving such relief in aid of its own substantive proceedings is definitively seised of such proceedings.
[46]
Third, Bingham LJ in the Dresser case ([1992] 2 All ER 450 at 467, [1992] QB 502 at 523) indicated seven respects in which service had possible significance in English procedural law. These were that:
Page 550 of [2008] 2 All ER 537
‘(1) the court’s involvement [in the issue of a writ is] confined to a ministerial act by a relatively junior administrative officer; (2) the plaintiff has an unfettered choice whether to pursue the action and serve the proceedings or not, being in breach of no rule or obligation if he chooses to let the writ expire unserved; (3) the plaintiff’s claim may be framed in terms of the utmost generality; (4) the defendant is usually unaware of the issue of proceedings and, if unaware, is unable to call on the plaintiff to serve the writ or discontinue the action and unable to rely on the commencement of the action as a lis alibi pendens if proceedings are begun elsewhere; (5) the defendant is not obliged to respond to the plaintiff’s claim in any way, and not entitled to do so save by calling on the plaintiff to serve or discontinue; (6) the court cannot exercise any powers which, on appropriate facts, it could not have exercised before issue; (7) the defendant has not become subject to the jurisdiction of the court.’
[47]
Even under English procedural rules as they stood in 1991, I cannot share the Court of Appeal’s view that these constitute clear pointers towards service rather than issue as the appropriate moment for the purposes of seisin under the then Brussels regime. Hobhouse J’s choice provided, as Steyn LJ said in The Sargasso, ‘a perfectly defensible solution, which yielded a readily comprehensible point of time when the court becomes seised’ ([1994] 3 All ER 180 at 185). And, if the qualifications stressed by the Court of Appeal in the Dresser case are rejected (as the court in The Sargasso considered that they should be), this alone affects several of the pointers.
[48]
The procedural significance attaching to issue and service in these pointers is also no longer the same under the Civil Procedure Rules: thus, as to the first respect, the court’s involvement is often not confined to issue, but extends to effecting service, unless the claimant opts to undertake this (cf CPR 6.3); as to the second, fifth and seventh respects, the procedure now generally applicable under CPR 7.4 and 7.5 provides that a claim form must after issue be served on the defendant, and under these rules and CPR 15.4 it is no longer service of the claim form, but only the service of particulars of claim (which need not appear on the claim form and are not required to be served until 14 days after its service), that imposes on a defendant any obligation to defend; as to the fourth respect, the defendant’s potential lack of awareness of English proceedings until service must be seen in the light of the reality that defendants are very often aware of such proceedings and have often (as in the present case) sought to use the inevitable delay in foreign service to try to avoid them (see further the fourth ground below); and as to both the sixth and seventh respects, the corollary of the Court of Appeal’s view in the Dresser case that issue gave rise to no new powers over a defendant was its view (rejected in The Sargasso) that, where powers were exercised over the defendant before issue, the court was then seised.
[49]
Fourth, the decisions in the Dresser case and The Sargasso have proved to generate considerable scope for pre-emptive forum shopping, and were also reached without consideration of the particular implications for multi-defendant proceedings. These points are evidenced by a number of cases, including Grupo Torras SA v Al-Sabah [1995] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 374; [1996] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 7, Tavoulareas v Tsavliris [2004] EWCA Civ 48, [2004] 2 All ER (Comm) 221 and the present. Pragmatic considerations of this nature were, in
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contrast, influential in the House’s decision in Canada Trust Co v Stolzenberg (No 2) [2000] 4 All ER 481, [2002] 1 AC 1 to take the date of issue as the relevant date at which to ascertain whether the defendant was domiciled in a contracting state for the purpose of establishing jurisdiction under art 2 of the Brussels Convention: see especially [2000] 4 All ER 481 at 487 and 490, [2002] 1 AC 1 at 9 and 12 per Lord Steyn (with whose speech Lord Cooke of Thorndon, Lord Hope of Craighead and Lord Hobhouse of Woodborough all agreed) and [2000] 4 All ER 481 at 499–500, [2002] 1 AC 1 at 22–23 per Lord Hoffmann.
[50]
Fifth, there is a natural conjunction between the moment of seisin and the date relevant for the purpose of establishing domicile. Yet the Dresser case and The Sargasso on the one hand and Canada Trust Co v Stolzenberg (No 2) on the other take different dates for these two purposes. Indeed, to reconcile the result reached in Canada Trust Co v Stolzenberg (No 2) with the decisions in the Dresser case and The Sargasso, art 52 (which, in the case of a party not domiciled in the state ‘whose courts are seised of the matter’, requires such courts to apply the law of state B in order to determine ‘whether the party is domiciled’ in state B) had to be treated as if the word ‘is’ read ‘was’ (cf [2000] 4 All ER 481 at 487–488, [2002] 1 AC 1 at 9–10 per Lord Steyn). Otherwise, as Lord Steyn said, the ‘absurd consequence’ would follow that the date relevant to domicile depended on various fortuitous consequences. But such consequences are avoided, more convincingly and consistently with the language, by judging both seisin and domicile as at the date of issue of proceedings.
[51]
I would therefore, so far as it may be necessary in order to resolve this appeal, adopt a general test of issue as the relevant date for seisin under art 21 of the Lugano Convention. That moment has the advantage, which the court identified in The Sargasso, of offering a single certain and easily ascertainable date. But, if that were not to be accepted, then I would revert to the more nuanced test of seisin which the court adopted in the Dresser case itself, which in the present case would be satisfied by virtue of the interim injunction granted against the respondents in aid of the substantive English proceedings.
[52]
Had I accepted neither of those solutions, I would have been prepared to look carefully once again at the principles which should under the present Lugano regime cover a multi-defendant case such as the present once one defendant has been effectively served. If it were possible to treat a court at least as seised of the whole proceedings once one of the parties to, or at least one of the parties common to, the two sets of proceedings had been served, that would recognise that this event and moment have real significance (cf my observations in Grupo Torras SA v Al-Sabah [1995] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 374 at 419); it would assist to ensure the integrity of proceedings and counter the possibility of procedural manoeuvring by co-defendants.
[53]
There can be little doubt, and Mr Martin QC for the respondents accepted, that art 22 requires a single date of composite seisin, which would on the basis of the Dresser case be ascertained by reference to the date when the first party was served in either set of proceedings. For art 21 to apply there must be proceedings in different contracting states between parties at least some of whom are identical on each side, and art 21 then applies, and only applies, as between those who are identical: Maciej Rataj, The, Tatry (cargo owners) v Maciej Rataj (owners) Case C-406/92 [1995] All ER (EC) 229, [1999] QB 515n. It does not necessarily follow that the court should then be regarded as
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seised by considering, on an identical party to identical party basis, which party was first served. The Tatry did not concern or consider any such situation. But I need not go so far down a chain of hypotheticals as to express any view on any aspect of the area of multi-party litigation, save that it would have merited at least some further thought.
[54]
The conclusions reached in paras [41]–[51] above mean that I would allow this appeal, set aside the judgment of the Court of Appeal, restore the order of the judge at first instance and order the respondents to pay the appellants’ costs here and below.
Appeal allowed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister
Tameside & Glossop Acute Services NHS Trust v Thompstone and other appeals
[2008] 2 All ER 553
[2008] EWCA Civ 5
Categories: QUANTUM
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): WALLER, BUXTON AND SMITH LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 15,16, 19, 20 NOVEMBER 2007, 17 JANUARY 2008
Damages – Personal injury – Amount of damages – Periodical payments – Statute providing for variation of periodical payments by reference to retail prices index – Claimants wishing for use of wage related index – Whether substitution of wage related index permissible modification – Guidance – Damages Act 1996, s 2(1), (8), (9).
In four appeals the claimants had all suffered catastrophic injury at birth. The defendants, which were health authorities or healthcare trusts had all admitted liability in negligence. Under s 2(1)a of the Damages Act 1996 a court awarding damages for future pecuniary loss in respect of personal injury ‘(a) may order that the damages are wholly or partly to take the form of periodical payments, and (b) shall consider whether to make the order’. Section 2 further provided in sub-s (8) that an order for periodical payments was to be treated as providing for the amount of payments to vary by reference to the retail prices index at such times and in such manner as might be determined or in accordance with the CPR and sub-s (9) provided ‘But an order for periodical payments may include provision—(a) disapplying subsection (8), or (b) modifying the effect of subsection (8)’. In each case the judge had made periodical payments orders under s 2 for the costs of care and case management. They did so, after hearing expert evidence, by reference not to the Retail Price Index (RPI) but to an indexed form of the Annual Survey of Hours and Earnings for the occupational group of care assistants and home carers (Occupational Group 6115) (ASHE 6115), produced by the Office of National Statistics, on the basis that it would be fair and reasonable under the provisions of s 2(9) to modify the effect of s 2(8) by providing for the amount of payments to vary in that way. The defendants all appealed. The issues on appeal included (i) whether s 2(9)(b) of the 1996 Act and the words ‘modifying the effect of’ could encompass and permit the deletion of the RPI and its substitution by a measure based on annual earnings and converted to an index; (ii) whether a party when seeking to trigger a statutory proviso under s 2(9)(b) had to discharge a legal burden by identifying and proving that a specified alternative on its own merits could displace the presumed index of the RPI or whether the exercise was a radical one of a quasi inquisitorial review undertaken by the court as part of an extended approval function; and (iii) the correct approach where a judge was making a periodical payments order without the consent of the parties. It was common ground that in deciding whether to make a periodical payments order the court’s overall aim was to make whatever order best met a claimant’s needs and that the test was an objective one. The claimants submitted, inter alia, that a defendant could not merely submit that it would prefer a substantial
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periodical payments order without calling evidence. The relevant practice direction stated that the factors to which the court was to have regard when considering whether to make a periodical payments order included the form of the award preferred by the claimant including the reasons for the claimant’s preference and the nature of any financial advice received by the claimant when considering the form of award and the form of the award preferred by the defendant including the reasons for the defendant’s preference.
Held – (1) Section 2(9)(b) of the 1996 Act encompassed and permitted the deletion of the RPI and/or its substitution by a measure based on annual earnings and converted to an index. Binding authority of the Court of Appeal had not limited the form of modification to modification of the RPI; moreover s 2(9)(b) clearly included applying another measure for indexation as what it said was that an order for periodical payments could include a provision modifying the effect of sub-s (8) not modifying the RPI (see [41]–[43], below); Flora v Wakom (Heathrow) Ltd [2006] 4 All ER 982 applied.
(2) There was an inquisitorial role for the court when deciding on whether to make a periodical payments order because under the 1996 Act the court was bound to consider whether one should be made and it was helpful to the court to have choices with the good and bad points exposed in a balanced way. That exercise was not to be complicated by considerations of legal burdens. A party who sought to prove a fact would have the evidential burden of establishing that fact on the balance of probabilities. When considering whether an order would best meet a claimant’s needs the court would have to consider the question of indexation. Whether the RPI should be replaced would depend on the alternatives available was bound to be a comparative exercise. The court would be seeking to provide an answer which, on the information it had at the trial, would, through the use of a periodical payments order, best provide the claimant with 100% compensation. If, in the context of future care, of which the main element was the wages of the carers, the RPI was not suitable for the purpose of tracking wage inflation, the question was whether a more suitable index or measure was available. The criteria for the suitability of an index were: the accuracy of the match of the particular data series to the loss or expenditure being compensated; the authority of the collector of the data; statistical reliability; accessibility; consistency over time; reproducibility in the future; and simplicity and consistency in application (see [52], [55], [56], [58], below); Sarwar v Ali [2007] EWHC 1255 (Admin) applied.
(3) In relation to the use of expert evidence it was undesirable that cases such as the instant cases should be unnecessarily burdened with evidence on satellite issues. Judges should have regard to a defendant’s general preferences advanced on instructions without the need for evidence from an independent financial adviser to be called although more specific points might require some evidence. There was nothing in the legislation to suggest that a defendant should not be permitted to call its own independent financial adviser if it was determined to advance a set of proposals which it contended would better meet the claimant’s needs better than the proposals being advanced on his behalf but it would rarely be appropriate for a defendant so to argue. In such circumstances judges should require it to be demonstrated that the point clearly arose before permitting the evidence of a second independent financial
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adviser to be adduced. The appeals would be dismissed (see [109]–[112], [145], below).
Per curiam. As a result of the proceedings in the instant cases the NHS and other defendants in proceedings that involve catastrophic injury should accept that the appropriateness of indexation on the basis of ASHE 6115 has been established after an exhaustive review of all the possible objections to its use, both in itself and as applied to the recovery of costs of care and case management. It will not be appropriate to re-open this issue in further proceedings unless a defendant can produce evidence and argument significantly different from, and more persuasive than, that which has been deployed in the instant cases. Judges should not hesitate to strike out any defences which do not meet this requirement (see [100], below).
Notes
For periodical payments under the Damages Act 1996, see Supp to 37 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 1223A.
For the Damages Act 1996, s 2, see 13 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 748.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bryers v Canadian Pacific Steamships Ltd [1956] 3 All ER 560, [1957] 1 QB 134, [1956] 3 WLR 776, CA; affd sub nom Canadian Pacific Steamships v Bryers [1957] 3 All ER 572, [1958] AC 485, [1957] 3 WLR 993, HL.
Cooke v United Bristol Healthcare NHS Trust, Sheppard v Stibbe, Page v Lee [2003] EWCA Civ 1370, [2004] 1 All ER 797, [2004] 1 WLR 251.
Cookson v Knowles [1978] 2 All ER 604, [1979] AC 556, [1978] 2 WLR 978, HL.
Flora v Wakom (Heathrow) Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1103, [2006] 4 All ER 982, [2007] 1 WLR 482.
Heil v Rankin [2000] 3 All ER 138, [2001] QB 272, [2000] 2 WLR 1173, CA.
Livingstone v Rawyards Coal Co (1880) 5 App Cas 25, HL.
McFarlane v Tayside Health Board [1999] 4 All ER 961, [2000] 2 AC 59, [1999] 3 WLR 1301, HL.
Rees v Darlington Memorial Hospital NHS Trust [2003] UKHL 52, [2003] 4 All ER 987, [2004] 1 AC 309, [2003] 3 WLR 1091.
Rhesa Shipping Co SA v Edmunds, The Popi M [1985] 2 All ER 712, [1985] 1 WLR 948, HL.
Sarwar v Ali [2007] EWHC 1255 (Admin).
Warren v Northern General Hospital NHS Trust (No 2) [2000] 1 WLR 1404, CA.
Warriner v Warriner [2002] EWCA Civ 81, [2003] 3 All ER 447, [2002] 1 WLR 1703.
Wells v Wells, Thomas v Brighton Health Authority, Page v Sheerness Steel Co plc [1998] 3 All ER 481, [1999] 1 AC 345, [1998] 3 WLR 329, HL.
White v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire Police [1999] 1 All ER 1, [1999] 2 AC 455, [1998] 3 WLR 1509, HL.
Young v Bristol Aeroplane [1944] 2 All ER 293, [1944] 1 KB 718, CA; affd [1946] 1 All ER 98, [1946] 1 All ER 163, HL.
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Appeals
Thompstone v Tameside and Glossop Acute Services NHS Trust
Tameside and Glossop Acute Services NHS Trust appealed from the decision of Swift J in the Manchester District Registry on 23 November 2006 ([2006] EWHC 2904 (QB)) in proceedings brought against the appellant by a child, Thompstone, by his mother and litigation friend, Heather Bridley, making a periodical payments order under s 2 of the Damages Act 1996. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Corbett v South Yorkshire Strategic Health Authority
South Yorkshire Strategic Health Authority appealed from the decision of Judge Bullimore sitting as a High Court Judge in the Sheffield District Registry on 28 March 2007 in proceedings brought against the appellant by a child, Corbett, by his mother and litigation friend, Catherine Elizabeth Corbett, making a periodical payments order under s 2 of the Damages Act 1996. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
RH v United Bristol Healthcare NHS Trust
United Bristol Healthcare NHS Trust appealed from the decision of Mackay J on 20 June 2007 ([2007] EWHC 1441 (QB)) in proceedings brought against the appellant by a child, RH, by his mother and litigation friend LW, making a periodical payments order under s 2 of the Damages Act 1996. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
De Haas v South West London Strategic Health Authority
South West London Strategic Health Authority appealed from the decision of Nelson J on 24 November 2006 in proceedings brought against the appellant by a child, De Haas, by her father and litigation friend Paul De Haas, making a periodical payments order under s 2 of the Damages Act 1996. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
David Allan QC and David Heaton (instructed by Linder Myers) for the claimant Thompstone.
Philip Havers QC, Paul Rees QC and David Manknell (instructed by Bevan Brittan LLP) for the Tameside & Glossop Acute Services NHS Trust.
John Grace QC, Robin Oppenheim QC and Harry Trusted (instructed by Irwin Mitchell) for the claimant Corbett.
Philip Havers QC, Paul Rees QC and David Manknell (instructed by Kennedys) for South Yorkshire Strategic Health Authority.
John Grace QC, Robin Oppenheim QC and Harry Trusted (instructed by Barcan Woodward) for claimant RH.
Philip Havers QC, Paul Rees QC and David Manknell (instructed by Kennedys) for United Bristol Healthcare NHS Trust.
Stephen Grime QC (instructed by Lees & Partners) for the claimant De Haas.
Paul Rees QC and David Manknell (instructed by Bevan Brittan LLP) for the South West London Strategic Health Authority.
Judgment was reserved.
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17 January 2008. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
WALLER LJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1]
This is the judgment of the court to which all members have contributed. It deals with a number of appeals from decisions concerned with the making of periodical payment orders (PPOs) under s 2 of the Damages Act 1996.
[2]
The decisions appealed are all concerned with very serious injury to young claimants, suffered at birth as a result of negligence, for which liability had been admitted by different health authorities or different healthcare trusts ie in broad terms the NHS. The damages for future care were in large measure agreed but the question whether a PPO should be made and if so what the form of the order should be was in issue. In such cases, by s 2(1) of the 1996 Act (brought in by way of amendment by the Courts Act 2003) the court has, since 1 April 2005, been required to consider whether to make an order for periodical payments. Section 2(8) and (9) provide as follows:
‘(8) An order for periodical payments shall be treated as providing for the amount of payments to vary by reference to the retail prices index (within the meaning of section 833(2) of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988) at such times, and in such a manner, as may be determined by or in accordance with Civil Procedure Rules.
(9) But an order for periodical payments may include provision—(a) disapplying subsection (8), or (b) modifying the effect of subsection (8).’
[3]
In Flora v Wakom (Heathrow) Ltd [2006] EWCA Civ 1103, [2006] 4 All ER 982, [2007] 1 WLR 482 the construction of these subsections was considered in the following circumstances. The claimant in that case had been severely injured and claimed damages for inter alia loss of future earnings and future care. The defendant admitted liability. In the statement of case relating to the award of damages, the claimant contended that, if the court made an order for periodic payments, it should disapply or modify s 2(8) and provide for the amount of such payments to vary by reference to a wage-related index rather than the retail prices index (RPI). To support that case, the claimant sought to adduce the expert evidence of Dr Victoria Wass, an academic labour economist based at the Cardiff Business School. The defendants applied to strike out the relevant parts of the statement of case and to exclude the evidence of Dr Wass on the grounds that use could only be made of s 2(9) in exceptional circumstances. Sir Michael Turner refused the defendant’s applications and the Court of Appeal dismissed an appeal, holding that s 2(8) identified a default position and that s 2(9) allowed the court to make the orders identified therein not simply in exceptional circumstances but whenever it appeared appropriate and fair to do so.
[4]
In dealing with a point made by Mr Pooles, for the defendants, as to the risk that, if exceptionality was not the test, the courts faced the prospect of trials at which a host of expensive witnesses would be called on each side, Brooke LJ (with whose judgment Sir Mark Potter and Moore-Bick LJ agreed) said this:
‘[33] We are now dealing with a different statutory provision and, if the experience of the past is any useful guide, it is likely that there will be a number of trials at which the expert evidence on each side can be thoroughly
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tested. A group of appeals will then be brought to this court to enable it to give definitive guidance in the light of the findings of fact made by a number of trial judges. The armies of experts will then be able to strike their tents and return to the offices or academic groves from which they came.’
[5]
We now have before us this group of appeals. They are four in number which we will identify simply by the name of the claimants: Thompstone [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB), a decision of Swift J whose judgment was handed down on 23 November 2006; De Haas, a decision of Nelson J given on 24 November 2006; Corbett, a decision of Judge Bullimore sitting as a High Court judge handed down 28 March 2007; and RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB), a decision of Mackay J handed down on 20 June 2007. In all, liability was admitted and all are concerned with severely injured claimants claiming future losses, particularly costs of future care.
[6]
The decision of Swift J was the first in time. The parties had agreed that all future losses should be paid as a lump sum save for the costs of care and case management. The claimant sought a PPO linked to a wage-related index; the defendant wanted RPI to apply. Swift J rejected arguments seeking to distinguish Flora’s case. After considering extensive expert evidence, she took the view that, because wages would increase at a faster rate than prices measured by the RPI and the RPI was thus not likely to be a reliable or accurate indicator of growth in earnings, it was right to investigate alternatives. She did so and considered the advantages and disadvantages of several measures and indices, including the Annual Survey of Hours and Earnings (ASHE) for the occupational group of care assistants and home carers (Occupational Group 6115), produced by the Office of National Statistics (ONS). She concluded that ‘it would be fair and reasonable under the provisions of s 2(9) to modify the effect of s 2(8) by providing for the amount of payments to vary by reference to the 75th percentile of ASHE occupational group 6115’.
[7]
In De Haas, Nelson J was unpersuaded that there were arguments unaddressed in Flora’s case or by Swift J, whose decision, with permission to appeal, had been promulgated the day before the hearing in De Haas. He had approved the settlement of the claimant’s claim and was concerned with the form of the order. He decided that there should be a lump sum payment for all heads of damage other than the costs of future care and case management. He adjourned the question of indexation because the claimant by her litigation friend accepted that she would be bound by the result of the proposed appeal in Thompstone’s case.
[8]
Judge Bullimore and Mackay J applied their own minds to the issues argued out before Swift J and independently rejected arguments seeking to distinguish Flora’s case. They also independently rejected the RPI as a suitable index by reference to which to increase the wages of carers and independently held, after considering extensive expert evidence, that the appropriate measure for indexation was ASHE 6115. Mackay J was also assisted by the fact that on the last day of the hearing before him, 25 May 2007, Lloyd-Jones J handed down a judgment in Sarwar v Ali [2007] EWHC 1255 (Admin). That decision has not been appealed but he also reached the conclusion that RPI was not an appropriate measure by which to index PPOs covering losses relating to wages, and in relation to future care he too applied ASHE 6115; he also used a wage-related measure to index a PPO covering the loss of future wages.
[9]
It could be said that the decision in Flora’s case should be treated as saying no more than that the claimant’s contentions were arguable and that he should
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be allowed to call the evidence of Dr Wass at trial. However, in all these cases Flora’s case has not been treated as simply a decision on arguability but was—we think rightly—treated as authority on the construction of s 2(8) and (9) albeit that attempts were made to limit what Flora’s case actually decided. In this court on the appeals, Flora’s case has rightly been treated as binding on us but again subject to a submission that some points are not covered by the decision. Permission to appeal to the House of Lords was refused in Flora’s case both by this court and the House of Lords, but in the latter case on the basis as their Lordships indicated that it was too early for such an important point to be considered by them.
[10]
Those representing the appellants wish to reserve for future argument in the House of Lords that Flora’s case was wrongly decided, but, as we have said, have accepted that a full frontal attack is not open to them in this court. They have however sought to suggest that certain arguments were not considered in Flora’s case and that, accordingly, it is still open to the court to reach, by another route, the conclusion that Flora’s case rejected. In any event, they seek to argue that the power to modify the effect of s 2(8) was more constrained than the wide language of Flora’s case would indicate.
[11]
Those representing the appellants recognise that developing the arguments they have sought to develop on the ambit of s 2(8) and (9) post-Flora without being able to make the full frontal attack on Flora’s case has been and remains a difficult task. In this court, it is made the more difficult by the fact that none of the arguments has found favour before any of the judges at first instance. Mr Philip Havers QC and Mr Paul Rees QC recognised the uphill struggle they faced. Furthermore, if they lose the construction arguments, the appellants then ask this court to review the evaluation exercise as to the appropriate index or measure to be adopted in the individual cases on which the trial judges were unanimous in their choice. That again provides the appellants with a difficult hill to climb. They have sought to dress up the points on evaluation as points of law in order to get over the obvious difficulty that this court would be unlikely to interfere with a judge’s factual evaluation exercise, but their arguments must be seen for what they in fact are.
[12]
All that said, however, this is the first opportunity for this court to consider the operation of these subsections in practice, and in a context where it is likely that an attempt will be made to take the whole question of their proper construction to the House of Lords. The task of this court, as we see it, is thus to consider the approach of the judges in these cases and by reference thereto to give guidance that will assist those who hereafter have to deal with this type of case. We hope that it will enable the experts to strike their tents and retreat, as Brooke LJ so figuratively put it, but, if not, at least it might help to focus their attention on the needs of particular claimants and the particular circumstances of individual cases, and might help to make agreement between those experts more likely. We must also keep in mind the possibility that Flora’s case, together with these cases, may at some stage be considered at a higher appellate level.
THE LEGISLATION, THE RULES AND THE PRACTICE DIRECTION
[13]
Section 2(1) of the 1996 Act (as substituted by the Courts Act 2003) provides: ‘A court awarding damages for future pecuniary loss in respect of personal injury—(a) may order that the damages are wholly or partly to take the form of periodical payments, and (b) shall consider whether to make the order.’ Sections 2(8) and (9) we have already set out.
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[14]
The rules governing the award of damages by way of periodical payments are set out in CPR 41.4–41.10. Rule 41.8(1) provides:
‘Where the court awards damages in the form of periodical payments, the order must specify—(a) the annual amount awarded, how each payment is to be made during the year and at what intervals; (b) the amount awarded for future—(i) loss of earnings and other income; and (ii) care and medical costs and other recurring or capital costs; (c) that the claimant’s annual future pecuniary losses, as assessed by the court, are to be paid for the duration of the claimant’s life, or such other period as the court orders; and (d) that the amount of the payments shall vary annually by reference to the retail price index, unless the court orders otherwise under section 2(9) of the 1996 Act.’
[15]
Rule 41.7 further provides:
‘When considering—(a) [inapplicable in this case] (b) whether to make an order under section 2(1)(a) of the 1996 Act, the court shall have regard to all the circumstances of the case and in particular the form of award which best meets the claimant’s needs, having regard to the factors set out in the practice direction.’
[16]
The relevant practice direction provides, at CPR PD 41b 1:
‘The factors which the court shall have regard to under rule 41.7 include: (1) the scale of the annual payments taking into account any deductions for contributory negligence; (2) the form of award preferred by the claimant including—(a) the reasons for the claimant’s preference; and (b) the nature of any financial advice received by the claimant when considering the form of award; and (3) the form of award preferred by the defendant including the reasons for the defendant’s preference.’
BACKGROUND TO SECTION 2(8) AND (9)
[17]
We cannot do better than to take the background from the first of the judgments we have to consider, that of Swift J in Thompstone’s case:
‘LUMP SUM AWARDS
[14] In the past, damages awards have in general been paid by way of a single lump sum, comprising (as applicable) awards for pain, suffering and loss of amenity, past losses, interest and future losses. In the case of a claim for future loss, a lump sum is calculated by reference to a series of multiplicands, representing the claimant’s future annual loss or cost in respect of each head of damage. To those multiplicands are applied multipliers derived from a combination of the claimant’s estimated life expectancy and a discount rate based on an assumption that the capital, notionally invested, will produce an annual return equivalent to 2·5 per cent net per annum (pa) over and above the increase in the RPI.
[15] A lump sum award has a number of advantages. It is final, simple and offers flexibility to a claimant, who can decide for himself how to prioritise his various needs and wants. However, the “once and for all” approach frequently results in over- or under-compensation. The multiplier is calculated by reference to average life expectancy which may have little bearing on the actual life expectancy of the individual claimant
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concerned. A claimant may die well before his expected time; in that event, the defendant cannot recover the excess of damages paid and that excess constitutes a windfall for the claimant’s family. Conversely, a claimant may survive longer than expected, in which case his damages may be insufficient to meet his needs during the last years of his life. Investment returns will vary according to an individual’s investment strategy and the economic conditions prevailing at the time. The returns may be above or below those assumed by the discount rate. In addition, a claimant’s needs may alter from those anticipated at the time of trial or settlement, and costs which were estimated at rates current at the trial date may increase significantly thereafter.
STRUCTURED SETTLEMENTS
[16] In an attempt to meet some of these difficulties and, in particular, to ensure that claimants were protected against the risk that, at some point, their damages might be exhausted, a new means of paying damages by way of “structured settlement” was developed. From 1988, the purchase of an annuity by a defendant or its insurer out of, and at the same time, as an award of compensation resulted in the annual payments from the annuity being tax-free in a claimant’s hands. The first structured settlement was agreed in 1989 and provided for the payment to the claimant of a combination of a lump sum and a stream of tax-free payments payable for her lifetime. Since 1989, there have been various developments in the arrangements for structured settlements which I need not describe here. Various factors have served to limit the number of claims resolved by means of a structured settlement. A major restriction was that structured settlements could be implemented only with the agreement of both parties.
CHANGES TO THE SYSTEM
[17] Section 2(1) of the 1996 Act permitted the court to make an order that damages were wholly or partly to take the form of periodical payments. Such an order could, however, only be made if both parties agreed.
[18] The shortcomings of the existing system were highlighted by Lord Steyn in the leading case of Wells v Wells, Thomas v Brighton Health Authority, Page v Sheerness Steel Co plc [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 502, [1999] AC 345 at 384:
“[T]here is a major structural flaw in the present system. It is the inflexibility of the lump sum system which requires an assessment of damages once and for all of future pecuniary losses. In the case of the great majority of relatively minor injuries the plaintiff will have recovered before his damages are assessed and the lump sum system works satisfactorily. But the lump sum system causes acute problems in cases of serious injuries with consequences enduring after the assessment of damages. In such cases the judge must often resort to guesswork about the future. Inevitably, judges will strain to ensure that a seriously injured plaintiff is properly cared for whatever the future may have in store for him. It is a wasteful system since the courts are sometimes compelled to award large sums that turn out not to be needed. It is true, of course, that there is statutory provision for
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periodic payments: see s 2 of the Damages Act 1996. But the court only has this power if both parties agree. Such agreement is never, or virtually never, forthcoming. The present power to order periodic payments is a dead letter. The solution is relatively straightforward. The court ought to be given the power of its own motion to make an award for periodic payments rather than a lump sum in appropriate cases. Such a power is perfectly consistent with the principle of full compensation for pecuniary loss. Except perhaps for the distaste of personal injury lawyers for change to a familiar system, I can think of no substantial argument to the contrary. But the judges cannot make the change. Only Parliament can solve the problem.”
[19] In 2002, the Master of the Rolls’ Working Party published its report entitled “Structured Settlements”. The disadvantages of a conventional lump sum award were summarised at para 12 of the report:
“The one thing which is certain about a once and for all lump sum award in respect of future loss is that it will inevitably either over-compensate or under-compensate. This will happen particularly where the claimant survives beyond the life expectancy estimated at the time of trial, or alternatively dies earlier. It will frequently be the case in practice that there is over-compensation in six figure sums, or, correspondingly, that a combination of increased life expectancy, the cost of care, and (it may be) the cost of new but necessary medical treatments is such that the sum needed exceeds anything that might have been awarded at the date of trial.”
[20] The Working Party therefore concluded at para 21:
“. . . of the features we have identified that of accuracy is the most important. We are concerned that a consequence of a system of once and for all lump sum awards is that there will be under or over-compensation (in some cases considerable) and particularly concerned that a proportion of claimants whose life expectancy is uncertain, and who need significant continuing care, might be left with significant uncompensated need. It adds to our concern that this is likely to occur later in life when the consequences will be particularly hard to manage. It is also of concern that appreciation of this may give rise to excessive prudence and under expenditure in earlier years. Accordingly, we prefer a system that is better able to meet future needs as and when they arise. Such a system may also have its defects—as we shall go on to point out—but we believe the advantages outweigh them.”
[21] Following the report of the Working Party, amendments were made to the 1996 Act. As a result of these amendments, contained in the 2003 Act, it has since 1 April 2005 been open to a court to make an order for periodical payments whether or not the parties agree. Indeed, it is now mandatory, when a court is making an award of damages for future pecuniary loss in respect of personal injury, for it to consider whether the damages—or part of them—should be paid by way of periodical payments.
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periodical payments orders
[22] Periodical payments avoid many of the problems caused by lump sum awards. They provide a guarantee for a claimant that he will continue to receive regular annual payments for the duration of his life so that his damages will never be exhausted. The annual payments will be free of tax, which removes any uncertainties associated with possible future changes to the arrangements for taxation of investment income. The fact that the annual payments cease on death means that there is far less risk of large sums paid by defendants going to persons other than the injured person for whose benefit they were intended. All these factors represent considerable advantages over the lump sum award.
[23] When a lump sum award is made, the responsibility for deciding how to invest his damages lies with the claimant or those acting on his behalf. It is for him (or them) to husband his resources carefully, with a view to ensuring that they have the best possible opportunity to meet his lifelong needs. Where the claimant has a large sum of damages and a long life expectancy, his damages will require skilled financial management in order, not only to guard against the risk that he might survive longer than the estimate of life expectancy on which the multiplier was calculated, but also to meet the cost of his annual needs, which cost will increase year by year from the date when the award is made.
[24] The management of a claimant’s damages involves taking decisions about risk. All investments carry with them some element of risk. The more risk an investor is prepared to take, the greater the potential returns. An investment that offers the prospect of high returns in terms of capital growth also in general carries with it the risk that the capital value of the investment might decrease. An investment carrying a lower rate of risk is likely to produce lower returns but greater security of capital. Ideally, a claimant who is entirely reliant on his damages for his future quality of life should not be compelled to expose himself to a significant degree of investment risk. However, for a claimant with a long life expectancy and a ‘once and for all’ damages award, this is often unavoidable. He will probably be advised to invest in a combination of low risk and higher risk investments, this being the only way in which he can hope to be in a position to meet increasing annual costs and the potential additional expense associated with a longer than expected life expectancy.
[25] One important effect of a periodical payments order is to transfer the risk associated with the investment of damages away from the claimant. The award will guarantee the claimant annual payments for his lifetime. Furthermore, the amendments to the 1996 Act provide for uplifts to the annual payments in accordance with the RPI. Provided that indexation to the RPI accurately reflects actual increases in the relevant annual costs, the claimant will be protected against the effects of future increases in those costs.
[26] If, however, the annual uplifts do not properly reflect the actual increases in the relevant costs, the claimant will have no means of protecting himself against the consequences of the shortfall. He will not have the option of pursuing an investment policy aimed at achieving capital growth in order to meet shortfalls in the future. The transfer of
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risk away from him results also in a loss of opportunity for gain. He could be caught in a situation whereby his annual payments fall further and further below the level which, at the time the periodical payments order was made, was agreed or assessed as being required to meet his needs.
AWARDS FOR FUTURE CARE COSTS
[27] In most serious personal injury cases, the largest component of the award of damages is the cost of future care. The provision of a proper level of good quality care throughout life is vital to a severely injured claimant’s future well being and quality of life. The importance of this head of damage has been recognised by the courts. In Wells [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 518, Lord Hutton said:
“Unlike the great majority of persons who invest their capital, it is vital for the plaintiffs that they receive constant and costly nursing care for the remainder of their lives and that they should be able to pay for it, and any fall in income or depreciation in the capital value of their investments will affect them much more severely than persons in better health who depend on their investments for support.”
In the same case, Lord Hope observed [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 508, [1999] 1 AC 345 at 391:
“Whatever policy reasons there might have been for regarding it as acceptable that there may be less than a full recovery in regard to wage loss—and I should make it clear that I do not subscribe to that policy—there can be no good reason for a shortfall in the amount required for future care or to meet all the other outlays which have been rendered necessary by the disability. The calculation should make the best use of such tools to assist that process as are available.”
Lord Clyde made the same point [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 511–512, [1999] 1 AC 345 at 394:
“The problem of sufficiently providing for the future care of the very severely disabled plaintiff gives rise to particular concern since any inadequacy of the award in that respect could be particularly serious.”
[28] The effect of a shortfall in the damages available for future care is that the claimant will be dependent on the State to make up the balance needed to meet his care needs. Such assistance may or may not be forthcoming.’
THE 100% RECOVERY PRINCIPLE
[18]
The principle that there should be full compensation (the 100% principle) was fundamental to the decision in Flora’s case and to the decisions of all the trial judges who have had to consider the matter. It is dealt with most fully in the judgment of Swift J but was of no less importance to the others (see in particular to Judge Bullimore in Corbett at [92], Mackay J in RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [69] and Lloyd Jones J in Sarwar [2007] EWHC 1255 (Admin) at [113]). Swift J cited the most relevant and important passages and again it is convenient to take the following passage from her judgment:
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‘THE PRINCIPLE OF FULL COMPENSATION
[29] Awards of damages should be calculated so as to achieve, as nearly as possible, full compensation for the claimant. In Wells, Lord Hope set out what is sometimes known as the “100% principle” ([1998] 3 All ER 481 at 507, [1999] AC 345 at 390):
“. . . the object of the award of damages for future expenditure is to place the injured party as nearly as possible in the same financial position as he or she would have been in but for the accident. The aim is to award such a sum of money as will amount to no more, and at the same time no less, than the net loss.”
In the same case, Lord Lloyd said ([1998] 3 All ER 481 at 484, [1999] 1 AC 345 at 363):
“It is of the nature of a lump sum payment that it may, in respect of future pecuniary loss, prove to be either too little or too much. So far as the multiplier is concerned, the plaintiff may die the next day, or he may live beyond his normal expectation of life. So far as the multiplicand is concerned, the cost of future care may exceed everyone’s best estimate. Or a new cure or less expensive form of treatment may be discovered. But these uncertainties do not affect the basic principle. The purpose of the award is to put the plaintiff in the same position, financially, as if he had not been injured. The sum should be calculated as accurately as possible, making just allowance, where this is appropriate, for contingencies. But once the calculation is done, there is no justification for imposing an artificial cap on the multiplier. There is no room for a judicial scaling down.”’
[19]
The next two paragraphs in Swift J’s judgment we quote because they seem to us to reflect accurately the proper approach to sub-ss (8) and (9):
‘[30] In the case of Flora, the court considered the “100% principle” in the context of the indexation of periodical payments. Brooke LJ said ([2006] 4 All ER 982 at [19]):
“There is no indication in s 2 of the 1996 Act, as substituted, that Parliament intended to depart from this well-known principle [ie the 100% principle] . . .”
He repeated his view at [28] and then went on to say at [29]:
“For this reason I reject the argument that in enacting s 2(8) and 2(9) of the 1996 Act Parliament must be taken to have intended to provide compensation lower than that which would be awarded through adherence to the 100% principle if a periodical payments order was to be made.”
[31] It follows, therefore, that indexation of a periodical payments order must be directed at ensuring, as far as is possible, that the real value of the annual payments is retained over the whole period for which the payments will be payable. Any other result would mean that the “100% principle” was breached and would result in injustice to a claimant in respect of whom a periodical payments order was made. It would also have the effect of
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rendering the new statutory provisions nugatory. If it were clear to claimants’ advisers and to courts hearing personal injury cases that the real value of periodical payments would not be retained in the future, orders for periodical payments would not be agreed or made. Instead, awards of damages by way of lump sums—with all the attendant disadvantages which have been identified and addressed—would continue to be the norm. It was this possibility to which Brooke LJ referred in Flora’s case when he said at [35]:
“In enacting s 2 of the 1998 [sic] Act, as substituted, it cannot have been Parliament’s purpose to create a scheme which no properly advised claimant would ever wish to use.”’
[20]
In making their submissions on behalf of the appellant defendants, before the trial judges and before us, Mr Havers and Mr Rees accepted that the 100% principle must be applied. They maintained before the trial judges and before us that their arguments did not cause a departure from it. The trial judges were unconvinced and, as we made clear at the hearing, we also remained unconvinced.
THE ISSUES IN THESE APPEALS
[21]
It is convenient, against the above background, to turn to the arguments raised on these appeals. Although the grounds of appeal in each of the four cases were put in slightly different terms, the appellants helpfully amalgamated all the points to be decided on by this court into a list of issues. We will deal with these either singly or in groups, excluding those which were not pursued.
Issues 1 and 2
[22]
We will consider issues 1 and 2 together. Issue 1 requires the court to consider: whether, as a matter of law and statutory construction, s 2(8) of the 1996 Act can only be modified in ‘exceptional circumstances’. Issue 2 asks: whether as a matter of law and precedent s 2(8) of the 1996 Act can only be modified in ‘exceptional circumstances’.
[23]
It was accepted before the trial judges and before us that Flora’s case had rejected the argument that it was only in exceptional circumstances that s 2(9) could be used to modify s 2(8). A convenient summary of what Flora’s case decided is contained in the judgment of Lloyd Jones J in Sarwar’s case:
‘[111] This new system governing periodical payments was considered by the Court of Appeal in Flora’s case . . . The judgment of Brooke LJ, with which the other members of the court agreed, establishes the following principles:
(1) If a periodical payments order does not identify on its face the manner in which the amount of the payments is to vary in order to maintain their real value, the effect of s 2(8) is that it is to be treated as providing for what is set out in that subsection unless the order contains a provision of a type identified in s 2(9). There is nothing in the language of these sub-sections to suggest that the power to make provision such as is identified in s 2(9) may only be exercised in an exceptional case. (Paragraph [10].)
(2) There is no indication in s 2 of the 1996 Act, as substituted, that Parliament intended the courts to depart from the “100% principle” formulated by Lord Blackburn in Livingstone v Rawyards Coal Co
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(1880) 5 App Cas 25 at 39 and by Lord Hope in Wells v Wells [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 507, [1999] AC 345 at 390, namely that a victim of a tort is entitled to be compensated as nearly as possible in full for all pecuniary losses. Accordingly, the Court of Appeal rejected the submission that in enacting sub-ss 2(8) and (9) of the 1996 Act Parliament must be taken to have intended to provide compensation lower than that which would be awarded through adherence to the 100% principle, if a periodical payments order was to be made. (Paragraphs [18], [19], [27]–[29].)
(3) In a case where periodical payments are claimed, the trial judge should decide whether it is appropriate to use the powers given by Parliament in sub-s 2(9) and make such an order for index-linking the periodical payments (if a periodical payments order is in fact made) as he considers appropriate and fair in all the circumstances, without being obliged to detect exceptional circumstances before he is at liberty to depart from indexation linked to the RPI. (Paragraph [37].)’
[24]
All the trial judges accepted the binding nature of Flora’s case but, before Mackay J in RH and it would seem before Nelson J in De Haas and then before us, an attempt was made to argue that Flora’s case had been decided per incuriam and thus that it was not binding. It was said that an argument based on the decision in the Court of Appeal in Cooke v United Bristol Healthcare NHS Trust, Sheppard v Stibbe, Page v Lee [2003] EWCA Civ 1370, [2004] 1 All ER 797, [2004] 1 WLR 251 as to why s 2(9) should only apply in exceptional circumstances, had not been made or considered in Flora’s case. Cooke’s case was concerned with an award of a lump sum for future care in relation to a seriously injured claimant, where the Court of Appeal disallowed what it held to be an attempt to get round the discount rate laid down by the Lord Chancellor under s 1 of the 1996 Act, a rate effectively calculated by reference to the RPI. The argument in broad terms is that the same principle should apply when assessing PPOs as applies when assessing lump sum damages, and if Flora’s case is right that will not be so.
[25]
The argument in more detail goes as follows. It traces the background to Cooke’s case chronologically as follows. First, by s 1 of the 1996 Act, it was provided as follows:
‘(1) In determining the return to be expected from the investment of a sum awarded as damages for future pecuniary loss in an action for personal injury, the court shall, subject to and in accordance with rules of court made for the purposes of this section, take into account such rate of return (if any) as may from time to time be prescribed by an order made by the Lord Chancellor.
(2) Subsection (1) above shall not however prevent the court taking a different rate of return into account if any party to the proceedings shows that it is more appropriate in the case in question.’
[26]
Before the Lord Chancellor prescribed a rate in accordance with s 1(1), Wells v Wells was decided by the House of Lords and by their decision they ruled that, pending the Lord Chancellor exercising his power under s 1(1), three per cent should be the discount rate assessed by reference to Index-linked Government Stock (ILGS). Again, prior to the Lord Chancellor prescribing a rate, Wells had been interpreted as saying that three per cent should be the discount rate ‘save in very exceptional circumstances’ (Warren v Northern General Hospital NHS Trust (No 2) [2000] 1 WLR 1404 at 1408 per Stuart-Smith LJ).
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[27]
When, on 25 June 2001, the Lord Chancellor prescribed a discount rate of 2·5 per cent he published reasons. Those reasons were first published on 27 June 2001 but, following his attention being brought to an error, further reasons were published on 27 July 2001. The key reasons are summarised by Dyson LJ in Warriner v Warriner [2002] EWCA Civ 81 at [14], [2003] 3 All ER 447 at [14] in the following terms:
‘(a) the market in ILGS was at present distorted, so that the prevailing yields were artificially low; (b) the Court of Protection, even in the wake of the decision of the House of Lords in Wells v Wells, Thomas v Brighton Health Authority, Page v Sheerness Steel Co plc [1998] 3 All ER 481, [1999] 1 AC 345 had continued to invest on behalf of claimants in multi-asset portfolios, such that real rates of return well in excess of 2·435% could be expected; and (c) it was likely that “real” claimants with large awards of compensation would not be advised to invest solely or even primarily in ILGS, but rather in a mixed portfolio.’
[28]
Dyson LJ then quoted the Lord Chancellor as saying:
‘Finally, in deciding that a single rate of 2·5% should have been set by me on 25 June 2001, I have borne in mind that it will, of course, remain open for the courts, under s 1(2) of the Damages Act 1996, to adopt a different rate in any particular case if there are exceptional circumstances which justify it in doing so.’
[29]
In Warriner v Warriner the Court of Appeal was concerned with a case in which an expert (Mr Hogg) was suggesting that the court should exercise its power under s 1(2) to apply a lower discount than 2·5 per cent on the ground that it was, as the subsection required, ‘more appropriate’ in the case in question. The argument on behalf of the defendant on the appeal was that, albeit ‘more appropriate’ were the words of the subsection, the Lord Chancellor’s statement that sub-s 1(2) would be applied in ‘exceptional circumstances’ was correct, in that it could never be ‘more appropriate’ to apply a different rate unless the circumstances were outside those taken into account by the Lord Chancellor in fixing the rate at 2·5 per cent.
[30]
In Cooke’s case, the expert for the claimant (indeed it would appear the same Mr Hogg) sought to deal with the fact that a lump sum for care, if discounted at 2·5 per cent, would not provide full compensation but, recognising that the case was not exceptional, advised that there should be a variation in the multiplicand.
[31]
When the case came to the Court of Appeal ([2004] 1 All ER 797), that court held that it was impermissible to alter the multiplicand. Laws LJ said this:
‘[30] In the end, the central issue in these appeals falls to be resolved upon what, I have to say, seems to me to be a very straightforward basis. Once it is accepted that the discount rate is intended in any given personal injury case to be the only factor (in the equation ultimately yielding the claimant’s lump sum payment) to allow for any future inflation relevant to the case, then the multiplicand cannot be taken as allowing for the same thing, or any part of it, without usurping the basis on which the multiplier has been fixed. And it must be accepted that the discount rate was so intended: by the House in Wells’ case, by Parliament in the 1996 Act, and by the Lord Chancellor in making his order under the Act. Mr Hogg’s attempt to treat his calculation
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of the multiplicand as a “separate issue” from the discount rate, and counsel’s submissions supporting that position, are in the end nothing but smoke and mirrors. It follows that the substance of these appeals constitutes an illegitimate assault on the Lord Chancellor’s discount rate, and on the efficacy of the 1996 Act itself, and (subject to Mr Hogarth’s point on s 1(2)) they must in my judgment be dismissed.’
[32]
Dyson LJ said this:
‘[42] The compensation principle is not in issue. It was acknowledged by their Lordships in Wells’ case. They well understood that the cost of future care would or might exceed RPI inflation (see [1999] 1 AC 345 at 354 and [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 488, [1999] 1 AC 345 at 367). And yet they fixed a rate of 3%, which was substantially based on a return for ILGS (where inflation is measured by the RPI). Their Lordships recognised that this would not produce a return that would match future inflation precisely. Thus, for example, Lord Steyn spoke of an element of “arbitrariness in any figure” ([1998] 3 All ER 481 at 506, [1999] 1 AC 345 at 388); and Lord Clyde referred to there always remaining “an element of uncertainty in prediction which may only in a rough and ready way satisfy the desire that justice be done between both parties” (see [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 511, [1999] 1 AC 345 at 394). Their Lordships recognised that a single rate was a somewhat crude instrument, but they adopted it for the public policy reasons that certainty was necessary in order to facilitate settlements and save costs.
[43] These same considerations informed the decision of Lord Irvine LC to select the single rate of 2·5%. He too was aware of the compensation principle, and stated explicitly that this was the principle that he “must strive to apply”. He could have chosen different rates for different heads of loss. But he decided not to do so in order to “eliminate scope for uncertainty and argument about the applicable rate”.
[44] It is clear, therefore, that both the House of Lords in Wells’ case and Lord Irvine LC in fixing the rate at 2·5% purported to be giving effect to the compensation principle. The submissions made on behalf of the appellants amount to saying that neither the House of Lords nor Lord Irvine LC achieved what they expressly said they were setting out to achieve. If the present appeals were being decided without reference to the fact that Lord Irvine LC has fixed the discount rate, this challenge could not be made since the decision in Wells’ case would be binding on this court. But, of course, the fact that Lord Irvine has fixed the rate cannot be ignored. Once it is shown that, in fixing the rate, Lord Irvine intended his single rate to allow for future inflation in respect of all heads of loss, an attempt to persuade a court to calculate damages by allowing for future inflation of certain heads of loss by a different method can be seen for what it is. Despite the disavowals vigorously made on behalf of all three appellants, these challenges are, in my view, nothing less than a plain attempt to subvert the Lord Chancellor’s rate itself.’
[33]
Mr Havers, who argued this point before us, submitted that it should be impermissible to have two ostensibly parallel but in fact divergent systems of compensation producing different outcomes. If applying a discount calculated by reference to RPI was consistent with the 100% principle when calculating a lump
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sum award, it must also be consistent with the 100% recovery principle to make PPOs indexed by reference to RPI.
[34]
The answer to this point is provided in a passage in the judgment of Brooke LJ in Flora’s case supported indeed by the reasons of the Lord Chancellor, as summarised by Dyson LJ in Warriner’s case, quoted above. Brooke LJ, having traced the recent history of the discount rate, culminating, incidentally, with a quotation of a passage from the judgment of Laws LJ in Cooke’s case, said ([2006] 4 All ER 982):
‘[27] This brief summary of the recent history of the discount rate used for the purpose of calculating lump sum awards for future pecuniary loss is sufficient to show that an award of a lump sum is entirely different in character from an award of periodical payments as a mechanism for compensating for such loss. When setting the appropriate discount rate in the context of a lump sum award the House of Lords or the Lord Chancellor had to guess the future and to hope that prudent investment policy would enable a seriously injured claimant to benefit fully from the award for the whole of the period for which it was designed to provide him/her with appropriate compensation.
[28] A periodical payments order is quite different. This risk is taken away from the claimant. The award will provide him or her year by year with appropriate compensation, and the use of an appropriate index will protect him/her from the effects of future inflation. If he or she dies early the defendants will benefit because payments will then cease. It is unnecessary in the context of this statutory scheme to make the kind of guesses that were needed in the context of setting a discount rate. The fact that these two quite different mechanisms now sit side by side in the same Act of Parliament does not in my judgment mean that the problems that infected the operation of the one should be allowed to infect the operation of the other. There is nothing in the statute to indicate that in implementing s 2 of the 1996 Act (as substituted) Parliament intended the courts to depart from what Lord Steyn described in Wells v Wells [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 501, [1999] AC 345 at 382–383 as the “100% principle”, namely that a victim of a tort was entitled to be compensated as nearly as possible in full for all pecuniary losses . . .’
[35]
As Brooke LJ emphasised, the two regimes are quite different. We cannot put more eloquently the reasons for their difference than are given in the passage quoted.
[36]
In any event the argument that in some way Flora’s case was decided per incuriam was hopeless. Cooke’s case was cited and considered at length. Even if one cannot find the precise argument as Mr Havers put it being considered in the judgment of Brooke LJ, we would take some persuading that something very close to it was not being considered. In any event the point was certainly there to be taken and the decision was not per incuriam.
[37]
In Young v Bristol Aeroplane [1944] 2 All ER 293, [1944] 1 KB 718, Lord Greene MR set out the circumstances where one Court of Appeal might not follow the decision of another including where the first decision was per incuriam. He did not purport to define with absolute precision the breadth of the expression per incuriam saying this ([1944] 2 All ER 293 at 300, [1944] 1 KB 718 at 729):
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‘Where the court has construed a statute or a rule having the force of a statute its decision stands on the same footing as any other decision on a question of law, but where the court is satisfied that an earlier decision was given in ignorance of the terms of a statute, or a rule having the force of a statute, the position is very different. It cannot, in our opinion, be right to say that in such a case the court is entitled to disregard the statutory provision and is bound to follow a decision of its own, given when that position was not present to its mind. Cases of this description are examples of decisions given per incuriam. We do not think it would be right to say there may not be other cases of decisions given per incuriam in which this court might properly consider itself entitled not to follow an earlier decision of its own. Such cases would obviously be of the rarest occurrence and must be dealt with in accordance with their special facts. Two classes of decisions per incuriam fall outside the scope of our enquiry, namely (i) those where the court has acted in ignorance of a previous decision of its own or of a court of co-ordinate jurisdiction which covers the case before it—in such a case a subsequent court must decide which of the two decisions it ought to follow; and (ii) those where it has acted in ignorance of a decision of the House of Lords which covers the point—in such a case a subsequent case is bound by the decision of the House of Lords.’
[38]
That passage from Lord Greene’s judgment hardly encourages an argument that a previous decision is per incuriam if (as Mr Havers would suggest) an argument readily open to one party was not developed before the court suggested to have acted per incuriam. That that is the correct interpretation of Lord Greene’s judgment, and that the argument is hopeless, is confirmed by the decision of the Court of Appeal in Bryers v Canadian Pacific Steamships Ltd [1956] 3 All ER 560, [1957] 1 QB 134. All members of the court were clear that they were bound by a previous decision of the Court of Appeal and Singleton LJ put the matter this way ([1956] 3 All ER 560 at 569, [1957] 1 QB 134 at 147):
‘It has been argued in this court that the decision is not binding upon us because the point now taken . . . was not argued before the court in [the previous decision]. As I said, the point was there if it was to be taken. The circumstances of the case were considered: reg 42 was applied by the Court of Appeal in a case in which there were different repairers. The case ought to be regarded as binding upon the court in this case. It is no part of the duty of the court to look for a reason for not following a decision if the decision, on the face of it, covers the particular case. If one applies the test laid down by Lord Greene MR in Young v Bristol Airplane Co Ltd one finds (as I think) every warrant for the proposition made by Miss Heilbron that the decision in [the previous Court of Appeal decision] governs this case.’
[39]
In the end, Mr Havers frankly accepted that he was unlikely to succeed in persuading us that Flora’s case was decided per incuriam, but asked us to deal with the argument anyway, in case the House of Lords had to consider the whole matter hereafter. That we have done.
Issue 3
[40]
This issue requires us to consider: whether as a matter of law s 2(9)(b) of the 1996 Act and the words ‘modifying the effect of’ can encompass and permit
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the deletion of the Retail Prices Index and/or its substitution by a measure based on annual earnings and converted to an index.
[41]
The appellants seek to persuade us that the only form of modification permitted by the subsection is modification of RPI and to reject any possibility of an alternative to RPI. It is said that ‘modification’ under the section relates to the ‘index’ and thus must be limited to increasing or decreasing the RPI, as for example by ordering indexation by reference to say, RPI plus 10 per cent. It is said that Flora’s case did not deal with how RPI could be modified; it looked only at when. In other words (as we would understand the argument), in Flora’s case, the Court of Appeal must be taken to have decided that, when the matter returned to the trial judge, the trial judge was bound to rule that the index must remain the RPI, with the possibility of an uplift to the RPI, and that no consideration could be given to some alternative index or measure.
[42]
It may be that a judge would be free to modify the RPI index if that was the most accurate way to ensure 100 per cent compensation, but it seems to us quite clear from the judgment in Flora’s case that the Court of Appeal was not saying that that was the limit of the judge’s powers. Dr Wass was advocating alternatives to RPI and not a variation to RPI itself. The Court of Appeal was dealing with the possibility that the alternatives being advocated in the evidence of Dr Wass could be adopted and was encouraging the trial judge to consider those alternatives.
[43]
In our view we are bound by the Court of Appeal decision in Flora’s case to reject this argument. But we add that it seems to us that the appellants’ argument is entirely misplaced. In their consolidated skeleton, those representing the appellants have demonstrated great industry in quoting many dictionary definitions of modification, many authorities on modification and statutes dealing with modification. But they also demonstrate the trap into which they have fallen by stating, in para [47], that it is their case ‘that any modification must be by an adjustment to the index’. What s 2(9) actually says is that an order for PPOs may include a provision ‘modifying the effect of sub-s (8)’. It does not confine itself to ‘modifying the index’. The language clearly includes applying another measure for indexation.
Issue 4
[44]
This issues asks: whether as a matter of law or alternatively discretion, the remedy of modification should be denied by application of the principle of distributive justice.
[45]
Here, the appellants seek to persuade us once again that, save in exceptional circumstances, s 2(9) should not be used to disapply RPI. Reliance is placed on the principle of distributive justice, and it suggested that this argument was not considered in Flora’s case.
[46]
Mr Havers reminded us of some well known dicta where, in recent years, reference has been made to the concept of distributive justice. He cited from White v Chief Constable of South Yorkshire Police [1999] 1 All ER 1, [1999] 2 AC 455, McFarlane v Tayside Health Board [1999] 4 All ER 961, [2000] 2 AC 59, Rees v Darlington Memorial Hospital NHS Trust [2003] UKHL 52, [2003] 4 All ER 987, [2004] 1 AC 309 and Heil v Rankin [2000] 3 All ER 138, [2001] QB 272.
[47]
Mr Havers’ difficulty is that ‘distributive justice’ is not a principle of English law recently adopted so as to allow free rein to ignore basic principles long established. It may come into play when considering whether it is fair, just
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and reasonable to hold that a duty of care is owed (as in Frost’s and Rees’s cases) or in considering a public policy question such as damages for the birth of a healthy child (as in McFarlane’s case). It is perhaps also understandable how it plays some part in considering the essentially judgemental question of whether the level of general damages should be increased (as in Heil’s case), but this is all a far cry from seeking to influence the calculation of actual financial loss where the 100% recovery principle is fundamental. Once liability is established and once financial loss is being assessed, it is ‘corrective justice’ and not distributive justice with which the court should be concerned.
[48]
In our view Brooke LJ was reflecting that thought when in Flora’s case he said ([2006] 4 All ER 982 at [29]):
‘For the same reason I reject the argument that the court should consider questions of affordability when determining what order to make because, as Lord Steyn said in Wells v Wells, [1998] 3 All ER 481 at 502, [1999] AC 345 at 383–384, policy arguments based on affordability are a matter for Parliament and not for the court. It is true that in Heil v Rankin . . . this court took into account questions of affordability when determining what amount for general damages, for pain, suffering and loss of amenity, the public would perceive as fair, reasonable and just. There is no material, however, on which a court could safely rely in deciding whether the public perceive it to be fair, reasonable and just for compensation for future pecuniary losses to be reduced simply on affordability grounds. It would have been easy for Parliament to decree that this should be so (and to be willing to incur the accompanying political odium for doing so) but there is no evidence in the language of s 2 of the 1996 Act that this was Parliament’s intention.’
[49]
Indeed that passage seems to indicate that something akin to the concept of distributive justice was being canvassed in Flora’s case and, in our view, it is inconsistent with Flora’s case even to contemplate an argument which seeks to invoke distributive justice.
Issue 5
[50]
This issue requires the court to consider: whether as a matter of law a party when seeking to trigger a statutory proviso under s 2(9)(b) of the 1996 Act must discharge a legal burden by identifying and proving that a specified alternative on its own merits can displace the presumed index of the retail prices or whether the exercise under s 2(9)(b) is a radical one of a quasi inquisitorial review undertaken by the court as part of an extended approval function.
[51]
The appellants’ argument here was that there is a legal burden of proof on a claimant who seeks to persuade the court to modify the effect of s 2(8). There were various aspects to the argument. First it was said that it was not permissible for a claimant to call expert evidence which put a choice of alternatives to the RPI index (as happened before Swift J, Lloyd-Jones J and Mackay J). It was said that a claimant must make a choice and seek to establish that choice. Since, before Judge Bullimore, the claimant was putting the choices as alternatives, and since before us that was likely to be the respondents’ position, Mr Rees did not really pursue this point.
[52]
In our view, however, the point was always bad. The judge is bound by s 2 to consider whether to make a PPO. There is thus an inquisitorial role for the court (albeit not as part of an approval process) and it is helpful to the court to
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have choices with the good and bad points exposed in a balanced way. If anything, it adds weight to the expert evidence of Dr Wass that she was prepared to give evidence about the strengths and weaknesses of the choices put before the court and then leave the decision to the court.
[53]
Second, it was submitted that there was a burden on the claimant to show on the balance of probabilities that there was an appropriate alternative to the RPI and, if that could not be established on the balance of probabilities, then the RPI must apply. The extension of that argument was that, because the court has to consider whether a PPO should be ordered, the court has to have in mind the legal burden of being satisfied on the balance of probabilities that there is an appropriate alternative to RPI.
[54]
This point interlinks with the third aspect of the argument which is whether the judge has to take a ‘stand alone’ decision in relation to the alternative index proposed rather than a carrying out a comparative exercise.
[55]
In our view, the exercise to be carried out under s 2 should not be complicated by considerations of legal burdens. A party who seeks to prove a fact will have the evidential burden of establishing that fact, and the balance of probabilities is the standard of proof in all civil cases. But if it is suggested that a claimant always has a burden to discharge when the court is considering whether to make a PPO, that suggestion must be rejected. The court itself has to consider whether it is appropriate. Once embarked on that exercise and on whether a PPO will best meet the claimant’s needs, the question of indexation will have to be considered. The question whether RPI should be replaced will depend on the alternatives available and is bound to be a comparative exercise. Lloyd Jones J in Sarwar’s case encapsulates both what we understand to be the argument and what, in our view, is the answer in the following paragraphs:
‘[114] On behalf of the claimant it was submitted that the exercise with which we are concerned is one of finding the best or “least worst” match so that as far as possible any periodical payments are adjusted to take account of the future effects of inflation. This was vigorously contested by Mr Methuen on behalf of the second defendant. He submitted that before the court could modify the application of s 2(8) by adopting an index or measure other that RPI, it would need to be satisfied that that index or measure truly fits the bill. He submitted that the court should not approach this issue on the basis of a comparison of the various indices or measures available. In his submission the fact that an index might be more appropriate than RPI in the circumstances of this particular case would not of itself justify the displacement of RPI. Accordingly, he submitted that while an alternative index or measure need not be a perfect match it must be a very close match before it could be adopted.
[115] A consideration of the suitability of an index or measure will inevitably involve a comparison between that index or measure and the RPI which it is intended it should replace and a consideration of the extent to which the use of each is likely to assist in achieving the objective I have identified. It will also necessarily involve a comparison of potential replacement indices or measures. To my mind this is an essential part of the consideration of the appropriateness and fairness of the substitution of an alternative index or measure described by Brooke LJ in his judgment in Flora’s case. I note that this process of comparison is the basis on which all the experts have approached the issue. I would however accept that in the
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absence of a relatively high degree of assurance that a given index or measure is likely to achieve that objective, the court is unlikely to adopt it.’
[56]
Judge Bullimore took the view that the exercise is bound to be a comparative one but that any alternative that was unsuitable would have to be rejected. That must be right, and before Mackay J the criteria for suitability were hardly an issue. He identified them in the following words:
‘[70] Before considering individual measures proposed I should consider the criteria that should be applied when making what I consider to be a comparative assessment as to whether each meets the test of fairness of appropriateness defined above.
[71] The experts helpfully agreed the criteria for the suitability of an index as being: (i) accuracy of match of the particular data series to the loss or expenditure being compensated; (ii) authority of the collector of the data; (iii) statistical reliability; (iv) accessibility; (v) consistency over time; (vi) reproducibility in the future; (vii) simplicity and consistency in application. This appears to me an entirely appropriate and sensible list of the qualities which are to be looked for. Mr Hall sought to add that the candidate measure should be “free of distorting factors”. Dr Wass, more realistically in my view, said that that is in effect asking for the impossible though it should be as free as possible.’
[57]
Mackay J then considered each of the alternatives by reference to the identified criteria and ultimately, by reference to ASHE 6115, expressed his answer in these words:
‘In my view 6115 is markedly superior to RPI and I should modify the Act so as to order its application to the claimant’s future care damages, unless any of the other arguments against its application, which I deal with below, make it inappropriate or unfair to do so.’
[58]
We do not see any great distinction between the approaches of the judges as reflected in the above quotations. The court is seeking to provide an answer which, on the information it has at the trial, will, through the use of a PPO, best provide the claimant with 100 per cent compensation. If, in the context of future care, of which the main element is the wages of the carers, the RPI is not suitable for the purpose of tracking wage inflation, the question is whether a more suitable index or measure is available. Suitability should be tested against the criteria set out by Mackay J quoted above. If an alternative is more suitable, it must be open to the court to accept that alternative even if some criticisms can be made of it. If the alternative is less suitable than RPI it obviously could not be chosen. But this is not a ‘stand alone’ exercise under which the court would have to disqualify an alternative because of criticisms of its suitability even though the alternative was more suitable than RPI.
Issue 6
[59]
This issue requires the court to consider: whether as a matter of law any measure which operates so as to rewrite the multiplicand when applying the element of pay drift in a reported earnings measure converted to an index contravenes the requirement of Cookson v Knowles [1978] 2 All ER 604, [1979] AC 556 and in fact rather than a multiplicand fixed at the date of trial which is indexed
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the annual figure forms the base of what then operates as an infinitely variable periodical payment.
[60]
The formulation of this issue purports to raise the question of ‘pay drift’. However, in our view it does not. We will deal with pay drift later in this judgment when we are considering the arguments relating to the suitability of ASHE 6115 as an index for the tracking of care and case management costs. The appellants’ argument under this issue is that to use an index or measure such as ASHE 6115 (or indeed any index which is based on actual earnings in the market) contravenes the principle on which future losses should be assessed as set out in Cookson’s case. That principle is now so well known that it hardly requires explanation. It is that in calculating future loss (on a lump sum basis of course which was the only method possible at the time) the court should take as a multiplicand the current annual loss as at the date of trial and should apply the appropriate multiplier. No attempt should be made to increase the multiplicand to take account of future inflation. Inflation is to be catered for through the selection of an appropriate multiplier. Although Cookson’s case was a fatal accident case, the same principle is to be applied to the assessment of future loss in personal injury cases.
[61]
The appellants’ argument is that by using an index such as ASHE 6115, which will reflect the changes in earnings levels of a group of care workers, the court will in effect be altering the multiplicand annually and this will contravene the principle in Cookson’s case. In our view, this submission is misconceived. As we have said, Cookson’s case was concerned with lump sum awards. In the present case, the court is concerned with a wholly different creature, a PPO. When making a PPO under s 2 of the 1996 Act, there is neither a multiplicand nor a multiplier. Parliament has decreed that there should be an annual sum, which is to be indexed every year, either by reference to the RPI under s 2(8) or as modified under s 2(9), for so long as the claimant lives or until he reaches a particular age. No question can arise of any contravention of the principle in Cookson’s case.
THE SUITABILITY OF ASHE 6115—INTRODUCTION
[62]
In Flora’s case the defendant sought to strike out the whole of the claimant’s case as to wages-related periodical payments. We have already explained how the objections to any form of wages-related indexation as a matter of law or principle failed in Flora’s case; and fail in this case not only as a matter of precedent, but also because this court, having heard the objections rehearsed and supplemented before it, is as little persuaded by them as was its predecessors in Flora’s case. The defendants however had and have objections to the cases advanced in Flora’s case and in the present claims on a more particular level. The claimant in Flora’s case appears to have sought indexation based on the AEI and in our cases they contended for ASHE 6115. The defendants’ case was that ASHE 6115 was open to so many objections that it could not properly be used in any event, even if in principle some wages-related index or assessment should be available to the claimants; and so, since other wages-related indices were even more objectionable than ASHE 6115, and were not supported by the claimants, the success that the claimant in Flora’s case had achieved in avoiding in principle the imposition of indexation by the RPI beat the air, since there was in practice no index that could be used to implement that principle.
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[63]
This issue, of the appropriateness and usability of ASHE 6115, was left by this court in Flora’s case to the judgement of trial judges in forthcoming cases. That was the inquiry conducted in the judgments under appeal before us, and in most detail in the judgments in Thompstone’s case and RH. The parties were fortunate that that inquiry fell to be conducted by judges of the distinguished experience in this area of work, not only on the bench but also at the bar, that has been enjoyed by Swift J and Mackay J.
[64]
This part of the appeal was expressed before us in the terms of issues 7, 8 and 9. However, before addressing the specific objections raised by the appellants it is necessary to revert to the issues of the nature of the inquiry and the burden of proof within it. Those questions were debated under the head of issue 5, but the correct answer to them is of importance when approaching issues 7–9.
THE BURDEN OF PROOF
[65]
The appellants repeated, in relation to the assessment of particular indices, the argument that they had adduced in relation to s 2(9) as applied to the prior question of whether RPI should be displaced at all. Mr Rees argued that the effect of s 2(9) was to create a proviso to the primary rule applying the RPI. A party who relies on a proviso bears the burden of establishing that the proviso applies to the instant case; so it was for the claimants, who wanted ASHE 6115 to be applied, to show that ASHE 6115 met the requirements, whatever they were, of a properly useable index. If on any issue they had failed to discharge that legal burden of proof, to the standard of balance of probabilities, then ASHE 6115 could not be applied by the court.
[66]
This is misconceived because it misunderstands the nature of the exercise on which the court is engaged. Mr Rees sought to cite in support of it cases on the proof of fact, such as, conspicuously, Rhesa Shipping Co SA v Edmunds, The Popi M [1985] 2 All ER 712, [1985] 1 WLR 948, in which courts have said that a tribunal must always apply the rules as to burden and standard of proof, and if those rules do not yield a solution then the matter must remain unproved. Mr Rees, as we understood him, submitted that in respect of various elements relevant to ASHE 6115 the case remained unproved in that sense, and so it had not been properly open to the judges below to accept the validity of ASHE 6115. But the issues that arise in relation to ASHE 6115 are not pure issues of fact, and do not lend themselves to this treatment. To take one example, discussed further below, the question of whether ASHE 6115 is too volatile to be properly applied to a long period in the future. Certainly the basic facts have to be established; but then the answer to the question of whether the index is inappropriately volatile is a matter of judgement and appreciation for the court. In that exercise, the judge, unlike the trial judge addressing the competing theories as to factual events in The Popi M, does have to make up his mind in one direction or the other. He cannot resolve the matter simply by placing a burden on one party and then finding that that burden has not been discharged.
[67]
We cannot express these fundamental propositions better than they were put by Swift J in her judgment in Thompstone’s case [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [52]:
‘My task is to decide what form of order will best meet the claimant’s needs and, so far as s 2(8) and (9) is concerned, to determine what is appropriate, fair and reasonable. These matters do not lend themselves to determination
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by the burden of proof. Insofar as the claimant does bear any burden, it seems to me that this is an evidential burden, ie an obligation to adduce evidence sufficient to establish a case that the RPI is an inappropriate measure of indexation and there is at least one alternative, more appropriate, measure that the court might adopt in its stead.’
[68]
That statement is subject to one qualification in its application to this part of the case. Mr Rees said that the issue was not simply whether ASHE 6115 was preferable to the RPI as an instrument of indexation. That was because, in the light of the analysis in Flora’s case, it was difficult to gainsay a proposition that some wages-related index would serve the fundamental objective of 100 per cent compensation better than does indexation by the RPI. Rather, he submitted, the index supported by the claimants must be shown to be reliable and supportable in its own right. We accept that contention to the limited extent that, if an index is seen to be statistically unreliable or unlikely to be reproducible in future, it will not be a suitable alternative to RPI. But, given that a particular index might be ruled out for that kind of reason, those which pass that initial test must then be subject to a comparative exercise to determine which is the most suitable. But the inquiry still remains, as Swift J said, a task of evaluation for the court.
[69]
We therefore revert, issue by issue, to the inquiry into ASHE 6115. In doing so we say now, for the avoidance of doubt, that in respect of every issue we are satisfied that, even if there had been applied to it the approach urged by Mr Rees, the outcome would have been the same.
ASHE 6115
[70]
ASHE is an annual earnings survey published by ONS by means of a sample survey of the actual earnings of employees. It is expressed as a statement of earnings levels, rather than as an index. In addition, ONS publishes disaggregated data for the various Standard Occupational Group classifications, which classifications are reviewed every ten years to take account of changes in the composition of the workforce. The relevant classification for our case, which is found in ASHE 6115, is care assistants and home carers who, in the words of the SOG classification: ‘Assist[s] residents to dress, undress, wash, and bathe; serve[s] meals to residents at tables or in bed; accompany residents on outings and assist recreational activities; undertake light cleaning and domestic duties as required.’
[71]
Since ASHE 6115 is not in itself an index, a further step was necessary before it could be used in the indexation of the claimants’ care needs. Dr Wass, the labour economist instructed by the claimants, proposed that, starting from the care package in terms of number and types of carer agreed by the care experts, there should be calculated a weighted average of the claimant’s hourly current cost of care. For example, as described by Swift J ([2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [108]) that exercise on the facts of Thompstone’s case yielded a figure of £8·50 per hour. There was then identified where on the list of incomes arranged in order of value identified by ASHE 6115 (as it was put, at what percentile of the total list) that figure of £8·50 appeared. Whatever figure thereafter appeared at that percentile of ASHE 6115 was then to be used for the indexation of the original figure of £8·50 per hour. By that means ASHE 6115, though not itself strictly speaking an index, could be used for indexation purposes.
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The appellants’ case
[72]
The appellants expressed this part of their case by issues 7–9 as follows.
‘7. Whether as a matter of law a measure which is not an index and which can only be made to function as an index by means of a notionally derived “weighted average rate” can operate in substitution for the presumed Retail Prices Index.
8. Whether as a matter of law irrespective of the answer to issues 5–7 above, there is any sufficient or cogent evidence that the measure provided by ONS (ASHE 6115 at the relevant percentile) bears any sufficiently proximate relationship to the facts of the care and case management multiplicands.
9. Whether as a matter of law irrespective of the answer to issues 5–7 above, the features associated with ASHE 6115 at the relevant percentile, namely reclassification, movement on the distribution, volatility, and workability are individually or in combination sufficient to disqualify the use of this measure.’
[73]
Two preliminary points must be made. First, the appellants express these issues as matters of law. If that contention were to be taken seriously, it fails in limine. That is because the only issue of law as to the content or nature of ASHE 6115 is whether ASHE 6115 can ever be even considered as a measure of indexation. That issue was decided against the appellants in Flora’s case. It is of course not difficult to see why the appellants present what are issues of assessment and judgement as matters of law. On all of the issues there are findings against them of the trial judges. Those findings in themselves have not been appealed, nor has it been argued, nor could it have been, that the judges who heard the four cases acted irrationally, perversely or in disregard of relevant evidence. The exercise urged on us by the appellants is therefore highly artificial, in that it is in effect a complete rehearing of issues already decided by the trial judges. With no little hesitation we nonetheless embark on it, not least because it is of general importance that there should be a definitive statement on these issues at appellate level.
[74]
Second, although the statement of issues 7–9, set out above, makes reference to most of the complaints that the appellants seek to raise, it became clear during argument that there were other objections, either assumed in other parts of the list of issues, or not mentioned at all, that the appellants wished to raise. In the same spirit as inspires para [73], above, we seek to address the whole of the appellants’ case.
Criteria for the suitability of an index
[75]
In his judgment in RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [71], Mackay J reported the criteria for the suitability of an index that had been agreed by the experts in that case. No one before us sought to gainsay that guidance, the terms of which have already been set out in [56] above but which it is convenient to repeat here as the context of the inquiry: (i) accuracy of match of the particular data series to the loss or expenditure being compensated; (ii) authority of the collector of the data; (iii) statistical reliability; (iv) accessibility; (v) consistency over time; (vi) reproducibility in the future; and (vii) simplicity and consistency in application. The criticisms made by the appellants have to be seen against that background. Some of them relate to the reliability of ASHE 6115 itself: broadly,
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the points made in the statement of issue 9. Some of them relate to the use made of ASHE 6115 in, and its relevance to, the present case: broadly, the points made in issues 7–8. It will be convenient to start with the latter complaints.
The relationship of ASHE 6115 to the ‘Facts of the Care and Case Management Multiplicands’
[76]
This is a question, in the terms of issue (i) set out at [75] above, of accuracy of match. It will be noted that in issue 8 this question is stated in terms of whether there is ‘sufficient or cogent evidence’ of a sufficiently proximate relationship. That harks back to the appellants’ contentions as to burden of proof that are discussed in [65]–[67] above. The short answer to a question posed in those terms is that there is indeed evidence, and the trial judges have found it to be sufficient and cogent. But in the spirit indicated above we go further and investigate the substance of the complaint.
[77]
The complaint has two, rather different, limbs. First, the multiplicand to which ASHE 6115 is to be applied does not contain exclusively care costs, so an index based on the wages element in care will cause distortion. Second, ASHE 6115 does not sufficiently accurately target the particular carers in issue in this case. There is a certain irony in these objections being raised by a party who urges the adoption of the RPI, which contains almost no element that relates to care costs, either of the present claimants or generally; but we let that pass.
[78]
First, the composition of the multiplicand. This issue was pursued in some detail before Swift J, who made a finding of fact, at [107] of her judgment in Thompstone’s case, that the non-earnings-related elements of the annual multiplicands amount to no more that about 4–5 per cent of the total care costs to age 19 and 2–3 per cent thereafter. That finding was not appealed. That is the end of this point.
[79]
Second, the carers included in ASHE 6115. There were various issues, not always very clearly distinguished from each other, that were pursued under this head. These complaints were based on the undoubted fact that ASHE 6115 is a general survey, not specifically related to the carers who will be looking after the claimants. From that it was said to follow that it could not be assumed, and certainly had not been proved, that the wages of those workers would move in the same way as the wage movements reflected in successive editions of ASHE 6115; and it could not be assumed, and certainly could not be proved, that home carers were not in a discrete employment market, to which the sort of general trends reflected in ASHE (or in any other index) would not apply. Mr Rees pointed out that, on the other hand, its national generality was not a relevant criticism in this context of the RPI, because indexation with reference to the RPI did not even purport to reflect the wages paid to the claimant’s carers. Its status was as a general, in the present context effectively abstract, index, but approved for that purpose by Parliament.
[80]
We have to say that the unreasonableness of the conclusions to which these arguments led the appellants amply demonstrates why they saw their main hope of success as lying in arguments about the burden of proof. The very nature of the use of an index means that one cannot prove, in the way in which the law requires facts to be proved, that a particular situation is specifically represented in the index. But that does not disqualify the index. All that has to be established is that the composition of the index is sufficiently close to the subject-area in which it is to be used to render that use reasonable and representative.
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[81]
So viewed, the complaints made by the appellants are counter-intuitive, and cannot withstand the application of the common sense that the judges below brought to them. As Swift J put it in Thompstone’s case [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [139]:
‘I do not accept the defendants’ contention that the absence of a measure specific to the local labour market with which this case is concerned must necessarily be fatal to the claimants’ case on indexation. Provided that I can be satisfied that there is an alternative measure which would provide a reliable indicator of growth in the earnings of carers such as those whom the claimant will employ, it seems to me that that will suffice.’
When dealing with the general position of domiciliary carers, Swift J said, at [99] of Thompstone’s case, that there was no reason to suppose that their wage movements had been different from those of other workers. Mackay J, in RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [68] pointed out that one of the defendants’ own witnesses had spoken of the claimant having to fish for his carers in a general pool. And the general proposition that a claimant’s domiciliary carers may be a discrete work-group, sealed off from movements in the general labour market, and not subject to movement between that and other forms of employment, is so unpromising a proposition that it is for the defendants to establish it rather than for the claimants to disprove it. No attempt was made to do that. As Swift J said in Thompstone’s case [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [99]: ‘The defendant has called no evidence to show that, for some reason, private home carers working in the Manchester area have in the past been insulated from the general trend in earnings growth.’
[82]
These findings were fatal at trial to the suggestion at trial, and it was no more than that, of a mis-match between ASHE 6115 and the wages-cost of the claimants’ care; and they are equally fatal in this court.
The weighted average wage rate
[83]
How the weighted average was used in order to apply ASHE 6115 has been described in [71] above. That process is put in issue by the appellants’ issue 7. The appellants did not criticise the calculations in themselves but, as explained by Swift J in Thompstone’s case [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [108]–[110], objected to any use of a weighted average, as an artificial construct, not a real earnings rate, and impossible to calculate with absolute accuracy.
[84]
These are completely irrelevant objections, and were treated as such in the courts below. One of the leading requirements of an index, as agreed in the extract from RH that is set out in [75], above, is that it should combine simplicity in application with accuracy of match. To take a weighted average of the wages of the people making up the agreed care package, rather than (as seems to be suggested) assessing each worker individually, is an obviously sensible way of achieving those two objectives. The complaint that the result does not set out the position of any single individual only demonstrates a misunderstanding of the nature and purpose of indexation, as did the complaint that ASHE 6115 does not specifically set out the wage-rates of domiciliary carers. The whole point of an index is that it enables general trends to be applied to a particular situation that is sufficiently accurately related to the matter on which the index is based. And as to accuracy, it was for the defendants to produce their own calculations if they were able to do so.
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[85]
Swift J summarised the position thus in Thompstone’s case [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [47]:
‘I am satisfied that the weighted average hourly rate, as calculated by Dr Wass, provides a fair and reasonable estimate of the average wage to be paid to the claimant’s carers. It is based on the pay rates agreed by the care experts. Any imprecision is likely to be negligible. I find that it is appropriate to use it in order to match the carers’ earnings level to the appropriate ASHE 6115 percentage.’
Nothing said to us gave any reason for differing from that assessment. The complaints as to the use of a weighted average failed before the courts below, and again their reiteration in this court has not improved the appellants’ position.
The failings of ASHE 6115 itself: reclassification; compositional change; movement on the distribution; wages drift; volatility; workability
[86]
The second group of criticisms, largely but not entirely contained within issue 9, assert that ASHE 6115 has failings that disqualify its use in any circumstances as or as the basis of a measure of indexation. If those or a sufficient number of those criticisms are made good, the appellants succeed whether or not they are right in the contention already discussed that ASHE 6115 is inappropriate for the specific use to which it has been put in this case. There is no obvious unifying factor between the various complaints, which we therefore discuss one by one.
[87]
Reclassification. The composition of ASHE 6115 is not set in stone; indeed, the range of workers contained within any disaggregated cohort is reviewed on, in principle, a ten-yearly basis; the next reclassification is expected in 2010. The defendants argued that the workers employed by the claimants might, for instance, fall out of ASHE 6115 altogether, thus rendering the court’s order expressed in terms of ASHE 6115 unworkable.
[88]
The judges below, having heard evidence, acknowledged that change of that radical nature was a possibility, but thought it unlikely. Moreover, the claimants’ experts in Thompstone’s case proposed a means of meeting the difficulty, should it arise, by repositioning the uplifted weighted rate extracted from the last version of ASHE 6115 at the appropriate percentile of the new category: see Thompstone’s case [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [133]. Judge Bullimore, having heard the same evidence and arguments, endorsed the approach of Dr Wass at para [189] of his judgment in Corbett’s case. The appellants made no attempt to gainsay that answer. This matter should not have been further pursued in this court.
[89]
Compositional change. This is the objection discussed in the judgment in RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [82]. It relates to a fear that large numbers of higher paid workers might enter the ASHE 6115 cohort, thus increasing the overall remuneration of the workers covered by the SOC whilst the claimant’s actual care costs, being provided by workers lower down the cohort in income terms, had not increased. Mackay J, having heard the witness who propounded this possibility, regarded it as highly theoretical, and so do we. Judge Bullimore, having heard the same witness, was equally unimpressed, saying at para [177] of his judgment in Corbett’s case that the more evidence that he heard on the topic the less he was impressed.
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[90]
Mackay J also pointed out that Dr Wass’s view was that, if such a development were to occur, it could not be assumed that the arrival of more higher paid workers would not lead to an increase in rates generally, thus indeed raising the claimants’ care costs. As it seems to us, such a consequence can only be excluded with certainty if one accepts the appellants’ suggestion as to the hermetically sealed nature of the market for domiciliary care: a suggestion that, as we have indicated at some length, we find extremely unpersuasive.
[91]
Movement on the distribution. This expression, taken by us from the appellants’ formulation of issue 9, we think refers to the objection discussed in RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [83]. Changes in the skill mix and increased professionalism within the population of care workers will increase the overall costs of care. Mackay J clearly found it difficult to understand this objection, and so do we. As he pointed out:
‘The claimant will have to keep pace with the market for care. Insofar as the cost of meeting his needs will change over time he will need to pay that cost, whatever it is, and any uprating instrument must capture those changes. That is not to permit the re-writing his care needs, it is merely reflecting the increasing costs of meeting them.’
That was also the view of Swift J. She said in Thompstone’s case [2006] EWHC 2904 (QB) at [131]:
‘The likelihood is that the earnings levels of the carers employed by [the claimant] will move with the earnings distribution of the occupational group. An important strength of ASHE 6115 is . . . that it is sufficiently sensitive to track changes specific to the care market which are likely to have an effect on the claimant’s care costs.’
Once again, we respectfully agree with both judges.
[92]
Wages drift. Put in non-technical terms, this concept refers to the difference in practice between agreed pay rates and actual wages. This is a matter of significance for employers who negotiate formal pay structures, but then find that their employment costs are inflated by, for instance, overtime and bonus payments. The appellants said that, since ASHE 6115 captured actual wages, the distortion that wages drift represents was inherent in it, and rendered it an unreliable basis for indexation. The same objection would, as we understand it, be made about any wage-related index.
[93]
It is impossible to understand this objection, either generally or in the context of this case. The carers whom the claimant will have to recruit are not the subject of a formal pay settlement, either with him or with anyone else, so the distorting effect of wages drift on the wages-costs of an employer who thinks himself to have settled that item does not arise. But that accounting or managerial discomfort is in any event irrelevant to the present problem. We are concerned with measuring the actual, not the theoretical, costs of care; and, as Mackay J pungently observed in RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [66], people, including the claimants, pay money and not rates. It is therefore a recommendation, and not a detriment, that an index captures pay drift. As Mackay J put it at [69] of RH, ‘it is a virtue which lead[s] to accuracy and an improved chance of achieving the 100% principle of compensation’.
[94]
Volatility. This criticism is addressed in paras [84], [85] of the judgment in RH, and paras [180]–[187] of the judgment in Corbett’s case. The defendants
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produced evidence that was said to demonstrate that growth (or reduction) in levels of income as reported by ASHE 6115 varied considerably from year to year. That was said to show that ASHE 6115, or at least the indexation based on it, was a theoretical construct which could not be relied on to measure change over time.
[95]
Dr Wass, who as a labour economist expressed herself as baffled by this objection, gave a good deal of evidence in Corbett’s case as to why the particular movements might have taken place, evidence that was accepted by Judge Bullimore, and also by Mackay J who having heard the same evidence on both sides adopted Judge Bullimore’s conclusions. This point however reveals a more fundamental truth, that an index such as ASHE 6115 does indeed reflect a specific area of the labour market, where wages may well not be moving in a uniform pattern from year to year. As Judge Bullimore put it in Corbett’s case (at [183]):
‘The lack of explanation is not the key thing; the question is, does the index reliably measure carers’ rates of pay? If it does, why there may be changes in the growth rates does not matter. [The claimant] is going to have to pay for care in the market, whether growth rates are steady or fluctuating considerably.’
[96]
This issue was not conceded before us by the appellants, but was not further pursued in any detail. That task was taken up by the Medical Protection Society [MPS] who intervened in full support of the appellants, even to the extent of instructing the same counsel in the person of Mr Havers. The MPS sought to put before us graphs that showed what was described as sharp and unpredictable changes in the growth rates reported by ASHE 6115 from year to year. The respondents understandably objected in principle to the late submission of new evidence, but were also able to demonstrate that the evidence was incorrect. MPS have now acknowledged that that was so, the error having been caused by their consulting actuaries having transcribed the ONS data incorrectly. We mention this unedifying episode only to underline that the only relevant evidence on this issue is that put before Mackay J and Judge Bullimore, with which they dealt in the manner set out above.
[97]
Workability. This, the last specific point in issue 9, is dealt with in the next section of this judgment.
The conclusions of the courts below on the objections to ASHE 6115
[98]
We have already quoted sufficient of the views of Swift J to demonstrate that she considered ASHE 6115 to meet the requirements for indexation, as well as specifically finding, at [149], that indexation by reference to ASHE 6115 can be achieved without undue complexity. The same is true of the judgment of Judge Bullimore. In RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [87], Mackay J said:
‘I return to the criteria against which the measure should be judged [as reproduced at [56] and [75] above]. First and foremost I regard 6115 as the most accurate match to the target expenditure; it is of undoubted authority, coming from the ONS; it is statistically reliable as all agree, with tight CVs; it is freely accessible, albeit with a time lag problem which I believe can be overcome; it is consistent over time past, although it does not go back beyond 1997, not a serious flaw in my view; it is reproducible in the future.’
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And as to workability the judge concluded that, while in the initial stages some expert assistance would be required to operate the process of indexation, the relevant material and approach will over time (we would expect, quite a short period of time) appear in practitioners’ works and rapidly become familiar to the specialists who practise in this area.
The conclusions of this court on the objections to ASHE 6115
[99]
All of the appellants’ objections failed in the courts below, and fail before us.
[100]
We hope that as a result of these proceedings the National Health Service, and other defendants in proceedings that involve catastrophic injury, will now accept that the appropriateness of indexation on the basis of ASHE 6115 has been established after an exhaustive review of all the possible objections to its use, both in itself and as applied to the recovery of costs of care and case management. It will not be appropriate to re-open that issue in any future proceedings unless the defendant can produce evidence and argument significantly different from, and more persuasive than, that which has been deployed in the present cases. Judges should not hesitate to strike out any defences that do not meet that requirement.
THE REMAINING ISSUES—INTRODUCTION
[101]
The remaining issues in this appeal, numbers 10, 11 and 14 (12 and 13 were abandoned), concern the decisions made by Mackay J in RH and Nelson J in De Haas as to the form of their orders. We will deal first with issues 10 and 11 which relate to RH. It seems that these ‘issues’ involve a number of separate subissues.
‘10. Whether as a matter of law the correct test to determine the format of a periodical payments order is a two stage test (namely first whether any head of future loss is to be in the form of a periodical payment and second which heads of damage should constitute the overall periodic figure) and whether at each stage which solution best meets the claimant’s needs is solely determined by the ‘better solution’ or is the format to be interfered with by the court only if the claimant’s choice can be said to be ‘Wednesbury unreasonable’ and whether the preferences of the claimant should be given any greater weight to the preferences of the defendant.
11. Whether as a matter of law either of the two stages in the format test identified in issue 10 above is part of a prolonged approval process undertaken by the court and whether there are any circumstances in which the court can look at a confidential approval document sight of which is denied to the defendant.’
[102]
We begin with some general observations. Section 2 of the 1996 Act, as substituted, creates a new power to make a PPO even where the parties do not consent to such an order. Not only does this section create the power to make such an order, it obliges the judge to consider whether to do so in every case in which the court is to award damages for future pecuniary loss. Thus, in theory, the court must consider whether to make a PPO even where neither party wants one to be made. That situation would present the judge with evidential difficulties but, in practice, it is unlikely to arise.
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[103]
The power to make a PPO without the consent of the parties is, as Mackay J observed in his judgment in RH, a radical new power. The potential benefits to both parties of an award in the form of periodical payments have long been recognised. But why has Parliament decided to introduce a power to impose a PPO? Whereas, in the past, a claimant of full age and capacity has had the right to receive his damages as a lump sum and to spend (or squander) them entirely as he wished, that is no longer so. Parliament must have thought it appropriate to allow the court to curtail the right of a claimant to spend or squander his damages and to impose upon him a form of order which the court thinks appropriate. The court might think it appropriate that the claimant should have a lump sum which gives him the greatest possible degree of autonomy as to how he organises his future life; or it might conclude that it would be preferable that he should have a reduced degree of autonomy and a greater degree of security. Thus, the judge’s decision is to some extent paternalistic; he might say that he knows what is best for the claimant better than the claimant himself knows. This group of appeals provides the first opportunity for the Court of Appeal to consider the correct approach to the exercise of this new power.
[104]
We have already set out the provisions governing the making of PPOs. However, it will be convenient for the reader if we repeat them here. The power to make such an order is at s 2(1) of the 1996 Act which provides: ‘A court awarding damages for future pecuniary loss in respect of personal injury—(a) may order that damages are wholly or partly to take the form of periodical payments, and (b) shall consider whether to make the order.’ Section 2(8) and (9) have already been discussed at length earlier in this judgment and there is no need to set them out again in full. Section 2(8) provides that any PPO will be indexed to RPI unless the court decides, under s 2(9), to disapply s 2(8) or to modify its effect. The power to make a PPO must be exercised in accordance with CPR 41.7 which provides that, when considering whether to make an order under s 2(1)(a): ‘. . . the court shall have regard to all the circumstances of the case and in particular the form of award which best meets the claimant’s needs, having regard to the factors set out in the practice direction.’ The relevant practice direction at CPR PD 41b 1 states:
‘The factors which the court shall have regard to under rule 41.7 include: (1) the scale of the annual payments taking into account any deductions for contributory negligence; (2) the form of the award preferred by the claimant including (a) the reasons for the claimant’s preference; and (b) the nature of any financial advice received by the claimant when considering the form of award; and (3) the form of the award preferred by the defendant including the reasons for the defendant’s preference.’
[105]
It will be seen from the above that, in applying s 2(1), there are two facets to the decision; how to allocate the heads of damage between lump sum provision and PPOs and how to index any PPO. In the context of these conjoined appeals, it has been necessary to consider the indexation of care and case management damages as a discrete issue. However, it has been common ground before us and is clearly right to say that, when a judge has to decide whether to make a PPO and if so what PPO, allocation and indexation are inter-related and should be considered together. The judge cannot decide what form of order would be in the claimant’s best interests without deciding how he would index a PPO if he were to make one.
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[106]
As the hearing of these appeals progressed, it emerged that there were other aspects of the decision-making process about which the parties were in agreement, even though they had not been at the stage of drafting skeleton arguments. As we also agree with the propositions that are now agreed between the parties, we consider that there is no point in recording the ebb and flow of argument.
[107]
There is now no dispute that, in deciding whether to make an order under s 2(1), the judge’s overall aim must be to make whatever order best meets the claimant’s needs. CPR 41.7 might have been more clearly expressed but that is what it amounts to. The parties also agree that the claimant’s ‘needs’ in CPR 41.7 are not limited to the needs that he demonstrated for the purpose of proving the various heads of damage; they include those things that he needs in order to enable him (or those looking after him) to organise his life in a practical way. For example, if the claimant is not yet living in suitable accommodation, one of his immediate needs will be to buy somewhere to live. The damages assessed under the head of accommodation will not cover the whole of the costs of purchase and adaptation. So he will need enough capital to enable him to buy, adapt and equip a home. He may have other immediate needs, such as the purchase of a vehicle, for which damages have been agreed or awarded. He will certainly need a regular income stream from which to pay his continuing expenses, particularly for care. It may well be in his best interests that, rather than relying on the income from the investment of a lump sum, that income stream should be provided by a PPO, so that, when appropriately indexed, it will keep pace with the rise in the cost of provision. Many claimants are advised that, due to the uncertainties inherent in a long life in a disabled condition, they should seek a substantial capital sum for contingencies in addition to that required for their immediate and foreseeable needs; this will provide a degree of flexibility in the future. The claimant may also wish to purchase some facility for which damages have not been awarded at all or for which partial damages have been agreed on a compromise basis. Such a facility may not be a ‘need’ in the sense of being an absolute necessity (if it were, it would have been covered by the damages) but it may nonetheless be taken into account by the judge when assessing what order best meets the claimant’s needs. In short, the claimant’s needs are not limited to the provision of those things which are foreseeable necessities but must be considered in a wider and more general sense. The decision as to what form the order should take will be a balancing exercise of the various factors likely to affect the claimant’s future life.
[108]
The parties have also agreed that the test which the judge must apply is an objective one. Of course, he must have regard to the wishes and preferences of the parties and to all the circumstances of the case but, in the end, it is for the judge to decide what order best meets the claimant’s needs. The judge’s mind should be focused not on what the claimant prefers but on what best meets the claimant’s needs; the two are not necessarily the same. The appellants submit that, at least in principle, equal weight should be given to the preferences of the two parties. However, it is the respondents/claimants’ submission that, in practice, the claimant’s preferences and wishes will usually carry great weight and the defendants’ wishes very little. We will return to that issue in due course.
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THE USE OF EXPERT EVIDENCE
[109]
An area of dispute between the parties arose as to the evidence and argument which the judge should be asked to consider when making a decision under s 2(1). It is clear that, in a substantial case, the claimant will usually instruct and call an independent financial adviser (IFA) to report on the form of order which he or she considers will best meets the claimant’s needs. Even if the parties agree on all issues, such a report is likely to be of assistance to the judge who is asked to approve the form of order. The practice direction anticipates that the claimant will usually have such evidence. However, the practice direction does not anticipate that the defendant will instruct its own financial adviser. Mr Rees submitted that, if a defendant wished merely to submit that it would prefer a substantial periodical payments order (because that would assist the defendant’s cash flow, ensure that the defendant did not unfairly have to pay more than would be warranted by the claimant’s actual life span and ensure that the claimant’s care would not be a burden on public funds), it should be free to advance those arguments on instructions, without calling evidence. The respondents disagreed and submitted that the court should not accept without evidence that there was any financial advantage to a defendant from a PPO. It might appear that there would be a short term cash flow advantage but it did not necessarily follow that there would be any real advantage in the long term.
[110]
We think it most undesirable that cases such as this should be unnecessarily burdened with evidence on satellite issues. We think that judges should have regard to the defendant’s general preferences advanced on instructions without the need for evidence to be called. We do accept that some evidence might be required if a more specific point is to be made, for example, where a defendant wishes to avoid a PPO (which it perceives is likely to be indexed to a measure other than RPI) and wants to argue that it would be impossible for it to make suitable financial provision, consistent with regulatory requirements.
[111]
Mr Rees also submitted that, if the defendant wished to attack the preferences advanced by the claimant on the basis that they would result in a form of order which was not in his best interests, it should be free to do so without calling evidence but that, in practice, it might be necessary for it to call an IFA to advance the alternative proposals. That, as we will explain in due course, is what the defendant did in the case of RH but not in the case of De Haas. We accept that there is nothing in the legislation to suggest that a defendant should not be permitted to call its own IFA if it is determined to advance a set of proposals which it contends will better meet the claimant’s needs than the proposals advanced on his own behalf. However, in our view, it will rarely be appropriate for a defendant to argue that its proposals will meet the claimant’s needs better than the proposals being advanced on the claimant’s own behalf. We do not rule out the possibility that the team representing the claimant might not take a sensible and prudent view of his needs but, in our collective experience of structured settlements, such a problem is rare. In practice, if the claimant is advised by an experienced and responsible expert, it is likely that great weight will be given to what that expert advises. We will in due course refer to what Mackay J said on this subject in his judgment in RH [2007] EWHC 1441 (QB) at [112]. We think he was right.
[112]
In short, it is our view that it will only be in a rare case that it will be appropriate for a defendant, such as the NHSLA, to call expert evidence to seek
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to demonstrate that the form of order preferred by the claimant will not best meet his needs. Also we consider that judges should require a demonstration that the point clearly arises before they permit the evidence of a second IFA to be adduced. As we will show in due course, the defendant gained nothing from its decision to call its own IFA in RH.
THE POINTS ARISING FROM RH—ISSUE 10
[113]
In RH, the parties reached agreement on the quantum of each head of damage, expressed either as a lump sum (for example: pain, suffering and loss of amenity) or as an annual sum (for example: loss of future earnings) or as combination of the two (for example: accommodation costs comprising an initial capital sum together with annual expenses for the future). The parties also agreed the appropriate multipliers for any part of the award which was to be made as a lump sum. Those sums and multipliers were approved, as figures, by Owen J on 5 February 2007. On a lump sum basis, the claim was valued at £4,713,100, of which about £2·5m related to the cost of future care.
[114]
However, the parties were not in agreement as to the form of order or as to the index to be applied to any PPO. Those issues came before Mackay J. The parties agreed that the claimant had an immediate need for a capital sum of £1,017,731. That sum was to be provided largely from the awards for pain and suffering, past losses, future loss of earnings and part of the accommodation award. Through his IFA, Mr Richard Cropper, the claimant sought an additional capital sum of £483,783 to cover contingencies. Within that sum was sufficient to cover the cost of installing a hydrotherapy pool at the home. The cost of this had not been agreed as a head of damage; it had been compromised. The defendant had accepted that hydrotherapy would be beneficial to the claimant but contended that it would be reasonable for him to use local facilities which could be hired more economically than the cost of installing and running a pool at home. That issue had been compromised on the basis of the cost of the defendant’s proposals and approved by Owen J. Nonetheless, after discussing this issue with the claimant’s parents, who regarded a pool at home as a real benefit, Mr Cropper proposed that a sufficient sum should be included in the contingency fund to allow for a pool to be installed, subject of course to the approval of the Court of Protection. Mr Cropper proposed that care and case management should be subject to a PPO indexed to ASHE 6115 and that other heads (such as the costs of physiotherapy, occupational therapy, chiropody and Court of Protection costs) should be subject to PPOs indexed to RPI.
[115]
The defendant contended for a smaller capital contingency fund of only £175,358 in addition to the agreed sum for immediate needs. This smaller contingency fund excluded any capital expenditure on a hydrotherapy pool. The defendant contended that all the remaining heads of damage should be the subject of a PPO indexed to RPI. The reasons expressed for this preference, through its IFA Ms Jennifer Stone, were not only that, for cash flow reasons, the defendant would in principle prefer PPOs, but also that its proposals would better meet the claimant’s needs than the proposals advanced on his behalf by Mr Cropper.
[116]
Thus, the judge’s task was to approve those parts of the form of order that the parties had agreed and to decide on the remaining aspects. He approved the agreed aspects. As we have already said, he held that for care and case management, the appropriate index was ASHE 6115 and our reasons for
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dismissing the appeal against that aspect of his decision have already been given. As to the disputed aspects of the form of order, the judge accepted Mr Cropper’s proposals as those which would best meet the claimant’s needs. It is the process by which he reached that conclusion which is criticised in this part of the appeal.
[117]
The judge began to deal with the form of order at para [104] of his judgment. At para [105], the judge said that he accepted Mr Rees’s submission that the defendant had a right to be heard on the issue of form of order, to express its preference and to explain its reasons. He expressly said that the claimant’s views on form of order were not to be given primacy.
[118]
At para [106], the judge recorded Mr Oppenheim’s submission for the claimant that the court should be careful not to allow a defendant to make detailed suggestions about allocation. Its role should be limited to expressing a preference as to whether a PPO was appropriate in principle. The court had to make the order which best met the claimant’s needs. In the present case, the claimant’s needs had been carefully assessed by the claimant’s parents in consultation with Mr Cropper and the legal team. The role of the defendant was, at most, to submit where appropriate that the allocation proposed by the claimant was illogical or would fail to produce an order which was in his best interests. It appears that the judge accepted Mr Rees’s submission on this issue. The respondent does not expressly criticise that conclusion but his contention now is that, in practice, the claimant’s expert’s view is likely to carry greater weight because he or she is in a better position than the defendant’s expert and that, in any event, Mackay J arrived at the right result.
[119]
The judge then set out the rival contentions as to allocation and, at [110], set out his views as to the experts. He said that both were impressive witnesses. Mr Cropper had made a convincing case for a substantial lump sum as a contingency fund; the judge summarised the reasons advanced by Mr Cropper for recommending the larger capital sum. He then said that Ms Stone had acknowledged that there was room for a difference of view as to the order which would best meet the claimant’s needs. When acting for a claimant, she would always wish to have a full discussion with the family about the claimant’s needs. She thought that the differences between her recommendations and those of Mr Cropper were ‘reasonable differences’. The judge agreed with her on that point. He then continued—part way through para [112]:
‘In my judgment, though this is not strictly speaking an approval exercise, in that the allocation will be the result of an order of the court, I see the court’s role as ensuring that the allocation has proceeded on the basis of suitably qualified advice, which appeared to have taken all relevant matters into account, from a source which has had the advantage of a free discussion with the family as to their hopes and fears for the future. That is what has happened here, in my judgment. Nor is there any suggestion to the contrary.
[113] It is not, therefore, open to the defendant to challenge this proposal, or put forward a counter proposal, merely on the basis that there is another way of arranging the award that suits its own interests better. Its role in this exercise is a very limited one, and in view of the respective positions of the IFA experts in this particular case, it does not come into play . . .
[114] I therefore rule that the claimant’s format should be adopted in this case.’
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[120]
Mr Rees contended that, in this passage, the judge erred in three respects. First, he gave primacy to the claimant’s preferences over those of the defendant. Second, he treated the process as being analogous to an approval of a compromise, which it was not. Third, he was wrong to say that the defendant could not advance proposals merely on the ground that they suited it best financially. Mr Oppenheim refuted those criticisms, submitting that the judge’s approach had been correct. Alternatively, even if the judge had not expressed his approach in exactly the right way, the result would have been the same. It was clear that the judge preferred Mr Cropper’s proposals and he was therefore entitled to conclude that those proposals would result in the order which best met the claimant’s needs. We will deal with each of Mr Rees’s criticisms in turn.
[121]
Did the judge give primacy to the claimant’s preference? It must be remembered, when considering the judge’s view of the limited nature of the defendant’s role in this case (as set out at [113]), that he had earlier (at [105]) accepted Mr Rees’s submission that the defendant was equally entitled to have its preferences considered as to the form of the order. If the judge said anything to the effect that a defendant’s preferences were less worthy of consideration than those of the claimant, he would have been wrong. But our view is clear that, in para [113], he did not say any such thing. He had stated the general principle to be applied at para [105]. At para [113], he was dealing with the preferences, reasons and arguments which had been advanced in this particular case. He had noted that there was not much between the two experts. Ms Stone had accepted that there was room for a difference of view and that Mr Cropper’s recommendations were reasonable. He noted that Mr Cropper had had the advantage, not available to Ms Stone, of a full discussion with the family. It seems to us that what the judge was saying was that he considered that Mr Cropper’s proposals would best meet the claimant’s needs because they provided greater flexibility for the claimant than would be available under Ms Stone’s proposals. In reaching that conclusion the judge was entitled to take into account the fact that the claimant’s expert was suitably qualified and had had the advantage of a discussion with the family. He also plainly thought that Mr Cropper was giving responsible advice. The fact that he preferred and decided to act on the opinion of Mr Cropper does not mean that he gave primacy to the claimant’s preferences. Having given equal attention to the preferences expressed by both sides, the judge chose which proposals he thought best met the claimant’s needs.
[122]
Mr Rees’s second criticism was that the judge treated the process of making a decision under s 2(1) as analogous to approval. We are not at all sure that he did but we agree that the two processes are distinct. When the court is asked to approve an agreement between the parties, it has only to declare itself satisfied that the agreement reached is in the claimant’s interests. The court does not have to consider whether the proposed agreement produces the best possible result or the result which best meets the claimant’s needs. The defendant will usually play no part in the process. His voice has already been heard, in the negotiations preceding the agreement. By contrast, under s 2(1), the court is itself choosing what order to make and must choose the form of order which best meets the claimant’s needs, whether it be one advanced by one of the parties or one devised by the judge himself. The parties are not in agreement and the defendant’s preferences must be considered. The process is different from approval. We think that Mackay J recognised that the making of a s 2(1) decision was different from an approval.
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[123]
Mr Rees was also critical of para [113] of Mackay J’s judgment where he said that it was not open to the defendant to challenge Mr Cropper’s proposals or to put forward a counter-proposal merely on the basis that there was another way of arranging the award that suited its own interests better. From that passage it sounded as though these defendants had tried to do merely that. Mr Rees demonstrated to us that, through Ms Stone’s report, they had gone further and had sought to show that their proposals would better meet the claimant’s needs. We accept that that was so but we think that the judge was well aware of it. However, Mr Rees made a second point. He submitted that the judge appeared to think that it would not be open to a defendant to put forward a counter-proposal simply relying on its own best interests. If the judge had there been speaking generally, we would agree that what he said would be wrong as a statement of law. It is open to a defendant to challenge a claimant’s proposals and advance a counter-proposal merely because it suits his own interests better. The fact is, however, that if a defendant does that, his counter-proposal is unlikely to carry any weight with the judge. Only a counter-proposal which seeks to advance a better means of meeting the claimant’s needs is likely to carry any weight. In any event, at [113], the judge was not speaking generally; he was referring to the particular facts of this case. Here, Ms Stone’s counter-proposals were advanced on the basis that, not only would they serve the defendant’s interests, they would also better provide for the claimant’s needs. However, the judge was of the view that, because Mr Cropper was well-qualified and responsible and had had the advantage of discussions with the family, he was in a better position than Ms Stone to advise on the proposals which best met the claimant’s needs.
[124]
Our view is that Mackay J plainly had the correct test in mind (what order will best meet the claimant’s needs?) and was clearly of the view that Mr Cropper’s proposals satisfied that test rather than Ms Stone’s. There is no basis on which we would be prepared to interfere with the order he made. We also observe that nothing of substance was achieved by the defendant calling its own IFA in this case. As we have already said, we think it will only be in a rare case that such evidence should be called.
SIDE ISSUES ARISING IN RH—ISSUE 11
[125]
Two side issues arose out Mackay J’s decision in RH. Issue 11, raised the question of whether, in the course of making a form of order decision under s 2(1), the judge should be entitled to see privileged material (such as claimant’s counsel’s advice) without the defendant also being entitled to see it. The circumstances in which Mackay J found himself were, in our view, rather difficult. He had to take over a heavy case in which all the heads of damage and the multiplier had been compromised by the parties and approved by Owen J. Owen J had had the advantage of reading counsel’s advice which explained the reasoning behind the advice given to the claimant.
[126]
When Mackay J took the case over for the purpose of deciding the form of order and indexation, he did not see that advice. At para [99] of his judgment, he expressed the view that, without the opportunity of reading that advice, he lacked insight into the detail of the situation that he had inherited and on which he had to make further decisions. He said that he believed he could justify looking at the opinion without showing it to the defendant’s counsel because his role was inquisitorial and a minor was involved. In the event, he decided not to
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do so but said that he would welcome the views of a higher court on the issue. For that reason only, we are prepared to discuss it.
[127]
We have sympathy for the judge. When taking over a case of this kind, it is only natural that he would wish to have as full an understanding of the background as possible.
[128]
Mr Rees submitted that the judge had been wrong to say that he could justify looking at the privileged opinion because he was engaged on an inquisitorial process and a minor was involved. He said that the judge was here confusing the role of approver with the role of decision-maker. When making a decision under s 2(1), his role was not that of an approver and was not inquisitorial.
[129]
We have already discussed the differences between the process leading to approval and that leading to a s 2(1) decision. They are different processes. However, in this case, the judge had to do both. On some issues, the parties were in agreement; on those, the judge had to consider approval. If he was in any way dissatisfied with the material put before him, he could certainly resort to an inquisitorial process to gain further information. He could certainly see privileged material without showing it to the defendant. On the issues on which there was no agreement, the judge had to take decisions under what was primarily an adversarial process. For the purposes of that process, he was not entitled to see privileged material belonging to one party without disclosure to the opposing party. We say that a s 2(1) decision is ‘primarily’ adversarial because we can foresee circumstances, which we think will be rare, when the judge will be dissatisfied with the proposals of both parties and the information provided by them. We think that, in those circumstances, it would be open to the judge to appoint an assessor and call for a report. That would introduce an inquisitorial element into the proceedings. But that would not justify the judge in looking at privileged material not disclosed to the opposing party.
[130]
So the position here (and foreseeably in many other cases) is that the judge would have been entitled to see privileged material for some purposes but not for others. We stress that the position here was unusual. In most cases, the same judge will deal with the whole case. A judge will often be asked to approve the sums agreed under the various heads of damage before going on to decide the form of the award. If so, he may well see counsel’s privileged advice and the defendant will simply have to put up with the fact that the judge has seen it and the defendant’s team has not. Once seen, the privileged material cannot be expunged from the judge’s mind. If, as here, a different judge is to decide the form of order, there is a potential problem but we think that, if the parties are sensible, this will not be a real problem in practice. If it would be helpful for the second judge to see counsel’s advice prepared at the first approval stage (so that he can better understand the background) it should be possible for the parties to agree that any sensitive passages be redacted and that the rest of the advice be shown to the judge and to the defendant. There may be other forms of compromise which have not occurred to us. We think that with good sense no real problems should arise.
THE APPEAL IN DE HAAS—ISSUE 14
[131]
Issue 14 related to the appeal in De Haas. The appellants sought to criticise Nelson J’s approach to the issues of form of order and indexation. To
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explain how the criticism arises, it is necessary to describe the circumstances which prevailed when the judge had to consider these issues.
[132]
The quantum only hearing was fixed for hearing on Monday, 20 November 2006. By Wednesday, 22 November, the parties had agreed all the heads of damage and the appropriate multipliers for a lump sum award and the judge had approved them. However, there remained outstanding issues as to the form of order and indexation of any PPO. These were to be considered the following day 23 November. However, on that day, Swift J handed down her judgment in Thompstone’s case in which, as we have said earlier, she made a PPO for care and case management and modified the effect of s 2(8) by directing that the payments should be indexed by reference to ASHE 6115. She also gave the defendant permission to appeal to the Court of Appeal.
[133]
During 23 November, the parties in De Haas made submissions on the form of order. The claimant had earlier indicated that she would seek PPOs in respect of a wide range of heads of damage, all of which she contended were earnings-related. However, her wish for a PPO was conditional upon the judge agreeing to modify the RPI provision in s 2(8) and substituting an earnings-related index or measure. This position was supported by the report of Mr Cropper, the same IFA as later advised in RH. However, on 23 November, after the quantum of each head of damage had been agreed and approved, the claimant’s position shifted; she now sought a PPO only in respect of care and case management, conditional upon modification of the index by reference to ASHE 6115. Mr Cropper was now of the view that it would be in the claimant’s best interests to have a PPO for care and case management costs (so long as it was suitably indexed) but to receive all other heads of damage as a lump sum.
[134]
The defendant’s position was that the form of order should provide for all future losses to be paid under PPOs, save for the claimant’s own loss of earnings, which it accepted should be paid as a lump sum in order to provide a sufficient capital sum to enable her to buy a suitable home. These arguments were advanced by counsel on instructions. The defendant had not instructed an IFA.
[135]
It had been intended that the evidence on indexation should be called the following week. Both parties had instructed experts on the indexation issue. However, the claimant’s counsel, Mr Stephen Grime QC, told the judge that, in the light of Swift J’s decision in Thompstone’s case and the fact that it was going to be appealed, the claimant’s litigation friend would prefer not to fight out the issue of indexation but to adjourn that issue pending the appellate decision. The claimant would be bound by that decision and costs and court resources would be saved. Mr Grime submitted that the judge should decide there and then that Mr Cropper’s advice should be accepted as providing the solution best fitted to meet the claimant’s needs. The judge should order that all heads of damage other than care and case management should be paid as a lump sum and adjourn the issue of what should happen to care and case management until the appellate process in Thompstone’s case was complete.
[136]
The defendant opposed this course and maintained that the issues of allocation and indexation were inextricably linked and should be fought out together. If that were done, the hearing on indexation would cover indexation of a wider range of heads of damage than had been considered in Thompstone’s case. Then, the unsuccessful party would be able to mount an appeal, covering those wider issues, to be heard at the same time as Thompstone’s case, an arrangement
Page 595 of [2008] 2 All ER 553
envisaged by Brooke LJ in Flora’s case. Mr Rees accepted that a short adjournment would be necessary because the experts had not been asked to deal with the issue of indexation in the way in which the defendant now wished to argue it. Mr Grime argued that it was not fair to the claimant to require her to go through the hearing of the indexation issues just so that the defendant could take a wider case to the Court of Appeal. The claimant would be exposed to a risk on costs which was unnecessary and unfair.
[137]
Mr Rees also submitted that Mr Cropper’s advice was not in the claimant’s best interests; his change of stance on 23 November was irrational. The defendant’s preference should be given equal weight to that of the claimant and its preference for a PPO covering all heads of loss save future earnings would result in the order which best met the claimant’s needs.
[138]
Nelson J directed himself by reference to CPR 41.7 and the relevant parts of the practice direction. No criticism is or could be made of that. He said that, in deciding what order to make, the claimant’s needs were paramount. Mr Rees was, at one stage, minded to criticise that statement of the test to be applied, on the ground that CPR 41.7 does not use the word ‘paramount’. However, Mr Rees did not pursue that argument with any vigour accepting, we think, that the argument was semantic and that the judge had applied the right test. The judge concluded that the proposal advanced by Mr Cropper would produce the order which best met the claimant’s needs. It was not illogical for him to suggest that she needed a lump sum to provide for contingencies and unforeseen fluctuations in the cost of services; far from being irrational, it was sensible.
[139]
The judge rejected Mr Rees’s argument that the defendant should be allowed to fight out the issue of indexation so that another case could be taken to the Court of Appeal. He considered that, because the claimant’s needs would be best met by ensuring that she had a lump sum as advised by Mr Cropper, any possible PPO should be restricted to care and case management. That meant that the case was so similar to Thompstone’s case that it was right that the hearing of the indexation issue should be postponed to await the outcome of the appeal in that case.
[140]
In this appeal, Mr Rees submitted that the judge was not entitled to take the course he did. First, although he said that he was giving equal weight to the preferences of both parties, in fact he did not do so. Second, allocation and indexation are so inextricably linked that it was wrong for the judge to separate them. By separating them as he did, he deprived the defendant of arguing indexation on a wider basis than had been adopted in Thompstone’s case. Third, his decision as to allocation was illogical; he should have allocated more heads of damage to the PPO. We can deal with these issues quite briefly. Some of them have already been discussed earlier in this judgment.
[141]
The judge recognised that he was obliged to consider the preferences of each party. But that does not mean that he was not free to prefer the proposals of one side to those of the other. His task was to choose the proposals which best met the claimant’s needs. That meant that, unless he rejected the proposals of both sides—a situation which we think will be rare—he would in the end prefer one set of proposals to the other. That would not mean that he was not giving the parties’ preferences proper consideration. That is what happened here. After considering the submissions of both counsel and the evidence of Mr Cropper—and giving them equal consideration—he held that it was in the
Page 596 of [2008] 2 All ER 553
claimant’s best interests to have the greater degree of flexibility advocated by Mr Cropper to take account of unforeseen contingencies.
[142]
As to Mr Rees’s third point, we find it difficult to understand how it can be said to be illogical to hold that not all future losses should be allocated to a PPO. True it is that there are real advantages to a claimant in a PPO; he cannot run out of money if he lives longer than expected. But there are countervailing arguments, such as the need for a capital sum to allow for contingencies. It simply cannot be said that it is illogical to allow the claimant a capital sum to provide for unforeseen contingencies. We note that, in Thompstone’s case, the NHSLA, the effective defendant, agreed that the only heads of damage to be subject to a PPO were to be care and case management. They must be taken to have accepted that that course was in the claimant’s best interests. We do not see how the NHSLA can now argue that such a stance was illogical.
[143]
Did the judge separate allocation and indexation in an impermissible way? We do not think that he did. What he did was to hive off a section of the future losses which would in no circumstances be subject to a PPO. The judge had accepted that the claimant needed a substantial lump sum (over and above that which the parties agreed that she needed) to buy a house. He was satisfied that the lump sum suggested by the claimant on Mr Cropper’s advice was appropriate to her needs. So that lump sum was hived off. What he was not in a position to decide was whether the rest of the future losses (about 77 per cent of the total) comprising care and case management costs ought to be paid as a lump sum. Whether the claimant’s needs would best be met by receiving those heads of damage as a lump sum or as a PPO would depend upon how the PPO was to be indexed. If it were to be indexed to RPI, a lump sum might better meet her needs. If it were to be indexed to ASHE 6115, a lump sum might serve her better. So, the judge adjourned both questions, allocation and indexation. He did not separate the two. He considered, sensibly in our view, that it was not appropriate for him to go over exactly the same ground as Swift J had just gone over. That would have wasted costs and resources. When the outcome of the whole appellate process in Thompstone’s case is known, Nelson J will consider both issues. He will either decide on allocation and indexation or he will consider whether or not to approve an agreement that the parties might well reach. In our view, in deciding to manage the case as he did, the judge made a wholly appropriate decision and did not separate allocation and indexation in an inappropriate way.
[144]
We add that, on the closer consideration which has been given to this case in this appeal than was given at the permission stage, when Smith LJ was persuaded that the appeal raised a point of legal principle, we think that the judge’s decision was, in truth a case management decision. We have detected no error of principle in his approach and we dismiss the appeal on this point.
CONCLUSION
[145]
For the reasons we have given above, the appellants’ contention on all issues are rejected and the result is that all four appeals fail and are dismissed.
Appeals dismissed.
Dilys Tausz Barrister.
R v Foster and other appeals
[2008] 2 All ER 597
[2007] EWCA Crim 2869
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Law
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR IGOR JUDGE P, LATHAM LJ, GRIGSON, SMITH AND PITCHFORD JJ
Hearing Date(s): 18 OCTOBER, 30 NOVEMBER 2007
Criminal Law – Trial – Alternative verdicts – Guidance on the ambit and application of authority in relation to alternative verdicts – Criminal Law Act 1967, s 6.
In July 2006 the House of Lords gave guidance relating to alternative verdicts in R v Coutts [2006] 4 All ER 353. The House considered the statutory rules in s 6a of the Criminal Law Act 1967 which provided (sub-s (2)) that on an indictment for murder a person found not guilty of murder ‘may be found guilty—(a) of manslaughter, or of causing grievous bodily harm with intent to do so; or (b) of any offence of which he may be found guilty under an enactment specifically so providing, or under section 4(2) of this Act [assisting offenders]; or (c) of an attempt to commit murder, or of an attempt to commit any other offence of which he might be found guilty; but may not be found guilty of any offence not included above’; and (sub-s (3)) that where, on a person’s trial on indictment for any offence except treason or murder, the jury found him not guilty of the offence specifically charged in the indictment, but the allegations in the indictment amounted to or included an allegation of another offence falling within the jurisdiction of the court of trial ‘the jury may find him guilty of that other offence or of an offence of which he could be found guilty on an indictment specifically charging that other offence’. Three appeals were heard together because they raised questions about the ambit and application of the decision in R v Coutts. F was convicted of attempted murder. His conviction was referred to the Court of Appeal because the trial judge had failed to leave to the jury the possibility of conviction of an alternative offence, assault occasioning actual bodily harm, or attempt to do so, or attempt to do grievous bodily harm with intent. N was also convicted of attempted murder after a trial in which no alternative verdict had been left to the jury. K was convicted of counts of burglary and attempted burglary; no alternative verdicts of theft or handling stolen goods had been left to the jury. In a fourth case the defendant applied for leave to appeal against conviction on different grounds. The first three defendants submitted that when at trial a defendant admitted in evidence any lesser criminal offence to the offence charged in the indictment the judge had always to direct the jury in a way that enabled them to acquit of the more serious offence and convict of the offence admitted by the defendant. They considered that R v Coutts demonstrated a principle of law that in a trial on indictment any obvious and viable alternative verdict should ordinarily be left to the jury where there was evidence to support it, irrespective of the wishes of the parties and even where the alternative verdict would be inconsistent with the prosecution case. The Court of Appeal considered (i) whether it was possible to identify when, as a matter of law, a judge’s failure to leave an alternative verdict to the jury was erroneous; (ii) (in relation to K’s case) whether the principles in R v Coutts
Page 598 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
extended beyond the ambit of s 6 of the 1967 Act; and (iii) the impact of an erroneous failure by a judge to leave an alternative lesser verdict to the jury on the safety of the conviction in the individual case.
Held – (1) Any requirement to leave an alternative verdict to the jury did not engage an absolute question of law. The situation which arose in the instant cases would not always create an obligation on the trial judge to leave an alternative lesser verdict whenever the defence to the more serious charge on the indictment involved an admission of a lesser offence. In addition to any specific issues of fairness there was a proportionality consideration. A judge would not be in error if he decided that a lesser alternative verdict should not be left to the jury if that verdict could properly be described in its legal or factual context as trivial or insubstantial or where any possible compromise verdict would not reflect the real issues in the case. He should reconsider any decision he might have reached about alternative verdicts in the light of any question the jury saw fit to ask about them. However, when the defence to a specific charge amounted to the admission or assertion of a lesser offence, the primary obligation of the judge was to ensure that the defence was left to the jury. If it were not, the summing up would be seriously defective and the conviction would almost inevitably be unsafe. The judgment whether a lesser alternative verdict should be left to the jury involved an examination of all the evidence and the issues of law and fact to which it had given rise. Within that case-specific framework the judge had to examine whether the absence of a direction about a lesser alternative verdict would oblige the jury to make an unrealistic choice between the serious charge and complete acquittal which would unfairly disadvantage the defendant (see [54]–[61], below); R v Coutts [2006] 4 All ER 353 explained.
(2) The principles derived from R v Coutts did not extend beyond the ambit of the statutory framework in the 1967 Act (see [62]–[66], below).
(3) An erroneous failure by a trial judge to leave an alternative lesser verdict to the jury did not change the statutory test relating to the safety, or otherwise, of convictions returned by the jury. Ultimately the single issue for the Court of Appeal was whether the conviction was unsafe. In the instant cases there was no reason to doubt the safety of the convictions. The appeals would therefore be dismissed (see [67], [70], [72], [74], below).
Notes
For the general power to convict of an offence other than that charged, and for alternative verdicts on indictments for murder, manslaughter or infanticide, see 11(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 1335, 1336.
For the Criminal Law Act 1967, s 6, see 12(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 359.
Cases referred to in judgment
Bullard v R [1961] 3 All ER 470n, [1957] AC 635, [1957] 3 WLR 656, PC.
Hunter v R [2003] UKPC 69, [2004] 2 LRC 719.
Mancini v DPP [1941] 3 All ER 272, [1942] AC 1, HL.
R v A [2006] EWCA Crim 3084, [2006] All ER (D) 312 (Nov).
R v Ali [2006] EWCA Crim 2906, [2006] All ER (D) 43 (Nov).
R v Banton [2007] EWCA Crim 1847, [2007] All ER (D) 373 (Jul).
R v Collison (1980) 71 Cr App Rep 249, CA.
Page 599 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
R v Coutts [2006] UKHL 39, [2006] 4 All ER 353, [2006] 1 WLR 2154.
R v Fairbanks [1986] 1 WLR 1202, CA.
R v Hemmings [2000] 2 All ER 155, [2000] 1 WLR 661, CA.
R v Hopper [1915] 2 KB 431, [1914–15] All ER Rep 914, CCA.
R v J [2004] UKHL 42, [2005] 1 All ER 1, [2005] 1 AC 562, [2004] 3 WLR 1019.
R v McCormack [1969] 3 All ER 371, [1969] 2 QB 442, [1969] 3 WLR 175, CA.
R v Maxwell [1988] 1 WLR 1265, CA; affd [1990] 1 All ER 801, [1990] 1 WLR 401, HL.
R v Osieh [1996] 1 WLR 1260, CA.
Von Starck v R [2000] 4 LRC 232, [2000] 1 WLR 1270, PC.
Appeals and application
R v Foster
Mark Foster was convicted of attempted murder on 20 January 2003 in the Crown Court at Stafford after a trial before Goldring J and a jury. His application to appeal against conviction was refused on 30 October 2003. The Criminal Cases Review Commission referred the conviction to the Court of Appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Newman
Lee Newman was convicted of attempted murder on 15 May 2006 in the Crown Court at Basildon after a trial before Judge Clegg and a jury. He appealed against conviction with leave of the single judge. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Kempster
Mark Kempster was convicted of three counts of burglary and one count of attempted burglary on 30 March 2001 in the Crown Court at Southampton after a trial before Mr Recorder Hughes and a jury. The Criminal Cases Review Commission referred the conviction to the Court of Appeal. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Birmingham
Gareth Birmingham was convicted of murder and conspiracy to rob on 18 August 2006 in the Crown Court at Liverpool after a trial before Judge Globe QC and a jury. He was sentenced on 18 September to life imprisonment with a minimum term of 25 years’ and to imprisonment for public protection with a minimum term of 5 years’ to run concurrently. He applied for leave to appeal against conviction and sentence. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Henry Blaxland QC (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Foster.
Benn Maguire (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Newman.
Michael Mansfield QC (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Kempster.
Jonathan Goldberg QC and Gary Grant (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for Birmingham.
Gordon Bebb QC, Roderick Henderson, Samantha Leigh, Jonathan Clarke (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Judgment was reserved.
Page 600 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
30 November 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR IGOR JUDGE P.
[1]
These appeals against conviction by Foster, Newman and Kempster, raise important questions about the ambit and application of the decision of the House of Lords in R v Coutts [2006] UKHL 39, [2006] 4 All ER 353, [2006] 1 WLR 2154. In advance of the hearing it appeared possible that Birmingham’s application for leave to appeal against conviction might do so, but in the result it did not, and we shall deal with Birmingham’s application at the end of the judgment in the appeals.
MARK FOSTER
[2]
Mark Foster was convicted of attempted murder on 20 January 2003 in the Crown Court at Stafford before Goldring J and a jury. On 13 June 2003 he was sentenced to nine years’ imprisonment. An application to appeal against conviction was refused on 30 October 2003. The Criminal Cases Review Commission (the Commission) referred the conviction because, contrary to the decision in R v Coutts, the judge failed to leave to the jury the possibility of conviction of an alternative offence, assault occasioning actual bodily harm, or attempt to do so, or attempt to do grievous bodily harm with intent.
[3]
The complainant was a working prostitute. On 14 July 2002 she made arrangements to meet a client at a lorry park, where she had worked for about two years. She left the vehicle of one client at about 11.10 pm. After speaking to two acquaintances, she made her way across the lorry park to go home. The appellant was a long distance lorry driver, parked in the same truck stop. The appellant paid her for sexual intercourse. They climbed into the bed at the rear of the cab. Sexual intercourse began, but the appellant was unable to gain a full erection. He withdrew and she masturbated him until he ejaculated. None of these facts was in dispute.
[4]
According to the complainant, while she was getting dressed, suddenly and without warning she was pulled backwards and felt something tighten around her neck. She started to choke and was unable to speak, and to begin with, unable to free herself. She began to struggle furiously, kicking and lashing out with her arms. She was then dragged by whatever it was round her neck to the driver’s seat and then felt it loosen. The appellant jumped on top of her. She screamed, and in an effort to stop her screams, he placed his hand over her mouth and nose, which prevented her breathing. He told her that if she stopped struggling he would let her go. When she stopped struggling he released the pressure from her mouth, but instead reached out for a pillow and tried to place it over her face. She was so terrified that she defecated, and in desperation began to struggle violently again. She managed to open the driver’s door, and with her arms extending out of the vehicle pulled herself against the steps of the cab, falling head first onto the ground. She quickly got to her feet and ran screaming for help. The appellant drove away from the scene.
[5]
Noting the complainant’s hysterical state, another driver relayed the registration number of the appellant’s vehicle to the police. When the police arrived the complainant was still distressed, and reported that she had lost one of her earrings and a training shoe during the struggle. A medical examination disclosed injuries to her neck which were consistent with her version of events, and she also suffered bruising to her left elbow and buttock. Petechial
Page 601 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
haemorrhages were noted in her eyes, typical of an asphyxial episode, which would have lasted about 20 seconds, (according to the expert for the Crown) or between 20 and 30 seconds, (the defence expert).
[6]
The appellant was arrested in the early hours of the following morning. His immediate response was to indicate that he had been involved in a fight in a pub. It was noted that he had superficial scratch marks on left side, lower front thigh and knee area, the back of his left and right hands and his right forearm. His vehicle was searched, and an earring identical to the complainant’s earring was found, together with a quantity of hair. The tachograph indicated that the vehicle was stationary at the time of the incident. In view of subsequent events, we need not narrate the development of the evidence which demonstrated that, contrary to his denials, the appellant was responsible for the attack on the complainant.
[7]
The appellant’s evidence at trial presented an emphatically different account of events. Owing to his inability to perform full penetrative intercourse, the complainant made derogative remarks to him, so he asked for his money back. When she refused, he attempted to grab the money from her, and she punched him in the face. In order to restrain her, and prevent her continuing with the attack on him, he grabbed the collar of her jumper. When she began to struggle, he panicked and released his grip and let her out of the cab. He accepted that he had caused the physical injuries which she sustained, including injuries consequent on asphyxia, but denied that he intended to kill her.
[8]
At the end of the evidence, Goldring J invited counsel to make submissions whether assault occasioning actual bodily harm should be left to the jury. The Crown submitted that they were contending that the appellant had deliberately attempted to kill the complainant, and that it would confuse the jury if they were asked to consider anything else. ‘Our case is essentially all or nothing.’ Counsel for the appellant submitted that the issue of assault had arisen, and that it was a proper case for ‘obvious reasons’ for the judge, on his own initiative, ordering the addition of a count of alleging assault occasioning actual bodily harm. Goldring J approached the problem as if it was a matter for the Crown, and he declined to add such a count. He also indicated that he would give a formal direction in relation to self-defence, making it plain that this issue was not being raised on the appellant’s behalf.
[9]
The jury was directed with unequivocal clarity that the appellant should not be convicted unless they were sure that he tried to strangle the complainant intending to kill her. He could only be guilty if the jury was sure of that fact. The summing up ended with a further reminder of the essential issue.
LEE NEWMAN
[10]
Lee Newman was convicted of attempted murder on 15 May 2006 at the Crown Court at Basildon before Judge Clegg and a jury. On 19 June he was sentenced to imprisonment for public protection, with a minimum term of seven years, less 310 days spent on remand in custody. He appeals against conviction with leave of the single judge in the light of the decision in R v Coutts.
[11]
The appellant worked at a garage in Wickford. The director in charge of the business was the complainant, Mrs Francine Spurr. On 10 August 2005, in the late afternoon, she was returning a set of car keys to the cupboard in the showroom when the appellant attacked her by putting his hands around her neck and gripping it hard. The prosecution case was that the appellant had a
Page 602 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
sado-erotic fantasy about strangling Mrs Spurr to death, and that when he attacked her on 10 August he was fulfilling that fantasy. The allegation was based on evidence discovered later which showed not only a number of photographs of Mrs Spurr, but also a story written by him in which he described in graphic detail how ‘Lee put both his hands around her neck and began to strangle Fran, watching her as he finally strangled her to death’. The defence case was that the appellant did not intend to kill or harm the complainant.
[12]
The evidence at trial included evidence from a number of women who had been treated in a bizarre way by the appellant. A former girlfriend described an incident when he grabbed her by the throat, and how when she screamed, the appellant released his grip, saying that he was sorry, but then grabbed her again by the throat, so that she screamed and ran for help. When questioned, the appellant said that he did not intend to hurt his girlfriend, and so the charges were dropped, and he was bound over to keep the peace for 12 months. A receptionist at the same garage, who was friendly with the appellant, began to feel uncomfortable with him from about the beginning of 2004. On a number of occasions he would appear out of nowhere as she was going to her car after work, saying words to the effect, that he hadn’t beaten her up for a while. Although the words were spoken in a jocular way, he would corner her against the wall and put a hand around her throat. On the last occasion, his grip had been tighter than normal. She added that he always stopped when she asked him to do so, and although she felt uncomfortable with this behaviour, she did not think that he would go further and try and strangle or kill her.
[13]
Another woman, describing her relationship with the appellant as ‘professional’, was standing by the key cupboard in the showroom speaking to the appellant about either a car or a customer in May 2005. The appellant was behind her, and put his hands around her throat. She said that it was done in a playful way, and she pushed him away. She disregarded the incident until she heard about the attack on Mrs Spurr.
[14]
In evidence the appellant explained that he had put his hands around the necks of each of these three women, explaining that he was ‘play fighting’.
[15]
The complainant described events on 10 August. She was hanging some car keys back in the appropriate cupboard, when she heard the appellant say ‘I’m sorry’. She turned her head and said ‘Pardon’. Thereupon the appellant put his hands around her neck, with his thumbs at the front and his hands at the back. Initially she thought it was a joke, and said ‘what are you playing at? Get off’. The appellant repeated that he was sorry. However, he looked as though ‘he was another planet’, and his grip was extremely tight. He then lunged at her, using his body weight to push her back into the cupboard. She fell onto the ground on her head and back, and the appellant’s hands remained gripped around her neck extremely tightly. She tried to pull at his fingers, and then at his testicles, and attempted to tear at his eyes, and scratch his face, but he appeared oblivious. She said that she was terrified and thought that she was about to die. She could feel the appellant’s blood dropping onto her face. She felt very weak, and the appellant kept repeating ‘I’m sorry’. She then lost consciousness. Just as she slipped into unconsciousness, she thought she was about to die. The next thing she could remember was being spoken to by another colleague.
[16]
The colleague described entering the showroom, and hearing noises coming from the area of the key cupboard. He saw Mrs Spurr either kneeling or sitting on the floor, and the appellant either kneeling or sitting behind her, with
Page 603 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
both facing towards the back of the cupboard, and the appellant’s hands on the complainant’s shoulders. When the appellant turned to face him, he saw blood on his face, hands and shirt. The complainant looked as though she had passed out, she was limp and lifeless. When the appellant saw him he turned back to the complainant and began to shake her by the shoulders saying, ‘I’m sorry Fran, I’m sorry Fran. Are you alright Fran?’. The appellant then got up and ran away. The complainant seemed delirious and unsteady on her feet, he saw marks on either side of her neck. The emergency services were called.
[17]
The appellant was later found by his wife in the early hours of the morning lying in some brambles a short distance from the garage. His face and torso were covered in scratches, some from brambles, but some on his own evidence, those to the face, had been inflicted by the complainant. She herself had suffered a dislocation of the right shoulder, together with some bleeding around the right ear, and large red marks on the neck.
[18]
The appellant described in evidence some of his financial and emotional stresses. His story, describing the scene where ‘Lee’ strangled ‘Fran’ was written when he was angry with the complainant after he had been told that he would only receive £200 by way of bonus. He had no intention of killing her, and the story had been left in his briefcase because he had forgotten about it. The incident on 10 August occurred at the end of a difficult day when he had an impression that she was annoyed with him. He lost his temper and lashed out at her. He was incredibly angry and grabbed her by the throat because she wouldn’t listen, and just kept talking and talking. All he wanted was for her to be quiet. He could only remember being angry and then looking down and seeing her. She was on the ground, and he released his grip of her neck. He noticed her catch her breath and saw that her eyes were still moving. He had no idea how he came to be down on his knees beside her.
[19]
The appellant did not accept that he had said sorry to her at the outset of or during the attack. He only apologised at the end. Although he did not dispute it, he could not recall that she kneed him in the groin, scratched his face or twisted his testicles. He did not intend to kill her or cause her serious harm. He just wanted her to shut up and let him have his say. He could not explain how her shoulder came to be dislocated. When the witness arrived, and the complainant got up and went to the telephone, he panicked and ran away.
[20]
When cross-examined, the appellant accepted that he was not play fighting with Fran, and that he had deliberately assaulted her. He knew that he had done something very wrong but had not intended to kill her. He kept photographs of the complainant in his briefcase because he was attracted to her. He also accepted that he had torn some of them up, but did not know why, nor indeed why he enlarged some other photographs of her on his photocopier. He accepted that there were similarities between the events described in his written story and the actual events which took place on 10 August.
[21]
The judge gave the jury impeccable directions about the ingredients of attempted murder. Before the appellant could be convicted, the prosecution had to prove that ‘this defendant intended to kill Francine Spurr’. This, he emphasised was the crucial question in the case, which was very much in dispute. He directed them that however reprehensible his conduct might be, unless they were sure that he intended to kill, he would not be guilty. ‘An intention to frighten, or even just to hurt somebody, is not enough.’
Page 604 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
MARK KEMPSTER
[22]
Mark Kempster was convicted on 30 March 2001 in the Crown Court at Southampton, before Mr Recorder Hughes, as he then was, and a jury, of three counts of burglary (counts 1, 3 and 4), and one count of attempted burglary (count 2). On 20 April he was sentenced to 10 years’ imprisonment for each burglary offence, and 5 years’ imprisonment for the attempted burglary, the sentences to run concurrently.
[23]
This appeal against conviction follows a reference by the Commission, first, on the basis that following R v Coutts it is arguable that the Recorder should have left as an alternative to the burglary count on count 4, either theft or handling stolen goods, and that if so, the convictions on counts 2 and 3, attempted burglary and burglary, were so connected to the conviction on count 4 that if it were quashed, they would be quashed as well. A separate issue arising from fresh evidence which might undermine the prosecution evidence relating to ear prints was adjourned. This judgment does not address the fresh evidence issue.
[24]
Count 1 reflected a burglary which occurred on the night of 3–4 June 2000 when an 89 year-old lady was awoken by the presence of a man in her bedroom. He was wearing a hood over his head. He spoke to her, and stole £45 from her handbag.
[25]
The rear kitchen window had been forced. The police recovered an ear print from a fixed pane to the side of the window. The ear mark was said by an expert called by the Crown to match the reference print taken from the appellant, and she was in no doubt that it had been left by the appellant. The appellant was also linked to the premises because he had done some building work for the householder during February 2000.
[26]
Counts 2, 3 and 4 were offences which took place in the early hours of 17 June 2000. Count 2 related to an incident at about 1.45 am when a householder was disturbed by an intruder forcing a kitchen window. When he went to investigate the noise, he found the burglar climbing in though the window. The intruder fled. Count 3 related to a similar incident about one hour later, when another 89 year-old lady awoke to find a man in her bedroom. Her jewellery was missing. Then, at about 4 am, Mr and Mrs Martin were woken by a telephone call. The caller claimed to be a police officer who told them that they had been burgled and that their bank cards were now with the police. He asked them to disclose their PIN numbers, so that a stop could be put on the cards. Instead, the householders telephoned the police themselves. They then discovered that they had been burgled and their bank cards taken. The call to them was traced to a telephone box close to the appellant’s home. There was evidence to suggest that he had used the telephone box at about that time to call a taxi.
[27]
The evidence called by the Crown included that of the appellant’s cousin, Robert Smith. He was called at the request of the defence and treated as hostile. He said that he had committed all of the offences for which the appellant was being tried, but he was unable to give any detail of the offences. He did not mention that he had given any credit cards to the appellant.
[28]
The prosecution relied on the similarities of the method of operation between counts 2, 3 and 4 and, their proximity in time and place to show that they had all been committed by the same person. When he was interviewed, the appellant denied all of the offences, and in relation to count 1, following disclosure of the ear print evidence, said that he had done some work at the
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premises some four or five weeks previously. On the night of 17 June, he had been at home looking after his children while his wife was staying with her sick mother.
[29]
At the end of the prosecution case, the judge rejected submissions that there was no case to answer and that the jury should be discharged because of the risk of unfairness which followed the admission of Robert Smith’s evidence. The appellant then dispensed with the services of his solicitors, and eventually counsel withdrew. An adjournment was refused, and the trial continued with the appellant unrepresented.
[30]
The appellant elected to give evidence. He said that if the ear print was his, it must somehow have been left when he was working at the house. He would not have burgled a house where the occupant knew him. He had been on a family night out on 3–4 June, in company with his wife throughout. As to 17 June he accepted that he had made the telephone call to the home of the Martins, and said that the bank cards had been given to him by Robert Smith. He lied to the police about this because he did not want his wife to know that he had gone to visit another woman while she was away. His wife, mother and brother supported his alibi for 3–4 June.
[31]
This account was challenged and fully explored by the prosecution, their case remaining that the appellant was the burglar. At the conclusion of his evidence, before addressing the jury, the appellant asked the judge whether he would be inviting the jury to bring in what he described as a further charge of handling. The Recorder said that that alternative would not be open to them, and the appellant asked ‘would you honour be advising them in any way at all?’ To which the Recorder responded, ‘Yes I will tell them that if they think that is what has happened then they have to acquit you’. The appellant asked ‘they cannot bring a verdict back on the handling?’ To which the Recorder replied ‘No, it is not an alternative. I’m not being awkward. In law, handling stolen property is not an alternative to burglary.’ The Recorder said that he would ‘most certainly’ direct the jury that the appellant’s evidence was that his only involvement in these offences related to the credit cards.
[32]
In summing up, the judge gave the jury what he described as a word of warning in relation to the appellant’s evidence that he dishonestly received the credit cards and tried to obtain the PIN numbers. He directed them that if they were not sure that he was the burglar, he would be acquitted on count 4, and counts 2 and 3 as well, but that an alternative verdict, for example, guilty of handling stolen property was not open to them. The prosecution case was that the defendant was the burglar, and unless the jury agreed, the defendant was entitled to be acquitted. There was no alternative verdict.
THE STATUTORY FRAMEWORK
[33]
The statutory framework governing alternative verdicts is found in the Criminal Law Act 1967. Section 6(2) provides:
‘On an indictment for murder a person found not guilty of murder may be found guilty—(a) of manslaughter, or of causing grievous bodily harm with intent to do so; or (b) of any offence of which he may be found guilty under an enactment specifically so providing, or under section 4(2) of this Act; or (c) of an attempt to commit murder, or of an attempt to commit any other offence of which he might be found guilty;
but may not be found guilty of any offence not included above.’
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Section 6(3), (4) provides:
‘Where, on a person’s trial on indictment for any offence except treason or murder, the jury find him not guilty of the offence specifically charged in the indictment, but the allegations in the indictment amount to or include (expressly or by implication) an allegation of another offence falling within the jurisdiction of the court of trial, the jury may find him guilty of that other offence or of an offence of which he could be found guilty on an indictment specifically charging that other offence . . .
(4) For the purposes of subsection (3) above any allegation of an offence shall be taken as including an allegation of attempting to commit that offence; and where a person is charged on indictment with attempting to commit an offence or with any assault or other act preliminary to an offence, but not with the completed offence, then (subject to the discretion of the court to discharge the jury . . . with a view to the preferment of an indictment of the completed offence) he may be convicted of the offence charged notwithstanding that he is shown to be guilty of the completed offence.’
[34]
The Court of Appeal, Criminal Division may substitute a conviction for an alternative offence in the circumstances described in s 3 of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968, which provides:
‘(1) This section applies on an appeal against conviction, where the appellant has been convicted of an offence to which he did not plead guilty and the jury could on the indictment have found him guilty of some other offence, and on the finding of the jury it appears to the Court of Appeal that the jury must have been satisfied of facts which proved him guilty of the other offence.
(2) The Court may, instead of allowing or dismissing the appeal, substitute for the verdict found by the jury a verdict of guilty of the other offence, and pass such sentence in substitution for the sentence passed at the trial as may be authorised by law for the other offence, not being a sentence of greater severity.’
When these provisions apply, they enable a true verdict to be returned in accordance with the jury’s view of the evidence, or substituted by this court.
R v COUTTS
[35]
A woman died at Coutts’s flat and her body was found one month later on some public land. The issue before the jury was whether Coutts deliberately strangled her to satisfy his sexual fantasies, or whether her death was an accident, which happened in the course of consensual asphyxial sexual activity. The prosecution and the defence were both agreed, and so submitted to the judge, that the jury should not be invited to consider a possible verdict of unlawful act manslaughter on the basis that to do so would undermine the fairness of the trial. Accordingly the possibility of a manslaughter verdict was not left to the jury. Coutts was convicted of murder. The House of Lords decided that the judge’s failure to leave the manslaughter alternative was wrong. The appeal was therefore allowed.
[36]
The decision was based on four reasoned speeches. Lord Bingham of Cornhill, Lord Rodger of Earlsferry each expressly agreed with each other, and
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the speeches of Lord Hutton and Lord Mance who both expressly agreed with Lord Bingham and Lord Rodger. Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead agreed with the reasoning in each speech. R v Coutts was directly concerned only with the murder conviction (the narrow question). However the speeches addressed the general ‘duty and discretion’ of the judge to leave alternative verdicts to the jury in trials other than murder (the broad question). It would be productive of uncertainty and disadvantageous to the administration of criminal justice if we did not immediately acknowledge that we are bound to follow the approach of the House of Lords to both questions.
[37]
Dealing first with the narrow question, it was long established, certainly from the early part of the twentieth century (R v Hopper [1915] 2 KB 431, [1914–15] All ER Rep 914), at a time when murder carried the death penalty, that irrespective of submissions to the contrary, even if both sides were agreed, the judge was obliged to leave the possibility of acquittal of murder and conviction for manslaughter on any available basis for which there was some evidence. This requirement was not abated merely because its application might complicate the task of the jury. The line of authority since R v Hopper is unbroken. (See, among many others, Mancini v DPP [1941] 3 All ER 272, [1942] AC 1; Bullard v R [1961] 3 All ER 470n, [1957] AC 635; Von Starck v R [2000] 4 LRC 232, [2000] 1 WLR 1270.) No further citation of authority is needed. Each member of the present constitution, faced with the issue when sitting in the Crown Court, has unhesitatingly applied the principle, now reinforced, yet again, by R v Coutts.
[38]
Murder involves unlawful killing: so does manslaughter. If the circumstances in which the defendant killed his victim may have amounted only to manslaughter, as a matter of law, he cannot be guilty of murder. Notwithstanding the abolition of the death penalty, the judge’s directions must not deprive the defendant of a defence to the charge of murder which, on the evidence, may be open to him, whether that evidence emerges from the defence actually advanced by the defendant at trial, or where it arises on the evidence generally. Therefore if there is any evidence that the killing may have occurred in circumstances which amounted to manslaughter, that possible verdict should be left to the jury and s 6(2) of the 1967 Act would apply unless this would cause unfairness to the defence because it had not had a proper opportunity to deal with the possible alternative. Critically to the result in R v Coutts, and indeed other similar cases, the jury were not given any opportunity, direct or indirect, to consider a manslaughter verdict when it undoubtedly arose on the evidence. It was therefore impossible to know whether, if properly directed at the outset, the jury would have accepted or rejected this possible defence, and returned their verdict accordingly. Sometimes described as a ‘compromise’ verdict (see Von Starck v R), the verdict remains a true verdict by which the jury indicates its inability either to accept the Crown’s case to its full extent, or to acquit the defendant altogether on the basis of his defence.
[39]
This was the context in which the broad question arose for consideration. No extensive citation of relevant authority prior to R v Coutts was undertaken in the appeals before us. The pre-Coutts principles are found in the decisions in R v Fairbanks [1986] 1 WLR 1202 and R v Maxwell, first in the Court of Appeal at [1988] 1 WLR 1265, and then in the House of Lords at [1990] 1 All ER 801, [1990] 1 WLR 401.
[40]
Fairbanks was charged with causing death by reckless driving. Following cross-examination of witnesses for the prosecution, and thereafter evidence
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called by the defence, a guilty verdict would have been ‘problematical’, but conviction of driving without due care and attention would not. After hearing conflicting submissions, the assistant Recorder declined to direct the jury that the lesser verdict was open to them. However after retiring for about 90 minutes, the jury asked: ‘would it be possible to define the term “reckless” as opposed to any other categories of bad driving?’ The Recorder responded to the effect that they were to put out of their minds the possibility of a conviction for careless or inconsiderate driving. In due course the appellant was convicted of causing death by reckless driving. He appealed, among other grounds, on the basis that the Recorder was wrong in law when he failed to direct the jury as to possible alternative verdicts, and so failed to allow them to consider alternatives offences.
[41]
The judgment of the court given by Mustill LJ emphasised (at 1205–1206) that the judge was obliged—
‘to leave the lesser alternative only if this is necessary in the interests of justice. Such interests will never be served in a situation where the lesser verdict simply does not arise on the way in which the case has been presented to the court: for example if the defence has never sought to deny that the full offence charged has been committed, but challenges that it was committed by the defendant. Again there may be instances where there was at one stage a question which would, if pursued, have left open the possibility of a lesser verdict, but which, in the light of the way the trial has developed, has simply ceased to be a live issue. In these and other situations it would only be harmful to confuse the jury by advising them of the possibility of a verdict which could make no sense.
We can also envisage cases where the principal offence is so grave and the alternative so trifling, that the judge thinks it best not to distract the jury by forcing them to consider something which is remote from the real point of the case: and this may be so particularly where there are already a series of realistic alternatives which call for careful handling by judge and jury, and where the possibility of conviction for a trivial offence would be an unnecessary further complication.
On the other hand the interests of justice will sometimes demand that the lesser alternatives are left to the jury. It must be remembered that justice serves the interests of the public as well as those of the defendant, and if the evidence is such that he ought at least to be convicted of the lesser offence, it would be wrong for him to be acquitted altogether merely because the jury cannot be sure that he was guilty of the greater . . .
the recorder created a risk that one or more jurors might feel an equal distaste for convicting the appellant of a serious crime on the basis of a single instance of bad driving, and for allowing him to escape without any penalty at all, and might thus be impelled to arrive at a verdict contrary to an objective assessment of the evidence.’
[42]
The conviction was quashed and a conviction of driving without due care and attention was substituted. Plainly, the jury question demonstrated concern among some or all its members about the directions of law which they were given as they applied to the evidence, yet the effect of the directions they received in response to their question was that they should, in effect, ignore them. Therefore a realistic alternative to the charge they were considering was removed from their consideration.
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[43]
The attention of the court in R v Fairbanks was not drawn to R v McCormack [1969] 3 All ER 371, [1969] 2 QB 442. This decision established that the trial judge was vested with a discretion to leave to the jury the possibility of convicting of a lesser included offence falling within s 6(3) of the 1967 Act. The court upheld the decision of the trial judge to leave indecent assault to the jury which was considering the allegation that the defendant had had unlawful sexual intercourse with a girl under the age of 16. It followed, of course, that he had discretion not to do so. The significant feature of R v McCormack was that the statutory defence (s 6(3) of the Sexual Offences Act 1956) was then believed to be available in relation to the full offence, but not to the indecent assault admitted in evidence by the appellant. We now know that this was wrong (R v J [2004] UKHL 42, [2005] 1 All ER 1, [2005] 1 AC 562). However, when McCormack was decided, the judge’s decision reflected the current view that the defendant should not be permitted to escape proper conviction on wholly unmeritorious technical grounds, and his decision was upheld in the Court of Appeal.
[44]
Maxwell was alleged to have procured the commission of a serious robbery, which took place in a dwelling house. His defence was that he had indeed sought to arrange a burglary, to which he was willing to plead guilty, but he had no idea that a robbery might ensue. The indictment alleged robbery. Burglary was not an alternative to this charge, but theft would have been. The jury was required to decide between a ‘wholly artificial choice between convicting Maxwell of robbery and acquitting him altogether’. The effect was to distort ‘the shape of the trial’ and to confuse the jury. The jury was indeed troubled, and as in R v Fairbanks, they asked a straightforward question: ‘we would like to know if there is a lesser charge that we can bring against Maxwell . . . other than robbery’. The judge immediately responded: ‘the answer to your question is “no”. Burglary is not an alternative and you can concentrate on the charge . . . which is one of robbery.’ After a further retirement, the defendant was convicted.
[45]
In the Court of Appeal, counsel for the Crown had the forensically invigorating problem of submitting to Mustill LJ that the judgment of the court which he had given in R v Fairbanks was wrong and he referred to what Mustill LJ himself described as ‘some sharp criticism’ of it in the 8th Supplement to Archbold Criminal Pleading Evidence & Practice (42nd edn, 1985). Accordingly the court reconsidered R v Fairbanks. After reconsideration the court repeated the general observation in relation to the duties of the trial judge, that he was not obliged to leave an alternative offence to the jury simply because the defence asked him to do so, and Mustill LJ’s judgment continued ([1988] 1 WLR 1265 at 1270):
‘in other cases there will be a viable alternative to a conviction on the major offence as charged, and no conviction at all, and if so the judge should leave the jury with the full range of choice.’
After considering various alternative scenarios, he concluded:
‘the right course will vary from one case to another, but the judge should always use his powers to ensure, so far as practicable, that the issues left to the jury fairly reflect the issues which arise on the evidence.’
[46]
The court accepted the general thrust of the critical observations in the Supplement to Archbold. Acknowledging that if the conviction were upheld, it
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would be unrealistic to envisage any circumstances in which the appellate court would intervene, Mustill LJ concluded that:
‘[T]he task of the jury was not to choose between deciding that Maxwell was guilty of robbery and deciding that he was entirely innocent, but rather to perform the single function of asking themselves whether they were sure that he was guilty as charged. To this function the anomalous consequences of a negative answer were irrelevant, however puzzling they may have been. We have already held that the jury received an adequate direction on the matters of which they must be sure before they could properly convict. To interfere with the verdict would require us to identify solid grounds for suspecting that the members of the jury had foresworn their oaths by deliberately returning a verdict of guilty when they were not sure of it, simply to avoid an unwanted outcome.’
The appeal was dismissed.
[47]
The question certified was:
‘Is there a material irregularity in the conduct of a trial where a judge fails to give to the jury the opportunity of considering a lesser alternative offence on a particular count in the indictment?’
In the result, the House of Lords declined to answer the question because it was said to have no real connection with the issues which fell to be decided. The starting point was that the jury cannot have been in doubt that before convicting Maxwell they had to be sure that he intended that the burglary should be accompanied with violence.
[48]
The single speech in the House of Lords was delivered by Lord Ackner. He doubted the validity of the view expressed in the Court of Appeal that the indictment ‘forced the jury to make a wholly artificial choice’ between robbery or a complete acquittal. Lord Ackner said:
‘It is the responsibility of the prosecution to frame the charge as they think appropriate. At the end of the extensive evidence which the prosecution called to justify the charge, it seems to me that they were entitled validly to submit that they had established a strong prima facie case of robbery, and that the jury should not be distracted from concentrating on the ingredients of that offence by the introduction into the trial of the lesser offence, which was inappropriate in their view on the facts which they had already established . . . I will assume, without deciding, that even though the indictment was not defective the trial judge had power to amend it (see s 5(1) of the Indictments Act 1915). Even so, the trial judge, who by then, after several hearing days, would have had the “feel” of the case, which the Court of Appeal would not, was not in my judgment to be criticised for accepting the prosecution’s submission.’ (See [1990] 1 All ER 801 at 805, [1990] 1 WLR 401 at 405.)
[49]
The question for decision was whether the judge should ‘have informed the jury in response to their question’ that, although burglary was an impermissible alternative, they could convict of theft. After referring to R v Fairbanks, and the criticism in the relevant Supplement to Archbold, the House of Lords confirmed that the judge was not obliged to leave an alternative offence to the jury, merely because the defence asked him to do so. In some cases, where
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there was a ‘viable alternative’ to conviction of the major offences, the full range of choices should be left to the jury. In yet other cases, ‘where the principal offence is so grave and the alternative relatively so trifling’, the jury should not be distracted from the real issue by being asked to consider something remote ‘from the real point of the case’. Where however the court was satisfied that ‘the jury may have convicted out of a reluctance to see the defendant get clean away with what, on any view, was disgraceful conduct’ ([1990] 1 All ER 801 at 807, [1990] 1 WLR 401 at 408), and an alternative lesser charge was not left to them, the conviction would not be safe or satisfactory.
[50]
The test propounded in R v Maxwell about the circumstances in which the court should interfere with the verdict was closely examined in each speech in R v Coutts. It is impossible to ignore the criticisms expressly directed at it. R v Maxwell is variously described (at [19]) as ‘not an easy authority’ by Lord Bingham, who observed the different grounds upon which the defendant had failed in the Court of Appeal (that the appellate court should only interfere if there were identified ‘solid grounds for suspecting that the members of the jury had foresworn their oaths’ ([1988] 1 WLR 1265 at 1270)) and in the House of Lords (that the lesser offence of theft was trifling in relation to robbery) and considered neither was ‘unproblematic’. Lord Hutton, who was a member of the Board in Hunter v R [2003] UKPC 69, [2004] 2 LRC 719, which followed R v Maxwell, pointed out that Lord Ackner was speaking obiter when he said that the appellate court, before interfering with a verdict, must be satisfied that the jury may have convicted out of a reluctance to let the defendant ‘clean away’ and criticised that approach as an unsatisfactory one which should no longer be taken. Lord Rodger of Earlsferry (at [88]) described the test as ‘problematical’, to say the least, and on analysis, ‘wrong in principle’; and Lord Mance regarded the test in relation to a jury trial as ‘unworkable’ (at [99]). There was no suggestion that the concerns about the correct approach in law to what might be called the reluctant jury attracted the application of the Practice Direction (Judicial Precedent) issued by Lord Gardiner on behalf of himself and the Lords of Appeal in Ordinary on 26 July 1966. In any event, the language in the speeches is unequivocal. Lord Ackner’s test is no longer applicable. Effectively, it has been extinguished. It is nevertheless important to a proper understanding of the approach to the broad question in R v Coutts that it reflected the potential problem of the reluctant jury, deprived of the opportunity to reach a compromise but nevertheless true verdict.
[51]
R v Coutts also provides unequivocal authority that whenever alternative verdicts should be left to the jury, whether in the narrow or broad context, then the judge should so direct them, notwithstanding united submissions on behalf of both the prosecution and the defence to the contrary. In making this judgment, of course, the judge must be alert to and have in mind the possibility of any consequent unfairness, usually to the defendant, but not excluding the possibility of unfairness to the prosecution. In recent years, with increasing emphasis, the entire structure of the trial process has been revisited to ensure that the real issues should be identified before, or certainly not later than the start of the trial, and that the evidence on both sides should be presented accordingly. That said, experience shows that the evidence by the end of the trial may not always mirror the anticipation of either side, and any ‘fairness’ question should be addressed at the close of the evidence, before speeches, but always in the context of the issues to which the evidence has given rise.
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[52]
On the basis of R v Coutts, the effect of the submissions on behalf of the appellants is that when at trial the defendant admits in evidence any lesser criminal offence to the offence charged in the indictment, the judge must always direct the jury in a way that it enables them to acquit of the more serious offence, and convict of the offence admitted by the defendant. If this is not done, the conviction of the more serious offence will be unsafe. Mr Henry Blaxland QC argued that R v Coutts demonstrated a principle of law that in a trial on indictment any ‘obvious and viable alternative verdict’ should ordinarily be left to the jury where there is evidence to support it, irrespective of the wishes of the parties, and even when the alternative verdict would be inconsistent with the prosecution case. The principle was not confined to cases to which ss 6(2) and 6(3) of the 1967 Act might apply, and an indictment which failed to include an obvious and viable alternative offence, as disclosed on the evidence at trial, was defective for the purposes of s 5 of the 1915 Act. Where the judge erred in failing to leave a lesser alternative verdict obviously raised by the evidence, the conviction, whether for murder or some lesser offence, should be quashed as a serious miscarriage of justice. Effectively, this submission reflected the arguments on behalf of the appellants, who again with different emphasis, adopted Mr Blaxland’s concession that the obligation to direct the jury in this way would not arise where the alternative offence would be too remote from the issues in the case, or trifling or trivial, or where to do so would cause unfairness to the defendant.
[53]
To examine these submissions we must return to R v Coutts. On analysis three distinct questions arise. First, whether it is possible to identify when, as a matter of law, the judge’s failure to leave an alternative verdict is erroneous. Second, whether the principle extends beyond the ambit of s 6 of the 1967 Act (of direct application in Kempster’s appeal). Third, the impact of an erroneous failure by the judge to leave an alternative lesser verdict to the jury on the safety of the conviction in the individual case.
[54]
Before any requirement to leave an alternative verdict arises, it must be ‘obviously’ raised by the evidence, that is, an alternative verdict which would suggest itself to the mind ‘of any ordinarily knowledgeable and alert criminal judge’ (per Lord Bingham at [23]). Lord Mance adopted the same formulation of an ‘obvious alternative verdict’. Lord Hutton, while agreeing with Lord Bingham’s test that the alternative verdict should suggest itself to the ‘ordinary knowledgeable and alert criminal judge’ observed that the same test might be differently expressed. The alternative verdict should ‘only’ be left if it was one to which ‘a jury could reasonably come’, quoting Lord Clyde in Von Starck v R [2000] 4 LRC 232, [2000] 1 WLR 1270, or where ‘the alternatives really arise on the issues as presented at the trial’, quoting Mustill LJ in R v Fairbanks. Lord Rodger explained (at [84]) that the judge’s duty was to ‘put the possibility of a viable alternative verdict before the jury’, but not if this was remote from the real point of the case, thus echoing Mustill LJ’s formulation.
[55]
Each of these formulations admitted of exceptions, and it is therefore plain that an absolute question of law is not engaged. Nothing in the speeches in R v Coutts suggested expressly, or by necessary implication, that the situation which arises in these appeals, and which has arisen and will no doubt continue to arise in many trials, creates an obligation on the trial judge to leave an alternative lesser verdict whenever the defence to the more serious charge on the indictment involves an admission of a lesser offence. Sometimes it will, but sometimes not.
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[56]
Three decisions of this court where the R v Coutts principle was addressed are illustrative. In R v Ali [2006] EWCA Crim 2906, [2006] All ER (D) 43 (Nov) the appellant was charged with one count of causing grievous bodily harm with intent contrary to s 18 of the Offences against the Persons Act 1861 and he was convicted. An alternative verdict of assault occasioning actual bodily harm on the basis, first, that the appellant lacked the necessary intent and second, that any injuries that he may have inflicted did not constitute grievous bodily harm were not left to the jury, largely because counsel for the appellant and his co-defendant dissuaded the trial judge from doing so. In fact a conviction of assault occasioning actual bodily harm would have been an entirely appropriate verdict on the evidence, and in the light of R v Coutts, the court concluded that the Recorder should have left the count to the jury, notwithstanding the urgings of defence counsel. By contrast, in R v A [2006] EWCA Crim 3084, [2006] All ER (D) 312 (Nov) the appellant was convicted of causing grievous bodily harm with intent, contrary to s 18 of the 1861 Act, in the context of violent disorder. The Crown alleged that the defendant was responsible for using a knife to inflict a very serious injury on the victim. The appellant denied it, but admitted one punch to another man in defence of one of his co-accused. In accordance with the submissions of counsel, a possible verdict of an offence contrary to s 20 of the 1861 Act was not left to the jury. The appeal was advanced on the ground that R v Coutts required that this alternative should have been left to the jury. The court concluded that a s 20 verdict was not, in the circumstances, an obvious alternative verdict. In the context of extreme violent disorder, the victim had suffered a very deep knife wound to his wrist, and the issue at trial was whether the defendant was responsible for the knife injury.
[57]
In R v Banton [2007] EWCA Crim 1847, [2007] All ER (D) 373 (Jul), the defendant was convicted of wounding with intent contrary to s 18 of the 1861 Act. The jury was not invited to consider a possible s 20 verdict. Based on R v Coutts, this formed the basis of the appeal. The Crown’s case was that the defendant had smashed a bottle against the victim’s face, causing serious injury. At trial the defendant, in her evidence, asserted that the victim was one of three aggressors who assailed her with bottles. To defend herself she picked up one bottle and hurled this in their general direction. She did not see the bottle strike the victim, and she did not intend to hurt or to cause her injury. She ran from the room, and when followed by the victim, threw a glass at her, which missed. After discussion, and an overnight opportunity for reflection by counsel for the Crown, he told the judge that he made no application to add a count appropriate to s 20. The judge observed, ‘so you nail your colours to the mast of: if she hit her face with a bottle she must have intended to do her serious injury?’ The jury was directed accordingly.
[58]
On appeal, in the light of R v Coutts, the Crown did not resist the appellant’s argument that an offence contrary to s 20 should have been left to the jury. Dismissing the appeal, the court observed:
‘[21] The foundation of the prosecution’s case against the appellant was that she smashed a bottle in the complainant’s face. The appellant denied it. This presented the jury with a stark question of fact. For the prosecution to have sought the appellant’s conviction on a different factual basis would have been a radical departure from the case presented . . .
[25] . . . The existence of some possible evidential basis for such an alternative verdict would by no means necessarily be a sufficient basis for
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putting it to the jury. The judge would be justified in not leaving it to the jury if he reasonably considered it to be remote from the real point of the case . . .
[29] . . . realistically it is hard to imagine that the jury would have convicted the appellant of wounding with intent unless they accepted the prosecution witnesses’ account of what she did.’ (Per Toulson LJ.)
[59]
These decisions illustrate the way in which this court has already sought to apply the reasoning in R v Coutts. They demonstrate that it does not necessarily follow from the defendant’s admission of a lesser or different crime to the crime charged in the indictment that the jury must be given an opportunity to return a verdict on the basis of the admitted criminal conduct. This is unsurprising. Many a guilty defendant, examining evidence which is effectively incontrovertible, will take refuge in admitting some criminal activity encompassed by this evidence, but deny the more serious offence supported by evidence which he can challenge or seek to explain. The defence may, of course, be true. Equally, the jury may be unable conscientiously to reject it. However when cases like these arise, the alternative verdict may very well be remote from the more serious allegation made by the prosecution and the real issues in the case. In R v Fairbanks, now perhaps to be regarded as resuscitated by R v Coutts, it plainly was not. The only issue in the trial was the proper level of criticism to be directed at the defendant’s driving. In R v Maxwell, despite the criticisms in R v Coutts by Lord Bingham, the question asked by the jury was not directed to a lesser included offence under s 6(3) of the 1967 Act, but to burglary, and the possible alternative, theft, was treated as too trivial. Although Lord Bingham referred to the maximum sentence for theft provided by statute, it seems improbable that he was suggesting that the gravity of a possible alternative offence was to be considered in the abstract. We respectfully suggest that in any event theft would have distracted from the essential issue at trial, that is the defendant’s alleged involvement in a particularly unpleasant incident at the victim’s home which took place when the defendant was not there.
[60]
The danger highlighted by some of the speeches in R v Coutts, underlining the duty of the trial judge to leave alternative verdicts to the jury, is the risk that faced with the stark choice between convicting a defendant whose behaviour was on any view utterly deplorable, and acquitting him altogether, the jury may unconsciously but wrongly allow its decision to be influenced by considerations extraneous to the evidence and convict of the more serious charges rather than acquit altogether. In such circumstances to omit directions about a possible lesser alternative verdict may therefore work to the defendant’s disadvantage. R v Coutts itself provides a possible example. However, R v Coutts does not suggest that such a risk is always present. Indeed our entire system for the administration of criminal justice in the Crown Court depends on the conscientious and impartial determination of the issues by the jury, following and applying the directions of law which they receive from the judge. This principle, too, was unequivocally acknowledged in R v Coutts.
[61]
Accordingly, not every alternative verdict must be left to the jury. In addition to any specific issues of fairness, there is what we shall describe as a proportionality consideration. The judge is not in error if he decides that a lesser alternative verdict should not be left to the jury if that verdict can properly be described in its legal and factual context as trivial, or insubstantial, or where any possible compromise verdict would not reflect the real issues in the case. He
Page 615 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
must, of course, reconsider any decision he may have reached about alternative verdicts in the light of any question which the jury may see fit to ask, as they did in R v Fairbanks and R v Maxwell. However when the defence to a specific charge amounts to the admission or assertion of a lesser offence, the primary obligation of the judge is to ensure that the defence is left to the jury. If it is not, on elementary principles, the summing up will be seriously defective and the conviction will almost inevitably be unsafe. The judgment whether a ‘lesser alternative verdict’ should be left to the jury involves an examination of all the evidence, disputed and undisputed, and the issues of law and fact to which it has given rise. Within that case-specific framework the judge must examine whether the absence of a direction about a lesser alternative verdict or verdicts would oblige the jury to make an unrealistic choice between the serious charge and complete acquittal which would unfairly disadvantage the defendant. In this context the judge enjoys ‘the feel of the case’ which this court lacks. On appeal the problem which arises is not whether a direction in relation to a lesser alternative verdict was omitted, and whether its omission was erroneous, but whether the safety of the conviction is undermined.
[62]
Before addressing this question, we must consider whether the principles derived from R v Coutts extend beyond the ambit of alternative verdicts available under the statutory arrangements provided by s 6(2) and (3) of the 1967 Act. R v Coutts suggests that it did not. It addressed the statutory framework provided by the 1967 Act, but went no further. The opportunity to address the issue was available when the decision in R v Maxwell was criticised, but again, given that the jury question plainly indicated an interest in a possible burglary conviction, (which would not be available for the purposes of s 6(3)) no extension beyond the ambit of the 1967 Act was suggested.
[63]
The bill of indictment is, as Archbold explains in its opening words:
‘A bill of indictment is a written or printed accusation of crime made at the suit of the Crown against one or more persons. The bill of indictment becomes an indictment when it is signed in accordance with the provisions of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, S.2(1)’
As with so many different aspects of the criminal law, the precise legislative provisions in force at any given time vary. Thus, for example, when Kempster was committed for trial, the provisions of ss 41 and 332, Sch 3, para 34, and Sch 37 Pt IV, introduced by the Criminal Justice Act 2003 were not in force. The relevant provisions at the particular time when these trials took place were not analysed in argument. The best analysis we can make is that when Foster and Newman were committed for trial, it would have been permissible for the indictments to charge any offence specified in the notice given by the magistrates’ court under s 51 of the Crime and Disorder Act 1998 and any offence revealed by the material served by the prosecution pursuant to the regulations made under that Act. In relation to Foster and Newman, the indictments could and did charge attempted murder. They could have been convicted of any lesser included offence in accordance with s 6(3) of the 1967 Act. So far as Kempster was concerned, following committal for trial, the indictment might have included offences for which he was committed by the magistrates for trial or charges which were disclosed in the evidence before the magistrates. Kempster was charged with a number of burglaries. Handling stolen goods was not a lesser included offence within the statute, but theft was.
Page 616 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
[64]
Section 3(1) of the 1915 Act provides:
‘Every indictment shall contain, and shall be sufficient if it contains, a statement of the specific offence or offences with which the accused person is charged, together with such particulars as may be necessary for giving reasonable information as to the nature of the charge.’
The reason behind these rules is almost too elementary to identify. An accused person is entitled to know the offences with which he is charged and the evidence to be called in support of those charges before the start of his trial, so that he may have a proper opportunity to prepare his defence. Section 5(1) of the 1915 Act provides:
‘Where, before trial, or at any stage of a trial, it appears to the court that the indictment is defective, the court shall make such order for the amendment of the indictment as the court thinks necessary to meet the circumstances of the case, unless, having regard to the merits of the case, the required amendments cannot be made without injustice . . .’
Read literally, the power of the court to order an amendment only arises when it appears that the indictment is ‘defective’.
[65]
Without reciting the developing jurisprudence about the meaning of the word ‘defective’ as used in s 5(1) of the 1915 Act, it is now common practice to permit amendments to the indictment at any stage of the trial, whether by amending or adding or substituting new counts, provided that these steps may be taken without unfairness to the accused. Whether unfairness results will usually depend on the purpose of the amendment, the stage of the trial at which the amendment is sought, the degree, if any, to which the defendant is required by the amendment to meet a new prosecution case and whether he would be disadvantaged in the presentation of his defence. Thus, for example, in R v Collison (1980) 71 Cr App Rep 249 an amendment was permitted which removed a technical impediment and allowed the jury to deliver the verdicts of unlawful wounding contrary to s 20 of the 1861 Act on which they were all agreed, when the charge was before them, but not ‘expressly stated’.
[66]
Argument was not addressed to us about the correctness and applicability of the decision in R v Osieh [1996] 1 WLR 1260, where discussing the interaction of the proviso to s 2(2) of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933 with s 5 of the 1915 Act Schiemann LJ said (at 1266):
‘We regard the suggestion that it is never permissible for a judge to give leave for the making of an amendment to an indictment when that amendment amounts to adding a count in respect of which the requirements set out in section 2(2) of the Act of 1933 had not been fulfilled, as wrong, and indeed unarguable. There is no statutory warrant for it.’
This decision was heavily criticised by Professor Smith in [1996] Crim LR 889. R v Osieh was an application for leave to appeal. The prosecution was not represented. Leave to appeal was refused. Schiemann LJ’s observation was ‘obiter’. In R v Hemmings [2000] 2 All ER 155, [2000] 1 WLR 661, the court observed that it was ‘not necessary’ for any view to be expressed on the question whether the observations in R v Osieh were inconsistent with the earlier cases referred to in the critical observations made in Archbold. As it is equally unnecessary for us to march in where Clarke LJ declined to tread, we shall not do
Page 617 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
so. The point will have to be examined in an appropriate case after full argument. Assuming, however, that R v Osieh is correct it seems to us undesirable that the trial judge at the end of the evidence should be obliged to consider whether the indictment should be amended to include all offences on which a jury properly directed might convict, and where on the evidence possible further offences appear, which are not lesser included alternatives, to order an amendment of the indictment to include them. To do so, overlooks the true purpose of an indictment, which is to specify the charges upon which the prosecution, not the court, is seeking a conviction or convictions. It would be likely to obscure the issues between the prosecution and the defence. It would complicate the task of the jury, which until that moment, would have been considering the evidence in the light of the charges actually included in the indictment, and it would complicate the summing up. It would also open up the possibility of additional counts being based on the evidence and at the behest of a co-defendant, and in theory at least, but subject to the unfairness principle, permit an amendment to allege a more serious charge. If the width of discretion suggested in R v Osieh is indeed available, the circumstances in which it may be exercised will be very rare. R v Coutts itself did not envisage that the broad question relating to lesser alternative verdicts extended outside the statutory framework. In the absence of any indication to this effect, and given that the indictment should reflect the prosecution’s case against the defendant, we reject the submission that the principles in R v Coutts extend beyond the ambit of the statutory framework in the 1967 Act.
[67]
The final question is the impact of any erroneous failure by the trial judge to leave an alternative lesser verdict to the jury. Ultimately the single issue for this court is whether we think that the conviction is unsafe. If we do, the conviction must be quashed: if not, the appeal must be dismissed. The statutory test relating to the safety, or otherwise, of convictions returned by the jury is unchanged.
[68]
We shall return to the specific features of the individual appeals.
FOSTER
[69]
The victim suffered actual bodily harm. The appellant’s case was that he had caused her injuries, at least at the outset because he was seeking to restrain her from an attack on him. Perhaps realistically, in the light of the actual injuries, he did not rely on self defence as a complete answer to the allegation, although the judge left it to the jury, who rejected it. However his admissions about the circumstances in which the victim came to sustain her injuries bore no relationship to her allegation that he intended to kill her by depriving her of her breath, first by covering her mouth and nose, and then by using a pillow for the purpose. Save that the location in which the incident took place was agreed, there was simply no correspondence between the two versions.
[70]
In view of R v Coutts, the judge was wrong to treat the decision whether to leave actual bodily harm to the jury as the responsibility of the prosecution. The question nevertheless remains whether, after R v Coutts, any alternative offence should have been left to the jury. There was a single issue before them, effectively whether the incident took place in the circumstances described by the complainant or the appellant. The account given by the defendant amounted to admitting an offence contrary to s 47 of the 1861 Act. However the offence he admitted, or an attempt to commit it, was trivial when set against the alleged
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attempt to kill by asphyxiation. The appellant would not have been convicted unless the jury had wholly rejected his account. A verdict convicting him of an attempt to do grievous bodily harm with intent would not have been a realistic alternative on the facts of the case. Indeed no other compromise verdict would have been realistic. The decision that an alternative verdict should not be left to the jury was right. The defendant was not disadvantaged by the absence of such a direction. We therefore have no reason to doubt the safety of this conviction. This appeal will be dismissed.
NEWMAN
[71]
The circumstances surrounding this appeal are very similar to those in Foster. The appellant admitted responsibility for the complainant’s injuries. On his own case he was ‘incredibly angry’ and grabbed her by the throat. He did not release his grip of her neck until she was on the ground, and when he did so, he noticed that she caught her breath. All that he was saying was that he did not intend to kill or cause her serious harm.
[72]
The single issue at trial was his intention at the time of this sustained attack. The possibility of a verdict which merely reflected the victim’s injuries would have been remote from the realities of the issues to be decided by the jury. The judge was right not to leave any lesser alternatives to them. As in Foster, the admitted offence contrary to s 47 of the 1861 Act was trifling in the circumstances, and an offence of attempting to cause grievous bodily harm with intent would have been unrealistic on the evidence. The jury’s attention was rightly directed to what was effectively the single issue in the case. Again, the defendant was not disadvantaged by the absence of a direction linking his defence to a lesser alternative verdict. The appellant would not have been convicted of attempted murder unless the jury rejected his account of the incident. Once they had done so, no compromise verdict was realistically open. This appeal will be dismissed.
KEMPSTER
[73]
We shall assume that the power to amend the indictment to add a handling charge at the close of the evidence was available. In any event, on the burglary charge, a conviction for theft was a possible alternative.
[74]
The issue was stark. The link between Kempster and three offences of dwelling house burglary or attempted burglary during the night of 17 June 2000, was the telephone call made to Mr and Mrs Martin. Kempster either committed two burglaries and one attempted burglary that night, or, quite by chance, he was put into possession of part of the proceeds of one burglary by his cousin who claimed to have committed them. The admitted dishonest handling (whether so presented or presented as an offence of theft) was remote from the real issues and when set against three dwelling house burglary offences, at night, trivial. The Recorder was right to conclude that a lesser alternative verdict was not available, but even if it had been, he would have been right not to leave any such verdict to the jury.
[75]
On the R v Coutts issue, the appeal will be dismissed. The ground of appeal based on fresh evidence will be adjourned and listed in due course. Directions for the hearing will be given in the usual way by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals.
Page 619 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
GARETH BIRMINGHAM
[76]
Gareth Birmingham was convicted of murder and conspiracy to rob on 18 August 2006 in the Crown Court at Liverpool before Judge Globe QC and a jury. He was sentenced on 18 September to life imprisonment (with a minimum term of 25 years less 205 days spent in custody) for murder, and imprisonment for public protection with a minimum of 5 years’ imprisonment concurrently for conspiracy to rob. This is a renewed application for leave to appeal against conviction and sentence. We shall grant the necessary four-day extension.
[77]
The Crown’s case was that the applicant, then aged 22, and a co-accused, Terence Adams, aged 19, conspired together and with another person to rob Robert Ryan, a 22 year-old drug dealer, of his drugs and money. It is integral to an understanding of the case that the third person was the applicant’s brother, against whom there was insufficient admissible evidence.
[78]
On 12 January 2006 Robert Ryan was lured to Windsor Road by telephone calls from the applicant and co-accused pretending that they wanted to buy cocaine from him. The applicant was armed with a knife and the co-accused with a telescopic metal baton. They went to Windsor Road in a Corsa car belonging to the co-accused’s mother. The applicant’s brother sat in the rear seat. In the meantime Ryan accompanied by a Crown witness, Bartley, arrived at the scene in a Rover car. The vehicles themselves and some of the movements of those who were present were filmed and timed by a nearby CCTV camera but it did not capture the details of the incident. The video itself, together with schedules of telephone calls before and after the incident, were produced in evidence, and much of this evidence was agreed. It showed that the entire incident, from start to finish, was all over in about 30 seconds.
[79]
The deceased went toward the applicant’s car, where he was stabbed twice in the chest. Bartley remained in the Rover car. He did not know what happened, but someone smashed the driver’s window with a baton to deter him from intervening. He heard the deceased shout that someone had a knife and he heard another shout of ‘grab his chain’. The deceased ran away and was found to be bleeding from his side. An ambulance was called. He was pronounced dead at the hospital. In the meantime the applicant drove away from the scene.
[80]
On 19 January the applicant voluntarily reported to the police station. He was arrested. In interview he made no comment. His co-accused produced a prepared case statement.
[81]
At trial the applicant and his co-accused gave evidence. The applicant described the co-accused wanting some cocaine, and eventually telephoning the deceased who agreed to meet them in Windsor Road. The applicant himself did not know the deceased. There was no plan to rob him, and they were unarmed. They waited for him for over an hour in Windsor Road.
[82]
The deceased arrived in his Rover car, and went over to the Corsa and got into the applicant’s seat to do the drug deal with the co-accused while he stood outside. In the car an argument arose about the quality of the drug. This led to the deceased to make threats, and he pulled the appellant’s brother from the car. In the course of a violent struggle the deceased punched him and then kicked him on the ground and threatened to shoot him. The applicant thought that he was going to produce a weapon, and indeed a knife fell to the ground. He picked it up and challenged the deceased in an attempt to protect his brother. The deceased ran towards him and tried to punch him, and the applicant lashed out with the knife and stabbed him twice. This all happened very quickly. He did not
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know where he had stabbed the deceased. The knife was bloodied and he drove away in the Corsa with it and the deceased’s coat in a panic. His essential defence to the charge was that he was defending his brother and himself.
[83]
We need not recite the evidence of the co-accused. It was not suggested that it had any bearing on the issues raised in the applications. Instead, our attention was focussed on the full transcript of the applicant’s evidence. In chief the applicant accepted that he had stabbed the deceased in the course of the incident, and in a sentence or two described how he had done so because the deceased was fighting with his brother and he threw him to the ground and hit and kicked him and screamed that he was ‘gonna smoke you’, meaning that he was going to shoot him. The applicant said that he just reacted, ‘protecting my brother really’ and after that they began to square up and ‘it just went out of hand’. Later he described the incident in more detail, and taking the narrative up from the reference to ‘gonna smoke you’ he saw the deceased go for something which he thought was a weapon and when he saw a knife hit the floor, he ran over and picked it up. When he picked the knife up he said to the deceased ‘come on then’ to which the deceased responded ‘what? Do you know who I am?’ and ran at him and ‘I just . . . I stabbed and I stabbed him twice’. He was asked what he meant when he said ‘come on then’ and he replied ‘to come at me because I wanted him to leave my brother alone’. The deceased turned round and began to run at him and then stopped, and then starting throwing a punch, and ‘that’s when I lashed out with the knife’. After the stabbing, the deceased backed away, and the applicant looked at the knife and saw blood on it ‘and panicked’.
[84]
Later he was asked if he was conscious of the force he had used and responded ‘to be honest I thought I was punching him’, and went on, ‘I knew I had the knife but when you’re lashing out you don’t realise that until it’s too late’. Cross-examined he agreed that although there were two knife wounds, there had been in fact an additional stab cut which had gone through a fold of the deceased’s clothing. When it was put to him that he must have stabbed the deceased three times he replied that he was ‘panicking. I couldn’t tell you exactly. All I know that he was coming towards me and I lashed out’. Shortly afterwards he repeated that the deceased was coming at him trying to punch him but that he wasn’t punching him. He wasn’t punching anyone. He lashed out with the knife. Later it was suggested that his brother was not a shrinking violet, and the applicant insisted that it was his brother, and that he was protective ‘over his family’. He repeated his original account of hearing the reference to ‘smoke you’, and something hit the ground, which he ran over and picked up and to defend his brother, or divert the deceased from the attack on him said, ‘come at me’.
[85]
Basing himself on this material, Mr Jonathan Goldberg QC submitted that in accordance with long-standing principles, the trial judge should have left a possible defence of provocation for the consideration of the jury, however tenuous the evidence of provocation, indeed even if it was ‘extremely tenuous’. For his purposes, R v Coutts re-enforced but did not add anything to well-understood principles. We agree with Mr Goldberg’s proposition of law. The problem he faced is that a close analysis of the evidence given by the applicant demonstrates, as the single judge, Mackay J, refusing leave intimated, that the applicant claimed to have a complete recall of the incident which led up to the infliction of the fatal injuries, and described himself as aware both of his actions and those of the deceased, who was threatening him and his brother. He responded to this threat, but denied any loss of self control saying, among other
Page 621 of [2008] 2 All ER 597
things, ‘I didn’t come at him like a lunatic’. In reality there was no evidence that he lost his self control. Mackay J observed that ‘unless the current state of the law is such that in every case of self defence, or the defence of another, provocation must also be left to the jury, there is no arguable basis for appeal on this ground’. He did not read R v Coutts as providing support for any such proposition. Neither do we. Having analysed the transcript of the applicant’s evidence as a whole we are satisfied that as a matter of law the judge’s decision not to leave provocation to the jury in this case was correct.
[86]
Mr Goldberg renewed his application for leave to appeal against sentence by disarmingly conceding that the reasoning of the sentencing judge was impeccable. The essential thrust of his submission was that the sentence was too heavy. This was a short-lived robbery which went wrong, and the applicant was still only 22 years old when he inflicted the fatal wounds on the deceased.
[87]
The judge accepted that there was a lack of premeditation, but rejected the applicant’s contention that he had only accidentally acquired the knife at the scene. He rejected any element of self defence. He was entitled to do so. He took account of the applicant’s age, but also bore in mind his previous convictions. He referred to the statutory requirement that the starting point for murder committed in the circumstances of this case was a minimum term of 30 years. In these circumstances the minimum sentence, 25 years, is not open to criticism.
[88]
Accordingly these renewed applications are refused.
Application for leave to appeal refused. Appeals dismissed.
Carla Dougan-Bacchus Barrister.
Società Esplosivi Industriali Spa v Ordnance Technologies (UK) Ltd (formerly SEI (UK) Ltd) and others (No 2)
[2008] 2 All ER 622
[2007] EWHC 2875 (Ch)
Categories: COMPANY; Directors, Shareholders: INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY; Designs
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): LINDSAY J
Hearing Date(s): 29, 30, 31 OCTOBER, 1, 6, 7 NOVEMBER, 5 DECEMBER 2007
Design – Design right – Infringement – Document recording design – Meaning of ‘for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’ – Personal liability of sole director and shareholder of company as joint tortfeasor – Design of multiple warhead systems – Third defendant sole director and shareholder of first defendant company – Whether first defendant infringing claimant’s design right – Whether third defendant liable as joint tortfeasor – Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988, s 226(1).
The claimant was an Italian manufacturer of explosives for both military and civil uses. In 2001 it entered into agreements with the first defendant, a designer of warheads, under which they agreed to join their expertise and resources to develop competitive and cost effective new generation multiple warhead systems (MWS) for use with current or future missiles. The third defendant was the sole director and shareholder in the first defendant. In January 2004 the court delivered judgment on a number of issues which had arisen between the parties but adjourned several issues concerning intellectual property rights. The issues related to work done by the first defendant with the Ministry of Defence for a dense metal penetrator (DMP), for which two articles had been constructed and with an American weapons manufacturer for a trade study project for a multi-mission missile (MMM), for which the first defendant had used design documents as a starting point and developed or varied the design through several iterations within their computer although no relevant articles had ever been made. In August 2007 the first defendant company went into compulsory liquidation. The claimant contended, inter alia, that the first defendant had infringed its design right in relation to both its DMP and MMM work, contrary to s 226(1)a of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988, and that the third defendant had been personally liable in his capacity as managing director, as well as sole director and shareholder, of the first defendant. Section 226 of the 1988 Act provided: ‘(1) The owner of design right in a design has the exclusive right to reproduce the design for commercial purposes—(a) by making articles to that design, or (b) by making a design document recording the design for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made. (2) Reproduction of a design by making articles to the design means copying the design so as to produce articles exactly or substantially to that design . . .’
Held – (1) Upon its proper construction, the words ‘for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’ in s 226(1)(b) related back so as to qualify the words ‘by making’ so that it was the making of the document which was required to have
Page 623 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
been for the specified purpose. Further, s 226(1)(b) required a particular state of mind (aside from ‘commercial purpose’) to be proved. It was a necessary component of a successful allegation within the documents class of s 226(1)(b) that it should be proved of the alleged infringer that at the material time what he had done or authorised to be done by way of the making of a design document recording the design in question had been done with the purpose in him that articles to the design should thereby have been enabled to be made. It was not required that he should have had the purpose that he or he whom he had authorised should himself or themselves have made or been enabled to make such articles but rather that within the infringer there should have been the purpose of enabling the articles to have been made. Moreover, its proof was not necessarily to be negatived by a denial by the defendant concerned; whether the necessary purpose did or did not exist at some material time was likely to require an evaluation of all surrounding circumstances, amongst which the defendant’s own denial, if there had been one, was merely a part and not necessarily a credible part (see [58], [61], [62], below).
(2) The claimant’s design right had been infringed by the first defendant in relation to the DMP work. The test as to ‘exactly or substantially’ in s 226(2) had been satisfied. Whether the weapon was wholly or in part made by others was immaterial; it had been made and its making had been authorised by the first defendant. There was further a commercial purpose within the meaning of s 226 (see [64], below).
(3) In relation to the MMM work, there had been no contract for the making of an infringing article; there was no evidence of the existence of any design document from which an infringing article would have been made; no infringing article had in fact been made; and there had been no oral evidence with the intent of showing the first defendant’s purpose might have included the purpose of enabling infringing articles to be made. In those circumstances, the court was not satisfied that the first defendant had for a commercial purpose made any design documents recording the relevant design for the purpose of enabling articles infringing the protected design to be made, contrary to s 226(1)(b). The use of a protected document as a starting point for the making of further design documents which were variations upon the protected original, even where that making had been in the course of a commercial purpose, did not without more constitute an infringement within the document class of design right infringements (see [70], [72], below).
(4) In all the circumstances, the first defendant had been in breach of its contractual responsibilities with the claimant in relation to its use of intellectual property for both the DMP and MMM work but the court was not satisfied that it had been in breach of its contractual requirements as to confidence, nor in breach of copyright in relation thereto (see [36], [37], [40], [41], below).
(5) The third defendant was personally liable in respect of the first defendant’s infringement of design right relating to DMP work. Had the third defendant taken appropriate steps the misuse of the claimant’s design right in the DMP project would not have occurred and the third defendant, as the person holding himself out as managing director of the first defendant and as its sole director and shareholder, had had, amongst his tasks, the directing of the first defendant away from its committing any such breach. The case was not however one of the third defendant merely omitting to prevent breach by the first defendant; the third defendant had acted in a manner which was to be taken to be a facilitation of
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breach with a view to there being breach. The first and third defendants had shared a common design that the acts complained of as to DMP should take place. It followed that the third defendant was personally involved in the commission of the tort as to DMP to an extent sufficient to render him personally liable as joint tortfeasor (see [83], [87], [95], [103], below); MCA Records Inc v Charly Records Ltd [2003] 1 BCLC 93 applied.
Notes
For rights of design right owner and primary infringement of design right see 9(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 526, 527, and for the liabilities of directors; torts, see 7(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2004 reissue) para 1123.
For s 226 of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988, see 11(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (2006 reissue) 1124.
Cases referred to in opinions
Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568, [1990] 2 AC 605, [1990] 2 WLR 358, HL.
CBS Songs Ltd v Amstrad Consumer Electronics plc [1988] 2 All ER 484, [1988] AC 1013, [1988] 2 WLR 1191, HL.
MCA Records Inc v Charly Records Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1441, [2003] 1 BCLC 93; affg [2000] IP&T 800.
Mentmore Manufacturing Co Ltd v National Merchandising Manufacturing Co Inc (1978) 89 DLR (3d) 195, Can Fed CA.
Performing Right Society Ltd v Ciryl Theatrical Syndicate Ltd [1924] 1 KB 1, CA.
Rainham Chemical Works Ltd (in liq) v Belvedere Fish Guano Co Ltd [1921] 2 AC 465, [1921] All ER Rep 48, HL.
Unilever plc v Gillette (UK) Ltd [1989] RPC 583, CA.
Claim
The claimant, Societa Esplosivi Industriali Spa (SEI) (a company incorporated under the laws of Italy), brought proceedings against the first defendant, Ordnance Technologies (UK) Ltd (formerly SEI (UK) Ltd), the second defendant, Impact Science Ltd, and the third defendant, Stephen Keith Cardy, sole director and shareholder in the first defendant. Lewison J delivered judgment on a number of issues in the proceedings on 21 January 2004 ([2004] EWHC 48 (Ch), [2004] 1 All ER (Comm) 619) (the first trial) but adjourned several issues relating to intellectual property rights (identified in the judge’s order of 18 December 2003). The first defendant went into compulsory liquidation on 15 August 2007 and the first and second defendants took no part in the second trial. There were two further parties to the action, Robin Moat and David Haigh. At or before the first trial SEI abandoned its claim against Mr Moat personally and, in the course of the first trial, the personal claim against Mr Haigh failed. The only active dispute at the second trial was between the claimant and the third defendant. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Martin Howe QC and James Bailey (instructed by Withers LLP) for the claimant.
The third defendant appeared in person.
Judgment was reserved.
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5 December 2007. The following judgment was delivered.
LINDSAY J.
INTRODUCTION
[1]
This case concerns various classes of intellectual property rights in connection with Multiple Warhead Systems. The features of a Multiple Warhead System (MWS) are identified in para [1] of a reserved judgment in this action delivered by Lewison J on 21 January 2004 after a hearing of some 11 days (see [2004] EWHC 48 (Ch), [2004] 1 All ER (Comm) 619). In that judgment Lewison J dealt with all the issues in the action which were then susceptible of judgment but there were a number of issues (identified in the judge’s order of 18 December 2003, at the end of the hearing but before release of the reserved judgment) which the learned judge adjourned. It falls to me to decide such of those adjourned issues as have remained worthwhile answering and in dispute. But before I describe those in more detail I need to say something of the parties.
[2]
Società Esplosivi Industriali SpA (SEI) is a manufacturer of explosives for both military and civil uses. It is incorporated under the laws of Italy. It also manufactures munitions and weapon systems but at the relevant time it did not have expertise in designing warheads of the shaped charge variety. It is that variety with which I shall be concerned. SEI is the claimant in the action. It appears before me by Mr Martin Howe QC leading Mr James Bailey, as it had throughout the hearing before Lewison J in late 2003, the hearing which I will refer to as ‘the first trial’.
[3]
The first defendant, Ordnance Technologies (UK) Ltd, was formerly called SEI (UK) Ltd. Contrary to what one might expect of a company of that latter description, whilst it had contractual arrangements made with SEI, its shares were not owned, wholly or at all, by SEI, nor did SEI have nominee directors on its board nor the ability to appoint directors to its board. For a good part of the time with which I shall be concerned it remained under its earlier name but then changed to its present name but it will be convenient, to avoid confusion with SEI, to refer to the first defendant as ‘OTL’ whether or not that was the name of the first defendant at the time. OTL went into compulsory liquidation on 15 August 2007. On 23 October 2007 Blackburne J lifted the stay imposed by s 130 of the Insolvency Act 1986 and accordingly proceedings have continued against OTL. I have not seen the statement of affairs in OTL’s liquidation, nor have I been told what sort of dividend, if any, can be expected by its unsecured creditors.
[4]
OTL was represented at the first trial by leading counsel but, save for a brief attendance on the first day of the hearing before me during which, I was told, a representative of the liquidator had a watching brief, OTL has taken no part in the hearing before me. Although, at a constitutional level, as I shall come on to, OTL could be described as a ‘one-man band’, it was not as small a company as, and was more organised than, that description might suggest. It had within it a high proportion of the United Kingdom’s expertise in shaped charge warhead design. It was, it seems, in terms of the destructive performance of its shaped charge devices, amongst world leaders in that esoteric technology, a technology more fully explained in Lewison J’s judgment which, for the purposes of this judgment, I shall take to have been read.
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[5]
The second defendant, Impact Sciences Ltd (ISL), is a company which had its own experience of shaped charge technology but its relevant assets were purchased by OTL. No relief is sought by the claimants against ISL, not even costs. Very shortly before the beginning of the hearing before me (which I shall call ‘the second trial’) I received a letter on behalf of ISL indicating that they were not proposing to attend and no further part was taken by that company.
[6]
The third defendant, Stephen Keith Cardy, was, at the first trial, represented by the same leading counsel as appeared for OTL. Indeed, at the first trial, all defendants appeared by the same counsel. Mr Cardy is, I am told, the only director of and the only shareholder in OTL. I have not seen OTL’s memorandum or articles, nor any minutes of any board or general meeting. Mr Cardy describes himself and has held himself out as the managing director of OTL although I do not understand any resolution conferring such office to have been passed. He emerged poorly from the first trial, he or his evidence having been found to be not reliable, evasive, deliberately deceptive and deceitful. He, as a litigant in person, has taken an active part in the second trial.
[7]
There have been two further parties to the action, Mr Robin Moat and Mr David Haigh. At or before the first trial SEI abandoned its claim against Mr Moat personally and, in the course of the first trial, the personal claim against Mr Haigh failed. At the first trial Mr Moat had given evidence for OTL and, as a defendant, in his own right. Lewison J held him to be an honest witness. Although, in point of form, the amended particulars of claim continue to include allegations against him, the claimant seeks no relief against Mr Moat at the second trial and, indeed, Mr Moat, at the second trial, gave evidence for the claimant.
[8]
It follows from this that the only active dispute at the second trial was between the claimant and, as third defendant, Mr Cardy.
[9]
Another person which plays a part in the material events, although not a party to the action, was Raytheon Co (Raytheon), a corporation incorporated under the laws of the State of Arizona, United States of America and one of the largest weapons manufacturers in the world. Raytheon showed interest in and funded work by OTL and on 27 February 2002 contracted with OTL. Work done by OTL in performance or attempted performance of that contract—work which I shall call MMM work, as I shall later explain—is one of the two main areas of work as to which SEI complains.
[10]
Other persons playing a part in the events, although not parties to the action, were the United Kingdom Ministry of Defence (MoD) and its then associate QinetiQ. Work done by OTL in performance or attempted performance of arrangements made with MoD or QinetiQ—work which I shall call DMP work, as I shall later explain—is the other of the two main areas of work as to which SEI complains.
[11]
I shall turn to each in more detail later but, to give just a glance at the acronyms at this stage, MMM work concerns a trade study project for a Multi-Mission Missile and DMP work for a Dense Metal Penetrator (although a penetrator of that description was to be only a part of the whole warhead).
WITNESSES
[12]
Whilst some documents were looked at, there was very little in the way of detail from individual witnesses; only three gave evidence. SEI called Dr Nigel Davies as an expert witness. He submitted a report and also gave oral
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evidence. I need say nothing about his evidence at this stage save that I refer to it in para [27] et seq below. SEI also called Mr Moat, OTL’s programme manager for its warhead programmes. I found him to be a reliable witness.
[13]
The other witness was Mr Cardy. His evidence was almost entirely oral. He was occasionally evasive in his answers and, upon his departing radically from evidence given on a particular topic at the first trial, he raised doubts as to which, if either, of his versions of the events relative to that topic was true: doubts as to the reliability of his evidence in general thus became inevitable. However, whilst I cannot describe him as a reliable witness, I have no need to brand him worse than that.
DISCLOSURE
[14]
The main or only reason why Lewison J did not deal with but rather adjourned some issues—broadly speaking MMM and DMP issues, the issues now before me—was that by the time of the first trial there had been either no or inadequate discovery as to OTL’s MMM work and DMP work. Orders for discovery by OTL had been made before the first trial on 19 March 2003 and 30 July 2003 and, during the first trial, on 4 December 2003. The order that represented the outcome of the first trial, Lewison J’s order of 21 January 2004, included provision for the delivery up to SEI of a wide description of documents. There was further provision of documents by OTL to SEI after the first trial on 14 January 2004, 20 April 2004, 21 and 22 September 2004 and 10 December 2004. A fresh batch of papers was supplied by OTL on 5 April 2005 and an order as to the costs of SEI’s application for yet further disclosure was made on 9 May 2005 in SEI’s favour. Despite this long history, Dr Nigel Davies, SEI’s expert witness, speaks, for example, of absent computer modelling files, missing detailed initiation system drawings and absent input sheets. However, I have not understood Dr Davies, when speaking of material being absent, to be necessarily asserting that it must have once existed, still less that it had been deliberately concealed or destroyed.
[15]
SEI has, in effect, taken the tactical decision to proceed as best it can on the information already to hand rather than laying out yet more time and money in what could be a futile attempt to prove persisting breaches in relation to discovery by OTL or by Mr Cardy. At one or two points in its argument SEI asked me to draw inferences in relation to information that was missing.
THE EMERGENCE OF LANCER 2 TECHNOLOGY
[16]
By 1995 a team consisting of SEI and ISL had designed and made a MWS to which they gave the name Lancer—see Lewison J’s judgment [2004] 1 All ER (Comm) 619 at [19]. Those companies carried their work forward under a first teaming agreement of 11 January 1996 and a second of 1 January 1998. Mr Cardy had played a part in their coming together and in late 1998 he caused the incorporation of OTL. On 29 October 1998 OTL entered into a consultancy agreement with SEI to which I shall later refer. Also in October 1998 Mr Cardy made a presentation to Raytheon which sufficiently impressed the latter for it to commission a design of a MWS which was intended to contain Raytheon’s penetrator. ISL conducted mathematical modelling using its Parajet and Pisces predictive modelling computer programs and, after many variations were tried, a design began to emerge to which the name Lancer 2 was given. By May 1999 Lancer 2 existed in the form of drawings recorded in computer assisted design files. Next a prototype was made and there was a jet characterisation test in
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December 1999. In December 2000 OTL acquired the business and assets of ISL and further development of Lancer 2 ensued. There was a static firing testing of it in California on 21 January 2001. Raytheon was sufficiently impressed to require embarkation on ‘the Lancer Number 2 Dynamic Firing Project’. The dynamic firing test was to take place at the Pendine Firing Range in Wales, owned by the Defence Evaluations Research Agency. In a dynamic as opposed to a static firing test the kinetic effect of the warhead, which would be a feature of its actual use, was, so far as possible, replicated so as the better to judge the overall effect of the system used. Lewison J held that by May or June 2001 Mr Cardy had formed the intention that the contracts then emerging for the dynamic firing project and subsequent development would be placed with OTL and not with SEI. SEI was to be cut out. SEI, not knowing of that intent, entered, as I shall later explain, into a third teaming agreement with OTL. But, confining myself here to what was going on technically at the time, arrangements for the dynamic firing, a test that was expected to cost in the order of £450,000, proceeded. The test firing took place on 5 December 2001. It was a success. Moreover, the results achieved were sufficiently close to those predicted by the Parajet program as to have validated the Parajet modelling system. Thus by December 2001 there existed a tested MWS by the name of Lancer 2 which had been tested successfully; it was ahead of any comparable system which had been developed or tested by that time. It was a MWS the initial intellectual property rights in respect of which were plainly valuable and further developments from which, including those arrived at by way of the validated Parajet modelling program, could prove to be at least as valuable again. But to whom did the various rights within that bundle of rights belong? In some respects SEI’s written closing submissions, without, in most cases, formally abandoning claims raised in the pleadings and in the written opening submissions, seem to deal with a smaller range than was open to SEI. It will thus be safer for me to attempt to deal with the full range. I shall accordingly need to look at rights deriving from contract (including contractual provisions as to confidentiality), from equitable confidence, from copyright and by way of unregistered design right. I first look at rights arising under contract.
CONTRACT: THE CONTRACTUAL BACKGROUND AS TO BOTH MMM AND DMP AND SOME FINDINGS IN THE FIRST TRIAL
[17]
On 25 June 2001 a number of written agreements were made between SEI and OTL. Each was applicable not merely to matters dealt with at the first trial but also to the matters before me. Of course, Lewison J was not concerned with breaches of contract as to MMM or DMP work but his conclusions as to what were the basic contractual arrangements in general carry forward to such work. Chief of the agreements of 25 June 2001 was the ‘third teaming agreement’. The terms of that agreement, so far as relevant, both for his purposes and mine, were set out by Lewison J in his judgment at [61] et seq.
[18]
The agreement set out something of the history of the relationship between the parties, including that OTL had on 18 December 2000 acquired the business of ISL. There is a recital that SEI had expertise and resources for the manufacture of a wide range of high-quality explosive ordnance and that OTL had expertise in the design of a class of warhead systems to defeat various types of targets and had the expertise also to assess the effectiveness of such warheads. The recitals included that—
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‘the two companies wished to join their expertise and resources to develop competitive and cost effective new generation Multiple Warhead Systems (MWS), for use with current or future missiles (such as but not limited to Airhawk, Tomahawk, Centaur and US Hard and Deep Buried Bunker) torpedoes warheads (such as but not limited to Stingray, MU90, Impact . . .) shaped charges for SEI products.’
[19]
Earlier agreements between SEI and OTL were cancelled and cl 3—Lewison J at [63]—set out the relationship between the parties as follows:
‘a) In the bid process, and in any contract gained for the design, development and production of the MWS, SEI will be the Design Authority and lead warhead contractor.
b) [OTL] will be the exclusive sub-contractor to SEI for the design concept, the performance assessments and the engineering design and testing support to development program, leading to manufacture of the MWS.
c) [OTL] will not offer its designs, design expertise, assessment capability or development support expertise to any third party in the context of MWS.
d) In case of a UK classified programme or contract in which SEI cannot participate, [OTL] will be able to participate after written agreement from SEI.’
[20]
Lewison J concluded at [148] that the provisions of cl 3(c) and (d) (contrary to OTL’s argument) were not void as unreasonable constraints on trade and there has been no appeal against that conclusion. Lewison J (at [65]) turned to the ownership of intellectual property rights and began by citing relevant passages from the third teaming agreement at cl 4 as follows:
‘i. “Background” Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) means all information, including inter alia, Patents, Registered Designs, process expertise (and proprietary rights as identified in the Confidentiality Agreement referred to in Clause 1 above) which SEI or [OTL] use in the achievement of the contract requirements and
ii. “Foreground” IPR is that which results from the bid preparation or from work on MWS sub-contract by the application of background information to the contract requirements.’
[21]
Lewison J observed (at [66]) that cl 4(b) then went on to allocate ownership of intellectual property rights (IPR) as follows. He then cited the provisions thus:
‘Subject to the terms of the contract negotiated with the FINAL CUSTOMERS:
i. Background IPR used in the bidding phase or MWS development phase contract shall be owned by each party performing its respective bid preparation or development work, and
ii. Warhead system foreground IPR arising from MWS bid preparation or development contract shall be owned by SEI who shall be deemed to be the warhead system Design Authority;
iii. Warhead subsystem foreground IPR arising from MWS bid preparation or development contract shall be owned as follows:
the forward shaped charge warhead jointly by SEI and [OTL] who shall be deemed to be the Joint Design Authority, and the rear penetrating, blast
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warhead (if a SEI design) by SEI who shall be deemed to be the Design Authority.
iv. SEI shall have free user rights of the joint SEI/[OTL] shaped charge warhead designs emanating from the activities covered by this agreement.’
[22]
Clause 4(c)—here I am quoting from Lewison J (at [67])—said that both parties would require the written permission of the other ‘to exploit the specific MWS studies or components’. There was provision in the third teaming agreement that it could be terminated by mutual agreement or by one party relying upon material breach by the other party but that, subject thereto, it was to run until 31 December 2010. Its cl 10(b) provided that neither party should collaborate on the same subject with any other party whilst the agreement was in force.
[23]
I said there were a number of agreements entered into on 25 June 2001. One of the others was a so-called agency agreement by which SEI entrusted OTL with the task of being its dealing agent. Clause 22 provided:
‘The Agent commits him/herself to maintain strictly confidential and not to reveal to anybody and for no reason data, news, technical papers, trading, operational, production and managing information or any other information concerning SEI know-how, neither directly nor indirectly, either during or after the termination of this agreement.
In case of non-fulfilment, at any time, the Agent will be held to pay to SEI an amount, as for penalty, equal to GBP180,000, anyway, provided SEI right to claim any further damages.’
I shall come back to that reference to ‘SEI know-how’. Clause 23 provided, inter alia, that: ‘The Agent commits him to avoid business which could be considered in competition with SEI activities . . .’ The agency agreement was governed by Italian law.
[24]
Another of the agreements of 25 June 2001 was a support services and consultancy agreement to the particular terms of which I need not further refer (Mr Howe indicated he did not rely on its para 2.2) but I should refer to the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreement of the same day. That agreement (the CNDA) defined confidential information as requiring that, if in writing, it should be marked as such. It set out at length the duties of the parties with regard to confidential information; it provided (similarly but not identically as in cl 22 of the agency agreement supra) for a payment by the ‘non-fulfilling party’ of £150,000 upon its breach. It was governed by Italian law and provided that all controversy in relation to it should be solved by arbitration, which was to be in Zurich.
[25]
Lewison J held that OTL was in breach of the terms of cl 3(a) supra of the third teaming agreement by causing itself to become the lead contractor rather than procuring the award of a contract to SEI with OTL being merely a sub-contractor. At the hearing before him, OTL accepted that there had been such a breach of contract. The learned judge also held that OTL was in breach of fiduciary duty by putting its own interests above those of SEI. Moreover, held Lewison J, OTL had committed a breach of the duty of confidentiality, the duty having arisen out of the terms of the third teaming agreement. Those breaches had all been concerned with or had grown out of or been evidenced by the programme that had led, on 5 December 2001, to the dynamic firing at Pendine of the Lancer 2 device.
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COMING FORWARD TO THE MMM AND THE DMP
[26]
As I have mentioned, it is the same contracts that were relevant before Lewison J which are relevant in this second trial. If I may thus broadly summarise the contractual position as it was between SEI and OTL in relation to the use of Lancer 2 technology under the third teaming agreement and the other agreements to which I have referred, it was as follows:
(i) in any contract for MWS development, SEI had, as between it and OTL, a contractual right to be the leader;
(ii) OTL was contractually bound to be a sub-contractor to SEI;
(iii) OTL was contractually bound, in general, not to offer its MWS skills to anyone but SEI;
(iv) IPR deriving from development of Lancer 2 was to belong (depending on which class—background or foreground IPR—was concerned) either to SEI alone or to SEI and OTL jointly;
(v) OTL was contractually bound to maintain the confidentiality of information which could be described as ‘SEI know-how’ but Mr Howe indicated that the earlier parts of cl 22 of the agency agreement were not relied on and accordingly the last part, with its reference to £180,000, was left without effect;
(vi) OTL was contractually bound not to compete in business with SEI.
EXPERT EVIDENCE—AND WAS OTL IN BREACH OF CONTRACT AS TO MMM WORK?
[27]
The claimant, as I have noted, called as an expert witness Dr Nigel Davies. Mr Cardy sought to belittle his evidence on the ground that he was not an expert in shaped charge design. I do not accept that his evidence fell short. In the sense that he previously had never had charge of the actual design of a shaped charge, the accusation was true but he had not claimed to be an expert of that kind. Instead he had long familiarity with high explosives and munitions, including shaped charge weapons, in both practical and academic roles and I found his evidence, both in his written report and throughout his cross-examination by Mr Cardy, to be balanced, well informed, thoroughly reliable and very helpful.
[28]
He explained how, as early as the nineteenth century, it had been found that, by lining the inside of the cavity that bore the explosive charge with a thin metal cone, the overall effect of the charge could be varied and that, by positioning the charge to explode somewhat away from, rather than in contact with, the target (stand-off), the detonation could be tailored so as to make a deep and narrow spike-like hole in various types of target. At his para 16 he explained, in relation to modern shaped charges:
‘When the detonation wave sweeps through the explosive and hence the conical liner it exerts such a huge pressure on it that the solid metal flows like a liquid. The cone collapses towards its axis and cone material is injected forwards as a very fast thin jet travelling at perhaps in excess of 10,000 metres per second.’
[29]
The density of the metal used as the liner affects the performance, as does the shape of the cone, which has a great effect upon the jet which will be created. In recent years computer programs have been created to seek to predict as accurately as may be the potential performance of particular combinations of cone metal, cone shape, distance of stand-off and of the various types and amounts of explosives substance which can be used. It can readily be imagined how difficult and expensive it is to arrange actual explosive trials and hence how
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valuable a tool is a computer program that has been validated in the sense of having been found accurately to predict results. OTL, as I have mentioned, had such programs.
[30]
Both naval and military needs proved such that it became not sufficient merely to create a hole through whatever dense material, be it concrete or armour, that was sought to be penetrated. A hole in, say, a tank, a frigate or a gun emplacement would not necessarily deny it a continuing dangerous capability; there needed, after penetration, to be an explosion within the tank, frigate or emplacement. A need for two stages using two distinct warheads within the same munition thus emerged but some finesse was needed. If the warhead went clean through the tank or frigate, to explode in the air beyond, then plainly the effect would be less effectively destructive than would have been an explosion within it.
[31]
Dr Davies’s report explains how weapons accordingly became designed so as first to penetrate either ‘soft’ targets (no more than 150 mm of concrete) or ‘hard’ targets. He explains how the second defendant, ISL, had worked on shaped charges for some years, how OTL continued such studies and how very many design variations having been tried, designs called Lance 1 and Lance 2 emerged to be further developed to become Lancer 1 and Lancer 2.
[32]
It then became desirable in military terms to look into the possibility of the development of a multi-mission missile—an MMM—which could deal successfully with both soft and hard targets. I have mentioned that in this regard OTL contracted with Raytheon. The object of OTL’s exercise for Raytheon was to produce a shaped charge weapon which, when set to have a soft target, would penetrate by simple kinetic energy with its follow-through penetrator then detonating after passage through the hole in the ‘soft’ thickness of concrete created by the kinetic effect of the first part of the weapon. Yet where set to be against a hard target, the intention was that the very same basic munition would be capable of being arranged so as to detonate before impact; the jet thus created would be intended to damage the ‘hard’ concrete of the target and the penetrator would then perforate what was by then damaged concrete and there would be a fresh detonation within whatever space lay beyond the outer hard shell. Dr Davies speaks of computer modelling being used by OTL on no less than 80 variations of Lancer 2 with the intent of emerging with this dual hard and soft target capability but my impression from the evidence as a whole is that the 80 variations spoken of were but a small part of many many more, most of which probably subsisted for no more than a little while before being further varied in OTL’s chief computer modelling system, Parajet.
[33]
Dr Davies sets out in a table the performance of seven main iterations within Parajet, the first of which, serial 1, was or was substantially the Lancer 2 design as used in the Pendine dynamic firing in December 2001. The development program moved forward until it arrived at serial 7. By serial 6 there had, by way of computer modelling, been a sequential optimisation of liner apex angle, liner thickness and liner profile and serial 7 was that optimised design but with a more powerful explosive.
[34]
It was Dr Davies’s opinion that the design of the shaped charge warhead for the MMM benefited from the design and trials work of the Lancer 2 program in that a combination of liner and initiation system known to perform well against the type of target concerned had already been designed and demonstrated and that the predictive capability of the computer models used in Parajet and the
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associated program, Pisces, had been validated in the sense that the static and dynamic tests had already had actual results which closely accorded or sufficiently accorded with what Parajet, in particular, had predicted.
[35]
Dr Davies concluded that the MMM warhead study—it remained a study because OTL’s MMM work never got beyond a study stage, no MMM warhead was actually made—had been based on the warhead used in Lancer 2. He also said that, without the information from the Lancer 2 programme, a significant although not readily quantifiable amount of extra work would have been necessary to achieve a design which gave the required predicted performance and confidence in the prediction would have been less in the absence of the earlier experimental validation of Lancer 2 by way of the static and dynamic tests. I shall need to return to the subject of MMM design but, because no MMM drawings or input sheets for the computer modelling have ever been disclosed by OTL, it was not possible, said Dr Davies, to determine just how far the last achieved MMM design in the hands of OTL differed from Lancer 2 but he added (with my emphasis): ‘It seems certain from the information provided that it would differ in detail rather than in any fundamental change in the concept.’ This use of the word ‘would’ suggests that what he had been looking at was work in progress rather than anything regarded as perfected or final.
[36]
Mr Cardy’s cross-examination made, in my judgment, no inroads into Dr Davies’s conclusions as I have summarised them and which I accept. I have no doubt but that, in its MMM work for Raytheon, OTL was in breach of its contracts with SEI in relation to the use of Lancer 2 intellectual property. It could only properly have used warhead system foreground IPR (as on Dr Davies’s evidence I hold it did) with SEI’s consent, which it did not have. OTL was in breach also by its insinuation of itself as the main contractor with Raytheon to the exclusion of SEI. In breach of contract, it procured a role for itself other than as SEI’s sub-contractor. In breach of contract, it offered its design expertise to a person, Raytheon, other than SEI. In breach of contract, it competed in business with SEI in the sense that, having kept knowledge of its dealings with Raytheon from SEI, it then did work which SEI (with OTL, by way of the third teaming agreement) could have done.
[37]
As for breach of contractual obligations of confidence deriving from the contracts between SEI and OTL, although in the course of MMM work, information was given to Raytheon, I am left in doubt as to whether it was information which was of sufficient stature to be regarded as confidential within the material provisions or to be describable as ‘SEI know-how’ within cl 22 supra, upon which, in any event, Mr Howe ultimately did not rely.
[38]
Moreover, reference to the CNDA—see [24], above—gives rise to further doubts: was the material said to be confidential sufficiently identified as such pursuant to the CNDA; was that identification required in all cases as a prerequisite of material being regarded as confidential; should not complaint as to breach have been taken to arbitration and, if the only specified remedy for breach was the apparent provision by way of penalty, would that not be impermissible under English law? Had the argument as to contractual confidence been developed orally before me it could be that such doubts would have been dispelled but the subject of contractual confidence was barely mentioned save for it to be abandoned, at least in parts, and the doubts remain. In practical terms, relief in respect of breach of contractual confidence would be likely to yield SEI nothing significant in addition to relief to be granted under
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other headings, which was, no doubt, why the subject was not developed and, in the result, my being left in doubt is unlikely to be of any real consequence. I do not find OTL to have been in breach of contract as to confidentiality in relation to MMM material, the only material which I am here considering.
I shall need to look in more detail at the various other classes of IPR concerned with MMM deriving other than from contract but, so far as concerns the MMM, my conclusions are that in the five ways I have described in para [36] OTL was in breach of contract. OTL, of course, failed to attend to resist such conclusions and Mr Cardy gave me no sufficient reason not to arrive at them.
EXPERT EVIDENCE—AND WAS OTL IN BREACH OF CONTRACT AS TO DMP WORK?
[39]
The DMP program, at the behest of MoD or QinetiQ, was intended to lead to the design of a United Kingdom stand-off weapon which would, albeit with a relatively light weapon, destroy hard targets. The intention was that there would be a shaped charge which would create an initial hole which would be such as then to allow a follow-up from within the very same overall weapon by a tungsten alloy or similar heavy metal penetrator. Two articles to such a design were actually constructed; one was statically fired on 10 April 2003 and the other dynamically fired on 13 August 2003. Dr Davies concluded that the dimensions for the full diameter, the outer cone angle, the radius of the outer surface of the apex and the width of the lip at the cone mouth were identical to those of Lancer 2. There were slight differences between the two designs in several minor respects but the effect on performance of those minor respects was, in his view, likely to be no more than trivial. He concluded that the shaped charge warhead and initiation system considered for the DMP program appeared to be essentially that developed for the Lancer 2 program.
[40]
As was the case with MMM, there is no room for any conclusion other than that, in the course of the DMP program, OTL used IPR related to Lancer 2 which could not properly have been used without SEI’s consent, which OTL did not have. Again, Mr Cardy’s cross-examination of Dr Davies made no inroads that prevent such a conclusion and I accept Dr Davies’ evidence. OTL was, in my judgment, in breach, in addition, in procuring that, in relation to a form of MWS development, it, rather than SEI, was the contractor, in breach in procuring for itself a role other than as SEI’s sub-contractor and in breach also in offering its other skills to a person other than SEI. As for contractual requirements as to confidence in relation to DMP material, for reasons, corresponding, mutatis mutandis, to those in relation to MMM material, I do not hold OTL to have been in breach of contractual confidence.
COPYRIGHT—MMM AND DMP
[41]
Copyright, whilst mentioned in para 54.4 of the amended particulars of claim, in para 4 of the prayer to those particulars, in the claimant’s skeleton argument and (in the very same words) in the claimant’s closing submissions, was not developed orally at all. The algorithms, software and data in respect of which copyright was claimed were not further identified in the pleadings nor was the occasion on which it was said that some of the same had been supplied to Raytheon. The injunction sought in the prayer was vague at the outset and was left vague. I accept, of course, that under s 173(2) of the Copyright, Designs and Patents Act 1988 the use of jointly owned copyright material requires the licence of both or all of its co-owners and that it may well have been that OTL was guilty of relevant use without SEI’s consent as co-owner of the material. However,
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there are two matters that, in my view, stand in the way of findings and relief in SEI’s favour. Firstly, there is the exceptional vagueness which I have mentioned; even an absent party such as OTL and, a fortiori, a present litigant in person such as Mr Cardy is, in my judgment, entitled to something more specifically and clearly alleged and proved to be the case in respect of copyright. Secondly, I am asked to draw ‘appropriate inferences’, adverse to OTL and Mr Cardy, from the absence, from the material disclosed to SEI in the action by OTL, of computer files of the kind in respect of which copyright is claimed. But neither the liquidator nor anyone else from OTL itself was summoned to explain the absence of such documents from the disclosure and Mr Cardy was not cross-examined before me as to the reason for that absence. I have thus been left without the opportunity to observe any testing of whether the absence was deliberate, evasive and blameworthy and hence such as to justify adverse inference or was explicable in some innocent way. In those circumstances, it would, in my judgment, be unfair to draw adverse inferences. Those two factors combine to lead me to decline to find breach by OTL in respect of copyright in MMM or DMP material and to decline relief in respect thereof.
EQUITABLE CONFIDENCE—MMM AND DWP
[42]
I was not addressed on how far, if at all, the protection usually afforded to trade secrets under the equitable doctrine of confidence, a doctrine which can confer protection even when there is no relevant contract, is to be taken to be qualified where the parties are in contract together and where their contract does make express provision on the subject of confidentiality. It seems to me to be at least arguable in such a case that the express provisions of the contract should be taken to have replaced pro tanto or altogether those of the equitable doctrine. Especially might that be so where, as here, one of the parties is an overseas party and where the agreement most fully dealing with confidentiality—the CNDA of 25 June 2001—provided at its cl 14 that it was governed by ‘the Italian law’, as was the agency agreement made on the same day. The CNDA has all the appearances of a contract that was intended, with the other contracts of the same day, to comprise a complete code between the parties so far as concerned confidence. I hold that to be the case and, on that basis, I hold that it is only by reference to the contractual provisions related to confidence that SEI can claim in confidence. To that extent I need add nothing, either in relation to MMM or DWP, in respect of possible liability of OTL to SEI under the equitable doctrine of confidence.
DESIGN RIGHT—OWNERSHIP
[43]
Section 213 in Pt III—‘Design right’—of the 1988 Act provides as follows:
‘213. Design right.—(1) Design right is a property right which subsists in accordance with this Part in an original design.
(2) In this Part “design” means the design of any aspect of the shape or configuration (whether internal or external) of the whole or part of an article . . .
(4) A design is not “original” for the purposes of this Part if it is commonplace in the design field in question at the time of its creation.
(5) Design right subsists in a design only if the design qualifies for design right protection by reference to—(a) the designer or the person by whom the design was commissioned or the designer employed (see sections 218 and 219), or (b) the person by whom and country in which articles made to the
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design were first marketed (see section 220), or in accordance with any Order under section 221 (power to make further provision with respect to qualification) . . .
(6) Design right does not subsist unless and until the design has been recorded in a design document or an article has been made to the design.
(7) Design right does not subsist in a design which was so recorded, or to which an article was made, before the commencement of this Part.’
[44]
That section gives rise to a number of questions. Thus, as will have been seen, under s 213(4) a design is not ‘original’ and hence becomes undeserving of the protection afforded by s 226 if it is ‘commonplace in the design field in question at the time of its creation’—see s 213(1) and s 226(1). Mr Cardy took a point as to that. The term ‘commonplace’ is not defined by the 1988 Act and accordingly, if this is possible in its context in the 1988 Act, it is to be given its ordinary meaning, namely, with respect to an object, one which, albeit in its own design field (here the very specialised design field of shaped charge warheads) is an ordinary every day object, having nothing out of the common, an object devoid of originality or novelty.
[45]
Whilst, in that design field, conical liners, for example, are not at all unusual, it has been made clear to me that small variations in shape, internal and external, can make large difference to the charges’ performance. So far as concerns the shape, the thickness, constant or otherwise, in the walls of the cone, the rectilinearity or curve of the sides of the cones, the angle of the sides of the cone to one another, the extent to which the point of the cone is sharp or is rounded and its thickness at that point are all factors varying from one design to another and which lead to significantly different performance. Liners, albeit commonly broadly conical, are, so to speak, bespoke, tailored, along with the whole of the shaped charge, very much to the classes of targets at which they are intended to be aimed and which they are intended to destroy and tailored also to how they are to be delivered to the target. Further, evidence was given to me of Lancer 2 shaped charges having a performance which, at the time, was unmatched anywhere in the world, a performance in the attainment of which the particular shaped charge liner and the shape of that crucial component was, with other features, an important factor. That tends to suggest the shape of the relevant liners was uncommon. No evidence was led which suggested the ordinariness of the Lancer 2 shaped charge either as a whole or as to any of its parts and I am left in no doubt but that neither in whole or in part was the Lancer 2 shaped charge warhead ‘commonplace’ within the intendment of s 213(4). Both the design of its parts and the design of the whole were original designs for the purposes of the 1988 Act.
[46]
Design documents are defined in s 263(1) of the 1988 Act so as to include records of a design existing by way of being data stored in a computer. Moreover, articles have been made to the Lancer 2 design. In both cases the storing of the data and the making of the articles occurred long after the commencement of Pt 3 of the 1988 Act. Accordingly the requirements of s 213(6) are satisfied.
[47]
There are several alternative statutory routes by which design right in the Lancer 2 shaped charge warhead may be found to be owned by SEI or by it and OTL jointly. Thus it may be so owned by way of the commissioning of the design, by its first marketing, by employment of the designer or by written agreement between prospective owners signed before the creation of the design. By one or other of a number of routes the ownership of the design right could
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have come to be either in OTL, as an United Kingdom corporation, jointly with SEI, as a corporation of a member state of the EC, or in SEI alone. As such sole or joint ownership of design right in SEI has not been disputed before me by OTL and has been claimed by SEI, I need not go further into which of the several routes to that conclusion is or are applicable.
[48]
Where there is joint ownership, s 258(2) of the 1988 Act provides:
‘Where design right (or any aspect of design right) is owned by more than one person jointly, references in this Part to the design right owner are to all the owners, so that, in particular, any requirement of the licence of the design right owner requires the licence of all of them.’
I thus proceed on the basis that design right in Lancer 2 shaped charge warhead design resided either (it matters not which for immediate purposes) in SEI alone or jointly in SEI and OTL.
[49]
Given that a governmental department—the MoD—or its associate—QinetiQ—was a party engaged or contracting with OTL as to DMP work, the possibility of there having been Crown use within s 240 of the 1988 Act was touched upon but no authority in writing such as s 240 requires nor any contract as between MoD or QinetiQ and OTL was produced at the second trial. I thus mention Crown use only to dispose of the subject.
DESIGN RIGHT—WHAT, IN LAW, IS REQUIRED OF A BREACH?
[50]
’Secondary’ infringement of design right is defined in s 227 of the 1988 Act but it is accepted not here to be relied upon. In particular, it is accepted that OTL’s possession—s 227(1)(b)—was not itself in breach. Instead, it is primary infringement which is here asserted and, for that, the provisions of s 226 are relevant. They provide, so far as material, as follows:
‘226. Primary infringement of design right.—(1) The owner of design right in a design has the exclusive right to reproduce the design for commercial purposes—(a) by making articles to that design, or (b) by making a design document recording the design for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made.
(2) Reproduction of a design by making articles to the design means copying the design so as to produce articles exactly or substantially to that design, and references in this Part to making articles to a design shall be construed accordingly.
(3) Design right is infringed by a person who without the licence of the design right owner does, or authorises another to do, anything which by virtue of this section is the exclusive right of the design right owner.
(4) For the purposes of this section reproduction may be direct or indirect, and it is immaterial whether any intervening acts themselves infringe the design right.’
[51]
Throughout s 226(1) it is to be borne in mind that the word ‘design’ includes design of any aspect of the shape or configuration of parts of the article as well as of its whole—s 213(2).
[52]
It is required of the infringer by s 226(3) that he must have done something or authorised something to be done. A mere omission is no infringement. What it is that has to have been done or authorised to be done is required to have fitted within at least one of two main classes. The first main class
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of things—which I shall call the making class—that may be regarded as a primary infringement is divisible into two sub-classes, the first of which consists of reproduction of the design by way of the making for commercial purposes of one or more articles to the protected design—s 226(1)(a). Commercial purposes are, for the purposes of s 226(1), defined by s 263(3); what is done needs to have been done with a view (the definite article is used) to the article in question being sold or hired in the course of a business. Having a ‘purpose’ is thus seen there to relate to a particular state of mind—‘done with a view to’. The other sub-class of the making class is an enlargement of the first sub-class as—s 226(2)—it is to include (with my emphasis) copying the design ‘so as to produce articles exactly or substantially to that design’.
[53]
The draftsmanship of s 226(1) and (2) is not without curiosity. Section 226(1)(a) is concerned, it would seem, with the reproduction of the design by the actual making of articles to that design. But then sub-s (2) gives a particular meaning (and not an inclusive but an exclusive meaning) to the expression ‘reproduction of a design by making articles to the design’ notwithstanding that that expression is never used. However, the expression so given meaning in sub-s (2) is close enough to what is intended by s 226(1)(a) to be understood to indicate exclusively what s 226(1)(a) is to mean. Section 226(2), as I have mentioned, plainly enlarges s 226(1)(a) by including the reproduction of articles only ‘substantially’ rather than ‘exactly’ to the protected design. But do the words ‘so as to produce’ in s 226(2) represent a further enlargement so that there can be an infringement (not involving the making of a design document, as that would fall within s 226(1)(b)) in the making class even where no offending article is ever made? Put another way, are the words ‘copying . . . so as to produce articles’ satisfied, so far as concerns infringement, if a defendant copies the design (in a non-documentary way) with a view to making infringing articles commercially (leaving aside who has to have that view) or do made articles actually have to emerge?
[54]
I do not see that I here need to look further into that question as I do not understand that whatever copying might here have taken place without its leading to actual manufacture or to have been here intended in any case not including actual manufacture was other than by the use of documents. Section 226(1)(a) and (b) are linked by an ‘or’ and are contemplated as alternatives (though not so as to preclude a defendant being ‘guilty’ on both counts). Many articles or parts of articles that are protected will, no doubt, be capable of being copied without the involvement of design documents; the protected part may be used, say, as a template for the making of others like it. In the DMP case there was actual manufacture; if the manufacture was in breach there is no need to look at documentary s 226(1)(b) breach. But I have not understood that actual parts of Lancer 2, still less the whole of Lancer 2, were made in the course of the MMM work of varying Lancer 2 in such a way that any part of Lancer 2 or of a variation of it was copied without the use for design documents. It is not as if there was evidence that some Lancer 2 cone, for example, was left over as a spare part and could be used as a template. So far as I have understood the matter, at the times with which I am concerned, Lancer 2’s design existed only in either physical drawings or the equivalent of drawings recorded in one or more computers. That, combined with the fact that no copies of any part of Lancer 2 were actually made in the course of MMM work, seems to me to render s 226(1)(a) as explained by s 226(2) as not applicable to MMM. In other words, design right, so far as
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concerns MMM, was either infringed by way of s 226(1)(b) or not at all, whereas, for DMP, if there was infringement by way of a copying of the design in actually making the two articles, there will be no need further to inquire into whether design documents were improperly used in the course of DMP work.
[55]
So much for the making class. The other class of infringement is what I shall call the document class and is not divided into any sub-classes. It arises where the infringer for commercial purposes has reproduced the protected design by making a design document recording the protected design ‘for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’—s 226(1)(b). ‘Such articles’ are articles to the protected design. ‘Design documents’ are broadly defined within s 263(1) to be ‘any record of a design, whether in the form of a drawing, a written description, a photograph, data stored in a computer or otherwise’ (my emphasis). It is notable that, whilst, as I have mentioned, the making class is expressly enlarged (by s 226(2)) so as to include the production of articles ‘substantially’ to the protected design, neither s 226(2) nor any other provision enlarges the documents class and the ‘expressio unius’ argument stands in the way of any attempt to do so.
[56]
It will have been seen that words that may be said to require a particular purpose or intent in the infringer are included within the legislation: the presence of a commercial purpose is required in both the making and documents classes and there is, in addition, in the making class, as may or may not involve a further purpose, a requirement that copying of the design shall be ‘so as to produce’ the described articles. The documents class requires the making of the design document recording the design to be ‘for the purposes of enabling’ the described articles to be made.
[57]
At this point a question arises: leaving aside proof of a commercial purpose, do the words ‘by making a design document recording the design for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’ in s 226(1)(b) require the proof of a particular state of mind in the infringer in the (unenlarged) documents class? Mr Howe, not only counsel for SEI but also editor of Russell-Clarke and Howe on Industrial Designs (7th edn, 2004), tells me that there is no authority on it.
[58]
It could perhaps be that the words ‘recording the design for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’ do no more than describe the type of design document as to which the owner has an exclusive right of reproduction and which, accordingly, by way of s 226(3), a defendant must not himself reproduce for commercial purposes. That, though, would in my view be an excessively tortuous reading; had that been the intent the more natural way of expressing it would have been either to include within the definition of ‘design document’ for the purposes of s 226(1)(b) a requirement that the document should be of a kind such that relevant articles could be made from it or (if this would be different) were enabled to be made by it, or for s 226(1)(b) to have been altered to read something such as ‘by making a design document recording the design and by which such articles are enabled to be made’ (my emphasis). Neither of those more natural courses was adopted. The more natural way of reading s 226(1)(b) as it is in fact framed is, in my judgment, to read the words ‘for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’ to relate back so as to qualify the words ‘by making’ so that it is the making of the document which is required to have been for the specified purpose.
[59]
Whilst the provision is not ‘with the purpose’ but ‘for the purpose’, it is to be noted that the words ‘so as to’ in s 226(2), whatever they might mean, are not
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here used. Phrases that would avoid any assessment of the infringer’s subjective state of mind, as, for example, ‘of a kind such as would enable’ or ‘such as to enable’ the making of the design are not used. Moreover, the first specified purpose—‘for commercial purposes’—plainly requires a particular view to be demonstrated to be in the infringer and it would at least be consistent to require that the other specified purpose—‘for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’—should similarly require a state of mind to be demonstrated to have been or be in the infringer.
[60]
I can see that such a construction might be inconvenient from a claimant’s point of view in that a further subjective element (beyond ‘commercial purpose’) is introduced into infringement but some such a requirement may be needed to keep design right within reasonable bounds. Let it be supposed that a commercial producer of decorative prints for hanging on walls decides fully and accurately to reproduce, for sale as such prints, the design of a famous article—say part of a well-known internal combustion engine or of a celebrated pistol or gun. The prints are run off. He will have made, for commercial purposes, a design document recording the protected design and which would have enabled the engine, pistol or gun to have been made. However, as I read s 226(1)(b), he would not have done so ‘for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’ but rather for the purpose of walls being decorated with his prints. But that, as it seems to me, represents no great dent in the protection which design right confers. The moment someone uses the print for the commercial purpose of making part of the engine, the gun or the pistol, then the owner of the design (even if he has not been able to assert other rights earlier) will be able to assert his rights under s 226(1)(a).
[61]
It is worth noting that, quite aside from ‘commercial purposes’, a particular state of mind (knowing or having reason to believe) is referred to in s 230(1)(b), as also is innocence (did not know and had no reason to believe) in s 233. That may furnish an argument that, when the draftsman needed to refer to a state of mind, he knew how to do so and that, not having used any comparable language in s 226, he had not intended reference to any state of mind. But I do not find that possibility at all compelling; the court still has to find a meaning for ‘by making . . . for the purpose of enabling’ and the word ‘purpose’ is used in the Act in a way which requires a particular state of mind—see the definition of commercial purposes in s 263(3). I do not feel that arguments deriving from s 230(1)(b) and s 233 are strong enough on their own to exclude that s 226(1)(b) requires a particular state of mind (aside from commercial purpose) to be proved if there is to be an infringement falling within it.
[62]
For these reasons, in my judgment, it is, in point of construction, a necessary component of a successful allegation within the documents class of s 226(1)(b) that it should be proved of the alleged infringer that at the material time what he did or authorised to be done by way of the making of a design document recording the design in question was done with the purpose in him that articles to the design should thereby be enabled to be made. It is not required that he should have the purpose that he or he whom he authorises should himself or themselves make or be enabled to make such articles but rather that within the infringer there should be the purpose of enabling the articles to be made. Moreover, as with any other state of mind, its proof is not necessarily to be negatived by a denial by the defendant concerned; whether the necessary purpose did or did not exist at some material time is likely to require an
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evaluation of all surrounding circumstances, amongst which the defendant’s own denial, if there has been one, is merely a part and not necessarily a credible part.
[63]
I have dealt at some length with the ‘purpose’ element of s 226(1)(b) because, as I have mentioned, in relation to MMM work, no relevant article was ever made. If I am right as to the construction of s 226 which I have explained above then I must now seek to apply that construction to the facts.
DESIGN RIGHT BREACH?—DMP
[64]
As for DMP work, I have already set out in [39], above that the DMP programme, which included the making of two articles, was, in Dr Davies’s view (which I have accepted) essentially that developed for the Lancer 2 programme. The test as to ‘exactly or substantially’ in s 226(2) is, in my judgment, satisfied, in particular as to cone design. Whether the weapon was wholly or in part made by others—for example, a sub-contractor to OTL—is immaterial; it was made and its making was authorised by OTL. As for whether there was the required commercial purpose, the contractual arrangements between OTL on the one side and MoD or QinetiQ on the other, are not available but that OTL was acting for commercial reward is not denied and is undeniable. It could be debated whether the arrangement between OTL and MoD or QinetiQ was one for the sale or hiring of the articles in question. The two articles made were made with a view to their being, and they were, exploded. Neither I nor SEI has seen the contract between OTL and MoD or QinetiQ, so whether the two articles were sold (a hiring seems improbable) is unclear. However, I am prepared to assume that, for a monetary consideration, they were so put at MoD’s or QinetiQ’s disposition that there was a sale or something analogous to it. I shall take it that there was thus a commercial purpose within the meaning of s 226 and s 263(3). I thus hold that in relation to design right and DMP work, SEI’s design right was infringed by OTL.
DESIGN RIGHT BREACH?—MMM
[65]
The case as to design right and MMM work presents greater difficulties. Here, if I am right, it is only within the documents class that there can have been any infringement. That OTL had Lancer 2 design documents within its computer is not complained of. OTL then used the Lancer 2 documents as a starting point, and, as I have mentioned in para [33], above, developed or varied the design through several iterations within their computer. As no relevant article was ever made, I shall need to look into whether, in the course of MMM work, OTL ever made a design document of a part or of the whole of Lancer 2 warhead for the purpose of enabling there to be made any article to the design of a corresponding part, or of the whole, of the Lancer 2 design.
[66]
The relevant MMM work is work done after the events considered by Lewison J in respect of which he granted relief. It is, unfortunately, far from clear what became of the MMM project; as I understand the matter, Raytheon pulled out as it became likely, in Raytheon’s view, that the United States military would not become a customer for any MMM which was then contemplated as likely or possible to emerge at the end of the development work which OTL and Raytheon had agreed upon. Further MMM work thus became pointless. The MMM project was essentially one of design study and evaluation rather than for manufacture. It was not intended merely by manufacture to replicate Lancer 2 or any particular parts of it. That would not have required the contract for design study that was entered into. The design was to be developed by change.
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[67]
Mr Howe draws attention to the table to which I have earlier referred, one which, beginning with serial 1 (which represented or corresponded closely to Lancer 2) showed some varying features and the varying performances, as predicted by the Parajet and Pisces computer programs, of varying designs which were never made. The goods I am concerned with—shaped charge warheads in particular—are goods of a kind in which, as I have mentioned, very small differences in shape, size and material used can lead to significant changes in performance. Fine engineering is surely required, and close tolerances. But nothing in Dr Davies’s report suggests that an MMM article or any other article could have been made from the design material which he had seen. There was, it is true, a relevant schematic drawing that he saw but it was not detailed and showed only the general arrangement. It was not even possible to determine, from the material which Dr Davies had, the details of the by then thus-far contemplated MMM shaped charge or its initiation system. Of course, OTL’s disclosure may have been inadequate but it was not put to Mr Cardy that drawings (within or outside any computer) of a kind such that MMM articles could be or were intended to be made from them had ever existed but had been concealed or destroyed. In the absence of his being questioned on such lines, it would not be right, in my view, for me to infer, merely from a possibly defective disclosure, and I do not so infer, that any such design drawings ever existed.
[68]
Although the table of serials gives a further six serials down to no 7, about 80 variations had been made within the computer. The table was contained in a ‘Technical (progress) Report’ made to Raytheon on 13 May 2002. The progress report describes itself as representing ‘the second stage payment milestone’ and was plainly interim; it more than once refers to ‘the next progress report’. It refers to drawings as ‘being prepared’ rather than as already existing. Its summary, as might be expected of what was intended as a technical study, was that a design giving adequate performance ‘can be’ produced, rather than that a design or an article had been or would be. The very reference to drawings ‘being prepared’ perhaps suggests that no article (be it Lancer 2, in whole or in any part, or some development or variation thereof) could by then have been made directly from what then lay within the computer.
[69]
Of the seven serials to which Mr Howe referred, he accepted that those at nos 2 to 5 were not carried to the stage and were not presented as something which could be taken forward and manufactured. Stages 6 and 7, though, he said, were different. However, in my view, whilst Mr Howe was right to accept as he did with respect to serials 2 to 5, there is, on the evidence, no material distinction between them and serials 6 and 7 save that, as it would seem, 6 and 7 happened to be the last and best serials arrived at by the time further work ceased. There was no evidence that the drawings which would seem then to have been contemplated or required were drawn after the interim technical progress report. Indeed, no evidence was given that it would have been possible to make an infringing or any relevant article from, or (if this is different) that the making of the same was enabled by, such design documents (within the statutory meaning of that phrase) which have been shown to have existed in OTL’s hands. Nor, indeed, were the seven serials to which Mr Howe referred the only ones. Those seven were within ‘Option 1’ in the technical (progress) report but, to underline the inchoate nature of the work done, the report continued with ‘Option 2’ (serials running to serial 13) and ‘Option 3’ (to serial 16).
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[70]
To approach the same issue from a different angle, I am not satisfied that by the time that work on MMM stopped or earlier there had already emerged in the course of that development a design which either OTL or Raytheon regarded as such a design that, had it been manufactured, would have represented an MMM of a kind likely to attract the United States military, the only then-contemplated prospective end-user, or, indeed, to attract any other end-customer. The events which actually happened demonstrated that Raytheon had no intent of manufacturing or paying for or requiring someone else—ie OTL—to manufacture, unless an end-customer was likely thereby to be attracted. But that seemed never to have become the case. I do not see the use of a protected document as a starting point for the making of further design documents which are variations upon the protected original, even where that making has been in the course of a commercial purpose, as, without more, constituting an infringement within the document class of design right infringements. Were that to be an infringement the words in s 226(1)(b) ‘for the purpose of enabling such articles to be made’ would have been made redundant.
[71]
Moreover, there could have been a legislative purpose in support of the view of construction I have taken. Nothing, in industrial and commercial terms, might be thought to have been likely to be gained by permitting persons to cheat by making articles exactly or substantially to protected designs. But, by contrast, where all that is done is that a protected design is used as a starting point for further development and variation, with no view to the manufacture of anything unless and until there had emerged an article which (it may be) neither exactly nor substantially reproduced the original design, it could well have been thought that such use of the original design, if not actually to be encouraged, at least need not be prohibited, in order that research, development and innovation of such a kind should not be made unlawful.
[72]
I accept that failure to achieve a purpose does not, of itself, prove that the purpose had never existed but there is here a combination of material factors. The combination includes this: OTL’s work in relation to MMM was for a study into possibilities; changes in design were to be considered. It was a process which was stopped at an interim stage when all that had been gleaned was that a potentially satisfactory design could be, rather than had been, produced. There was no evidence that OTL ever intended to make any relevant article unless Raytheon required that and was willing to pay for it but there was no evidence that Raytheon had either required an article to be made or that it would pay for it if it was. Quite what the satisfactory design which it was thought could emerge would have been is left unclear; that would, presumably, have depended on further iterations in the uncompleted process of design variation. How far it would by then have resembled Lancer 2 is also left unknown, but it surely would have been premature for OTL to have had any realistic view to a sale or a hiring of any article (let alone of the article) when not even its design had emerged at the interim stage. To go further with this combination, there was no contract for the making of any infringing article. There was no evidence of the existence of any design document from which an infringing article could be made. No infringing article was in fact made. No oral evidence on the subject of OTL’s purpose was led and, in particular, Mr Cardy was not cross-examined with the intent of showing that OTL’s purpose must have at least included the purpose of enabling infringing articles to be made. This combination of features leaves me not satisfied that in relation to MMM, in breach of s 226(1)(b) and (3), OTL for a
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commercial purpose made any design documents recording the Lancer 2 design for the purpose of enabling articles infringing the protected design to be made.
MOVING ON FROM CLAIMS AGAINST OTL
[73]
I have dealt above with ten forms of claim against OTL; under each of five different descriptions—contract, contractual confidence, equitable confidence, copyright and design right—there has been separate consideration as to MMM and DMP. Given that OTL is in liquidation, it may be that relief under the three of those descriptions in respect of which SEI has, in my judgment, succeeded—contract as to both MMM and DMP and design right as to DMP—will not greatly advantage SEI and, unsurprisingly therefore, a sizeable part of the hearing was spent on the law and the facts as to SEI’s claims that Mr Cardy was so involved in his company’s breaches as to have become personally liable to SEI as, with OTL, a joint tortfeasor. It has not been claimed that Mr Cardy was what one might call an independent tortfeasor; his liability here is either as a joint tortfeasor with OTL or it fails. As the only tort by OTL as to which I have been satisfied is as to design right in relation to DMP, it is his role in relation to DMP to which I shall need to return but first I shall look at the vexed subject of the law which relates to directors or shareholders becoming personally liable jointly with their companies.
MR CARDY’S PERSONAL LIABILITY—THE LAW
[74]
Mr Cardy, as I have mentioned, was the sole shareholder in and the sole director of OTL. He had conferred on himself the title and has held himself out as its managing director.
[75]
The most recent comprehensive consideration of the law relevant to the subject of a director or shareholder being held to be a joint tortfeasor with his company is to be found in the judgment of Chadwick LJ (with which Simon Brown and Tuckey LJJ agreed) in MCA Records Inc v Charly Records Ltd [2001] EWCA Civ 1441, [2003] 1 BCLC 93. After his review of the cases, Chadwick LJ drew out four propositions.
[76]
Thus, he said (at [49]):
‘First, a director will not be treated as liable with the company as a joint tortfeasor if he does no more than carry out his constitutional role in the governance of the company—that is to say, by voting at board meetings. That, I think, is what policy requires if a proper recognition is to be given to the identity of the company as a separate legal person. Nor, as it seems to me, will it be right to hold a controlling shareholder liable as a joint tortfeasor if he does no more than exercise his power of control through the constitutional organs of the company—for example by voting at general meetings and by exercising the powers to appoint directors.’
[77]
In argument before me that passage was subjected to some close analysis; thus ‘that is to say, by voting at board meetings’, which could be said to be a phrase which excludes other activity in the governance of the company—was compared with ‘for example, by voting at general meetings’ which is clearly no more than an example (my emphasis). I am far from sure that the sentences were intended to be proof against such examination; the words are in a judgment not a statute.
[78]
But Mr Howe goes further: responding to questions as to the applicability of such a ‘constitutional’ exception, he first pointed out that there is nothing that suggests the existence of such an exception in some earlier Court of Appeal and
Page 645 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
House of Lords authorities such as Rainham Chemical Works Ltd (in liq) v Belvedere Fish Guano Co Ltd [1921] 2 AC 465, [1921] All ER Rep 48 and Performing Right Society Ltd v Ciryl Theatrical Syndicate Ltd [1924] 1 KB 1—see Atkin LJ (at 14–15) where he said: ‘If the directors themselves directed or procured the commission of the act they would be liable in whatever sense they did so, whether expressly or impliedly.’ Going further, problems arise where, as in OTL, there is only one shareholder and only one director. In such circumstances, it may be asked, how could there be a meeting of shareholders or a meeting of directors? How could there be an act made constitutional by a vote at a board meeting? Is a sole director to be at a material disadvantage in that he can never, by himself, fall within the constitutional exception or, conversely, does it become appropriate in such circumstances to take a relaxed view of constitutional formalities and accordingly allow freer rein to the constitutional exception? But that could lead to the paradoxical position that, the more complete a director’s power over his own company, the less likely he would be to find himself personally liable for harm caused by its activity. This, too, may be asked; if one seeks to find the broad justice of a case, should it really affect the complainant’s recoverability whether the sole director and sole shareholder took the modest trouble, say, first to appoint his wife a fellow director and have his activity confirmed by a board meeting and trouble also to lodge the relatively rarely-seen type of paper that can legitimise a sole shareholder’s meeting by way of s 382B of the Companies Act 1989, a provision inserted as from 15 July 1992 but repealed from 1 October 2007?
[79]
However, for immediate purposes, I need look no further at the ‘constitutional’ exception. Notwithstanding that in MCA Records Inc v Charly Records Ltd [2003] 1 BCLC 93 the relevant defendant was merely a de facto or ‘shadow’ director (and hence that Chadwick LJ’s first proposition could be said to be obiter), the court was plainly intending to give general guidance. Accordingly, I shall take myself to be bound by the Charly Records case to accept the existence and nature of the exception and, on the facts, given that there has been no evidence of any board meeting, any shareholders’ meeting and no instrument lodged in compliance with s 382B, there is no reason to treat Mr Cardy as having fallen within it.
[80]
Chadwick LJ’s second proposition (at [50]) is as follows:
‘Second, there is no reason why a person who happens to be a director or controlling shareholder of a company should not be liable with the company as a joint tortfeasor if he is not exercising control through the constitutional organs of the company and the circumstances are such that he would be so liable if he were not a director or controlling shareholder.’
The hypothesis ‘if he were not a director or controlling shareholder’ can create difficulty; in a company such as OTL, were it to be postulated that Mr Cardy was not a director or controlling shareholder then whether any acts of the kind complained of would have occurred would be far from clear. But Chadwick LJ continued:
‘In other words, if, in relation to the wrongful acts which are the subject of complaint, the liability of the individual as a joint tortfeasor with the company arises from his participation or involvement in ways which go beyond the exercise of constitutional control, then there is no reason why
Page 646 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
the individual should escape liability because he could have procured those same acts through the exercise of constitutional control.’
[81]
If I am right in treating Mr Cardy, by reason of there having been no board or company meeting, as having participated or involved himself in the activity of OTL ‘in ways which go beyond the exercise of constitutional control’, then, under the second proposition, there is, as it seems to me, no reason why he should escape liability simply because he could have procured the same acts by way of proper constitutional control.
[82]
Chadwick LJ’s third proposition (at [51]) is as follows:
‘Third, the question whether the individual is liable with the company as a joint tortfeasor—at least in the field of intellectual property—is to be determined under principles identified in CBS Songs Ltd v Amstrad Consumer Electronics plc [1988] 2 All ER 484, [1988] AC 1013 and Unilever plc v Gillette (UK) Ltd [1989] RPC 583. In particular, liability as a joint tortfeasor may arise where, in the words of Lord Templeman in CBS Songs v Amstrad [1988] 2 All ER 484 at 496, [1988] AC 1013 at 1058 to which I have already referred, the individual “intends and procures and shares a common design that the infringement takes place”.’
[83]
Here, too, there is a difficulty. It is common enough for a person to be taken to have ‘intended’ the natural and probable consequences of his acts. A corresponding view, on many sets of facts, would no doubt be appropriate also to ‘procurement’ by him where the person who had the deemed intention had the power to ensure that it was carried into effect. But the requirement that a defendant should ‘share a common design’ may be said to add a subjective requirement, namely that, independent of what, in point of law, he could be taken to have intended, there should be proved to have existed in him a subjective intention or desire that the events complained of should occur. That is a question to which I shall have to return when I look at the facts but, on a different point, and given, again, that what is being looked at is a judgment rather than a statute, I would see no difficulty in extending that reference to a ‘common design that the infringement takes place’ to a ‘common design that the events complained of and said to constitute the infringement take place’. That, in a tort of strict liability, such as infringement of design right, would seem to me to be an irresistible extension of the proposition under discussion.
[84]
The fourth proposition laid down by Chadwick LJ, again at [52], is as follows:
‘Fourth, whether or not there is a separate tort of procuring an infringement of a statutory right, actionable at common law, an individual who does “intend, procure and share a common design” that the infringement should take place may be liable as a joint tortfeasor.’
[85]
Chadwick LJ said (at [53]:
‘In the light of the authorities which I have reviewed I am satisfied that no criticism can be made of the test which the judge applied. But, in my view, the test can, perhaps, be expressed more accurately in these terms: in order to hold [the fourth defendant, Mr Young] liable as a joint tortfeasor for acts of copying, and of issuing to the public, in respect of which [the company, CRL of which he was a shadow director] was the primary infringer and in
Page 647 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
circumstances in which he was not himself a person who committed or participated directly in those acts, it was necessary and sufficient to find that he procured or induced those acts to be done by [that company] or that, in some other way, he and [that company] joined together in concerted action to secure that those acts were done.’
The relevant director there, Mr Young, was, as I mentioned, only a de facto officer of the company; he could not conceivably fall within the constitutional exception. It is, though, notable that in that last phrase Chadwick LJ, whilst speaking of procuring and inducing, makes no reference to a ‘sharing’ of a common design and he adds what, as I have already indicated, is to my mind an acceptable gloss to his third proposition, when he speaks of the required procurement or inducement being ‘that those acts were done’ rather than ‘that the infringement takes place’, the former phrase not suggesting that it would be a necessary element that the director sought to be made liable should have been aware that the acts amounted to an infringement.
[86]
The test which had been applied at first instance and which was thus approved in the Court of Appeal is to be found at the Charly Records case where Chadwick LJ (at [37]) said as follows:
‘The judge observed, at para [12] of his judgment, that:
“It has . . . long been recognised that a director or other officer of a company may in certain circumstances be personally liable for the company’s torts, although he will not be liable merely because he is an officer: he must be personally involved in the commission of the tort to an extent sufficient to render him liable. Whether he is sufficiently involved is a question of fact, requiring an examination of the particular role played by him in the commission of the tort.” [See [2000] IP&T 800 at 805.]
With the qualification that, if he is liable for the company’s tort, it is because he is liable with the company as a joint tortfeasor—so that the relevant enquiry is whether he has been personally involved in the commission of the tort to an extent sufficient to render him liable as a joint tortfeasor—I would accept that as a correct statement of the law.’
[87]
The circularity of the test is obvious but, as Le Dain J pointed out in the Federal Court of Appeal of Canada in Mentmore Manufacturing Co Ltd v National Merchandising Manufacturing Co Inc (1978) 89 DLR (3d) 195 cited in the Charly Records case [2003] 1 BCLC 93 at [47], this is an area of the law that raises an elusive question and a very difficult question of policy. That being so, then, just as was the case as to a framing of universally applicable tests for ‘proximity’ and ‘fairness’ in the context of negligence in Caparo Industries plc v Dickman [1990] 1 All ER 568 at 574, [1990] 2 AC 605 at 618—it may have to be accepted that a precise definition such as would be necessary to frame a practical test for the director’s or shareholder’s liability in all cases may be more than can be expected. Rather, as in the Caparo Industries case, one may have to move incrementally, case-by-case, and by reference to a detailed look at the facts. On that basis it is to the facts in relation to Mr Cardy’s and OTL’s activity that I now turn.
MR CARDY’S PERSONAL LIABILITY—THE FACTS
[88]
Although OTL, at a constitutional level, was a one-man company, it was, as I have mentioned, larger and more organised than that term often suggests. Mr Cardy spoke of it as having as many as 17 or 18 employees and its own
Page 648 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
company documents show an organisation with individuals having separate titles and roles such as managing director, director of engineering, programme manager, project manager, head of modelling, mathematical modeller, department head and so on. It also had work that was unconnected with warhead work of the kind at which I have been looking. Individuals within the company reported upwards in the usual way.
[89]
In relation to DMP work, Mr Moat was programme manager for the warhead programmers, including the DMP warhead. He prepared slides for a presentation to QinetiQ in 2002. By then the shaped charge and case tooling was complete but the whole warhead had not yet been manufactured. The slides made plain that the basic shaped charge generally was ‘similar to 1999–2002 design’ and that there had been a ‘validation through 1999 Pendine Jet Characterisation Trial’. Those were both references to Lancer 2 design and to the static and dynamic tests which had been carried out using Lancer 2. I accept Mr Moat’s evidence that Mr Cardy was present at the presentation. Mr Cardy must have appreciated, even if (as seems to me highly improbable) he had not understood before, that DMP work was a development and use of Lancer 2 material. I accept Mr Moat’s evidence that he believed that Mr Cardy must have known that the DMP work as undertaken by OTL would utilise Lancer 2 technology and I take that belief to have been well-founded.
[90]
Quite apart from Mr Cardy’s presence at the presentation, there were day-to-day discussions in the office. It was Mr Moat’s evidence also that, if OTL had not had the benefit of Lancer 2, the DMP project could not have gone ahead as it did. There were many differences, I accept, between Lancer 2 and the DMP warhead; the design concept, the explosive load material and its mass were all different. There may have been a different type or size of initiation to procure the explosion of the charge. Indeed, the DMP work could have been done without any recourse to Lancer 2 material, albeit at greater cost to OTL in time and money and without the validation, by way of the Pendine trials, that was an important and attractive feature of use of Lancer 2 material. But, for all the differences, Lancer 2 material was used, including its use in providing reference data for the front part of the system.
[91]
Mr Cardy did not give direct instructions in any detail to Mr Moat or to Mr Townsend, the director of engineering, on how to design any warhead but the design team within OTL assumed from the discussions which they had, including with Mr Cardy, that they should start DMP work with Lancer 2 or something like Lancer 2 as a reference point. Mr Moat added: ‘From my point of view and from the discussions it was never ever even discussed that we would use anything for that other than Lancer 2.’ He added that there was no reason to use something else when OTL had Lancer 2 available to it. He understood from discussions which had included Mr Cardy and also the customer, QinetiQ, that the customer was enthusiastic about the use of Lancer 2 technology as it could see the benefits of reducing risk by using something which was already in existence and something which had to an extent been validated by the earlier static and dynamic trials. Mr Cardy, I accept, was not himself a warhead designer nor even someone who could use the Parajet program but I have no doubt but that Mr Cardy knew that, in its DMP work, OTL was using Lancer 2 technology. I have noted differences between Lancer 2 and the DMP warhead but, despite such, DMP is properly to be regarded as an adaptation of Lancer 2 with only such
Page 649 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
changes as were necessary to introduce within it the particular dense metal penetrator which QinetiQ wished to incorporate.
[92]
However, although Mr Cardy in his evidence accepted, albeit ultimately and reluctantly, that, from a warhead designer’s point of view, the Lancer 2 design was not just a starting point but probably the natural starting point for the DMP project, I am not able to hold that he instructed Mr Moat or anyone else to use it as part of the DMP project. Time after time Mr Cardy said that he had no recollection of giving any instruction that Lancer 2 design or material should be used in the DMP project. He emphasised, as I have accepted, that he was not a warhead designer and that it was right that he should have given a free hand to those that were. He had no wish, he said, to prescribe how they should approach the task they were given.
[93]
I found his lack of recollection unconvincing. I would have been entitled to reflect that not only had he been found an unreliable witness at the first trial but that before me his evidence on oath at one point involved such a radical change from what he had said at the first trial that he put his credibility before me in issue. Had Mr Moat, the only other material witness, said otherwise I would have been likely to have disbelieved Mr Cardy on this issue and to have found that he did give an instruction that Lancer 2 design was to be used. However, albeit in relation to the MMM, Mr Moat, asked by Mr Cardy whether he, Mr Cardy, had personally instructed Mr Moat to use Lancer 1 or Lancer 2 technology answered: ‘That I cannot say. I cannot remember whether there was a specific statement or not.’ A little later, Mr Moat, cross-examined by Mr Cardy, was asked:
‘Q. Did I [Mr Cardy] again at any time instruct you to use Lancer 1 or Lancer 2 warhead solutions or technology in the multi-mission missiles trade study?
A. As far as I am aware, I cannot recollect, I do not have the recollection that we were advised or told to use it.’
[94]
Mr Cardy agreed that using Lancer 2 as a starting point was the easy option and that, whilst the team could have started elsewhere had they so chosen, unless the designers and managers were instructed to do otherwise, they could be expected to have used that easy option. From an expediency and time point of view, he said, it may have seemed to them the most obvious option. Mr Cardy accepted that he had no positive reason to believe that they would not start from Lancer 2. He accepted that he gave no instruction such that Lancer 2 designs were not to be used as the designers in the DMP program. He gave them no instructions, he said, to use it or not to use it. He accepted that one of his roles was to protect the company from infringement of other persons’ rights such as might lead to financial or other claims against it.
[95]
On the evidence and so far as concerns DMP, the position, in my judgment, was thus as follows. OTL committed breaches of SEI’s design right. Performance by OTL of its (unseen) contract as to DMP did not necessarily involve breach of SEI’s design right but Mr Cardy knew that, unless he took appropriate steps, such breach would occur if OTL’s employees were, in broad terms, merely told to proceed with creation of the DMP. Had Mr Cardy taken appropriate steps the misuse of SEI’s design right in Lancer 2 in the DMP project would not have occurred and Mr Cardy, as the person holding himself out as managing director of OTL and as its sole director and shareholder, had, amongst
Page 650 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
his tasks, the directing of OTL away from its committing any such breach. I was given no reason to think that Mr Cardy did not have that total control over OTL and its operations which his roles as the only director, the only shareholder and the professed managing director should be taken to have given him. Nonetheless Mr Cardy omitted to take any steps that would have procured the absence of such breach. Yet, for all that, it has not been proved that he gave any instruction which in terms was that SEI’s ownership (sole or shared) of design right should be ignored or breached, nor any instruction that would necessarily have led to its breach. Rather, knowing that breach could be expected unless he took steps, knowing that he could have stopped any breach and knowing that it was for him to steer OTL away from breach, he merely left it to others to proceed with the DMP work. Thus, as he must have expected, the breach of design right took place.
[96]
If that is the factual basis, as I hold it to be, can it be said, within Chadwick LJ’s third proposition in the Charly Records case, that Mr Cardy intended and procured and shared a common design that the events that amounted to an infringement should take place? Plainly Mr Cardy had failed to prevent OTL’s tortious acts, but would that be enough? Mr Howe was not able to draw my attention to any case in which a defendant had become a joint tortfeasor by means only of having failed to prevent the primary tortfeasor’s tortious activity despite the defendant having power to do so. It could, perhaps, be said that Mr Cardy must be taken to have intended and procured the breach, given that the breach was the natural and probable consequence, as he knew it to be, of his failing to instruct OTL’s employees not to use Lancer 2 design. But, if his case were only one of such omission, could enough be derived from his omission to stop the acts complained of for it fairly to be said that he shared with OTL a common design that those acts should take place (given also that the notion of his sharing mental decision-making with the company is itself somewhat fictional as within his head was the only decision-making process for either himself or the company)?
[97]
Plainly a case resting only on omission raises difficult questions; I am conscious, if a mere omission to prevent a tort can make a director personally liable for wrongful acts of his company, that that could represent a considerable shift away from the traditional approach of the law. However, in this particular case, there is, in my judgment, one particular aspect of the facts which arguably moves the case away from being merely one of omission on Mr Cardy’s part.
[98]
That aspect is this. At the first trial (at which, as in the second, Mr Moat gave evidence but then, at the first trial, on the OTL-Cardy side) Mr Howe cross-examined Mr Moat and obtained the answer that he, Mr Moat, had considered that questions as to ownership of IPR were matters for Mr Cardy rather than for he, Mr Moat, to consider. Mr Moat, understood that SEI were generally in agreement with what was taking place. Mr Moat understood that, he said at the first trial, from what Mr Cardy had told him.
[99]
At the second trial, the relevant passage was put to Mr Cardy. Mr Cardy accepted that that was what Mr Moat had understood at the time from him, Mr Cardy. Mr Howe asked Mr Cardy:
‘Q. Is this right, that because Mr Moat believed that [SEI] were in agreement to [OTL] being the lead contractor on the Pendine trial, he would not have to worry about any infringement of [SEI’s] intellectual property rights during that project?
Page 651 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
A. That is correct, yes.’
[100]
Mr Moat’s written evidence at the second trial included that he had understood from Mr Cardy that SEI were perfectly content for OTL to be doing the MMM work.
[101]
In his oral evidence-in-chief in the second trial Mr Moat was asked how he had derived his understanding from Mr Cardy. He answered:
‘As far as I can recollect, just from the fact that we were continuing, we were told that the work was carrying on, that [SEI] did not wish to take part in it for various reasons which I cannot remember but they were still on side.’
[102]
But Mr Cardy in his own evidence said that he had no grounds for holding that SEI were happy for OTL to do that work. Indeed, he added, ‘Quite the opposite’. In his oral evidence Mr Cardy also accepted that he had not told Raytheon about the breakdown in relationship between SEI and OTL. Whilst these answers may be said, when they were specific, to relate to the MMM rather than DMP, they arguably represent Mr Cardy going beyond a mere omission to have prevented breach and his moving into an encouragement or procurement of it. Why else should he, with no grounds for believing that SEI were happy for OTL to do the work, tell Mr Moat that SEI was content? Mr Cardy would surely not have told Mr Moat that he had no need to worry about SEI’s IPR unless, but for Mr Cardy’s assurance, Mr Moat might have worried about it. Why should Mr Cardy have falsely indicated that SEI did not wish to take part in work other than to indicate that what was being done was unobjectionable? Moreover, if it may be said that these passages relate only to MMM, then unless Mr Cardy had reason to believe that his assurance as to MMM work being proper would not also have been taken to have been assurance that DMP work was proper, it would have been incumbent on Mr Cardy, had his intentions been unexceptionable, to explain to Mr Moat and others that it was only MMM and not DMP work which SEI was content that OTL should do. Mr Cardy gave no evidence that he had expected or had reason to expect that his assurances would be taken to relate only to DMP work and I did not take Mr Moat’s view that SEI were still ‘on side’ as being limited to MMM work but to reflect the overall picture created and, in my view, intended to be created by assurances which Mr Cardy knew to be false.
[103]
The matters I have dealt with in the immediately preceding paragraphs do, in my judgment, make Mr Cardy’s case not one of his merely omitting to prevent breach by OTL; he was not resting on mere omission but was acting in a manner (absent any contrary explanation, and none was given) which is to be taken to be a facilitation of breach with a view to there being breach. In my view, in so far as it is required to separate him and his company, he did share with OTL a common design that the acts complained of as to DMP should take place. He satisfies the third and fourth of Chadwick LJ’s propositions in the Charly Records case and, as to DMP, was, in my judgment, personally involved in the commission of the tort as to DMP to an extent sufficient to render him personally liable.
[104]
I should add that if, contrary to my view as to the construction and effect of the 1988 Act in relation to design right and MMM, OTL were to have committed a design right tort as to MMM, I would, for the like reasons as those
Page 652 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
given in relation to DMP (and, if anything, a fortiori of those reasons) have held Mr Cardy to be personally liable for OTL’s breach as to MMM.
CONCLUSION
[105]
It will be convenient if I were here to summarise the conclusions indicated above. Firstly, so far as concerns arguments of SEI that have not succeeded, I find no contractual breach of confidence by OTL in relation to MMM work—at [37], above—or DMP work—at [40], above. I find no breach as to copyright—at [41], above. I find no breach of equitable confidence—at [42], above. As for design right, I find no infringement in relation to MMM work—at [72], above.
[106]
As for arguments of SEI which have succeeded, I have not been asked here and now to quantify or award damages. In the order of Lewison J of 21 January 2004 ([2004] 1 All ER (Comm) 619), which, as I have mentioned, represented the conclusions arrived at the first trial, there were a number of inquiries as to damages ordered, none of which has yet been further pursued. SEI has wished to complete this second trial before venturing further with those inquiries. A convenient course would now seem to me to be that I, too, should order inquiries as to damages and for such inquiries then to march with those ordered by Lewison J. I shall raise with counsel and with Mr Cardy the most appropriate forms of wording but, in principle, there are to be inquiries as to damages suffered by SEI by reason of OTL’s several breaches of contract as to MMM work—at [36], above—and DMP work—at [40], above —and as to OTL’s infringement of design right in relation to DMP work—at [64], above.
[107]
In each of the categories as to which I have ordered an inquiry as to damages the probability, in my view, is that SEI suffered some damage, although, as I have mentioned, I have not been concerned with any quantification. However, it may be that there is overlap between the categories. That leads to two points: firstly, care will need to be taken to ensure that there is no double recovery for that which is, in substance, the same loss. Secondly, it may be that SEI will find it unnecessary further and simultaneously to pursue every one of the inquiries I have ordered. As that may prove to be the case and for the avoidance of doubt, I intend to give to SEI an express right (exercisable when further directions are given as to the inquiries) to elect which of such inquiries to pursue, which to have stayed and which, if any, to abandon.
[108]
I hold Mr Cardy to be personally liable in respect of OTL’s infringement of design right relating to DMP work—at [103], above; there is to be a declaration to that effect—and accordingly he, too, should be enabled to take part in the inquiry as to damages under that heading and be jointly liable in respect of any sum thus found due.
[109]
After seeing this judgment in draft form but before the handing down of this final form, Mr Howe, thus learning of my holding in [36], above, that OTL was in breach of contract in a number of ways, invited me to go further and to hold that Mr Cardy was personally liable for the tort of inducing those breaches of contract. Such a holding would, no doubt, have been within SEI’s pleaded case and would have accorded with Lewison J’s holding on corresponding parts of the action with which he had to deal but neither the form of SEI’s written skeleton argument nor that of its written final submissions would have put Mr Cardy on notice that SEI was claiming that he was, beyond being a joint tortfeasor, also an independent tortfeasor by way of his inducing
Page 653 of [2008] 2 All ER 622
breaches of contract by OTL. No oral argument to such effect was put at the second trial and Mr Cardy thus never had an opportunity to respond to it. I thus decline to extend Mr Cardy’s personal liability to the tort of inducing those breaches of contract.
[110]
I shall now discuss with the parties the framing of an order to give effect to the conclusions at which I have arrived.
Order accordingly.
Gareth Williams Barrister.
Re Griffiths (deceased);
Ogden and another v Trustees of the RHS Griffiths 2003 Settlement and others
[2008] 2 All ER 654
[2008] EWHC 118 (Ch)
Categories: EQUITY: TAXATION; Inheritance Tax
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION
Lord(s): LEWISON J
Hearing Date(s): 24, 25 JANUARY 2008
Mistake – Mistake of fact – Equity – Transferor making transfers potentially exempt from charge to inheritance tax if transferor surviving seven years – Transferor subsequently diagnosed with cancer – Transferor dying less than three years following transfers – Transfers becoming chargeable to inheritance tax – Transferor’s executors applying to set aside transfers as voluntary dispositions made on basis of mistake of fact as to transferor’s state of health – Whether circumstances amounting to mistake of fact – Whether necessary for executors to show what transferor would have done if he had not made mistake – Whether disposition capable of relief in equity void or voidable.
In January 2003, when he was 73 years old, G obtained tax planning advice in order to mitigate what would otherwise be the effect of inheritance tax on his death. As a result he made two potentially exempt transfers (PETs) in April 2003 and a further PET in February 2004. The effect of the PETs was that if G survived seven years after the making of each transfer the value of the property transferred would fall out of his estate for inheritance tax purposes and if he survived at least three years reduced rates of inheritance tax would be available. In the autumn of 2004 G was diagnosed as having lung cancer and he died in April 2005. In consequence the transfers made by him in April 2003 and February 2004 became chargeable transfers for inheritance tax purposes with no rate reduction. G’s executors applied to the court to set the transfers aside on the ground that they had been made under a mistake of fact and that in such circumstances equity would set a voluntary transfer aside. The mistake on which they relied was that G had mistakenly believed at the times of the transfers that there was a real chance that he would survive for seven years while in fact his state of health was such at those times that he had had no real chance of surviving for that long. The medical evidence before the court was that G had not been suffering from cancer in April 2003 but that he had been suffering from cancer in February 2004.
Held – (1) A mistake about an existing or pre-existing fact was capable of bringing the equitable jurisdiction into play provided that the mistake was of a sufficiently serious nature. The relevant test was that it was necessary to show that the person would not have acted as he had done if he had been aware of the true facts. In the instant case it had not been shown that G had made any relevant mistake in April 2003. However, when G made the gift in February 2004 he was suffering from lung cancer about which he was unaware. He therefore made a mistake of fact about his state of health. Had he known in February 2004 that he was suffering from lung cancer he would also have known that his chance of surviving for at least three years was remote. In those circumstances he would not have
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acted as he had done (see [24], [25], [27], [28], [30], below); Lady Hood of Avalon v Mackinnon [1909] 1 Ch 476 and Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338 considered.
(2) The disposition made by G in February 2004 was not void but voidable; however, there was no reason why the court should refrain from exercising its jurisdiction to set it aside (see [31]–[35], below); dicta of Kay LJ in Barrow v Isaacs & Son [1891] 1 QB 417 applied.
Notes
For mistake: rescission: voluntary instruments, see 32 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2005 reissue) para 52.
Cases referred to in judgment
Anker-Petersen v Christensen [2002] WTLR 313.
Barrow v Isaacs & Son [1891] 1 QB 417, CA.
Barr’s Settlement Trusts, Re; Abacus Trust Co (Isle of Man) v Barr [2003] EWHC 114 (Ch), [2003] 1 All ER 763, [2003] Ch 409.
Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338, [1990] 1 WLR 1304.
Hastings-Bass, Re, Hastings-Bass v IRC [1974] 2 All ER 193, [1975] Ch 25, CA.
Hood of Avalon (Lady) v Mackinnon [1909] 1 Ch 476.
Ogilvie v Littleboy (1897) 13 TLR 399, CA; affd sub nom Ogilvie v Allen (1899) 15 TLR 294, HL.
Sieff v Fox [2005] EWHC 1312 (Ch), [2005] 3 All ER 693, [2005] 1 WLR 3811.
Wolff v Wolff [2004] EWHC 2110 (Ch), [2004] STC 1633.
Claim
The claimants, Jonathan Mayson Ogden and Brian Hutchinson, the executors of Ronald Henry Samuel Griffiths deceased, applied to the court to set aside on the ground of mistake (i) the transfer by the deceased of 4,897 shares in Iota Properties Ltd to the trustees of the RH Griffiths 2003 settlement on 7 April 2003; (ii) the grant by the deceased of a deferred lease of a half share in 25 Rothesay Road Bournemouth to the trustees of the 25 Rothesay Road settlement on 8 April 2003; and (iii) the transfer by the deceased of his reversionary interest in 4,897 shares in Iota Properties Ltd to the trustees of the Griffiths Family trust on 3 February 2004. The defendants to the claim were the trustees of the settlements and family members including children with interests under the will of the deceased and/or under the settlements. The Revenue and Customs Commissioners declined to intervene in the proceedings. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Robert Grierson (instructed by Laceys Solicitors) for the claimants.
Paul Burton (instructed by Laceys Solicitors) for child defendants.
25 January 2008. The following judgment was delivered.
LEWISON J.
[1]
The late Mr Ronald Griffiths was born on 5 March 1929. During his lifetime he had acquired a number of substantial assets. These included a half share in the matrimonial home at 25 Rothesay Road Bournemouth, and a valuable shareholding in a company called Iota Properties Ltd which owned a number of investment properties. In January 2003, then aged 73, Mr Griffiths and his wife Barbara took advice about tax planning in order to mitigate what would
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otherwise be the effect of inheritance tax on his death. Barbara Griffiths was a year younger than her husband. Tax consultants, WJB Chiltern, produced a comprehensive report, running to more than 50 pages, on the options open to him. Most of the options involved the making of potentially exempt transfers, that is to say a transfer made more than seven years before the transferor’s death. The report was carefully thought out so far as the tax consequences of the various options were concerned.
[2]
Their report dealt with the different assets of substantial value in different sections. So far as the shares in Iota Properties Ltd were concerned they suggested the creation of a short term discretionary trust of the shares with reverter to settlor, and a subsequent assignment of the settlor’s reversionary interest to trustees. Although the creation of the discretionary trust would be a chargeable transfer for inheritance tax, if Mr Griffiths were to follow this advice and survive the subsequent assignment by seven years then the value of the reversionary interest in the shares transferred by the assignment would fall out of his estate for inheritance tax purposes. The report also went on to consider what would happen if Mr Griffiths failed to survive the transfers by seven years. It pointed out that a reduced rate of inheritance tax would be payable if he died within three to four years of the transfers and a still further reduced rate if he died after that but before the seven years were up. So far as 25 Rothesay Road was concerned, the report recommended the creation of a deferred lease in favour of trustees. A deferred lease is a lease whose term is limited to begin at a future date. So the idea was that Mr and Mrs Griffiths would retain the right to continue to live in their matrimonial home, but that they would lose that right once the term of the deferred lease began to run. The deferred lease would also be a potentially exempt transfer, and if Mr and Mrs Griffiths survived the grant by seven years the value of the lease would fall outside their respective estates for inheritance tax purposes.
[3]
The final recommendation of the report was that Mr and Mrs Griffiths take out seven year term insurance in relation to those ideas that relied for their effectiveness on Mr and Mrs Griffiths surviving for between three and seven years.
[4]
Mr Griffiths decided to follow up some of the recommendations. On 7 April 2003 he transferred 4,897 shares in Iota Properties into a newly created trust called the RHS Griffiths 2003 Settlement. Clause 4 of the settlement provided for discretionary trusts of the income from the shares for a period of ten months from 7 April 2003. At the expiry of that period there was to be a reverter to the settlor. The value of this transfer was of the order of £83,000. On the following day, 8 April 2003, Mr and Mrs Griffiths jointly granted a deferred lease of their matrimonial home to themselves and their two children to be held on the terms of a trust embodied in the 25 Rothesay Road Settlement. Mr and Mrs Griffiths’ two children have life interests under that settlement. The value of this transfer was of the order of £280,000. In the following year, shortly before the expiry of the discretionary trust period, on 3 February 2004 Mr Griffiths transferred his reversionary interest in the shareholding in Iota Properties to the trustees of the newly created Griffiths Family Trust. This was the most valuable of the assets transferred into the various trusts. Its value is of the order of £2,644,000.
[5]
Unfortunately in the autumn of 2004 Mr Griffiths was diagnosed as having lung cancer; and he died on 17 April 2005. Since Mr Griffiths had not survived for more than three years since the transfers were made all of the three transfers by
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Mr Griffiths are chargeable transfers for inheritance tax and subject to taxation in accordance with s 7 of the Inheritance Tax Act 1984. The tax payable therefore exceeds £1 million. Mr Griffiths also made a will under which he left a life interest in his residuary estate to his widow. Any assets in which she takes an interest under the will do not attract inheritance tax. If, therefore, Mr Griffiths had not made the transfers, there would be no inheritance tax immediately payable.
[6]
The claimants, as Mr Griffiths’ executors, now seek to set aside the transfers on the ground that they were made under a mistake and that equity will set aside a voluntary transfer in such circumstances. The relevant mistake on which they rely is that Mr Griffiths mistakenly believed, at the times of the transfers, that there was a real chance that he would survive for seven years whereas in fact at that time his state of health was such that he had no real chance of surviving for that long. Had he known that his life expectancy was so short, he would not have made the transfers and so they should be declared void or set aside. There are two relevant times: first, April 2003 and second, February 2004. Revenue and Customs have been asked whether they wish to intervene in these proceedings in view of the large amount of tax potentially involved. They have declined to do so, but have asked for certain authorities to be brought to my attention. Mr Grierson, who appears for the executors, has complied with that request. None of the other parties opposes the relief sought. There has therefore been no adversarial argument either on the law or on the facts.
[7]
For some years before the transfers Mr Griffiths had been suffering from severe rheumatoid arthritis. It was effectively controlled by drugs, mostly immuno-suppressants and steroids. He had been a smoker, but had given up in 1992. However, in October 2004 an abnormality was discovered in his left lung. Tests were carried out and they revealed a non-small cell lung cancer. In the following month it was discovered that there were suggestions of metastasis. Dr Laurence, the consultant oncologist, thought that in view of his long-standing rheumatoid arthritis, as well as recent illness, he was not fit for any form of systemic treatment. She therefore organised a short course of palliative radiotherapy to stop the recurrence of chest infections. She added in her letter to Mr Griffiths’ GP, Dr Flack:
‘I have explained that any form of systemic treatment would definitely cause deterioration in his quality of life. We did not put a time-scale on his prognosis, but he is aware that the illness will be fatal in due course.’
[8]
By March 2005 the cancer was well advanced; and no further active treatment was planned.
[9]
Neither Dr Flack nor Dr Laurence have given evidence or made witness statements. However, both have expressed their views in correspondence.
[10]
In her letter of 4 May 2006 Dr Laurence said:
‘I am afraid it would not be possible to estimate when the lung cancer first occurred as this is a very varying feature and depends upon the natural biology of the tumour . . . I think it would be impossible to tell you when the cancer actually arose although it is likely that it arose within at least the six months prior to his diagnosis. One certainly couldn’t say that it was present before this, although we do know that some cancers have a long natural history. The cancer at diagnosis was known to be in its advanced stage and treatment was palliative in nature. The average survival from diagnosis to death in a patient with this stage of disease is approximately six months.
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Mr Griffiths therefore fell into the average time scale from diagnosis to death. He was not felt to be terminal at diagnosis, but was not fit enough for any form of radical treatment and thus the minimum and maximum survival periods following palliative treatment tends to be of an order of weeks through to a maximum of one to two years. Only 10% of patients survive the one-year mark and a few per cent may survive to two years.’
[11]
In her letter of 10 June 2006 Dr Laurence said:
‘I have already stated that it is not possible to tell you when the cancer actually arose and although it was likely that he had cancer in February 2004, it is impossible to be precise about this, or to give you a percentage likelihood.’
[12]
In her letter of 14 July 2006 Dr Laurence said: ‘it is impossible for me to comment as to whether or not Mr Griffiths had cancer present in either April 2003 or April 1999.’
[13]
In his letter of 7 August 2006 Dr Flack said:
‘Having carefully examined Mr Griffiths’ records, I can find no evidence that he had a chest x-ray in the period between April 1999 and 29 September 2004. This latter date was the one on which he had a chest x-ray at Poole Hospital, which first suggested the possibility of lung cancer. As you know, this was subsequently confirmed by bronchoscopy and histology and which was the cause of his subsequent death in April 2005.
I saw Mr Ronald Griffiths on a very regular basis from the time of his registration with this practice in December 1996, until the time of his death. This included regular reviews for both his rheumatoid arthritis, his known cardiac conductive disease and the number of full medicals done for insurance purposes. At no time before 29 September was I suspicious that Mr Griffiths had lung cancer. It is therefore impossible to know how long the cancer was present before it became symptomatic and was therefore detected, but given that he died within seven months of his diagnosis, my opinion is that it is biologically implausible that it could have been present as early as April 1999, and extremely unlikely that it was present in April 2003.’
[14]
In a subsequent letter of 1 September 2006 Dr Flack confirmed that it was ‘extremely unlikely’ that Mr Griffiths’ cancer was present in April 2003. He added:
‘The basis of my opinion is that Mr Griffiths’ lung cancer was very small at presentation in September 2004, but still led to his death within eight months. It seems unlikely that such an aggressive tumour would have been present 16–17 months earlier without making its presence felt.’
[15]
Dr Paul Thompson was the consultant rheumatologist who had the care of Mr Griffiths. In his letter of 3 August 2006 he said that there was no clinical evidence to suggest that Mr Griffiths had lung cancer in 2003. However he added:
‘With regards his life expectancy, a patient on immuno-suppressant drugs with rheumatoid arthritis is known to have reduce life expectancy by about 3–5 years. I would therefore suggest that his life expectancy would have been of a man of his age with co-morbidities reduced by about 3–5 years.’
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[16]
A table of life expectancies taken from the website of the Faculty and Institute of Actuaries indicates that the life expectancy of a 74 year old male is just short of 12 years. In fact Mr Griffiths’ parents had lived into their nineties, although his sister who also suffered from rheumatoid arthritis died some time before 2001 in her late sixties.
[17]
The claimants ask me to attach no weight to the opinions expressed by Dr Flack. The basis for this is the submission that he is ‘only’ a GP and according to the claimants’ solicitor his views are ‘unusually assertive’ for a GP commenting on a specialist area. I do not know what expertise the claimants’ solicitor has to be able to make that judgment. Since Dr Flack was Mr Griffiths’ principal medical practitioner it would be quite wrong for me not to attach weight to his views. Moreover, Dr Laurence was not asked to comment on Dr Flack’s views, so to that extent there is no challenge to what he has said. Based on his evidence I find that Mr Griffiths did not suffer from lung cancer in April 2003. Based on Dr Thompson’s evidence and the mortality tables I find that in April 2003 Mr Griffiths had a life expectancy of somewhere between seven and nine years.
[18]
Dr Flack does not address the question whether Mr Griffiths had lung cancer in February 2004, although he does say that he himself did not suspect cancer until the autumn. Based on that evidence I think that I can conclude that Mr Griffiths did not himself suspect lung cancer any earlier than the autumn. But Dr Laurence does say that it was likely that Mr Griffiths was already suffering from lung cancer in February 2004, although she cannot express a view about the percentage likelihood, and she does not specifically say whether the cancer was likely to have been present at the beginning of that month. It is unfortunate that in a case involving £1 million-worth of tax a proper medical report was not placed before the court and that the claimants are compelled to rely on a single sentence in a letter from Dr Laurence. Although I have hesitated about this finding, I am prepared to find, by a narrow margin that he was suffering from lung cancer on 3 February 2004; and that following the onset of lung cancer at that time his life expectancy did not exceed three years in February 2004. Had the facts been contested, I might not have felt able to make this finding.
[19]
The executors rely on a broad equitable jurisdiction to set aside a voluntary transaction on the ground of mistake. The nature of the jurisdiction was described by Lindley LJ in Ogilvie v Littleboy (1897) 13 TLR 399 at 400:
‘Gifts cannot be revoked, nor can deeds be set aside, simply because the donors wish they had not made them and would like to have back the property given. Where there is no fraud, no undue influence, no fiduciary relationship between donor and donee, no mistake induced by those who derive any benefit by it, a gift, whether by mere delivery or by deed, is binding on the donor . . . In the absence of all such circumstances of suspicion a donor can only obtain back property which he has given away by showing that he was under some mistake of so serious a character as to render it unjust on the part of the donee to retain the property given to him.’
[20]
An appeal to the House of Lords reported as Ogilvie v Allen (1899) 15 TLR 294 was dismissed. Lord Halsbury LC said that he agreed with the judgment of Lindley LJ, but he contemplated that there might be ‘circumstances when misunderstanding on both sides may render it unjust to the giver that the gift should be retained.’ Lord Macnaghten and Lord Morris agreed.
[21]
In Sieff v Fox [2005] EWHC 1312 (Ch), [2005] 3 All ER 693, [2005] 1 WLR 3811 Lloyd LJ said that this case established a broad principle of injustice as the
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test for setting aside a voluntary disposition, in the absence of any circumstances of suspicion. He added that because this case had not been reported in the law reports it does not appear to have been cited in any of the later cases that considered the ambit of the jurisdiction.
[22]
One of the areas of debate has been the nature of the operative mistake which brings the jurisdiction into play. In Gibbon v Mitchell [1990] 3 All ER 338 at 343, [1990] 1 WLR 1304 at 1309, Millett J expressed the principle as follows:
‘In my judgment, these cases show that, wherever there is a voluntary transaction by which one party intends to confer a bounty on another, the deed will be set aside if the court is satisfied that the disponor did not intend the transaction to have the effect which it did. It will be set aside for mistake whether the mistake is a mistake of law or of fact, so long as the mistake is as to the effect of the transaction itself and not merely as to its consequences or the advantages to be gained by entering into it. The proposition that equity will never relieve against mistakes of law is clearly too widely stated . . .’
[23]
His Lordship’s distinction between the effect of the transaction and its consequences or advantages has proved a difficult one to grasp. Davis J in Anker-Petersen v Christensen [2002] WTLR 313, Lloyd LJ in Sieff v Fox and Mann J in Wolff v Wolff [2004] EWHC 2110 (Ch), [2004] STC 1633 have all expressed that difficulty. The principal debate has been whether a mistake by an individual (as opposed to a trustee) about the fiscal consequences of entering into a transaction counts as a mistake about the effect of the transaction or a mistake about its consequences or advantages. I do not need to resolve this debate. Mr Grierson said that a mistake about the fiscal consequences of entering into a transaction was enough to bring the jurisdiction into play even in a case involving an individual rather than trustees. But even if he is right, I do not think that this helps him on the facts of this case. The initial transfer of the shares into the discretionary trust was a chargeable transfer for the purposes of inheritance tax and was intended to be a chargeable transfer. So there was no mistake about its fiscal consequences. The grant of the deferred lease was intended to be a potentially exempt transfer. That is precisely what it was. There was no mistake about the immediate tax consequences of the grant. Similarly the intended effect of the transaction consisting of the transfer of Mr Griffiths’ reversionary interest in the shares was intended to be a potentially exempt transfer for the purposes of inheritance tax. Again that is precisely what it was. There was no mistake about the immediate tax consequences of that transfer either. What was unexpected was Mr Griffiths’ subsequent death just over a year later. Mr Grierson accepted, as I understood it, that if Mr Griffiths had been a hale and hearty young man and had entered into all the relevant transactions but fallen under a bus the following week, his executors would not have been able to ask the court to set aside the transactions on the ground of a mistake. I think that is right. The operative mistake must, in my judgment, be a mistake which existed at the time when the transaction was entered into. The mere falsification of expectations entertained at the date of the transaction is not, in my judgment, enough.
[24]
However, the claimants’ alternative argument is that there was an operative mistake of fact which Mr Griffiths made at the time of the transactions. The relevant mistake was a mistake about Mr Griffiths’ state of health. That was a mistake about a fact existing at the time of the transaction, not a mistake about the effect of the transaction. I do not read the formulation by Millett J as limiting the overall scope of the equitable jurisdiction to relieve against the consequences
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of a mistake. He said that a voluntary deed will be set aside if the court is satisfied that the disponor did not intend the transaction to have the effect which it did. He did not say that a voluntary deed will only be set aside if the court is satisfied that the disponor did not intend the transaction to have the effect which it did. The formulation of principle by Lindley LJ and approved by the House of Lords is not so limited. In Lady Hood of Avalon v Mackinnon [1909] 1 Ch 476 Lady Hood appointed sums of money to her daughters. She had intended to achieve equality between them but had forgotten that some years earlier she had already made appointments to her elder daughter. Eve J discussed at length whether forgetting an existing fact could amount to a mistake. He concluded that it could and said (at 484):
‘I think she executed the deed under a mistake with regard to the existing facts, and I cannot myself see that it is material whether that mistake arose from her being misinformed as to the true state of things, or from her state of mind being such that she had not, at that moment, knowledge of the true state of things. The absence of knowledge arose from her not bearing in mind, or not appreciating, that she had already appointed to the elder daughter a moiety of the fund, and in these circumstances I feel bound to hold, and, having regard to the evidence, I am glad to be able to hold, that this deed which it is sought to rescind was executed by Lady Hood under a mistake brought about by such circumstances as entitle her to the relief she seeks.’
[25]
It is plain in my judgment that a mistake of fact is capable of bringing the equitable jurisdiction into play. All that is required is a mistake of a sufficiently serious nature. In my judgment a mistake about an existing or pre-existing fact if sufficiently serious is enough to bring the jurisdiction into play. If and to the extent that Millett J intended to restrict the scope of the equitable jurisdiction to a mistake about the effect of a transaction, I respectfully disagree.
[26]
The next question I must consider is what needs to be shown as the consequence of the mistake. In Sieff v Fox Lloyd LJ, as well as considering the circumstances in which a voluntary transaction may be set aside for mistake also considered the rule in Re Hastings-Bass, Hastings-Bass v IRC [1974] 2 All ER 193, [1975] Ch 25. In his discussion of the latter rule he considered whether having shown that trustees failed to take into account relevant considerations, it was necessary to show that had they taken all relevant considerations into account they ‘would have’ acted differently or merely that they ‘might have’ acted differently. He distinguished between a case in which trustees were under a duty to act and cases in which they had a discretion whether to act or not. In the former case it was sufficient to show that they might have acted differently, whereas in the latter case it was necessary to show that they would have acted differently. He said ([2005] 3 All ER 693 at [77]):
‘It seems to me that, for the purposes of a case where the trustees are not under a duty to act, the relevant test is still that stated in Re Hastings-Bass, namely whether, if they had not misunderstood the effect that their actual exercise of the discretionary power would have, they would have acted differently. In my judgment that is correct both on authority, starting with Re Hastings-Bass itself, and on principle. Only in a case where the beneficiary is entitled to require the trustees to act, such as Kerr’s case or Stannard’s case, should it suffice to vitiate the trustees’ decision to show that they might have
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acted differently. The word “might” has been used, as matter of decision, only in those two cases. In two cases it has been said (not as a matter of decision) that the “might” test applies to a voluntary exercise of a power: AMP (UK) Ltd v Barker [2001] PLR 7 and Hearn v Younger [2002] WTLR 1317. I respectfully disagree with those observations, having had the benefit of what may have been fuller, and were no doubt different, submissions on the point. If an act by trustees is set aside, where the trustees have acted under an obligation, then the beneficiaries can require the trustees to start again, on the correct basis. It seems to me that the lower test of “might” is appropriate in such cases (see [55] above). If the trustees’ act was voluntary, so that they cannot be compelled to act again if the act is set aside, the more demanding test of “would” is justified in order to decide whether the trustees’ act can be set aside.’
[27]
In a case where it is an individual disposing of his own property, it seems to me that the higher test applies. Thus the claimants must show that if Mr Griffiths had been aware of the true facts he would not have acted as he did. I should add that I do not consider that it is necessary for the claimants to show what Mr Griffiths would have done if he had not made the mistake. It is sufficient for them to show that he would not have done what he in fact did. I say this because the evidence suggests that Mr Griffiths would have done nothing and simply left his widow to inherit under his will. But that course of action would only have been effective if (as actually turned out) Mrs Griffiths survived her husband. In the course of argument Mr Grierson preferred the suggestion that Mr Griffiths would have made lifetime gifts to his wife leaving it to her to enter into the transactions recommended by the tax consultants. The difficulty with this suggestion was that there was no evidence to support it. But it shows that there were at least two possibilities available to Mr Griffiths had he not entered into the transactions into which he did in fact enter.
[28]
I turn at last to the three transactions themselves. The first two took place in April 2003 at a time when Mr Griffiths did not have lung cancer. It is true that he had rheumatoid arthritis which was being controlled by drugs, but he knew that. So he made no mistake about his state of health. It is said that he made a mistake about his life expectancy, not being aware that the drugs had reduced his life expectancy by three to five years. However, there is no evidence to support that at all, and he must have known that although his parents lived into their nineties, his sister had died of rheumatoid arthritis in her sixties. Even if he had been aware of a reduced life expectancy he might well have taken the view that there was a reasonable chance that he would survive for seven years, or at least that he would survive long enough for the reduced rates of inheritance tax to be available. I am not satisfied that it has been shown either that Mr Griffiths made any relevant mistake in April 2003 or that, if he did, it has been shown that he would have acted differently.
[29]
In the case of the deferred lease there is another problem. The deferred lease was a joint grant by Mr and Mrs Griffiths. Mrs Griffiths has not applied for the grant to be set aside. Mr Grierson said that she would be happy to make such an application. But the fact is that she has not; and even if she had it would have been necessary to show that she too made a relevant mistake. There is no evidence to that effect. I decline therefore to set aside either of the transactions entered into in April 2003.
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[30]
The assignment of the reversionary interest in February 2004 is a different matter. By that time Mr Griffiths was suffering from lung cancer about which he was unaware. He did therefore make a mistake about his state of health. Had he known in February 2004 that he was suffering from lung cancer he would also have known that his chance of surviving for three years, let alone for seven years, was remote. In those circumstances I am persuaded that he would not have acted as he did by transferring his reversionary interest in the shares to trustees. He would either have transferred them to his wife in his remaining lifetime or he would have allowed her to inherit under his will. I do not need to decide which of these courses of action he would have adopted.
[31]
I am therefore satisfied that the conditions allowing the equitable jurisdiction to be exercised have been established in relation to the assignment of the reversionary interest in the shares. I need also to consider whether the satisfaction of these conditions means that the assignment of that interest is void or merely voidable. It makes a difference in this case because the executors have paid inheritance tax on a provisional basis. If the assignment is void they are entitled to interest on the overpaid tax as from the date on which they made the payments (Inheritance Tax Act 1984 s 235), whereas if it is voidable then interest is only payable from the date when a claim to repayment is made (Inheritance Tax Act 1984 ss 150 and 236(3)). This equitable jurisdiction has always been described as a jurisdiction to relieve against the consequence of a mistake or as a jurisdiction to set aside unilateral transactions entered into under a mistake. This description of the jurisdiction suggests strongly that unless and until the transaction is set aside (or relief is given) it did have some legal effect. In other words the transaction is voidable rather than void ab initio. In this respect the position differs from the effect of mistake at common law on what appears to be a contract. But that is not surprising since the equitable jurisdiction is wider than the common law principle. In Re Barr’s Settlement Trusts; Abacus Trust Co (Isle of Man) v Barr [2003] EWHC 114 (Ch), [2003] 1 All ER 763, [2003] Ch 409 Lightman J considered the question whether an exercise of discretion by trustees, which was vitiated by the Hastings-Bass principle, was void or voidable. He described resolution of that issue as of ‘critical significance’ in the case before him. He decided that the exercise was voidable rather than void. The question was discussed by Lloyd LJ in Sieff v Fox, but as he recognised, nothing turned on the distinction in that case. He said that Lightman J’s view was ‘open to doubt’ although he also expressed the view that to hold that an appointment was voidable rather than void was attractive. He was of course discussing the Hastings-Bass principle rather than the wider equitable jurisdiction to relieve against the consequences of a mistake.
[32]
In Barrow v Isaacs & Son [1891] 1 QB 417 the tenant of a warehouse in the City of London sublet it. The head lease contained a covenant against subletting without the landlord’s consent such consent not to be unreasonably withheld. However, the tenant forgot to ask the landlord for consent and the landlord claimed to forfeit the lease. The majority judgment of the Court of Appeal was delivered by Kay LJ. He held that forgetting to ask for consent could properly be described as making a mistake. It was this part of the judgment that Eve J relied on in Lady Hood of Avalon v Mackinnon. However, although a relevant mistake was made, the court nevertheless refused relief. In describing the issues Kay LJ said ([1891] 1 QB 417 at 425):
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‘But of course this left unaffected the undoubted jurisdiction to relieve in case of breach occasioned by fraud, accident, surprise, or mistake. At present the only one of these we have to deal with is mistake; and the questions are, (1.) whether the facts I have described amount to mistake; and, if so, (2.) whether in its discretion the Court will relieve.’
[33]
Having held that there was a relevant mistake Kay LJ went on to say (at 426):
‘It is an entirely different question whether on the ground of such a mistake equity, in the exercise of its discretionary jurisdiction, would relieve a man from a forfeiture incurred by his own gross carelessness.’
[34]
Relief was refused. If the exercise of the jurisdiction is discretionary (as Kay LJ undoubtedly said it was) it must follow that if as a matter of discretion relief is refused the impugned transaction will stand. If it stands it will have the effect it purports to have. I do not see how such a result is possible unless the impugned transaction is voidable rather than void ab initio.
[35]
I hold therefore that the assignment of the reversionary interest in the shares made on 3 February 2004 is voidable. It is unjust for the donees to retain the gift in circumstances which impose upon the donor an unintended liability to a very substantial amount of inheritance tax. There is no reason why I should refrain from exercising my discretion to set it aside; and I do so.
Order accordingly.
Katie Green Barrister.
R v Clarke and another
[2008] 2 All ER 665
[2008] UKHL 8
Categories: CRIMINAL; Criminal Procedure
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, LORD CARSWELL AND LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD
Hearing Date(s): 28 NOVEMBER 2007, 6 FEBRUARY 2008
Indictment – Validity – Signature of proper officer – Bill of indictment required to be ‘signed’ by proper officer of the court – Indictment only signed by proper officer after amendment at end of trial – Defendants convicted – Whether indictment valid – Whether trial valid – Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, s 2(1).
On 23 April 1997 the defendants were each convicted of causing grievous bodily harm with intent contrary to the Offences against the Person Act 1861. When the trial of the defendants had begun, although leave to prefer voluntary bills had previously been given on two occasions, there was no signed indictment before the Crown Court. The evidence at the trial ended on Friday 18 April. On Monday 21 April 1997 the defendants were arraigned on an additional (but alternative) count of inflicting grievous bodily harm. The existing form of indictment was then amended by leave of the trial judge, a copy of the form as amended was signed by the proper officer of the court and the amended form was treated as the indictment upon which the jury convicted (although not on the added count). The defendants’ appeal against conviction was referred to the Court of Appeal by the Criminal Cases Review Commission, the issues being whether, having regard to the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933 the absence of a signed indictment at the outset of and during most of the trial had the legal effect of invalidating the proceedings and, if so, whether such invalidity had been cured by the late signature of the proper officer. The 1933 Act had, originally, in s 1a, abolished grand juries and had provided that where a bill of indictment had been signed in accordance with the provisions of the 1933 Act the indictment was to be proceeded with in the same manner as it would have been proceeded with before the commencement of the Act if it had been found by a grand jury. Section 2(1)b provided that a bill of indictment charging any person with an indictable offence could be preferred by any person before a court in which the person charged could lawfully be indicted for that offence, and where a bill had been so preferred the proper officer of the court, if he were satisfied that the necessary requirements had been complied with, was to sign the bill ‘and it shall thereupon become an indictment and be proceeded with accordingly’. If the judge or chairman of the court was satisfied that the requirements had been complied with he could direct the proper officer to sign the bill. The Court of Appeal dismissed the defendants’ appeal, considering itself bound by authority that in such circumstances the court should concentrate first on whether it had been the intention of Parliament that a procedural failure should render the proceedings invalid and secondly on the interests of justice and particularly whether the procedural failure had caused any
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prejudice to the parties such as to make it unjust to proceed further. The Court of Appeal found that no prejudice or consequential injustice had been identified and also held that, in the absence of prejudice, the proceedings had been validated by the signature of the indictment by the proper officer in the course of the trial. The defendants appealed.
Held – When it had enacted ss 1 and 2 of the 1933 Act Parliament had intended the consequence, if a bill of indictment was preferred but not signed by the proper officer, to be that the bill should not become an indictment unless and until it was duly signed. Parliament had intended the consequence, if there were a bill of indictment but no indictment, to be that there could be no valid trial on indictment if there were no indictment. The answers to those questions remained the same now. The duty of the court was to apply the law, which was sometimes technical; it might be thought that if the state exercised its coercive power to put a citizen on trial for serious crime a certain degree of formality was not out of place. In the instant case, the duty in question had been easy to perform. Moreover, the late signing of the amended bill could not validate an invalid trial almost concluded. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed and the convictions quashed (see [5], [10], [17]–[21], [23]–[26], [29], [31], [38]–[40], [43], below).
R v Morais [1988] 3 All ER 161 approved.
R v Sekhon, R v McFaul, R v Knights [2003] 3 All ER 508 and R v Soneji [2005] 4 All ER 321 considered.
R v Ashton, R v Draz, R v O’Reilly [2007] 1 WLR 181 explained.
Notes
For how an indictment is preferred and for voluntary bills, see 11(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) paras 1205, 1207.
Section 1 of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933 was repealed by the Courts Act 1971, s 56(4), Sch 11, Pt IV.
For the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, s 2, see 12(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 242.
Cases referred to in opinions
Christie v HM Advocate 2004 JC 13, HC of Just.
Crawford v HM Advocate [2005] HCJAC, 2005 SCCR 628.
Guiseppe Sidoli’s Case (1833) 1 Lewin 55, 168 ER 957.
Jane Denton’s Case (1823) 1 Lewin 53, 168 ER 956.
Liverpool Borough Bank v Turner (1860) 2 De GF & J 502, 45 ER 715.
London & Clydeside Estates Ltd v Aberdeen DC [1979] 3 All ER 876, [1980] 1 WLR 182, HL.
New Southgate Metals Ltd v Islington London BC [1996] Crim LR 334, DC.
Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority (1998) 194 CLR 355, Aus HC.
R v Angel [1968] 2 All ER 607n, [1968] 1 WLR 669, CA.
R v Ashton, R v Draz, R v O’Reilly [2006] EWCA Crim 794, [2007] 1 WLR 181.
R v Cairns (1983) 87 Cr App Rep 287, CA.
R v Farooki (1984) 77 Cr App Rep 257, CA.
R v Ford (1607) Yelv 99.
R v Gee [1936] 2 All ER 89, [1936] 2 KB 442, CCA.
R v Hodges (George David) (5 June 1981, unreported), CA.
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R v Immigration Appeal Tribunal, ex p Jeyeanthan, Ravichandran v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1999] 3 All ER 231, [2000] 1 WLR 354, CA.
R v Jackson [1997] 2 Cr App Rep 497, CA.
R v Janceski [2005] NSWCCA 281, (2005) 223 ALR 580.
R v Laming (1989) 90 Cr App Rep 450, CA.
R v Morais [1988] 3 All ER 161, CA.
R v Newland [1988] 2 All ER 891, [1988] QB 402, [1988] 2 WLR 382, CA.
R v Price (6 November 1985, unreported), CA.
R v Sekhon, R v McFaul, R v Knights [2002] EWCA Crim 2945, [2003] 3 All ER 508, [2003] 1 WLR 1655.
R v Sheerin (1976) 64 Cr App Rep 68, CA.
R v Soffe (1982) 75 Cr App Rep 133, CA.
R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340, [2005] 3 WLR 303.
R v Stewart (1990) 91 Cr App Rep 301, CA.
R v Thompson (1846) 1 Cox CC 268.
R v Thompson [1975] 2 All ER 1028, [1975] 1 WLR 1425, CA.
Seal v Chief Constable of South Wales Police [2007] UKHL 31, [2007] 4 All ER 177, [2007] 1 WLR 1910.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
A-G’s Ref (No 3 of 1999) [2001] 1 All ER 577, [2001] 2 AC 91, [2001] 2 WLR 56, HL.
British Columbia (A-G) v Canada (A-G) [1994] 2 SCR 41, Can SC.
Charles v Judicial and Legal Service Commission [2002] UKPC 34, [2003] 2 LRC 422.
Crane v DPP [1921] 2 AC 299, [1921] All ER Rep 19, HL.
Doorson v Netherlands (1996) 22 EHRR 330, [1996] ECHR 20524/92, ECt HR.
Myers v DPP [1964] 2 All ER 881, [1965] AC 1001, [1964] 3 WLR 145, HL.
New Zealand Institute of Agricultural Science Inc v Ellesmere County [1976] 1 NZLR 630, Wellington CA.
Pupino, Criminal proceedings against Case C-105/03 [2006] All ER (EC) 142, [2006] QB 83, [2005] 3 WLR 1102, ECJ.
R (on the application of Jackson) v A-G [2005] UKHL 56, [2005] 4 All ER 1253, [2006] 1 AC 262, [2005] 3 WLR 733.
R (on the application of Robinson) v Sutton Coldfield Magistrates’ Court [2006] EWHC 307 (Admin), [2006] 4 All ER 1029, DC.
R v Booth [1999] 1 Cr App Rep 457, CA.
R v Burke [2004] EWCA Crim 2859, [2004] All ER (D) 344 (Nov).
R v C [2006] EWCA Crim 2132.
R v Cain [1984] 2 All ER 737, [1985] AC 46, [1984] 3 WLR 393, HL.
R v Cronin [1940] 1 All ER 618, CCA.
R v Rose [1982] 2 All ER 731, [1982] AC 822, [1982] 3 WLR 192, HL.
R v Tarrant [1988] Crim LR 342, CA.
R v Thwaites [2006] EWCA Crim 3235, [2006] All ER (D) 313 (Nov).
R v Trenham [2006] EWCA Crim 2393, [2006] All ER (D) 101 (Jan).
SN v Sweden (2004) 39 EHRR 304, ECt HR.
Appeal
Ronald Augustus Clarke and James Andrew Francis McDaid appealed with leave of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 7 November 2006 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Pill LJ, Dobbs and Underhill JJ) on 25 May 2006 ([2006] EWCA Crim 1196) from their convictions on 23 April 1997 in the Crown
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Court at Worcester after a trial before Judge Mott and a jury of causing grievous bodily harm with intent contrary to s 18 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861. The Court of Appeal certified that a point of law of general public importance was involved in the decision. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Bingham of Cornhill.
Joel Bennathan QC and Peter Wilcock (instructed by Hadgkiss Hughes & Beale, Birmingham) for the appellants.
David Perry QC and Duncan Penny (instructed by the Director of Public Prosecutions) for the Crown.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
6 February 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1]
My Lords, on 23 April 1997 in the Crown Court at Worcester each of the appellants was convicted by a jury of causing grievous bodily harm with intent contrary to s 18 of the Offences against the Person Act 1861. For that offence each was sentenced to 12 years’ imprisonment. The first appellant received a concurrent sentence for another offence and the second appellant received a consecutive sentence of two years for other offences, making a total sentence in his case of 14 years. For the purposes of this appeal, referred to the Court of Appeal by the Criminal Cases Review Commission, it is accepted that when the trial of the appellants began in April 1997, although leave to prefer voluntary bills had previously been given on two occasions, there was no signed indictment before the Crown Court. The evidence at the trial ended on Friday 18 April. On Monday 21 April 1997 the appellants were arraigned on an additional (but alternative) count of inflicting grievous bodily harm contrary to s 20 of the 1861 Act. The existing form of indictment was then amended by leave of the trial judge, a copy of the form as amended was signed by the proper officer of the court and the amended form was treated as the indictment upon which the jury convicted (although not on the added count). The short questions to be resolved in this appeal thus arise: whether the absence of a signed indictment at the outset of and during most of the trial had the legal effect of invalidating the proceedings? And, if so, whether such invalidity was cured by the late signature of the proper officer?
[2]
At the heart of the issues to be decided lie ss 1 and 2 of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933 which, as enacted and omitting provisions not immediately germane to this appeal, provide:
‘1.—(1) Subject to the provisions of this section grand juries are hereby abolished, but where a bill of indictment has been signed in accordance with the provisions of this Act, the indictment shall be proceeded with in the same manner as it would have been proceeded with before the commencement of this Act if it had been found by a grand jury, and all enactments and rules of law relating to procedure in connection with indictable offences shall have effect subject only to such modifications as are rendered necessary by the provisions of this section and of the section next following.
(2) Where at the commencement of this Act any person has obtained the direction or consent in writing of a judge of the High Court for the
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preferment of an indictment under the Vexatious Indictments Act 1859, the direction or consent shall have effect as if it were a direction or consent for the preferment of a bill of indictment under this Act . . .
2.—(1) Subject to the provisions of this section, a bill of indictment charging any person with an indictable offence may be preferred by any person before a court in which the person charged may lawfully be indicted for that offence, and where a bill of indictment has been so preferred the proper officer of the court shall, if he is satisfied that the requirements of the next following subsection have been complied with, sign the bill, and it shall thereupon become an indictment and be proceeded with accordingly:
Provided that if the judge or chairman of the court is satisfied that the said requirements have been complied with, he may, on the application of the prosecutor or of his own motion, direct the proper officer to sign the bill and the bill shall be signed accordingly.
(2) Subject as hereinafter provided no bill of indictment charging any person with an indictable offence shall be preferred unless either—(a) the person charged has been committed for trial for the offence; or (b) the bill is preferred by the direction or with the consent of a judge of the High Court or pursuant to an order made under section nine of the Perjury Act 1911:
Provided that—(i) where the person charged has been committed for trial, the bill of indictment against him may include, either in substitution for or in addition to counts charging the offence for which he was committed, any counts founded on facts or evidence disclosed in any examination or deposition taken before a justice in his presence, being counts which may lawfully be joined in the same indictment; (ii) a charge of a previous conviction of an offence or of being a habitual criminal or a habitual drunkard may, notwithstanding that it was not included in the committal or in any such direction or consent as aforesaid, be included in any bill of indictment.
(3) If a bill of indictment preferred otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the last foregoing subsection has been signed by the proper officer of the court, the indictment shall be liable to be quashed:
Provided that—(a) if the bill contains several counts, and the said provisions have been complied with as respects one or more of them, those counts only that were wrongly included shall be quashed under this subsection; and (b) where a person who has been committed for trial is convicted on any indictment or any count of an indictment, that indictment or count shall not be quashed under this subsection in any proceedings on appeal, unless application was made at the trial that it should be so quashed . . .
(5) For the purposes of this section the expression “judge or chairman” includes a deputy recorder, deputy chairman, or acting chairman, and the expression “proper officer” means in relation to a court of assize the clerk of assize, and in relation to a court of quarter sessions the clerk of the peace, and also includes in relation to any court such officer as may be prescribed by rules made under this section.’
[3]
The genesis of these provisions is amply documented and is not in doubt. Historically, almost all cases came before a judge and trial jury following consideration of the proposed charges by a grand jury. The charges which it was proposed to prosecute were set out in what was called a bill of indictment, and
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that was laid before the grand jury. It heard witnesses and decided whether the case should go to trial or not. If the grand jury thought it should, they wrote on it ‘a true bill’ (formerly billa vera) and handed it down. The bill so endorsed and handed down thereupon became an indictment. If they decided the case should not go to trial they marked it ‘no true bill’ (formerly ignoramus): in that case there was no indictment and the case did not go to trial on the presentation of that grand jury.
[4]
By the early 1930s grand juries were generally agreed to have outlived their usefulness and a Committee on the Business of the Courts under the chairmanship of Lord Hanworth MR, in an Interim Report published in March 1933, recommended their abolition. By this time almost all cases came to trial by jury following a committal by justices or stipendiary magistrates after detailed consideration of the evidence, or by the leave of a High Court judge to prefer a voluntary bill, again after detailed consideration of the evidence. (Proceedings pursuant to a coroner’s inquisition under s 5 of the Coroners Act 1887 were a small and only partial exception.) The perfunctory consideration given by the grand jury was recognised to cause delay, expense and inconvenience and to add little save the occasion for a social junket. But the abolition of the grand jury posed a problem: how was a bill of indictment, in itself a document of no legal effect, to become an indictment upon which a defendant would stand trial (perhaps, in 1933, for his life) before judge and jury? This was not a trivial question since, as Sir James Fitzjames Stephen had said, in A History of the Criminal Law of England (1883), vol I, p 274, ‘The indictment is the foundation of the record in all criminal cases’.
[5]
The answer given by s 2(1) to the question just posed would appear to be very clear: a bill of indictment would become an indictment when duly signed by a proper officer of the court. That is what the subsection provides:
‘where a bill of indictment has been so preferred the proper officer of the court shall, if he is satisfied that the requirements of the next following subsection have been complied with, sign the bill, and it shall thereupon become an indictment and be proceeded with accordingly . . .’
This reading is entirely consistent with the provision in s 1(1) that ‘where a bill of indictment has been signed in accordance with the provisions of this Act, the indictment shall be proceeded with’ as if found by a grand jury. It is also consistent with s 2(3): only if the bill of indictment has been signed by the proper officer is there an indictment which is liable to be quashed. There is, as the Court of Appeal observed in R v Stewart (1990) 91 Cr App Rep 301 at 304, 306, a fundamental distinction between the preferment of a bill of indictment and the signing of the bill: it is the signing of the bill which converts it into an indictment.
[6]
The legislative history of these provisions strengthens this reading. As originally drafted, cl 1(1) of the Bill laid before Parliament referred to ‘an indictment presented’ but made no reference to signing. Clause 2(1) similarly made no express reference to signing: the bill of indictment was to be submitted to the judge or chairman of the court and certified under the hand of the clerk or other officer of the court as having been so submitted, and was thereupon to become an indictment. These clauses were criticised as lacking clarity, and the amended clauses were introduced to put the matter beyond doubt.
[7]
Under the superseded grand jury regime the indictment was authenticated by the delivery of the bill found to be a true bill by the grand jury: Jane Denton’s Case (1823) 1 Lewin 53, 168 ER 956; Guiseppe Sidoli’s Case (1833)
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1 Lewin 55, 168 ER 957. With the abolition of the grand jury it was thought necessary to substitute a new means of authentication. This was the role of the proper officer under s 2(1) of the 1933 Act. He was to sign the bill, but only ‘if he is satisfied that the requirements of the next following subsection have been complied with’, namely that the person charged has been committed for trial or that the bill has been preferred at the direction or with the leave of a High Court judge or pursuant to an order under s 9 of the Perjury Act 1911. It is furthermore incumbent on the proper officer in an appropriate case to have regard to the provisos to sub-s (2), in particular to ensure that any counts in the bill charging offences for which the defendant has not been committed are founded on evidence disclosed in depositions and are properly joined. Thus the role of the proper officer was not envisaged as purely formal, although it would be so where the judge or chairman, himself satisfied that the requirements of sub-s (2) had been complied with, directed the proper officer to sign the bill. In R v Stewart (at 307), the Court of Appeal accepted that the proper officer had satisfied himself that the person charged had been committed for trial for the offence contained in the indictment or had been the subject of a voluntary bill or an order under s 9 of the 1911 Act in compliance with s 2(2) of the 1933 Act. This is how the procedure was intended to operate. In most cases, no doubt, the proper officer’s task would be routine, but it would not always be so.
[8]
Until recently, the jurisdictional requirements of s 2 of the 1933 Act were strictly insisted upon. In R v Gee [1936] 2 All ER 89, [1936] 2 KB 442 the proceedings committing the defendants for trial were held by the Court of Criminal Appeal (Lord Hewart CJ, du Parcq and Goddard JJ) to be so defective that there was no lawful committal. It followed that the document purporting to be an indictment was not an indictment and the appellants could not be tried on it. Giving the judgment of the court ([1936] 2 KB 442 at 446–447), Goddard J said:
‘Considering that since 1933 a committal by magistrates is substituted for a presentment by a grand jury, it is of the greatest importance that there should be no deviation from the requirements of the Statute.’
The convictions were quashed. In R v Thompson [1975] 2 All ER 1028 at 1032, [1975] 1 WLR 1425 at 1430, the prosecution fell foul of the principle ‘that it is only once that an indictment can be preferred upon the basis of one committal’. It followed on the facts of the case that the trial had taken place upon an invalid indictment not properly founded on a committal nor preferred by leave of a High Court judge and the trial was therefore a nullity. The convictions were quashed. In R v Cairns (1983) 87 Cr App Rep 287 a High Court judge had given leave ‘to prefer this bill of indictment containing one count initialled by me’. The trial judge, rightly thinking that this and other counts should be tried together, authorised an entirely new indictment containing these other counts and the count in the voluntary bill. While recognising the point as technical and devoid of merit, the Court of Appeal held that the judge had had no jurisdiction to act as he had under s 2(2) of the 1933 Act. It followed that the appellant had been tried on an indictment which was a nullity, and his conviction was quashed. In R v Newland [1988] 2 All ER 891, [1988] QB 402 the trial had proceeded on an invalid indictment. While recognising ([1988] 2 All ER 891 at 894, [1988] QB 402 at 406) that there was no merit in the appeal at all, the appellant having pleaded guilty, his appeal was allowed and his conviction quashed.
[9]
The authority closest on its facts to the present is R v Morais [1988] 3 All ER 161. A High Court judge had given leave to prefer a voluntary bill against the
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appellant, who was arraigned on six counts in the voluntary bill. He pleaded not guilty, was convicted on four counts and was sentenced. Relying on s 2 of the 1933 Act, he appealed on the short ground that the voluntary bill had never been signed by the proper officer: without a signature, he argued, there could be no indictment, and without an indictment there could be no valid trial. In a judgment given by Lord Lane CJ, sitting with McCowan and Pill JJ, the Court of Appeal upheld that submission. The court found considerable value in an unreported judgment of the Court of Appeal in R v Hodges (George David) (5 June 1981, unreported), in which Peter Pain J had said:
‘It seems to us that it is impossible for a criminal trial to start without there being a valid indictment to which the defendant can plead, and that the bill of indictment does not become an indictment until it is signed.’
By contrast, the court derived no assistance from another unreported decision (R v Price (6 November 1985, unreported)) in which the facts were similar save that the defendant had pleaded guilty: the court on that occasion had considered the overall justice of the case without close attention to the jurisdictional question and without considering whether the words in s 1 of the 1933 Act were mandatory or directory. Prosecuting counsel submitted that the absence of a signature was of no consequence since, with the form signed by the High Court judge in his possession, the proper officer had had nothing to consider and had had no choice but to sign it. Lord Lane, however, observed (at 164):
‘It seems to us that that argument to some extent tends to beg the question. Either the words are mandatory or they are not. If they are mandatory, it does not matter that there is nothing left for the proper officer to do except to sign. If on the other hand they are not mandatory, then it does not matter that there is something left for the officer to do and he still does not sign the indictment.’
Prosecuting counsel went on to cite Liverpool Borough Bank v Turner (1860) 2 De GF & J 502 at 507–508, 45 ER 715 at 718, where the court was enjoined by Lord Campbell LC to look at the importance of the provisions in question and to look at the real intention of the legislature in deciding what the consequences of non-compliance were intended to be. This was the approach which the court followed. As Lord Lane put it (at 165):
‘The answer, we feel, is to be found in the intentions of the draftsman in the first place. It seems to us that this 1933 Act was intended, so to speak, to fill the gap which was left by the abolition of the grand jury. It was intended to ensure not only that the proper requirements had been fulfilled before a trial proper could start, but that also there should be a certification by way of the signature of the proper officer to indicate that he had inquired into the situation and satisfied himself that the requirements of the subsection had properly been complied with. We have come to the conclusion therefore that it is not merely a comparatively meaningless formality that the proper officer’s signature should be appended, but it is, as the words of the 1933 Act itself prima facie indicate, a necessary condition precedent to the existence of a proper indictment at all that the bill should be signed and only then and thereupon does it become an indictment. Therefore in the present case there was no valid indictment, there was no trial, no valid verdict and no valid sentence.’
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Recognising the technicality of the defect, the court ordered a venire de novo so that the case would be tried again.
[10]
The authority of R v Morais was not questioned in R v Jackson [1997] 2 Cr App Rep 497 although, on the special facts of that case, the Court of Appeal (Judge LJ, Longmore and Smedley JJ) reached a different conclusion. A number of defendants were charged in a 17-count indictment (‘indictment 1’) which was duly signed. The prosecution then brought forward two fresh indictments, one (‘indictment 2’) containing a single count against a single defendant and the other (‘indictment 3’) containing three counts, substantially drawn from indictment 1, against all the defendants. The three counts in indictment 3 were: conspiracy to rob (count 1), possession of a prohibited weapon (count 2) and conspiracy to handle stolen goods (count 3). Indictments 2 and 3 were duly signed. Doubts then arose whether there was sufficient nexus between count 3 and counts 1 and 2 in indictment 3 to justify its joinder in the same indictment. The judge gave leave to prefer two fresh indictments, one (‘indictment 4’) to contain counts 1 and 2 in indictment 3, the second (‘indictment 5’) to contain count 3 in indictment 3. The judge gave leave for service of indictments 4 and 5 to be effected and directed the proper officer to sign those indictments out of time. The defendants were arraigned on indictments 4 and 5, and the trial proceeded on indictment 4, some of the defendants pleading guilty and the others being convicted. They received substantial sentences. But a problem arose because the proper officer, although directed by the judge to do so, omitted to sign the bills of indictment. The Court of Appeal rejected (at 503) the suggestion that R v Morais could be distinguished on the basis that it had involved a voluntary bill, but found two further and crucial distinctions. First, the counts on which the defendants had been convicted in indictment 4 had both been included in indictments 1 and 3, both of which had been signed and for that purpose, so far as necessary, checked by the proper officer. Secondly, the judge had exercised the discretion granted to him by the proviso to s 2(1) of the 1933 Act to direct the proper officer in open court to sign indictments 4 and 5 and she had been obliged to do so, lacking (as a result of the direction) any independent jurisdiction of her own. The court declined to accept that the lawful direction of the trial judge could be frustrated and rendered valueless because the proper officer, for whatever reason, failed to follow his direction. It was not suggested in argument that this case was, on its facts, wrongly decided, and I would for my part endorse it.
[11]
The House was referred to two cases recently decided in other jurisdictions. The first was Crawford v HM Advocate [2005] HCJAC, 2005 SCCR 628, a decision of the High Court of Justiciary (the Lord Justice Clerk (Gill), Lord Osborne and Lord Johnston). Section 64(4) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 requires that indictments in proceedings before the sheriff sitting with a jury shall be signed by the procurator fiscal and that the words ‘By Authority of Her Majesty’s Advocate’ shall be prefixed to the signature of the procurator fiscal. In the case under appeal the indictment bore a signature by a person described as ‘Acting Procurator Fiscal’ but the words ‘By Authority of Her Majesty’s Advocate’ did not appear. Distinguishing Christie v HM Advocate 2004 JC 13 in which the words ‘By Authority’ above the signature were held to be sufficient, the court held the omission to be fatal to the indictment. The court pointed out that this unsatisfactory result was entirely the fault of the Crown and allowed the appeal.
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[12]
The second authority was R v Janceski [2005] NSWCCA 281, (2005) 223 ALR 580, a decision of the Court of Criminal Appeal of New South Wales, sitting as a five-judge court under the chairmanship of Spigelman CJ. Section 126 of the Criminal Procedure Act 1986 required an indictment to be signed by any one of a number of persons specified in the section, including a person authorised by the Director of Public Prosecutions (DPP) to sign indictments, and empowered the DPP by order in writing to authorise persons to sign indictments for him and on his behalf. The appeal concerned an indictment presented at trial which had been signed by a barrister in private practice not authorised by the DPP in writing to sign indictments on his behalf. Having examined the matter in great detail, and taken account of much authority including both R v Morais and R v Jackson, the court unanimously held the indictment to be invalid. Remedial legislation has since been introduced.
[13]
In a notably able and attractive argument for the appellants Mr Joel Bennathan QC relied on the language of the 1933 Act, construed in its historical setting, and on the construction consistently put on it, until recently, by the courts to make a simple but compelling submission. Sections 1 and 2 of the 1933 Act require a bill of indictment to be signed by the proper officer before it can become an indictment. The task of the court is to ascertain from the terms of the Act what Parliament intended the consequence to be if a bill of indictment is not duly signed. Setting aside extraordinary facts such as those considered in R v Jackson, the answer is clear: if a bill is not signed, it does not become an indictment; if there is no indictment, there can be no valid trial on indictment. Parliament did not intend that a defendant could be tried on indictment without an indictment.
[14]
The lynch-pin of Mr David Perry QC’s argument for the Crown is the recent decision of the Court of Appeal (Rose LJ, Penry-Davey and Fulford JJ) in R v Ashton, R v Draz, R v O’Reilly [2006] EWCA Crim 794, [2007] 1 WLR 181, which must be examined in a little detail. Before the court were three applications for leave, and the facts of the three cases were different. Giving the judgment of the court, Fulford J addressed at [4] and [5] what he described as the central issue of principle:
‘[4] The outcome of each of these cases essentially depends on the proper application of the principle or principles to be derived from the decision of the House of Lords in R v Soneji ([2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321) [2006] 1 AC 340, together with the earlier decision of this court in R v Sekhon ([2002] EWCA Crim 2945, [2003] 3 All ER 508) [2003] 1 WLR 1655. Indeed, these three applications demonstrate how far-reaching the effect of those authorities is likely to be whenever there is a breakdown in the procedures whereby a defendant’s case progresses through the courts (as opposed to the markedly different situation when a court acts without jurisdiction). In our judgment it is now wholly clear that whenever a court is confronted by failure to take a required step, properly or at all, before a power is exercised (“a procedural failure”), the court should first ask itself whether the intention of the legislature was that any act done following that procedural failure should be invalid. If the answer to that question is no, then the court should go on to consider the interests of justice generally, and most particularly whether there is a real possibility that either the prosecution or the defence may suffer prejudice on account of the procedural failure. If there is such a
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risk, the court must decide whether it is just to allow the proceedings to continue.
[5] On the other hand, if a court acts without jurisdiction—if, for instance, a magistrates’ court purports to try a defendant on a charge of homicide—then the proceedings will usually be invalid.’
R v Sekhon concerned a number of errors in the conduct of confiscation proceedings, some of which were held to be excusable procedural errors and others to be errors depriving the court of jurisdiction. R v Soneji concerned the same subject matter. The cases are significant in their rejection, building on dicta of Lord Hailsham of St Marylebone LC in London & Clydeside Estates Ltd v Aberdeen DC [1979] 3 All ER 876 at 883, [1980] 1 WLR 182 at 189–190, the judgment of the High Court of Australia in Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority (1998) 194 CLR 355 at 390 (para 93), and the decision of the Court of Appeal in R v Immigration Appeal Tribunal, ex p Jeyeanthan, Ravichandran v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1999] 3 All ER 231, [2000] 1 WLR 354, of the old approach of asking whether procedural requirements were mandatory or directory, instead asking what Parliament intended the consequence to be of non-compliance with the requirement in question. While I would myself express the decision to be made rather differently, I would accept the general validity of the distinction drawn by Fulford J in the paragraphs of his judgment quoted above. Many errors pertaining to indictments fall squarely into the procedural category, as exemplified by cases such as R v Sheerin (1976) 64 Cr App Rep 68, R v Soffe (1982) 75 Cr App Rep 133, R v Farooki (1984) 77 Cr App Rep 257 and R v Laming (1989) 90 Cr App Rep 450.
[15]
Having reviewed the relevant legislation, the judge turned to the three individual cases. The defects in the case of R v O’Reilly were held (at [42]) to be clearly and wholly jurisdictional in nature, given that the court had no power to deal with the defendant. Leave to appeal was accordingly granted and the conviction was quashed. In the case of R v Ashton the procedural failure was judged to be minor and leave was refused. The case of R v Draz was more immediately germane to the present case since the second and third questions posed for consideration (para [65]) were whether the judge had been correct to conclude, when following the procedure under para 7 of Sch 3 to the Crime and Disorder Act 1998, that it was unnecessary for an indictment to be preferred and, if an indictment should have been preferred, whether the absence of a signed indictment was fatal to the validity of the proceedings. Paragraph 7 of Sch 3 to the 1998 Act opened:
‘(1) Subject to paragraph 13 below, this paragraph applies where—(a) a person has been sent for trial under section 51 of this Act but has not been arraigned; and (b) the person is charged on an indictment which (following amendment of the indictment, or as a result of an application under paragraph 2 above, or for any other reason) includes no offence that is triable only on indictment . . .
(3) The court shall cause to be read to the accused each count of the indictment that charges an offence triable either way.’
Counsel for the Crown (then as now Mr Perry) accepted (at [66]) that the procedure envisaged by para 7 of Sch 3 was premised on the existence of an indictment, but argued that the absence of an indictment, of itself and without more, did not affect the validity of the proceedings because this would not accord
Page 676 of [2008] 2 All ER 665
with the intention of Parliament and no prejudice had been caused to the defendant such as to make it unjust for the convictions to stand. Fulford J in his judgment recited the terms of s 2(1) of the 1933 Act and continued:
‘[74] As Mr Perry has helpfully reminded us, there are several authorities which suggest that the absence of a valid indictment renders any subsequent trial a “nullity”: R v Thompson ([1975] 2 All ER 1028) [1978] 1 WLR 1425; R v Cairns (1983) 87 Cr App R 287; R v Morais ([1988] 3 All ER 161); R v Newland ([1988] 2 All ER 891) [1988] QB 402.
[75] In R v Morais ([1988] 3 All ER 161), the Court of Appeal quashed the appellant’s conviction for supplying drugs and ordered a retrial on the basis that the indictment had not been signed by the officer of the Crown Court. In that case the court concluded that the proper officer’s signature was not “a comparatively meaningless formality” but a “necessary condition precedent to the existence of a proper indictment” [at 165] and that in the absence of a proper indictment the trial was a nullity.
[76] The decision in R v Morais was distinguished in R v Jackson (Andrew) [1997] 2 Cr App R 497. The judge directed the proper officer to sign two indictments but she failed to do so. This court held that the proper officer’s signature was a “meaningless” clerical “formality” and she was deemed to have signed it. In R v Laming (1989) 90 Cr App R 450, the appropriate officer of the Crown Court signed the indictment on the front page rather than after the last count as required by the Indictment Rules 1971 (SI 1971/1253). On those facts, the court on appeal determined that the indictment was valid.
[77] As Mr Perry has submitted, it appears, therefore, that even before the decisions in R v Soneji ([2005] 4 All ER 321) [2006] 1 AC 340 and R v Sekhon ([2003] 3 All ER 508) [2003] 1 WLR 1655 not every defect in an indictment would necessarily render it invalid, although the earlier authorities consistently made it clear that the absence of a valid indictment had the effect of rendering the trial proceedings of no legal effect. That conclusion was reached because the primary focus of the court in each of the cases was on whether the breach was of a “mandatory” statutory provision. As we have set out above, the sea change wrought by the decisions in Soneji and Sekhon is that the court should concentrate in future on, first, the intention of Parliament (viz was it intended that a procedural failure should render the proceedings invalid) and, second, the interests of justice and particularly whether the procedural failure caused any prejudice to any of the parties, such as to make it unjust to proceed further.
[78] Here, the judge and the parties proceeded on the basis that the charges before the court identified the criminality alleged by the prosecution and it was accepted there was no prejudice to the defendant in this particular case when the court dealt with him absent an indictment. We stress that usually a bill of indictment should be preferred and signed and our decision in this case should not be taken as any kind of encouragement to relax that important requirement: an indictment provides a critical safeguard in that it describes the charges an accused faces with clarity and finality. However, applying the test we have described above, there are no indications that Parliament intended that proceedings would be rendered automatically invalid because an indictment had not been preferred or signed, and given no prejudice or consequential injustice have been identified, we see no reason to quash these convictions.’
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Leave was accordingly refused.
[16]
The appeal in the present case was dismissed by the Court of Appeal (Pill LJ, Dobbs and Underhill JJ) on 25 May 2006 ([2006] EWCA Crim 1196, [2006] All ER (D) 358 (May)). Giving the judgment of the court, Pill LJ summarised the contentions of the parties and concluded:
‘[30] The implications of the approach advocated in R v Soneji will need to be worked out in the many different circumstances in which parties rely on breaches of the rules, whether the rules appear in a statute or elsewhere. The case does, however, weaken the strict distinction between mandatory and directory requirements, consideration of which was at the heart of the decision in R v Morais. Whatever its implications in other circumstances, we consider that, in the present situation, we are bound by the decision of this court in R v Ashton, which is based on R v Soneji.
[31] If the principle covers R v Ashton, where there was not even a document which purported to be an indictment, it covers the present situation in which a bill of indictment has been lawfully preferred with the consent of a High Court judge, who initialled the bill accordingly, but the bill has simply not been signed by the officer of the court. The absence of that signature was a situation specifically contemplated by the court in R v Ashton, at [78]. Applying R v Ashton, the proceedings are not rendered automatically invalid because the indictment had not been signed. No prejudice or consequential injustice having been identified, the convictions should stand.
[32] We add that, given the “sea-change” identified in R v Ashton, the signature, in the course of the trial, of an amended indictment by the proper officer of the court, is material. It was upon an indictment signed, and properly so-called, that convictions were entered. In the absence of prejudice to the defendants, we would also hold that the proceedings were thereby validated. That approach has something in common with the approach of the court in R v Jackson [1997] 2 Cr App Rep 497 where a fiction was employed to create an indictment within the meaning of s 2(1) of the 1933 Act.’
[17]
Mr Perry drew attention to the approval of R v Ashton expressed by a number of distinguished academic authorities, who saw it as a victory of substance over formalism. It is always, of course, lamentable if defendants whose guilt there is no reason to doubt escape their just desserts, although the present appellants, refused leave to appeal (on other points) by the single judge in 1997 and the full court in 1998, have now served the operative parts of their sentences. Technicality is always distasteful when it appears to contradict the merits of a case. But the duty of the court is to apply the law, which is sometimes technical, and it may be thought that if the state exercises its coercive power to put a citizen on trial for serious crime a certain degree of formality is not out of place. In this case, as in Crawford v HM Advocate 2005 SCCR 628, the duty in question was easy to perform, although here the failure to perform it was entirely the fault of the proper officer.
[18]
What did Parliament intend the consequence to be, when it enacted ss 1 and 2 of the 1933 Act, if a bill of indictment was preferred but not signed by the proper officer? That, as I think both parties agree, is the question to be answered in this case. Although s 1 has been repealed and s 2 has been amended, it is not suggested that the answer to the question has changed. The ‘always speaking’ principle has no application. The answer to the question now is the same as
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should have been given then. It is inescapable: Parliament intended that the bill should not become an indictment unless and until it was duly signed by the proper officer.
[19]
It is necessary to ask a second question. What did Parliament intend the consequence to be if there were a bill of indictment but no indictment? The answer, based on the language of the legislation and reflected in 70 years of consistent judicial interpretation, is again inescapable: Parliament intended that there could be no valid trial on indictment if there were no indictment. Parliament has never enacted, with reference to proceedings on indictment, a provision comparable with s 123 of the Magistrates’ Courts Act 1980, but even that section has received a restrictive interpretation: see New Southgate Metals Ltd v Islington London BC [1996] Crim LR 334–335.
[20]
The decisions in R v Sekhon and R v Soneji are valuable and salutary, but the effect of the sea change which they wrought has been exaggerated and they do not warrant a wholesale jettisoning of all rules affecting procedure irrespective of their legal effect. This indeed the Court of Appeal recognised in R v Ashton, as earlier in R v Sekhon. I cannot, however, accept the basis upon which the court in R v Ashton distinguished its earlier decision in R v Morais. As is evident from the passage of Lord Lane’s judgment from [1988] 3 All ER 161 at 165 quoted at [9], above, but not quoted in R v Ashton, a passage carrying all the authority of that distinguished judge, the court was not focusing on the mandatory/directory issue but was asking itself the right question. Pill LJ, although a party to the earlier decision, erred in thinking otherwise. I can see no basis upon which the court in R v Ashton could properly depart from the precedent in R v Morais, which was clearly binding on it. The court in the present case was, as a result, placed in a difficult position. The decision in R v Morais was, in any event, correct.
[21]
Neither party attached great significance in argument to the late signing of the amended bill in this case, the appellants because (in their submission) it could not validate an invalid trial almost concluded, the Crown because (in its submission) the proceedings called for no validation. The appellants’ submission is to be preferred. The appellants having been arraigned and tried without a valid indictment, I do not think the somewhat adventitious addition of a signature at the eleventh hour, without (one assumes) any consideration of the counts already in the document, could throw a blanket of legality over the invalid proceedings already conducted.
[22]
Parliament has had many opportunities over the past two decades to reverse the effect of R v Morais and the cases which preceded it had it chosen to do so. It has not. It may now be prompted to do so. Such legislation would no doubt seek to address not only the problems raised by the present case and R v Morais but also, for instance, cases where the bill of indictment is signed late, or signed by someone who is not the proper officer, or partially signed, and so on. These are matters better addressed in legislation than by piecemeal judicial decisions.
[23]
The appeals must be allowed and the appellants’ convictions quashed. They are entitled to their costs in the Court of Appeal and the House out of central funds, to be assessed in the usual way.
LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE.
[24]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in advance the opinion prepared by my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill. I regret but agree with his conclusion that the appeals of the two appellants must be allowed
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and their convictions quashed and agree with the compelling reasoning that has led him to that conclusion. My regret is that their convictions have had to be quashed on account of a defect in the proceedings that most would regard as a technicality.
LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[25]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of considering the speech of my noble and learned friend, Lord Bingham of Cornhill, in draft. I am in complete agreement with it. Accordingly, for the reasons which he gives, along with the additional observations of my noble and learned friend, Lord Brown of Eaton-under-Heywood, I too would allow the appeals.
[26]
In my view, the decision of the Court of Appeal in R v Morais [1988] 3 All ER 161 was plainly correct. The whole scheme of the legislation shows that without an indictment there cannot be a valid trial and, on the express language of s 2(1) of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, the only step which changes a bill of indictment into an indictment is the signing of the bill by the proper officer of court. That step is accordingly indispensable.
[27]
The Court of Appeal’s decision ([2006] EWCA Crim 1196, [2006] All ER (D) 358 (May)) to the contrary appears to have been based on the significance which their Lordships attached to the decision of this House in R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340, as interpreted and applied in R v Ashton, R v Draz, R v O’Reilly [2006] EWCA Crim 794, [2007] 1 WLR 181, where, at [77], Fulford J described it as contributing to a ‘sea change’ in the approach of the courts.
[28]
The true significance of the decision in R v Soneji lies, however, in the approval of the view that any classification into mandatory or directory is the end of the relevant inquiry, not the beginning, and that the better test is to ask ‘whether it was a purpose of the legislation that an act done in breach of the provision should be invalid’: Project Blue Sky Inc v Australian Broadcasting Authority (1998) 194 CLR 355 at 390 (para 93), per McHugh, Gummow, Kirby and Hayne JJ.
[29]
In R v Soneji, having applied that approach, for the reasons given in the speeches, the House concluded that it was not a purpose of the legislation that confiscation orders imposed without respecting the requirements of the statute should be invalid. In R v Morais [1988] 3 All ER 161, Lord Lane CJ adopted essentially the same approach, but concluded (at 165), that, for the legislature, the requirement for the court officer’s signature to be appended was a necessary condition precedent to the existence of a proper indictment. As Lord Bingham has shown, that was not only a correct, but an inevitable conclusion both from the language of the statute and from the legislative history.
LORD CARSWELL.
[30]
My Lords, having been convicted in 1997 of serious crimes and sentenced to substantial terms of imprisonment, the appellants now seek to have their convictions quashed on the ground that the voluntary bills of indictment had not been signed by the proper officer. The Court of Appeal ([2006] EWCA Crim 1196, [2006] All ER (D) 358 (May)) was of opinion that compliance with the requirement of such signature was not necessary in every case. They considered that where no prejudice to the appellants had been caused by the omission it would not have been the intention of Parliament that their conviction should be quashed as invalid. The argument presented on behalf of the appellants, which has been accepted by your Lordships, is that the requirement of signature by the
Page 680 of [2008] 2 All ER 665
proper officer is an integral and essential element in the presentation of an indictment and that its omission is fatal to the validity of a conviction on a charge contained in that indictment.
[31]
I see much attraction in the decision of the Court of Appeal, for the prevailing trend is in general against regarding procedural steps as mandatory requirements and in favour of the conclusion that in the absence of prejudice to any party Parliament did not intend that failure to observe the requirement of signature should entail invalidity. I am sympathetic to this approach, which dictated the conclusion of the Court of Appeal in this appeal and in R v Ashton, R v Draz, R v O’Reilly [2006] EWCA Crim 794, [2007] 1 WLR 181, but I have been persuaded by the appellants’ arguments and agree with your Lordships that the appeals should be allowed. In considering these issues I have derived assistance from the history of the function of the grand jury in its presentment of indictments and from comparison with the parallel legislation in Northern Ireland.
[32]
The procedure of the grand jury in the presentment of crimes was founded almost wholly upon ancient usage and not upon statutory enactment: Huband Juries in Ireland (1896) p 116. It was closely similar in Ireland to that obtaining in England, as the institution was imported from English law. The grand jury, or jury of presentment, was of great antiquity, having been created by Henry II in the Assize of Clarendon in 1166. It evolved over time from its early function of presenting an accusation against an accused based on the jurors’ own knowledge into its later form. In that form, which was the prevailing procedure in England until 1933 and in Northern Ireland until 1969, any person could appear before the grand jury with a bill of indictment, although in more recent times that was almost invariably the function of the prosecuting authority. The indictment found by the grand jury and presented to the court was the foundation of the record in all criminal cases, being the statement on oath by the grand jury that the prisoner committed the offence charged.
[33]
A bill, or draft indictment, was indorsed with the names of the witnesses whom it was proposed to call before the grand jury and taken by the solicitor for the prosecution to the grand jury room. The steps then followed were set out in Stephen A History of the Criminal Law of England (1883), vol I, p 274:
‘The grand jury sit by themselves and hear the witnesses one at a time, no one else being present except the solicitor for the prosecutor if he is admitted. The name of each witness examined before the grand jury is initialled by the foreman; and when they have heard enough to satisfy themselves that a primâ facie case is or is not made out against the prisoner, they endorse upon the indictment “a true bill,” or “no true bill,” as the case may be (in the days of law Latin the endorsements were “Billa Vera”, or “Ignoramus”), and come into court and hand the indictments to the clerk of assize or clerk of the peace, who says, “Gentlemen, you find a true bill,” or “no true bill” as the case may be, “against A. B. for felony or misdemeanour.” If the finding is “no true bill,” the matter drops and the prisoner is discharged, though he is liable to he indicted again. If the finding is “a true bill,” the trial proceeds and the “bill” becomes an indictment.’
The indorsement of the grand jury was parcel of the indictment and the perfection of it: Huband Juries in Ireland (1896) p 188; R v Ford (1607) Yelv 99. The bill had to be delivered in open court as the finding of the grand jury: Huband, p 189; R v Thompson (1846) 1 Cox CC 268. In some assize courts in Northern
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Ireland it was literally handed down from the gallery of the court, placed in a clip at the end of a long pole held by a tipstaff in the body of the court. It was the affirmation of the bill in court which constituted the indictment, not the words of the indorsement, which were only evidence of the assent or dissent of the grand jury: 2 Hale PC 162. Accordingly the bill was good even if not signed by the foreman, when it had been delivered in court and read in his presence: Guiseppe Sidoli’s Case (1833) 1 Lewin 55, 168 ER 957, and cf Jane Denton’s Case (1823) 1 Lewin 53, 168 ER 956.
[34]
I have dwelt upon the grand jury procedure at some length because I think that it illuminates the purpose of Parliament in passing s 2(1) of the Administration of Justice (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1933, providing for the signature of the proper officer to a bill of indictment. The legislative history, set out in para [6] of the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill, confirms that the introduction of this procedure was not a matter of mere administrative convenience. It was to be the step by which the bill of indictment, which is only a draft, became converted into the indictment, which was and is the foundation of the criminal trial of the accused. It was intended to replace the finding by the grand jury and its presentment of the indictment in open court. As such it appears clear that it was regarded by Parliament as a significant step which could not be omitted without the validity of the procedure being affected.
[35]
The procedure adopted by the Parliament of Northern Ireland forms a contrast. Grand juries were finally abolished (having gone from quarter sessions in 1926) by s 1 of the Grand Jury (Abolition) Act (Northern Ireland) 1969. Section 2(1) provided, as amended:
‘Subject to the succeeding provisions of this section, an indictment may, notwithstanding anything to the contrary in any enactment or rule of law, be presented to [the Crown Court] although not found by a grand jury.’
Section 2(2), which is similar to s 2(2) of the English 1933 Act, specifies the conditions one of which must be satisfied before an indictment may be presented, the most important of which are that the person charged has been committed for trial or that the indictment is presented with the leave of a judge. Subsection (3) gave specific power to a judge to order an entry of ‘No Bill’ in the Crown book if satisfied that the depositions or committal statements do not disclose a case sufficient to justify putting the accused on trial. Finally, sub-s (8) preserved the procedure formerly adopted, save as provided by s 2. That procedure was governed by the Indictments Act (Northern Ireland) 1945 and the rules made thereunder, now replaced by the Crown Court Rules (Northern Ireland) 1979, SR 1979/90. Nowhere in these provisions is there any requirement for the bill of indictment to be signed by any person, nor has there ever been a practice of signature, save that a judge giving leave to present a voluntary bill generally signs the bill at the conclusion of the leave hearing.
[36]
This shows that there is no a priori requirement that some defined step be taken in order to convert a bill into an indictment, nor did the abolition of the grand jury leave a gap which necessarily required the provision of something to fill it. That conversion may under the Northern Irish legislation take place through presentment of the bill to the Crown Court, although the indictment will not be valid unless one of the conditions set out in s 2(2) of the 1969 Act is satisfied. It also shows, however, that when the 1933 Act was brought into law in respect of the courts in England and Wales Parliament deliberately required
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the interposition of such a defined step, viz the signature of the bill by the proper officer.
[37]
The Court of Appeal felt able to follow its previous decision in R v Ashton rather than the earlier decision in R v Morais [1988] 3 All ER 161. It may be noted, however, as Lord Bingham has pointed out (at [20], above), that in his judgment in the latter case Lord Lane CJ did pose the question in terms of the intention of the draftsman and did not confine himself to considering the dichotomy between mandatory and directory provisions. It may therefore be open to question whether the court in R v Ashton was free to decline to follow R v Morais. That is, however, of lesser consequence now that the matter has come before the House, which is in a position to determine the issue for itself.
[38]
I am, as I have stated, sympathetic to an approach which eschews formalism and technicality, and if a proper construction of s 2 of the 1933 Act permitted, I should be very ready to hold that the absence of a signature did not invalidate the indictment and the trial of the appellants. I too have found the conclusion inescapable, however, that in enacting s 2 Parliament intended that the affixing of the signature of the proper officer should be more than a technicality and that it should constitute an essential part of the procedure of presentation or preferment of an indictment to the court. I am accordingly unable to hold that the legislative intention was that the indictment and trial could be valid in the absence of the signature.
[39]
I would allow the appeals and quash the convictions. Since the appellants have served out the sentences, no question of a new trial arises.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[40]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Bingham of Cornhill and am in full agreement with it. As my Lord’s opinion so clearly demonstrates, the Court of Appeal in R v Morais [1988] 3 All ER 161, asked itself the correct question (consistently with the approach later more explicitly directed by the House in R v Soneji [2005] UKHL 49, [2005] 4 All ER 321, [2006] 1 AC 340) and gave the correct answer, and the same answer is compelled here. Of course this will produce from time to time unsatisfactory results. Guilty men may go free or if not free have to be retried following a venire de novo (as was ordered in R v Morais itself). A retrial will involve delay, expense and inconvenience and may cause particular witnesses (for example rape victims) considerable distress. But the problem is easily enough avoided and will only occur if the Crown is at fault. In any event Parliament can always alter the position if it chooses.
[41]
The one further authority which I think worthy of brief mention is Seal v Chief Constable of South Wales Police [2007] UKHL 31, [2007] 4 All ER 177, [2007] 1 WLR 1910, where the House by a majority held that civil proceedings brought without leave in respect of acts done pursuant to the Mental Health Act 1983 are of no effect. There, as here, R v Soneji was deployed to argue that Parliament cannot have intended such inconvenient and sometimes unjust results to follow from a failure to comply with the statutory requirement. There, as here, it was submitted that the procedural requirement in question was merely a formality. The argument failed. As Lord Bingham put it (at [17]):
‘Parliament must, in legislating as it did, have recognised the risk that hard cases, such as Mr Seal’s, may occur, but have considered the occasional occurrence of such a case to be a price worth paying for the reassurance and
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protection given by [the relevant sections] to those whose very important and often difficult task it is to care for the mentally ill.’
I myself (at [74]) described the requirement as being ‘to safeguard prospective defendants from being faced with proceedings (which might not be sufficiently meritorious to deserve leave) unless and until a High Court judge thought it appropriate that they be issued’.
[42]
I acknowledge, of course, that two members of the Committee reached the contrary conclusion but I would note that both of them thought there to be a material distinction in this context between criminal and civil proceedings—Lord Woolf at [34] and Baroness Hale at [51]. Neither questioned the correctness of cases like R v Angel [1968] 2 All ER 607n, [1968] 1 WLR 669 where criminal proceedings for a sexual offence brought without the required consent of the DPP were held to be a complete nullity notwithstanding they had proceeded to conviction and sentence. Not only is the present failure one in criminal proceedings but it is in any event to my mind closer in character to the failure in Seal’s case than to that in R v Immigration Appeal Tribunal, ex p Jeyeanthan, Ravichandran v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [1999] 3 All ER 231, [2000] 1 WLR 354—which I described in Seal’s case (also at [74]) as ‘essentially a failure to use the prescribed form of application for leave to appeal with the consequential omission of a declaration of truth’. Here, to paraphrase Lord Lane CJ in R v Morais, the legislation was designed to ensure that the proper requirements have been fulfilled before a trial proper can start, a fact to be certified by the signature of the proper officer indicating that he has properly satisfied himself that this is so. So, at least, it was perceived by those who enacted it. In short, the signature (which thereby translates a bill of indictment into an indictment) is no less a condition precedent to a proper trial than is the consent (whether of a High Court judge for a civil claim or the DPP for a criminal prosecution) required for the commencement of valid proceedings under the 1983 Act.
[43]
For these brief reasons, and more particularly those set out in Lord Bingham’s opinion, I too would allow this appeal and make the order which he proposes.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v P;
R v Blackburn
[2008] 2 All ER 684
[2007] EWCA Crim 2290
Categories: CRIMINAL; Police, Sentencing
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR IGOR JUDGE P, PITCHERS J AND SIR RICHARD CURTIS
Hearing Date(s): 17 JULY, 10, 22 OCTOBER 2007
Sentence – Reduction – Review – Offenders assisting investigations and prosecutions – Assistance by defendant – Reduction in sentence – Review of sentence – Guidance – Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005, ss 73, 74.
Section 74a of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005 contains a new process by which a review of the sentence passed in the Crown Court is reviewed in a judicial process on a reference back to the court by a ‘specified prosecutor’. The responsibility for considering whether any reduction in sentence should follow a post-sentence written agreement between a defendant and a specified prosecutor within s 73b of the 2005 Act is vested in the Crown Court. The statutory scheme expressly entitles the Crown Court to take account of relevant events after conviction and sentence. Review of sentence by the Crown Court under s 74 is not an appeal against sentence, whether imposed by the Crown Court or the Court of Appeal. The 2005 Act does not include any direct provision suggesting the level of discount appropriate to be provided to a defendant who enters into and performs an agreement under s 73 of the 2005 Act. The first factor, as in any sentencing decision, is the criminality of the defendant, weight being given to such mitigating and aggravating factors as there may be. Thereafter the quality and quantity of the material provided by the defendant in the investigation and subsequent prosecution of crime falls to be considered. Particular value should be attached to those cases where the defendant provides evidence in the form of a witness statement or gives evidence at any subsequent trial, with added force where the information produces convictions for the most serious offences or prevents them or leads to the disruption or breaking up of major criminal gangs. Those considerations then have to be put in the context of the nature and extent of the personal risks to, and potential consequences faced by, the defendant and the members of his family. The discount for the assistance provided by the defendant should be assessed first and the notional sentence further discounted for a plea of guilty, where applicable. In the context of the 2005 Act arrangements the circumstances in which the guilty plea indication was given and whether it was made at the first available opportunity may require close attention. In this type of sentencing decision the totality principle is fundamental; a mathematical approach is liable to produce an inappropriate answer. In the Court of Appeal, on appeal, the focus will be the sentence, which should reflect all the relevant circumstances, rather than its mathematical computation. The 2005 Act procedure requires a defendant to reveal the whole of his previous criminal activities and will almost inevitably meant that he will admit, and plead guilty to, offences which would never otherwise have been
Page 685 of [2008] 2 All ER 684
attributed to him. In order for the process to work as intended, sentences for offences which fall into this category should usually be approached with these realities in mind, and so far as s 73 agreements are concerned, should normally lead to the imposition of concurrent sentences. In the review process in relation to a defendant who is already serving his sentence, and who enters into an appropriate agreement to provide information, in which he discloses his previous criminal activities, he will come before the court to be sentenced for the new crimes he has disclosed, as well as for a review of the original sentence. When the original sentence is reduced, it will already have been running, while the sentence for any new offence will run from the date it is imposed; in this context also, the principle of totality is critical. The Court of Appeal cannot envisage any circumstances in which a defendant who has committed, and for these purposes admitted, serious crimes, can or should escape punishment altogether. The process under ss 73, 74 does not provide immunity from punishment and, subject to appropriate discounts, an effective sentence remains a basic characteristic of the process. By participating in the written agreement system under s 73 a defendant earns an appropriate reward for the assistance provided to the administration of justice. To encourage others to do the same, the reward takes the form of a discount from the sentence which would otherwise be appropriate. It is only in the most exceptional case that the appropriate level of reduction would exceed three quarters of the total sentence which would otherwise be passed, and the normal level will continue to be a reduction of between one-half and two-thirds of that sentence (see [29], [33], [37], [39]–[41], below).
Notes
For assistance by defendant: reduction in sentence and review of sentence, see 11(4) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 1568.
For the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005, ss 73, 74, see 12(2) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 1904, 1905.
Cases referred to in judgment
R v A [1999] 1 Cr App R (S) 52, CA.
R v A [2006] EWCA Crim 1803, [2007] 1 Cr App R (S) 347.
R v Debbag, R v Izzet (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 733, CA.
R v K [2002] EWCA Crim 927, [2003] 1 Cr App R (S) 22.
R v King (1985) 82 Cr App R 120, CA.
R v R [2002] EWCA Crim 267.
R v Sehitoglu, R v Ozakan [1998] 1 Cr App R (S) 89, CA.
R v Sinfield (1981) 3 Cr App R (S) 258, CA.
R v Sivan, R v Ferman, R v Shtrowise, R v Greenfield (1988) 87 Cr App R 407, CA.
R v Wood [1997] 1 Cr App R (S) 347, CA.
R v X (1994) 15 Cr App R (S) 750, CA.
R v X [1999] 2 Cr App R 125, CA.
R v Z [2007] EWCA Crim 1473, [2007] Crim LR 818.
Appeals
R v P
P appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal from (i) concurrent sentences of four years’ imprisonment imposed on 9 March 2007 in the Central Criminal Court on each count of a 13 count indictment concerning criminal activities in
Page 686 of [2008] 2 All ER 684
connection with the supply of drugs to which P had pleaded guilty following his entering into a written agreement with a specified prosecutor under s 73 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005; and (ii) the substitution of a sentence of five years’ imprisonment for an original sentence of 15 years’ imprisonment on a reference under s 74(3) of the 2005 Act. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
R v Blackburn
Blackburn appealed with leave of the Court of Appeal from consecutive sentences of 30 months’ imprisonment for assisting an offender and 18 months’ imprisonment for conspiracy to supply controlled drugs imposed on 9 March 2007 by Simon J in the Crown Court at Newcastle. Blackburn had pleaded guilty and entered into a written agreement with a specified prosecutor under s 73 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Andrew Mooney of Law Mooney Lee & Cook for P.
Christopher Knox (instructed by Graeme Cook) for Blackburn.
Toby Hedworth QC and Jonathan Rees (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Judgment was reserved.
22 October 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
SIR IGOR JUDGE P.
[1]
This is the first occasion when this court is required to address ss 71–75 of the Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005. These provisions, which came into force on 1 April 2006, created a statutory framework which formalised and developed well-established common law principles, formerly embraced in the well-understood phrase—‘Queen’s Evidence’.
R v P—THE FACTS
[2]
P was arrested in 2004 for offences arising from the importation of controlled drugs and remanded in custody. While awaiting trial, he instructed his solicitor to contact police officers investigating the murder of X, which occurred some years earlier. As a result, in early 2005, a meeting was arranged between the applicant and a senior investigating police officer. During the course of the meeting P provided information relating to the murder. He also provided information about the unrelated criminal activity of a major drug dealer.
[3]
In due course P pleaded guilty to conspiracy to supply a controlled drug of class C (cannabis resin). In July 2005 in the Central Criminal Court, he was convicted of two further conspiracies relating to the supply of class A drugs (crack cocaine). These convictions arose from his original arrest.
[4]
Shortly before the sentencing hearing, a ‘text’ was prepared on P’s behalf which informed the judge of the information which P had provided in the course of the meeting in early 2005. The text stated that no police operation had been instigated as a result of the information provided by P, and he had not placed himself at any exceptional risk in supplying the intelligence. There was nothing to indicate that he would be willing to assist the police in the future.
[5]
In the light of all the information available to the judge, total sentences of 17 years’ imprisonment were imposed.
Page 687 of [2008] 2 All ER 684
[6]
Thereafter two separate processes were under way. P appealed against sentence and he also contacted the police again. He provided information relating to a current murder investigation. At a subsequent meeting he agreed to give evidence against those persons alleged by him to be responsible for the murder of X, as well as detailing the criminal offences which he had personally committed. The effect of these conversations were incorporated in a further ‘text’ prepared by a senior police officer for the purposes of P’s appeal against sentence. In February 2006 this court reduced the total sentence from 17 to 15 years’ imprisonment. Subsequently a confiscation order was made under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 for fractionally under £1m.
[7]
The next chapter in this case begins with the coming into force of the 2005 Act on 1 April 2006. Following the earlier discussions, P entered into a written agreement with a prosecutor specified for the purposes of s 71 of the 2005 Act. The agreement is signed by the specified prosecutor, and P himself, in the presence of his solicitor. It may be valuable to set out its terms, so that a typical example will be publicly available. Save only for redactions to avoid possible identification, the agreement is provided in full:
‘1. The parties to this agreement are:
P c/o Z, Solicitors, and
Y, a Crown Prosecutor and a specified prosecutor under section 71(4) and 73(10) of the Serious and Organised Crime and Police Act 2005.
2. It is hereby agreed that P will assist the investigator and/or prosecutor in relation to the investigation being conducted by the Metropolitan Police into the murder of X and associated offences.
3. Assistance under the terms of this agreement will include the following:
(a) P will participate in a debriefing process. He undertakes during the process, which will be tape recorded and conducted following a caution, fully to admit his own involvement in any crimes.
(b) P will plead guilty to and/or ask to have taken into consideration such of the offences he has admitted as agreed with/stipulated by the prosecutor; a schedule of offences admitted by P is attached to this agreement at Annex “A”.
(c) P must provide the investigator with all facts, statements, documents, evidence or any other information available to him relating to the said investigation and offences, and the existence and activities of all others involved.
(d) P shall maintain continuous and complete co-operation throughout the investigation of the said offences and until the conclusion of any court proceedings arising as a result of the investigation. Such co-operation includes but is not limited to P
(i) Voluntarily and without prompting, providing the investigators with all information that becomes known to him or available to him relating to the said offences, in addition to any such information already provided;
(ii) Providing promptly, and without the prosecutor using powers under any section of the Act, all information available to him wherever located, requested by the investigator in relation to the said offences, to the extent that it has not already been provided;
(iii) Complying with any agreement with, or instructions from, the Witness Protection Unit or other agency (including the Probation Service in relation to release on licence) as to his residence and travel arrangements (to
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include foreign travel and/or possession of travel documents) after his release from custody;
(e) P will attend court as required by the prosecutor and give truthful evidence in any court proceedings whatsoever arising from the investigation and the said offences, clarification of which has already been given to his solicitors and agreed by him.
4. Y will ensure that full details of the assistance provided by P under the terms of this agreement are placed before any court before which P appears for sentencing; a copy of the above details will be made available for prior examination by his solicitors.
5. Y will also ensure that, in relation to the term of imprisonment currently being served by P, full details of the assistance provided by P under the terms of this agreement are placed before the Crown Court in accordance with the provisions of Section 74 Serious Organised Crime and Police Act 2005; a copy of the above details will be made available for prior examination by his solicitors.
6. Nothing in this agreement will affect the liability of P for any confiscation order made under the provisions of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (or similar legislation).
7. Failure to comply with the terms of this agreement may result in any sentence of the court that P may receive
In relation to the offences admitted under this agreement or
In consequence of any referral to the Crown Court under paragraph 5 above, being referred back to the court for review pursuant to section 74 of the Act.’
[8]
P was removed from the prison where he was serving his sentence. He was relocated at a secure unit. The debriefing process began in May 2006 and concluded at the end of the year. A number of interviews under caution took place. They resulted in the production of four witness statements signed by P. They described (a) his own criminal activities, (b) the murder of X, (c) the alleged commission of a serious drugs offence and (d) his comments on transcripts of covert tape recordings of conversations between himself and others which had taken place during 2004, and formed part of the evidence against him at his 2005 trial.
[9]
As a result of his own admissions during the debriefing sessions, P was then charged in a further separate indictment with a number of offences. He appeared at the Central Criminal Court on 9 March 2007. He pleaded guilty to an indictment containing 13 counts of criminal activities in connection with the supply of drugs, largely class B (cannabis) but also one count of being concerned in the supply of class A drugs (cocaine) and another for allowing premises to be used for the purposes of such supply. These offences went back to February 1983 and varied in their seriousness, but taken together undoubtedly constituted serious criminality. Nine further offences were admitted and taken into consideration. The TICs include an incident of theft of a motor car which took place between 1970 and 1974 and theft of a plant during 1991. Although there are some serious offences in the list of TICs, the major criminal activity was encompassed in the counts in the indictment. The minor, virtually historic offences of theft, provides an indication that P was expected to and did admit such criminal activity that he could remember. The second matter before the judge was a reference back under s 74(3) of the 2005 Act by the specified prosecutor for
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a review of the sentence of 15 years’ imprisonment, as substituted by the Court of Appeal for the original sentence.
[10]
The judge was supplied with witness statements which set out the nature and extent of the assistance provided by P in accordance with his written agreement. As a result P placed not only himself personally, but his family at considerable risk. He will need the support of the police witness protection unit for the rest of his life. In summary P had: (i) Given extensive information about his own criminal activities and the criminal activities of his associates. The extent of his own criminal activities would ‘never had been realised without his making a full and frank admission’. Checks of the information he had given about others had largely been substantiated, and none had been undermined. (ii) In relation to the inquiry into X’s murder P identified two suspects and provided further details about the circumstances. This information led to a reopening of an old investigation and this had revealed further information, as well as the uncovering of criminal offences committed by those allegedly concerned in the murder. P agreed to give evidence at any subsequent trial. It was said that the investigation into the murder would not have reached ‘such an advanced stage’ without the information from P. (iii) Quite apart from the murder of X, P provided further information about the criminal activities of others, in respect of an alleged conspiracy to murder. The information enabled the police to ensure the safety of the intended victim. P agreed to give evidence if required to do so.
[11]
Faced with this information, the judge imposed concurrent sentences of four years’ imprisonment on each count of the 13 count indictment. He reviewed the sentence of 15 years’ imprisonment, and substituted a sentence of five years’ imprisonment. In accordance with the written agreement, the confiscation order was unaffected. Both groups of sentences were to run concurrently, but as P had not been on remand for the matters dealt with on the indictment, the four-year sentence started on the day it was imposed. P had, in the meantime, been serving the five-year sentence. In the result the date of P’s eventual release will be determined not by the reduced sentence imposed on the review, but by the sentence following his recent guilty plea to the indictment.
[12]
P’s application for leave to appeal against both sentences was referred to the full court by the Registrar. In view of the issues of principle which arose leave was granted, and we proceeded to decide the appeal.
R v BLACKBURN—THE FACTS
[13]
On 9 March 2007, having pleaded guilty, and entered into a written agreement with a specified prosecutor pursuant to s 73 of the 2005 Act, Blackburn appeared in the Crown Court at Newcastle before Simon J and was sentenced to a total of four years’ imprisonment, less 162 days spent on remand. He was sentenced to 30 months’ imprisonment for assisting an offender and 18 months’ imprisonment, to run consecutively, for conspiracy to supply controlled drugs.
[14]
He sought leave to appeal against sentence. This was referred to the full court by the Registrar. In view of the issues which required to be examined, leave to appeal was granted.
[15]
This case concerns the execution by shooting on 24 May 2006 of David Rice. On that date Mr Rice was parked in a car park in South Shields. He was in the driver’s seat of his car, waiting the arrival of a man called Steven Bevens. He was also in possession of a large quantity of cash. A black car pulled up next to him. It contained two front seat occupants, both wearing balaclavas. The passenger shot Rice a number of times with a semi-automatic handgun,
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fitted with a silencer. Already badly injured, Rice tried to escape, scrambling across to the passenger side of his car, and out of the door. The gunman left his car, walked to the back of Rice’s car, and cold bloodedly shot him again, and then once again, at point blank range, shot him through the head to make sure he was dead. The car drove away, and after a short distance, the two men abandoned it, setting it on fire to destroy the evidence. They transferred to an orange van, with Blackburn as the waiting driver.
[16]
Both Rice and Bevens worked for a man called Foster. The Crown’s case is that Foster was the gunman and Bevens the driver of the car which pulled up beside Rice’s car. Foster and Bevens met in prison while serving sentences for conspiracy to supply drugs, and they subsequently worked together importing and distributing drugs. Rice’s role involved collecting drugs from Foster, or his partner, and fetching and carrying money. Foster started to distance himself from Rice because he, Foster, believed that Rice told his partner that Foster was involved with another woman.
[17]
On the morning of 23 May Bevens was twice in contact with Rice. Foster returned to the United Kingdom from Majorca using a false passport early in the morning of 24 May. On the afternoon of the shooting Rice asked a friend to help him count £6,000 in cash, and said he was meeting Stevie. Bevens telephoned Rice at 3.43. At 3.50 Rice called his friend and asked him to bring the money to him. Thereafter Rice drove to the car park where he was shot dead. £6,000 in cash he had taken to the meeting place, together with an additional £2,000 in cash was later found in his car.
[18]
Blackburn’s involvement in the case arose because the police knew that he possessed an orange van of the type used as the getaway vehicle. Initially he claimed to have sold it and denied any knowledge of the killing. He was arrested on 3 August. In interview he admitted that he knew Foster and Bevens, having met them in prison. He explained his involvement with Foster in connection with Foster’s drug activities. He also explained that on 24 May, he was contacted by Foster and told to go to an address in Doncaster to collect £2,000 which Foster owed him. When he arrived Foster was there with Bevens. Foster said that he needed the orange van to shift some gear in the North East. He was offered £100 to drive it. He agreed. He travelled to Sunderland where he met Foster and Bevens. They told him to wait while they went to collect the gear they needed. About half an hour later two masked men ran to the van. He recognised their voices. They were Bevens and Foster. Foster was carrying a handgun, and shouted ‘drive drive drive’ which he did. In the car he heard Bevens discussing the wounds Rice had received as a result of the shooting. When he stopped at a service station, Foster removed his telephones, broke them and threw them out of the window. With Blackburn’s assistance, they were later recovered by the police. Blackburn heard further discussion between Foster and Bevens about the shooting. He asked Foster why someone had been shot, but the only response he received was ‘who dares wins’. Bevens carried two bags which contained clothing, as well as the gun.
[19]
A few days later, while Blackburn and his girlfriend were abroad, he was contacted by Foster who told him to return home. Foster had arranged for some of his associates to collect Blackburn’s van. In due course Blackburn took the van to an industrial estate near Grimsby. Two men took it away.
[20]
On 28 September 2006 the appellant entered into the 2005 Act agreement. On 10 October 2006 he pleaded guilty on the following basis, accepted by the Crown. As to the murder offence, he had no prior knowledge of any offence of
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violence, much less a murder by shooting. On being told to drive off he realised that a shooting had taken place, but was unaware it was fatal until later. He facilitated the disposal of telephones, which he later helped the police to recover. The payment he received was, as he described in his police interviews, very modest. As to the drug conspiracy, he accepted taking cash to Amsterdam on Foster’s behalf, and collecting two large holdalls containing cannabis which he delivered to a trawler skipper.
[21]
On 27 and 29 October 2006 Blackburn provided a witness statement describing his knowledge of the circumstances surrounding the death of Mr Rice. Thereafter he was called by the prosecution and gave evidence at Bevens’s trial for murder. After he had been cross-examined for about an hour, Bevens changed his plea to guilty. Blackburn’s evidence was critical to Bevens’s conviction. Indeed without it the charge against Bevens would have been discontinued. Simon J concluded that Blackburn had given truthful evidence. The assistance given to the prosecution in connection with the murder of David Rice speaks for itself, but, in addition to the evidence at trial, Blackburn’s witness statement enabled the prosecution to obtain a European arrest warrant in respect of Foster. In relation to the drug related conspiracy, the judge believed that Blackburn’s role was that of a trusted courier in a well-resourced conspiracy in relation to cannabis. The significant mitigation was that the information about it came entirely from himself, in fulfilment of his agreement to assist the prosecution.
THE COMMON LAW
[22]
There never has been, and never will be, much enthusiasm about a process by which criminals receive lower sentences than they otherwise deserve because they have informed on or given evidence against those who participated in the same or linked crimes, or in relation to crimes in which they had no personal involvement, but about which they have provided useful information to the investigating authorities. However, like the process which provides for a reduced sentence following a guilty plea, this is a longstanding and entirely pragmatic convention. The stark reality is that without it major criminals who should be convicted and sentenced for offences of the utmost seriousness might, and in many cases, certainly would escape justice. Moreover the very existence of this process, and the risk that an individual for his own selfish motives may provide incriminating evidence, provides something of a check against the belief, deliberately fostered to increase their power, that gangs of criminals, and in particular the leaders of such gangs, are untouchable and beyond the reach of justice. The greatest disincentive to the provision of assistance to the authorities is an understandable fear of consequent reprisals. Those who do assist the prosecution are liable to violent ill-treatment by fellow prisoners generally, but quite apart from the inevitable pressures on them while they are serving their sentences, the stark reality is that those who betray major criminals face torture and execution. The solitary incentive to encourage co-operation is provided by a reduced sentence, and the common law, and now statute, have accepted that this is a price worth paying to achieve the overwhelming and recurring public interest that major criminals, in particular, should be caught and prosecuted to conviction.
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THE STATUTORY FRAMEWORK
[23]
Section 71 of the 2005 Act addresses possible immunity from prosecution of an offender who provides assistance in the investigation or prosecution of an offence. Features of critical importance, echoed later in the legislation are, first, that the process requires the involvement of prosecutors specified and identified in the legislation, and, second, that an individual who is given an immunity notice will be deprived of its benefits unless he complies with its conditions. However, as we are not here addressing immunity from prosecution, s 71 does not arise for further analysis in this judgment. Much the same applies to the provisions in s 72 which enable a specified prosecutor to provide an individual with an undertaking that any information provided by him will not be used in evidence. This is a ‘restricted use undertaking’, and again does not arise for immediate consideration.
[24]
Section 73 now governs the arrangements for a reduction in sentence for a defendant who in specified circumstances has provided assistance. It provides:
‘(1) This section applies if a defendant—(a) following a plea of guilty is either convicted of an offence in proceedings in the Crown Court or is committed to the Crown Court for sentence, and (b) has, pursuant to a written agreement made with a specified prosecutor, assisted or offered to assist the investigator or prosecutor in relation to that or any other offence.
(2) In determining what sentence to pass on the defendant the court may take into account the extent and nature of the assistance given or offered.
(3) If the court passes a sentence which is less than it would have passed but for the assistance given or offered, it must state in open court—(a) that it has passed a lesser sentence than it would otherwise have passed, and (b) what the greater sentence would have been.
(4) Subsection (3) does not apply if the court thinks that it would not be in the public interest to disclose that the sentence has been discounted; but in such a case the court must give written notice of the matters specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (3) to both the prosecutor and the defendant.
(5) Nothing in any enactment which—(a) requires that a minimum sentence is passed in respect of any offence or an offence of any description or by reference to the circumstances of any offender (whether or not the enactment also permits the court to pass a lesser sentence in particular circumstances), or (b) in the case of a sentence which is fixed by law, requires the court to take into account certain matters for the purposes of making an order which determines or has the effect of determining the minimum period of imprisonment which the offender must serve (whether or not the enactment also permits the court to fix a lesser period in particular circumstances), affects the power of a court to act under subsection (2).
(6) If, in determining what sentence to pass on the defendant, the court takes into account the extent and nature of the assistance given or offered as mentioned in subsection (2), that does not prevent the court from also taking account of any other matter which it is entitled by virtue of any other enactment to take account of for the purposes of determining—(a) the sentence, or (b) in the case of a sentence which is fixed by law, any minimum period of imprisonment which an offender must serve.
(7) If subsection (3) above does not apply by virtue of subsection (4) above, sections 174(1)(a) and 270 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44) (requirement to explain reasons for sentence or other order) do not apply to
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the extent that the explanation will disclose that a sentence has been discounted in pursuance of this section.
(8) In this section—(a) a reference to a sentence includes, in the case of a sentence which is fixed by law, a reference to the minimum period an offender is required to serve, and a reference to a lesser sentence must be construed accordingly; (b) a reference to imprisonment includes a reference to any other custodial sentence within the meaning of section 76 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6) or Article 2 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1996 (S.I. 1996/3160).
(9) An agreement with a specified prosecutor may provide for assistance to be given to that prosecutor or to any other prosecutor.
(10) References to a specified prosecutor must be construed in accordance with section 71.’
[25]
Section 74 introduces a new process, a ‘review’ of a sentence which has already been imposed. The section provides:
‘(1) This section applies if—(a) the Crown Court has passed a sentence on a person in respect of an offence, and (b) the person falls within subsection (2).
(2) A person falls within this subsection if—(a) he receives a discounted sentence in consequence of his having offered in pursuance of a written agreement to give assistance to the prosecutor or investigator of an offence but he knowingly fails to any extent to give assistance in accordance with the agreement; (b) he receives a discounted sentence in consequence of his having offered in pursuance of a written agreement to give assistance to the prosecutor or investigator of an offence and, having given the assistance in accordance with the agreement, in pursuance of another written agreement gives or offers to give further assistance; (c) he receives a sentence which is not discounted but in pursuance of a written agreement he subsequently gives or offers to give assistance to the prosecutor or investigator of an offence.
(3) A specified prosecutor may at any time refer the case back to the court by which the sentence was passed if—(a) the person is still serving his sentence, and (b) the specified prosecutor thinks it is in the interests of justice to do so.
(4) A case so referred must, if possible, be heard by the judge who passed the sentence to which the referral relates.
(5) If the court is satisfied that a person who falls within subsection (2)(a) knowingly failed to give the assistance it may substitute for the sentence to which the referral relates such greater sentence (not exceeding that which it would have passed but for the agreement to give assistance) as it thinks appropriate.
(6) In a case of a person who falls within subsection (2)(b) or (c) the court may—(a) take into account the extent and nature of the assistance given or offered; (b) substitute for the sentence to which the referral relates such lesser sentence as it thinks appropriate.
(7) Any part of the sentence to which the referral relates which the person has already served must be taken into account in determining when a greater or lesser sentence imposed by subsection (5) or (6) has been served.
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(8) A person in respect of whom a reference is made under this section and the specified prosecutor may with the leave of the Court of Appeal appeal to the Court of Appeal against the decision of the Crown Court.
(9) Section 33(3) of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (c. 19) (limitation on appeal from the criminal division of the Court of Appeal) does not prevent an appeal to the Supreme Court under this section.
(10) A discounted sentence is a sentence passed in pursuance of section 73 or subsection (6) above.
(11) References—(a) to a written agreement are to an agreement made in writing with a specified prosecutor; (b) to a specified prosecutor must be construed in accordance with section 71.
(12) In relation to any proceedings under this section, the Secretary of State may make an order containing provision corresponding to any provision in—(a) the Criminal Appeal Act 1968 (subject to any specified modifications), or (b) the Criminal Appeal (Northern Ireland) Act 1980 (c. 47) (subject to any specified modifications).
(13) A person does not fall within subsection (2) if—(a) he was convicted of an offence for which the sentence is fixed by law, and (b) he did not plead guilty to the offence for which he was sentenced.
(14) Section 174(1)(a) or 270 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44) (as the case may be) applies to a sentence substituted under subsection (5) above unless the court thinks that it is not in the public interest to disclose that the person falls within subsection (2)(a) above.
(15) Subsections (3) to (9) of section 73 apply for the purposes of this section as they apply for the purposes of that section and any reference in those subsections to subsection (2) of that section must be construed as a reference to subsection (6) of this section.’
[26]
Section 75 addresses important procedural issues arising in the context of the s 74 review process. It addresses the circumstances in which the court may make an order excluding the public from such hearings, and prohibiting the publication of reports or the whole or part of any relevant proceedings. It must be considered as part of the new context, following the implementation of the 2005 Act, that reviews based on post-sentence assistance are no longer decided in private by the Home Office and the parole board. It provides:
‘(1) This section applies to—(a) any proceedings relating to a reference made under section 74(3), and (b) any other proceedings arising in consequence of such proceedings.
(2) The court in which the proceedings will be or are being heard may make such order as it thinks appropriate—(a) to exclude from the proceedings any person who does not fall within subsection (4); (b) to give such directions as it thinks appropriate prohibiting the publication of any matter relating to the proceedings (including the fact that the reference has been made).
(3) An order under subsection (2) may be made only to the extent that the court thinks—(a) that it is necessary to do so to protect the safety of any person, and (b) that it is in the interests of justice.
(4) The following persons fall within this subsection—(a) a member or officer of the court; (b) a party to the proceedings; (c) counsel or a solicitor for a party to the proceedings; (d) a person otherwise directly concerned with the proceedings.
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(5) This section does not affect any other power which the court has by virtue of any rule of law or other enactment—(a) to exclude any person from proceedings, or (b) to restrict the publication of any matter relating to proceedings.’
DISCUSSION
[27]
The essential feature of the new statutory framework is that the offender must publicly admit the full extent of his own criminality and agree to participate in a formalised process. The formalities have their own immediate purposes, and are intended to avoid some of the problems to which the previous processes could sometimes give rise. These were often ‘private’ arrangements between the police and the criminal, revealed of course to the court, but exposed to the potential for corruption and criminal double dealing, and even if not in any way corrupt, nevertheless subject to the perception of possible corruption. In other words the formalities ensure that the decision to enter into the agreement with a criminal is specifically and separately considered by an identified prosecutor and should avoid later questions to which any kind of ‘private’ arrangements can be subject.
[28]
Section 73 addresses sentencing decisions following assistance provided by the defendant. The structure in effect confirms well-understood principles. At a later stage in this judgment we shall identify some of the features likely to arise for consideration, but for the moment record that, provided they admit their own criminality in full, the process is not confined to offenders who provide assistance in relation to crimes in which they were participants, or accessories, or with which they were otherwise linked. At the end of this process the sentence actually imposed may be appealed to this court in the usual way.
[29]
Section 74 is concerned with the new process by which a ‘review’ of the sentence passed in the Crown Court is reviewed in a judicial process on a reference back to the court by a specified prosecutor. The responsibility for considering whether any reduction in sentence should follow a post-sentence agreement within the 2005 Act is vested in the Crown Court. This reverses the former practice in relation to post-sentence assistance which was formerly left to the Home Office and the parole board (see R v A [1999] 1 Cr App R (S) 52, R v K [2002] EWCA Crim 927, [2003] 1 Cr App R (S) 22) and creates a statutory scheme which expressly entitles the court to take account of relevant events after conviction and sentence. Section 74(2) identifies three post-sentence situations in which the sentence being served by the defendant is susceptible to review. In particular, the review process can arise following a sentence discounted for assistance, if the defendant reneges on the written agreement which produced the original reduction, and provides an important safeguard against dishonest manipulation of the process by the defendant. It may also arise for the defendant who was not previously offered to provide assistance, and decides, after all, to do so. In each situation specified by s 74(2) the defendant may be re-sentenced in the Crown Court, and where possible, this decision should be made by the judge who passed the original sentence. At the conclusion of the review, his decision may then be reconsidered in this court.
[30]
Where the review arises from the defendant’s failure or refusal to provide assistance in accordance with the written agreement, the sentencing judge will already have in mind the sentence which would have been passed ‘but for the assistance given or offered’. This sentence should be readily ascertained from the sentencing remarks where the judge, in compliance with s 73(3)(b), has
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identified, as he normally should, the sentence which would have been imposed but for the assistance given or offered. We doubt whether, save exceptionally, it would be right for the sentence indicated at that stage to be subject to any reduction, but equally, as s 73(5) provides, it should not be increased by way of punishment for a defendant who has backed away from the agreement. Non-compliance is not a separate crime, nor indeed an aggravating feature of the original offence; the penalty is that the defendant will be deprived of the reduction of sentence which would have been allowed if he had complied with the agreement. Instead he will normally serve the appropriate sentence for his criminality in full.
[31]
When a review is under consideration after sentence, the specified prosecutor will no doubt be astute to the risk that a professional criminal may be seeking to manipulate the system for his own purposes. One question which will normally require to be addressed is why the offer to give assistance has been delayed, and another, whether the delay may have diminished its value. Again, however, unlike the current arrangements by which discounts for a guilty plea should normally be reflective of the time when it was tendered, for the purposes of a review, any discount should continue to reflect the extent and nature of the assistance given or offered. Unless the delay has diminished the value of the assistance, the defendant should not be penalised by a lesser reduction, but if it has, only to a proportionate extent.
[32]
The review process is directed towards a sentence which has already been imposed. There are no transitional provisions. It may take place ‘at any time’ after the legislation came into force, whether the original sentence was imposed before or after the implementation of the 2005 Act. In particular, nothing in the legislative structure suggests that sentences imposed before that date fall outside the ambit of s 74, and indeed in our judgment the 2005 Act provides a comprehensive framework of general application for reviews of sentences, whenever imposed, and whenever the crime or crimes in question were committed.
[33]
P’s appeal raises a specific question relating to the involvement of this court. The original 17-year sentence was reduced to 15 years when this court exercised its powers under s 9 of the Criminal Appeal Act 1968. The jurisdiction to conduct a review of sentence on the basis of post-sentence assistance is vested in the Crown Court. Its decision on the review is subject to appeal to this court. Therefore the review itself is not an appeal against sentence, whether imposed in the Crown Court or this court. It is a fresh process which takes place in new circumstances. Accordingly the process of review is not inhibited by the fact that this court has already heard and decided an appeal against the original sentence, whether the sentence is varied on appeal or not. This court may be required to address either a sentence imposed in the light of the written s 73 agreement, or a review conducted in accordance with s 74, or, as here in the case of P, where the assistance provided may impinge on both decisions.
[34]
The legislation does not abolish a well-understood feature of the sentencing process. There will be occasions when a defendant has provided assistance to the police which does not fall within the new arrangements, and in particular the written agreement. He is not thereby deprived of whatever consequent benefit he should receive. The existing ‘text’ system, verified in the usual way, (as to which see R v X [1999] 2 Cr App R 125, R v R [2002] EWCA Crim 267) may still be used, where appropriate, either before sentence is imposed in the Crown Court, or indeed at the hearing of an appeal against sentence. In
Page 697 of [2008] 2 All ER 684
summary, pragmatism still obtains. The investigative process is not to be deprived of the assistance derived from those who are, for whatever reason, unable or unwilling to enter into the formalised process envisaged in the 2005 Act, but they must take the consequence that any discount of sentence may be correspondingly reduced, simply because the value of assistance provided in this form is likely to be less, and is in any event less readily susceptible to a safeguarding review under s 74(2) than it would if provided under the formal arrangements now available under s 73.
[35]
No new powers in relation to publicity arise in relation to sentences imposed in the context of a written agreement under s 73. The publicity provisions in s 75 are directed to reviews under s 74. While it is crucial to the entire process that the identity of those who provide assistance should, so far as practicable, be concealed, it is simultaneously fundamental to our criminal justice system that sentences should be imposed in open court, after public hearings. As reviews produce a decision of the court relating to sentence, unless absolutely necessary, the normal principle that sentences must not be imposed or reduced or altered after private hearings, privately ordered, should so far as possible be applied to them.
[36]
In the review process s 73(4) and (7) enable the court, first, not to disclose, save to the prosecutor and the defendant, that a sentence has been discounted, and second, allow the court to disapply s 174 of the Criminal Justice Act 2003, which requires the court to explain the reasons for its sentences. Reality must be faced. Professional criminals appreciate the likely range of sentence if they are convicted, and more important, they will quickly discover the purpose of any review process. A post-sentence reduction following a s 74 review will convey, at the very least, that something very unusual has happened, and criminals are perfectly well able to ask themselves why a reduction has been ordered, and then form their own conclusions. That said, actual knowledge will turn suspicion into confirmed fact. By s 75 the court is empowered to exclude the media and its representatives from the review. The power should be used with great caution, particularly where the review arises under s 74(2) following failure to fulfil an agreement to provide assistance. In any event where practicable alternatives are available, they should if possible, be adopted. For example, it may be possible to anonymise the proceedings. It may also be possible to admit authorised representatives of the media subject to an order prohibiting publication of the whole or any specific aspect of the proceedings without the approval of the court. Alternatively, if the media has been excluded from any part of the hearing, the court may be able to provide information about the outcome of the review, together with a brief summary of the reasons for the decision, sufficient, even if brief, to enable the public to understand it, without disclosing any relevant identities. To the fullest extent it can, it should. In any event a full transcript of the entire hearing of the proceedings should be prepared immediately after its conclusion, and retained in appropriate conditions of secrecy by the specified prosecutor, and kept available for further directions by the court in relation to publicity if and when the public interest so requires, at least until further order by the court, and in any event until the end of the sentence.
THE SENTENCING DECISION
[37]
The 2005 Act does not include any direct provision suggesting the level of discount appropriate to be provided to the defendant who enters into and performs the 2005 Act agreement. The general principles are well established in
Page 698 of [2008] 2 All ER 684
a series of decided cases. These include R v Sinfield (1981) 3 Cr App R (S) 258, R v King (1985) 82 Cr App R 120, R v Sivan, R v Ferman, R v Shtrowise, R v Greenfield (1988) 87 Cr App R 407, R v Debbag, R v Izzet (1991) 12 Cr App R (S) 733, R v X (1994) 15 Cr App R (S) 750, R v Sehitoglu, R v Ozakan [1998] 1 Cr App R (S) 89, R v A, R v K and R v R, cited earlier, R v A [2006] EWCA Crim 1803, [2007] 1 Cr App R (S) 347, and R v Z [2007] EWCA Crim 1473, [2007] Crim LR 818.
[38]
The first principle is obvious. No hard and fast rules can be laid down for what, as in so many other aspects of the sentencing decision, is a fact-specific decision.
[39]
The first factor in any sentencing decision is the criminality of the defendant, weight being given to such mitigating and aggravating features as there may be. Thereafter, the quality and quantity of the material provided by the defendant in the investigation and subsequent prosecution of crime falls to be considered. Addressing this issue, particular value should be attached to those cases where the defendant provides evidence in the form of a witness statement or is prepared to give evidence at any subsequent trial, and does so, with added force where the information either produces convictions for the most serious offences, including terrorism and murder, or prevents them, or which leads to disruption to or indeed the break up of major criminal gangs. Considerations like these then have to be put in the context of the nature and extent of the personal risks to and potential consequences faced by the defendant and the members of his family. In most cases the greater the nature of the criminality revealed by the defendant, the greater the consequent risks. The vast majority of the earlier authorities were decided before the arrangements for calculating the discounts for a guilty plea were formalised, as they now have been by statute (see s 152 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 and ss 144 and 174(2)(d) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003) and the definitive guidelines, Reduction in Sentence for a Guilty Plea, issued by the Sentencing Guidelines Council, and in particular the statement of purpose in paras 2.1–2.6. When it applies, the discount for the guilty plea is separate from and additional to the appropriate reduction for assistance provided by the defendant (see R v Wood [1997] 1 Cr App R (S) 347). Accordingly, the discount for the assistance provided by the defendant should be assessed first, against all other relevant considerations, and the notional sentence so achieved should be further discounted for the guilty plea. In the particular context of the 2005 Act arrangements, the circumstances in which the guilty plea indication was given, and whether it was made at the first available opportunity, may require close attention. Finally we emphasise that in this type of sentencing decision a mathematical approach is liable to produce an inappropriate answer, and that the totality principle is fundamental. In this court, on appeal, focus will be the sentence, which should reflect all the relevant circumstances, rather than its mathematical computation.
[40]
The 2005 Act procedure requires the defendant to reveal the whole of his previous criminal activities. This will almost inevitably mean that he will admit, and plead guilty to offences which would never otherwise have been attributed to him, and may indeed have been unknown to the police. In order for the process to work as intended, sentencing for offences which fall into this category should usually be approached with these realities in mind and, so far as s 73 agreements are concerned, should normally lead to the imposition of concurrent sentences. In the review process in relation to a defendant who is already serving his sentence, and who enters into an appropriate agreement to provide information, in which he discloses his previous criminal activities, he will come
Page 699 of [2008] 2 All ER 684
before the court, as P did, to be sentenced for the new crimes he has disclosed, as well as for a review of the original sentence. When the original sentence is reduced, it has already been running, while the sentence for any new offence will run from the date it was imposed. As we emphasised in the previous paragraph, in this context too, the totality principle is critical.
[41]
We were asked to consider the possibility of a discount in an exceptional case which, in effect, was that the defendant would not serve any sentence at all. We cannot envisage any circumstances in which a defendant who has committed and for these purposes admitted serious crimes can or should escape punishment altogether. The process under ss 73 and 74 does not provide immunity from punishment, and, subject to appropriate discounts, an effective sentence remains a basic characteristic of the process. Issues of immunity are addressed in s 71. What the defendant has earned by participating in the written agreement system is an appropriate reward for the assistance provided to the administration of justice, and to encourage others to do the same, the reward takes the form of a discount from the sentence which would otherwise be appropriate. It is only in the most exceptional case that the appropriate level of reduction would exceed three-quarters of the total sentence which would otherwise be passed, and the normal level will continue, as before, to be a reduction of somewhere between one-half and two-thirds of that sentence.
THE INSTANT APPEALS
R v P
[42]
Both on the review of the original sentence, and when assessing sentence for the offences to which P pleaded guilty following the briefing process, the judge, following the pre-2005 Act authorities, decided that a reduction of two-thirds should follow. Although we disagree with the submission on P’s behalf that the assistance provided by him, and the risks he ran and will now be running, merited a discount which would have provided for his immediate release, in the light of the considerations we have addressed, this case, involving important assistance to the investigation of a murder in which he himself was not involved, directly or indirectly, might without injustice, have attracted a somewhat higher discount. Approaching the problem on the basis of totality, the sentence on the review will be left at five years. However the four-year sentence for the offences disclosed by P himself which could not otherwise have been prosecuted to conviction, and followed entirely from P’s obligation under the 2005 Act process to disclose his entire criminality, will be reduced to three years’ imprisonment to run from 9 March 2007. To this extent, this appeal succeeds.
R v Blackburn
[43]
Simon J approached the discount in Blackburn’s case in the same way. Blackburn gave damning evidence against a man who had participated in the execution of David Rice. Bevens was convicted of his murder. Blackburn, will, if necessary, give evidence against the man who shot Rice. However, Blackburn was very close indeed to the offence, and plainly linked to it by the evidence available to the police well before he offered to provide assistance. On the other hand it was accepted by the prosecution, and Blackburn fell to be sentenced on the basis, that his participation in Rice’s death did not begin until after he was murdered by others. The drug offences which he admitted in the debriefing process were linked to his criminal activities with the man who allegedly shot
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Rice, but were, as the Crown accepts, limited to cannabis. Approaching this sentencing decision on the basis of totality, we have concluded that the sentence of four years’ imprisonment did not entirely reflect the appropriate discount for the assistance given by Blackburn, and the overall starting point was probably a little too high. The overall impact is that we shall reduce the sentence of four years to a total of two-and-a-half years’ imprisonment. This sentence will be achieved by ordering that the sentences on both counts will run concurrently. To this extent, the appeal will be allowed.
Appeals allowed.
Carla Dougan-Bacchus Barrister.
Maloba v Waltham Forest London Borough Council
[2008] 2 All ER 701
[2007] EWCA Civ 1281
Categories: HOUSING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR IGOR JUDGE P, CARNWATH AND TOULSON LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 24 OCTOBER, 4 DECEMBER 2007
Housing – Homeless person – Duty of housing authority to provide accommodation – Duty to provide accommodation to person they have reason to believe may be homeless and have a priority need – Person not to be treated as having accommodation unless it was accommodation which it would be reasonable for him to continue to occupy – Applicant with accommodation available in Uganda – Whether necessary for applicant to be in actual occupation of accommodation before housing authority required to consider whether occupation reasonable – Whether consideration of reasonableness limited to size and facilities of accommodation – Housing Act 1996, s 175(3).
County court – Costs – Housing – Homelessness – Decision of local housing authority – Review of decision – Right of appeal to county court on point of law – Whether general practice should be imposed to stay costs orders against housing authority pending re-determination – Housing Act 1996, s 204.
M was born in Uganda in 1962; he came to the United Kingdom in 1989 and acquired British citizenship in 1997. In 2002 he married in Kampala, Uganda. After the marriage his wife and child lived for two years in the annex of the M family home in Kampala. In December 2004 his wife and child came to the United Kingdom to live with M. The family were unable to rent accommodation on a long term basis and M approached the housing authority for help on the basis that the family was threatened with homelessness. Under s 175a of the Housing Act 1996 a person was homeless if he had no accommodation available for his occupation in the United Kingdom or elsewhere which he was entitled to occupy or had a licence to occupy or occupied as a residence by virtue of any enactment. Section 175(3) provided that ‘[a] person shall not be treated as having accommodation unless it is accommodation which it would be reasonable for him to continue to occupy’. The authority concluded that M was not homeless as he was entitled to occupy the house in Kampala. M requested a review of that decision, reiterating that he lived in England and not Uganda. The reviewing officer confirmed the authority’s decision. M appealed against the review under s 204b of the 1996 Act which provided for a right of appeal on a point of law. In the county court the judge allowed the appeal, holding that the housing authority’s decision that it was reasonable for M and his family to continue to occupy the Kampala house was one no reasonable local authority could have reached. He quashed the decision, and ordered that the housing authority pay two-thirds of M’s costs. The authority appealed, contending (i) that the words ‘continue to occupy’ in s 175(3) meant that the subsection applied only if the
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person was in actual occupation of the relevant accommodation so that all that mattered was the availability of the house in Kampala and reasonableness did not arise; (ii) that if it were necessary for the authority to consider the reasonableness of the accommodation, the authority had only to consider its reasonableness in terms of size and facilities, and was not obliged to consider whether it was reasonable to expect the claimant to go to live in Uganda; and (iii) in relation to costs, that there should be a general practice on appeals under s 204 that any order for costs made against a housing authority should be subject to a stay until after the re-determination of the homelessness application and any subsequent appeal from it, unless there were good reason for refusing such a stay, as otherwise the authority would be exposed to the risk of being unable to set off any order for costs which might be made in its favour at the end of a future unsuccessful appeal, which would be unjust.
Held – (1) The inclusion of the words ‘to continue’ in s 175(3) of the 1996 Act did not have the effect that the subsection could only apply if the person was in actual occupation of the relevant accommodation. Otherwise a person who had left accommodation in circumstances which did not make him homeless intentionally, because it was unreasonable to expect him to remain there, would nevertheless be not homeless at all if he was able to return to the property which he had reasonably left. Parliament could not have intended that statutory incoherence. There was no policy reason for a distinction between a person with unfit accommodation available to him who was living in it and a person with similar accommodation who was not living in it. It was possible to make good sense of s 175(3) by construing the words ‘reasonable for him to continue to occupy’ as synonymous with ‘reasonable for him to occupy for a continuing period’, namely, for the future, whether or not he was in occupation at the moment of the application or the decision. A purposive construction required ‘continue to occupy’ to be read as ‘occupy or continue to occupy’ (see [38], [43]–[46], [49], [56], [57], [75], [78], [82], [84], below); dicta of Sedley and Stuart-Smith LJJ in Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2000] 1 WLR 306 disapproved.
(2) In considering under s 175(3) whether it was reasonable to expect a person to occupy accommodation which was available to him, a housing authority was not entitled to consider reasonableness solely in terms of the size and structural quality of the accommodation and its amenities. There was no good reason for importing such a limitation. There might be other reasons why it would not be reasonable to expect a person to occupy accommodation which was available to him and there was no ground to suppose that Parliament had intended such reasons to be ignored. In the instant case, the review officer had adopted an over-restrictive approach to the matters which had to be considered; she had not considered whether it was reasonable to expect M to relocate to Kampala after he had been living in the United Kingdom since 1989 and had acquired British citizenship in 1997. It followed that she had misdirected herself. Accordingly, the judge had been right to quash the local authority’s decision (see [60]–[63], [83], [84], below).
(3) The court’s discretion was wide enough to grant a stay on any order for costs made against a housing authority on an appeal under s 204 of the 1996 Act until after the re-determination of the homelessness application and any subsequent appeal but there should be no general practice to do so. The evidence before the court in the instant case was not such as to allow it to assess the
Page 703 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
potential wide consequences of such a general practice. There was no ground for criticising the way in which the judge had exercised his discretion in relation to costs. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see [63], [69]–[75], [84], below); Lockley v National Blood Transfusion Service [1992] 2 All ER 589 and R (on the application of Burkett) v Hammersmith and Fulham London BC [2004] EWCA Civ 1342, [2004] All ER (D) 186 (Oct) distinguished.
Notes
For homelessness and threatened homelessness, see 22 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 278.
For the Housing Act 1996, ss 175, 204, see 21 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2005 reissue) 1084, 1112.
Cases referred to in judgments
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Awua v Brent London BC [1995] 3 All ER 493, [1996] AC 55, [1995] 3 WLR 215, HL.
Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2000] 1 WLR 306, CA.
Lockley v National Blood Transfusion Service [1992] 2 All ER 589, [1992] 1 WLR 492, CA.
Osmani v Camden London BC [2004] EWCA Civ 1706, [2005] HLR 22.
Puhlhofer v Hillingdon London BC [1986] 1 All ER 467, [1986] AC 484, [1986] 2 WLR 259, HL; affg [1985] 3 All ER 734, [1986] AC 484, [1986] 2 WLR 259, CA.
R (on the application of Burkett) v Hammersmith and Fulham London BC [2004] EWCA Civ 1342, [2004] All ER (D) 186 (Oct).
R v Preseli DC, ex p Fisher (1984) 17 HLR 147.
Appeal
Waltham Forest London Borough Council (the council) appealed against the decision of Judge Hornby in the Bow County Court on 12 October 2006 (i) allowing the appeal of Davis Maloba under s 204 of the Housing Act 1996 against the decision of a review officer that Mr Maloba was not homeless for the purposes of Pt VII of the 1996 Act; (ii) ordering the council to pay two-thirds of Mr Maloba’s costs; and (iii) refusing to stay the order for costs. The Law Society was given permission to intervene on the costs issue. The facts are set out in the judgment of Toulson LJ.
Kerry Bretherton (instructed by Satish Mistry) for the council.
Robert Latham (instructed by AM Vance & Co) for Mr Maloba.
David Holland (instructed by the Law Society) for the Law Society.
Judgment was reserved.
24 October 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
TOULSON LJ
(giving the first judgment at the invitation of Sir Igor Judge P).
INTRODUCTION
[1]
This appeal concerns the homelessness provisions in Pt VII of the Housing Act 1996, as amended. It raises, in particular, questions regarding the proper interpretation of s 175(3) ‘A person shall not be treated as having accommodation unless it is accommodation which it would be reasonable for him to continue to
Page 704 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
occupy’, about which differing views were expressed in this court in Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2000] 1 WLR 306.
THE FACTS
[2]
Mr Maloba was born in Uganda on 22 September 1962. Until the age of 14 he was brought up by his parents in the family home in the village of Kanyanya near Kampala. At 14 he was sent away to school in a small town near Kampala. After leaving school he rented accommodation in Kampala until he came to the United Kingdom in September 1989. He has lived in the United Kingdom since then and he acquired British citizenship in 1997.
[3]
In 1999 Mr Maloba met his present wife, Angela, on a visit to Uganda. They formed a relationship. On 24 July 2001 Angela gave birth to their daughter, Bridget. In 2002 they were married in Kampala. After the marriage Mrs Maloba and Bridget lived for two years in an annex at the Maloba family home. The main building is a three bedroom house, but in the grounds of the house there is a separate building or annex containing a living room, bedroom and bathroom. Mr Maloba’s father had died in 1993, and at the time of Mr and Mrs Maloba’s marriage the house was lived in by Mr Maloba’s brother and one of his three sisters together with their families.
[4]
In December 2004 Angela and Bridget came to the United Kingdom to live with Mr Maloba. At first the family lived in privately rented accommodation, but the landlord was not prepared to allow them to remain there on a long-term basis. On 18 March 2005 Mr Maloba approached Waltham Forest’s housing department for help because the family was threatened with homelessness. He was interviewed on various occasions, and on 29 March 2005 a housing officer completed a homelessness application form. One of the questions on the form was ‘Does applicant own, rent or have access to property anywhere abroad?’, to which the answer given was negative.
[5]
Mrs Maloba had entered the United Kingdom on a visitor’s visa, but Bridget had a visa to settle in the United Kingdom with her father. On 5 December 2006 Mrs Maloba was granted indefinite leave to remain, but this was long after the decision of the council which has given rise to this litigation. At the relevant time Mrs Maloba was not eligible for housing assistance and therefore not eligible for assistance under the homelessness provisions of the Act (s 185). Bridget was in a different position. If Mr Maloba satisfied the criteria of homelessness, her position as a dependent child potentially made him a person with a priority need for accommodation (s 189).
[6]
On 3 May 2005 the council secured interim accommodation for the family at Southfields Court, Leytonstone E11.
[7]
On 23 June 2005 the council wrote to Mr Maloba asking him, among other things, where Mrs Maloba and Bridget had been living before their arrival in the United Kingdom. On 29 June 2005 Mr Maloba replied that ‘they lived in my house back home at Kanyanya in Kampala’. On 22 July 2005 he was interviewed by a council officer about the Kampala property. The notes of the interview recorded: ‘App said that the house in Kampala became the family house in 1993, when his father died. Any member of the family may live in the house.’
[8]
On 26 July 2005 the officer wrote a ‘pre-decision’ letter to Mr Maloba in the following terms:
‘I advise you that with the information that you have provided through interviews and letters, we are of the opinion that you are not homeless. This is based on that you have accommodation at Kanyanya Kampala.
Page 705 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
You have explained that the house in Kampala is a family house, where any member of the family may live. Therefore you are able to live at the house at Kanyanya Kampala. According to the Housing Act you are not homeless. The Housing Act states that you are homeless if you have no accommodation that you are not [sic] entitled to occupy. You have accommodation in Kampala that you are entitled to occupy. A person is homeless if they have accommodation that is available, however not reasonable to occupy [sic]. Your accommodation in Kampala is available and reasonable for you to occupy with your wife and daughter. You said that your wife lived in the annex of the house; therefore you are able to stay in the annex or the main part of the house in Kampala.’
[9]
On 29 July 2005 Mr Maloba replied:
‘I reply to inform you that I am homeless. In your letter you stated that I am not regarded homeless basing on the family house in Kanyanya in Kampala. But honestly I live here and work here. I hold a British passport, thus a British African. My future is here. I have been here for over fifteen years and because my future is here that’s why I decided to invite my wife and daughter to join me here . . . I belong here, my future is here and not in Kanyanya, Kampala, Uganda.’
[10]
On 11 August 2005 the council notified Mr Maloba of its decision that he was not homeless because he was entitled to occupy the accommodation in Kampala, which it had concluded was reasonable for him and his family to occupy since he had not identified any problem with living in it. On 23 August 2005 Mr Maloba requested a review of the decision, reiterating that he lived in England and not Uganda.
[11]
On 4 November 2005 Mr Maloba met the review officer. He told her that he had learned that the property in Kampala was being repossessed by a finance company which had lent money on the security of the property to Mr Maloba’s sisters and brother. The review officer asked him for documentary evidence. He subsequently provided her with copies of a number of documents apparently written by Uganda Microfinance Ltd (UML) and signed by its chief executive officer, Mr Nalyaali.
[12]
The review officer was sceptical about their authenticity, but she visited UML’s website, from which it appeared to be a legitimate company.
[13]
On 13 January 2006 the review officer sent an e-mail to Mr Nalyaali asking whether the documents were genuine and what stage any repossession proceedings had reached. On 9 March 2006 Mr Nalyaali e-mailed the review officer confirming that the property had been pledged as collateral to secure a loan of 50m Ugandan shillings and had been sold in order to recover arrears of 36m shillings. The review officer immediately e-mailed Mr Nalyaali with a request for documentary evidence of the repossession of the property. On the following day Mr Nalyaali replied to the effect that he was busy and the matter was not his top priority, but that if she provided him with a list of specific requirements he would be happy to share them with her.
[14]
On 24 March 2006 the review officer wrote to Mr Maloba confirming the council’s decision that he was not homeless because the accommodation in Kampala was ‘available and reasonable for you to continue to occupy’. The writer referred to Mr Maloba’s letter of 29 July 2005 (see [9], above) and commented:
Page 706 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
‘Unfortunately, that is not a valid reason for you to be entitled to housing in the UK. The law requires that we consider whether you have accommodation anywhere in the UK or elsewhere. Since we have identified that you do have an interest in your family home in Kanyanya, Kampala, Uganda, we are under an obligation to investigate if it is available and reasonable for you to remain.’
[15]
The letter continued:
‘I have considered whether you are homeless from an address “elsewhere” that is reasonable and available for your continued occupation, as required by the homelessness legislation.
You have informed [the council] that your father had left the property at Kanyanya, Kampala, Uganda to you and your siblings after his death in 1993. You also informed us that the property consists of three bedrooms with an annex called “the boys quarters”. Your wife resided in the annex from 2002 to 2004 before she came to join you in the UK. You have stated that the annex comprises of one bedroom, one living room and one bathroom. Your wife shared the kitchen facilities in the main house. You have not stated any other reason why this accommodation might be considered unreasonable for your continued use. I therefore consider this accommodation reasonable for your family to continue to occupy.’
[16]
The writer considered the evidence that the property had been sold by UML but rejected it on the grounds that the letters produced contained discrepancies and were lacking in the details which would be expected. She referred to her request to Mr Nalyaali for further information, which she had not received. Considering that repossession was a serious matter with legal implications, she concluded that the documents which had been provided did not show proof that the family home was no longer available to him.
APPEAL PROCEEDINGS
[17]
Mr Maloba appealed against the review decision pursuant to s 204 of the Act, which provides a right of appeal from such a decision to the county court on a point of law. The appeal was heard by Judge Hornby in the Bow County Court on 12 October 2006. The transcript of the proceedings makes unhappy reading. The judge had clearly formed a strong view of the merits of the appeal. There was nothing wrong in that, and he was entitled to put his view to Ms Bretherton in order to test her response. But unfortunately on this occasion he overstepped the mark in the number and nature of his interruptions, which prevented either counsel, but particularly Ms Bretherton, from being able to present their arguments properly. She did her best in difficult circumstances, and with a small measure of success in that the judge did not accept all the grounds which were advanced on behalf of Mr Maloba. But he allowed the appeal on the ground that the council’s decision that the accommodation in Kampala was reasonable for him to continue to occupy (assuming for this purpose that the accommodation was available) was Wednesbury unreasonable (see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223). He also said that, if it had been necessary to decide the point, he would have held that it was not open to the council to conclude on the material before it that the property was available to Mr Maloba. He did not direct that the council’s decision should be varied in Mr Maloba’s favour, but simply quashed the decision.
Page 707 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
[18]
The council appeals against the judge’s order. It also appeals against his order for costs, but that raises separate issues. It is convenient to deal first with the substantive issues.
[19]
As this court recognised in Osmani v Camden London BC [2004] EWCA Civ 1706, [2005] HLR 22, per Auld LJ at [34], the main focus of attention on a second appeal such as this should be on the decision of the council rather than that of the county court judge on appeal from it.
ARGUMENTS FOR THE COUNCIL
[20]
Ms Bretherton advanced three arguments regarding the reasonableness of the accommodation in Kampala.
[21]
First, she submitted that on the proper construction of the Act it was immaterial whether the accommodation was reasonable; all that mattered was its availability. For this proposition she relied on the judgments of the majority in Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2000] 1 WLR 306.
[22]
Secondly, if it was necessary for the council to consider the reasonableness of the accommodation, she submitted that the council had only to consider its reasonableness in terms of its size and facilities; the council was not obliged to consider whether it was reasonable to expect Mr Maloba to go to live in Uganda.
[23]
Thirdly, if it was necessary for the council to consider not only the physical structure of the building but also its location and whether Mr Maloba could reasonably be expected to live there, Ms Bretherton submitted that the review officer in fact took into account all the relevant factors and reached a decision which was not Wednesbury unreasonable.
[24]
The first two arguments raise questions of some general importance as to the proper interpretation of the Act.
[25]
On the issue of availability, Ms Bretherton submitted that it was open to the review officer to decide as she did on the material available to her.
ARGUMENTS FOR MR MALOBA
[26]
Mr Latham disputed each of Ms Bretherton’s arguments. First, he submitted that it was necessary for the council to consider not only whether the property in Kampala was available to Mr Maloba but also whether it was reasonable to expect him to occupy it. Secondly, he submitted that the factors relevant to that issue were not limited to the size and amenities of the property but also included its location and Mr Maloba’s personal circumstances. Thirdly, he submitted that the review officer did not take those wider factors into account in reaching her decision, but that, if she did so, the decision was Wednesbury unreasonable. On availability, he submitted that it was not properly open to the review officer to decide as she did.
THE ACT
[27]
Part VII of the Act contains various provisions relating to persons who are homeless or threatened with homelessness.
[28]
Section 175 defines homelessness and threatened homelessness as follows:
‘(1) A person is homeless if he has no accommodation available for his occupation, in the United Kingdom or elsewhere, which he—(a) is entitled to occupy by virtue of an interest in it or by virtue of an order of a court, (b) has an express or implied licence to occupy, or (c) occupies as a residence
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by virtue of any enactment or rule of law giving him the right to remain in occupation or restricting the right of another person to recover possession.
(2) A person is also homeless if he has accommodation but—(a) he cannot secure entry to it, or (b) it consists of a moveable structure, vehicle or vessel designed or adapted for human habitation and there is no place where he is entitled or permitted both to place it and to reside in it.
(3) A person shall not be treated as having accommodation unless it is accommodation which it would be reasonable for him to continue to occupy.
(4) A person is threatened with homelessness if it is likely that he will become homeless within 28 days.’
[29]
Section 176 provides that accommodation is available for a person’s occupation only if it is available for occupation by him together with any other person who normally resides with him as a member of his family or who might reasonably be expected to reside with him.
[30]
Section 177 contains non-exhaustive provisions about determining whether it is reasonable for a person to continue to occupy accommodation. Among other things, it is not reasonable for a person to continue to occupy accommodation if it is probable that this would result in the person concerned suffering domestic violence. Section 177(2) provides that in determining whether it would be, or would have been, reasonable for a person to continue to occupy accommodation, regard may be had to the general circumstances prevailing in relation to housing in the area of the housing authority to whom he has applied for accommodation or assistance.
[31]
If a housing authority has reason to believe that an applicant may be homeless or threatened with homelessness, s 184 imposes on it a duty to make inquiries to satisfy itself whether he is eligible for assistance and what, if any, duty is owed to him under the Act. On completion of its inquiries the authority must notify the applicant of its decision and of his right to request a review of it.
[32]
Sections 185 and 186 contain provisions about eligibility.
[33]
Pending a decision under s 184, the housing authority has a duty under s 188 to secure interim accommodation for an applicant if it has reason to believe that he may be homeless, eligible for assistance and have a priority need. It was under this provision that the council provided interim accommodation for Mr Maloba.
[34]
Where a housing authority is satisfied that an applicant is homeless, eligible for assistance and has a priority need, and is not satisfied that he became homeless intentionally, s 193 imposes on it a duty (subject to immaterial exceptions) to secure that accommodation is available for him.
[35]
Priority need is defined by s 189 and subordinate legislation made under it. A person has a priority need if he is someone with whom dependent children reside or might reasonably be expected to reside.
[36]
Section 191 defines ‘becoming homeless intentionally’. Subsection (1) provides:
‘A person becomes homeless intentionally if he deliberately does or fails to do anything in consequence of which he ceases to occupy accommodation which is available for his occupation and which it would have been reasonable for him to continue to occupy.’
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THE CONSTRUCTION OF S 175(3)—THE FIRST ISSUE
[37]
On the assumption that the council was entitled to decide that the property in Kampala was available to Mr Maloba, did it follow that he was not to be treated as homeless or threatened with homelessness within the meaning of s 175, regardless of whether it was reasonable to expect him to occupy it?
[38]
On first impression, it would be surprising if the answer were yes. This would seem to go against the grain of Parliament’s intention in providing that a person is not to be treated as having accommodation unless it is accommodation which it would be reasonable for him to continue to occupy. However, in Begum’s case a majority of the court considered that the inclusion of the words ‘to continue’ in s 175(3) had the effect that the subsection could only apply if the person was in actual occupation of the relevant accommodation. On this reading, if at the time of the council’s decision a person was in occupation of accommodation which it would not be reasonable for him to continue to occupy, the fact that he was living there would not prevent him from being homeless within the meaning of the Act; but the opposite would apply if he had left the property, so long as it remained available for his occupation. In the latter case, in order to qualify for help under the Act he would have to take up the accommodation which it would not be reasonable for him to continue to occupy, whereupon he would become statutorily homeless.
[39]
In reaching this conclusion Sedley LJ referred ([2000] 1 WLR 306 at 325–326) to the history of the legislation, which led him to the view that s 175(3) stood apart from s 175(1) and (2), and that they could not be read together. He considered that the theoretical possibility of an applicant being required to move into accommodation available to him, but which was unfit, could properly be regarded as unreal, since no responsible local authority would ever contemplate expecting an applicant to act in that way.
[40]
Auld LJ took a different approach. He interpreted the words ‘to continue to occupy’ in s 175(3) as follows (at 319):
‘In my view, it is plain that Parliament was not using continued occupation in the sense of continuance of an actual occupation at the time of the application, but of continuance stemming from one of the entitlements to occupy specified in section 175(1).’
[41]
On the facts of Begum’s case, the difference between Auld and Sedley LJJ on this point made no difference to the outcome. The appeal was originally heard by them as a two-judge court, but it was adjourned for further argument before a three-judge court on an unrelated point. On the adjourned hearing, presided over by Stuart-Smith LJ, the argument was limited to that other point, but in his judgment Stuart-Smith LJ expressed his agreement with Sedley LJ’s analysis of s 175. He added that in his view it made no practical difference because no responsible authority would be likely to take the point that an applicant was homeless where the only accommodation available to him was not reasonable for him to occupy.
[42]
Ms Bretherton relied on the opinions of the majority regarding the interpretation of s 175(3) as persuasive but not binding authority. The issue was academic in Begum’s case, but it is not academic in this case.
[43]
In my view the grammatical argument which found favour with the majority is outweighed by other factors which support Auld LJ’s approach. These relate to the coherence of the statute and the reasonableness of the result.
Page 710 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
[44]
The initial questions which arise for consideration when a homelessness application is made to a housing authority are whether the applicant is homeless (or threatened with homelessness) and whether he is eligible for assistance. Logically the question whether the applicant is homeless must precede consideration of the question whether, if so, he became homeless intentionally. Intentionally homeless persons are a subcategory of homeless persons, to whom housing authorities owe only limited obligations under the Act. (Under s 190 a housing authority may owe a duty to secure that accommodation is available for an intentionally homeless person on a temporary basis, and to provide or secure other advice and assistance, but the duty is of a strictly limited nature.)
[45]
If a housing authority reaches the stage of considering whether a person became homeless intentionally, s 191 requires it to consider whether the applicant has ceased to occupy accommodation which was available for his occupation and which it would have been reasonable for him to continue to occupy. In addressing that question it will also have to take into account, so far as relevant, the provisions of s 177 (including those relating to victims or potential victims of domestic violence).
[46]
The construction preferred by the majority in Begum’s case leads to this paradox: a person who has left accommodation in circumstances which did not make him homeless intentionally under the provisions of s 191 and s 177, because it was unreasonable to expect him to remain there, is nevertheless not homeless at all if he is able to return to the property which he reasonably left. This would produce statutory incoherence and cannot have been Parliament’s intention.
[47]
Auld LJ made a similar point in Begum’s case (at 319). Sedley LJ disagreed. He said at (at 327):
‘For the reasons I have given, section 175(3) is relevant only to a person whose application is made from extant accommodation: in that event, but only then, does the reasonableness of continued occupation arise. Unlike Auld L.J., I see no discontinuity between this reading and the provision of section 177(1) that it is not reasonable to continue to occupy accommodation if it is probable that domestic violence would ensue. The predicate of the provision is precisely that the applicant is housed in such a situation: if she is not, then she risks being treated as intentionally homeless under section 191 if “it would have been reasonable” for her to stay where she was—and this is why section 177(2) makes domestic violence determinative of reasonableness in relation both to present accommodation (section 175(3)) and past accommodation (section 191(1)). The same explains the language of section 177(3).’
[48]
My difficulty with this passage is that if one takes as the starting point the proposition that s 175(3) is relevant only to a person whose application is made from extant accommodation, it must follow that a person is not homeless within the definition of s 175 if he has other accommodation which he is able to occupy, whether or not it would be reasonable to expect him to do so. There the matter ends and the question of intentional homelessness does not arise. Conversely, if s 177 is to provide protection for a person who has left accommodation through fear of domestic violence and for whom the accommodation remains available (as the second part of the passage cited might be taken to suggest), then it is not right to say that s 175(3) can only apply in relation to accommodation in which the applicant is currently living.
Page 711 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
[49]
Linked with the question of coherence is the question of reasonableness. In general terms, the provision of ss 175, 177, and 191 point towards a policy that in deciding whether a person is homeless or, if homeless, has become homeless intentionally, no regard should be had to property available or previously available to the applicant if it would not be reasonable to expect the applicant to occupy it or to have occupied it for a continuing period.
[50]
As Sedley LJ noted, the provision now contained in s 175(3) was introduced by the Housing and Planning Act 1986 by amendment to the Housing (Homeless Persons) Act 1977 following the decision in Puhlhofer v Hillingdon London BC [1986] 1 All ER 467, [1986] AC 484 (together with the provision now contained in s 177(2)).
[51]
The 1977 Act contained no definition of accommodation. The 1977 Act introduced the statutory scheme of which Pt VII of the 1996 Act is the latest version, but it contained no definition of accommodation. In Puhlhofer’s case the applicants were a married couple with two young children living in one room at a guest house with no cooking or laundry facilities, except that they were allowed to use the kitchen to warm the baby’s milk. Ackner LJ (supporting the judgment of Hodgson J) would have held that to treat the word ‘accommodation’ as being totally unqualified did not give effect to the intention of Parliament as evinced by the statute considered as a whole. He said ([1985] 3 All ER 734 at 739, [1986] AC 484 at 493):
‘It cannot mean simply premises in which the applicant and his family are presently lodging. In my judgment the accommodation must be such that it is reasonable for the applicant and his family to continue to occupy it, having regard to the general circumstances prevailing in relation to housing in the area of the housing authority to whom he has applied.’
[52]
The majority of the Court of Appeal and all the members of the House of Lords considered otherwise. They preferred the argument advanced on behalf of the council by Mr Schiemann QC, which Ackner LJ summarised as follows ([1985] 3 All ER 734 at 737, [1986] AC 484 at 490):
‘So long as there is a roof over the head of the applicant and his family, and no doubt four walls to support that roof, it does not matter how unsuitable that accommodation is. Thus, an applicant and his family will not become homeless under the [1977] Act unless and until they walk out of the accommodation or are threatened with being deprived of that accommodation.’
[53]
Lord Brightman, who gave the sole judgment in the House of Lords, held that accommodation did not cease to be accommodation simply because it might be unfit for habitation. The only question was whether it could properly be considered to be accommodation at all, that is, capable of accommodating the applicant together with other persons who normally resided with him as members of his family.
[54]
This restrictive approach was overturned by Parliament. It is striking that the language of the amendments followed closely the interpretation of accommodation advanced by Ackner LJ in the Court of Appeal.
[55]
It is inconceivable that he could have intended by his choice of language to construe the Act in such a way that if Mr and Mrs Puhlhofer had left the guest house because of its unsuitability, but had been able to return, they would not have been homeless. This would have turned his reasoning on its head.
Page 712 of [2008] 2 All ER 701
[56]
I do not believe that Parliament can have positively intended by the language used in the amendments to create a distinction between a person with unfit accommodation available to him who was living in it and one who was not—a distinction so unreasonable that the majority in Begum’s case did not consider that any responsible authority could properly take the point. It is impossible to see any policy reason for such a distinction. Indeed, if there were a policy reason and Parliament positively intended to create such a distinction, then a responsible council could not be criticised for following it.
[57]
There remains the question whether the language used by Parliament nevertheless has the unavoidable effect for which the council contends. I would reach that result only if the words used were incapable of any other construction. In my view they are not. Good sense can be made of s 175(3) by construing the words ‘reasonable for him to continue to occupy’ as synonymous with ‘reasonable for him to occupy for a continuing period’, ie for the future, whether or not he is in occupation at the moment of the application or the decision.
[58]
This construction also ‘produces symmetry between the key concept of homelessness . . . and intentional homelessness’, to which Lord Hoffmann referred in Awua v Brent London BC [1995] 3 All ER 493 at 497, [1996] AC 55 at 67–68. He observed that if accommodation is so bad that leaving it for that reason would not make one intentionally homeless, then one is in law already homeless. Logic and justice suggests that the same should apply if a person has for the same reason not occupied accommodation which is physically available to him.
THE CONSTRUCTION OF S 175(3)—THE SECOND ISSUE
[59]
On the basis that the council had to consider whether it was reasonable to expect the applicant to occupy the accommodation which was available to him, was the council entitled to consider reasonableness solely in terms of the size and structural quality of the accommodation and its amenities?
[60]
In my judgment the answer is no. I can see no good reason for importing such a limitation. There may be other reasons why it would not be reasonable to expect a person to occupy accommodation which was available to him. If so, I can see no ground to suppose that Parliament intended such reasons to be ignored. Suppose that the accommodation in question was a bed-sitting room in a house where another room was occupied by a drunken ex-partner of the applicant who had attempted to murder her in the past and had threatened more than once to do so in future. The applicant would not come within the terms of s 177(1), because the ex-partner would not be a person who normally resided or might reasonably be expected to reside with her. But it cannot be right that the council would be entitled to ignore the question of risk to the applicant in deciding whether it was reasonable to expect her to occupy the property.
[61]
Moving from the general to the particular, Ms Bretherton submitted that the fact that the property in question in this case happens to be in Uganda is an irrelevant consideration because of the wording of s 175(1) ‘A person is homeless if he has no accommodation available for his occupation, in the United Kingdom or elsewhere’ (my emphasis). But that argument is a non sequitur. It conflates two separate questions—first, whether accommodation was available for Mr Maloba’s occupation and, secondly, whether it was reasonable to expect him to occupy it. There is no necessary reason why the answer to the second question should be the same as the answer to the first. Consider, for example, the case of a woman who was born in England and has lived all her life here. Her family originated in India, where she continues to have relatives. She marries or forms
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a relationship and has children. Her husband or partner subsequently dies or leaves her, and she finds herself homeless with dependent children. Her grandparents have always said that they would be happy for her and her children to live with them in India. She has never wished to do so and does not wish to do so now. Nor would anyone reasonably expect her to do so. It would mean uprooting the family from the country in which all the members were born, had lived their lives and had their cultural roots. It would also involve disruption of the children’s education. It may be said that those would be unusual facts, but the question whether it would be reasonable to expect a person to occupy particular accommodation is necessarily a fact-specific question. As a matter of statutory construction, I see no warrant for imposing the restrictions contended for by the council as to what may be relevant to that question.
THE REVIEW LETTER
[62]
Reading the review letter as a whole, it is clear in my judgment that the review officer adopted an over-restrictive approach to the matters which had to be considered. The tenor of the letter was that she dismissed Mr Maloba’s protestations about moving to Kampala on the basis that she had to consider whether he had accommodation anywhere in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. She then addressed herself to the property’s amenities. Nowhere did she consider whether it was reasonable to expect Mr Maloba to relocate to Kampala after he had been living here since 1989 and had acquired British citizenship. In summary, her approach mirrored the legal argument advanced on the council’s behalf on the second issue relating to the construction of s 175(3). In so doing she misdirected herself.
RESULT
[63]
I would therefore uphold the judge’s order quashing the council’s decision and dismiss this appeal.
[64]
In those circumstances it is unnecessary to consider the further question whether it was open to the review officer to decide that the Kampala property was available to Mr Maloba.
COSTS
[65]
The judge ordered the council to pay two-thirds of Mr Maloba’s costs. Ms Bretherton applied unsuccessfully for a stay of the order until the council had made a fresh determination of his homelessness claim and, if the new decision went against him, until after the determination of any fresh appeal by him. The judge said that it was the first time that an application of this kind had been made to him, but that was not his reason for refusing it. He considered that each case must turn on its own facts, and that this was a case which the council should never have contested. In the circumstances he did not think it right that he should stay the order for costs.
[66]
Ms Bretherton submitted that there ought to be a general practice on appeals under s 204 of the Act that any order for costs made against the housing authority should be subject to a stay until after the re-determination of the homelessness application and any subsequent appeal from it; and that there was no good reason for the judge to make an exception in this case. In support of her argument Ms Bretherton submitted as follows: 1 Mr Maloba had been funded by the Legal Services Commission (LSC) and was likely to be funded by it in any future appeal from a fresh determination; 2 the vast majority of s 204 appeals are unsuccessful; 3 refusal of a stay would expose the council to the risk of being
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unable to set off any order for costs which might be made in its favour at the end of a future unsuccessful appeal by Mr Maloba against the council’s costs liability in the present proceedings, and this would be unjust.
[67]
Ms Bretherton relied on Lockley v National Blood Transfusion Service [1992] 2 All ER 589, [1992] 1 WLR 492 and R (on the application of Burkett) v Hammersmith and Fulham London BC [2004] EWCA Civ 1342, [2004] All ER (D) 186 (Oct) to support the proposition that such a set off would in principle be just.
[68]
Because of the broad nature of the argument, permission was given to the Law Society to intervene on this issue. We also admitted written evidence from Richard Clayton QC, the chair of the Bar Council’s Sub-Committee on Civil Legal Aid and vice-chair of the Bar Council’s Remuneration Committee.
[69]
The authorities relied on by Ms Bretherton are distinguishable. In Lockley’s case the defendant succeeded in an interlocutory application against a legally aided plaintiff and was awarded the costs of the application. The court directed that it should be entitled to set off those costs against any award of damages or costs which might subsequently be made in the plaintiff’s favour in the action.
[70]
In Burkett’s case a publicly funded claimant applied for permission to bring judicial review proceedings against the defendant council. She was granted permission by the House of Lords, who made an order for costs in her favour in relation to the permission application. But her claim failed on the substantive hearing. The judge made an order for assessment of the council’s costs of the substantive hearing and directed that they should be set off against the claimant’s costs of the permission application. This order was upheld on appeal.
[71]
The present case is different. The council has not won on any issue and does not have an order for costs in its favour. It has incurred a liability in costs, which it wants to stay because of the possibility that there will be another statutory appeal and that next time the council will be successful. I accept that the court’s discretion is wide enough to enable it to grant such a stay if it considers it just to do so, but I am not persuaded that there should be a practice that such a stay should be granted in all such cases unless there is good reason for refusing it.
[72]
The potential implications of such a rule of practice could be far reaching. Although Ms Bretherton stressed that her submissions were limited to cases arising under the particular statutory regime relating to homeless persons, it would be easily arguable that the same principle should generally apply to any statutory appeal or judicial review in which a publicly funded litigant succeeded in having a decision quashed and the matter remitted to the original decision maker. The circumstances of individual cases may vary widely.
[73]
The background to the Law Society’s particular concern about the court establishing a general practice in these matters is that the maximum prescribed hourly rate payable by the LSC to solicitors under present regulations is £70, whereas reg 15 of the Community Legal Service (Costs) Regulations 2000, SI 2000/441 permits a solicitor for a successful LSC funded client, in whose favour a costs order has been made, to recover his costs at ‘normal commercial’ rates, which are much higher. The Law Society is concerned that if the form of order sought by the council in the present case became a matter of general practice, this could reduce the already diminishing number of firms willing to undertake publicly funded work and so impact on access to justice. I do not think that it is possible for the court properly to evaluate the extent to which such concerns may be well-founded on the present evidence, and I would be cautious
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about introducing a general practice with potential wider consequences which the court is unable properly to assess.
[74]
In the present case I can see no ground for criticising the way in which the judge exercised his discretion in relation to costs, and I would therefore dismiss the appeal on this issue.
CARNWATH LJ.
[75]
I agree. However, since on the first point we are disagreeing with the majority view of this court (albeit obiter), I will add some brief comments of my own.
[76]
The history of the provisions with which we are concerned provides a remarkable example of rapid intervention by Parliament to correct a House of Lords decision with which it disagreed. In February 1986, in Puhlhofer v Hillingdon London BC [1986] 1 All ER 467, [1986] AC 484, the House decided that the word ‘accommodation’ in the Housing (Homeless Persons) Act 1977 was to be read unqualified by any epithet such as ‘appropriate’ or ‘reasonable’. In November 1986 Parliament intervened by passing s 14 of the Housing and Planning Act 1986.
[77]
Puhlhofer’s case had reversed a line of earlier decisions at first instance. For example, in R v Preseli DC, ex p Fisher (1984) 17 HLR 147, a family living in a one-room boat, with no wc, and minimal washing or cooking facilities, were held to be homeless, because they had no ‘appropriate’ accommodation. Lord Brightman ([1986] 1 All ER 467 at 474, [1986] AC 484 at 517) said that Parliament had ‘plainly, and wisely’ placed no such qualifying adjective before the word ‘accommodation’ and that none was to be implied. He accepted that it would be a misuse of language to treat Diogenes’ barrel as accommodation within the meaning of the Act; but apart from such extreme examples: ‘What is properly to be regarded as accommodation is a question of fact to be decided by the local authority. There are no rules . . .’ (see [1986] 1 All ER 467 at 474, [1986] AC 484 at 517). The purpose of the 1986 Act amendment was stated in Parliament to be to ‘restore homeless people’s rights to the situation existing before the Puhlhofer judgment’ (Baroness David, 481 HL Official Report (5th series) col 649 (28 October 1986)).
[78]
The natural interpretation of the statute as so amended, in my view, is that accommodation which it is not reasonable for the particular family to occupy is disregarded for all purposes. It is true that s 175(3) of the Housing Act 1996 uses the expression ‘reasonable . . . to continue to occupy’, thereby arguably implying that it does not apply to accommodation which the applicant has not yet occupied. However, so to construe it would lead to absurdity. The one-room boat which the Fisher family occupied would not have been ‘accommodation’ within the amended Act, while they remained there (s 175(3)). Thus they would be technically ‘homeless’; and, if they left it deliberately, they would not be ‘intentionally homeless’ (s 191(1)). But if they had originally owned the boat without living in it, and had, say, been evicted from an ordinary house or flat, then they would not have been homeless, because the boat was available; and they would not become homeless until they had first occupied the boat, so as to come within s 175(3). That cannot have been the intention of Parliament. To avoid it, in my view, a purposive construction requires ‘continue to occupy’ to be read as ‘occupy or continue to occupy’.
[79]
The argument to the contrary is based on the judgments of the majority in Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2000] 1 WLR 306. However, the passage
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quoted by Toulson LJ should be read in the context of the reasons given earlier in the judgment of Sedley LJ. He had referred to the apparently awkward relationship between the three subsections of s 175, including the phrase ‘continue to occupy’ in s 175(3). It had been submitted (surprisingly, by the local authority) that the effect of the provisions was—
‘to make a person eligible for Part VII housing notwithstanding that they have accommodation available, so long as it is not accommodation which they have previously occupied (section 175(3)) and so long as it is not located in the district of the local authority to which application is made (section 197).’ (See [2000] 1 WLR 306 at 325.)
[80]
It was the ‘capricious’ effects of this submission that Sedley LJ sought to avoid by reference to the history of the provisions, which explained in his view why s 175(3) ‘stands apart from section 175(1) and (2)’ (see 326). He concluded this passage:
‘The upshot, in paraphrase, is that a person who has accommodation which nevertheless it would not be reasonable for him to occupy is to be regarded as having no accommodation. It does not mean that an applicant who has accommodation available to him is (unless it happens to be in the respondent authority’s own district) entitled to have it disregarded if he has not previously lived there . . .’
He then briefly considered the present issue, as one of two ‘unanswered questions’:
‘The first, which does not affect this appeal, is what happens where unfit accommodation is available in which the applicant has not previously lived: does [Puhlhofer v Hillingdon London BC [1986] 1 All ER 467, [1986] AC 484] continue to apply so as to force them to go into occupation, only to be rescued by section 175(3)? In my view no responsible local authority would ever contemplate testing the point, and the issue can properly be regarded as unreal.’
[81]
Stuart-Smith LJ’s agreement was subject to a similar qualification. He regarded Sedley LJ’s analysis as correct, but added (at 332):
‘in my view it makes no practical difference because, as he points out, no responsible authority would be likely to take the point that an applicant is homeless where the accommodation available is not reasonable for them to occupy, but it is not accommodation currently occupied. In the result it seems to me that the approach of the local authority should be to consider whether the accommodation is reasonable for the applicant to occupy, even if he has not previously occupied it.’
[82]
Thus, the comments of the majority in Begum’s case were directed to a different issue. The absurdity of the present suggestion was not lost on them, but they did not anticipate a responsible authority seeking to advance it. However, like Toulson LJ, I think we are able to rely on ordinary principles of construction of the statute, rather than on the discretion of local authorities, to avoid a result which Parliament cannot sensibly have intended.
[83]
On the second issue, I agree that the tenor of the passage from the review letter (including in particular the passage cited by Toulson LJ at [14], above) shows clearly that the writer considered that the reasonableness of expecting the
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applicant to live in Uganda was not a material issue. For the reasons given by him I see no basis in the Act for excluding such personal considerations in assessing the ‘reasonableness’ of the available accommodation. I recognise that the judgment may involve very difficult questions, in both human and policy terms. Provided the authority has properly and rationally considered the issues, its decision will not be open to challenge in law. However, in this case I agree that it has proceeded on too narrow a basis in law, and the matter must be remitted for reconsideration.
SIR IGOR JUDGE P.
[84]
I agree with both judgments.
Appeal dismissed.
Rakesh Rajani Barrister.
Moto Hospitality Ltd v Secretary of State for Transport
[2008] 2 All ER 718
[2007] EWCA Civ 764
Categories: LAND; Other
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LORD PHILLIPS OF WORTH MATRAVERS CJ, TUCKEY AND CARNWATH LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 25, 26 JUNE, 26 JULY 2007
Compulsory purchase – Compensation – Injurious affection – Land – Land or interest therein injuriously affected by the execution of works – Right to compensation – Improvement to motorway junction – Stopping-up of slip roads – Whether compensation payable for loss due to diminution in value of nearby motorway service area – Whether compensation payable only for loss due to diminution in value caused by works on land subject to compulsory purchase – Whether compensation payable for the injurious affection arising from the stopping-up of slip roads – Compulsory Purchase Act 1965, ss 1, 10.
The claimant operated a motorway service area which lay close to a motorway junction. The defendant, as highway authority for trunk roads, carried out alterations to the junction involving general improvements and the stopping-up of slip roads and realignment of various sections of highway (the scheme). Authorisation of the scheme required various orders made under the Highways Act 1980 including a compulsory purchase order for part of the land involved. The claimant considered that the new arrangement substantially diminished the value of its site as a service station, principally because the routes to it were longer and less direct. Owners of land compulsorily acquired for public works were entitled to compensation under the Compulsory Purchase Act 1965 and owners whose land was not taken but was injuriously affected by the execution of the works could have a claim under s 10a of the 1965 Act. Under that section if any person claimed compensation in respect of any interest in land which had been so affected ‘by the execution of the works, and for which the acquiring authority have not made satisfaction under the provisions of this Act, or of the special Act’ any dispute in relation to compensation was to be determined by the Lands Tribunal. The ‘special Act’ was defined in s 1b of the 1965 Act: ‘the enactment under which the purchase is authorised and the compulsory purchase order shall be deemed to be the special Act’ and ‘the works’ meant the works or undertaking of whatever nature authorised to be executed by the special Act. The tribunal ordered the trial of a preliminary issue as to whether the claimant was entitled to compensation under s 10 if it had suffered loss through the diminution in value of its interest in the motorway service area due to the carrying out of the works. The tribunal gave the definition of the ‘special Act’ a wide meaning, reasoning that s 10 gave an entitlement to compensation arising from the execution of ‘the works’, s 1 provided that ‘the works’ meant the works authorised to be executed by the special Act and the sections in the 1980 Act giving power to acquire land compulsorily did not authorise the execution of works; that power arose under
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other provisions of the 1980 Act and orders made under them. It considered that the reference in the definition to the ‘compulsory purchase order’ was simply in order to identify the particular undertaking for which the works were authorised. It also held that the obstructions were sufficiently ‘local’ to be capable of giving rise to the necessary ‘particular damage’. The defendant appealed, contending, inter alia, (i) that ‘enactment’ in s 1 referred only to the specific provision which authorised the compulsory purchase of land required for the scheme; (ii) that consequently compensation under s 10 was payable only for diminution of value caused by works on land subject to compulsory purchase; and (iii) that compensation was not payable under s 10 for the injurious affection arising from the stopping-up of a highway.
Held – (1) The inclusion of compulsory powers in the package of orders for the scheme, for at least part of the land required, was enough to trigger the application of s 10 of the 1965 Act to the works as a whole. There was no reason to extend the principle that stopping-up did not give rise to a claim under s 10 where execution of the works was facilitated by a stopping-up order made by a different compensating authority, under a different statutory scheme not incorporating the 1965 Act, to cases such as the instant one where the stopping-up order was made under the same Act by the same authority as part of a composite package of measures all of which were required for the execution of the works. In the instant case the tribunal had been correct to hold that a wide construction of ‘the special Act’ was appropriate so that ‘the works’ included the entirety of the works of highway construction and improvement that were to be carried out at the interchange and were not confined to the parts of the works to be carried out on the land acquired under the compulsory purchase order (see [49], [51]–[53], [55], [56], below); Jolliffe v Exeter Corp [1967] 2 All ER 1099 explained.
(2) In the instant case the loss arising from the new road system was too remote because it arose from the junction improvements as a whole rather than from the execution of parts of the works that would have given rise to an actionable wrong in the absence of the special Act so that the loss due the junction improvements as a whole was not a proper subject of claim. That left open the question whether a claim might be made for the effect of temporary closures during the works, on which the tribunal had made no findings. Accordingly, the appeal would be allowed and the matter remitted to the tribunal to determine that issue (see [75]–[79], [82]–[84], below); Wildtree Hotels Ltd v Harrow London BC [2000] 3 All ER 289, Wagstaff v Dept of the Environment, Transport and the Regions [1999] 2 EGLR 108 considered.
Notes
For compensation for injury by authorised works, see 8(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2003 reissue) paras 355–360.
For the Compulsory Purchase Act 1965, ss 1, 10, see 9 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 238, 246.
Cases referred to in judgments
Benjamin v Storr (1874) LR 9 CP 400, [1874–80] All ER Rep Ext 2000, Ct of CP.
Broadbent v Imperial Gas Co (1857) 7 De GM & G 436; affd sub nom Imperial Gas Light and Coke Co (Directors etc) v Broadbent (1859) 7 HL Cas 600, 11 ER 239, HL.
Caledonian Rly Co v Ogilvy (1856) 2 Macq 229, HL.
Page 720 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
Caledonian Rly Co v Walkers’ Trustees (1882) 7 App Cas 259, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592, HL.
Chamberlain v West End of London and Crystal Palace Rly Co (1862) 2 B & S 605, 121 ER 1197.
Clift v Welsh Office [1998] 4 All ER 852, [1999] 1 WLR 796, CA.
Director of Building and Lands v Shun Fung Ironworks Ltd [1995] 1 All ER 846, [1995] 2 AC 111, [1995] 2 WLR 404, PC.
Elm Avenue (6, 8, 10 and 12), New Milton, Re, ex p New Forest DC [1984] 3 All ER 632, [1984] 1 WLR 1398.
Ferrar v City Sewers Comrs (1869) LR 4 Exch 227, Ex Ch.
Hammersmith and City Rly Co v Brand (1869) LR 4 HL 171, [1861–73] All ER Rep 60.
Harper v GN Haden & Sons Ltd [1933] Ch 298, [1932] All ER Rep 59, CA.
Harpur v Mayor of Swansea [1913] AC 597, HL.
Horn v Sunderland Corp [1941] 1 All ER 480, [1941] 2 KB 26, CA.
Jolliffe v Exeter Corp [1967] 2 All ER 1099, [1967] 1 WLR 993, CA.
Kirby v Harrogate School Board [1896] 1 Ch 437, CA.
Metropolitan Board of Works v McCarthy (1874) LR 7 HL 243.
Minister of Transport v Edwards [1964] 1 All ER 483, sub nom Edwards v Minister of Transport [1964] 2 QB 134, [1964] 2 WLR 515, CA.
Ocean Leisure Ltd v Westminster City Council [2004] EWCA Civ 970, [2004] 3 EGLR 9.
Ricket v Metropolitan Railway Co (1867) LR 2 HL 175, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 2164.
Vasiliou v Secretary of State for Transport [1991] 2 All ER 77, CA.
Wagstaff v Dept of the Environment, Transport and the Regions [1999] 2 EGLR 108.
Waters v Welsh Development Agency [2004] UKHL 19, [2004] 2 All ER 915, [2004] 1 WLR 1304.
Wildtree Hotels Ltd v Harrow London BC [2000] 3 All ER 289, [2001] 2 AC 1, [2000] 3 WLR 165, HL.
Cases referred to in skeleton arguments
Allen v Gulf Oil Refining Ltd [1981] 1 All ER 353, [1981] AC 1001, [1981] 2 WLR 188, HL.
Aquilina v Havering London BC [1993] 1 EGLR 33, CA.
Blundy, Clark & Co v London and North Eastern Railway [1931] 2 KB 334, [1931] All ER Rep 160, CA.
Chaplin (W H) & Co Ltd v Westminster Corp [1901] 2 Ch 329.
Consolidated Goldfields plc v IRC, Gold Fields Mining and Industrial Ltd v IRC [1990] 2 All ER 398.
Fritz v Hobson (1880) 14 Ch D 542, [1874–80] All ER Rep 75.
Greasly v Codling (1824) 2 Bing 263.
Hart v Basset (1681) T Jo 156.
Lyon v Fishmongers’ Co (1876) 1 App Cas 662, [1874–80] All ER Rep Ext 2136, HL.
Mobil Oil Co Ltd v Secretary of State for the Environment and Sevenoaks DC [1991] JPL 353.
Penny and South Eastern Railway Co, Re (1857) 7 E & B 660.
Smith v Wilson [1903] 2 IR 45, Ir KBD.
Page 721 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
Appeal
The Secretary of State for Transport appealed from the decision of the Lands Tribunal (President George Bartlett QC) on 29 July 2006 in the trial of a preliminary issue (set out at [3], below) in a claim for compensation brought by Moto Hospitality Ltd against the Secretary of State under s 10 of the Compulsory Purchase Act 1965 for the diminution in value of Moto’s leasehold interest in the Cherwell Valley Motorway Service Area following alterations to junction 10 of the M40. The facts are set out in the judgment of Carnwath LJ.
David Holgate QC, Timothy Mould QC and Zoe Leventhal (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Craig Howell-Williams and Richard Honey (instructed by DLA Piper Rudnick Gray Cary UK LLP) for Moto.
Judgment was reserved.
26 July 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
CARNWATH LJ.
INTRODUCTION
[1]
This is the judgment of the court. The case raises important and difficult issues as to the scope of the statutory right to compensation under s 10 of the Compulsory Purchase Act 1965.
[2]
The claimant (Moto) operates the Cherwell Valley Motorway Service Area (the MSA), which it occupies under a sub-lease from Esso Petroleum Co Ltd. (The petrol filling station as such is occupied under licence only, which, as is accepted, does not give rise to a claim under s 10.) The MSA lies close to junction 10 on the M40, known as ‘the Ardley interchange’. During 2001 and 2002, alterations were carried out to the junction, involving general improvements and the stopping up and realignment of various sections of highway (the totality of which works we shall refer to as ‘the scheme’). Moto claims that the new arrangement substantially diminished the value of its site as a service station, principally because the routes to it are longer and less direct. It seeks compensation under s 10 of the 1965 Act for the diminution in value of its leasehold interest.
[3]
The President (George Bartlett QC) ordered the trial of a preliminary issue:
‘Whether, if the claimant has suffered loss through the diminution in value of its leasehold interest in the premises due to the carrying out of the works, it is entitled to compensation under section 10 of the Compulsory Purchase Act 1965.’
In a decision dated 29 July 2006, he answered that question in the affirmative. The Secretary of State appeals.
THE MAIN FEATURES OF THE SCHEME
[4]
The Ardley interchange forms the junction between the M40, running roughly north–south, the A43 to the east and the B430 to the west. The alterations were associated with the dualling of the A43 between Towcester and the M40.
Page 722 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
[5]
The President described the effect of the alterations by reference to a plan attached to the decision. For our purposes, the following is a sufficient summary. (i) Before the alterations the interchange consisted of two roundabouts, one on either side of the motorway (the ‘Eastern’ and ‘Western’ roundabouts), linked by a single carriageway crossing the motorway on a bridge, and each connected to it by on- and off-slip roads. (ii) The MSA was situated to the east of the Eastern roundabout. It was linked to the roundabout by a short length of dual carriageway and also by a short connecting road to the southbound on-slip road leading from the roundabout to the motorway. (iii) The alterations included the provision of a new ‘Padbury’ roundabout, about 300 metres along the A43 to the north of the Eastern roundabout. The Eastern roundabout remained, slightly altered in configuration, but the southbound off- and on-slip roads, formerly connecting the M40 with the Eastern roundabout, were replaced by new on- and off-slip roads connecting the M40 with the Padbury roundabout. (iv) The carriageway linking the Eastern roundabout to the MSA remained; but the former southbound on-slip road from the roundabout was cut off from the roundabout, and became a southbound on-slip road exclusively serving the MSA. (v) To the west of the motorway, the Western roundabout and the slip roads connecting with the M40 were replaced by a new roundabout (the new Western roundabout) on the B430 further to the west, connected to the M40 by new slip roads. (vi) The three roundabouts in the new system were linked by dual carriageway, including a bridge over the motorway, which together became part of the A43 trunk road.
THE CLAIM
[6]
The claim was based on both temporary and permanent loss. In relation to temporary loss the statement of case said:
‘The Works commenced in or around February 2001 and were completed in or around September 2002. The execution of the Works generally during this period caused disruption to the operation of the CVMSA, and in particular the ability of vehicles readily or conveniently to access the CVMSA from the Ardley Interchange.’
No particulars were given of the obstructions during the works.
[7]
Permanent loss was described as follows:
‘The execution of the Works involved obstructions of existing public highways at the Ardley Interchange by blocking of the highways and removal of the carriageways, including (the southbound off- and on-slip roads and the northbound off-slip road) . . .’
As a result, it was alleged, ‘the CVMSA was less accessible and/or convenient for, and attractive to, customers using the Ardley Interchange’.
[8]
The tribunal was presented with expert evidence on behalf of Moto, assessing the impact of the new arrangements on ‘turn-in’ rates to the MSA from different directions. For example, their evidence showed a reduction of 34% for southbound traffic on the M40; and similar orders of reduction for the other main flows. It was agreed that the distances via the MSA for various categories of traffic had increased by distances ranging from 120 to 615 metres (decision, para 12). As the President noted:
Page 723 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
‘The claimant’s concern about traffic from the A43 to the M40 southbound is not, I think, about the distance but with the fact that it no longer passes the MSA, since it goes from the new Padbury roundabout onto the new southbound slip-road. Traffic from the M40 southbound has now to negotiate both the Padbury roundabout and the Cherwell roundabout.’
[9]
Since this was the hearing of a preliminary issue, no specific findings were made on this evidence. However, one does not need expert guidance to deduce from the plans that, for example, the Padbury roundabout now provides the main link for many important traffic movements, previously served by the Eastern roundabout; and that, since it is considerably further from the MSA, the relative attractiveness of the MSA to those flows (all other things being equal) is likely to be significantly reduced.
[10]
We proceed on the basis that there has been a significant adverse effect on the attractiveness, and therefore on the value, of the MSA, without in any way prejudging the factual assessments which may need to be made by the tribunal in due course.
THE STATUTORY POWERS AND ORDERS
[11]
The improvements were carried out by the Secretary of State, as highway authority for trunk roads, under various orders made under the Highways Act 1980. The orders were confirmed following the normal statutory procedures, including consideration of objections and local inquiries. Moto did not raise the issue of damage to its business by way of formal objection to the orders, as it could have done (see eg Vasiliou v Secretary of State for Transport [1991] 2 All ER 77). That does not affect its right to statutory compensation as such, but, as will be seen, it may have a bearing on the factual context in which its claim is considered.
[12]
Authorisation of the scheme required a package of statutory orders, which were described in detail in the decision (para 6). The most relevant are: (i) The A43 Trunk Road (M40 to B4031 Improvement—Ardley Interchange Side Roads) Order 2000 (made under ss 14 and 125); (ii) The A43 Trunk Road (M40 to B4031 Improvement—Ardley Interchange Slip Roads) Order 2000 (ss 10, 41); (iii) The A43 Trunk Road (M40 to B4031 Improvement—Ardley Interchange) Compulsory Purchase Order (PS No 14) 2000 (ss 239, 240 and 246 of the 1980 Act, and s 2 of the Acquisition of Land Act 1981). The main purposes of this order (the CPO) were stated to be: (a) the construction of the new trunk roads; (b) the construction and improvement of highways and the provision of new means of access to premises, in pursuance of the Side Roads Order; (c) the improvement of the trunk road; (d) mitigation of adverse effects on the surroundings.
[13]
As is apparent from that summary, the 1980 Act contains a variety of provisions providing the necessary powers for different aspects of the scheme, including specific powers for compulsory purchase and for stopping up existing highways. The following are of particular relevance to the present appeal. (i) Section 10 contains general provisions relating to trunk roads, forming the ‘national system of routes for through traffic’ for which the Secretary of State is responsible. (ii) Section 14 contains ‘Powers as respects roads that cross or join trunk or classified roads’:
‘(1) Provision may be made by an order under this section in relation to a trunk road or a classified road, not being, in either case, a special road, for any
Page 724 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
of the following purposes:—(a) for authorising the highway authority for the road—(i) to stop up, divert, improve, raise, lower or otherwise alter a highway that crosses or enters the route of the road or is or will be otherwise affected by the construction or improvement of the road; (ii) to construct a new highway for purposes concerned with any such alteration as aforesaid or for any other purpose connected with the road or its construction, and to close after such period as may be specified in the order any new highway so constructed for temporary purposes . . .
(6) No order under this section authorising the stopping up of a highway shall be made or confirmed by the Minister unless he is satisfied that another reasonably convenient route is available or will be provided before the highway is stopped up.’
(iii) Section 24 gives the Secretary of State a general power to construct new highways. (iv) Section 125 enables an order under s 14 to include provision for stopping up private accesses, subject to provision of a ‘reasonably convenient’ alternative, if required (see s 125(3)). Section 126(2) provides a right to compensation for damage caused by the stopping up. (v) Sections 238–246 contain powers for the acquisition of land for different purposes, which are ‘exercisable compulsorily or by agreement’. Section 239 empowers the Secretary of State to acquire land required for the construction of a trunk road, and specifically (by s 239(2)) for the ‘carrying out of any works authorised by an order relating to a trunk road under section 14 . . .’ (vi) By s 247(2) the 1981 Act applies ‘to the compulsory acquisition of land’ under the preceding provisions of this Part of the Act (which includes s 239). (vii) Schedule 1 provides procedures for objections to the various forms of highways orders, and for the holding of local inquiries. Schedule 2 provides a procedure for challenging the validity of an order in the High Court, by application made within six weeks of publication of confirmation; and precludes any legal challenge thereafter. (The 1981 Act contains corresponding provisions in respect of the compulsory purchase orders.)
STATUTORY COMPENSATION FOR INJURIOUS AFFECTION
[14]
The incorporation of the 1981 Act brought with it the provisions of the 1965 Act and the Land Compensation Act 1961, governing compensation. Owners of land compulsorily acquired for such public works are entitled to compensation based on the market value of the land taken, ‘disturbance’, ‘severance’ and ‘injurious affection’, under principles defined by the 1961 Act and s 7 of the 1965 Act. An owner whose land is not taken, but is injuriously affected by the execution of the works, may have a claim under s 10 of the 1965 Act.
[15]
Section 10, which replaced s 68 of the Land Clauses Consolidation Act 1845, provides:
‘(1) If any person claims compensation in respect of any land, or any interest in land, which has been taken for or injuriously affected by the execution of the works, and for which the acquiring authority have not made satisfaction under the provisions of this Act, or of the special Act, any dispute arising in relation to the compensation shall be referred to and determined by the Lands Tribunal.
(2) This section shall be construed as affording in all cases a right to compensation for injurious affection to land which is the same as the right which section 68 of the Lands Clauses Consolidation Act 1845 has been
Page 725 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
construed as affording in cases where the amount claimed exceeds fifty pounds . . .’
[16]
For the definition of ‘the works’ and ‘the special Act’ reference must be made to s 1:
‘(1) This Part of this Act shall apply in relation to any compulsory purchase to which Part II of the Acquisition of Land Act 1981, or Schedule 1 to that Act, applies . . .
(2) In construing this Part of this Act the enactment under which the purchase is authorised and the compulsory purchase order shall be deemed to be the special Act . . .
(4) In this Part of this Act “the works” or “the undertaking” means the works or undertaking, of whatever nature, authorised to be executed by the special Act . . .’
[17]
The principles governing compensation under s 68 of the 1845 Act (usually known as the McCarthy rules) were established in a series of cases in the nineteenth century, culminating in Metropolitan Board of Works v McCarthy (1874) LR 7 HL 243, and Caledonian Rly Co v Walkers’ Trustees (1882) 7 App Cas 259, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592. They were reviewed recently by this court in Clift v Welsh Office [1998] 4 All ER 852, [1999] 1 WLR 796, and by the House of Lords in Wildtree Hotels Ltd v Harrow London BC [2000] 3 All ER 289, [2001] 2 AC 1.
[18]
The background to many of the nineteenth century cases lay in the rapid development of the railway system, which inevitably had an adverse effect on many businesses associated with the road network. In Ricket v Metropolitan Railway Co (1867) LR 2 HL 175 at 198–199, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 2164 at 2183, Lord Cranworth observed:
‘The very existence of a railway must cause loss to many persons in its neighbourhood. Every inn or posting house at which post horses were kept suffered, as is well known, grievous loss by the first establishment of a railroad in its neighbourhood; in fact, the business of such a house was often utterly destroyed. But it was never contended that this was an injury . . . for which compensation could be demanded . . .’
In the Wildtree case [2000] 3 All ER 289 at 295, [2001] 2 AC 1 at 8 Lord Hoffmann also referred to the dramatic impact of the construction of the railways, commenting:
‘It is not surprising that strong views were held about the respective claims of the winners and losers in this revolution and the judicial decisions often reveal the opinions of individual judges on questions of economic and social policy. Some were in favour of full compensation for all whose property had been adversely affected by the railway and others thought that the public interest required that liability should be kept within narrow bounds . . .’
[19]
The principles which emerged, as restated by Lord Hoffmann in the Wildtree case [2000] 3 All ER 289 at 294–295, [2001] 2 AC 1 at 7, are in summary: (i) The section gives a right to compensation to anyone whose land, or interest in land, has been injuriously affected by the execution of the works. It is not necessary that any of his land should have been taken. (ii) The term ‘injuriously affected’ connotes ‘injuria,’ that is to say, damage which would have been wrongful but for the protection afforded by statutory powers. In practice this
Page 726 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
means that a claimant has to show that but for the statute he would have had an action for damages for public or private nuisance. (iii) No compensation is payable under s 10 of the 1965 Act if the company or statutory authority acted outside its powers. (iv) Compensation is payable only for damage to the plaintiff’s land or interest in land. He is not entitled to any compensation for loss caused to him in a personal capacity. (v) Compensation under s 10 is for injurious affection caused by the ‘execution’ of the works, that is, for the effects of the construction of the works not for their operation and use. As Lord Hoffmann observed ([2000] 3 All ER 289 at 296, [2001] 2 AC 1 at 9), the last principle, settled finally by a majority in Hammersmith and City Rly Co v Brand (1869) LR 4 HL 171, [1861–73] All ER Rep 60, was an important success for ‘the advocates of a restrictive approach’, which reduced the practical importance of some earlier controversies on the other principles.
[20]
The debate in the present case has centred mainly on the second principle. This depends on drawing an analogy with common law principles of public nuisance. There is an obvious artificiality in applying such a test to works which would never in practice be carried out except under statutory authority. This was recognised at an early stage. In the Walkers’ Trustees case ((1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 279, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 597), Lord Selborne LC (who had himself been the unsuccessful advocate in Brand’s case) observed:
‘. . . if the point were open, I should myself think it questionable whether there was not a fallacy in such a test depending upon the hypothesis of the same work being executed without authority, which (having regard to the nature and operation of Acts for the execution of that class of public works) can hardly be supposed to have been within the contemplation of Parliament.’
[21]
The present case is, we think, the first in which a court at this level has been asked to apply these principles to improvement works to a major trunk road junction, carried out by the Secretary of State as highway authority. It might be thought that in such a context the public nuisance analogy becomes almost meaningless. Furthermore, little direct assistance is to be found in the nineteenth century cases, which for obvious reasons were not faced with comparable factual problems.
[22]
A similar case came before the president in Wagstaff v Dept of the Environment, Transport and the Regions [1999] 2 EGLR 108. We have been much assisted by his thorough and authoritative analysis of the issues, both in that case and in the present.
THE TRIBUNAL’S DECISION
[23]
We turn to the tribunal’s decision in the present case. He identified two issues as raised by the Secretary of State: (i) The works issue. The Secretary of State contended that Moto’s loss (if any) arose from the stopping up of the slip roads, which did not constitute part of ‘the works’ for the purposes of s 10. (ii) The public nuisance issue. The Secretary of State contended that Moto had not suffered particular damage under Wildtree principle (ii).
[24]
Both issues were decided in favour of Moto. On the works issue, there were two reasons for giving the definition of the ‘special Act’ (and hence the definition of ‘the works’) a wide meaning:
Page 727 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
‘19. The first is that s 10 gives an entitlement to compensation for injurious affection arising from the execution of “the works”; that s 1(4) provides that “the works” means the works authorised to be executed by the special Act; and that the sections in the Highways Act giving power to acquire land compulsorily do not authorise the execution of works. The power to execute works arises under other provisions of the Act and orders made under them and not under the CPO or the sections that empower it.’
The second relied on comparison with the definition of ‘special Act’ in the 1845 Act:
‘22. (Under s 2 of the 1845 Act) “the special Act” did not consist only of the particular provisions that authorised the taking of lands for the undertaking. It was the whole Act, including the provisions in it that authorised the execution of the works. Compensation under s 68 was not limited to injurious affection caused by the carrying out of works on land that the special Act had authorised to be acquired. To construe “the special Act” for the purpose of the 1965 Act as confined to the powers conferring the right to acquire land compulsorily would, or could, restrict the right to compensation to a narrower range of circumstances than under the 1845 Act, and this would be inconsistent with s 10(2). It is therefore necessary, in my judgment, to give to “the enactment under which the purchase is authorised” a meaning that will result in the same entitlement to compensation for injurious affection as would have resulted from an Act that authorised the taking of lands and the execution of works for purposes of a particular project and which incorporated the Lands Clauses Act.’
The President thought that the reference in the definition to the ‘compulsory purchase order’ was simply in order to identify the particular undertaking for which the works were authorised:
‘23. Thus the works for the purposes of which the CPO was made consisted of the entirety of the works of highway construction and improvement that were to be carried out at the Ardley interchange. They were not confined to the parts of the works to be carried out on the land acquired under the CPO. It is the entirety of the works, therefore, that in my judgment constitute “the works” for the purposes of s 10, and it is the entirety of the statutory provisions enabling such works to be carried out that constitutes the enactment.’
He did not think that the decision of this court in Jolliffe v Exeter Corp [1967] 2 All ER 1099, [1967] 1 WLR 993 compelled a narrower construction.
[25]
On the public nuisance issue, he held (at para 54) that the obstructions were sufficiently ‘local’ to be capable of giving rise to particular damage and that on the facts they satisfied the McCarthy test:
‘55. The question is whether the claimant has suffered damage of a kind or in a way that is different from that suffered by others. What seems to me to be of crucial significance in this respect is that the claimant’s land is part of a motorway service area, which has been located where it is for the specific purpose of enabling services to be provided to motorists on the motorway, and it is this that gives particular value to the land. Access to and from the motorway is of particular importance to the claimant’s land for this reason,
Page 728 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
and it is this that distinguishes the position of the claimant from that of the generality of landowners in the area and other users of the interchange. If such access is obstructed in a way that causes a diminution in the value of its interest the claimant will have suffered particular damage.’
[26]
He concluded (at para 56) that the obstructions of the southbound and northbound off-slip roads and of the northbound on-slip road were capable of giving rise to claims for compensation under s 10. However, the obstruction of the short length of the southbound on-slip road could not give rise to a claim because it was not on that part of the slip-road that provided access from the MSA to the motorway.
THE APPEAL
[27]
An appeal lies to this court on points of law only. The Secretary of State contends that the tribunal erred in law on five grounds. They can be summarised as follows: (i) (in relation to the works issue) the term ‘enactment’ in s 1 of the 1965 Act refers only to the specific provision which authorised the compulsory purchase of land required for the scheme; (ii) consequently, compensation under s 10 is payable only for diminution of value caused by works on land subject to compulsory purchase; (iii) compensation is not payable under s 10 of the 1965 Act for the injurious affection arising from the stopping up of a highway; (iv) the tribunal’s ‘wide’ construction would constitute a significant extension of entitlement to land compensation, as previously understood; (v) (in relation to the public nuisance issue) the tribunal failed to apply correctly the ‘appurtenant rights’ and ‘proximity’ aspects of the McCarthy principles. The Secretary of State further contends that points (ii) and (iii) were settled in his favour by this court in Jolliffe’s case.
[28]
We say at once that we do not think that ground (iv) adds anything of substance to the others. If the tribunal was correct on the other points, then it matters not if this is seen as an extension of the rights under s 10 as previously understood. It was the tribunal’s duty to apply the law as it found it, not to start from any preconceptions as to where the boundaries of compensation rights should be drawn. We must do the same.
[29]
However, we also bear in mind the strong criticisms that have been made of the current state of the law of compensation, derived from piecemeal development, by statute and case law, over more than 150 years. The criticisms were reflected in the Law Commission’s recent report, which made recommendations for a new statutory code (Towards a Compulsory Purchase Code: (1) Compensation (2003) (Law Com no 286)). The Commission recommended (Part XI) that s 10 should be replaced by a new and extended right for compensation caused by the execution of public works, linked to the existing provisions of Pt I of the Land Compensation Act 1973 (compensation for depreciation caused by the use of public works). The government has so far declined to act on those recommendations.
[30]
In those circumstances we think there is some obligation on the courts to do what they properly can to help to rationalise the law. The main principles have now been settled at the highest level in a trilogy of cases: see Director of Building and Lands v Shun Fung Ironworks Ltd [1995] 1 All ER 846, [1995] 2 AC 111 (general principles and disturbance), the Wildtree case (injurious affection where no land is taken), and Waters v Welsh Development Agency [2004] UKHL 19, [2004] 2 All ER 915, [2004] 1 WLR 1304 (disregarding ‘the scheme’). In the last case
Page 729 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
Lord Nicholls of Birkenhead endorsed the Law Commission’s criticisms of the complexity and obscurity of the law, and commented:
‘[4] . . . Meanwhile, until Parliament takes action I suggest your Lordships’ House, so far as it may properly do so, should seek to simplify the law, always having in mind that the aim of compensation is to provide a fair financial equivalent for the land taken.’
Mutatis mutandis we would respectfully adopt a similar approach.
[31]
We turn therefore to the issues raised by the appeal, which can be most helpfully sub-divided as follows:
(i) The ‘works issue’
(a) Does the ‘the special Act’ include all the relevant statutory powers under the 1980 Act?
(b) Is the scope of the works limited, so as to exclude—
(i) works on land outside the CPO; or
(ii) the effect of the statutory stopping-up orders?
(c) To what extent was any of those questions determined by this court in Jolliffe’s case?
(ii) The ‘public nuisance issue’
(a) Was the tribunal entitled in law to find that the MSA had suffered ‘particular damage’?
(b) Was that answer precluded because the rights interfered with were either—
(i) not ‘appurtenant’ to the MSA; or
(ii) not sufficiently ‘proximate’ to the MSA?
THE WORKS ISSUE
[32]
It is convenient to start by considering the issues raised under this head by reference to the 1845 Act and the cases under it, before considering the effect of Jolliffe’s case and of the 1965 and 1980 Acts.
Definition of the ‘special Act’ and ‘the works’
[33]
Under the 1845 Act, the ‘special Act’ would normally have been a private Act giving a particular undertaking, for example a railway or canal undertaking, all the necessary powers to carry out its statutory purpose. Typically, these would include powers to acquire outstanding land interests, to stop up or divert public highways or private accesses, and to override other private interests. As the tribunal observed, there was no reason to read s 68 as limited to the particular provisions that authorised the taking of lands. The other powers were equally important to provide the necessary authority for the execution of the works.
Link with compulsory purchase
[34]
Consistently with this approach, and in spite of some contrary indications in the statute, the courts rejected arguments that s 68 was confined to cases where land was acquired compulsorily.
[35]
This issue was considered by this court in Kirby v Harrogate School Board [1896] 1 Ch 437. Under the Elementary Education Act 1870, the board had power to build school accommodation, and to acquire land for that purpose. Section 20 provided that the 1845 Act was to apply ‘with respect to the purchase of land’ for the purposes of the 1870 Act. The board began to erect a school building on a site
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which they had acquired by agreement. The plaintiff alleged that it infringed a restrictive covenant attached to his land, and sought an injunction. The claim failed. The court held that the work was authorised by the statute, and that the only remedy for the infringement of the private right was a claim for compensation under s 68 of the 1845 Act.
[36]
One issue was whether compensation could be claimed under s 68 for work on land acquired by agreement, rather than compulsorily. Reference was made to the fact that s 68 was part of group of sections in the 1845 Act headed ‘Purchase of lands otherwise than by agreement’. The court rejected a narrow interpretation. Although some of the reasoning turned on the specific wording of the 1870 Act, the decision was of more general effect. Thus, Lindley LJ, while acknowledging that the language of the statute was ‘not quite happy’, said (at 448–449):
‘. . . when regard is had to the object of the section, it would be misreading the Lands Clauses Act if we were to hold that a person injuriously affected by the construction of the works could not have the benefit of s. 68 if the company had managed to acquire the land by agreement rather than by the exercise of their compulsory powers. I have not the slightest doubt myself that s. 68 properly applies to all cases of purchase by railway companies under their powers, and to all cases of purchase by school boards under the powers conferred upon them by this Act of 1870.’
[37]
Similarly Kay LJ (at 451) saw no reason to confine the words of s 68 (‘even when applied to a railway company’) to works on land which has been compulsorily acquired. The third member of the court (AL Smith LJ) agreed with both judgments on this point (at 455).
[38]
In reading the early cases, however, some care is needed to distinguish between the interpretation of s 68 itself, and that of the incorporating provisions of the special Act. The application of s 68 may depend on apparently narrow differences of wording. For example: (i) In Kirby’s case itself the special Act applied the 1845 Act ‘with respect to the purchase of land’ without distinguishing compulsory and voluntary acquisitions. Thus the issue concerned the interpretation of s 68 itself, not the special Act. (ii) By contrast, a strict approach was adopted in a much earlier case (see Ferrar v City Sewers Comrs (1869) LR 4 Exch 227). The special Act incorporated the provisions of the 1845 Act other than those related to ‘the taking of land otherwise than by agreement’. It was held that s 68 was not incorporated, because it was one of a series of clauses headed ‘with respect to the taking of land otherwise than by agreement’. An earlier case which had gone the other way (see Broadbent v Imperial Gas Co (1857) 7 De GM & G 436) was distinguished because there the sections excluded by the special Act were such provisions ‘as related exclusively’ to the compulsory taking of land. (Ferrar’s case was distinguished in Kirby’s case [1896] 1 Ch 437 at 452 per Kay LJ, as turning on the wording of the special Act).
(iii) There is no such problem where the incorporating provision is not in terms confined to a link with acquisition. Thus, in Harpur v Mayor of Swansea [1913] AC 597, the special Act (for waterworks) gave power to ‘take or use’ any land for the construction of works, subject to compensation under the 1845 Act. The works in question involved the laying of pipes in the public road, and the claim was by the authority responsible for maintaining the highway. (There appears to have been no acquisition as such, compulsory or otherwise.) It was
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accepted by the House that compensation was payable under s 68. Lord Parker noted that the special Act incorporated the 1845 Act, observing (at 607):
‘It has been long settled that the incorporation of this latter Act is of itself sufficient to confer a right to compensation whenever land is injuriously affected by the execution of works authorized by the special Act . . .’
[39]
The view that s 68 itself was not dependent on compulsory purchase was treated as settled in Horn v Sunderland Corp [1941] 1 All ER 480, [1941] 2 KB 26. In that case, Scott LJ (who, as counsel, had been the author of an important report on compensation law, which preceded the changes made by the Acquisition of Land Act 1919) gave a classic exposition of the principles of compensation law. It is most often cited in the context of compensation for disturbance, but he also dealt with s 68 ([1941] 1 All ER 480 at 492, [1941] 2 KB 26 at 42–43):
‘There is a third kind [of compensation] given by s 68 of the [1845] Act, but that has nothing to do with compulsory acquisition. It is a remedy for injuries caused by the works authorised by the Act to the lands of an owner who has had none of his land taken in that locality. The remedy is given because Parliament by authorising the works has prevented damage caused by them from being actionable, and the compensation is given as a substitute for damages at law . . .’ (Our emphasis.)
[40]
Thus it is clear that, subject to any specific provision in the special Act, a claim for compensation under s 68 did not depend on the inclusion of compulsory purchase powers in the provisions authorising the works. By the same token, where some of the required land was subject to compulsory purchase, it is hard to see why it would have mattered for the purposes of s 68 whether the works took place on that land or elsewhere. As far as we are aware, there is no support for such a distinction in any of the s 68 cases before Jolliffe’s case (to which we turn below).
Statutory stopping-up powers
[41]
Similarly, the nineteenth century cases seem to us to give no support for an argument that stopping up under statutory powers granted by the ‘special Act’ was excluded from the scope of s 68. This aspect was exhaustively and persuasively examined by the President in Wagstaff’s case [1999] 2 EGLR 108 at 113, and we see no reason to duplicate that discussion. As he observed, in the long history of this provision, until Jolliffe’s case, there appears to have been no case where stopping up (whether under express or implied statutory powers in the special Act) has been treated as outside the scope of s 68.
[42]
We would only add that the argument was raised and implicitly rejected in an important early case: see Chamberlain v West End of London and Crystal Palace Rly Co (1862) 2 B & S 605, 121 ER 1197. It had been found that following the railway works cutting off a highway access, and notwithstanding the provision of a deviation road, the value of the claimant’s properties as shops had been ‘greatly diminished’ by the reduction in the number of people passing them ((1862) 2 B & S 605 at 626, 121 ER 1197 at 1205). In the course of argument for the railway company, reference was made to the provisions of the 1845 Act relating to the stopping up and diverting of roads, and the requirement, subject to a penalty, to provide ‘a permanent substituted road, equally convenient as the former, or as near thereto as circumstances will allow’ (see ss 56–57). It was
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argued that these requirements implicitly excluded any right to compensation under s 68.
[43]
Although the court made no specific reference to this argument, it must be taken as having rejected it. Erle CJ (with whom the rest of the court agreed) accepted, on the basis of the umpire’s finding, that the claimants’ houses had been depreciated in value ‘because the highway was stopped up, and the easy access which before existed was taken away’. He may well have thought it implicit in the umpire’s findings that the statutory test for the replacement had not in fact been met by the deviation road. (By contrast with the 1980 Act, the 1845 Act did not make satisfaction on that issue a pre-condition of the validity of an order.) In any event, he concluded that the case came within the scope of s 68 ((1862) 2 B & S 605 at 635–636, 121 ER 1197 at 1207–1208). This decision was later approved by the House of Lords in McCarthy’s case (again without any reference to the issue of statutory stopping-up powers).
Jolliffe’s case
[44]
Jolliffe was the owner of a garage on a busy road. In connection with the construction of a new inner ring road, the council compulsorily acquired some adjoining land under the Highways Act 1959, and also procured the making of a stopping-up order by the Minister of Transport under the Town and Country Planning Act 1947. No land was taken from him, but the garage was left at the end of a cul-de-sac and the business was seriously affected. It was held that s 10 gave no right to compensation.
[45]
Mr Holgate relies on Jolliffe’s case as showing that a claim under s 10 only arises in respect of works on the land subject to compulsory purchase. We accept that this was part of Lord Denning MR’s reasoning, but we agree with the President’s analysis (at para 32) of the other judgments, which shows that, in spite of some incidental comments suggesting a narrow view of ‘the special Act’, this point was not essential to the majority conclusion.
[46]
In any event, this point was not fully argued. There was no reference to the history discussed above. Indeed it was apparently conceded by counsel for the claimant (contrary to Kirby’s case) that, had the acquisition been by agreement, no compensation would have been payable. As Lord Denning MR fairly observed ([1967] 2 All ER 1099 at 1101, [1967] 1 WLR 993 at 998), ‘[i]t would be very strange if a compulsory purchase order made all the difference’. He might well have taken a different view, had he been reminded that in Kirby’s case the same thought had led the court to the opposite conclusion: that the equivalent s 68 should be read as extending to works on land acquired by agreement.
[47]
On the stopping-up issue, Mr Holgate is on firmer ground, since all three members of the court clearly based their decision on this point. Lord Denning MR said ([1967] 2 All ER 1099 at 1100, [1967] 1 WLR 993 at 997):
‘[The stopping-up order] authorised the stopping-up of various streets in Exeter, including this part of Coombe Street. It is important to [observe], however, that the Act of 1947 contains no provision for compensation. In this respect the Act is like the old Highway Act, 1835. The legislature provided for local inquiries and confirmation by quarter sessions; but did not provide for compensation. Under that Act the stopping-up might ruin a man’s trade, but he could recover no compensation. So here, the
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stopping-up of Coombe Street may damage the plaintiff’s trade in that street, but he can recover no compensation on that account.’
[48]
Similarly, Davies LJ noted ([1967] 2 All ER 1099 at 1102, [1967] 1 WLR 993 at 999) that the stopping up of the street was done by the minister under the 1947 Act, which made no provision for compensation. Russell LJ ([1967] 2 All ER 1099 at 1102, [1967] 1 WLR 993 at 1000) thought that ‘the execution of the works authorised, that is to say, the construction of the highway’ had no injurious effect on the plaintiff’s property:
‘The damage was already done. Coombe Street, before a pick or spade had been laid on the works, had been turned into a cul-de-sac so far as the plaintiff was concerned.’
[49]
Thus, Jolliffe’s case must be taken as authority for the proposition that, where the execution of the works is facilitated by a stopping-up order made by a different compensating authority, under a different statutory scheme not incorporating the 1965 Act, the stopping up does not give rise to a claim under s 10. In this case, by contrast, the stopping-up order was made under the same Act by the same authority, and as part of a composite package of measures, all of which were required for the execution of the works. We see no reason, based on the nineteenth century cases or otherwise, to extend the Jolliffe principle to a case like this.
The modern law
[50]
Finally, we consider whether the law as settled under s 68 has been altered, either generally under s 10 of the 1965 Act, or, specifically, as applicable to the scheme.
Section 10 of the 1965 Act
[51]
The short answer to the first point has to be No, principally because s 10(2) makes that clear. Section 10 is to be construed as affording ‘in all cases’ the same right to compensation as under s 68. As Lord Hoffmann observed of the subsection ([2000] 3 All ER 289 at 293, [2001] 2 AC 1 at 6):
‘. . . [it] is an unusual provision which suggests some anxiety on the part of the legislature to discourage the courts from taking a fresh look at the statutory language.’
[52]
Arguably, the wording of s 1 of the 1965 Act (reflecting the title of the Act itself) implies a more specific link with compulsory purchase than the heading to the group of sections in the 1845 Act (referred to in Kirby’s case). In particular, the definition of ‘special Act’ in s 1(2) (‘the enactment under which the purchase is authorised and the compulsory purchase order’) appears to assume the existence of a compulsory purchase order of some form. However, we agree with Scott J, who in Re 6, 8, 10 and 12 Elm Avenue, New Milton, ex p New Forest DC [1984] 3 All ER 632, [1984] 1 WLR 1398 accepted Kirby’s case as authority for the application of s 10 to works on land acquired by agreement (although we note that there was no counter argument on the point.) Regardless of differences in the language, we regard Kirby’s case (taken with s 10(2)) as justifying a broad construction and a purposive approach, even if it involves some violence to the statutory wording.
[53]
We note also, as did the tribunal (at para 33), that—
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‘in none of the other leading modern cases on the application of s 68 and s 10 [including Clift’s case and the Wildtree case, and Ocean Leisure Ltd v Westminster City Council [2004] EWCA Civ 970, [2004] 3 EGLR 9] was it thought necessary to consider whether the works giving rise to the damage had been carried out on land that had been compulsorily acquired.’
In the last case (the Ocean Leisure case) it was conceded by the council that s 10 applied to injury from works on the highway, regardless of any link with a particular acquisition, compulsory or voluntary. This was under a statutory order which in terms applied the 1965 Act to ‘the acquisition of land’ under the order. For the purposes of the present case, it is unnecessary to decide whether the concession was correct, although we have no reason to doubt it. It is sufficient to hold that the inclusion of compulsory powers in the package of orders for the scheme, for at least part of the land required, was enough to trigger the application of s 10 to the works as a whole.
[54]
For completeness, we record Mr Holgate’s tentative reliance on the decision of this court in Minister of Transport v Edwards [1964] 1 All ER 483, [1964] 2 QB 134. That case concerned s 63 of the 1845 Act (now s 7 of the 1965 Act), which gave an owner of land compulsorily acquired an additional right to compensation for severance or injurious affection of land previously held with the land taken. Adopting a narrow approach to construction of s 63, it was held that the claim for injurious affection was confined to the effects of works and uses on the land taken. We have some doubt whether it would have been decided the same way today (having regard, for example, to the restatement of the general principle of ‘full and fair compensation’ in the Shun Fung case [1995] 1 All ER 846 at 852, [1995] 2 AC 111 at 125). In any event, as the judgments made clear (see eg [1964] 1 All ER 483 at 493–494, [1964] 2 QB 134 at 158 per Russell LJ), s 68 was not in issue. The effect of the decision as regards s 63 was reversed by s 44 of the Land Compensation Act 1973. In our view, the case is of no assistance in the present case.
The present scheme
[55]
Against this background we agree with the President’s reasons for holding that a wide construction of ‘the special Act’ is appropriate in the present case. He recalled (at para 16) his consideration of this issue in Wagstaff’s case, where he had held that the special Act was not limited to the provisions and orders authorising compulsory purchase, but included—
‘all the provisions both in the 1980 Act itself and in the orders made under it that empowered the carrying out of the project. Thus it included not only the CPO but also the other orders, including the side roads order that provided for the stopping-up of highways.’
In this case, accordingly, he held (at para 23) that the works included ‘the entirety of the works of highway construction and improvement that were to be carried out at the Ardley interchange’. We agree.
[56]
For the reasons already discussed, there is no reason to exclude the stopping-up provisions. It is true that under this Act the orders could not be made unless provision was made for ‘reasonably convenient’ alternatives (see s 14(6)). However, this did not necessarily exclude the possibility of particular damage in individual cases. It is of interest to note (as did the tribunal in Wagstaff’s case at 110) that, in relation to stopping up of private accesses (see ss 125–126), where
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again the Act requires a ‘reasonably convenient’ alternative, there is also specific provision for compensation. There is nothing in the Act to suggest that the corresponding requirement in s 14(6), in relation to stopping up of public highways, is intended to limit the scope of the 1965 Act, as incorporated (at one remove) by s 247.
[57]
There is a slightly stronger argument in respect of the link with compulsory purchase. Section 247 applies the 1981 Act (and through it the 1965 Act) specifically in relation to the compulsory acquisition of land. However, on the view we have taken, the inclusion of compulsory powers for part of the land, is enough to apply s 10 to the effects of the whole of the scheme.
[58]
On this point, we note also the President’s comments on the surprising results to which Mr Holgate’s argument would lead. The statement of case relied on three specific obstructions, caused by the stopping up, respectively, of the old south-bound on- and off-slip roads (on the MSA side of the motorway) and of the north-bound off-slip road (on the opposite side of the motorway). The purpose and location of these obstructions was unrelated in any way to the requirements for compulsory purchase. The areas in the CPO represented something of a patchwork, depending on the extent of additional land required beyond that already included within the highway under previous orders. The President (at para 34) described the effect of Mr Holgate’s argument:
‘No compensation could be payable in relation to the southbound off-slip road because, although it had constructed across it the new off-slip road which, immediately adjacent to the old slip road was on CPO land, the land where the new road went across the old slip road was not within the CPO. The same would go for the northbound off-slip road. The northbound on-slip road, however, had constructed across it a new length of footpath and this was constructed on CPO land. Compensation could consequently arise in relation to this.’
We are happy to conclude that the law does not produce such an apparently arbitrary and illogical result.
THE PUBLIC NUISANCE ISSUE
[59]
We turn to the other main issue, relating to the definition of ‘particular damage’ under the second principle in the Wildtree case. As Lord Hoffmann commented when explaining this principle ([2000] 3 All ER 289 at 294, [2001] 2 AC 1 at 7):
‘. . . This rule offers considerable scope for dispute on the facts and some of the decisions on injurious affection reflect different judicial views on what amounts to particular damage.’
[60]
Mr Holgate seeks to extract two principles from the authorities: first, that the rights interfered with must be ‘appurtenant’ to the claimant’s land; secondly, the obstruction must be ‘proximate’.
‘Appurtenant rights’
[61]
This particular wording is derived from Lord Hoffmann’s speech in the Wildtree case ([2000] 3 All ER 289 at 298, [2001] 2 AC 1 at 11) where he spoke of interference with ‘rights appurtenant to the property, such as public or private rights of way’. Mr Holgate sought to equate it with similar terms used in the
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nineteenth century cases. For example, the formulation (by Mr Thesiger QC) approved by the House of Lords in Metropolitan Board of Works v McCarthy (1874) LR 7 HL 243 at 253 referred to ‘any right, public or private’ which the owners or occupiers of property are entitled to use ‘in connection with such property . . .’; and Lord Chelmsford (in the same case, at 256) spoke of the need, in relation to a public right, for ‘something peculiar to the right in its connection with the house to distinguish it from that which is enjoyed by the rest of the world’.
[62]
The word ‘appurtenant’ itself is not found in the nineteenth century formulations. It is a word normally associated with private rights attached to land, not with the law of public nuisance. Lord Hoffmann himself, when restating the McCarthy principles, made no reference to ‘appurtenant’ rights, but spoke simply of the traditional requirements for the claimant to show ‘particular damage’, and for the claim to be for damage to land, rather than for loss suffered in a personal capacity. His later use of the term (‘rights appurtenant to the property, such as public or private rights of way’) came during his discussion of the arguments of counsel, and followed his citation of the Thesiger formulation. In that context, it reads, not as exposition, but as convenient shorthand.
[63]
The only reference to ‘appurtenant rights’ in the nineteenth century cases seems to be in the argument of counsel for the railway company in the Walkers’ Trustees case (1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 267–268. He spoke of the need for the right to have ‘a degree of proximity to the affected property which made it, in a reasonable sense, an appurtenant of the property’. His argument failed, and his use of the term ‘appurtenant’ was not followed by the majority. Lord Selborne LC ((1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 280, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 597) mentioned the argument that the access was not ‘a right so connected with or incident to their real estate’ as to give rise to compensation; but he regarded it as sufficient that the right of access ‘was direct and proximate, and not indirect or remote’ ((1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 285, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 599). The argument found a possible echo in the speech of Lord Blackburn, who referred to an action for obstruction of a public way as one for infringement of ‘a right attached to the land’ ((1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 299, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 605); but he was alone in using that language.
‘Proximity’
[64]
Although ‘proximity’ may be identified as a significant feature in some of the cases, it does not appear to qualify as the governing test either at common law, or under s 68.
[65]
We have been referred to some of the common law cases, dating from the seventeenth century (many are summarised in Pratt and MacKenzie’s Law of Highways (21st edn, 1967) p 132ff). It is not easy to find a clear or consistent dividing line in the cases between particular damage, which founds a cause of action, and damage shared with the public in general, which does not. In any event, it is not surprising that these cases, even disregarding their internal inconsistencies, are of little help in the context of s 68. They were generally concerned with temporary obstructions, not with permanent works which in practice could only be carried out under statutory powers.
[66]
For a general statement of principle, reference is often made to Benjamin v Storr (1874) LR 9 CP 400 at 407, [1874–80] All ER Rep Ext 2000 at 2003, in which Brett J reviewed the older cases. He extracted a requirement that the damage must be ‘particular, direct, and substantial’, which he contrasted with—
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‘a mere consequential injury; as, where one way is obstructed, but another (though possibly a less convenient one) is left open; in such a case the private and particular injury has been held not to be sufficiently direct to give a cause of action . . .’
Similarly, Lord Hanworth MR in Harper v GN Haden & Sons Ltd [1933] Ch 298 at 304, [1932] All ER Rep 59 at 61, after reviewing the cases, concluded that the claimant must establish—
‘(a) a particular injury to himself beyond that which is suffered by the rest of the public; (b) that the injury is directly and immediately the consequence of the wrongful act; (c) that the injury is of a substantial character, not fleeting or evanescent . . .’
[67]
When one turns to the cases on s 68 itself, one finds a similar divergence of approaches, at least before McCarthy’s case. Most useful for present purposes is the decision of the House of Lords in the Walkers’ Trustees case itself. Although the principles had been settled in McCarthy’s case, the later case is an authoritative application of those principles to facts which perhaps goes as far as any in the direction of Moto’s argument. The speeches also contain a somewhat fuller discussion of the earlier Scottish case, Caledonian Rly Co v Ogilvy (1856) 2 Macq 229, in which the House had disallowed a claim by the owner of a house, whose access over a public road had been adversely affected by a new railway and level crossing.
[68]
In the Walkers’ Trustees case (1882) 7 App Cas 259, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 the claimant’s spinning mill in Glasgow was served by two streets, Canal Street and Victoria Street, which connected to Eglinton Street, a major road some 90 yards away at its closest. The new railway was constructed along the line of Eglinton Street, with the effect that their direct access to it from Canal Street and Victoria Street was cut off. It was replaced by a connection across the railway further south, involving a substantially longer journey and steeper gradients. The arbitrator had found that the property was ‘injuriously affected’ and assessed the damage at £1,500 (£1,200 for the detour, and £300 for the increased gradient).
[69]
Lord Selborne LC (1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 273, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 594 summarised the ‘only facts . . . material to the question of principle’:
‘. . . before the construction of the [works], the property . . . had . . . a direct, straight and practically level access (at the distance of about ninety yards), for all sorts of traffic, to Eglinton Street, one of the main thoroughfares of that city; and that, by [the works], that direct access to Eglinton Street has been altogether cut off and taken away, a more distant and circuitous access, crossing the railway by a bridge with a rather steep gradient, being substituted for it.’
In upholding the claim (1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 284–285, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 599, he rejected the argument that the obstruction was ‘not immediately ex adverso of the property’; it was sufficient that it was ‘direct and proximate’.
[70]
Lord O’Hagan ((1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 287–288, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 600) treated the arbitrator’s decision as amounting to a finding that there had been ‘a substantial injury’ such as apart from the statute would have given the claimants a clear cause of action. He adopted Lord Penzance’s statement (in
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McCarthy’s case (1874) LR 7 HL 243 at 264) that compensation is payable where it is shown that—
‘a special value attached to the premises in question by reason of their proximity to, or relative position with, the highways obstructed, and that this special value has been permanently abridged or destroyed by the obstruction.’
As already noted, Lord Blackburn decided the case on the somewhat narrower ground that the right must be treated as ‘attached’ to the land. The last member, Lord Watson ((1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 303, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 606), interpreted the rule as giving rise to a claim where—
‘the value of the property, irrespective of any particular uses which may be made of it, [is] so dependent upon the existence of that access as to be substantially diminished by its obstruction . . .’
[71]
The four members of the House gave various reasons for not following Ogilvy’s case. However, a common view was that it had in substance been overtaken by the fifth principle, as established in Brand’s case. As Lord Selborne LC said ((1882) 7 App Cas 259 at 277, [1881–5] All ER Rep 592 at 596):
‘The communication was not cut off, and access was not prevented, except when trains were passing; the temporary obstruction of the public road by shutting gates across it at those times, as well as the noise complained of, were incidents, not of the construction, but of the use of the line.’
[72]
In summary, ‘proximity’ appears as a relevant factor in the nineteenth century cases, but not as a distinct test. Thus, for example, Lord Penzance spoke of ‘proximity to, or relative position with’ the highway (see (1874) LR 7 HL 243 at 264). In so far as one can find a common theme in the speeches, it echoes the common law requirement that the loss must be ‘particular, direct, and substantial’. Thus the claim in the Walkers’ Trustees case succeeded because what had been a ‘direct, straight and level’ access was ‘altogether cut off’, leaving as the only alternative a ‘distant and circuitous access’. Proximity may of course be a factor in deciding whether the damage is sufficiently ‘direct’.
Business loss
[73]
Mr Holgate, rightly in our view, does not argue that the claim should fail because it is based on loss of business. In that respect the case is similar to Chamberlain’s case, where a principal complaint was the diversion of potential customers by the stopping up of the most direct access.
[74]
In the Wildtree case Lord Hoffmann referred (under the fifth principle) to divergent views in the nineteenth century authorities as to whether—
‘interference with the utility of the land for the purpose of carrying on a business is damage to the land or a personal loss by the proprietor of the business.’ (See eg McCarthy’s case (1874) LR 7 HL 243 at 255 per Lord Chelmsford.)
In so far as that question was still open following McCarthy’s case, Lord Hoffmann left no doubt as to how it should be answered. When dealing with the claim for temporary loss suffered by the hotel in the Wildtree case [2000] 3 All ER 289,
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[2001] 2 AC 1, he referred with approval to Lord Westbury’s dissenting speech in Ricket v Metropolitan Railway Co (1867) LR 2 HL 175 at 204, [1861–73] All ER Rep Ext 2164 at 2186–2187 (on the effect on land value of diversion of trade from the ‘Pickled Egg’ public house). Although it was clear that a claim could not be made for loss of profit as such, he said ([2000] 3 All ER 289 at 304, [2001] 2 AC 1 at 17):
‘. . . there is nothing in authority or logic to say that the letting value of the premises cannot be affected by an interference which makes it less convenient to conduct the kind of business for which they would otherwise have been suitable. A plaintiff who can prove such a reduction in value, for whatever period, is entitled to compensation.’
THE PRESENT CASE
[75]
Finally, we seek to apply these principles to the facts of the present case. The President considered that the obstructions were sufficiently ‘local’, and the relationship between the MSA and the motorway sufficiently special, to provide at least the starting point for a claim to ‘particular damage’. Thus far we agree. It is the next stage of the reasoning which is more controversial.
[76]
He considered that, once that relationship had been established, it was enough to show that the existing accesses were obstructed ‘in a way that causes a diminution in the value of its interest’. On this basis he considered that the obstructions of the southbound and northbound off-slip roads, and of the northbound on-slip road, were capable of giving rise to a claim for compensation. By contrast (at para 56)—
‘[t]he obstruction of the short length of the southbound on-slip road, on the other hand, could not give rise to a claim because the obstruction was not on that part of the slip-road that provided access from the MSA to the motorway. It had the effect of intercepting on the new Padbury roundabout traffic from the A43 to the M40 southbound that would have passed the MSA at the Cherwell roundabout, but it did not affect access from the motorway to the MSA or from the MSA to the motorway.’
[77]
Mr Holgate criticises these conclusions. He summarises the effect of the works. (i) The closure of the southbound off-slip road did not obstruct access to the MSA; all that happened was the interposition of a new roundabout between the motorway off-slip road and the roundabout leading to the MSA. (ii) The northbound off-slip road on the other side of the motorway was simply relocated to connect with a new Western roundabout further west, from which traffic proceeds over the bridge to the Eastern roundabout as before. (iii) The northbound on-slip road was replaced by a new northbound on-slip to the south of the motorway bridge. (iv) The MSA’s direct access to and from the highway network, through the Eastern roundabout, remained substantially unaffected by these changes. The only change directly affecting that roundabout was the stopping up of the southbound on-slip road from the roundabout, but, as the tribunal accepted, that change left the link with the MSA itself in place.
[78]
Although these criticisms were made by Mr Holgate by reference to his ‘proximity’ test, they are in our view equally or more relevant to the question whether the damage was sufficiently ‘direct’, under the principles discussed above. This is not simply a matter of disagreement on the facts. The tribunal seems to have proceeded on the basis that, once the special relationship had been established, the only question was proof of the amount of the loss. But that seems
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to us, with respect, to leave out an essential step in the reasoning. As is apparent from cases such as McCarthy’s case and the Walkers’ Trustees case, the special relationship is only part of the test. In the latter case, the claim succeeded, not simply because of the dependence of the particular business on the road link, but because of the direct impact of the works on that access, which was ‘altogether cut off’. In this case the immediate accesses to the MSA remain substantially unaffected. The loss results, not from any direct obstructions to those accesses, but from the rearrangement of the junction as a whole, including in particular the interposition of the new Padbury roundabout.
[79]
In Wagstaff v Dept of the Environment, Transport and the Regions [1999] 2 EGLR 108 at 115 the tribunal accepted that the loss arising from the new road system was ‘too remote’, because it arose from the junction improvements as a whole, rather than from ‘the execution of the very small part or parts of the works that would have given rise to an actionable wrong in the absence of the special Act’; but it then went on to hold that one of the individual obstructions was sufficiently ‘direct and proximate’ to found a claim. We agree with the first part of that approach. As applied to this case, it means that the loss due to the junction improvements as a whole is not a proper subject of claim. That having been established, we do not think it is appropriate or realistic to examine the effect of individual obstructions which in this case are no more than incidental parts of the overall scheme. Their impact is in practice dependent on, and inseparable from, their relationship with the other parts of the scheme.
[80]
This conclusion is arguably reinforced by another consideration, although, since it did not form part of Mr Holgate’s argument, we express no concluded view. (Nor was the point apparently raised in Clift v Welsh Office [1998] 4 All ER 852, [1999] 1 WLR 796.) There is an important difference between this and the nineteenth century cases. They were concerned with interference with the highway by works authorised for a non-highway purpose (generally a railway). When considering the degree of interference, the existing highway system was taken as a fixed factor in the comparison. In this case, by contrast, the works themselves are part of a project for the general improvement of the highway, carried out under the general discretion of the highway authority. The Highways Acts do not give adjoining owners, even those whose businesses are directly linked to the needs of traffic, any guarantee or expectation that the highway system in their immediate area, or the flow of traffic on it, will remain unchanged. Traffic conditions in a particular area may be affected by all kinds of traffic orders or works, near or distant, properly carried out under the management powers of the highway authority. Such changes may be advantageous or disadvantageous to a particular traffic-based operation. They do not in themselves give rise to a claim to compensation, but must be accepted as part of ordinary business risk.
[81]
In this context, to justify a claim under s 10, it might be said, there would need to be at the least a direct interference with the access to an individual site which goes beyond what is ordinarily incidental to the traffic objectives of the scheme as a whole. Owners are protected by the obligation to provide ‘reasonably convenient’ alternatives, and their right to object if the orders do not meet that requirement. It would seem difficult to envisage circumstances in practice where, that requirement having been satisfied, the damage could be said to be sufficiently ‘particular, direct and substantial’ to found a claim for compensation.
Page 741 of [2008] 2 All ER 718
CONCLUSION
[82]
For these reasons, in respectful disagreement with the tribunal, we conclude that a claim for compensation under s 10 has not been established, at least in respect of the permanent stopping-up orders. That leaves open the question whether a claim may be made for the effect of temporary closures during the works, on which the tribunal made no findings. Accordingly, subject to any submissions of the parties, we would allow the appeal, and remit the matter to the tribunal to consider and determine that issue.
TUCKEY LJ.
[83]
I agree.
LORD PHILLIPS OF WORTH MATRAVERS CJ.
[84]
I also agree.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Astron Clinica Ltd and others v Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
[2008] 2 All ER 742
[2008] EWHC 85 (Pat)
Categories: INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY; Patents
Court: CHANCERY DIVISION, PATENTS COURT
Lord(s): KITCHIN J
Hearing Date(s): 19, 20 NOVEMBER 2007, 25 JANUARY 2008
Patent – Invention – Exclusions from patentability – Computer programs – Test to be applied – Convention on the Grant of European Patents 1973, art 52.
The applicants applied for patents for a diverse range of technologies with the common feature that in each case it was a computer program which conferred the technical advance. The examiner, and subsequently the hearing officer acting on behalf of the Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks, allowed the claims to a method performed by running a suitable programmed computer and to a computer programmed to carry out that method but rejected the corresponding claims to computer programs (or claims to programs on suitable storage media). On appeal, the issue for the court was whether patent claims could ever be granted for computer programs. The United Kingdom Intellectual Property Office (UKIPO) considered such claims were prohibited by art 52a of the Convention on the Grant of European Patents (Munich, 5 October 1973; TS 20 (1978); Cmnd 7090) (implemented by the Patents Act 1977); the European Patent Office (EPO) considered such claims were allowable if the program had the potential to bring about, when running on a computer, a further technical effect which went beyond the normal physical interactions between the program and the computer. Article 52 of the convention, so far as material, provided: ‘(1) European patents shall be granted for any inventions which are susceptible of industrial application, which are new and which involve an inventive step . . . (2) The following in particular shall not be regarded as inventions within the meaning of paragraph 1 . . . (c) . . . programs for computers . . . (3) The provisions of paragraph 2 shall exclude patentability of the subject-matter or activities referred to in that provision only to the extent to which a European patent application or European patent relates to such subject-matter or activities as such.’
Held – Claims to computer programs were not necessarily excluded from patentability by art 52 of the convention. In a case where claims to a method performed by running a suitably programmed computer or to a computer programmed to carry out the method were allowable, then, in principle, a claim to the program itself should also be allowable, provided the claim was drawn to reflect the features of the invention which would ensure the patentability of the method which the program was intended to carry out when it was run. There was nothing in a recent authority of the Court of Appeal, setting out a new approach to that issue, to suggest that all computer programs were necessarily excluded, and whilst the court had been critical of a more recent trio of cases
Page 743 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
before the EPO Boards of Appeal, it had not doubted an earlier line of authority still followed by that tribunal. It was highly undesirable that provisions of the convention were construed differently in the EPO to the national courts of a contracting state. The new approach could be interpreted to produce a result consistent with that obtained by applying the earlier line of EPO reasoning. Further, the Court of Appeal itself had considered that it had been doing no more than applying a re-ordering of the previous approach adopted by the English courts, the new approach requiring the analysis to be carried out as a matter of substance not form. In each of the instant cases, the application had concerned a computer-related invention where the examiner had allowed claims to both method and apparatus but rejected corresponding computer program claims on the basis that they were necessarily prohibited by art 52 of the convention. In so doing he had fallen into an error of law. Accordingly, the appeals would be allowed and the applications would be remitted to the UKIPO for further consideration (see [31], [46]–[51], below).
Aerotel Ltd v Telco Holdings Ltd, Re Macrossan’s Application [2007] 1 All ER 225 explained.
Notes
For exclusions from patentability and for the European Patent Convention: criteria of patentability, see 35 Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 568, 749.
For the Patents Act 1977, s 1(2), see 11(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2006 reissue) 742.
Cases referred to in judgment
Aerotel Ltd v Telco Holdings Ltd, Re Macrossan’s Application [2006] EWCA Civ 1371, [2007] 1 All ER 225.
Computer Program Product/IBM Decision T 1173/97 [1999] OJ EPO 609, EPO.
Fujitsu Ltd’s Application [1997] RPC 608, CA.
Gale’s Application [1991] RPC 305, Pat Ct and CA.
Genentech Inc’s Patent [1989] RPC 147, CA.
HITACHI/Auction method Decision T 0258/03 (21 April 2004, unreported), EPO.
IBM CORP/Document abstracting and receiving Decision T 0022/85 [1990] EPOR 98, EPO.
IBM/Computer Program Product II Decision T 0935/97 (4 February 1999, unreported), EPO.
IBM/Data processor network Decision T 0006/83 [1990] OJ EPO 5, EPO.
IBM/Text processing Decision T 0115/85 [1990] OJ EPO 30, EPO.
Kirin-Amgen Inc v Hoechst Marion Roussel Ltd, Hoechst Marion Roussel Ltd v Kirin-Amgen [2004] UKHL 46, [2005] 1 All ER 667.
KOCH & STERZEL/X-ray method for optimum exposure Decision T 0026/86 [1988] OJ EPO 19, EPO.
Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals Inc v HN Norton & Co Ltd, Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals Inc v Penn Pharmaceuticals Ltd (1995) 33 BMLR 201, [1996] RPC 76, HL.
Merrill Lynch’s Application [1989] RPC 561, CA; affg on other grounds [1988] RPC 1.
MICROSOFT/Data transfer with expanded clipboard formats Decision T 0424/03 (23 February 2006, unreported), EPO.
Oneida Indian Nation, Re [2007] EWHC 954 (Pat), [2007] All ER (D) 23 (May).
PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system Decision T 0931/95 (8 September 2000, unreported), EPO.
Page 744 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
Suche fehlerhafter Zeichenketten Case No X ZB 16/00 [2002] IIC 753, BGH (Germ).
Tao Group Ltd Decision T 0121/06 (25 January 2007, unreported), EPO.
VICOM/Computer-related invention Decision T 0208/84 [1987] OJ EPO 14, [1987] 2 EPOR 74, EPO.
Appeal
The applicants in six applications for patents, Astron Clinica Ltd, Software 2000 Ltd, Inrotis Technologies Ltd, SurfKitchen Inc and Cyan Holdings plc, appealed from the decision of Peter Marchant, Deputy Director of the United Kingdom Intellectual Property Office, acting as hearing officer on behalf of the Comptroller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks, on 4 July 2007 whereby he rejected the applicants’ claims in respect of computer programs in relation to various technologies. The facts are set out in the judgment.
Nicholas Fox of Beresford & Co for the applicants.
Colin Birss (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Comptroller.
Judgment was reserved.
25 January 2008. The following judgment was delivered.
KITCHIN J.
INTRODUCTION
[1]
This appeal raises an important issue, namely whether patent claims can ever be granted for computer programs. It is an issue upon which the United Kingdom Intellectual Property Office (UKIPO) and the European Patent Office (EPO) disagree. UKIPO considers such claims are prohibited by art 52 of the Convention on the Grant of European Patents (Munich, 5 October 1973; TS 20 (1978); Cmnd 7090) (EPC). The EPO considers such claims are allowable if the program has the potential to bring about, when running on a computer, a further technical effect which goes beyond the normal physical interactions between the program and the computer.
[2]
The appeal concerns six patent applications in the name of five different applicants, but with common representation. In each case the examiner found method and apparatus claims to be allowable. They are claims to, respectively, ‘a method of doing X’ and ‘a device for doing X’. The method claimed is, in effect, a method performed by running a suitably programmed computer and the apparatus claimed is, in effect, a computer programmed to carry out the method. However, the examiner reported that corresponding claims to computer programs (or, more precisely, claims to programs on suitable storage media) were not allowable. The applicants requested a hearing which took place on 21 May 2007 before Mr Peter Marchant, deputy director of UKIPO, acting as hearing officer on behalf of the Comptroller. On 4 July 2007, he gave a single decision in writing in respect of all of the applications. He too found the program claims were not allowable and that the patent applications could not be accepted in their current form and stood to be refused. It is against that decision that the appellants now appeal.
THE INVENTIONS
[3]
The inventions in issue cover a diverse range of technologies but they have a common feature. In each case it is the computer program which confers the
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technical advance and over which the applicant is anxious to secure a monopoly, as the following brief summary illustrates.
[4]
Software 2000 has developed a method of generating bit masks for use with laser printers which results in higher quality images. It is implemented by programming a conventional computer, printer or copier to process images in a particular way. Software 2000 exploits its invention by selling the program to its commercial partners who then incorporate it in their printers and printer drivers, and distribute it to end users in the form of printers, computer discs and web downloads. The end users are located worldwide.
[5]
Astron Clinica was founded to commercialise skin imaging techniques developed at the University of Birmingham which enable images of the skin to be processed to identify the distribution and concentration of underlying skin chromophores. The invention described in its application provides a system and process for generating realistic images representing the results of planned cosmetic or surgical interventions which change the actual or apparent distribution of these chromophores. The invention is implemented by programming a computer to process images in a particular way. It is commercialised here and abroad by selling a disc which causes a computer to be configured so as to undertake the required processing.
[6]
Inrotis is a spin-off company established by the University of Newcastle upon Tyne to commercialise drug discovery and network analysis techniques. Broadly speaking, the inventions the subject of its two applications in issue concern methods of identifying groups of target proteins for drug therapy by processing proteome data defining proteins and protein interactions. The commercial product which Inrotis sells is a computer disc which causes a computer to be configured so as to carry out the necessary processing.
[7]
SurfKitchen is a mobile services company and has made an invention which improves the ability of mobile telephones to access services on the internet. It is implemented by pre-storing a program on a mobile telephone memory or by downloading the program from the internet. In either case the program is usually made available by one of SurfKitchen’s commercial partners to whom it makes the program available on a computer disc.
[8]
Cyan Technology is a semi-conductor company which designs and builds micro-controllers. It has invented a method of generating data for configuring micro-controllers which greatly simplifies chip design and programming. The commercial products that implement the invention are computer discs and internet downloads which cause a computer to be configured so as to undertake the required processing. Cyan Technology distributes these computer discs and internet downloads worldwide.
[9]
As can be seen, the applicants all exploit their inventions by selling computer programs stored on a computer readable medium or by internet download and competitors can, of course, do the same. This presents the applicants with the problem that, without computer program claims, they can only protect their inventions by invoking the contributory infringement provisions of s 60(2) of the Patents Act 1977 (the Act). What is worse, those provisions give no protection against the production and sale of programs in the United Kingdom if they are intended for use abroad.
THE LAW
[10]
This appeal turns on the scope of the prohibition contained in s 1(2) of the Act. This implements art 52 of the EPC, which reads:
Page 746 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
‘(1) European patents shall be granted for any inventions which are susceptible of industrial application, which are new and which involve an inventive step.
(2) The following in particular shall not be regarded as inventions within the meaning of paragraph 1:
(a) discoveries, scientific theories and mathematical methods;
(b) aesthetic creations;
(c) schemes, rules and methods for performing mental acts, playing games or doing business, and programs for computers;
(d) presentations of information.
(3) The provisions of paragraph 2 shall exclude patentability of the subject-matter or activities referred to in that provision only to the extent to which a European patent application or European patent relates to such subject-matter or activities as such.’
[11]
The approach originally adopted by the EPO in relation to computer implemented inventions was developed in a number of decisions of the Boards of Appeal in the 1980s, most notably VICOM/Computer-related invention Decision T 0208/84 [1987] OJ EPO 14, [1987] 2 EPOR 74, KOCH & STERZEL/X-ray method for optimum exposure Decision T 0026/86 [1988] OJ EPO 19, IBM/Text processing Decision T 0115/85 [1990] OJ EPO 30 and IBM/Data processor network Decision T 0006/83 [1990] OJ EPO 5. They decided that, while programs for computers were included in the items listed in art 52(2), if the claimed subject matter had a technical character it was not excluded from patentability. The reasoning was explained by the Board in VICOM/Computer-related invention (para 16):
‘. . . Generally speaking, an invention which would be patentable in accordance with conventional patentability criteria should not be excluded from protection by the mere fact that for its implementation modern technical means in the form of a computer program are used. Decisive is what technical contribution the invention as defined in the claim when considered as a whole makes to the known art.’
[12]
As a result, the EPO allowed claims to a computer system when programmed and to an equivalent method provided they had the necessary technical character. However none of these decisions dealt expressly with the allowability of claims directed to computer programs themselves. In the absence of guidance from the Boards of Appeal the EPO examiners declined to grant such claims. They recognised that if a computer program caused a computer to operate in a different way from a technical point of view then the combination might be patentable but they took the view that programs themselves were excluded and that even if a program was claimed in the form of a physical record, such as a disc, its contribution to the art was still no more than a program.
[13]
It seems it was not until 1998 that an EPO Board of Appeal first addressed the allowability of a claim to a computer program per se in Computer Program Product/IBM Decision T 1173/97 [1999] OJ EPO 609. The Board considered that the combination of art 52(2) and (3) revealed the legislators did not wish to exclude all computer programs from patentability but only those which were programs for computers as such. In accordance with its established approach, it noted that the technical character of an invention was generally accepted as an essential requirement of patentability and accordingly considered the essential problem was to define the meaning of this expression in the context of computer
Page 747 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
programs. It observed that all programs cause some modification in the behaviour of the hardware so this could provide no basis for identifying those which were patentable. However, it considered that the necessary further technical character might nevertheless be derived from the execution by the hardware of the instructions given by the software. It therefore concluded that a program is not excluded from patentability if, when run on a computer, it produces a further technical effect which goes beyond the normal physical interactions between a program and a computer.
[14]
The Board recognised that such an effect is only shown when the program is being run but considered the potential to produce such an effect is sufficient. In reaching its decision the Board was clearly influenced by the apparent illogicality of allowing claims to a suitably programmed computer and to the method performed by the computer so programmed but not to the program itself, as is apparent from para 9.8 of the decision:
‘The present decision is further supported by the reasons given in the “VICOM” decision under reasons, 16, third and last paragraph, where the Board found that: “Finally, it would seem illogical to grant protection for a technical process controlled by a suitably programmed computer but not for the computer itself when set up to execute the control”. In other words, it would seem illogical to grant a patent for a method but not for the apparatus adapted for carrying out the same method. By analogy, the present Board finds it illogical to grant a patent for both a method and the apparatus adapted for carrying out the same method, but not for the computer program product, which comprises all the features enabling the implementation of the method and which, when loaded in a computer, is indeed able to carry out that method.’
[15]
There is one further aspect of the decision to which I should draw attention. At para 8, the Board took the opportunity to point out that, for the purposes of determining the extent of the exclusion under art 52, the necessary further technical effect might be known in the prior art. Determination of the technical contribution was therefore more appropriately addressed when examining novelty and inventive step—a theme developed in later cases, as I will explain.
[16]
Shortly after this decision, the Board applied the same approach in IBM/Computer Program Product II Decision T 0935/97 (4 February 1999, unreported), deciding once again that a computer program is not excluded from patentability under all circumstances. Since 1998 the EPO has therefore allowed claims to a computer program if, when running on a computer, the program is capable of bringing about a technical effect which goes beyond the normal physical effects which result from the running of any program; and such claims are allowed whether the program is claimed by itself or as a record on a carrier.
[17]
Meanwhile a number of decisions of the Court of Appeal in this jurisdiction also considered the patentability of computer-related inventions, in particular Genentech Inc’s Patent [1989] RPC 147, Merrill Lynch’s Application [1989] RPC 561, Gale’s Application [1991] RPC 305 and Fujitsu Ltd’s Application [1997] RPC 608. All were recently considered in detail by the Court of Appeal in a decision to which I must return, Aerotel Ltd v Telco Holdings Ltd, Re Macrossan’s Application [2006] EWCA Civ 1371, [2007] 1 All ER 225. However, there are certain aspects of them which have a particular bearing on the issue I have to decide and which therefore merit some elaboration.
Page 748 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
[18]
It is convenient to begin with Merrill Lynch’s Application. The invention in this case was an improved data processing system for implementing an automated trading market for securities. At first instance ([1988] RPC 1) Falconer J upheld the refusal of the application by the United Kingdom Patent Office (as it then was) on the basis that matter in an excluded category (such as a computer program or method of doing business) was not to be considered to contribute to novelty or inventive step. The applicant appealed but, before the appeal could be heard, the Court of Appeal in Genentech Inc’s Patent [1989] RPC 147 decided the reasoning of Falconer J was wrong. In the course of his judgment in that appeal, Dillon LJ (at 240) said that while he disagreed with the reasoning of Falconer J—
‘it does not in the least follow that I disagree with the result of that case. It would be nonsense for the Act to forbid the patenting of a computer program, and yet permit the patenting of a floppy disc containing a computer program, or an ordinary computer when programmed with the program; it can well be said, as it seems to me, that a patent for a computer when programmed or for the disc containing the program is no more than a patent for the program as such.’
[19]
On the Merrill Lynch appeal, the court adopted the VICOM approach. As Fox LJ explained ([1989] RPC 561 at 569):
‘The position seems to me to be this. Genentech decides that the reasoning of Falconer J. is wrong. On the other hand, it seems to me to be clear, for the reasons indicated by Dillon L.J., that it cannot be permissible to patent an item excluded by section 1(2) under the guise of an article which contains that item—that is to say, in the case of a computer program, the patenting of a conventional computer containing that program. Something further is necessary. The nature of that addition is, I think, to be found in [VICOM/Computer-related invention Decision T 0208/84 [1987] OJ EPO 14, [1987] 2 EPOR 74] where it is stated: “Decisive is what technical contribution the invention makes to the known art”. There must, I think, be some technical advance on the prior art in the form of a new result (e.g., a substantial increase in processing speed as in Vicom).’
[20]
The court therefore recognised that a computer system programmed in such a way that it produced a new technical effect would normally be patentable. However, it proceeded to dismiss the appeal, holding that the claimed data processing system did not produce a novel technical result but was simply a method of doing business, which was itself a prohibited item.
[21]
In Gale’s Application [1991] RPC 305 the claimed invention related to an improved way of calculating the square root of a number with the aid of a computer. Mr Gale sought to claim it as a ROM in which his program was stored. At first instance Aldous J considered that Mr Gale had avoided the exclusion because a ROM was more than just a carrier, it was a manufactured article having circuit connections which enabled the program to be operated. The Court of Appeal disagreed. Nicholls LJ (with whom the other members of the court agreed) considered that if the instructions qua instructions were not patentable, Mr Gale’s position was not improved by claiming a disc on which the instructions had been recorded or a ROM in which they had been embodied. Just as Genentech Inc’s Patent had decided it would be a nonsense for the Act to forbid the patenting of a computer program and yet permit the patenting of a floppy disc
Page 749 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
containing a computer program or an ordinary computer when programmed with the computer program, it would equally be a nonsense for the Act to forbid the patenting of a floppy disc containing a computer program and yet permit the patenting of a ROM characterised only by the instructions in that program. However, as in Merrill Lynch’s Application, although a computer program was not patentable as such, that was not the end of the matter because computer instructions might represent a technical process. In such a case the process was not barred from patentability by reason of the use of a computer as the medium by which it was carried out.
[22]
Nicholls LJ then considered the application of these principles to Mr Gale’s case. He concluded that Mr Gale’s discovery was a mere computer program which did not produce a new technical effect. As he explained (at 327–328):
‘That still leaves the difficulty that those instructions when written, and without more, are not patentable, because they constitute a computer program. Is there something more? In the end I have come to the conclusion that there is not. The attraction of Mr. Gale’s case lies in the simple approach that, as claimed, he has found an improved means of carrying out an everyday function of computers. To that extent, and in that respect, his program makes a more efficient use of a computer’s resources. A computer, including a pocket calculator with a square root function, will be a better computer when programmed with Mr. Gale’s instructions. So it may. But the instructions do not embody a technical process which exists outside the computer. Nor, as I understand the case as presented to us, do the instructions solve a “technical” problem lying within the computer, as happened with patent applications such as [IBM/Text processing Decision T 0115/85 [1990] OJ EPO 30] and [IBM/Data processor network Decision T 0006/83 [1990] OJ EPO 5]. I confess to having difficulty in identifying clearly the boundary line between what is and what is not a technical problem for this purpose. That, at least to some extent, may well be no more than a reflection of my lack of expertise in this technical field. But, as I understand it, in the present case Mr. Gale has devised an improvement in programming. What his instructions do, but it is all they do, is to prescribe for the cpu in a conventional computer a different set of calculations from those normally prescribed when the user wants a square root. I do not think that makes a claim to those instructions other than a claim to the instructions as such. The instructions do not define a new way of operating the computer in a technical sense, to adopt the expression used in [IBM CORP/Document abstracting and receiving Decision T 0022/85 [1990] EPOR 98 at 105].
In short, therefore, the claim is in substance a claim to a computer program, being the particular instructions embodied in a conventional type of ROM circuitry, and those instructions do not represent a technical process outside the computer or a solution to a technical problem within the computer.’
[23]
Sir Nicholas Browne-Wilkinson V-C also recognised the position might not be the same if the program produced a new technical result (at 333):
‘Mr Gale’s discovery is a computer program (an excluded matter) incorporated in a ROM which is a device of no inherent novelty. The mere
Page 750 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
incorporation of the programs in the ROM does not alter its nature: it remains a computer program. A computer program remains a computer program whether contained in software or hardware: proposition (3) above. Moreover the result of the incorporation of Mr Gale’s “method of calculation” or “computer program” (both excluded matters) only produces another excluded matter, viz. a computer program: proposition (2) above. That is enough to decide this case.
As Nicholls L.J. points out, other difficult cases can arise where the computer program, whether in hardware or software, produces a novel technical effect either on a process which is not itself a computing process (see [VICOM/Computer-related invention Decision T 0208/84 [1987] OJ EPO 14, [1987] 2 EPOR 74]) or on the operation of the computer itself (see [IBM/Text processing Decision T 0115/85 [1990] OJ EPO 30]). But, in my judgment, those difficulties do not arise in the present case. Mr Gale’s discovery is from start to finish a “mathematical method” or “computer program”: its incorporation in a device having no novelty does not alter the position.’
[24]
So I believe the court left open the question of whether the ROM would have been patentable if it had produced a new technical effect.
[25]
Fujitsu Ltd’s Application [1997] RPC 608 concerned a computer programmed to model synthetic crystal structures. In dismissing the appeal and finding that the invention related to a computer program as such, the Court of Appeal reaffirmed the principle that a technical contribution must be found and that the issue was one of substance not form—it was not sufficient to look at the words of the claimed monopoly. Aldous LJ gave the leading judgment and said (at 614):
‘it is and always has been a principle of patent law that mere discoveries or ideas are not patentable, but those discoveries and ideas which have a technical aspect or make a technical contribution are. Thus the concept that what is needed to make an excluded thing patentable is a technical contribution is not surprising. That was the basis for the decision of the Board in Vicom. It has been accepted by this court and by the E.P.O. and has been applied since 1987. It is a concept at the heart of patent law.’
[26]
But he expressly acknowledged, as had the court in Gale’s Application, that identifying what was and what was not a technical contribution might present difficulties (see 616):
‘I, like Nicholls L.J., have difficulty in identifying clearly the boundary line between what is and what is not a technical contribution. In Vicom it seems that the Board concluded that the enhancement of the images produced amounted to a technical contribution. No such contribution existed in Gale’s Application which related to a ROM programmed to enable a computer to carry out a mathematical calculation or in Merrill Lynch which had claims to a data processing system for making a trading market in securities. Each case has to be decided upon its own facts.’
[27]
The question that arose in Fujitsu Ltd’s Application was therefore whether the operation, revolving as it did around a computer program, involved a technical contribution. The court concluded it did not. The only advance was
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the computer program which enabled images of two superposed crystal structures to be portrayed more quickly.
[28]
As explained in the Aerotel/Macrossan case, these authorities gave rise to the adoption in this country of the technical contribution approach with the rider that inventive excluded matter could not count. However, for the purposes of the present appeal it is also important to note a number of further matters. First, they established that claims to computer-related inventions must be considered as a matter of substance not form. A computer program as such is excluded from patentability irrespective of whether the claim is directed to the program on a carrier, a computer containing the program or a method performed using the programmed computer. Second, in each of these cases the court decided that the claimed invention did not make a relevant technical contribution. Consequently, as Mr Birss, who appeared on behalf of the Comptroller accepted, none of these cases decided the particular point which arises on this appeal, namely whether or not it is permissible to claim a computer program (as opposed to the programmed computer or a process performed using the computer) where the program, when run on a computer, produces a new technical effect.
[29]
In the light of these authorities, and in parallel with the EPO, the United Kingdom Patent Office adopted the practice in relation to computer-related inventions of looking for a substantive technical contribution. If it was found, it would allow claims directed to a conventional computer program to give rise to that contribution and to equivalent methods and processes. However, it was the practice of the Patent Office not to allow claims to the computer programs because it considered that such claims did not of themselves deliver the contribution underpinning the invention.
[30]
There matters rested until the late 1990s and the decisions of the EPO Board of Appeal in Computer Program Product/IBM Decision T 1173/97 [1999] OJ EPO 609 and IBM/Computer Program Product II Decision T 0935/97 (4 February 1999, unreported). Following those decisions, the United Kingdom Patent Office revised its practice to bring it into line with that adopted in the EPO. It began to allow claims to computer programs, either themselves or on a carrier, provided that the program, when run on a computer, produced a technical effect which was more than would result from the running of any program on a computer and was such that a claim to the computer when programmed would not be rejected under the existing practice, that is to say, it made a substantive technical contribution.
[31]
In my judgment the United Kingdom Patent Office was right to revise its practice as it did. It seems to me to be the logical consequence of the dual approach that claims to computer-related inventions must be considered as a matter of substance not form, as Genentech Inc’s Patent, Merrill Lynch’s Application, Gale’s Application and Fujitsu Ltd’s Application so clearly establish, and that what is needed to make an excluded thing patentable is a relevant technical contribution. If a program makes a conventional computer operate in a new way so as to deliver a relevant technical contribution then it seems to me to be wholly artificial to say that the effect is delivered by the computer but not the program. If, as these cases decide, a conventional computer programmed with such a new program is patentable because it is no longer a computer program as such then, in my judgment, the same reasoning must apply to the program itself. It is in the program that the technical advance truly lies.
[32]
The revised approach of the United Kingdom Patent Office also had the considerable merit of introducing a much greater measure of consistency with
Page 752 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
that of the EPO following the decisions of the Board of Appeal in Computer Program Product/IBM and IBM/Computer Program Product II. The importance of this consistency is self-evident and has been explained in many cases, including Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals Inc v HN Norton & Co Ltd, Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals Inc v Penn Pharmaceuticals Ltd (1995) 33 BMLR 201, [1996] RPC 76 and Kirin-Amgen Inc v Hoechst Marion Roussel Ltd, Hoechst Marion Roussel Ltd v Kirin-Amgen [2004] UKHL 46, [2005] 1 All ER 667.
[33]
Thereafter, both in the United Kingdom and in the EPO, claims of the kind in issue in this case were granted upon application of the technical effect test—in the United Kingdom with the rider that novel or inventive excluded matter does not count as a technical contribution.
[34]
However, the approach in the EPO then began to change in the manner foreshadowed in para 8 of the decision of the Board in Computer Program Product/IBM, to which I have referred at [13], above. This change (or, more accurately, changes) became apparent in a number of decisions, most notably PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system Decision T 0931/95 (8 September 2000, unreported), HITACHI/Auction method Decision T 0258/03 (21 April 2004, unreported) and MICROSOFT/Data transfer with expanded clipboard formats Decision T 0424/03 (23 February 2006, unreported). These decisions are discussed in detail in the judgment of the Court of Appeal in the Aerotel/Macrossan case and I need do no more than set out aspects of their essential reasoning.
[35]
PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system concerned a new method of controlling pension benefits using a computer system. The application contained a method claim and a product claim—to a suitably programmed computer. The Board refused the method claim as being to a method of doing business as such. It held that all the features of the claim were steps of processing and producing information having a business character and so did not go beyond a method of doing business; nor was the claim saved by the fact the method was performed using a computer. The Board then turned to the product claim which it treated very differently. It held that the computer system was not excluded from patentability by art 52 because it had the character of a concrete apparatus. But it also held that the claim must be refused on the grounds of obviousness because the improvement was essentially an economic one which could not contribute to inventive step. Thus the application was refused.
[36]
This new approach was the subject of further refinement in HITACHI/Auction method. This concerned a computerised method of carrying out a Dutch auction, in other words an auction in which the seller starts at a high price which is lowered until a bid is received. Once again the application included a product and a method claim. But here the Board drew no distinction between them. It held the product claim was not excluded by art 52 because it comprised technical features such as a server, client computers and a network. It then approached the method claim in the same way and, in this respect, expressly disagreed with the decision in PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system. It concluded it was not appropriate to apply the technical contribution approach in considering the scope of the art 52 exclusion, whatever the category of claim. In general a claim involving any technical means was an invention within the meaning of art 52. Instead, the correct way to handle potentially non-patentable subject matter was to do so at the stage of considering inventive step. At this point account should only be taken of the features which contribute
Page 753 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
to a technical character and so it is here that the features which make a technical contribution need to be determined. Applying this approach the Board concluded the application must be refused. There was no invention in automating the described way of carrying out a Dutch auction.
[37]
MICROSOFT/Data transfer with expanded clipboard formats revealed yet another development. The application described a way of facilitating data exchange across different formats and it included method claims and a claim to a program on a computer readable medium. The Board held that the method was implemented in a computer and this amounted to technical means sufficient to escape the prohibition in art 52, following HITACHI/Auction method.
[38]
As to the product claim, the Board said this (at para 5.3):
‘Claim 5 is directed to a computer-readable medium having computer-executable instructions (ie a computer program) on it to cause the computer system to perform the claimed method. The subject matter of claim 5 has technical character since it relates to a computer-readable medium, ie a technical product involving a carrier (see the HITACHI case). Moreover, the computer executable instructions have the potential of achieving the above-mentioned further technical effect of enhancing the internal operation of the computer, which goes beyond the elementary interaction of any hardware and software of data processing (see IBM/Computer Program Product Decision T 1173/97 [1999] OJ EPO 609). The computer program recorded on the medium is therefore not considered to be a computer program as such, and thus also contributes to the technical character of the claimed subject matter.’
[39]
In short, the Board appears to have found that any program on a carrier has a technical character and so escapes the prohibition in art 52 following HITACHI/Auction method. In addition, this particular program had the potential of creating a further technical effect which was more than would result from the running of any program on a computer, and so also escaped the prohibition following Computer Program Product/IBM. The Board then proceeded to consider inventive step. However, in doing so, and in contrast to PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system and HITACHI/Auction method, there is no express indication it put to one side non-patentable subject matter.
[40]
It was against this background that the conjoined appeals in the Aerotel/Macrossan case came before the Court of Appeal in August 2006. In giving the judgment of the court, Jacob LJ summarised the various approaches (see [2007] 1 All ER 225 at [26]):
‘Our summary of the various approaches which have been adopted is as follows:
(1) The contribution approach
Ask whether the inventive step resides only in the contribution of excluded matter—if Yes, art 52(2) applies.
This approach was supported by Falconer J in Merrill Lynch’s Application [1988] RPC 1 but expressly rejected by this court ([1989] RPC 561).
(2) The technical effect approach
Ask whether the invention as defined in the claim makes a technical contribution to the known art—if No, art 52(2) applies. A possible clarification (at least by way of exclusion) of this approach is to add the rider that novel or inventive purely excluded matter does not count as a “technical
Page 754 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
contribution”. This is the approach (with the rider) adopted by this court in the Merrill Lynch case. It has been followed in the subsequent decisions of this court, Re Gale’s Application [1991] RPC 305 and Fujitsu Ltd’s Application [1997] RPC 608. The approach (without the rider as an express caution) was that first adopted by the EPO Boards of Appeal, see VICOM/Computer-related invention Decision T 0208/84 [1987] OJ EPO 14, [1987] 2 EPOR 74, IBM/Text processing Decision T 0115/85 [1990] OJ EPO 30 and IBM/Data processor network Decision T 0006/83 [1990] OJ EPO 5.
(3) The “any hardware” approach
Ask whether the claim involves the use of or is to a piece of physical hardware, however mundane (whether a computer or a pencil and paper). If Yes, art 52(2) does not apply. This approach was adopted in three cases, PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system Decision T 0931/95 (8 September 2000, unreported), HITACHI/Auction method Decision T 0258/03 (21 April 2004, unreported) and MICROSOFT/Data transfer with expanded clipboard formats Decision T 0424/03 (23 February 2006, unreported) (the “trio”). It was specifically rejected by this court in Gale’s Application. However there are variants of the “any hardware” approach: (i) Where a claim is to a method which consists of an excluded category, it is excluded by art 52(2) even if hardware is used to carry out the method. But a claim to the apparatus itself, being “concrete” is not so excluded. The apparatus claim is nonetheless bad for obviousness because the notional skilled man must be taken to know about the improved, excluded, method. This is the PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system approach. (ii) A claim to hardware necessarily is not caught by art 52(2). A claim to a method of using that hardware is likewise not excluded even if that method as such is excluded matter. Either type of claim is nonetheless bad for obviousness for the same reason as above. This is HITACHI/Auction method, expressly disagreeing with PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system about method claims. (iii) Simply ask whether there is a claim to something “concrete” eg an apparatus. If Yes, art 52(2) does not apply. Then examine for patentability on conventional grounds—do not treat the notional skilled man as knowing about any improved excluded method. This is MICROSOFT/Data transfer with expanded clipboard formats.’
[41]
As is apparent from this summary, the court considered the decisions of the Board in PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system, HITACHI/Auction method and MICROSOFT/Data transfer with expanded clipboard formats (the ‘trio’) to be inconsistent with Gale’s Application and proceeded to subject them to considerable criticism. In doing so, the court (at [31]) reiterated that the computer program exception in art 52 was not limited to abstract instructions but included programs on storage media:
‘One thing does need to be said. Before you get to the “as such” qualification, you must make up your mind as to the meaning of the category which is excluded. Computer programs call for particular consideration here. There are, in principle, two views about what is meant by “computer program” in art 52. A narrow view is that it means just the set of instructions as an abstract thing albeit they could be written down on a piece of paper. A wider view is that the term covers also the instructions on some form of media (floppy disk, CD or hard drive for instance) which causes a computer to execute the program—a program which works. This
Page 755 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
court and the earlier Board of Appeal decisions clearly take the latter view, as for instance in Gale’s Application [1991] RPC 305 and VICOM/Computer-related invention. The trio take the narrow view, working on the premise that all the exclusions are limited to the abstract. We are bound to say that we consider that wrong: so to limit the meaning of “computer program” would be to render the exclusion without real content. We think the framers of the EPC really meant to exclude computer programs in a practical and operable form. They meant to exclude real computer programs, not just an abstract series of instructions.’
[42]
I do not understand the court to be here saying that computer programs are necessarily excluded; indeed the consideration is expressly limited to the meaning of the term ‘computer program’ in art 52 before the ‘as such’ qualification is taken into account. The court simply concluded, as had the earlier decisions in Merrill Lynch’s Application and Gale’s Application, that a computer program remained just that, whether in abstract form or embodied in a storage medium or in a computer.
[43]
Further specific criticism was reserved for the reasoning of the Board in MICROSOFT/Data transfer with expanded clipboard formats:
‘[113] . . . So a CD or floppy disk containing a computer program is not a “computer program” as such because in addition to containing the program it will cause a computer to execute the program. The reasoning was bolstered by a finding of “technical character” of enhancing the internal operation of the computer, but is essentially independent of that finding.
[114] The Board went on to examine patentability over the nearest prior art (Windows 3.1) and held the invention new and non-obvious. It did not do what was done in PBS PARTNERSHIP/Controlling pension benefits system, namely to treat the unpatentable computer program as such as part of the prior art. No trace of that reasoning appears.
[115] This is inconsistent with Gale’s Application [1991] RPC 305 in this court and earlier board decisions such as VICOM/Computer-related invention Decision T 0208/84 [1987] OJ EPO 14, [1987] 2 EPOR 74. It would seem to open the way in practice to the patentability in principle of any computer program. The reasoning takes a narrow view of what is meant by “computer program”—it is just the abstract set of instructions, not a physical artefact which not only embodies the instructions but also actually causes the instructions to be implemented—such as the memory in a computer on which the program is stored.’
[44]
Having rejected the reasoning of the ‘trio’, the court observed it was bound by its earlier decisions in Merrill Lynch’s Application, Gale’s Application, and Fujitsu Ltd’s Application and then described the following approach as the one to be taken: (i) properly construe the claim; (ii) identify the actual contribution; (iii) ask whether it falls solely within the excluded subject matter; (iv) check whether the contribution is actually technical in nature.
[45]
This, the court considered, was a reformulation in a different order of the Merrill Lynch test. As it explained, the second step requires looking at the substance rather than the form of the claim and assessing what the inventor has added to human knowledge. The third step is important. This is the application of the ‘as such’ qualification. Taken together, the first three steps should provide the answer with the important benefit that they avoid the vexed question of what
Page 756 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
is a relevant ‘technical’ contribution. The fourth step is a check, albeit a necessary one in the light of Merrill Lynch’s Application.
[46]
So this is the new approach which must be adopted by UKIPO and this court. It is clearly not the same as the approach adopted by the EPO in the ‘trio’. The question I must now consider is whether the decision prohibits the patenting of all computer programs and, in particular, those which under the old approach would have been considered to make a conventional computer operate in a new way so as to deliver a relevant technical contribution. UKIPO has apparently concluded that it does and so has reverted to its previous practice of rejecting all computer program claims—and hence its rejection of the program claims in each of the applications the subject of this appeal.
[47]
In considering this question I believe the following points are material. First, the point did not arise in the Aerotel/Macrossan case. The Court of Appeal allowed the Aerotel appeal because the contribution of the invention was a new combination of apparatus for making telephone calls. The Macrossan appeal was a little more complicated. It concerned an automated method for acquiring the documents necessary to incorporate a company. The application had been rejected as being a method of performing a mental act and a computer program as such, but not as a method of doing business. The Court of Appeal did not address the first finding, upheld the second and reversed the third. It considered the contribution of Mr Macrossan’s method was for the business of advising upon and creating company formation documents and there was nothing technical about it. Similarly the program provided no more than an interactive website and so was also excluded as a computer program as such. In both appeals the contribution fell wholly within the exclusions. The court was not required to consider what claims were permissible in the case of a computer-related invention which made a contribution extending beyond excluded subject matter.
[48]
Second, I do not detect anything in the reasoning of the Court of Appeal which suggests that all computer programs are necessarily excluded. I have identified the key aspects of the decision which relate to computer-related inventions and they undoubtedly criticise the reasoning of the EPO Board of Appeal in each of the ‘trio’ of cases. But the criticism is directed at the ‘any hardware will do’ approach and the return to form over substance with the drawing of a distinction between a program as a set of instructions and a program on a carrier. I do not understand the court to have doubted the earlier decisions of the Board in Computer Program Product/IBM and IBM/Computer Program Product II.
[49]
Third, I believe that in any particular case the application of the new approach should produce the same result as did the old. Indeed the Court of Appeal considered it was doing no more than applying a re-ordering of the Merrill Lynch test and that it was bound by Merrill Lynch’s Application, Gale’s Application and Fujitsu Ltd’s Application. Thus, in the case of a computer-related invention which produces a substantive technical contribution, the application of step (ii) will identify that contribution and the application of step (iii) will lead to the answer that it does not fall wholly within excluded matter. Any computer-related invention which passes step (iii) but does not involve a substantive technical contribution will fail step (iv). The answer to these questions will be the same irrespective of whether the invention is claimed in the form of a programmed computer, a method involving the use of that programmed computer or the program itself. The Aerotel/Macrossan case requires the analysis to be carried out as a matter of substance not form, just as did Genentech Inc’s Patent, Merrill Lynch’s
Page 757 of [2008] 2 All ER 742
Application, Gale’s Application and Fujitsu Ltd’s Application. True it is that the first step requires the scope of the monopoly to be determined and, in the case of a program, that will necessarily be limited. However the contribution of that monopoly must still be assessed by reference to the process it will cause a computer to perform.
[50]
Fourth, and as I have recognised earlier in this judgment, it is highly undesirable that provisions of the EPC are construed differently in the EPO from the way they are construed in the national courts of a contracting state. Moreover, decisions of the Board of Appeal are of great persuasive authority. In the light of the Aerotel/Macrossan case it is not open to this court to follow the decisions in the ‘trio’. However the new approach can be interpreted to produce a result consistent with that obtained by applying the reasoning of the Boards of Appeal in Computer Program Product/IBM Decision T 1173/97 [1999] OJ EPO 609 and IBM/Computer Program Product II Decision T 0935/97 (4 February 1999, unreported)—decisions which, I would add, are still followed in the EPO as shown, for example, by the decision of the Board of Appeal in Tao Group Ltd Decision T 0121/06 (25 January 2007, unreported). Significantly, much the same approach has been adopted in Germany following the decision of the Bundesgerichtshof—the German Federal Supreme Court—in Suche fehlerhafter Zeichenketten Case No X ZB 16/00 [2002] IIC 753.
[51]
In all these circumstances I have reached the conclusion that claims to computer programs are not necessarily excluded by art 52. In a case where claims to a method performed by running a suitably programmed computer or to a computer programmed to carry out the method are allowable, then, in principle, a claim to the program itself should also be allowable. I say ‘in principle’ because the claim must be drawn to reflect the features of the invention which would ensure the patentability of the method which the program is intended to carry out when it is run.
[52]
Finally, I must address a submission by Mr Birss that there is one decision of this court following the Aerotel/Macrossan case which directly addresses the issue before me, namely that of Mr Christopher Floyd QC (as he then was) sitting as a deputy judge in Re Oneida Indian Nation [2007] EWHC 954 (Pat), [2007] All ER (D) 23 (May). The case concerned a method of facilitating gaming from an off-site location which could be implemented by programming a general purpose computer. It included claims to the apparatus when programmed and to the program on a carrier. Applying the new approach, the deputy judge held that the advantages of the alleged invention (and hence the contribution) lay solely in a method of doing business and so fell wholly within that exclusion. That was enough to dispose of the appeal. However, although the deputy judge preferred to rest his decision on the business method exclusion, he was also satisfied that the technical advantages relied upon were solely those which would result from placing the new method on a computer and so did not amount to a relevant technical effect.
[53]
As to the program claim, the deputy judge observed that this was therefore prohibited by the business method exclusion. However, he also considered the position on the assumption he was wrong (at [33]):
‘A more controversial question arises on the assumption that I am wrong about the business method exclusion: is a claim in the form of claim 16 allowable even where claim 1 is patentable? In my judgment it is not. The claim is to a computer program as such. Just as in Gale’s Application [1991]
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RPC 305 mere inclusion of the computer program on a disk is not enough to circumvent the exclusion and see the Aerotel case at [92]. No technical problem is solved by doing so and no technical effect is produced.’
[54]
Mr Birss submitted that the deputy judge decided in this one paragraph that program on a carrier claims are not allowable in principle. It is not clear to me that is so. His reasoning must be considered in the light of his earlier conclusion that, in addition to the business method exclusion, the technical advantages relied upon were solely those which would result from placing the new method on a computer. The deputy judge observed that the mere inclusion of a program on a carrier is not enough to circumvent the exclusion. I entirely agree. This was decided in Gale’s Application and the same point is made in the Aerotel/Macrossan case at [92]: more is needed before one is outside the exclusion—such as a change in the speed with which the processor works. If, however, I am wrong and the deputy judge did decide the point now before me then, for all the reasons I have given, I must respectfully disagree with him.
CONCLUSION
[55]
It follows that these appeals must be allowed. Each concerns a computer-related invention where the examiner has allowed claims to, in effect, a method performed by running a suitably programmed computer and to a computer programmed to carry out the method. The hearing officer has rejected corresponding program claims on the basis they are necessarily prohibited by art 52. For the reason I have elaborated, he erred in law in so doing. These cases must be remitted to UKIPO for further consideration in the light of this judgment.
Appeal allowed.
Giovanni d’Avola Barrister.
Boss Holdings Ltd v Grosvenor West End Properties and others
[2008] 2 All ER 759
[2008] UKHL 5
Categories: HOUSING: LANDLORD AND TENANT; Leases
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD HOFFMANN, LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE AND LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY
Hearing Date(s): 10 DECEMBER 2007, 30 JANUARY 2008
Landlord and tenant – Leasehold enfranchisement – House – Building designed or adapted for living in and reasonably so called – Whether ‘designed or adapted for living in’ meaning fit for immediate residential occupation – Leasehold Reform Act 1967, s 2(1).
The defendants were the head lessee and freeholder of a property consisting of a basement and five upper floors. It had been built in the 1730s as a single private residence and had been continuously used as such for over 200 years. The lower three floors were later occupied by a dress making business whilst the upper three floors continued to be used for residential purposes. By 2003 the property was unoccupied. The rooms on the upper three floors had been stripped back to the basic structure. Most of the plaster had been hacked off the main walls, the ceilings had in many places been removed and floorboards had been removed. The lower three floors had not been stripped out and doors, carpets, wiring and light fittings had been retained on the ground floor. K held the lease of the property and in 2003 served a notice on the first defendant pursuant to Pt I of the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 seeking to acquire the freehold. K then assigned the lease, together with the benefit of the notice, to the claimant. Part I of the 1967 Act conferred on a tenant of a leasehold house the right to acquire the freehold and, as originally enacted, had required that the tenant occupy the house as his residence. Section 2(1)a of the 1967 Act defined ‘house’ as including ‘any building designed or adapted for living in and reasonably so called, notwithstanding that the building . . . was or is not solely designed or adapted for living in . . .’ The first defendant served a counter-notice, disputing the claimant’s right to acquire the freehold, on the basis that the property was not a ‘house’ within the meaning of s 2(1) because as it was not physically fit for immediate residential occupation, it was not ‘designed or adapted for living in’. The claimant applied to the county court for a declaration that it was entitled to acquire the freehold; the judge dismissed his application and the Court of Appeal upheld the judge’s decision. The claimant appealed to the House of Lords.
Held – The words ‘designed or adapted for living in’ in s 2(1) of the 1967 Act required, first, consideration of the property as it had been initially built, the purpose for which it had been originally designed. It was then necessary to consider whether work had subsequently been done to the property so that the original design had been changed, whether it had been adapted for another purpose, and if so, what purpose. When asking either question, what had to be
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decided was whether the purpose for which the property had been designed or adapted was ‘for living in’. The notion that s 2(1) was concerned with whether a property could be physically lived in sat ill with the requirement of the 1967 Act, as originally enacted, that the tenant occupied the house as his residence. The legislature could not have intended the meaning of a subsection to change as a result of amendments to other provisions of the same statute, when no amendments were made to that subsection, unless the effect of one of the amendments was, for instance, to change the definition of an expression used in the subsection. It was hard to see what policy considerations would have driven a requirement that a property be fit to live in before a tenant could enfranchise, especially if there was an actual residence requirement. However, the legislature might well have thought it inappropriate to deprive a person of his freehold under the 1967 Act unless he or his predecessor had built it, or permitted a tenant to build it, for living in, or had subsequently permitted it to be adapted for living in. Furthermore, the test of whether a property was fit for immediate residential occupation could easily lead to uncertainty. In the instant case, the property had been designed for living in when it was first built in the 1730s and until some ten years previously, all or at least half of the property, namely the upper three floors, had been used and laid out for residential purposes. Despite having not been occupied for a number of years, having become very dilapidated, and the three residential floors having been stripped out to the basic structural shell, the upper three floors had been and remained ‘designed’ to be lived in, the lower three floors were structurally laid out substantially as they had been when the property was in single residential occupation and the ground floor was still internally fitted out in a way which gave a residential appearance. Accordingly, the property was a ‘house’ within the meaning of s 2(1) of the 1967 Act and the appeal would therefore be allowed (see [1] –[4], [17] –[24], [27], below).
Dictum of Lord Diplock in Suffolk CC v Mason [1979] 2 All ER 369 applied.
Notes
For the meaning of ‘house’, see 27(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2006 reissue) para 1390.
For the Leasehold Reform Act 1967, s 2, see 23 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 252.
Cases referred to in opinions
A-G v Lamplough (1878) 3 Ex D 214, CA.
Suffolk CC v Mason [1979] 2 All ER 369, [1979] AC 705, [1979] 2 WLR 571, HL.
Tandon v Trustees of Spurgeons Homes [1982] 1 All ER 1086, [1982] AC 755, HL.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
Ashbridge Investments Ltd v Minister of Housing and Local Government [1965] 3 All ER 371, [1965] 1 WLR 1320, CA.
Ellis & Sons Amalgamated Properties Ltd v Sisman [1948] 1 All ER 44, [1948] 1 KB 653, CA.
Harris v Swick Securities Ltd [1969] 3 All ER 1131, [1969] 1 WLR 1604.
Hayward v Cammell Laird Shipbuilders Ltd [1988] 2 All ER 257, [1988] AC 894, [1988] 2 WLR 1134, HL.
Lake v Bennett [1970] 1 All ER 457, [1970] 1 QB 663, [1970] 2 WLR 355, CA.
Lewin v End [1906] AC 299, HL.
Page 761 of [2008] 2 All ER 759
Malekshad v Howard de Walden Estates Ltd [2002] UKHL 49, [2003] 1 All ER 193, [2003] 1 AC 1013, [2002] 3 WLR 1881.
Morleys (Birmingham) Ltd v Slater [1950] 1 All ER 331, [1950] 1 KB 506, CA.
Pepper (Inspector of Taxes) v Hart [1993] 1 All ER 42, [1993] AC 593, [1992] 3 WLR 1032, HL.
R v Greater Manchester North District Coroner, ex p Worch [1987] 3 All ER 661, [1988] 1 QB 513, [1987] 3 WLR 997, CA.
Rosen v Trustees of Camden Charities [2001] 2 All ER 399, [2002] Ch 69, [2001] 3 WLR 1470, CA.
Appeal
Boss Holdings Ltd, the tenant of 21 Upper Grosvenor Street, London, W1 (the property) under a lease granted on 30 June 1948 for a term of 87 years from 25 December 1946, appealed with permission of the House of Lords Appeal Committee given on 1 May 2007 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Tuckey, Laws and Carnwath LJJ) on 21 March 2006 ([2006] EWCA Civ 594, [2006] 1 WLR 2848) dismissing Boss’s appeal from the decision of Judge Cowell in the Central London Civil Justice Trial Centre on 16 May 2005 dismissing Boss’s application for a declaration that it was entitled to acquire the freehold of the property under the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 from Grosvenor West End Properties and Grosvenor (Mayfair) Estate. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury.
Edwin Johnson QC (instructed by Butcher Burns) for Boss.
Anthony Radevsky and Mark Sefton (instructed by Boodle Hatfield) for Grosvenor.
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
10 December 2007. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD HOFFMANN.
[1]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the speech of my noble and learned friend Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury. For the reasons he gives, with which I agree, I too would allow this appeal.
LORD SCOTT OF FOSCOTE.
[2]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in advance the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury and am in full agreement with the reasons he has given for allowing this appeal.
LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[3]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of considering in draft the speech to be delivered by my noble and learned friend, Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury. I agree with it and, for the reasons which he gives, I too would allow the appeal.
LORD WALKER OF GESTINGTHORPE.
[4]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of considering in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend, Lord Neuberger of Abbotsbury. I agree with it and, for the reasons which he gives, I too would allow the appeal.
Page 762 of [2008] 2 All ER 759
LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY.
[5]
My Lords, the short issue in this appeal is whether a property at 21 Upper Grosvenor Street, London W1 is a ‘house’ within the meaning of s 2(1) of the Leasehold Reform Act 1967 as amended.
[6]
Section 1(1) of the 1967 Act, as originally enacted, provided as follows:
‘[Part I] of this Act shall have effect confer on a tenant of a leasehold house, occupying the house as his residence, a right to acquire on fair terms the freehold or an extended lease of the house and premises where—(a) his tenancy is a long tenancy at a low rent and the rateable value of the house and premises [is below certain limits]; and (b) at . . . the time when he gives notice in accordance with this Act of his desire to have the freehold or to have an extended lease . . . he has been tenant of the house under a long tenancy at a low rent, and occupying it as his residence, for the last five years or for periods amounting to five years in the last ten years . . .’
[7]
Section 2 of the 1967 Act defined ‘house’ and ‘house and premises’; sub-s (1) is the only provision of relevance for present purposes, and it was in these terms:
‘. . . “house” includes any building designed or adapted for living in and reasonably so called, notwithstanding that the building is not structurally detached, or was or is not solely designed or adapted for living in, or is divided horizontally into flats or maisonettes; and—(a) where a building is divided horizontally, the flats or other units into which it is so divided are not separate “houses” although the building as a whole may be; and (b) where a building is divided vertically the building as a whole is not a “house” though any of the units into which it is divided may be.’
[8]
Over the past 40 years, significant amendments were made from time to time to the 1967 Act, with a view to extending its reach. Thus, the low rent and rateable value limits in s 1(1) were substantially amended by the Housing Act 1974, then again by the Leasehold Reform, Housing and Urban Development Act 1993, and most recently by the Commonhold and Leasehold Reform Act 2002. More importantly for present purposes, any requirement that the tenant should occupy or should have occupied the house as his residence in s 1(1) was removed by the 2002 Act, in all but a few cases. However, despite the significant amendments that have been made from time to time to s 2(1) of the 1967 Act, the primarily relevant provision for the purpose of this appeal, has remained unchanged.
[9]
The property is subject to a lease granted on 30 June 1948 for a term of 87 years from 25 December 1946. On 14 October 2003, the then-tenant under the lease, Kingdom Properties SA, served a notice on the landlord, the first respondent to this appeal, Grosvenor West End Properties, which holds a head lease from the freeholder, Grosvenor (Mayfair) Estate. Both these companies are part of the Grosvenor Estate, and it is unnecessary to distinguish between them. By the notice, which was in the form prescribed by the 1967 Act, Kingdom sought to acquire the freehold of the property. Some two weeks later, Kingdom assigned the lease, together with the benefit of the notice, to the appellant, Boss Holdings Ltd.
Page 763 of [2008] 2 All ER 759
[10]
On 29 October 2003, Grosvenor served a counter-notice, disputing the tenant’s right to acquire the freehold of the property, on the basis that it was not a ‘house’ within the meaning of s 2(1). That issue came before Judge Cowell in the Central London Civil Justice Trial Centre on 16 May 2005, when he upheld Grosvenor’s argument and dismissed Boss’s application for a declaration that it was entitled to acquire the freehold of the property. Boss appealed, and on 21 March 2006 the Court of Appeal upheld the judge’s declaration, in a decision reported at [2006] EWCA Civ 594, [2006] 1 WLR 2848. Boss now appeals to your Lordships’ House.
[11]
It is, quite rightly, common ground between the parties that the question of whether or not the property constitutes a ‘house’ must be determined as at the date Kingdom gave the notice seeking to acquire the freehold, namely 14 October 2003. So I turn to describe the relevant history of the property up to that date.
[12]
The property was built in the fourth decade of the eighteenth century. The judge described it as ‘a fine looking house’ consisting of a basement, ground and four upper floors ‘in a grand terrace of buildings . . . with an Edwardian façade added about 100 years ago’. It was built as a single private residence, and was continuously used as such for over 200 years until 1942, when it was occupied by the Free French government in exile. From about 1946, the three upper floors were fitted out for residential use, and the three lower floors were occupied for a dress-making business. Under the lease granted in 1948, (a) the second and third floors were to be used as a self-contained flat, with the fourth floor for the occupation of servants, and (b) the lower three floors could be used in connection with dress making, subject to a prohibition against any show of business being visible from the exterior.
[13]
The commercial use of the lower three floors continued until about 1990, since when those floors have been vacant. The residential use of the upper floors continued a little longer but ended well before October 2003, and quite possibly by 1995, save that a caretaker may have occupied the top floor until about 2001. Although there was evidence as to the planning history of the property, it quite rightly played no part in the parties’ arguments, particularly as there is no question of any of these uses being or having been unlawful.
[14]
I turn to the physical state of the property. The judge had the benefit of scaled floor plans and of photographs taken of many parts of the interior around 14 October 2003. The floor plans showed the internal layout of the property, which appeared to be substantially appropriate for a house in single occupation built 275 years ago, and identified its gross internal area as just over 1000 square metres. The photographs showed that the rooms on the three upper floors had been, at least to a very great extent, stripped back to the basic structure. Thus, most of the plaster had been hacked off the main walls, so that one could see the bricks of the outside walling; the ceilings had in many places been removed, so that one could see the underside of the joists and the flooring of the rooms above, and, on the top floor, the roof space; in some rooms, the floorboards had been removed. In effect, it looked as if the top three floors had been virtually stripped back to their outer skin, although the staircases, internal walls, and floor joists (and, in some rooms, the ceilings and floor boards, and even some light fittings and pieces of carpet) had not been removed. There was less evidence about the state of the lower three floors, but they do not appear to have been stripped out, and, indeed, the doors, carpets, wiring and light fittings seem to have been retained at least on the ground floor.
Page 764 of [2008] 2 All ER 759
[15]
It is clear that to be a ‘house’ for the purposes of s 2(1) of the 1967 Act, a property must satisfy two requirements, namely: (a) it must be ‘designed or adapted for living in’, and (b) it must be ‘reasonably so called’, ie it must reasonably be called a house. The judge concluded the property was not a house within the meaning of s 2(1), because it was not, as at October 2003, ‘designed or adapted for living in’. Had he not reached that conclusion, he said that he would have accepted that it could ‘reasonably [be] called’ a house. The Court of Appeal agreed. Before turning to the question of whether the property was designed or adapted for living in, it is right to record that, in the light of the reasoning of this House in Tandon v Trustees of Spurgeons Homes [1982] 1 All ER 1086, [1982] AC 755, the judge was plainly correct to conclude that the property could reasonably be called a house.
[16]
Grosvenor’s case is that the property was not, as at October 2003, ‘designed or adapted for living in’, because it was not physically fit for immediate residential occupation. That was accepted by both courts below. The judge said, in para 29 of his judgment, that the words ‘designed or adapted for living in’ carried with them a notion of premises with ‘somewhere to sleep, to cook, to wash and simply to be when not out at work or out otherwise, and, depending on the size of the place, that is commonly provided by a bedroom, kitchen, a bathroom and WC and maybe a living room of some kind’. In his judgment in the Court of Appeal ([2006] 1 WLR 2848), Laws LJ (with whom Tuckey and Carnwath LJJ agreed) described (at [6]) the three upper floors as: ‘unoccupied and very dilapidated . . . incapable of being occupied as residences’, and in [19] he said that ‘because of the grave dilapidation apparent from the photographs the upper floors of the [property] were not at the [relevant time] designed or adapted for anything.’
[17]
While I accept that for present purposes one is largely concerned with the physical state of the property, I disagree with these conclusions. It seems to me that, as a matter of ordinary language, reinforced by considering other provisions of the subsection, and supported by the original terms of s 1(1), as well as by considerations of practicality and policy, the property was, as at October 2003, ‘designed or adapted for living in’ within s 2(1). The fact that the property had become internally dilapidated and incapable of beneficial occupation (without the installation of floor boards, plastering, re-wiring, re-plumbing and the like) does not detract from the fact that the property was ‘designed . . . for living in’, when it was first built, and nothing that has happened subsequently has changed that. While internal structural works will no doubt have been carried out to the property from time to time over the past 275 years, it seems very likely from the floor plans that its layout, in terms of internal walls, partitions and staircases, has not changed much since the property was built. In any event, the upper three floors have always been laid out for residential use.
[18]
In my judgment, the words ‘designed or adapted for living in’, as a matter of ordinary English, require one first to consider the property as it was initially built: for what purpose was it originally designed? That is the natural meaning of the word ‘designed’, which is a past participle. One then goes on to consider whether work has subsequently been done to the property so that the original ‘design’ has been changed: has it been adapted for another purpose, and if so what purpose? When asking either question, one is ultimately concerned to decide whether the purpose for which the property has been designed or adapted, was ‘for living in’.
Page 765 of [2008] 2 All ER 759
[19]
The notion that the word ‘designed’ in s 2(1) is concerned with the past is reinforced by the later words in the same section ‘was or is solely designed or adapted . . .’ The use of the past tense is striking in a section which contains a number of verbs only in the present tense. In my judgment, the expression is to be construed distributively: thus, the word ‘was’ governs ‘designed’, and the word ‘is’ governs ‘adapted’. The present tense is appropriate for ‘adapted’ because, as my noble and learned friend Lord Scott of Foscote pointed out in argument, there could have been several successive adaptations, and it is only the most recent which is relevant. The word ‘was’ is in any event difficult to reconcile with Grosvenor’s case (as accepted by the judge and the Court of Appeal), as it would be irrelevant whether the property could have been fit for residential occupation at any time in the past.
[20]
Furthermore, the notion that s 2(1) is concerned with whether a property could be physically lived in sits rather ill with the fact that s 1(1), as originally enacted, required, in every case of enfranchisement, the tenant to have occupied the house as his only or main residence. The requirement that a property be in such a physical state that it can be lived in seems somewhat arid and valueless if there is a requirement that it is, and has been, actually lived in.
[21]
I also find it hard to see what policy considerations would have driven a requirement that a property be fit to live in before a tenant could enfranchise, especially if, as mentioned, there was an actual residence requirement anyway. I can, however, discern a reason for having a requirement that a property must either have been originally designed for living in, or must subsequently have been physically adapted for that purpose. The legislature may well have thought it inappropriate to deprive a person of his freehold under the 1967 Act unless he (or his predecessor) (a) had built it, or permitted a tenant to build it, for living in, or (b) had subsequently permitted it to be adapted for living in.
[22]
Furthermore, the issue of whether a property is fit for immediate residential occupation, the test adopted by the courts below, could easily lead to arguments and uncertainty. As the words I have quoted from the first instance judgment reveal, it may be a matter of debate whether a particular property is so fit if it has no bathroom or no kitchen, or if there is no sitting room. The resolution of such an issue would inevitably be a matter of subjective opinion in many cases. Also, it appears that a tenant’s notice would be invalidated if it happened to have been served on a day when he was having his only bathroom refitted: the property would not have been fit for immediate occupation on that day, as it had no usable washing and toilet facilities. Of course, the answer to this may well be that one does not treat the property as physically ‘frozen’ on the relevant day. However, once one departs from the strict test of fitness for immediate residential occupation, the uncertainties multiply. No such difficulties, as I see it, are likely to arise if the words in question are given their natural meaning.
[23]
I have referred to, and relied on, the residence requirements in s 1(1) of the 1967 Act in its original form. In the Court of Appeal, Carnwath LJ said ([2006] 1 WLR 2848 at [25]) that he was inclined to think that no assistance could be gathered from provisions in the 1967 Act as originally enacted, because one should construe the 1967 Act in its current form. Consequently, he considered that no help in construing s 2(1) could be gathered from the residence requirement of every enfranchisement claim originally contained in s 1(1). I do not agree. In Suffolk CC v Mason [1979] 2 All ER 369 at 375, [1979] AC 705 at 714, Lord Diplock said that certain ‘provisions . . . have since been amended by the
Page 766 of [2008] 2 All ER 759
Countryside Act 1968; but this cannot affect the construction of the National Parks and Access to the Countryside Act 1949 as it was originally enacted.’ There are earlier observations to similar effect from Bramwell and Brett LJJ in A-G v Lamplough (1878) 3 Ex D214 at 227 and 229. In my opinion, the legislature cannot have intended the meaning of a subsection to change as a result of amendments to other provisions of the same statute, when no amendments were made to that subsection, unless, of course, the effect of one of the amendments was, for instance, to change the definition of an expression used in the subsection.
[24]
Having explained why I take a different view from the courts below of the words in issue, I revert to the facts of the present case, albeit at the risk of repetition. The property was designed for living in when it was first built in the 1730s, and, with the exception of the last ten years or so, all or at least half of the property, namely the upper three floors, has been used and laid out for residential purposes. Indeed, the layout of all six floors of the property does not appear to have been substantially altered from its original construction as a house in single residential occupation. It is true that it has not been occupied for a number of years, that it has become very dilapidated, and that three residential floors have been stripped out to the basic structural shell (albeit that the internal walls, windows, staircases, and joists are in place). However, none of that detracts from the point that at least the upper three floors were and remain ‘designed’ to be lived in, and that the lower three floors appear to be structurally laid out substantially as they were when the property was in single residential occupation, and, as pointed out by my noble and learned friend, Lord Rodger of Earlsferry in argument, they are (or, at least the ground floor is) still internally fitted out in a way which gives a residential appearance.
[25]
There are two further points concerning the words ‘designed or adapted for living in’ I should mention. The first relates to the facts of this case, and the second is more general. On the facts of this case, I have concentrated on how the property was originally ‘designed’, but it is arguable that it was ‘adapted’ in the 1940s. It is unnecessary to resolve the point, because, if it was so adapted, it was an adaptation for mixed business and residential purposes. In other words, the property would have been adapted for business use on the lower three floors and ‘adapted for living in’ on the upper three floors. It is clear from s 2(1) that, in order to be a ‘house’, the property need not be ‘solely’ adapted for living in, so it would make no difference to the outcome of this appeal if that were the correct analysis. The issue was, unsurprisingly, not much debated, but I incline to the view that the original design of the property is what matters in this case. Its original internal layout as a single residence appears to have survived substantially unchanged throughout, the three upper floors have always been envisaged as being for ‘living in’, and (perhaps less importantly) the internal fitting out of the lower three floors has a residential character, and the external appearance has not been altered since well before the property ceased being used as a residence in single occupation.
[26]
The second further point concerning the words ‘designed or adapted for living in’ is whether a property would be a ‘house’ if it had been designed for living in, but had subsequently been adapted to another use. As a matter of literal language, such a property would be a house, because ‘designed’ and ‘adapted’ appear to be alternative qualifying requirements. At least at first sight, such a conclusion seems surprising, so there is obvious attraction in implying a qualification that, if a property has been, and remains adapted for a purpose other than living in, the tenant cannot rely upon the fact that it was originally designed
Page 767 of [2008] 2 All ER 759
for living in. However, a term is not easily implied into a statute, and further reflection suggests that the literal meaning of the words is not as surprising as it may first appear, particularly bearing in mind the existence of the residence requirement in s 1(1) of the original Act. It is unnecessary to decide this point, and, particularly as it was only touched on in argument, I do not think we ought to do so.
[27]
In all these circumstances, I would allow this appeal, on the ground that 21 Upper Grosvenor Street, London W1 was ‘designed or adapted for living in’ within the meaning of s 2(1) of the 1967 Act.
Appeal allowed.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
Scottish and Newcastle International Ltd v Othon Ghalanos Ltd
[2008] 2 All ER 768
[2008] UKHL 11
Categories: CONFLICT OF LAWS
Court: HOUSE OF LORDS
Lord(s): LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL, LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY, LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD, LORD MANCE AND LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY
Hearing Date(s): 15 NOVEMER 2007, 20 FEBRUARY 2008
Conflict of laws – Jurisdiction – Civil and commercial matters – Contract of sale – Place of delivery of goods – Carriage of goods by sea – Cfr contract – Consignment of cider sold on terms cfr Limassol – Whether place of delivery port where goods shipped or Limassol – Sale of Goods Act 1979, s 32 – Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001, art 5.
The parties entered into a contract for the sale of cider. The seller was based in Scotland and the buyer was based in Cyprus. The contract was subject to English law and the invoices described Limassol as the place of delivery. The contract was on terms cfr Limassol however, the buyers designated the carrier to be used, the possible ports of shipment and specified the rate of the freight. Although the sellers were to pay the freight and obtain the bills of lading from the carriers, the bills were to be made out to the buyer and were non-negotiable. The cider was shipped to Limassol from Edinburgh via Liverpool. The buyers failed to pay for the cider and the sellers brought an action in England to recover the sums due, contending that pursuant to s 32a of the Sale of Goods Act 1979 by which, where a seller was authorised or required to send goods to the buyer, delivery of the goods to a carrier for the purpose of transmission to the buyer was prima facie deemed to be a delivery of the goods to the buyer, the goods had been delivered when they were shipped at Liverpool and that the court accordingly had jurisdiction under art 5(1)(b)b of Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 (on jurisdiction and the recognition and enforcement of judgments in civil and commercial matters (OJ 2001 L12 p 1)) (the Judgments Regulation). Article 5(1)(b) provided for the jurisdiction of the courts of ‘the place . . . where, under the contract the goods were delivered . . .’ The buyers challenged the jurisdiction of the court. They argued that the contract provided expressly or in effect, for delivery in Limassol or alternatively that the terms of delivery were cfr Limassol and that s 32 had limited scope in relation to such contracts, where the carriers in effect acted as agents for the sellers. The judge and the Court of Appeal held that the English court did have jurisdiction and the buyers appealed.
Held – Delivery of the goods had taken place upon shipment in Liverpool under s 32 of the 1979 Act and the English court therefore had jurisdiction under art 5(1)(b) of the Judgments Regulation. Section 32 applied despite the express reference to Limassol as the place of delivery in the contract, because that reference appeared in the specific context of transport arrangements. The fact that the buyer would not in practice inspect the goods until after their arrival in
Page 769 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
Cyprus counted for nothing; it was commonplace in international sales. The agreement for payment 90 days after arrival was no more than a relaxed payment regime with no significance in relation to the place of delivery. The applicability of s 32 was not displaced by the fact that the contract was expressed to be on a cfr basis. The instant contract was to be regarded as being in all essential respects an fob contract where ownership of the goods was transferred on shipment. All the indicia of an fob contract were present: (i) shipment was required to be made by the buyers at one of two ports of shipment contractually specified by the buyer; (ii) the shipping line and the shipping agents were specified by the buyers and; (iii) the bills of lading under the sale contract between the buyers and the sellers were non-negotiable and were made out to the buyers as consignees. The sellers were to have no actual or potential right or interest in the goods or the bills of lading after shipment. Further, in view of the nature and terms of the sale contract there was every reason to regard the sellers as bailing the goods to the carriers on behalf of the buyers even if the buyers were not party to any contract that the sellers made with the carriers. Accordingly, the appeal would be dismissed (see [6], [7], [9], [16], [18], [22], [23], [36], [37], [44], [47], [48], [56], [57], below).
The Albazero [1976] 3 All ER 129 considered.
Decision of the Court of Appeal [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 1027 affirmed.
Notes
For jurisdiction under Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 in relation to contracts, see 8(3) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) para 90.
For the Sale of Goods Act 1979, s 32 see 39 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 102.
Cases referred to in opinions
Albazero, The [1976] 3 All ER 129, [1977] AC 774, [1976] 3 WLR 491, HL; rvsg [1975] 3 All ER 21, [1977] AC 774, [1975] 3 WLR 491, CA; affg [1974] 2 All ER 906, [1977] AC 774, [1975] 3 WLR 491.
Borealis AB v Stargas Ltd, The Berge Sisar [2001] UKHL 17, [2001] 1 All ER (Comm) 673, [2002] 2 AC 205, [2001] 2 WLR 1118.
Chao (t/a Zung Fu Co) v British Traders and Shippers Ltd (NV Handelsmaatschappij J Smits Import-Export, third party) [1954] 1 All ER 779, sub nom Kwei Tek Chao v British Traders and Shippers Ltd (NV Handelsmaatschappij J Smits Import-Export, third party) [1954] 2 QB 459, [1954] 2 WLR 496.
Color Drack GmbH v Lexx International Vertriebs GmbH (Case C-386/05) [2008] 1 All ER Comm 168, ECJ.
Dunlop v Lambert (1839) 6 Cl & Fin 600, 7 ER 824, (1839) Macl & Rob 663, 9 ER 244, HL.
East West Corp v DKBS 1912 A/S, Utaniko Ltd v P & O Nedlloyd BV [2003] EWCA Civ 83, [2003] 2 All ER 700, [2003] QB 1509.
Gabbiano, The [1940] P 166.
Industrie Tessili Italiana Como v Dunlop AG Case 12/76 [1976] ECR 1473.
Leigh & Sillavan Ltd v Aliakmon Shipping Co Ltd, The Aliakmon [1986] 2 All ER 145, [1986] AC 785, [1986] 2 WLR 902, HL.
Morris v CW Martin & Sons Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 725, [1966] 1 QB 716, [1965] 3 WLR 276, CA.
Parchim, The [1918] AC 157, PC.
Page 770 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
Pioneer Container, The, KH Enterprise (cargo owners) v Pioneer Container (owners) [1994] 2 All ER 250, [1994] 2 AC 324, [1994] 3 WLR 1, PC.
Pyrene Co Ltd v Scindia Steam Navigation Co Ltd [1954] 2 All ER 158, [1954] 2 QB 402, [1954] 2 WLR 1005.
Cases referred to in list of authorities
Barber v Meyerstein (1870) LR 4 HL 317, HL.
Canada Trust Co v Stolzenberg (No 2) [1998] 1 All ER 318, [1998] 1 WLR 547, CA
CILFIT Srl and Lanificio di Gavardo SpA v Ministry of Health Case 283/81 [1982] ECR 3415, ECJ.
Communications (7E) Ltd v Vertex Antennentechnik Gmbh [2007] EWCA Civ 140, [2007] 2 All ER (Comm) 798, [2007] 1 WLR 2175.
Continuity Promotions Ltd v O’Connor’s Nenagh Shopping Centre Ltd [2006] EWHC 3462 (QB), [2006] All ER (D) 39 (Feb).
Custom Made Commercial Ltd v Stawa Metallbau GmbH Case C-288/92 [1994] ECR I-2913.
Elder Dempster Lines v Ishag, The Lycaon [1983] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 548.
Enichem Anic SpA v Ampelos Shipping Co Ltd, The Delfini [1990] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 252, CA.
Galbraith and Grant Ltd v Block [1922] 2 KB 155, [1922] All ER Rep 443.
Gulf Interstate Oil Corp and Coral Oil Co Ltd v ANT Trade and Transport Ltd of Malta, The Giovanna [1999] 1 All ER (Comm) 97, [1999] 1 Lloyd’s Rep 867.
Hansson v Hamel and Horley Ltd [1922] 2 AC 36, [1922] All ER Rep 237, HL; affg (1921) Ll L Rep 432, CA.
Homburg Houtimport BV v Agrosin Private Ltd, The Starsin [2003] UKHL 12, [2003] 2 All ER 785, [2004] 1 AC 715, [2003] 2 WLR 711.
MacWilliam (JI) Co Inc v Mediterranean Shipping Co SA, The Rafaela S [2005] UKHL 11, [2005] 2 All ER 86, [2005] 2 AC 423.
Mainschiffahrts-Genossenschaft eG (MSG) v Les Gravières Rhénanes SARL Case C-106/95 [1997] All ER (EC) 385, [1997] ECR I-911, ECJ.
Manbre Saccharine Co v Corn Products Co [1919] 1 KB 198, [1918–19] All ER Rep 980.
RPS Prodotti Siderurgici SRL v Sea Mass (owners), The Sea Maas [2000] 1 All ER 536, [1999] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 281.
Appeal
The defendant, Othon Ghalanos Ltd (a company established in Cyprus) (Ghalanos), appealed with permission of the Appeal Committee of the House of Lords given on 29 March 2007 from the decision of the Court of Appeal (Waller and Rix LJJ) ([2006] EWCA Civ 1750, [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 1027) on 20 December 2006 dismissing Ghalanos’s appeal from the decision of Andrew Smith J ([2006] EWHC 1039 (Comm)) that under the terms of Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 the English court had jurisdiction in proceedings commenced in England by Scottish & Newcastle International Ltd (S&N) for the price of a consignment of cider shipped from England on terms cfr Limassol. The facts are set out in the opinion of Lord Rodger.
Richard Lord QC (instructed by Thomas Eggar, Crawley) for Ghalanos.
Michael Bools (instructed by Kimbells LLP, Milton Keynes) for S&N.
Page 771 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
Their Lordships took time for consideration.
20 February 2008. The following opinions were delivered.
LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL.
[1]
My Lords, in this action the seller (Scottish & Newcastle International Ltd (S&N)) seeks to recover the price of goods sold from the buyer (Othon Ghalanos Ltd (Ghalanos)). S&N is a company based in Scotland, Ghalanos a company registered in Cyprus. The contract related to 11 consignments of cider shipped from Liverpool to Limassol in June–July 2004. The question before the House is whether the English court has jurisdiction to entertain the action. The answer to that question turns, by virtue of art 5(1)(b) of Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 (on jurisdiction and the recognition and enforcement of judgments in civil and commercial matters (OJ 2001 L12 p 1), on whether, as a matter of English law applied to the particular contract made between the parties, the goods were or should have been delivered by S&N to Ghalanos in England. Both Andrew Smith J ([2006] EWHC 1039 (Comm)) and the Court of Appeal (Waller and Rix LJJ) ([2006] EWCA Civ 1750, [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 1027, [2007] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 341) held in favour of S&N that the English court does have jurisdiction, but Ghalanos challenges the correctness of that conclusion.
[2]
The general rule, expressed in art 2(1) of the regulation referred to, is that persons domiciled in a member state must, irrespective of their nationality, be sued in the courts of their home state. That is the result Ghalanos seeks, and if art 2(1) were applicable, S&N would have to pursue its claim in the Cypriot court. But the general rule in art 2(1) is qualified by a special rule in art 5(1) of the regulation, which provides:
‘A person domiciled in a Member State may, in another Member State, be sued:
(1)(a) in matters relating to a contract, in the courts for the place of performance of the obligation in question;
(b) for the purpose of this provision and unless otherwise agreed, the place of performance of the obligation in question shall be:
—in the case of the sale of goods, the place in a Member State where, under the contract, the goods were delivered or should have been delivered,
—in the case of the provision of services, the place in a Member State where, under the contract, the services were provided or should have been provided,
(c) if subparagraph (b) does not apply then subparagraph (a) applies.’
Thus in matters of contract a person domiciled in one member state need not be sued in the courts of that state but may be sued in the courts of another member state if one or other of the conditions in the article is satisfied.
[3]
Article 5(1)(a), applying to matters of contract quite generally and therefore very broad in its scope, focuses attention on the particular obligation in question in the particular action and permits a claimant to sue in a member state other than that of the defendant’s domicile if the particular obligation in question was or should have been performed in that other member state. But in sub-para (b) a more specific rule is laid down, not applicable to the whole field of contract, but only to contracts for the sale of goods or the provision of services. In each of these cases, in the absence of contrary agreement, the place of performance of the obligation in question must be taken to be the place where,
Page 772 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
under the particular contract between the parties, the goods were or should have been delivered or the services were or should have been provided, as the case may be. If sub-para (b) does not apply, whether because the contract is not one for the sale of goods or the provision of services or because a contract of that character contains no term as to the place of delivery of goods or the place of provision of services, sub-para (a) applies.
[4]
The sale of goods contract made between S&N and Ghalanos is, as they agree, governed by English law. Thus it is to that contract, interpreted according to the principles of English law, that we must look to ascertain whether, under the contract, the goods were or should have been delivered in England. This is made clear by the decision of the European Court of Justice in Industrie Tessili Italiana Como v Dunlop AG Case 12/76 [1976] ECR 1473 at 1485 (paras 13–15). Thus (as the parties rightly agree) the regulation does not purport to impose a uniform concept of delivery on all member states but leaves member states to apply whatever, under their rules of private international law, is the law properly applicable to the particular contract, in this case English law.
[5]
I am grateful to my noble and learned friends Lord Rodger of Earlsferry and Lord Mance for their summaries of the terms of the contract upon which this appeal turns, which I need not repeat. The issue is whether, as held by the courts below, the goods were delivered to Ghalanos under the contract in Liverpool.
[6]
For reasons given by Lord Mance in [31], below, I would reject the primary argument of Ghalanos that Limassol was the contractually agreed place of delivery because that port was entered in box (iv) ‘Place of delivery’, on the invoices. The courts below did not accept that argument, and nor would I
[7]
For reasons given by Lord Rodger in [10]–[17], below and by Lord Mance in [36]–[48], below, I am of opinion that on a proper analysis of this contract in accordance with established principles of English commercial law, the contractual agreed place of delivery was Liverpool and the goods were duly delivered there to Ghalanos. It follows that the English court has jurisdiction under art 5(1)(b) of the regulation to entertain this claim, and Ghalanos’s appeal must be dismissed. Like Lord Rodger, however, I would prefer to reserve my opinion on the points discussed in paras [49]–[55], below, which do not arise for decision in this case.
LORD RODGER OF EARLSFERRY.
[8]
My Lords, in about April 2004 the appellants (Ghalanos), a company domiciled in Cyprus, agreed to buy 11 container loads of cider from the respondents (S&N), a company having its head office in Scotland. The contract was subject to English law. The cider was shipped at Liverpool and taken by Zim Line vessels to Limassol where Ghalanos took delivery. Ghalanos have not, however, paid for the cider and S&N now sue them for the price. It is common ground that, in terms of art 5(1)(b) of Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 (on jurisdiction and the recognition and enforcement of judgments in civil and commercial matters (OJ 2001 L12 p 1), the English courts do not have jurisdiction unless, according to English law, the cider was ‘delivered’ in England—more particularly, on shipment at Liverpool.
[9]
For the reasons to be given by my noble and learned friend, Lord Mance, I would reject the appellants’ primary argument, that Limassol was the contractually agreed place of delivery, because ‘Limassol’ was written into box (iv), headed ‘Place of delivery’, on the invoices. I concentrate on the appellants’ alternative case.
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[10]
So far as relevant, s 61(1) of the Sale of Goods Act 1979 provides that, in the Act, unless the context or subject matter otherwise requires, ‘delivery’ means ‘voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another’. Section 32(1) provides:
‘Where, in pursuance of a contract of sale, the seller is authorised or required to send the goods to the buyer, delivery of the goods to a carrier (whether named by the buyer or not) for the purpose of transmission to the buyer is prima facie deemed to be a delivery of the goods to the buyer.’
From the definition of ‘delivery’ in s 61(1) it follows that, in cases where s 32(1) applies, by voluntarily transferring possession of the goods to a carrier for the purpose of transmission to the buyer, the seller is prima facie deemed to have voluntarily transferred possession of the goods to the buyer. For purposes of art 5(1)(b) of the regulation the place where the seller voluntarily transferred possession of the goods to the carrier would therefore be the place where the goods were ‘delivered’ to the purchaser.
[11]
S&N say that s 32(1) applies and provides the answer in this case: the goods were delivered under the contract of sale when S&N shipped them on board the Zim Line vessels at Liverpool. Even where goods are delivered to a carrier, however, it does not automatically follow that they are deemed to have been delivered to the buyer. The subsection gives only a prima facie rule, which would have to yield if the terms of the contract between the parties indicated that the seller was to keep, rather than to transfer, possession of the goods. Similarly, it is accepted that where the carrier is the employee or agent of the seller, delivery to the carrier does not constitute delivery to the buyer.
[12]
The subsection reflects the position at common law. For example, in the (much discussed) case of Dunlop v Lambert (1839) 6 Cl & Fin 600, 7 ER 824, a puncheon of whisky, which merchants in Edinburgh had sold to a customer in England, was lost at sea during a voyage from Leith to Newcastle. The merchants, who had contracted with the carriers, sued them for the loss of the whisky. One of the questions which arose was whether the whisky had been delivered to the purchaser, so that the property or risk had passed to him, by the time it was lost. Lord Cottenham LC observed ((1839) 6 Cl & Fin 600 at 620, 7 ER 824 at 831):
‘It is no doubt true as a general rule, that the delivery by the consignor to the carrier is a delivery to the consignee, and that the risk is after such delivery the risk of the consignee. This is so if, without designating the particular carrier, the consignee directs that the goods shall be sent by the ordinary conveyance: the delivery to the ordinary carrier is then a delivery to the consignee, and the consignee incurs all the risk of the carriage. And it is still more strongly so if the goods are sent by a carrier specially pointed out by the consignee himself, for such carrier then becomes his special agent.’
He added, ((1839) 6 Cl & Fin 600 at 620–621, 7 ER 824 at 831–832):
‘But though the authorities all establish the general inference I have stated, yet that general inference is capable of being varied by the circumstances of any special arrangement between the parties, or of any particular mode of dealing between them.’
(The parallel report of both these extracts is to the same effect, even if the language differs somewhat: Dunlop v Lambert (1839) Macl & Rob 663 at 674–675,
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9 ER 244 at 248). The rationale for the approach which Lord Cottenham LC outlines must be that, when the consignor delivers the goods to the carrier, the consignee is then in a position to take delivery of them from the carrier at the other end.
[13]
In the present case the contract provided for S&N to send the goods to Ghalanos. But Ghalanos designated the carrier to be used: shipment was to be from Liverpool or Felixstowe ‘per Zim Line vessel as per attached shipping schedule . . .’ In addition, although S&N were to pay the freight, Ghalanos told them that it was to be ‘at the rate of Stg £275,00 liner terms all in plus BAF (Banker Adjustment Factor) per 20’ container as agreed with the Cyprus agents of Zim Line.’ In other words, the rate had already been negotiated between Ghalanos and the Cyprus agents of the designated carriers, Zim Line. Having regard to these factors and applying the approach of Lord Cottenham LC in Dunlop v Lambert, I would hold that the carriers, Zim Line, are properly to be regarded as the agents of Ghalanos for purposes of s 32(1) of the 1979 Act. It follows that, by shipping the containers of cider on board the vessels at Liverpool, S&N are prima facie deemed to have delivered the cider to Ghalanos in Liverpool. The question then is whether there is anything to displace that prima facie conclusion.
[14]
Before Andrew Smith J it seems to have been common ground that, since the terms of the contract were cfr, no distinction was to be drawn between it and a cif contract. In the Court of Appeal ([2006] EWCA Civ 1750 at [9], [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 1027 at [9], [2007] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 341) Rix LJ observed, however, that, although it was expressed to be cfr, the contract contemplated by the parties differed very little from a form of fob contract. I agree. But I doubt whether it matters, for present purposes, where exactly the parties’ contract stands in the spectrum of possible contracts. What matter are the terms of the arrangement between the parties.
[15]
In this case, not only were the sellers to pay the freight, but they were also to obtain the bills of lading from the carriers. This is apparent from the term providing for the documents to be forwarded to Ghalanos immediately after shipment. The bills were, however, to be made out to Ghalanos as consignee and were to be non-negotiable. Nor did S&N reserve the right of disposal of the cider. Plainly, therefore, the property in the cider had passed to Ghalanos and the consignors, S&N, were to have no continuing interest in the cider once it had been shipped. This is confirmed by the requirement that S&N were to forward the documents to Ghalanos immediately, by registered and express mail: the clear intention was that Ghalanos were to have the bills of lading, and so were to be in a position to take delivery of the cider from the carriers, when they were notified that the vessels had reached Limassol. This, again, was consistent with payment of the price only being due 90 days after the vessel arrived there.
[16]
In my view, all these factors combine to confirm that, by shipping the containers on board the vessels at Liverpool with the intention that Ghalanos should be in a position to take delivery of them immediately on their arrival at Limassol, under s 32(1) of the 1979 Act S&N are deemed to have delivered the cider to Ghalanos at Liverpool.
[17]
Another way of putting the same point would be to say that, in these particular circumstances, where the property had passed and S&N had no continuing interest in the cider after shipment, the bills of lading evidenced a bailment, with Zim Line as bailee and the consignee, Ghalanos, as bailor: Borealis AB v Stargas Ltd, The Berge Sisar [2001] UKHL 17 at [18], [2001] 1 All ER (Comm) 673 at [18], [2002] 2 AC 205 per Lord Hobhouse of Woodborough.
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[18]
I accordingly agree with Lord Mance that, in terms of art 5(1)(b) of the regulation, the High Court has jurisdiction in this case. He goes on to indicate that, in his view, the place of shipment would also be the place of delivery for the purposes of art 5(1)(b) in all types of fob contracts, including those which provide for the seller to retain the bills of lading, for instance, until the buyer has paid for the goods. I readily acknowledge the powerful factors in favour of that view, including the language of art 5(1)(b)—which may be thought to focus on the physical delivery of the goods themselves—and the desirability of having an easily applicable rule for determining jurisdiction.
[19]
Nevertheless, I prefer to reserve my opinion on the point. I can explain my reasons very briefly.
[20]
A term under which the seller is to retain the bills of lading until payment is, of course, common in both cif and fob contracts. Since the bill of lading is the symbol of the goods, under such an arrangement the seller or his agent not only retains possession of the bill of lading but also, thereby, retains the right to possession of the goods until the price is paid. Often, the property in the goods will also be intended to pass only on payment. In such a case, even though the seller ships the goods on board a vessel nominated by the buyer, by doing so, he does not intend to transfer possession of the goods to the buyer. On the contrary, the intention of the parties is that the buyer is not to obtain possession of the bill of lading—and hence of the means to take delivery of the goods from the carrier—unless and until he has paid the price. In that situation it seems to me at least arguable that the prima facie rule in s 32(1) of the 1979 Act would be displaced by the terms of the contract between the parties. So, under the English law of sale, the goods would not have been ‘delivered’ to the buyer by being shipped on the carrier’s vessel. I refer, by way of illustration, to the discussion of the passing of the right to possession of the cargo in the judgments of Brandon J and Roskill LJ in The Albazero [1974] 2 All ER 906 at 927–928, [1977] AC 774 at 800–801, and [1975] 3 All ER 21 at 30–33, [1977] AC 774 at 809-812, respectively. Their reasoning was approved by Lord Diplock in this House ([1976] 3 All ER 129 at 131, [1977] AC 774 at 840).
[21]
Whether, even if the goods had not been ‘delivered’ for the purposes English law, they would none the less have been ‘delivered’ for the purposes of art 5(1)(b) of the regulation gives rise to other questions which it is also unnecessary to decide on this occasion.
[22]
For these reasons I would dismiss the appeal.
LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD.
[23]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Mance and for the reasons he gives, with which I agree, I too would dismiss this appeal.
LORD MANCE.
[24]
My Lords, the question on this appeal is whether the English courts have jurisdiction under art 5(1)(b) of Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 (on jurisdiction and the recognition and enforcement of judgments in civil and commercial matters (OJ 2001 L12 p 1) over a claim for the price of cider sold and delivered by the respondents, Scottish & Newcastle International Ltd (S&N) to the appellants, Othon Ghalanos Ltd (Ghalanos). S&N are a Scottish company based in Edinburgh, where it appears that the price should have been paid. Ghalanos are a Cypriot company, and were until 2004 distributors to S&N (following, it
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appears, a takeover by S&N of HP Bulmer Ltd). The termination of their Cypriot distributorship has given rise to separate proceedings in Cyprus. The present proceedings (which S&N started before the Cypriot proceedings) are brought in England solely on the basis that this is ‘the place . . . where, under the contract, the goods were delivered . . .’ within the meaning of art 5(1)(b).
[25]
Article 5(1)(b) was introduced into the Brussels regime by the regulation to provide in relation to contracts for the sale of goods and provision of services a single point of reference for the alternative head of contractual jurisdiction permitted by art 5(1). The basic rule contained in art 5(1)(a) is that a person domiciled in a member state may be sued in another member state in matters relating to a contract in the courts for the place of performance of the obligation in question. But art 5(1)(b) radically alters the effect of this provision by providing that, for its purpose and unless otherwise agreed, the place of performance of the obligation in question shall be, in the case of sale of goods, the place in a member state where, under the contract, the goods were delivered or should have been delivered. Likewise, in the case of the provision of services, it is now the place where, under the contract, the services were provided or should have been provided.
[26]
S&N maintain that the cider was, for the purposes of art 5(1)(b), delivered in Liverpool, where it was shipped for carriage to Cyprus under 11 bills of lading on three different vessels in late June and July 2004. Ghalanos submit that the contract provided, expressly or in effect, for delivery in Limassol, Cyprus, or alternatively that the terms of delivery were cfr Limassol, and in either case that delivery was not in Liverpool. These submissions make it necessary to analyse the nature of the contract.
[27]
By letter dated 3 March 2004 Ghalanos ordered 11 containers of cider. Under the heading ‘Shipment’ the order provided ‘From Liverpool or Felixstowe per Zim Line vessel as per attached shipping schedule’. It stipulated for email notification to Ghalanos when shipment was effected. It gave full details of Zim Line’s Liverpool and Felixstowe agents (Bahr Behrend Agencies Ltd at Liverpool). Under the head ‘Delivery’, it provided: ‘CFR Limassol’, under ‘Payment’: ‘90 days . . . from the date of arrival of the vessel’ and under ‘Freight’: ‘Prepaid at the rate of Stg £275,00 liner terms all in plus BAF (Banker Adjustment Factor) per 20’ container as agreed with the Cyprus agents of Zim Line.’ Under ‘Insurance’ it provided ‘Our care’. Proforma invoices were to be provided showing fob prices, while the final invoices were to show the fob prices stated in the order, the total fob value and the freight. The order further provided that there should be a bill of lading ‘original and copy non negotiable, each in three copies’ for each container, stating ‘Notify Othon Ghalanos Ltd.’ Under ‘Documents’, the order provided that separate documents for each container should be issued in the name of and forwarded ‘immediately after shipment by registered and express mail’ to Ghalanos. This last instruction was repeated at the end as one of five important ‘Notes’.
[28]
S&N’s response to this order was by letter dated 21 April to raise a number of points, the first of which was that—
‘you have mentioned that the terms are CFR Limassol while requesting us to ship on an FOB basis. The pricing which we have on our records shows that you have an FOB price and [we] will therefore treat your order accordingly. Bearing this in mind we have asked your agents, Bahr Behrend
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in Liverpool, for an FOB quote and are waiting for them to return to us with this information.’
Ghalanos replied on 3 May:
‘Our prices are FOB UK port, but as per our agreement you prepay the freight on our behalf, thus making the delivery terms CFR. The delivery terms CFR should be stated on the invoice. The amount of the freight prepaid, should also be stated on the invoice, separately, see attached H. P. Bulmer’s invoice. For the record please note that Bahr Behrend in Liverpool are the agents of Zim Line in the U.K. and are not our agents . . .
We reconfirm that the agreed freight rate we have with the Cyprus agents of Zim Line is Stg£275 linerterms all in plus BAF (Banker Adjustment Factor) per 20’ container.’
[29]
On 18 June 2004 S&N wrote forwarding proforma invoices covering the 11 containers, saying:
‘Your agreed freight charges will be added to the final invoices which will be sent after the goods have been despatched.
I have contacted our shipping agent in the UK and we’re aiming to despatch the first 6 containers next week for shipment on the next available vessel . . .’
All 11 proforma invoices showed the fob price (as Ghalanos had requested in their original order letter). Two of them stated expressly, in a box with the printed heading ‘Terms of delivery and payment’: ‘Free on board. Payment due 90 days from date of arrival.’ The others stated ‘Cost and Freight Limassol. Payment due 90 days from date of arrival’ (or, in three cases, ‘from date of invoice’), although only the fob prices were entered on them. After shipment, final invoices were made out, each showing separately the fob price and the freight incurred at the rate which Ghalanos had agreed with Zim Line’s Cyprus agent. The ‘Terms of delivery and payment’ boxes on these invoices were all completed ‘Cost and Freight Limassol. Payment due 90 days from date of arrival.’
[30]
The proforma and final invoices also contained a set of four boxes with printed headings contemplating their use to show: (i) the ‘Vessel/flight no. and date’, (ii) ‘Port/airport of loading’, (iii) ‘Port/airport of discharge’ and (iv) ‘Place of delivery’. These (with some exceptions as regards the first two boxes in the proforma invoices) were completed by entering in box (i) the relevant vessel’s relevant shipment date, in box (ii) Liverpool and in both of boxes (iii) and (iv) Limassol.
[31]
Ghalanos’s primary case, on this basis, was that Limassol was the contractually agreed place of delivery under the sale contract. Mr Richard Lord QC for Ghalanos suggested that this case gained support from the fact that Ghalanos would not in practice be able to inspect the goods until after their arrival in Cyprus and from the provision for payment 90 days after arrival. None of these submissions has in my opinion any force. The standard printed heading to box (iv) refers to the place of delivery in the context of transport arrangements which could well involve an element of through or mixed transport, whereby goods discharged from a vessel or aircraft at one place might well be on-carried for delivery at another final destination. As completed with the word Limassol, the invoices merely confirmed that the transport
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arranged went no further than the discharge port of Limassol. That Ghalanos would not in practice inspect until after arrival in Cyprus adds nothing. It is a commonplace of international sales. The agreement for payment only 90 days after arrival was no more than a relaxed payment regime with no significance in relation to the place of delivery.
[32]
In the alternative to their primary case, Ghalanos submit that the contract was on terms providing for delivery cfr Limassol and that ‘whilst the focus of a fob contract is the place of shipment … the focus of a c&f or cfr/cif contract is the place of discharge’. In relation to a cfr (or c&f) contract, Ghalanos maintain that delivery should be regarded as occurring, at earliest, when the shipping documents were forwarded to and/or received by Ghalanos.
[33]
Rix LJ took a different view of the general nature of the contract. He considered ([2006] EWCA Civ 1750 at [9], [2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 1027 at [9], [2007] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 341) that ‘the contract contemplated by the parties differed very little from a form of fob contract, although it was expressed to be cfr’. I agree and would if anything go further. It was to all intents and purposes an fob contract, although, at Ghalanos’s request, the sum of the agreed fob price and the freight which S&N pre-paid on Ghalanos’s behalf led to the description cfr being applied, in the final invoices in particular.
[34]
There is considerable flexibility both within and between categorisations such as fob, cfr (or c&f), cif and ex-ship: see eg The Parchim [1918] AC 157 and The Gabbiano [1940] P 166 at 173–4. The editors of Benjamin’s Sale of Goods (7th edn, 2006) observe at p 1653 (para 20-001)—quoting Devlin J in Pyrene v Scindia Navigation Co Ltd [1954] 2 All ER 158 at 167, [1954] 2 QB 402 at 424—that the fob contract has become ‘“a flexible instrument”, so much so that no really satisfactory definition of such a contract is possible’. It embraces (a) cases where the buyer arranges and nominates the ship, but the seller ships and takes the bill of lading in his own name as consignor, (b) cases where the seller arranges shipment and takes the bill in his own name as consignor and (c) cases where the buyer arranges and nominates the ship, and the seller ships but the buyer is named in the bill as consignor: Benjamin pp 1654–5 (para 20-003). Further, in cases (a) and (b), the seller may be either the only party to the bill of lading or acting as agent for the buyer as a (more or less undisclosed) principal: see Benjamin pp 1658–9 (para 20-008) and East West Corp v DKBS 1912 A/S, Utaniko Ltd v P & O Nedlloyd BV [2003] EWCA Civ 83 at [34], [2003] 2 All ER 700 at [34], [2003] QB 1509. In either of cases (a) and (b) the seller may of course pre-pay the freight, and recoup himself by invoicing the buyer.
[35]
However, there are three general differences between fob and c&f contracts. (i) First, an fob contract specifies a port or a range of ports for shipment of the goods. A c&f contract specifies a port or ports to which the goods are consigned. (ii) Secondly, an fob contract requires shipment (whether by or on behalf of the seller or the buyer) of the goods at the port (or a port within the range) so specified; ie the seller cannot buy afloat: see Benjamin p 1660 (para 20-009). In contrast, under a c&f contract responsibility for shipment rests on the seller, and this can be fulfilled by the seller either shipping goods or acquiring goods already afloat after shipment, and moreover shipment can be at any port (unless the contract otherwise provides). (iii) Thirdly, and as a result, a c&f contract involves (subject to any special terms) an all-in quote by the seller, who carries the risk of any increase (and has the benefit of any reduction) in the cost of carriage. In contrast, under an fob contract, although the seller may
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contract for and pay the freight, the buyer carries the risk (and has the benefit) of any such fluctuation.
[36]
So viewed, it is clear that the present contract was and should be regarded as being in all essential respects an fob contract. All the indicia of an fob contract are present. Shipment was required to be made by S&N at one of two ports of shipment contractually specified by the buyer. Indeed, Ghalanos went further and specified in the contract the shipping line and Liverpool shipping agents, with whom S&N were to arrange for carriage to Cyprus. There was no question of buying afloat, and S&N never offered or agreed an all-in price. On the contrary, Ghalanos had made an agreement on the freight rate with the line’s Cyprus agents which the sellers were to invoke when arranging carriage; further, the sale contract specified that the invoices should show the fob price separately from such freight, and required proforma invoices showing only the fob prices, with final invoices showing the total fob value and whatever freight was paid separately. The price was in other words to be fob, with the actual freight rate to be added in the final invoices, once it was ascertained.
[37]
S&N had no commercial interest in the goods after shipment. The bills of lading were to be and were (a) made out to the buyer as consignee and (b) non-negotiable, and were to be forwarded to the buyer ‘immediately after shipment’. Risk and property therefore both passed on shipment: see s 18, r 5(1) and (2), ss 19(2) and 20(1) of the Sale of Goods Act 1979. Here, the goods were not deliverable to the order of the seller or his agent, so there was no reservation of any right of disposal within s 19(2).
[38]
As to delivery, Rix LJ in the Court of Appeal ([2007] 1 All ER (Comm) 1027 at [21], [2007] 2 Lloyd’s Rep 341) noted that s 61 of the1979 Act defines this as meaning (unless the context or subject matter otherwise requires) ‘voluntary transfer of possession from one person to another’. Rix LJ referred to s 32 as dealing expressly with the concept in the present context of an international sale of goods involving carriage by sea, and concluded (at [23]) that delivery under the present contract was thus prima facie effected on shipment, together with the transfer of title and risk. Section 32(1) and (2) read:
‘(1) Where, in pursuance of a contract of sale, the seller is authorised or required to send the goods to the buyer, delivery of the goods to a carrier (whether named by the buyer or not) for the purpose of transmission to the buyer is prima facie deemed to be a delivery of the goods to the buyer.
(2) Unless otherwise authorised by the buyer, the seller must make such contract with the carrier on behalf of the buyer as may be reasonable having regard to the nature of the goods and the other circumstances of the case; and if the seller omits to do so, and the goods are lost or damaged in course of transit, the buyer may decline to treat the delivery to the carrier as a delivery to himself or may hold the seller responsible in damages.’
[39]
Mr Lord submits that Rix LJ failed to appreciate the limited scope of application of s 32(1) and (2) in relation to documentary sales of goods involving bills of lading. Mr Lord points out that Benjamin p 417–8 (para 8-014) states that s 32(1) does not apply where the carrier is the servant or agent of the carrier, citing in support inter alia Dunlop v Lambert (1839) 6 Cl & Fin 600, 7 ER 824. and The Albazero [1976] 3 All ER 129, [1977] AC 774. He suggests that in ‘a typical cif contract’ the carrier is the seller’s agent, ‘because the carrier is engaged by the seller (on his own behalf) and not the buyer’. However, I need say nothing about
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the position under a typical cif (or cfr) contract, because the present contract belongs for reasons already indicated to a different category.
[40]
Both Dunlop v Lambert and The Albazero concerned the extent to which a consignor can claim damages against a carrier in circumstances where the consignor did not retain either property or risk. Both cases contain statements affirming that the principles in s 32 may apply to documentary sales involving bills of lading where the consignor retains property and risk. In Dunlop v Lambert ((1839) 6 Cl & Fin 600 at 620–621, 7 ER 824 at 831–832) Lord Cottenham LC said:
‘It is no doubt true as a general rule, that the delivery by the consignor to the carrier is a delivery to the consignee, and that the risk is after such delivery the risk of the consignee . . . And it is still more strongly so if the goods are sent by a carrier specially pointed out by the consignee himself, for such carrier then becomes his special agent.
But though the authorities all establish the general inference I have stated, yet that general inference is capable of being varied by the circumstances of any special arrangement between the parties, or any particular mode of dealing between them.’
Lord Cottenham mentioned ((1839) 6 Cl & Fin 600 at 620, 621, 7 ER 824 at 831, 832) that the consignor might have paid the freight in terms indicating that this did not conclude the question for whom the carriage was being undertaken. He also gave, as two examples where the ‘general inference’ was varied, cases where the consignor by agreement retained the risk until delivery, but added that in “an infinite variety of circumstances, the ordinary rule may turn out not to be that which regulates the liabilities of the parties.”
[41]
In The Albazero [1976] 3 All ER 129 at 132, [1977] AC 774 at 841–842 Lord Diplock explained the common law approach underlying s 32 in terms of bailment, saying:
‘The question who stood in relation of bailor to carrier and so was entitled to sue him for the full value of the goods lost or the full amount of the damage could only arise where the consignor and consignee were different persons. In such a case the presumption was that the bailor was the person named as consignee and that in delivering possession of the goods to the carrier the consignor was acting and purporting to act as agent only for a designated principal—the consignee.’
He added that a consignor could make with the carrier a ‘special contract’—one entered into on his own behalf and not as agent for the consignee—but that, where the consignor was selling to the consignee, the question whether or not he had done so would often be a matter of inference from the terms of the contract of sale.
[42]
The application of the common law principle described by Lord Diplock was also contemplated by Lord Hobhouse of Woodborough in Borealis AB v Stargas Ltd, The Berge Sisar [2001] UKHL 17 at [18], [2001] 1 All ER (Comm) 673 at [18], [2002] 2 AC 205 when he said:
‘The bill of lading acknowledges the receipt of the goods from the shipper for carriage to a destination and delivery there to the consignee. It therefore evidences a bailment with the carrier who has issued the bill of lading as the bailee and the consignee as bailor.’
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Commenting on this dictum in East West Corp v DKBS 1912 A/S, Utaniko Ltd v P & O Nedlloyd BV [2003] 2 All ER 700 at [34]–[35], [2003] QB 1509 at I said:
[34] . . . This was said in a context where the named consignees were FOB buyers [Borealis AB v Stargas Ltd, The Berge Sisar [2001] 1 All ER (Comm) 673 at [7], [10], [2002] 2 AC 205]. In such a context, a shipper may readily, indeed normally, be regarded as acting as agent for a named consignee in making the relevant bill of lading contract: cf The Albazero [1974] 2 All ER 906 at 915, [1977] AC 774 at 786 per Brandon J. The goods will then have been from the outset bailed by the consignee (acting through the agency of the consignor) to the carrier. But this is only the first of three categories identified by Brandon J in a close analysis of the authorities, which later received approval in the House of Lords: see [1976] 3 All ER 129 at 133, [1977] AC 774 at 842 per Lord Diplock, with whose speech all other members of the House agreed. The other categories were; (2) cases where the consignor in delivering the goods to the carrier was acting as principal on his own account, with property and risk remaining in him during the carriage; and (3) cases where the consignor was held entitled to sue, whether or not the property and risk in the goods was in him at any material time, on the ground that the consignor had made a “special contract” with the carrier, and that, because of this, the carrier could not dispute the consignors’ title to sue . . .
[35] . . . It is clear both from [Brandon J’s] definition of the three categories and from Lord Diplock’s speech [1976] 3 All ER 129 at 133, [1977] AC 774 at 842–843 that (a) whether a consignor has contracted with the carrier on behalf of an named consignee or on his own behalf (ie whether the case falls within the first or second category) depends upon an analysis of the terms, eg of any contract for sale, agreed between the consignor and consignee, which would normally be quite unknown to the carrier, while (b) the question whether the case falls within the third category (ie is one where, whatever the position regarding property and risk, the consignor has made a “special contract” with the carrier) involves an analysis of the relationship between the consignor and carrier. Thus, in circumstances where a consignor was acting on his own behalf in shipping the goods or at all events reserving the right vis-à-vis the consignees to deal with and redirect the goods, Lord Brandons analysis in [Leigh & Sillavan Ltd v Aliakmon Shipping Co Ltd, The Aliakmon [1986] 2 All ER 145 at 156, [1986] AC 785 at 818] was that “The only bailment of the goods was one by the sellers to the shipowners”. See also Carver on Bills of Lading para 7–038, footnote 47 and Benjamin on Sale of Goods (6th edn, 2002) para 18–0057 . . .’
[43]
In the most recent (7th) edition of Benjamin at p 1185 (para 18-065), Sir Guenther Treitel points to possible difficulties about Lord Hobhouse’s invocation of the common law principle on the particular facts of The Berge Sisar. These do not affect the general distinction drawn in the East West Corp case between situations where, on the one hand, a seller ships goods on the buyer/consignee’s behalf and, on the other hand, a seller acts on his own behalf, whether because he retains property and risk or simply because he reserves rights to deal with and redirect the goods, for example against the event that the buyer defaults in taking up and paying for the goods against the documents.
[44]
None of the latter features exists in the present case. Here the bills of lading were, under the sale contract between S&N and Ghalanos to be, and were, non-negotiable. They were made out to Ghalanos as consignees. The sale
Page 782 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
contract required them to be forwarded ‘immediately after shipment by registered and express mail’ to Ghalanos. S&N were to arrange and ‘prepay’ on behalf of Ghalanos freight at a rate negotiated by Ghalanos. The price and freight were not payable by Ghalanos against transfer of the bills, but 90 days after each vessel’s arrival in Cyprus. S&N were to have no actual or potential right or interest in the goods or the bills of lading after shipment.
[45]
The only factor that, it may be suggested, takes the present case outside s 32 and outside the analysis of the position in bailment in the statement by Lord Diplock in The Albazero (at [41], above) is that S&N accept that they incurred liability as principals to the carriers for the freight, which, as between S&N and Ghalanos, S&N were requested to ‘prepay’ on Ghalanos’s behalf. But this factor could mean (at most) that S&N were party to a special contract with the carriers, and could have claimed damages in respect of any breach of that contract, eg involving loss or damage to the goods. In relation to Ghalanos, S&N may still have been acting as an agent, rather than a principal, in shipping the goods and/or in holding the bills of lading received upon shipment. An analysis, according to which S&N, when contracting personally with the carrier, were also contracting on behalf of Ghalanos was not suggested below, though there could have been much to say for it (cf also Bowstead & Reynolds on Agency (18th edn, 2006) para 9-006). But, assuming that S&N alone were party to the carriage contract, everything still indicates that S&N ceased as regards Ghalanos to have any interest in the goods upon shipment and held the bills of lading issued upon shipment on behalf of Ghalanos, with the corresponding obligation to forward them to Ghalanos immediately. The bills symbolise the goods, and possession of the goods was on this basis held by S&N for and on behalf of Ghalanos as from shipment.
[46]
This conclusion is consistent with general principle. ‘The legal relationship of bailor and bailee of a chattel can exist independently of any contract . . .’: Morris v CW Martin & Sons Ltd [1965] 2 All ER 725 at 734, [1966] 1 QB 716 at 731, per Diplock LJ, and the East West Corp case [2003] 2 All ER 700 at [24], [2003] QB 1509. A bailee may owe duties in bailment not merely to his immediate bailor, but also to a third party owning or having an immediate proprietary interest in the goods, certainly where the bailee is on notice that such a third party exists: East West Corp case [2003] 2 All ER 700 at [25]–[27], [2003] QB 1509 and cf generally Palmer on Bailment (2nd edn, 1991) chs 15(II) and 20. Cases of sub-bailment are only one example. In the East West Corp case bills of lading were made out by the shippers to Chilean banks or order and delivered to the banks, who were acting vis-a-vis the shippers purely as agents (to collect on behalf of the shippers the price payable by buyers at destination). Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act 1992 the contractual rights of suit evidenced by the bills of lading were transferred to the banks. However, the shippers retained an immediate possessory interest in the goods, entitling them to hold the carriers responsible as bailees accordingly: East West Corp case [2003] 2 All ER 700 at [27], [37]–[39], [2003] QB 1509.
[47]
Here, there is every reason, in view of the nature and terms of the sale contract, to regard S&N as bailing the goods to the carriers on behalf of Ghalanos, even if Ghalanos were not party to any contract which S&N made with the carriers. The carriers could not reasonably suggest that they thought that S&N were the only persons likely to own and be at risk in respect of the goods on or from shipment. The fact that the bills were non-negotiable and made out to Ghalanos as consignees were clear contrary indications. Ghalanos would be
Page 783 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
bound by the terms of the bills of lading qualifying the carriers’ liability in respect of the goods and their carriage: The Pioneer Container, KH Enterprise (cargo owners) v Pioneer Container (owners) [1994] 2 All ER 250, [1994] 2 AC 324. If the bills of lading had been taken out and held by S&N in their own interests (eg pending payment of the price), then delivery of the bills to Ghalanos as the named consignees could have been required before Ghalanos acquired any possessory interest. But that sheds no light on the present case, where S&N made the shipment and held the bills throughout for Ghalanos.
[48]
In these circumstances, under the principles contained in the 1979 Act, Rix LJ was in my opinion correct to treat delivery of possession of the goods as well as property and risk in respect of them as having taken place upon shipment. It follows that delivery of the goods took place upon shipment in every sense that can conceivably be relevant under art 5(1)(b) of the regulation and that the appeal should be dismissed on that basis alone.
[49]
It thus becomes unnecessary to consider what the position might have been after the passing of property and risk on shipment if S&N had not only made a special contract with the carriers but had also, for some reason (eg to secure payment of the price), retained symbolic possession of the goods through the bills of lading until these were forwarded to and/or received by Ghalanos. I will however say something about the position on this hypothesis. Mr Lord’s primary submission was that the ‘place of delivery’ under art 5(1)(b) would then be (i) nowhere, (ii) the place of shipment, Liverpool, (iii) the place where the documents were transferred, (iv) the place where the goods happened to be when the documents were transferred (at least if that was within the territory or territorial waters of a member state) or (v) the place of destination, Cyprus. It might, he suggested, be necessary to consider referring to the European Court of Justice the question what is the correct approach under a documentary sale such as the present.
[50]
For reasons already indicated, I see no basis for possibility (v). Possibility (i) arises, in Mr Lord’s submission, from the nature of a documentary sale, under which delivery takes place in more than one sense and may therefore take place in more than one place. It is true that art 5(1)(c) itself contemplates that art 5(1)(b) may not apply. However, the most obvious reason for art 5(1)(c) is that not all contracts are for the sale of goods or provision of services, and still less for the delivery or goods or the provisions of services in any member state. Article 5(1)(a) thus covers for example a contract for the sale of goods for delivery in South Africa. It would seem surprising however if there was no place of delivery at all within art 5(1)(b) even though all the places identified under possibilities (ii), (iii) and (iv) lay within member states.
[51]
In its recent decision in Color Drack GmbH v Lexx International Vertriebs GmbH (Case C-386/05) [2008] 1 All ER Comm 168 at 172, 174 (paras 19, 20, 32, 33) the European Court of Justice explained the aim of Council Regulation (EC) 44/2001 as being to enable a claimant ‘to identify easily the court in which he may sue and the defendant reasonably to foresee before which court he may be sued’ and (at 174) the origin of art 5(1)(b) as an exception to the original rule reflected in art 5(1)(a):
‘39. . . . By that provision, the Community legislature intended, in respect of sales contracts, expressly to break with the earlier solution under which the place of performance was determined, for each of the obligations in question, in accordance with the private international rules of the court seised of the dispute. By designating autonomously as “the place of
Page 784 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
performance” the place where the obligation which characterises the contract is to be performed, the Community legislature sought to centralise at its place of performance jurisdiction over disputes concerning all the contractual obligations and to determine sole jurisdiction for all claims arising out of the contract.’
[52]
Article 5(1)(b) takes a very simple contractual model. It directs attention to a place of physical delivery of goods. The physical obligation by way of delivery which characterises an essentially fob contract such as the present is clearly shipment. That involves an easily identifiable physical delivery at an easily identifiable place. It is on and at shipment that the goods have to be of the contractual quantity and quality as well as fit for carriage to destination (ss 2, 14, 15 and 30 of the 1979 Act), and it is then that the risk of any subsequent loss, damage or problem passes to the buyer (ss 18, r 5 and 20(1)). The transfer of documents may under some fob sales give rise to a notional passing of possession in the goods: cf eg Chao (t/a Zung Fu Co) v British Traders and Shippers Ltd (NV Handelsmaatschappij J Smits Import-Export, third party) [1954] 1 All ER 779 at 795, sub nom Kwei Tek Chao v British Traders and Shippers Ltd (NV Handelsmaatschappij J Smits Import-Export, third party) [1954] 2 QB 459 at 486. But it would be highly undesirable that the place of delivery for the purpose of art 5(1)(b) should be understood in a way which could mean that it varied according to an analysis of which of the types of fob contract identified in [34], above was involved. The place where possession passes, or where either the shipping documents or the goods are when it passes, is generally irrelevant under fob contracts and under this particular contract. Further, any place with which such events might be associated could not be regarded as either easy to identify or reasonably foreseeable.
[53]
That shipment identifies the place of delivery with which fob contracts are naturally associated is illustrated by a number of passages in Benjamin’s Sale of Goods (7th edn, 2006). In the chapter on fob contracts, para 20-014 (p 1664) headed ‘Place of delivery’ reads:
‘An f.o.b. contract will normally indicate the port of shipment, either by naming it or by stating which party has the right to name it. The place of delivery may also be stated more narrowly, as a particular wharf within a port. An f.o.b. contract which contains no indication at all as to the place of delivery may be void for uncertainty . . .’
In considering the duty to obtain and tender shipping documents at pp 1670–1675 (paras 20-020–20-027), Benjamin also observes (in para 20-026) that:
‘There is no necessary connection between delivery and passing of property, and a seller may perform his duty to deliver by shipping the goods without at the same time unconditionally appropriating them to the contract so as to pass the property.’
In relation to the governing law of an fob contract, Benjamin also identifies (p 2133, para 25-010)—
‘an observable tendency in the relatively few authorities to treat the country of shipment as the place of performance by delivery on board the ship and to regard the contract as governed by the law of that place in the absence of any countervailing considerations.’
Page 785 of [2008] 2 All ER 768
[54]
The 1979 Act generally uses delivery to refer to passing of possession, and this under some fob contracts will be associated with the transfer of the shipping documents. But there are, as the definition in s 61(1) contemplates, occasions when in the Act delivery is used in another sense. An example is s 30, dealing with the seller’s obligation to deliver the contractual quantity, which must in the context of an fob contract refer to delivery by shipment.
[55]
Bearing in mind the general aim of art 5(1)(b) as explained in the Color Drack case and the general nature of fob contracts, I would consider it clear that the place of shipment is the place of delivery which characterises an fob contract such as the present and is relevant under art 5(1)(b). This is so whether the matter is viewed simply under domestic law (as in both parties’ primary submissions can and should be done) or is viewed as engaging autonomous conceptions of delivery (as Mr Lord submitted in an alternative).
[56]
For the reasons given in [24]–[48] above, I would hold that the place of delivery under the present sale contract was Liverpool and would accordingly dismiss this appeal.
LORD NEUBERGER OF ABBOTSBURY.
[57]
My Lords, I have had the advantage of reading in draft the opinion of my noble and learned friend Lord Mance and for the reasons he gives, with which I agree, I too would dismiss this appeal.
Appeal dismissed.
James Wilson Barrister (NZ).
MT (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department;
RB (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department;
U (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
[2008] 2 All ER 786
[2007] EWCA Civ 808
Categories: HUMAN RIGHTS; Inhuman or Degrading Treatment: IMMIGRATION
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR, BUXTON AND SMITH LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 19, 20, 25, 26 JUNE, 30 JULY 2007
Immigration – Appeal – Deportation – Appeal against deportation on grounds of national security – Special Immigration Appeals Commission – Prohibition of torture – Fairness of proceedings – Secretary of State deciding to deport Algerian nationals on grounds of national security – Algerian nationals appealing to Special Immigration Appeals Commission – Both ‘closed’ and ‘open’ material before Commission – Whether proceedings fair – Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 3.
Three appeals from determinations of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission (the SIAC), in each of which the SIAC had dismissed an appeal from a deportation decision of the Secretary of State, were heard together. In the case of each appellant the Secretary of State had decided to deport him to Algeria on the ground that his deportation would be conducive to public good because he was a danger to national security. An issue arose, in all the appeals, as to whether it was open to the SIAC to use closed, as well as open, material in reaching its conclusions. The appellants contended that the procedure was unlawful and that the unlawfulness was not cured by the use of special advocates. They submitted, inter alia, that the prohibition of torture under art 3a of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) obliged the state not only not to deport people to a state where they faced a real risk of torture, but also to ensure that the proceedings in which that issue was considered were fair, and that proceedings were not fair if evidence was used that was not seen by the appellant and his advocates in the open proceedings. The appellants further submitted that the presence of the appellant throughout the process, and access by him and his advocates to all of the evidence, was a fundamental principle of legality in English domestic law.
Held – (1) There was no doubt that the national court had to engage in rigorous scrutiny of an art 3 case, in view of the absolute character of the art 3 obligation and the fundamental values that it enshrined. However, it did not
Page 787 of [2008] 2 All ER 786
follow from that that the presence throughout of the appellant, or the giving to him of all of the evidence, was a necessary component of the rigorous scrutiny. His presence and participation was a very important element in the process of getting to the correct answer but absence of that element did not in itself disqualify what otherwise was a rigorous scrutiny. Rather, the overall imperative for an appellant to be present was in order to respect the values of openness and legality. Those were logically different from the value of getting the correct answer (see [10]–[13], below); Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 considered.
(2) When Parliament passed the statutory scheme creating the SIAC and providing for its particular procedure, including the use of special advocates, it well knew that it was concerned with very specific legislation to address a clear and particular case. It had squarely confronted what it was doing and had accepted the political cost. Parliament had been well aware that the SIAC procedure would be used in claims under the convention, including in particular under claims under art 3. In those circumstances it was not open to the court to interfere with the statutory scheme (see [14]–[18], below); R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Simms [1999] 3 All ER 400and R (on the application of Morgan Grenfell & Co Ltd) v Special Comr of Income Tax [2002] 3 All ER 1distinguished.
Per curiam. Proceedings in the European Court of Human Rights (ECt HR) are brought against the national state, and the issue is whether the state has acted consistently with the Convention right asserted by the applicant. They are, therefore, primary, not appellate, proceedings. The ECt HR, while no doubt giving appropriate weight to the findings of the national court, can do no other than treat the case as what it is, a new case. The normal inhibitions on an appellate court in a national system therefore do not arise, and no sensible parallel can be drawn from practice in the ECt HR in order to inform, and much less to mandate, practice in the domestic appellate court. The principle that the domestic appellate courts should act to obviate or reduce the need for recourse to the ECt HR requires no more than that issues arising in relation to the convention should be properly considered within the national legal order (see [102]–[105], below); Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, Kasmiri v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] 4 All ER 15considered.
Notes
For determination by Special Immigration Appeals Commission and appeals from the Commission and for procedure on appeal to Special Immigration Appeals Commission, see 4(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2002 reissue) paras 189, 194.
For the Human Rights Act 1998, Sch 1, Pt I, art 3, see 7(1) Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2008 reissue) 775.
Cases referred to in judgment
A (Iraq) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 1438, [2005] All ER (D) 22 (Dec), 149 Sol Jo LB 1492.
A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56, [2005] 3 All ER 169, [2005] 2 AC 68, [2005] 2 WLR 87.
Page 788 of [2008] 2 All ER 786
Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223, CA.
Batayav v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 1489, [2003] All ER (D) 60 (Nov).
Cabo-Verde v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 1726, [2004] All ER (D) 75 (Dec).
Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405, ECt HR.
E v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 49, [2004] LGR 463, [2004] QB 1044, [2004] 2 WLR 1351.
Hilal v UK (2001) 11 BHRC 354, ECt HR.
Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, Kasmiri v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] UKHL 11, [2007] 4 All ER 15, [2007] 2 AC 167, [2007] 2 WLR 581.
Kajac v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (21 May 2001, unreported), IAT.
Kalashnikov v Russia (2003) 36 EHRR 34, [2002] ECHR 47095/99, ECt HR.
Karanakaran v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2000] 3 All ER 449, CA.
KK v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKIAT 00101.
Mamatkulov v Turkey (2005) 18 BHRC 203, ECt HR.
O’Kelly v Trusthouse Forte plc [1983] 3 All ER 456, [1984] QB 90, [1983] 3 WLR 605, CA.
Peers v Greece (2001) 10 BHRC 364, ECt HR.
Pushpanathan v Minister of Citizenship and Immigration (Canadian Council for Refugees intervening) (1998) 6 BHRC 387, Can SC.
R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p A [1999] 2 AC 330, [1999] 2 WLR 974, HL.
R v Davis, R v Ellis [2006] EWCA Crim 1155, [2006] 4 All ER 648, [2006] 1 WLR 3130.
R v Lancashire CC, ex p Huddleston [1986] 2 All ER 941, CA.
R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Simms [1999] 3 All ER 400, [2000] 2 AC 115, [1999] 3 WLR 328, HL.
R (on the application of Bagdanavicius) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 38, [2005] 4 All ER 263, [2005] 2 AC 668, [2005] 2 WLR 1359.
R (on the application of Bloggs 61) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 686, [2003] 1 WLR 2724.
R (on the application of Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 982, [2005] All ER (D) 384 (Jul), (2005) Times, 19 August.
R (on the application of Morgan Grenfell & Co Ltd) v Special Comr of Income Tax [2002] UKHL 21, [2002] 3 All ER 1, [2003] 1 AC 563, [2002] 2 WLR 1299.
R (on the application of S) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 1285, [2004] HLR 254.
R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26, [2004] 3 All ER 785, [2004] 2 AC 323, [2004] 3 WLR 23.
Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] UKHL 5, [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430, [2003] 2 WLR 388.
Shaheen v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 1294, [2005] All ER (D) 31 (Nov).
Shamayev v Georgia App no 36378/02 (12 April 2005, unreported), ECt HR.
Sing v Canada [2007] FC 361, Can FC.
Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439, [1989] ECHR 14038/88, ECt HR.
Page 789 of [2008] 2 All ER 786
Appeals
MT (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
MT, a citizen of the Republic of Algeria, appealed with permission of Ouseley J as chairman of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission (the SIAC) and with permission of Pill, Keene and Smith LJJ from the determination of the SIAC (Ouseley J, CP Mather and J Daly) on 24 August 2006 dismissing his appeal from a deportation decision of the Secretary of State made on the ground of national security. Liberty appeared as intervener. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
RB (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
RB, a citizen of the Republic of Algeria, appealed from the determination of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission (Mitting J, Senior Immigration Judge Latter and J Daly) in closed and open judgments dismissing his appeal from a deportation decision of the Secretary of State made on the ground of national security. Liberty appeared as intervener. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
U (Algeria) v Secretary of State for the Home Department
U, a citizen of the Republic of Algeria, appealed from the determination of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission (Mitting J, Senior Immigration Judge Mackey and J Mitchell) in closed and open judgments dated 14 May 2007 dismissing his appeal from a deportation decision of the Secretary of State made on the ground of national security. Liberty appeared as intervener. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
Keir Starmer QC and Raza Husain (instructed by Birnberg Peirce & Partners) for MT.
Rabinder Singh QC and Hugh Southey (instructed by Fisher Meredith) for RB.
Richard Drabble QC and Hugh Southey (instructed by Birnberg Peirce & Partners) for U.
Robin Tam QC, Robert Palmer and Caroline Neenan (instructed by the Treasury Solicitor) for the Secretary of State.
Judith Farbey (instructed by the Special Advocates Support Office) as special advocate for MT.
Nicholas Blake QC and Martin Chamberlain (instructed by the Special Advocates Support Office) as special advocates for RB.
Andrew Nicol QC and Thomas de la Mare (instructed by the Special Advocates Support Office) as special advocate for U.
Dinah Rose QC and Alex Bailin (instructed by Alex Gask, Liberty) for Liberty as intervener.
Judgment was reserved.
30 July 2007. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
Page 790 of [2008] 2 All ER 786
SIR ANTHONY CLARKE MR.
INDEX
DESCRIPTION PARAGRAPH
NUMBERS
INTRODUCTION [1]–[5]
CLOSED MATERIAL
Introduction [6]–[8]
The statutory scheme [9]
The effect of art 3 of the convention [10]–[13]
Legality and fairness as a matter of English law [14]–[18]
A question of balance [19]–[22]
Conclusion as to the use of closed material [23]
THE APPEAL OF Y
Introduction [24]–[25]
The background facts [26]–[30]
The Ordonnance [31]–[39]
Article 8 [40]–[44]
Article 9 [45]–[58]
Meeting in Algiers on 14 November 2006 [59]–[64]
Discussion [65]–[70]
Remission [71]–[75]
Closed material [76]
Article 1F(c) of the Refugee Convention [77]–[90]
Disposal of Y’s appeal [91]
THE JURISDICTION OF THIS COURT
Introduction [92]
The statute and the issue [93]–[96]
A mixed question of fact and law [97]–[99]
The appellants’ case expanded [100]
Authority on proportionality is irrelevant [101]
Fact-finding obligations in a Convention case [102]–[107]
The role of ‘assessment’ [108]–[110]
The comparison with judicial review [111]–[112]
Conclusion as to the court’s jurisdiction [113]
THE APPEAL OF BB
Background [114]–[120]
The factual findings of SIAC [121]
Control of the DRS [122]–[123]
SIAC’s assessment of the attitudes of the Algerian state [124]
Are assurances ever appropriate? [125]–[127]
The terms of the assurances [128]–[129]
Monitoring [130]–[132]
Conclusion on SIAC’s findings of fact [133]–[134]
Disclosure of information by the Secretary of State [135]–[137]
Prison conditions [138]
Article 6 [139]
Disposal of BB’s appeal [140]
THE APPEAL OF U
Introduction [141]
The appeal to SIAC [142]–[155]
Page 791 of [2008] 2 All ER 786
The appeal to this court [156]
Karanakaran [157]–[164]
Shamayev [165]–[166]
Verification of compliance with assurances [167]
The language of the assurances [168]
Prison conditions [169]–[173]
Separate consideration of the risk of torture and bad prison conditions [174]
Article 6 [175]–[188]
Disposal of U’s appeal [189]
CONCLUSIONS [190]–[192]
INTRODUCTION
[1]
This is the open judgment of the court in three appeals from determinations of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission (SIAC) in each of which SIAC dismissed an appeal from a deportation decision of the Secretary of State for the Home Department (the Secretary of State) made on the ground of national security. In this court the appellants have been called MT, RB and U. Before SIAC they were called Y, BB and U respectively and we will use these initials in this judgment.
[2]
SIAC was created by s 1 of the Special Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997. By s 2 of the 1997 Act as amended, a person may appeal to SIAC if he would have been entitled to appeal against the decision under ss 82(1), 83(2) or 83A(2) of the Nationality, Immigration and Asylum Act 2002 but for a certificate under s 97 of that Act. By s 97(1) an appeal under those sections may not be brought if the Secretary of State certifies that the decision was made or taken wholly or in part on a ground listed in sub-s (2), namely (a) in the interests of national security or (b) in the interests of the relationship between the United Kingdom and any other country.
[3]
These appeals raise closely related but in some respects different issues. They each centre principally on whether there is a real risk that the particular appellant will be subjected to treatment contrary to art 3 of the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms 1950 (as set out in Sch 1 to the Human Rights Act 1998) (the convention) if he is returned to Algeria. It is common ground that that is the test under art 3: see eg Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 427 (para 97). Article 3 of course provides: ‘No one shall be subjected to torture or to inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment.’
[4]
In the case of each appellant the Secretary of State decided to deport him to Algeria on the ground that his deportation would be conducive to the public good because he was a danger to national security. By s 7 of the 1997 Act, this court has jurisdiction to entertain an appeal from such a decision but it is limited to ‘any question of law material to’ the decision. In each case the appellant submits that SIAC erred in law in concluding that there were no substantial grounds for believing that he would be exposed to a real risk of being subjected to torture or to inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment contrary to art 3 of the convention if returned to Algeria.
[5]
We will consider the issues in this order; the appellants’ objections to the use of closed material, which are common to all three appeals, the appeal of Y, the jurisdiction of this court, which is principally relevant to the appeals of BB and U, the appeal of BB, the appeal of U and our overall conclusions.
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CLOSED MATERIAL
Introduction
[6]
The issue is whether it was open to SIAC to use closed, as well as open, material in reaching its conclusions. SIAC did rely on, or at least refer to, such material in reaching its conclusions, adverse to all of the appellants, on risk on return; and in reaching its conclusion, contested before us in closed proceedings, as to the danger to national security presented by BB. The appellants contended that that procedure was unlawful, an unlawfulness that was not cured by the system of special advocates. The Secretary of State should either have made his case on the basis of material that was disclosed to the appellant, or have accepted that the appellant could not lawfully be removed to Algeria.
[7]
SIAC’s procedure was that envisaged by s 5 of the 1997 Act, s 97 of the 2002 Act and r 4 of the SIAC (Procedure) Rules 2003, SI 2003/1034 (the SIAC rules). In order to demonstrate that SIAC had erred in law the appellants had to displace or explain that statutory scheme. Their case was that SIAC was nonetheless prevented from relying on undisclosed evidence by both of, or by a combination of, the jurisprudence of the European Court of Human Rights (ECt HR) and the rules of English common law.
[8]
This case was supported by the intervener, Liberty, who had the advantage, as did the court, of submissions by Miss Dinah Rose QC. Miss Rose formulated the issue as being—
‘whether SIAC erred in taking into account material which had not been disclosed to the appellant in support of its conclusion that the appellants did not face a real risk of torture if removed to Algeria.’
The statutory scheme
[9]
By s 97(3) of the 2002 Act SIAC’s jurisdiction is engaged when the Secretary of State certifies that his decision was made wholly or partly in reliance on information which should not be made public (a) in the interests of national security; (b) in the interests of the relationship between the United Kingdom and another country; or (c) otherwise in the public interest. SIAC’s procedure is governed by the 1997 Act, and rules made under that Act. Section 5(3)(a) of the 1997 Act provides that rules may be made which enable proceedings before SIAC to take place without the appellant being given full particulars of the reasons for the decision. Rule 4(1) of the SIAC rules provides:
‘When exercising its functions, [SIAC] shall secure that information is not disclosed contrary to the interests of national security, the international relations of the United Kingdom, the detection and prevention of crime, or in any other circumstances where disclosure is likely to harm the public interest.’
The effect of art 3 of the convention
[10]
The argument changed its shape somewhat in the course of the proceedings, but the final statement of it rested very strongly on what was described as the procedural as well as the substantive component of art 3. The state’s obligation is not only not to deport persons to a state where they face a real risk of torture, but also to ensure that the proceedings in which that issue was
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considered were fair. Proceedings are not fair if evidence is used that is not seen by the appellant and his (open) advocates.
[11]
There is no doubt that the national court must engage in rigorous scrutiny of an art 3 case, in view of the absolute character of the art 3 obligation and the fundamental values that it enshrines: see for instance Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 427 (para 96). However, it does not follow from that that presence throughout of the applicant, or the giving to him of all of the evidence, is a necessary component of the rigorous scrutiny. That presence and participation is of course a very important element in the process of getting to the correct answer, since the applicant may be able as no one else is to correct factual errors. But absence of that element does not in itself disqualify what otherwise is a rigorous scrutiny. Rather, overall imperative for the applicant to be present is in order to respect the values of openness and legality. Those are logically different from the value of getting the correct answer.
[12]
The only authority that Miss Rose was able to show us that was alleged to demonstrate that the principle she relied on was embedded in art 3 was the judgment of the European Court of Human Rights (ECt HR) in Chahal v UK (at 437 (paras 150–153)). Those passages stress the need for a national remedy that is effective, and not just ‘as effective as can be’, and continue:
‘151. . . . the notion of an effective remedy under art 13 requires independent scrutiny of the claim that there exist substantial grounds for fearing a real risk of treatment contrary to art 3 . . .
152. Such scrutiny need not be provided by a judicial authority but, if it is not, the powers and guarantees which it affords are relevant in determining whether the remedy before it is effective . . .’
This passage certainly does not carry the principle contended for. It says nothing to mandate any particular form of scrutiny, indeed envisages that the scrutiny may not even be by a court, and gives no support at all for the suggestion that art 3 requires the applicant to be present throughout.
[13]
The principal claim, based directly on art 3, therefore fails.
Legality and fairness as a matter of English law
[14]
The other aspect of the case was the proposition that the presence of the applicant throughout the process, and access by him and his advocates to all of the evidence, is a fundamental principle of legality in English domestic law, though rendered all the more important in this case by the engagement of the domestic courts’ obligations under art 3.
[15]
That principle and its importance is not in doubt. Whether it can prevail in the face of the statutory provisions is another matter.
[16]
For the contention that the statute and rules must be offset in some way or other the appellants relied on the classic statement of Lord Hoffmann in R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, ex p Simms [1999] 3 All ER 400at 412, [2000] 2 AC 115 at 131:
‘. . . the principle of legality means that Parliament must squarely confront what it is doing and accept the political cost. Fundamental rights cannot be overridden by general or ambiguous words. This is because there is too great a risk that the full implications . . . may have passed unnoticed in the democratic process. In the absence of express language or necessary
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implication to the contrary, the courts therefore presume that even the most general words were intended to be subject to the basic rights of the individual.’
This principle is often not easy to handle, because, Parliament not having known at the time of legislating the precise list of constitutional principles that applied to it, it may be difficult to extract whether or not its language passes the test. There is, however, no such difficulty in the present case.
[17]
There is no such difficulty because, when Parliament passed the statutory scheme, it was concerned, and well knew that it was concerned, with very specific legislation to address a clear and particular case. In creating SIAC and providing for its particular procedure, including the use of special advocates, Parliament did squarely confront what it was doing and accepted the political cost. There are no sensible grounds for fearing that the full implications of its words may have passed unnoticed in the democratic process. It must be obvious that Parliament was well aware that the SIAC procedure would be used in claims under the convention, including in particular under art 3. The case is quite different from Simms’ case, where a general and blanket ban on contacts between prisoners and journalists was held not to apply to contacts aimed at assisting in a further reference of the prisoner’s case to the Court of Appeal; or R (on the application of Morgan Grenfell & Co Ltd) v Special Comr of Income Tax [2002] UKHL 21, [2002] 3 All ER 1, [2003] 1 AC 563, where a very general power to seek documents created by s 20(1) of the Taxes Management Act 1970 was held not to extend to documents covered by legal professional privilege.
[18]
In these circumstances we are unpersuaded that it is open to us to interfere with the statutory scheme: whether by selective interpretation; reading down; or (in respect, but only in respect, of that part of it that affects an art 3 issue) a declaration of incompatibility. The qualification in brackets in respect of a declaration of incompatibility reflects the acceptance by the appellants that even if all of their arguments were correct they could only seek a declaration of incompatibility in respect of the effect of the legislation on the issue as to safety on return, since the issue as to danger to national security was not in any event affected by art 3. That same differentiation was not accepted as applying in the case any exercise of selective interpretation on purely domestic law grounds. The Secretary of State widened that issue, to argue that it was irrational, and also that it produced an impossible exercise in interpreting what is a single set of rules, to seek to amend or interpret the rules in their application to safety on return when they plainly applied fully to the issue of danger to national security. We do not pursue that further argument because the Secretary of State would only need to rely on it if all or part of the appellants’ case were otherwise correct: which premise we have held not to be established.
A question of balance
[19]
Very much as a second-best solution, but nonetheless strongly pressed, the appellants and Liberty said that, even if the whole SIAC procedure did not fail, within it SIAC must take steps to ensure that as much as possible of the ‘closed’ material was made available to the applicants. That was particularly so in respect of material that was confidential because of diplomatic sensitivities, but which did not involve the operations of the security services, or state secrets in the usual sense of that expression.
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[20]
Two procedures were suggested that might be employed. The first was that SIAC should conduct part of the proceedings in camera, with the applicant but not the press or public present. That, it was claimed, would adequately protect material that was restricted because of its diplomatic sensitivity if broadcast to the world. Rules as to contempt would adequately control the applicant and his advisers. This may be a possible option in some circumstances, and we were told that it had been used in some official secrets trials. It is however necessary to look at the reality of the actual case in issue. Whatever the correctness of the charges brought against these appellants, it is accepted that they are significant opponents of the Algerian state. As Mr Tam said, they are the last people who ought to be admitted to that state’s confidential diplomatic dealings. We are not clear whether SIAC was invited to adopt this option. It would have been entirely within its powers in rejecting it.
[21]
The second procedure was for information to be made available to each appellant’s (open) counsel, on terms that it could not be shown to or discussed with the client; and, presumably, that the client would have to leave court when counsel sought to deploy that material in argument. We were told, in general terms, that the Criminal Division of this court has approved arrangements in which a defendant in a criminal trial is precluded from knowing information disclosed to his legal representatives. The authority relied on for this proposition, R v Davis, R v Ellis [2006] EWCA Crim 1155, [2006] 4 All ER 648, [2006] 1 WLR 3130, is however of limited effect, addressing only a case where counsel could cross-examine a witness screened from the defendant on terms that information as to the witness’s identity was not passed to the defendant. That is far different from what is contemplated here, of the open advocate having a range of substantive material central to the issues in the case that he cannot discuss with or disclose to his client. In the present context, such an arrangement would seriously undermine the careful division between counsel appearing in the open proceedings and the special advocates. Counsel would be put in the impossible position of being asked to play, part-time, the role of the special advocate, but without the protection, and formal position, that the special advocates enjoy. That is objectionable not so much in the interests of counsel, but in the interests of not distorting the trial process. SIAC was right to hold that the disadvantages of this course far outweigh any benefit that might accrue to the applicants.
[22]
As to the identification of what material is in fact covered by r 4, and more generally SIAC’s management of the open and the closed processes, Mr Tam told us, without contradiction, that SIAC takes rigorous care to ensure that the Secretary of State does not extend the closed process in an unreasonable way. That is a proper and sensible course, which properly mitigates the practical effect of a statutory scheme that is in law unchallengeable.
Conclusion as to the use of closed material
[23]
We accordingly reject all of the appellants’ arguments of principle. That does not, of course, mean that SIAC had to give anything other than anxious scrutiny to the material, closed as well as open, on which it did rely.
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THE APPEAL OF Y
Introduction
[24]
This is an appeal by Y against a decision made by SIAC on 24 August 2006 dismissing his appeal against a decision by the Secretary of State to deport him to Algeria. The appeal is brought in part with the permission of Ouseley J as chairman of SIAC and in part with the permission of this court, comprising Pill, Keene and Smith LJJ. There is no closed judgment in Y’s case.
[25]
The appeal raises three distinct questions: (i) whether SIAC erred in holding that Y would be able to take advantage of art 9 of the Ordonnance which implemented the Algerian Charter for Peace and National Reconciliation (the Charter); (ii) whether SIAC erred in placing any reliance upon closed material in its consideration of Y’s case on safety on return to Algeria; and (iii) whether SIAC erred in concluding that art 1F(c) of the United Nations Convention relating to the Status of Refugees (Geneva, 28 July 1951; TS 39 (1954), Cmd 9171) (the Refugee Convention) extended to acts committed by Y after his recognition as a refugee. We will consider each of those questions in turn after referring briefly to the background facts.
The background facts
[26]
The facts are set out in very considerable detail in the judgment of SIAC, which runs to 416 paragraphs. They are not now in dispute. It is only necessary to refer briefly and in outline to some aspects of the facts. The reader should consult the judgment of SIAC for the detailed picture.
[27]
Y is a citizen of Algeria born in October 1969. He left Algeria in 1999 and arrived in the United Kingdom on 5 March 2000. He claimed asylum on 8 March 2000. His application was refused on 18 January 2001, but his appeal to an adjudicator was allowed on 1 June 2001. The Secretary of State did not appeal and Y was accordingly granted indefinite leave to remain in November 2001. He was arrested on 7 January 2003 on suspicion of being concerned in the instigation, preparation or commission of acts of terrorism contrary to s 41 of the Terrorism Act 2000 and was later charged with three offences. He was tried with four others at the Central Criminal Court between September 2004 and April 2005 at a trial which was known as the ‘ricin’ or ‘poisons plot’ trial. The indictment contained two counts: conspiracy to murder and conspiracy to cause a public nuisance. Y and three others were acquitted on all counts but one of the accused, Bourgass, was convicted of conspiracy to cause a public nuisance.
[28]
The Secretary of State gave notice to Y of his decision to make a deportation order against him on 15 September 2005, certifying under s 97(1)(a) of the 2002 Act that the decision was taken in the interests of national security. It followed that his appeal lay to SIAC and not to the Asylum and Immigration Tribunal. His grounds of appeal raised potential breaches of the Refugee Convention and of arts 2, 3, 5, 6 and 8 of the convention. Even if not a breach of art 3, his expected treatment was cumulatively said to be sufficiently grave to cause SIAC to exercise its discretion under the Immigration Rules differently.
[29]
The case for the Secretary of State was that Y was a risk to national security, which Y denied. SIAC considered the question whether Y was such a risk in great detail and held that he was (at paras 7–131). Its conclusions are at paras 100–109. We note that at para 107 it said that its conclusions based on the open material were reinforced in each instance by the closed material. It
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concluded in that paragraph that Y is an Islamist extremist of long standing, who has significant terrorist group connections, notably to Dhamat Houmet Daawa Salafia (DHDS), and that his activities, by way of logistic support for those groups, and his presence as an active extremist supporter, showed that he is a risk to the United Kingdom’s national security and should be deported. Those conclusions are not challenged in this appeal.
[30]
Y’s case before SIAC was (among other things) that if he was deported to Algeria he would face a real risk of being subjected to treatment contrary to art 3 of the convention and that it followed from the principles in Chahal v UK that he could not be deported. SIAC rejected the submission that Y would face such a risk and dismissed his appeal against the decision to deport him.
The Ordonnance
[31]
SIAC held that it was safe for Y to be returned to Algeria because he would be entitled to the benefit of art 9 of the Ordonnance. Mr Starmer QC and Mr Husain submit on behalf of Y that in reaching that conclusion SIAC erred in law. We return below to the alleged error of law but consider first the facts relevant to this issue, including the nature of the Ordonnance. We do so with the assistance of a chronology of facts helpfully prepared by Mr Starmer and Mr Husain which are derived from the judgment and which are not in issue between the parties.
[32]
In June 1997 Y was convicted in his absence in Algeria of an offence of organising an armed group prejudicial to the security and integrity of the state. The offence was said to have been committed in March 1996. He was sentenced to life imprisonment. In February 1998 he was convicted of the same offence, again in his absence. That offence was said to have been committed in May 1996. He was sentenced to death.
[33]
In October 2001 the Foreign and Commonwealth Office (the FCO) advised the Home Office that it should not attempt to deport terrorist suspects to Algeria. The Home Office had hoped that assurances could be obtained from Algeria which would ensure that there was no real risk of such suspects being subjected to treatment contrary to art 3 of the convention. In December 2002 the FCO was asked to review its advice that such assurances should not be sought from Algeria. The FCO initially maintained its view but in May 2003 it agreed that specific and credible assurances might be acceptable. With the aim of obtaining such assurances, the Algerian government was approached in 2004 but little progress was made.
[34]
In January 2005 a further approach was made to the Algerian government and in July of that year the matter was raised during a visit to Algeria by a minister of state. Political agreement was reached on the basis that deportation would be part of a larger package of judicial co-operation including an extradition treaty. There was contact between the Prime Minister and the President of Algeria. Mr Oakden, who gave evidence on behalf of the Secretary of State, co-chaired a British delegation with the Algerians on deportation with assurances at the end of August 2005.
[35]
The Charter was approved in a referendum in October 2005 and provided for an amnesty for individuals involved in earlier terrorist acts, excluding those involved in massacres, rapes and placing bombs in public places. As SIAC observed at para 232, the preamble to the Charter explains its political background, namely ending the destructive tragedy which had engulfed Algeria,
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marking the defeat of terrorism and its abuse of Islam and furnishing the means for ensuring permanent peace and security through national reconciliation, supported by the whole Algerian people. SIAC quoted ‘eight measures . . . aimed at consolidating peace’ in the Charter as follows:
‘A—Extracts from the Charter for Peace and National Reconciliation
MEASURES AIMED AT CONSOLIDATING PEACE
Firstly: Extinguishment of judicial proceedings against individuals who have given themselves up to the authorities since the 13th of January, 2000, the statutory time-limit for effects of the Law on Civil Concord;
Secondly: Extinguishment of proceedings against individuals putting an end to their armed activity and surrendering arms in their possession. This extinguishment of proceedings does not apply to individuals involved in collective massacres, rapes and bombings in public places;
Thirdly: Extinguishment of judicial proceedings against wanted individuals, in Algeria and abroad, who have decided to give themselves up voluntarily to the relevant Algerian authorities. This extinguishment of proceedings does not apply to individuals involved in cases of collective massacres, rapes and bombing in public places;
Fourthly: Extinguishment of judicial proceedings against all individuals involved in support networks for terrorism, who have decided to declare their activities to the relevant Algerian authorities;
Fifthly: Extinguishment of judicial proceedings against individuals sentenced in absentia, other than those involved in collective massacres, rapes and bombings in public places;
Sixthly: The pardoning of individuals already sentenced and imprisoned for supporting terrorism;
Seventhly: The pardoning of individuals already sentenced and imprisoned for acts of violence, other than collective massacres, rapes and bombings in public places;
Eighthly: Commutation of and remission of sentence for all other individuals on whom final sentence has been served or wanted individuals for whom the extinguishment of judicial proceedings or pardons described above do not apply.’
[36]
The position at this time was described by SIAC in this way:
‘234. . . . Mr Oakden’s assessment of the overall situation in Algeria was that there had been real progress in social, economic and institutional modernisation in Algeria in the last five or six years; terrorism had fallen away sharply and democracy had been firmly established in Algerian politics. As to the state of United Kingdom/Algeria relations, he assessed this as being in sound shape and fast developing . . .
235. Mr Oakden’s statement said that the British government accepted that it could be at risk of breaching its obligations under the convention if it were to return Y without first obtaining assurances as to his treatment on return. Algeria’s human rights record had been criticised by NGOs and the international community. The concerns covered torture, arbitrary detention, extrajudicial executions and the right to a fair trial. On the other hand the British government’s view, from diplomatic reporting, and other governments’ published assessments was that the situation was improving.
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The improvement in human rights was directly linked to the recent political and security history of Algeria, as described in the two FCO papers.
236. It is clear from this “second” statement of Mr Oakden’s that as at November 2005, the SSHD was not seeking to return Y without assurances about his treatment in a variety of ways, assurances which he was seeking to make the subject of independent and credible monitoring.’
[37]
In a note verbale dated 5 December 2005 the Algerian government explained what would happen upon Y’s return in the light of his convictions in absentia. He would be entitled to have his conviction and sentence set aside because he had been tried in his absence. He would be retried before a competent court. On arrival he would be arrested by the judicial police (as opposed to the DRS (Département du renseignement et de la sécurité)) and detained in a Ministry of Justice prison. He would have the following rights: to appear before a court for the purpose of obtaining a decision as to the legality of his arrest or detention, to be informed of the charges laid against him and to be informed of his right to be assisted by counsel of his choice and to make immediate contact with such counsel; to receive legal aid; not to be detained otherwise than by a competent judicial authority; to have the benefit of the presumption of innocence until his guilt was established lawfully; to inform one of his family or friends of his arrest or detention; to be visited by a doctor; to respect in any circumstances for his human dignity; if he was retried and found guilty and the death penalty was imposed, the 1993 moratorium on executions would apply; and, if he has not been previously involved in a collective massacre, rape or explosive attacks in public places he would be eligible to benefit from the provisions of the Charter and the subsequent legislation implementing it.
[38]
That subsequent legislation took the form of the Ordonnance, which was dated 27 February 2006 and approved by the Algerian cabinet. The terms of the Ordonnance were set out in some detail in App 1 to the judgment of SIAC. It is only necessary to set out the following provisions in order to determine this appeal:
‘PRELIMINARY PROVISIONS
Article 1—The purpose of the present Ordinance is:
—to implement the provisions of the Charter for Peace and National Reconciliation, which is the expression of the sovereign will of the Algerian people
—to give concrete expression to the determination of the Algerian people to put the final touches to the policy of peace and national reconciliation, which is essential for the Nation’s stability and development.
CHAPTER II
IMPLEMENTATION OF MEASURES TO CONSOLIDATE PEACE
Section 1
General provisions
Article 2—The provisions set out in the present Chapter shall apply to persons who have committed or who have acted as accomplices in the commission of one or more of the offences described by and punishable under Articles 87a, 87a 1, 87a 2, 87a 3, 87a 4, 97a 5, 87a 6 (paragraph 2), 87a 7, 87a 8, 87a 9 and 87a 10 of the Penal Code and also offences connected with them . . .
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Section 2
Extinguishment of the right to bring a public prosecution
Article 4—The right to bring a public prosecution shall be extinguished in respect of any person who has committed one or more of the offences described in the provisions referred to in Article 2 above, or who has acted as an accomplice in the commission of such offences, and who has surrendered himself to the competent authorities during the course of the period between 13 January 2000 and the date of publication of the present Ordinance in the Journal Officiel [Official Gazette].
Article 5—The right to bring a public prosecution shall be extinguished in respect of any person who, within a maximum of six (6) months from the date of publication of the present Ordinance in the Journal Officiel, voluntarily presents himself to the competent authorities, ceases to commit the offences described in the provisions of Articles 87a, 87a 1, 87a 2, 87a 3, 87a 6 (paragraph 2), 87a 7,87a 8, 87a 0 and 87a 10 of the Penal Code and surrenders the arms, munitions, explosives and any other materials in his possession.
Article 6—The right to bring a public prosecution shall be extinguished in respect of any person [who] is being sought within or outside national territory for having committed or having acted as an accomplice in the commission of one or more of the offences described in the provisions referred to in Article 2 above who, within a maximum of six (6) months from the date of publication of the present Ordinance in the Journal Officiel, voluntarily presents himself to the competent authorities and declares that he is putting an end to his activities.
Article 7—The right to bring a public prosecution shall be extinguished in respect of any person who has committed or has acted as an accomplice in the commission of one or more of the offences described in Articles 87a 4 and 87a 5 of the Penal Code who, within a maximum of six (6) months from the date of publication of the present Ordinance in the Journal Officiel, puts an end to his activities and makes a declaration to that effect to the competent authorities to whom he has presented himself.
Article 8—The right to bring a public prosecution shall be extinguished in respect of any person who has been sentenced by default or in absentia for committing one or more of the offences described in the provisions referred to in Article 2 above who, within a maximum of six (6) months from the date of publication of the present Ordinance in the Journal Officiel, voluntarily presents himself to the competent authorities and declares that he is putting an end to his activities.
Article 9—The right to bring a public prosecution shall be extinguished in respect of any person who is held in custody and has not been finally sentenced for having committed or having acted as an accomplice in the commission of one or more of the offences described in the provisions referred to in Article 2 above.
Article 10—The measures provided for in Articles 5, 6, 8 and 9 above shall not apply to persons who have committed or who have acted as accomplices in the commission of or have instigated the offences of collective massacre, rape or the use of explosives in public places.
Article 11—The beneficiaries of the extinguishment of the right to bring a public prosecution, covered by Articles 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 above, shall return to
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their homes as soon as the formalities provided for in the present Ordinance have been completed.
Section 3
Rules of procedure for the extinguishment of the right to bring a public prosecution . . .
Article 13—Any person who has presented himself to the competent authorities for the purposes of the application of the provisions of Articles 5, 6, 7 and 8 above shall be required to make a declaration, which must inter alia cover the following:
—the offences which he has committed or in the commission of which he has acted as an accomplice or which he has instigated
—the arms, munitions or explosives or any other materials which he has in his possession which are connected with those offences
In the latter case, he must hand them over to the said authorities or inform them where they can be found.
The standard form for the declaration and the information it must contain shall be laid down by regulation . . .’
[39]
SIAC examined a number of exchanges between the FCO and the Algerian government on the question whether the amnesty provided for in the Ordonnance would apply to Y. For example, on 27 March and 6 April 2006 the Algerian Ministry of Justice explained how the Charter worked: see SIAC’s judgment at paras 273 and 274. On 11 July 2006 there was an exchange of letters between the Prime Minister and the President of Algeria designed to strengthen co-operation between the two governments.
Article 8
[40]
The case for the Secretary of State, supported by the evidence of Mr Oakden, was that Y would be entitled to the benefit of art 8 of the Ordonnance on his return to Algeria. It was put on this basis. The offences of which Y was convicted in his absence in 1997 and 1998 were offences contrary to art 87a of the Penal Code. Y was not, however, someone who had committed or acted as an accomplice in the commission of or instigated offences of collective massacre, rape or the use of explosives in public places. It followed that arts 5, 6, 8 and 9 of Ch II of the Ordonnance applied to him by reason of arts 2 and 10 (quoted above). So much was common ground. As to art 8 itself, the case for the Secretary of State was that, since Y was a person who was convicted and sentenced in his absence for an offence within art 2, the right to prosecute him again was extinguished.
[41]
The case for Y was that that would only be so if Y presented himself to the competent authorities in Algeria and made the declaration required by art 8. It was submitted to SIAC that Y could not make such a declaration in time because the time expired six months from the date of publication of the Ordonnance. It followed that time expired on 27 August 2006. Further and more importantly, Y’s case was that he was not guilty of the offences alleged against him and that in these circumstances he could not be expected to make the declaration. SIAC accepted at para 279 that Y could not be expected to admit the serious offences of which he was convicted but which he denied.
[42]
SIAC then considered (at para 279 et seq) the suggestion made by a seconded High Court judge that Y did not have to admit the offences in order to
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make the declaration. He could simply put ‘not applicable’ in the section which required admissions of acts done. This suggestion was made at a comparatively late stage before Mr Oakden gave evidence before SIAC. Exchanges between the FCO and the Algerian government continued while the hearing before SIAC was proceeding. One such exchange included a document, which was disclosed on 21 June (shortly before final submissions were made on behalf of the Secretary of State on 28 June) and which related to a meeting in Algeria on 6 and 7 June: see para 301 et seq.
[43]
SIAC analysed the evidence of Mr Oakden in considerable detail at paras 275–300 and the document just referred to at para 301 et seq. It described the evolution of the Secretary of State’s case at paras 327–340, it discussed the political situation at paras 341–350 and it expressed its conclusions as to the application of the Ordonnance at paras 351–377. The critical conclusion for the purpose of this appeal is at the end of para 356, where SIAC said that, even if the art 8 declaration was made in time, ‘there would still be a risk that Article 8 would not be the route to the beneficial application of the Ordonnance to Y’.
[44]
The reasons for that conclusion can perhaps best be seen at paras 354–356, although the remaining paragraphs of SIAC’s judgment repay study. It said:
‘354. But second, even if Y were to apply in time, the declaration required by arts 8 and 13 would give rise to difficulties which are not yet fully resolved. It would be wholly unreasonable to expect Y to admit to offences of the gravity alleged which he denies, whether or not that would lead to extinguishment of the right to prosecution in respect of them and even more so if there were real doubt over whether the acts committed could be charged in a way which fell outside the extinguishment provisions. We accept that the consistent material from the Ministry of Justice shows that the declarant can enter “not applicable” in that section of the declaration which requires the acts committed to be declared. It is the effect of that which is at issue. A declaration in those terms may only enable the declaration to be treated as valid, ie effective as a declaration for the purposes of art 13. Its effectiveness as a means of achieving extinguishment of the offences is less clear.
355. We recognise that declarations are not required of those who presented themselves to the authorities between 2000 and 27 February 2006, nor in respect of those who seek extinguishment of prosecution while in custody, or amnesty, commutation or remission. That does not show that the “not applicable” declaration suffices for extinguishment under arts 4–8 of the right to prosecute for acts which have not been admitted. Voluntary presentation to the authorities before the extinguishment provisions were introduced may have provided an opportunity for the authorities to investigate and take a decision on prosecution; likewise those finally sentenced will have had a form of judicial determination of their acts and those in custody will have been arrested for an identifiable offence. The SSHD’s submissions as to the effect of a “not applicable” declaration may be right; but there is no clear written statement from the Ministry of Justice to that effect. It is all very well it being said that it is a “purely procedural rule which, in reality, has no negative bearing on [Y’s] interests . . .”, as did the Algerian Note of 7 May 2006. But the effect of it on the procedures for
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extinguishment remains unclear. The latest answers from the ministry do not clarify this. Examples might have shed light but none were then provided.
356. The operation of the declaration is a matter upon which the Government is better placed than Y to obtain the necessary and conclusive information. This is one of a number of areas concerning the operation of the Ordonnance in which the SSHD’s evidence was unsatisfactory. The evidence was not given by an expert in the foreign law or procedure. In the light of the newness of the provisions, that may be understandable but it serves to emphasise the scope for uncertainty about how a new process will operate in practice, as underlined by the two re-arrests of two individuals apparently released in error under the Ordonnance. The evidence was given often at second or third hand and the understandings were not all confirmed in writing; even when written confirmation was sought, the responses fell short of a clear confirmation or answer to the question. We accept that part of the SSHD’s difficulties arises from the fact that the Algerian side in the negotiations does not see why the United Kingdom government seeks this information when it has said that it will apply the procedure to Y and he will benefit from the extinguishment provisions. We recognise the consistency of the assurances that the Ordonnance would apply to Y, and that the declaration of offences signed “not applicable” would suffice. But it has not been conclusively demonstrated. There would still be a risk that art 8 would not be the route to the beneficial application of the Ordonnance to Y, even if the declaration were made in time.’
SIAC thus rejected the Secretary of State’s case based on art 8 of the Ordonnance. It is important to note that the Secretary of State has not sought to appeal against that conclusion.
Article 9
[45]
Notwithstanding its conclusion on art 8, SIAC held that there was no real risk to Y if he were returned to Algeria because ‘the right to bring a public prosecution’ against him was or would be extinguished by art 9 of the Ordonnance. It did so on the basis of its own construction of art 9. That construction was simply this. Y is now held in custody, albeit in England, but in any event will be held in custody, albeit (on SIAC’s findings) for a short time, on his return to Algeria. In these circumstances, art 9 applies or will apply to Y because he ‘has not been finally sentenced for having committed or having acted as an accomplice in the commission’ of the offences for which he was convicted in 1997 and 1998 and which are offences within art 2 of the Ordonnance.
[46]
That construction is entirely understandable but the problem is that, except perhaps at the very end of the case before SIAC, it was not part of the Secretary of State’s case. In particular, it was not part of the evidence of Mr Oakden upon which the Secretary of State relied. Although Mr Oakden did of course refer to art 9 because it was part of Ch II of the Ordonnance, he at no time suggested in evidence that, if art 8 was not applicable to Y because he would not make the declaration in time or because he could not reasonably be expected to make the relevant declaration, that did not matter because the same result would be achieved under art 9.
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[47]
If Mr Oakden had thought that that might be the position he would surely have mentioned it in the course of his evidence, which was very extensive. Equally, if those advising the Secretary of State had thought that Y could safely be returned to Algeria because of art 9, they would have made art 9 part of the Secretary of State’s case from the outset. It did not occur to the Secretary of State that the issue of Y’s safety could be resolved simply by asking SIAC to construe arts 8 and 9 of the Ordonnance without the assistance of evidence. If the Secretary of State had thought of relying upon art 9 at the outset, he would surely have investigated the position under art 9 with the assistance of Mr Oakden, just as he did in the case of art 8. Just as SIAC said at para 356 (quoted above) that the operation of the art 8 declaration was a matter upon which the Secretary of State was better placed than Y to obtain the necessary and conclusive information, so the same could in our opinion be said of art 9.
[48]
The hearing before SIAC took place on 25–28 April, 2–4 and 24 May and 26 June 2006. When written final submissions on behalf of Y were prepared on 15 May they contained no reference to art 9 because no reliance had been placed upon it on behalf of the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State served his written submissions on 26 May. There were four references to art 9, at paras 4.2.17, 4.2.19, 4.2.26 and 4.2.27. We accept Mr Starmer’s submission that in those submissions the Secretary of State does not rely upon art 9 as a free-standing argument. In para 4.2.17, art 9 is only mentioned in passing. Paragraph 4.19 simply describes the cases in which the right to prosecute is extinguished. It thus refers to art 4, to arts 5–8 and to art 9, without addressing the question which of those articles applies to Y. Paragraphs 4.26 and 4.27 appear in a section of the submissions which discusses the place of the declaration under art 8 and contain no clear statement that the Secretary of State was relying on art 9 if his case on art 8 was rejected.
[49]
We note that the memorandum of the meeting of 6 and 7 June mentioned above, which of course took place after the date of the submissions to which we have just referred, makes no reference to art 9. As Mr Starmer correctly submits, it is clear that even at that late stage the Algerian authorities were still being asked about the art 8 route and no one on either side thought to raise the possibility that art 9 might apply at the meeting.
[50]
We have seen a transcript of the submissions made by Mr Burnett QC on behalf of the Secretary of State on 28 June. He first referred to art 9 in the context of the correct approach to the nature of the declaration required under art 8. A little later Mr Burnett referred to art 9. His submissions contained the following:
‘It is difficult on the face of the document [ie the Ordonnance] to understand why the distinction is being drawn requiring a declaration in some but not others, save that there appears to be a general underlying rationale that once somebody is within the criminal justice system, then the declaration is not required. That does beg an interesting question about the application of Article 9 to Mr Taleb if he were to return to Algeria without having taken advantage of the Article 8 provision. On that hypothesis, he goes back, he does not take advantage of the Charter, he says he wishes to appeal or be retried in respect of his in absentia convictions. It would appear on the face of it that Article 9 would then apply to him, because on that basis he would then be held in custody not having been sentenced for having committed or having acted as an accomplice, etc and the offences for which
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he was being tried fall within Article 2. It may well be that the draftsman simply did not contemplate the possibility that someone who could take advantage under Article 8 of clearing the decks so far as his in absentia conviction is concerned would return or make himself available to the authorities and effectively force them into prosecuting him.’
[51]
In the course of his submissions in reply Mr Emmerson QC for Y referred to Mr Burnett floating the possibility that Y might be held not pursuant to art 8 but pursuant to art 9. He added:
‘Again, there is no evidence at all for that proposition from the Algerian authorities. It is a little difficult to understand how it could be the position, as they have repeatedly stated and indeed repeat in the document that was served arising out of 6th/7th June meeting, that it could be a condition of the application of the Charter where someone is convicted in absentia that they do complete a declaration and yet, when an individual returns and appeals their conviction having not completed a declaration, and therefore not benefiting from the Charter, they are automatically given the benefit of the Charter without a declaration.’
[52]
There followed this exchange:
‘Ouseley J: But whatever Article 9 applies to, it does not envisage a declaration.
Mr Emmerson: I agree with that, but it would be a surprising consequence if a declaration were required from a convicted person who was convicted in absentia before they returned but not required after they returned. The fact that a consequence is surprising does not make it impossible any more than the general thrust of the Secretary of State’s argument, which is a surprising one about Article 10, is impossible. It is just that there is no evidence to support that conclusion . . .’
[53]
In summary, we consider that the Secretary of State only touched upon art 9 at the conclusion of his submissions and did so without any evidential basis for doing so. While Mr Emmerson did not expressly submit to SIAC that the point was not open to the Secretary of State, he did submit that there was no evidence to support the submission. SIAC did not address that submission.
[54]
SIAC concluded that art 9 did indeed apply to Y. It did so without any detailed analysis. It said (at para 353) that any expiry of the six-month period under art 8 would put the case within art 9. At para 357, immediately after para 356 quoted above, SIAC said that on the basis that art 8 will not apply to Y for time reasons and might not apply because of a failure to make a declaration in accordance with art 8, Y would have to rely upon art 9, ‘which does not require a declaration but does suppose that the individual is in custody’. SIAC then considered (at paras 357–363, 364 and 376) whether Y might be tried for offences which were excluded from the Ordonnance under art 10 but concluded that he would not. That point would apply under both arts 8 and 9 and was not the subject of argument in this appeal.
[55]
SIAC’s key conclusions with regard to art 9 are in paras 364 and 377 as follows:
‘364. We conclude that while Y might not benefit from the provisions of art 8 because he could apply too late to do so, or because the “not applicable”
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declaration might not cover the charges which he would face upon appealing against convictions, it is clear that he would benefit from art 9 in relation to those charges. The route to benefit would be either of the provisions mentioned under art 15. If the charges are confined to art 87, there would be no power in the prosecutor or court to exclude Y e.g. on the basis that he ought to be charged with graver offences, or that he could have been . . .
377. Accordingly, we conclude that Y can return to Algeria, can enter opposition to his in absentia convictions and will then be able to benefit from the provisions of art 9 of the Ordonnance, even though he will be unable to benefit from art 8. The nature of the declarations is thus only relevant if there were to be an extension of the deadline, which is mere speculation. We think there is no real likelihood that he would not benefit in that way.’
[56]
SIAC then considered, under the heading of ‘Detention’, whether Y would be treated any differently under art 9 than it had held he would be treated under art 8. It noted (at para 378) that it had been anticipated that Y would only be in custody for a short period but that that was on the basis that he was returning to claim the benefit of art 8. It said (at para 379) that it did not know what the period in custody would be for someone returning to claim the benefit of art 9 but expressed the view that there was no real reason why that period should be any longer than the short period envisaged under art 8. SIAC nevertheless recognised that it might be longer, albeit no more than a few weeks. Moreover it considered whether he would be likely to be detained by the DRS and concluded at para 381 that there was no more than a real possibility of that. It further concluded (at para 383) that if (as it put it) perchance he were to be in DRS custody while his position under the Ordonnance was being regularised he would not face a real risk of being tortured. The essential conclusion of SIAC in this regard was that, although the evidence did not address this question, there was no reason to think that a person entitled to the benefit of art 9 would be treated any differently from a person entitled to the benefit of art 8.
[57]
We are troubled that SIAC considered art 9 without the possibility that it might apply being covered in evidence. Mr Emmerson was justified in submitting in the passage from his oral argument quoted above that there was no evidence to support the conclusion that art 9 would apply to Y. Mr Tam submits that the question whether the article applies is a matter of fact. That is so but it is not, in our judgment, correct to treat it as simply a matter of Algerian law and thus, by our rules, a matter of fact and then to hold that this court cannot interfere with the conclusion of the SIAC because its jurisdiction is limited to matters of law.
[58]
The question is not simply one of Algerian law but of what is likely to happen on Y’s return to Algeria. That involves a consideration of what the Algerian authorities are likely to do. This was recognised by the Secretary of State in the context of art 8 and led to a great deal of evidence being given by Mr Oakden and considered in detail by SIAC. In our opinion, before the Secretary of State relied upon art 9 and in any event, before SIAC reached a conclusion on the applicability of art 9, the issue should have been explored in the evidence. In our judgment, viewed on the basis of the material available to SIAC when it gave its judgment on 24 August 2006, reliance upon art 9 without any evidential basis for it beyond the reading of the words of the article led to potential injustice for Y.
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Meeting in Algiers on 14 November 2006
[59]
The above conclusion is reinforced by what happened subsequently. On 14 November 2006 a meeting took place at the Ministry of Justice in Algiers which was attended by among others, Mr Anthony Layden, who has replaced Mr Oakden as the person advising the Secretary of State and who has given evidence in the later Algerian cases, including those of BB and U. The Algerian delegation was led by Mr Amara, who was the seconded High Court judge referred to above. The purpose of the meeting was to discuss the position subsequent to the judgment in Y. We have a detailed note of the meeting.
[60]
In para 3 of the note, Mr Layden is recorded as explaining the next steps in Y and a possible time frame. The note, in which Mr Layden is referred to as ‘Anthony’ and MT as ‘Y’, continues:
‘Anthony requested assistance in interpreting Algerian Law. He explained that we had submitted to the judge that “Y” would benefit from Arts 8 and 13 of the Ordonnance and that Amara had previously said that if “Y” completed a Declaration under the Charter but was not willing to detail terrorist acts committed the declaration would still be valid. Anthony asked what the term “valid” meant; whether in the sense of Art 13 that he had made a declaration; or in the sense of Art 8 that the Declaration would be effective in extinguishing the right to prosecute. He also explained that the Judge had held that there was an unresolved ambiguity about the meaning of “valid”; but that this did not matter because “Y” could rely on Art 9 because Y had not been finally convicted by a court (he was tried in absentia) and he would be detained on return and therefore would be in custody. Anthony asked whether Counsel for the Government had been correct in arguing that Articles 8 and 13 would operate to extinguish the right to prosecute “Y”; and whether the judge had been right in holding that he would benefit from Article 9.’
[61]
We note that what Mr Layden said is consistent with the two central conclusions we have reached above. The first is that the Secretary of State had submitted to SIAC that Y would benefit from arts 8 and 13 of the Ordonnance. There is no suggestion that the Secretary of State had relied upon art 9. The second is that it was SIAC who decided the case on the basis of art 9. Mr Layden wanted advice on whether the Secretary of State was right to take the point he did and whether SIAC was correct to hold that Y would benefit from art 9.
[62]
Paragraph 4 of the note sets out the response of Mr Amara and an Algerian official on the art 8 point. On the first point, Mr Amara expressed his opinion, although he stressed that it would be a matter for a judge in Algeria and that he was expressing his view as a jurist and not as a judge or a government official. His view was that, if Y made a declaration without specifying his previous activities, the right to prosecute would be extinguished by arts 8 and 13. He and the Algerian official agreed that it now seemed clearer that the Secretary of State’s case on art 8 was correct.
[63]
Paragraph 5 of the note relates to the art 9 point and is in these terms:
‘On Article 9, Amara said he noted the interpretation that had been given to this by the SIAC judge; it was an interpretation that could certainly be supported from the words of the Ordonnance; he hoped that the UK Court of Appeal would take the same view; but this was not what those drafting the
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Ordonnance had had in mind when they drafted the words concerned. Amara said that each of the articles from 4 onwards dealt with a particular circumstance. In respect of article 9 they had had in mind people who were already in detention at the time of the Ordonnance [coming] into effect. These people could not reasonably be expected to make a voluntary act of adherence to the Charter, so they were automatically included in its provisions, and then some thousands of them had indeed been released under it. For those tried in absentia article 8 was the relevant article. Again, he could not authoritatively state what view an Algerian judge would take if “Y” sought to benefit from Article 9; and the intentions of those drafting the text were less important than the words themselves; but in his opinion an Algerian judge would be unlikely to take the same view as SIAC on this point.’
[64]
As can be seen from para 5 of the note, Mr Amara’s view was that SIAC’s construction of art 9 could be supported but that it was not what those drafting the Ordonnance had had in mind. An earlier part of the note shows that he was himself one of the draftsmen. Importantly, his view was that an Algerian judge would be unlikely to take the view of art 9 which had been taken by SIAC.
Discussion
[65]
The Secretary of State did not object to the admissibility of this evidence in this appeal. He was, in our judgment, correct not to do so. The evidence reinforces the conclusion we had previously reached, namely that it was important for SIAC to have evidence from Algeria before reaching a conclusion of a part of the Ordonnance upon which the Secretary of State was not essentially relying. It is a reasonable inference from the note that, if such evidence had been sought and obtained, it would not have supported SIAC’s conclusion. Indeed, it may well be that the view expressed by Mr Amara, as evidenced in para 5 of the note, was the view which Mr Oakden had already formed and is the reason that the Secretary of State did not rely upon art 9 in any part of his evidence.
[66]
There was discussion in the course of the argument as to whether the evidence now available demonstrates an error of law on the part of SIAC. Mr Starmer submits that it does. He relies upon a number of cases in which the courts have considered in what circumstances an error of fact can amount to an error of law. He relies in particular upon E v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, R v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 49, [2004] LGR 463, [2004] QB 1044, Cabo-Verde v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] EWCA Civ 1726, [2004] All ER (D) 75 (Dec), R (on the application of Iran) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 982, [2005] All ER (D) 384 (Jul), (2005) Times, 19 August and Shaheen v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 1294, [2005] All ER (D) 31 (Nov).
[67]
The essential principle is stated thus in E’s case by Carnwath LJ, giving the judgment of the court (at [66]):
‘In our view, the time has now come to accept that a mistake of fact giving rise to unfairness is a separate head of challenge in an appeal on a point of law, at least in those statutory contexts where the parties share an interest in co-operating to achieve the correct result. Asylum law is undoubtedly such an area. Without seeking to lay down a precise code, the ordinary requirements for a finding of unfairness are apparent from the above analysis
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of Ex p A. First, there must have been a mistake as to an existing fact, including a mistake as to the availability of evidence on a particular matter. Secondly, the fact or evidence must have been “established”, in the sense that it was uncontentious and objectively verifiable. Thirdly, the appellant (or his advisers) must not have been responsible for the mistake. Fourthly, the mistake must have played a material (not necessarily decisive) part in the tribunal’s reasoning.’
The reference to Ex p A is a reference to the decision of the House of Lords in R v Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, ex p A [1999] 2 AC 330, [1999] 2 WLR 974.
[68]
Mr Starmer submits that there was here a mistake as to an existing fact, namely that Y would benefit from art 9, that the fact that he would not has been established because of the opinion of Mr Amara which is now available, that neither Y nor his advisers were responsible for the mistake and that the mistake played a material part in the decision. There is undoubted force in those submissions. However, Mr Tam has drawn our attention to para [7] of the speech of Lord Bingham of Cornhill in Runa Begum v Tower Hamlets London BC [2003] UKHL 5, [2003] 1 All ER 731, [2003] 2 AC 430, where, as an example of a case in which an error of law might be established, he identified a case where the ‘decision maker is shown to have misunderstood or been ignorant of an established and relevant fact’. Mr Tam submits that the principle identified by Carnwath LJ only applies where there has been ignorance of ‘an established and relevant fact’ which is (as Carnwath LJ put it) uncontentious and objectively verifiable. He submits that that is not the case here.
[69]
We certainly caution against the use of this principle to turn what is a simple error of fact into an error of law by asserting some new fact which is itself contentious. However, in our judgment it is not necessary to deploy this principle in order to conclude that the decision of SIAC on this point cannot stand. It is important to note that, although the appellant before SIAC was Y, all (or almost all) the information relevant to his safety on return to Algeria is in the hands of the FCO and the Secretary of State. The FCO has conducted many discussions with the Algerian authorities and was able to produce the detailed evidence of Mr Oakden. As we stated earlier, the Secretary of State could have asked Mr Oakden for his opinion on art 9, just as it did on art 8. We do not know whether Mr Oakden was asked about art 9 or not or, if he was, what his opinion was. It is a reasonable inference, in the light of the views of Mr Amara quoted above, that, if he had been asked he would have consulted Mr Amara or someone else with equivalent knowledge of the drafting of the Ordonnance. It may indeed be that Mr Oakden did consider art 9, either with or without taking advice from Algeria about it and that he formed the view that it would not avail Y. We do not know.
[70]
In these circumstances the process which led SIAC to conclude that Y would be entitled to the benefit of art 9 was not fair to him. It infringed the principles of natural justice in a way not dissimilar to Ex p A. It is common ground that cases like this, where it is said that there is a risk of a deportee being tortured in breach of art 3 of the convention, require anxious scrutiny. In the absence of evidence about art 9, SIAC cannot properly be said to have given anxious scrutiny to the question whether it could safely hold that there was no real risk of Y being tortured on his return to Algeria on the basis that he was entitled to rely upon art 9. That failure to give anxious scrutiny to the point by insisting upon evidence
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about it is not an error of fact but an error of principle or law which entitles this court to interfere with SIAC’s conclusion that art 9 would apply to Y.
Remission
[71]
Mr Starmer invites us to remit the matter to SIAC, whereas Mr Tam submits that it is not necessary or appropriate to do so because of SIAC’s findings as to the value of the assurances given by the Algerian authorities. Mr Tam submits that, if SIAC had not decided Y’s appeal on the basis of art 9 of the Ordonnance it would have reached the same conclusion and dismissed the appeal.
[72]
We have reached the conclusion that we should not dismiss the appeal on the basis that, quite apart from the Ordonnance, it is safe to send Y back to Algeria. Whether it is safe to do so was (and is) essentially a matter for SIAC and not for us. It is common ground that each case must be decided on an individual basis. Thus SIAC must answer the question whether there is a real risk of a breach of art 3 separately in each case. That is because individual circumstances differ, as indeed can be seen from the differences between Y, BB and U in these appeals. That is so, notwithstanding the fact that some of the evidence and some of the conclusions may be common to all the Algerian cases.
[73]
Although SIAC did express some views in the course of its judgment in Y’s appeal, it is in our opinion plain that it did not address its mind to the question whether it would have dismissed the appeal whatever view it formed of the Ordonnance. That is clear from paras 398 and 399 under the heading ‘Other risks’:
‘398. It might be arguable that even if Y were to be retried and to enjoy no benefit from the extinguishment provisions of the Ordonnance, and were instead forced to rely on the commutation and remission provisions instead, there would be no risk of a breach of art 3. After all, the offences are serious and could properly be retried without that trial, or a life sentence and detention, in principle being persecutory or involving of themselves a breach of art 3 of the convention.
399. We do not consider such a possibility in the light of what we have been told by Mr Oakden and what we have accepted are the true implications of the Charter and more particularly of the Ordonnance for Algerian politics and the response to Y’s return. Mr Oakden has made much of the fact, and properly so, that the Algerians have been puzzled, genuinely as he sees it, as to why the United Kingdom seeks assurances to cover contingently events which they reassure the United Kingdom will not arise, because Y will benefit from the Ordonnance provisions on extinguishment of prosecution. Were Y to be retried on those charges, it would mean that what the United Kingdom government had been told by Algeria at all levels was worthless or had been completely misunderstood. The Ordonnance would not assist except for commutation and remission. The prospect that Y would be detained by the DRS would become a real one on this hypothesis; there would be greater incentives to torture him, the period of detention would be far longer than has been envisaged by us or the United Kingdom in its evidence and submissions and the ability of interested parties to maintain his profile would diminish. The context in which those issues would be considered is wholly different from that which has been painted
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and which we have essentially accepted. It is impossible to take pieces of the picture and to try to apply them in that situation.’
[74]
The conclusion which we draw from those paragraphs that SIAC did not hold that it would have dismissed the appeal in any event is confirmed by the reaction of Ouseley J to the evidence of the meeting on 14 November 2006. In the course of giving his written reasons on the issue of permission to appeal on 28 November, Ouseley J, after referring to Mr Amara’s opinion that SIAC’s interpretation of art 9 was not what those who drafted the Ordonnance had in mind and that an Algerian judge would be unlikely to agree with SIAC’s interpretation, said this:
‘Reliance on art 9 was however the basis of SIAC’s decision, though it did not express a view on whether, absent the applicability of art 9, Y would still face a real risk of the forbidden treatment; on SIAC’s analysis that issue did not arise for decision.’
[75]
In these circumstances, we conclude that it would not be appropriate for us to analyse the facts and reach a conclusion on the issue of risk. That is a matter for SIAC. We therefore remit the matter for further consideration by SIAC.
Closed material
[76]
For the reasons given above, we conclude that SIAC did not err in placing reliance on closed material. In any event, we are not persuaded that the closed material played any part in the decision in Y’s case: see eg para 340 of the judgment.
Article 1F(c) of the Refugee Convention
[77]
At paras 132–155 and 402–404 SIAC considered a number of issues under the Refugee Convention. In the course of doing so, it considered the question whether Y has lost his status as a refugee by reason of art 1F(c) of that convention. SIAC held that he had, whereas Mr Husain submits that he had not. The issue is whether art 1F(c) extends to acts committed after recognition of a person’s status as a refugee. SIAC held that it does. The question is whether it was correct so to hold.
[78]
The Refugee Convention provides, so far as relevant:
‘ARTICLE 1
Definition of the Term “Refugee”
A. For the purposes the present Convention, the term “refugee” shall apply to any person who . . . (2) . . . owing to well-founded fear of being persecuted for reasons of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion, is outside the country of his nationality and is unable or, owing to such fear, is unwilling to avail himself of the protection of that country; or who, not having a nationality and being outside the country of his former habitual residence as a result of such events, is unable or, owing to such fear, is unwilling to return to it . . .
C. This Convention shall cease to apply to any person falling under the terms of section A if:
(1) He has voluntarily re-availed himself of the protection of the country of his nationality; or
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(2) Having lost his nationality, he has voluntarily re-acquired it; or
(3) He has acquired a new nationality, and enjoys the protection of the country of his new nationality; or
(4) He has voluntarily re-established himself in the country which he left or outside which he remained owing to fear of persecution; or
(5) He can no longer, because the circumstances in connexion with which he has been recognised as a refugee have ceased to exist, continue to refuse to avail himself of the protection of the country of his nationality . . .
(6) Being a person who has no nationality he is, because the circumstances in connexion with which he has been recognised as a refugee have ceased to exist, able to return to the country of his former habitual residence . . .
D. This Convention shall not apply to persons who are at present receiving from organs or agencies of the United Nations other than the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees protection or assistance.
When such protection or assistance has ceased for any reason, without the position of such persons being definitively settled in accordance with the relevant resolutions adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations, these persons shall ipso facto be entitled to the benefits of this Convention.
E. This Convention shall not apply to a person who is recognised by the competent authorities of the country in which he has taken residence as having the rights and obligations which are attached to the possession of the nationality of that country.
F. The provisions of this Convention shall not apply to any person with respect to whom there are serious reasons for considering that:
(a) he has committed a crime against peace, a war crime, or a crime against humanity, as defined in the international instruments drawn up to make provision in respect of such crimes;
(b) he has committed a serious non-political crime outside the country of refuge prior to his admission to that country as a refugee;
(c) he has been guilty of acts contrary to the purposes and principles of the United Nations . . .
ARTICLE 33
Prohibition of Expulsion or Return (“Refoulement”)
1. No Contracting State shall expel or return (“refouler”) a refugee in any manner whatsoever to the frontiers of territories where his life or freedom would be threatened on account of his race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion.
2. The benefit of the present provision may not, however, be claimed by a refugee whom there are reasonable grounds for regarding as a danger to the security of the country to which he is, or who, having been convicted by a final judgment of a particularly serious crime, constitutes a danger to the community of that country.’
[79]
Like any provision of a convention, the language of art 1F(c) of the Refugee Convention must be construed in accordance with the ordinary meaning to be given to the terms of the convention in their context and in the light of its object and purpose: see art 31(1) of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (Vienna, 23 May 1969; TS 58 (1980); Cmnd 7964), which codified pre-existing customary international law. Mr Husain submits that, so construed,
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art 1F(c) is limited to acts committed before an individual is recognised as a refugee. We are unable to accept that submission.
[80]
There is no support for that conclusion in the language of art 1F(a). Comparison between the language of art 1F(c) with that of art 1F(b) suggests the contrary. Article 1F(b) is limited to a person who has committed a serious non-political crime outside the country of refuge ‘prior to his admission to that country as a refugee’. Article 1F(c) contains no limitation of time. It seems reasonable to suppose that, if the draftsman had intended a temporal limitation, he would have provided for one.
[81]
On the other hand we accept that differences of language do not resolve all questions. For example, art 1C expressly provides for circumstances in which the convention ‘shall cease to apply’ whereas arts 1D, 1E and 1F simply provide for circumstances in which the convention ‘shall not apply’. It might be argued that only cases within art 1C apply post-recognition. However, it is correctly accepted that there is no significance in that difference in language because it is plain that art 1E applies post-recognition. In our view, if art 1E applies post-recognition, there is no reason why art 1F(c) should not equally apply post-recognition.
[82]
As to policy, Mr Husain submits that the object and purpose of the art 1F was to deny access to refugee status at the point of application. He submits that that is true of art 1F(b) and that the explanation for the restriction in art 1F(b) is that it introduces a geographical limitation as well as a temporal limitation. This does not seem to us to be convincing. However, Mr Husain further submits that the general purpose of art 1F is not to protect the host state from dangerous refugees because that is the purpose served by art 33(2). He submits that art 33(2) governs post-recognition acts so as to deprive a recognised refugee of the protection against refoulement.
[83]
In support of his submission Mr Husain relies upon this passage in the judgment of Bastarache J for the majority of the Supreme Court of Canada in Pushpanathan v Minister of Citizenship and Immigration (Canadian Council for Refugees intervening) (1998) 6 BHRC 387 at 406 (para 58):
‘The purpose of art 1 is to define who is a refugee. Article 1F then establishes categories of persons who are specifically excluded from that definition. The purpose of art 33 of the Refugee Convention, by contrast, is not to define who is and who is not a refugee, but rather to allow for the refoulement of a bona fide refugee to his or her native country where he or she poses a danger to the security of the country of refuge, or to the safety of the community. This functional distinction is reflected in the Act, which adopts art 1F as part of s 2, the definitional section, and provides for the minister’s power to deport an admitted refugee under s 53, which generally incorporates art 33. Thus, the general purpose of art 1F is not the protection of the society of refuge from dangerous refugees, whether because of acts committed before or after the presentation of a refugee claim; that purpose is served by art 33 of the Refugee Convention. Rather, it is to exclude ab initio those who are not bona fide refugees at the time of their claim for refugee status. Although all of the acts described in art 1F could presumably fall within the grounds for refoulement described in art 33, the two are distinct. This reasoning must also be applied when considering whether the acts falling under art 1F(c) must be acts performed outside the country of
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refuge, as argued by the appellant. In my opinion, the refoulement provisions cannot be invoked to read into art 1F(c) any such limitation. Where geographical limitations were required, the Refugee Convention specifically provided for them, as evidenced by the terms of art 1F(b). The relevant criterion here is the time at which the refugee status is obtained. In other words, art 1F(c) being referable to the recognition of refugee status, any act performed before a person has obtained that status must be considered relevant pursuant to art 1F(c).’
[84]
That statement undoubtedly affords Mr Husain’s argument some support. However, as Mr Tam observes, the Canadian Supreme Court was not addressing the issue which arises here. The issue was whether, in circumstances where, when his claim was being considered for the first time, the claimant had already been in the country of refuge for some time, acts committed within the country of refuge might fall within art 1F(c). It was argued on behalf of the claimant that only acts committed outside the country of refuge could be taken into account. That argument was rejected.
[85]
If the court had been considering the present issue it would no doubt have considered the difference in language between paras (b) and (c) in the context of temporal limitations, just as it did in considering geographical limitations: see para 58 quoted above. We do not know what conclusion it would have reached. We also note, as did SIAC at para 139, that although Pushpanathan’s case was considered in general terms by this court in A (Iraq) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] EWCA Civ 1438 at [24], [2005] All ER (D) 22 (Dec) at [24], 149 Sol Jo LB 1492, it did not consider the time issue raised in this case.
[86]
However that may be, SIAC preferred the reasoning of the Immigration Appeal Tribunal (IAT) in KK v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKIAT 00101 as follows:
‘[86] . . . In Pushpanathan’s case, as we have seen, the Supreme Court of Canada distinguished between arts 32 and 33 and art 1F(b). But it does not in our view follow that the mere fact that a person satisfies the requirements of art 1 before he commits the act identified as causing exclusion under art 1F(c) enables him to say that he continues to be a refugee. Article 1F(c) does not contain the words “outside the country of refuge prior to his admission to that country as a refugee”, which are found in art 1F(b). There is no reason at all to suppose that that difference is accidental. Acts which merit the condemnation of the whole international community must lead to exclusion from the benefits of the Refugee Convention whenever they occur.
[87] . . . Article 1F(c) is not limited to acts committed before obtaining refuge. If he had been recognised as a refugee earlier, it would make no difference now.
[88] . . . Where, therefore, there are serious reasons for considering that an act contrary to the purposes and principles of the United Nations has been committed, it does not matter when or where it was committed, or whether it is categorised by municipal law as a crime. It leads to exclusion from the Refugee Convention . . .
[89] . . . This interpretation of the relevant clauses of the Refugee Convention is entirely coherent and sensible. It identifies what acts will lead to exclusion despite their being “political”. A person whose acts (at any time)
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are contrary to the purposes and principles of the United Nations disqualifies himself from protection under the United Nations’ Refugee Convention.’
We agree with that reasoning and like SIAC at para 141, in so far as there is a difference, prefer it to that in Pushpanathan’s case.
[87]
In any event, we accept Mr Tam’s submission that it is or may be significant that in Pushpanathan’s case (at 406 (para 58)) Bastarache J refers to the ‘general purpose’ of art 1F as not being the protection of the country of refuge from dangerous individuals. We agree with Mr Tam that this is not inconsistent with the possibility of a further purpose, which is to ensure that if an individual successfully claims the benefit of refugee status and then, while enjoying the surrogate international protection of his human rights afforded by the country of refuge, commits acts which show that he no longer deserves the benefit of that status, that status can be removed from him, just as he would never have qualified for that status if he had committed those acts before making a claim for refugee status.
[88]
We agree with the conclusion of SIAC at para 144 that being or becoming a ‘refugee’ as defined in the Refugee Convention does not require or start with a formal state act of recognition of status. A person simply is or is not a refugee within art 1A. He may lose the status of refugee in a number of circumstances as provided in arts 1C, D, E or F. We can see no reason to distinguish in terms of status between a person who, to take Mr Tam’s example, becomes a mercenary in a war and commits war crimes before or after he is (or would but for the war crimes be) recognised as a refugee.
[89]
As SIAC held (at paras 143–145), art 1 is concerned with the definition, not recognition of the status, of refugees. There is nothing in art 1F to indicate that it was intended that its provisions should only apply to those who had not hitherto been accorded the status of refuges. As to the role of art 33(2), we agree with the conclusions of SIAC (at para 146):
‘Reliance was placed on the existence of art 33(2) as the sole post-recognition removal power. Article 33(2) permits someone to be removed notwithstanding that he would be persecuted on return, in circumstances which may overlap with those in art 1F(c). But they are not expressed in the same way and may not cover the same facts in any particular case. Nor is the possibility of removing someone who is a refugee on that basis the same as the obligatory exclusion of someone from being a refugee, formally recognised or not. True it is that almost all of the Refugee Convention is about the position of those who are refugees but that does not mean that their position cannot change or that the exclusion provisions cannot apply to exclude someone from being a refugee before or after formal state recognition as such. The focus remains on acts in the past rather than on future risk.’
[90]
In all these circumstances we conclude that SIAC was correct to hold that art 1F(c) applies both before and after recognition as a refugee. Since this is the only challenge to SIAC’s reasoning with regard to the Refugee Convention, we dismiss Y’s appeal in this regard. In these circumstances, it is not necessary for us to consider whether, if we had reached a different view, the position of Y would be improved or whether, as Mr Tam submits, it is academic.
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Disposal of Y’s appeal
[91]
We allow Y’s appeal because of SIAC’s inappropriate reliance upon art 9 of the Ordonnance and remit the matter to SIAC for further consideration.
THE JURISDICTION OF THIS COURT
Introduction
[92]
We include this topic in this part of the judgment because its relevance is principally to the appeals of BB and U.
The statute and the issue
[93]
By s 7 of the 1997 Act and s 30(5) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001, an appeal from SIAC lies only on a point of law. No doubt with that limitation in mind, the complaints made in the grounds of appeal about SIAC’s conclusions were said to involve errors of law on SIAC’s part, though without further elaboration of what actual errors of law had been committed. It rapidly became clear in the course of the oral argument that what was in truth in issue were SIAC’s findings of fact. That question arose in the following way.
[94]
The first, and in the event most relied on, ground of appeal in BB was expressed in terms that SIAC erred in its approach to the assurances provided by the Algerian authorities as to whether, on return to Algeria, BB would be at risk of torture. That issue was central to SIAC’s judgment, because it was accepted that there was a previous history, though in SIAC’s view now significantly in decline, of the use of torture on detainees, particularly at the hands of the DRS, the internal security force. At para 5 of its judgment SIAC set out the conditions that it considered must be met before assurances could be relied on as a basis for permitting a return to Algeria:
‘. . . (i) the terms of the assurances must be such that, if they are fulfilled, the person returning will not be subject to treatment contrary to art 3; (ii) the assurances must be given in good faith; (iii) there must be a sound objective basis for believing that the assurances will be fulfilled; and (iv) fulfilment of the assurances must be capable of being verified.’
If that was the ‘approach’ of SIAC it is difficult to see that there was anything wrong with it; and indeed no one so argued.
[95]
Rather, the complaint was not about the appropriateness of the questions, but about the answers that SIAC had given to those questions. That was apparent from para 2.1.1 of the appellant’s skeleton argument:
‘[SIAC] erred in its approach to the assurances provided by the Algerian authorities. Among other things, [SIAC] failed to provide sufficient reasons and held that the assurances were sufficient to ensure safety despite uncontested evidence that the Algerian authorities are unable to control significant elements of its security forces.’
The first part of the main sentence, lack of reasoning, would potentially raise an issue of law, and is something to which we will return. The second part straightforwardly asserts an error in finding the facts.
[96]
When this difficulty was raised with them, the advocates representing both BB and U did not shrink from asserting that, whatever might be the ambit of the concept of error of law in the domestic jurisdiction, everything changed
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when the court was considering a complaint relating to art 3; or, it must necessarily follow, any other article of the convention. That approach was indicated in oral argument on behalf of BB, and reinforced by a written submission after argument had closed in BB, which was signed by Mr Rabinder Singh QC, for BB; Mr Drabble QC, for U; and by Mr Hugh Southey who had settled the grounds of appeal in both of those cases. And thereafter, during argument in U, we received further submissions from Mr Drabble. The appellants’ case was summarised in para 2 of the written submission:
‘The Appellants should start by making clear the limited nature of their submissions. They acknowledge that [SIAC] is the fact finding body in relation to primary facts. For example, findings that any appellant lacked credibility can only be challenged on classic Wednesbury grounds [see Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd v Wednesbury Corp [1947] 2 All ER 680, [1948] 1 KB 223]. However, different considerations apply when facts found are then applied to determine whether removal amounts to a violation of the [convention].’
A mixed question of law and fact
[97]
In the domestic jurisdiction as previously understood the question of whether an applicant faces a real risk of being subjected to treatment contrary to art 3 (the issue as formulated in para 3 of the judgment of SIAC, taken from the judgment of the ECt HR in Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405 at 424 (para 80)) is a mixed question of fact and law. That expression is not here used, as it sometimes is, as a way of dressing up an issue of fact as an issue of law. Rather, it indicates that there are two discrete issues involved, one of fact and one of law. As Donaldson MR put it in O’Kelly v Trusthouse Forte plc [1983] 3 All ER 456at 477, [1984] QB 90 at 122–123:
‘Whilst it may be convenient for some purposes to refer to questions of “pure” law as contrasted with “mixed” questions of fact and law, the fact is that the Employment Appeal Tribunal has no jurisdiction [under s 136(1) of the Employment Protection (Consolidation) Act 1978, which limited the jurisdiction of the Employment Appeal Tribunal to questions of law] to consider any question of mixed fact and law until it has purified or distilled the mixture and extracted a question of pure law.’
In the present case the issue of fact that is distilled by proper analysis is the question of what treatment the applicant risks receiving when returned to Algeria. That is a pure issue of fact, no different from, for instance, the issue in a personal injury case of when the claimant will be free of disability. The second issue is, however, one of law: does the treatment found fall within the terms of art 3. That is to be decided according to legal rules, and in particularly the jurisprudence of the ECt HR, as to the meaning of art 3.
[98]
That is what Kennedy LJ had in mind in R (on the application of S) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 1285, [2004] HLR 254, a passage relied on by the appellants in our case, when he said (at [19]) that the issue of whether known facts amounted to a violation of art 3 was a question that the Court of Appeal was as well placed to answer as was a first instance court.
[99]
In the case of BB only the first of these issues is in dispute. That is because what BB claims to be at risk of is torture. If that claim is made good, then there
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is no dispute that that conduct falls within art 3. The position will be different when considering the claims of U (and also BB) under art 3 in respect of prison conditions in Algeria, and also the claims of U and BB under art 6. In both of those cases there are live and serious issues as to whether the facts complained of, even if made good, fall as a matter of law within the relevant reach of art 3 or art 6 respectively.
The appellants’ case expanded
[100]
Because, therefore, of the limited nature of the contested art 3 inquiry in respect of BB it is not easy to see exactly what the appellant’s case is as to the court’s approach to that first issue, of whether there is a real risk of BB being tortured when he returns to Algeria. It would no doubt have been easier for the court to understand this dispute had it emerged earlier than half-way through the first day of the hearing. Taken literally, the contention in the appellants’ formal submission that is set out in [96], above, that different considerations from those involved in finding primary facts apply when the facts found are then applied to determine whether there will be a violation of the convention, says no more than that the second step in the inquiry is not an inquiry into fact at all: the analysis that is indeed adopted in [97], above. However, the further expansion of the argument, and the use sought to be made of it in this particular case, indicates that a good deal more was intended. The claim can only be understood as a claim that this court should treat the first step in the inquiry, the fact-finding process as to what will happen when BB returns to Algeria, if not exactly as a question of law, then certainly as a question on which this court can and should disagree with SIAC. The court’s power is therefore not limited to correcting exercises in irrationality in that fact-finding process: if the Court of Appeal thinks that SIAC reached the wrong conclusion, it should substitute its own view.
Authority on proportionality is irrelevant
[101]
In oral argument the appellants’ case was sought to be advanced by analogy with the jurisprudence as to issues of proportionality. It is now clear, not least from A v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, X v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 56 at [44], [2005] 3 All ER 169at [44], [2005] 2 AC 68 per Lord Bingham, that questions of proportionality are not issues of pure fact, and therefore the conclusions of SIAC on those questions are not immune from reconsideration on appeal. The comparison is, however, misleading, and it received only a passing mention in the appellants’ more considered written submissions. As Lord Bingham made clear, an inquiry into proportionality requires the tribunal to exercise judgment and critical balance, an exercise appropriate for critical review by the appellate court of the kind to which Lord Bingham himself submitted the conclusions of SIAC in A’s case. That assessment of proportionality is far different from the fact-finding exercise with which we are concerned in the present case.
Fact-finding obligations in a convention case
[102]
In their written submissions, therefore, the appellants opened up a wider front. The argument had two limbs. First, Lord Bingham in Huang v Secretary of State for the Home Dept, Kasmiri v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2007] UKHL 11 at [8], [2007] 4 All ER 15at [8], [2007] 2 AC 167 had pointed out that public
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authorities, including the courts, acted unlawfully if they did not act compatibly with a person’s convention rights:
‘. . . The object is to ensure that public authorities should act to avert or rectify any violation of a convention right, with the result that such rights would be effectively protected at home, thus (it was hoped) obviating or reducing the need for recourse to Strasbourg.’
Second, if the domestic appellate courts are indeed to act as a substitute for recourse to Strasbourg, then they must copy or apply the approach of the ECt HR, which is to form its own conclusions, not necessarily adopting those of the national court, as to issues of real risk: see for instance Hilal v UK (2001) 11 BHRC 354 at 368 (para 62).
[103]
The second limb of the argument is easily disposed of. Proceedings in the ECt HR are brought against the national state, and the issue is whether the state has acted consistently with the convention right asserted by the applicant. Those are, therefore, primary, not appellate, proceedings. The ECt HR, while no doubt giving appropriate weight to the findings of the national court, can do no other than treat the case as what it is, a new case. The normal inhibitions on an appellate court in a national system therefore simply do not arise, and no sensible parallel can be drawn from practice in the ECt HR in order to inform, and much less to mandate, practice in the domestic appellate court.
[104]
As to the first limb of the argument, the contention appears to be that the Court of Appeal will act inconsistently with the appellant’s convention rights if it proceeds on a finding of fact by SIAC that indicates that the appellant’s convention rights are not going to be infringed, when further inquiry into the facts at the appellate level might lead to a different conclusion. It must, therefore, be open to the applicant to appeal SIAC’s findings of fact, even under a domestic rubric that limits such appeals to points of law.
[105]
That is completely to distort the principle stated by Lord Bingham. That requires no more than that issues arising in relation to the convention should be properly considered within the national legal order. It does not require, or permit, disruption of the national legal order to the extent that, although consideration of an issue related to a convention right is allocated to a particular court, other courts must also volunteer, contrary to the limits placed on their jurisdiction by the national legal order, to perform the same task. That can be further illustrated from the convention’s own rules as to co-operation by the national state. The obligation of the national state under art 13 of the convention is to provide an effective remedy for violations of convention rights. In the present case, the prime instrument for providing that remedy is SIAC. SIAC is a court, not an administrative body, and therefore issues of deference and the like do not arise. The appellants’ argument amounts to saying that it was not open to the United Kingdom to provide that, in respect of the fact-finding part of the art 3 assessment, SIAC’s conclusion should be determinative in the absence of irrationality or perversity.
[106]
We are not aware of any other case in which it has been suggested that either the obligations of the courts under s 6 of the 1998 Act, or the obligations of the state under art 13, require the courts to claim jurisdiction that is not provided by the national legal order. Nor does Lord Bingham say anything to suggest that his observations were intended to have that radical effect. Indeed, it will be recalled that his reason for holding in A’s case that an appeal lay from SIAC on
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issues of proportionality was that such issues were not ones of pure fact. But the first of the two issues in an art 3 inquiry, that which we are presently concerned with, is an issue of pure fact. Stronger demonstration than is available would be required to show that two years later, in Huang’s case, Lord Bingham had moved beyond that position, to hold that any factual decision in a convention case must necessarily be appealable, whatever may be the rules of the domestic legal order.
[107]
There is a further reason why the appellants’ contention must be treated with extreme caution. We would not rely on this point if it stood alone, but it certainly underlines the other difficulties of the submission. The appellants rely on the duty of the court, under s 6(1) of the 1998 Act, not to act incompatibly with a convention right. It is said that this court will act incompatibly with BB’s art 3 right if it does not admit the possibility of an appeal against SIAC’s factual findings. That proposition is extremely difficult in itself, because it assumes what it has to establish, that BB’s art 3 rights are indeed put at risk by SIAC’s findings. There is, however, a further difficulty in proceeding by way of s 6. Section 6(2)(a) provides that the rule in s 6(1) does not apply to an act if ‘as the result of one or more provisions of primary legislation, the authority could not have acted differently’. In our case, the court is being asked to act differently from the limits placed on its jurisdiction by the statutory provisions referred to in [93], above. We can only achieve that end by redefining ‘issue of law’ in a way that was plainly not in the mind of the legislator when he placed that limitation on the jurisdiction of the court. We cannot think that respect for the norms of the convention requires this court to indulge in that exercise of redefinition.
The role of ‘assessment’
[108]
Mr Drabble raised a further argument, that did not depend on this being a convention case, but rather made claims about the nature of the fact-finding exercise in English law generally. He said that in the present case SIAC had to find the ‘primary’ facts, which it was agreed involved only a fact-finding exercise. Then, however, it had to ‘assess’ those facts (for instance, the reported facts about Algeria’s attitude to assurances about torture) to determine whether there was a sufficient risk of BB being tortured on return to Algeria. That latter exercise was not an exercise of pure fact-finding. Mr Drabble was perhaps reluctant to say that it was an exercise that of its nature involved questions of law; but he did say that it was an exercise that this court could perform again, in place of SIAC without exceeding its jurisdiction.
[109]
This argument misstates the factual issue that the court has to determine, and also misunderstands the nature of the fact-finding process. The issue of fact in this case is whether there is a sufficient risk of BB being tortured on return to Algeria. That is a single and undifferentiated question of fact, which it is for the fact-finding tribunal to determine. In making that determination the fact-finding court will no doubt assess the impact of other findings that it has made, just as it will assess the reliability of witnesses in deciding what findings to make. But that process is all part of the fact-finding process. That process of assessment is quite different from, and plays a quite different role from, for instance, the assessment that the court has to make, based on the found facts, of whether the defendant acted negligently: which is a matter of legal judgment, and not just a question of what is going to happen in certain circumstances in the future.
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[110]
The effect of this argument would be to turn almost all issues of fact into questions of law; or, at least, into questions that could be reopened with impunity by an appellate tribunal. Once the proper use of the concept of assessment is understood, it can be seen that no such unacknowledged revolution has occurred.
Comparison with judicial review
[111]
We were much pressed with some observations of Auld LJ in this court in R (on the application of Bloggs 61) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 686, [2003] 1 WLR 2724, in particular at [60]–[66]. The issue in that case was the risk to B’s life, under art 2, if as an informer he was placed in unprotected conditions in prison. This court held that the issue of risk to life was a single issue, and that it had to review the Prison Service’s decision on that issue with an appropriate intensity. That is indeed the exercise that the court undertook, not of retaking the decision, but of deciding whether the decision fell within the bounds of what was rational: as the court concluded, holding (at [69]) that it could not interfere with the Prison Service’s decision. Thus as we read the decision in the Bloggs 61 case it was a decision on rationality. It follows that in any event it is of no assistance in the instant case because it is not said that SIAC’s decision was irrational.
[112]
Finally, we should perhaps emphasise, in the context of an issue that we have considered in Y at [66]–[69], above, that the issue that we have reviewed is different from the question of whether a mistake of law can occur when a tribunal proceeds in ignorance of, or by a mistaken understanding of, an existing and uncontentious fact: see the judgment of Carnwath LJ in E’s case [2004] LGR 463 at [66]. As our judgment indicates, we accept that that is now an established, if limited, category of error of law. It has nothing to do with the general contentions as to jurisdiction just discussed, which claim that this court can become involved in the exercise of assessing whether a particular fact exists, as opposed to correcting the lower court for failure to act on a fact the existence of which is uncontentious.
Conclusion as to the court’s jurisdiction
[113]
We have gone into this dispute at some length both because of the weight placed on it by the appellants and because it is of some general importance. The appellants’ arguments cannot be accepted. However, the point is academic in the present appeals. In Y we have concluded that the appeal must succeed, but on a ground that does not engage the present issue. In BB and U, whatever attack is made on the factual findings of SIAC necessarily fails.
THE APPEAL OF BB
Background
[114]
BB is a citizen of the Republic of Algeria, who arrived in this country as long ago as 4 May 1995. He claimed asylum on 26 February 1999, a claim that the Secretary of State refused on 29 September 2005. Meanwhile, however, on 15 September 2005 BB had been served with the Secretary of State’s decision to deport him on grounds of national security, the case then being certified under s 33 of the 2001 Act. It is that decision that was the subject of the judgments of SIAC that are under appeal.
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[115]
For the reasons set out in its closed judgment SIAC found that BB is a danger to national security and that it would be in the public good of the United Kingdom for him to be deported. BB contests that conclusion. Our reasons for rejecting that part of his appeal are given in our own closed judgment of today. Additionally, BB complained of the form of SIAC’s open judgment on this point, which at para 1 merely recorded the closed decision without further elaboration. For reasons that we have explained in our closed judgment we have decided to remit this case to SIAC for reconsideration of that point of form. That does not affect the substance of SIAC’s conclusion on the national security issue.
[116]
The present, open, judgment is therefore concerned with the second issue in the case, whether SIAC erred in law in concluding that there were no substantial grounds for believing that BB, if returned to Algeria, would face a real risk of treatment contrary to either art 3 or art 6 of the convention.
[117]
The grounds of appeal extended to six heads. On an interlocutory application to a single judge of this court permission was granted in respect of only two of them, but the Lord Justice recognised that several of the grounds overlapped or could be argued to do so. We decided that, rather than hear discrete further argument directed at the permission stage, it would be most convenient to permit the appellant to develop before us the whole of his grounds.
[118]
Four further preliminary points should be noted. First, argument before us as to risks in Algeria under art 6 was addressed by counsel in the case of U, and we deal with it there. It was not suggested that, in that respect, there was any difference between BB and U. This judgment accordingly concentrates on the risk in relation to art 3 treatment. Second, the principal complaint under art 3 related to the risk of persons returning to Algeria being tortured and this judgment concentrates on that, very important, aspect of the art 3 issue. Further concern was however expressed as to whether prison conditions in Algeria involved a breach of art 3. That issue also arises in U and we deal with it in that judgment.
[119]
Third, SIAC, at para 3, appreciated that determination of that risk had to be fact-specific:
‘The task of [SIAC] is to determine whether or not there are substantial grounds for believing that there is a real risk that this applicant will be subjected to treatment contrary to art 3 if he is returned to Algeria now.’
At the same time, however, SIAC had to determine the general background conditions in Algeria. For that purpose, it referred in BB to the exhaustive summary of the history at paras 181–208 of its decision in Y. Those paragraphs were not challenged before us. Also in BB, SIAC at para 7 specifically adopted the reasoning and conclusions as to the current general conditions in Algeria that were set out in at paras 341–350 of the determination in Y. In the present case an attempt was made to persuade SIAC that its conclusions in Y had been erroneous, based on the evidence of an academic expert. SIAC, at para 8, rejected that evidence, and no attempt has been made before us to rehabilitate it. We will therefore, when discussing the reasoning in BB, remember where appropriate to assess that reasoning with regard to those parts of Y that were specifically incorporated into the judgment in BB.
[120]
Fourth, there emerged in the course of argument an issue of principle as to the jurisdiction of this court in hearing appeals from SIAC. We have addressed that issue above.
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The factual findings of SIAC
[121]
The appellant’s case took the form of a series of criticisms of the conclusions of SIAC, some of them directly involving disputes of fact and some of them concentrating on the form of SIAC’s approach. We address the various elements in turn.
Control of the DRS
[122]
It will be recalled from para 2.1.1 of the appellant’s skeleton argument, set out in [95], above, that a major complaint of the appellant was that any assurances given by the Algerian authorities were worthless because there was ‘uncontested evidence’ that the state authorities were unable to control the DRS. Complaint was in particular made of SIAC’s analysis at para 11 of its judgment of the evidence of Mr Anthony Layden, the Foreign Office’s representative in discussions with Algerian officials:
‘Mr Layden is a realist. He acknowledges that torture still exists, but is getting less. He accepts that the civil authorities do not control the DRS (they report direct to the President as Minister of Defence). He has never seen any report of any prosecution of a DRS official for torture or ill-treatment. He bluntly acknowledged that he was not saying that there would not be a risk of ill-treatment if the United Kingdom had not made the special arrangements that it had. However his unshakable view was that the assurances given by the Algerian authorities in the case of BB eliminated any real risk that he would be subjected to torture or ill-treatment.’
The grounds of appeal said many times, and in oral argument Mr Rabinder Singh repeated, that the evidence was that the DRS were not subject to state control. The third sentence of the passage quoted above was therefore highly misleading. What it should have said was that no one at all controlled the DRS. It therefore followed that assurances as to future conduct given by the Algerian authorities were worthless, because they necessarily excluded any ability to apply those assurances in the case of the DRS.
[123]
These contentions are simply wrong. They overlook the findings of SIAC in its judgment in Y as to the commitment of the Algerian state, led by President Bouteflika, to civilian control and the loosening of military power; its finding at para 215 of Y that the President is master of his own domain and not a mere puppet of the military; and its finding, at para 348 of Y, that the direction is sufficiently set for any likely successor to President Bouteflika to continue it should anything untoward happen. By pointing out that the DRS report to the President SIAC certainly did not therefore imply that the DRS were out of control, or not committed to the peace and reconciliation process. Indeed, quite the reverse, in view of SIAC’s findings as to the influence and commitment of the President. It was therefore entirely open to SIAC to accept the evidence that it summarised in para 11 of its judgment.
SIAC’s assessment of the attitudes of the Algerian state
[124]
In para 18, SIAC made further findings as to the interests of Algeria in maintaining good relations with the United Kingdom, and more particularly in being accepted by the international community as a normally-functioning civil society:
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‘To give and break a solemn assurance given to another state would be incompatible with that ambition. So, too, would be a failure on the part of central government to ensure that its security services, at lower levels, did not frustrate them.’
Paragraphs 3.21–3.22 of the appellant’s skeleton complained that these findings, clearly highly damaging to BB’s case, were inadequately reasoned. That complaint overlooks the very detailed analysis of the political background in Algeria that SIAC undertook in Y, which it cross-referred to in BB. SIAC’s conclusions in these respects are unchallengeable.
Are assurances ever appropriate?
[125]
Although it does not seem to have been contested below, or in the grounds of appeal, that in principle it was open to SIAC to base its conclusion on assurances given by the receiving state, that issue did arise before us. The contention that assurances were or might never be sufficient was based on a case not available to SIAC, the judgment of de Montigny J in the Federal Court of Canada in Sing v Canada [2007] FC 361. The judge (at para 136) cited with approval the report of the Special Rapporteur to the United Nations, UN Document A/59/324:
‘. . . in circumstances where there is a consistent pattern of gross, flagrant or mass violations of human rights, or of systematic practice of torture, the principle of non-refoulement must be strictly observed and diplomatic assurances should not be resorted to . . .’
[126]
As the judge said, the logic of that view is easy to grasp. If a country is disrespectful of international norms and obligations, it is likely to be no less disrespectful of its obligations under a lower-level instrument such as a diplomatic note. But that is not this case. SIAC went to a good deal of trouble to establish that in Algeria there is not now a consistent pattern of gross, flagrant or mass violations of human rights or of a systematic practice of torture, nor anything like it; and that the Algerian authorities would not be contemptuous of the obligations that they had undertaken.
[127]
That the legitimacy of acceptance of assurances depends on the facts of each case can be demonstrated from Chahal v UK (1996) 1 BHRC 405. There, the ECt HR did not consider that the giving of assurances by the Indian government was sufficient protection for Mr Chahal; but it reached that conclusion after an analysis of the facts of the case and of the particular vulnerability of Mr Chahal, rather than by the application of any rule of law or thumb.
The terms of the assurances
[128]
The assurance given by the Algerian authorities was, in relevant part:
‘Should [BB] be arrested in order that his status may be assessed, he will enjoy the following rights, assurances and guarantees as provided by the Constitution and the national laws currently in force concerning human rights . . . his human dignity will be respected under all circumstances.’
SIAC considered that that assurance met the first of its requirements (see [94], above), that the assurance was such that the person returned would not be subjected to treatment contrary to art 3. That conclusion was criticised on two
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grounds: the assurance referred only to Algerian, and not to international law, standards; and it did not explicitly exclude the use of torture.
[129]
Mr Rabinder Singh said that these complaints were open to him because an issue as to the construction of a document, such as the document containing the assurances, was always an issue of law. Even if that is correct as a universal proposition, which we doubt, the complaint in the present case is not about the meaning of the document, but about what the document does not say. But we can ignore these technical issues, because the complaint on any view borders on the fanciful. SIAC at its para 15 pointed out that the reference to human dignity was precisely a reference to, amongst other things, the exclusion of torture, couched in universally understood diplomatic language. And, we may add, also in the language of common sense. The suggestion that the Algerian authorities might in some way wish to hide behind provisions of Algerian law that permit torture when international law does not is equally unreal. Even if Algerian law were in theory to permit that course (an issue on which there was no evidence), the last thing that would be done by a country like Algeria, found by SIAC to wish to be accepted as a serious member of the international community, would be to point up in so stark a fashion the extent to which its domestic provisions lagged behind international norms.
Monitoring
[130]
At para 143 of Sing’s case the judge said:
‘I agree with [the applicants] that it is of no use if China’s failure to comply with the assurance against torture does not become public. For torture to become known, however, there would have to be some compliance and verification mechanisms in place. More specifically, there would have to be an effective monitoring system by independent organizations like the International Committee of the Red Cross.’
In BB’s case Algeria had not agreed to independent monitoring. It had however agreed to British Embassy officials maintaining contact with anyone returned who was not in detention, and with the next of kin of those who were detained. SIAC found at para 21 that those contacts, together with the continuing interest of organisations like Amnesty International, would mean that practical verification was feasible and would occur.
[131]
The appellant said that the refusal of the Algerian authorities to accept independent monitoring, when the United Kingdom had wished them to do so, was significant. That argument ignored the finding of SIAC at para 21 of BB, referring back to its findings at paras 335 and 336 of Y, that that diffidence was caused by the sensitivity of Algeria, as a recently post-colonial state, to any suggestion that it needed outside surveillance of its behaviour; and that the refusal of outside monitoring was not sinister so far as the interests of BB were concerned.
[132]
Whether the assurances can be properly policed is, again, an issue of fact and judgment, to be made in the circumstances of the particular country involved. SIAC thoroughly addressed the position with regard to Algeria in terms that cannot be challenged.
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Conclusion on SIAC’s findings of fact
[133]
We have gone into the criticisms of SIAC’s factual findings in some detail even though that inquiry does not fall within our jurisdiction. On any view, the criticisms fail.
[134]
We now turn to a series of different complaints made by the appellant.
Disclosure of information by the Secretary of State
[135]
The Secretary of State has adopted a practice of ‘exculpatory disclosure’: that is, he will make available to an applicant any material that might assist the applicant’s case or undermine the Secretary of State’s case. The appellant said that this approach was too narrow, It did not respect the ‘cards on the table’ principle in public law cases, as set out, for instance, by Donaldson MR in R v Lancashire CC, ex p Huddleston [1986] 2 All ER 941. It is not easy, as so stated, to see what the difference between the two formulations is supposed to be. However, on exploring the issue it emerged that what is complained of is that by limiting disclosure to matters relevant to the applicant’s ‘case’ the Secretary of State could avoid providing material that, although not relevant to a line of argument currently pursued by the applicant, might however suggest a different line of objection that it could be fruitful for him to pursue.
[136]
The short answer was given by Mr Tam. The applicant’s ‘case’ is always going to be that he is at risk of suffering art 3 persecution on return. If the Secretary of State is loyal to his undertaking he will have to disclose anything touching on that general issue, whether or not it affects an argument already put by the applicant.
[137]
A subsidiary part of this issue was a complaint that the Secretary of State had not disclosed to BB the report of the discussion as to the ambit of the Ordonnance that took place after SIAC had delivered judgment in Y. That would, at best, be an example of failure to respect the policy, rather than a demonstration that the policy itself was flawed. Mr Tam said that the document had not been disclosed to BB because it concerned detention for serious offences, which was not expected to occur in BB’s case. It is arguable that scrupulous caution might have led to the document’s disclosure, but we cannot think that the issue is at all significant, and certainly does not indicate that the policy itself was unreasonable, let alone unlawful. It was never suggested to us that BB’s case had been in any way damaged by his not having seen the document.
Prison conditions
[138]
Both BB and U raised as a ground of appeal the complaint that the prison conditions to which they would be subject if returned to Algeria gave rise to a real risk that their art 3 rights would be infringed. To avoid repetition we have dealt with this complaint in paras 169–173.
Article 6
[139]
Both BB and U contended that there were substantial grounds for believing that if returned and if charged with any offence, they would suffer a ‘flagrant denial of a fair trial’. Again, to avoid repetition we have dealt with this complaint in paras 175–188.
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Disposal of BB’s appeal
[140]
Although some suggestion was made in the grounds of appeal of lack of reasoning, viewed as a separate issue, that complaint was not seriously pursued. And on the issues of substance raised in the open proceedings, and addressed above, we would see no reason for criticising SIAC’s conclusions. However, for reasons set out in our closed judgment, and on the case as a whole, we are persuaded that the case should be remitted to SIAC for further consideration.
THE APPEAL OF U
Introduction
[141]
U is an Algerian national, born in 1963. In November 1994, he came to the United Kingdom, claiming that he had fled from ill-treatment in Algeria. His application for asylum was not determined until 27 June 2000, when it was refused. Meanwhile, in 1996, U travelled to Afghanistan where he remained until 1999; he then returned to the United Kingdom. He was arrested in February 2001. In May 2001, he was released and rearrested on immigration grounds. Subsequently, the United States of America sought his extradition but abandoned its request in August 2005. In the same month, the Secretary of State decided that U posed a risk to national security and that he should be deported because his presence in the United Kingdom was not conducive to the public good.
The appeal to SIAC
[142]
U appealed to SIAC against the decision to deport him but he did not challenge the Secretary of State’s decision that he posed a risk to national security. He argued only that return to Algeria would infringe his convention rights under arts 3, 5 and 6. If returned, there was a real risk that he would be subject to torture or inhuman and degrading treatment or punishment and, if put on trial, as was likely, the processes would not comply with arts 5 and 6.
[143]
The Secretary of State’s reasons for deciding that U posed a threat to national security were set out in some detail in SIAC’s open judgment. In summary, the Secretary of State considered that, while in the United Kingdom from 1996 until 2001, U was a leading organiser and facilitator of terrorist activity aimed mainly at overseas targets. He had formed and led a terrorist group. The United Kingdom government’s views about U’s activities in Afghanistan were conveyed to the Algerians through diplomatic channels in 2006. These were that U had held a senior position in a Mujahedin training camp. He had had direct links with Osama Bin Laden and other senior Al Qa’ida figures. He had been involved in supporting terrorists in the planned attack on the Strasbourg Christmas Market in 2000 and in an earlier plan to attack Los Angeles Airport. It was for that that the United States government had sought his extradition.
[144]
In its open judgment, dated 14 May 2007, SIAC concluded, on the balance of probabilities, that U had been involved in facilitating terrorist activity overseas. There was no evidence that, while detained in prison, he had in any way disavowed his former beliefs and associates. SIAC concluded that U was a significant risk to the United Kingdom’s national security.
[145]
As we have said, the issue on the appeal to SIAC was safety on return. Many of the issues which arose were similar to those which had arisen in the appeal of BB which had taken place in November 2006. U’s case was heard in two
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stages; on eight days between 13 and 21 February 2007 and also on 17 and 18 April 2007. New evidence relevant to the risk on return had become available which had not been available at BB’s hearing. Thus, although the issues in U’s appeal were essentially the same as in BB’s and much of the evidence was common to both, there was additional evidence in U’s case. There was, however, an important factual difference between the two cases. BB, although held to be a security risk, could not be regarded as an important figure in the terrorist world; by contrast, U was. SIAC accepted that, if returned to Algeria, U would be of interest to the authorities and was likely to be charged with offences related to terrorism.
[146]
In its open judgment, SIAC first considered the assurance that had been provided by the Algerian Ministry of Justice in respect of U in August 2006. It was:
‘Should the above-named person be arrested in order that his status may be assessed, he will enjoy the following rights, assurances and guarantees as provided by the Constitution and the national laws currently in force concerning human rights:
(a) The right to appear before a court so that the court may decide on the legality of his arrest or detention and the right to be informed of the charges against him and to be assisted by a lawyer of his choice and to have immediate contact with that lawyer;
(b) He may receive free legal aid;
(c) He may only be placed in custody by the competent judicial authorities;
(d) If he is the subject of criminal proceedings, he will be presumed to be innocent until his guilt has been legally established;
(e) The right to notify a relative of his arrest or detention;
(f) The right to be examined by a doctor;
(g) The right to appear before a court so that the court may decide on the legality of his arrest or detention;
(h) His human dignity will be respected under all circumstances.’
[147]
SIAC referred to previous decisions in which it had considered the reliability of assurances given by the Algerian state. These were in the appeals of Y, BB and also G. SIAC adopted the conclusions reached in those appeals without repeating them. In summary, at para 13, it said that Algeria was—
‘making a sincere, broadly-supported and generally successful attempt to transform itself from a war-torn authoritarian state to a normally functioning civil society; solemn diplomatic assurances given by the Algerian state to the British government about individual deportees are reliable and can be safely accepted.’
[148]
SIAC referred to the approach that should be taken in an individual case to the question of whether the assurance could be relied on; that had been set out in BB and we have referred to it at [128], above. The same approach would be adopted in the case of U. However, since the hearings in Y and BB, information had become available about the way in which the Algerians had treated four men who had withdrawn their appeals to SIAC and had been deported to Algeria in late January 2007. One of them, Q, had not had the advantage of any individual assurance. Two of them, K and P had had assurances similar to that given to U.
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One, H, had had a differently-worded assurance. SIAC considered that information as to the way in which these men had been treated could be used as a guide to what would happen to U if returned and the reliability of the assurance in U’s and other cases.
[149]
Although SIAC analysed the information about the deportees in some detail, there is no need for us to do so. Suffice it to say that K and P had each been arrested for a short period on return and had then been released. They had not been charged with any offences and there was no suggestion that they had been ill-treated. SIAC concluded that, because both had been suspected of terrorist offences, their detention had been lawful. In their cases, the assurances had been honoured.
[150]
Q and H had also been arrested, detained and questioned but, unlike K and P, they had later been charged with offences of membership of a terrorist group acting abroad. They were now in custody awaiting trial. In each case, there was conflicting evidence as to the way in which they had been treated, both while in detention before charge and also since they had been charged and detained in Serkadji Prison in Algiers. SIAC evaluated that evidence and concluded that there had been no breach of any relevant part of the individual assurance given in respect of H. Also, in respect of both men, it appeared that Algerian law had been complied with. The time limits for detention before charge had been respected. Both men had been permitted family visits and had instructed a lawyer. There had been no ill-treatment. Although there was evidence that the men had been held incommunicado for some days before charge, SIAC was not prepared to hold that this had breached Algerian law. Detention incommunicado was permitted under Algerian law to ‘secure the secrecy of the investigation’. There was no evidence to show that the actions of the authorities had not been justified in these cases. SIAC dismissed as implausible a claim that H had heard the screams of a woman being ‘stretched’ in an adjacent cell.
[151]
Finally, SIAC considered reports that, while in detention, both Q and H had reported hearing the sounds of ill-treatment of others. It was suggested that they were being exposed to these sounds deliberately, in order to frighten them and weaken their moral resistance to interrogation. SIAC accepted that the deliberate exposure of a prisoner to sounds of ill-treatment with the intention of frightening him and weakening his moral resolve was capable of amounting to treatment infringing art 3. However, it held, on the balance of probabilities, that Q and H had not been deliberately exposed to the sounds of ill-treatment of others with the intention of weakening their resolve but it could not rule out the possibility that the men had heard such sounds.
[152]
SIAC also considered the effect of the news of bomb outrages which had occurred in Algiers on 11 April 2007. The offices of the Prime Minister and Minister of the Interior had been attacked, as had a police station. Thirty-three people had been killed and many injured. Responsibility for the attacks had been claimed by Al Qa’ida of the Islamic Mahgreb (formerly the Salafist Group for Preaching and Combat (GSPC)). SIAC observed that, so far as was known, the reaction of the Algerian authorities had not been to make mass arrests of known opponents of the state; nor had they reacted in any other way typical of a lawless authoritarian state. SIAC concluded that the occurrence of these attacks would mean that anyone connected with the GSPC (such as U) would be of interest to the authorities. It was contended on U’s behalf that these occurrences would
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increase the risk that U might be tortured by the DRS. But SIAC held that the fact that these outrages had occurred would not mean that there was a real risk that the DRS would subject U to torture or ill-treatment.
[153]
SIAC referred briefly to the communication arrangements (described in greater detail in SIAC’s open decision in Y), which the British government had put in place so as to permit returnees who were at liberty and the relatives of those who were in detention to speak to Embassy officials about their concerns. It observed that it appeared that the British government had taken sufficient active steps to ensure that the assurances given by the Algerians were fulfilled.
[154]
At [37], SIAC concluded that, although it could not wholly exclude the possibility that the assurances given in U’s case would not be breached or that he would be subjected to ill-treatment which would infringe art 3, it considered that that was no more than a ‘mere possibility’. There were no substantial grounds for believing that there was a real risk that such things would happen in the case of U.
[155]
SIAC then considered two further submissions: first that prison conditions in Algeria amounted to inhuman and degrading treatment and second that the legal system in Algeria could not provide U with a fair trial in accordance with art 6. They rejected both and concluded that, overall, there were no substantial grounds for believing that, if U were returned, the United Kingdom government would be in breach of the convention obligations.
The appeal to this court
[156]
Permission to appeal was granted in six of the eleven grounds originally advanced. Before this court, five grounds for which permission had been granted were pursued and a renewed application for permission was made in two more. Some of U’s grounds were also argued in BB’s appeal and have already been dealt with earlier in this judgment.
Karanakaran
[157]
The first ground of appeal relevant only to U’s appeal relates to SIAC’s approach to its assessment of the facts when deciding whether there were substantial reasons to believe that there was a real risk of torture on return. SIAC accepted (at para 30) that it was bound, with (it said) one qualification, to approach this assessment as directed by this court in the context of an asylum case in Karanakaran v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2000] 3 All ER 449. SIAC had in mind the passage (at 468):
‘(1) There may be circumstances in which a decision-maker must take into account the possibility that alleged past events occurred even though it finds that these events probably did not occur. The reason for this is that the ultimate question is whether the applicant [in an asylum case] has a real substantial basis for his fear of future persecution. The decision-maker must not foreclose reasonable speculation about the chances of the future hypothetical event occurring.’
Also, the passage (at 469):
‘In the present public law context, where this country’s compliance with an international convention is in issue, the decision-maker is . . . not constrained by the rules of evidence that have been adopted in civil litigation,
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and is bound to take into account all material considerations when making its assessment about the future.
This approach does not entail the decision-maker . . . purporting to find “proved” facts, whether past or present, about which it is not satisfied on the balance of probabilities. What it does mean, on the other hand, is that it must not exclude any matters from its consideration when it is assessing the future unless it feels that it can safely discard them because it has no real doubt that they did not in fact occur . . .’
[158]
SIAC considered that it was entitled to apply a qualification to that guidance. Article 3 cases were different from refugee cases and it was not bound to follow the rule, applicable in a refugee case, that the decision-maker must not exclude any matters from its consideration unless it feels that it can safely discard them because it has no real doubt that they did not in fact occur. It then cited the Strasbourg case of Shamayev v Georgia App no 36378/02 (12 April 2005, unreported) at para 352 where it had been held that the ‘mere possibility of ill-treatment . . . is not in itself sufficient to give rise to a breach of art 3’. SIAC continued:
‘We do not regard ourselves as bound by Karanakaran’s case to take into account matters which give rise to a mere possibility of risk even if we cannot say that, without doubt, they did not occur.’
[159]
Mr Drabble submitted that this approach was wrong in law. The approach in an art 3 case should be the same as in a refugee case. The process was similar and both types of case entailed the need to comply with international law. To support that proposition he relied on a starred but unreported determination of the IAT in Kajac v Secretary of State for the Home Dept (21 May 2001, unreported). This approach, he submitted, had never been challenged. Moreover, the House of Lords had acknowledged the close relationship between art 3 and the Refugee Convention in R (on the application of Bagdanavicius) v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2005] UKHL 38 at [30], [2005] 4 All ER 263at [30], [2005] 2 AC 668.
[160]
Mr Tam did not agree with this submission; he argued that there were differences between an asylum case and a case under art 3. However, his main argument was that, whatever qualification SIAC said it had applied, it had in fact applied Karanakaran’s case correctly and had taken into account all the relevant factors, including its conclusion that Q and H might possibly have heard the sounds of others being ill-treated.
[161]
Mr Drabble submitted that this was not so. Moreover, his complaint was not limited to SIAC’s supposed failure to take into account the risk that U might be exposed to the sounds of ill-treatment. He produced a list of risk factors which he submitted SIAC should have taken into account but had not.
[162]
We would accept that the correct approach to the application of the Chahal test is that described in Karanakaran’s case. The decision-maker should take a holistic approach; it should take account of all the relevant evidence and risk factors, giving to each matter such weight as it warrants, bearing in mind its importance in the context of the case and the extent to which it has been satisfactorily proved. It will be proper to exclude from consideration those matters which it can safely discard because it has no real doubt that they did not occur. The decision-maker should also take account of the absence of satisfactory information relating to matters of importance. If no evidence or information can
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be discovered on a matter of importance, its absence will be relevant to the assessment of future risk.
[163]
On the face of it, it appears that, by saying that it would exclude from consideration those factors which amounted to no more than a mere possibility, SIAC might have misunderstood the effect of the decision in Shamayev’s case. That case is authority for the proposition that a mere possibility that the returnee might be subject to torture or inhuman or degrading treatment is not sufficient to justify a refusal to return. There must be more; there must be substantial grounds for believing that there is a real risk of such treatment. However, we do not think that SIAC did misunderstand Shamayev’s case. It is clear at para 37 that its conclusion was that, although there was a possibility that U might be treated in such a way as to infringe his art 3 rights, that was not enough; there were no substantial grounds for believing that there was a real risk that U would be treated in that way. That was the correct approach. It also appears to us that, although SIAC said that it was going to exclude from consideration the possibility that H and Q had heard the sounds of ill-treatment, it did in fact have that factor in mind when reaching its conclusion. It plainly did not think that that factor amounted to anything of significance. That being so, we are satisfied that SIAC did in fact adopt the approach required by Karanakaran’s case.
[164]
As for Mr Drabble’s list of risk factors, which he submits should have been taken into account, it appears to us that, although the judgment does not set out a list of factors, each of these matters had in fact been considered and taken into account. We are quite satisfied that, at least so far as the open evidence was concerned, SIAC considered all relevant matters and applied the Chahal test as required by Karanakaran’s case. The first ground of appeal fails.
Shamayev’s case
[165]
Mr Drabble’s second submission was that SIAC had misunderstood the effect of Shamayev’s case in another respect. He submitted that Shamayev’s case demonstrates that the extradition (or, by analogy, return following deportation) of a person to a state where there is a history of torture can amount to a violation of art 3 if (a) there has been at least one previous extradition to that country and (b) the fate of the person extradited is not sufficiently clear because the receiving state will not permit information to be gathered.
[166]
We can deal with this point very briefly as it is quite without merit. Shamayev’s case is not authority for the proposition claimed. In declaring that Shamayev’s extradition to Russia would infringe his art 3 rights, the Strasbourg court took into account the fact that conditions for detainees in Russia were very bad and that little was known about the fate of others who had been returned there some time earlier. As we have already said, the absence of information about conditions in a country will often be relevant to the decision on risk on return. However, as SIAC observed at para 31, the propositions advanced on behalf of U sought to set up findings of fact about an assessment of risk in an individual case as a proposition of law. In our view, that is right. We entirely accept that lack of information about conditions within a country to which a person might be returned will be relevant to the assessment of risk on return. However, in U’s case, SIAC had taken account of the fact that there were some matters on which information was incomplete. It did not misunderstand Shamayev’s case and this ground of appeal fails.
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Verification of compliance with assurances
[167]
The third ground related to SIAC’s finding at para 37 that the arrangements for the verification of the Algerian assurances were adequate. The arguments advanced were the same as those advanced in the appeal of BB. We rejected them there and do so again for the same reasons.
The language of the assurances
[168]
The contention here was the same as had been raised in the appeal of BB, namely that the language of the assurance in U’s case was inadequate. It was couched in terms of compliance with Algerian law rather than international obligations and it failed to provide a specific guarantee that U would not be tortured; it referred only to respect for his human dignity. We have already dealt with this argument in our judgment in BB’s appeal. We rejected it there and reject it here for the same reasons.
Prison conditions
[169]
Both BB and U raised as a ground of appeal their complaint that the prison conditions to which they would be subject if returned to Algeria gave rise to a real risk that their art 3 rights would be infringed. In neither case was permission to appeal granted. The arguments were advanced to us as renewed applications. The argument was advanced by Mr Drabble and adopted by Mr Rabinder Singh.
[170]
The argument had been advanced to SIAC on the basis of evidence received about the conditions in which Q and H had been detained. It was reported that H’s beard had been shaved off by the prison authorities and he was very distressed about it. Q was said to be in a very small cell which he had to share with two others; it was dirty and there were shared toilet facilities. In addition, there was some evidence that, at Serkadji Prison, Q was sharing a dormitory cell with 25 others and was forced to take sleeping medication. One of the men had described conditions as ‘hell’ and had complained that he was only allowed to exercise for ten minutes a day.
[171]
SIAC at para 38 approached the question of prison conditions by reference to the decision of this court in Batayav v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2003] EWCA Civ 1489, [2003] All ER (D) 60 (Nov). SIAC summarised the position thus:
‘To establish that there are substantial grounds for believing that a deportee would face a real risk of treatment infringing art 3 by reason of prison conditions in the receiving state, the risk can be established either by evidence specific to the appellant’s own circumstances or by reference to evidence applicable to a class of which he is a member. In the latter case, he will only succeed if he can point to a consistent pattern of gross and systematic violation of rights under art 3.’
[172]
SIAC then considered the evidence before it. This came in part from the Algerian government, which acknowledged that conditions in Serkadji Jail were not ideal. It had been built in the nineteenth century and was being gradually upgraded to bring it up to modern standards. Exercise periods varied between one and five hours. There were qualified prison officers and medical staff. The prison was subject to inspection by non-governmental organisations. SIAC also considered evidence that the prison had last been visited by the International
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Committee of the Red Cross on 26 February 2007. The latest United States Department of State Country Report dated March 2007 noted that prison conditions in Algeria generally were ‘difficult’ but ‘improving’. Overcrowding was a problem in some prisons and the quality of medical care was uneven. However, independent human rights observers reported that conditions in prisons generally had improved.
[173]
SIAC concluded that, on the basis of this evidence, it could not sensibly be claimed that there was a consistent pattern of gross and systematic violation of art 3 rights in respect of prison conditions. Counsel for BB and U did not suggest that this conclusion was not open to SIAC on the evidence. Instead they submitted that SIAC should have judged the position by reference to the available evidence relating to Q and H. The problem with that submission is that, at para 40, SIAC did so and concluded that the conditions reported in respect of Q and H were nothing like as serious as those reported in cases such as Shamayev’s case or Kalashnikov v Russia (2003) 36 EHRR 34 or Peers v Greece (2001) 10 BHRC 364. Conditions did not approach those found in cases in which an art 3 infringement had been found. In so far as there was any shortage of evidence about the conditions in which Q and H were being detained, that was not the fault of the British government. In any event, it could not be assumed that, if returned, U would be detained in the same conditions as Q and H. SIAC concluded that there were no substantial grounds for believing that there was a real risk that the conditions U would be detained in might infringe his art 3 rights. On the evidence, it was, in our view, entitled so to conclude. There was no misdirection of law. This ground of appeal is without merit and we refuse permission to appeal. In so far as BB sought to advance the same or similar arguments, it is without merit in his case too.
Separate consideration of the risk of torture and bad prison conditions
[174]
It was contended on behalf of U that SIAC had erred by applying the Chahal test separately first to the risk of torture on return and then to the risk of exposure to inhuman and degrading prison conditions. This was not the right approach to a possible breach of art 3. Both matters should have been considered together as it was the cumulative risk that mattered. We agree that it does appear that SIAC considered these matters separately and we also agree that the correct approach is to consider the cumulative effect of the evidence. The Chahal test is whether there are substantial reasons for believing that there is a real risk of torture or inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment—all taken together. Strictly speaking, we accept that, in this case, SIAC should have considered the evidence about the risk of active, deliberate, ill-treatment aimed at U as an individual (including the possibility of his exposure to the sounds of the suffering of others) at the same time as the evidence of the risk of ill-treatment arising from prison conditions to which all Algerian prisoners are exposed by the system and also the evidence relating to Q and H. However, we do not think that, given the findings SIAC made on the separate issues, the result could have been any different if the risks had been considered cumulatively. We reject this ground.
Article 6
[175]
Both U and BB contended that there were substantial grounds for believing that if returned and if charged with any offence, they would suffer a ‘flagrant denial of a fair trial’. As we have said, the position of the two appellants
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was rather different in that SIAC held that it was unlikely that BB would be of interest to the Algerian authorities and he was therefore unlikely to be charged. However, in U’s case, it held (at para 44) that U would be of interest and would probably be charged with an offence of membership of a terrorist organisation. He would then face a prolonged period in custody awaiting trial.
[176]
Before examining the evidence, SIAC considered the appropriate test for a decision on whether a person should not be returned because of the risk that there would not be a fair trial. It cited at para 45 a passage from Soering v UK (1989) 11 EHRR 439 at 479 (para 113):
‘The right to a fair trial in criminal proceedings, as embodied in Article 6, holds a prominent place in a democratic society. The Court does not exclude that an issue might exceptionally be raised under Article 6 by an extradition decision in circumstances where the fugitive has suffered or risks suffering a flagrant denial of a fair trial in the requesting country . . .’
[177]
However, SIAC considered that these words did not go so far as to say that in the event that such a risk arises, return is prohibited. It then cited (at para 494) Mamatkulov v Turkey (2005) 18 BHRC 203 at 229 (para 90), as being the nearest that the Strasburg court had come to laying down a test:
‘The court considers that, like the risk of treatment proscribed by art 2 and/or art 3, the risk of a flagrant denial of justice in the country of destination must primarily be assessed by reference to the facts which the contracting state knew or should have known when it extradited the persons concerned.’
[178]
In our view, that passage implies, although it does not expressly state, that return will be prohibited where there is a risk of a flagrant denial of justice. SIAC then referred to R (on the application of Ullah) v Special Adjudicator, Do v Secretary of State for the Home Dept [2004] UKHL 26 at [24], [2004] 3 All ER 785at [24], [2004] 2 AC 323, where Lord Bingham said:
‘While the Strasbourg jurisprudence does not preclude reliance on articles other than art 3 as a ground for resisting extradition or expulsion, it makes it quite clear that successful reliance demands presentation of a very strong case . . . Where reliance is placed on art 6 it must be shown that a person has suffered or risks suffering a flagrant denial of a fair trial in the receiving state . . .’
[179]
Lord Steyn said (at [44]):
‘. . . It can be regarded as settled law that where there is a real risk of a flagrant denial of justice in the country to which an individual is to be deported art 6 may be engaged.’
[180]
SIAC observed that, from those statements of the law, it was not clear how art 6 is to be engaged or what the consequences of engagement are. However, in seeking to define the test that should be applied, it drew assistance from Soering v UK where the court said (at 466 (para 86)):
‘. . . the Convention does not govern the actions of States not Parties to it, nor does it purport to be a means of requiring the Contracting State to impose Convention standards on other States. Article 1 cannot be read
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as justifying a general principle to the effect that, notwithstanding its extradition obligations, a Contracting State may not surrender an individual unless satisfied that the conditions awaiting him in the country of destination are in full accord with each of the safeguards of the Convention.’
[181]
After this consideration of authority, SIAC concluded that there was no coherent definable test. All it could do was to examine the Algerian procedures so as to determine whether U would, if tried, be subjected to a process which in its judgment would amount to a flagrant denial of justice. It has not been submitted to us that this approach was wrong.
[182]
SIAC then carefully examined the evidence available to it about the Algerian system of criminal justice. It did so in particular in the light of four grounds of concern raised by U’s counsel. These were that U would be detained for a lengthy period before trial; he would not be permitted access to a lawyer during the first 12 days of detention; the court of trial would not be independent or impartial and the evidence used against him might be tainted, as for example by being obtained by torture.
[183]
SIAC held that the conditions of detention during the first 12 days, although not art 6 compliant, could not, of themselves, be described as a flagrant denial of justice. It also considered that detention before trial for the maximum available period (which SIAC thought could be as much as 60 months) would not of itself amount to a flagrant denial of justice. Detention before trial was subject to judicial control. However, it accepted that both these factors must be taken into account in an overall assessment.
[184]
SIAC considered evidence relating to the independence and impartiality of the judiciary in considerable detail and at some length. Its conclusion was that the Algerian judiciary is both formally and effectively independent of the executive but that not all its members have yet developed the robust independence of mind which is the norm in countries where the rule of law is long established. It also observed that the concerns of Amnesty International have been mainly aimed at the reluctance of the judges to inquire into allegations of torture. SIAC noted that there was a credible report that, despite criticism of the attitudes of the Algerian courts, they do regularly acquit defendants in terrorist and national security cases. SIAC’s conclusion was that there was no real risk of a flagrant denial of justice by reason of the lack of independence of the judges.
[185]
Finally, SIAC considered whether there was a danger that U might be convicted on evidence obtained by torture. It recognised the possibility that tainted evidence might be used. It identified in particular evidence from a man named Meguerba (in respect of whom there was some credible evidence that he had been tortured), who had made a written statement about U. However, SIAC considered that this evidence was of very limited effect. Further, if Meguerba (or indeed any other witness) had anything important to say about U’s activities, he would have to give oral evidence in the presence of the parties and could then be questioned about whether he had been tortured. There was no risk of a flagrant denial of justice. SIAC also considered the possibility that other potential sources of tainted evidence might be used against U but regarded the possibility as fanciful.
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[186]
SIAC drew together all the strands of evidence about the criminal justice system in Algeria and said that it was unpersuaded that the shortcomings it had identified would create a real risk that U would be subjected to a flagrantly unfair trial.
[187]
Before us, it was submitted that SIAC’s finding in respect of the independence of the judiciary was not open to it in the light of the evidence that the President had said March 2006 that the justice system was ‘still dysfunctional’. It was submitted that this showed that Algeria could not provide an impartial and independent judiciary and was the clearest evidence of a flagrant breach of art 6. However, SIAC had specifically considered the President’s remarks and had attempted to put them into the context of his speech. This was to the effect that judges must be above corruption and not swayed by the military or politicians. Change would not occur overnight but ‘the choice made by the state was irrevocable’. What SIAC made of this speech was essentially a question of fact. In our view, it was open to SIAC to hold, as it did that, with some exceptions, the judiciary was both formally and effectively independent of the executive.
[188]
Second, it was submitted that SIAC’s finding that there was only a remote possibility that tainted evidence would have any bearing on U’s trial was not open to it. It was said that SIAC did not know what evidence would be used at U’s trial. We see the force of that. However, SIAC considered the rules by which evidence is admitted and while recognising that it was possible that a statement obtained by torture might be received in evidence, concluded that any such statement would have little bearing on the outcome of the trial. Any important evidence had to be presented orally and was open to challenge. In our view, this conclusion was open to SIAC on the evidence before it. Accordingly, we would refuse permission in respect of this ground. As BB adopted U’s submissions and as there is, on SIAC’s findings, little prospect that BB will ever face trial in Algeria, we refuse permission in his case too.
Disposal of U’s appeal
[189]
So far as the open evidence is concerned, we consider SIAC’s overall conclusion to be justified (on the facts found), namely that, in deporting U, the United Kingdom will not be in breach of its convention obligations. However, having also considered the closed evidence and the arguments addressed to us by the special advocates, we cannot express the same degree of confidence. We cannot, of course, explain in any detail why we have reached that view. All we can say is that we have been shown closed evidence which is capable of undermining SIAC’s overall conclusion. We do not say that this evidence does in fact undermine its conclusion, only that it is capable of doing so. We do not consider that SIAC has dealt adequately, in its closed judgment, with some of the salient points raised by the special advocates. SIAC has not adequately explained why it concluded that the closed evidence did not undermine the conclusion it had reached in its open judgment. Accordingly, the appeal must be allowed and U’s case must be remitted to SIAC for it to reconsider the closed evidence and the effect, if any, it has upon the conclusion in its open judgment.
CONCLUSIONS
[190]
We summarise our conclusions as follows. (i) A number of points of principle were taken to the effect that SIAC had made inappropriate use
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of closed material. We have concluded that none of those points of principle is sound: see [6]–[23], above. (ii) Y did not challenge SIAC’s conclusion that he is a danger to national security. His challenge was to the conclusion that there is no real risk of his being ill-treated contrary to art 3 of the convention if he is returned to Algeria. SIAC’s conclusion was that Y would be entitled to rely upon art 9 of the Ordonnance. In our view, the process which led SIAC to reach that conclusion was not fair to him: see our conclusion at [70], above and reasoning at [24]–[69], above. The correct course is to remit Y’s case to SIAC in order to consider the Secretary of State’s alternative case that it would in any event be safe to send him back to Algeria. SIAC did not give detailed consideration to that question in Y’s case: see [71]–[75], above. We have rejected Y’s challenge to SIAC’s decision that he has lost his refugee status by reason of art 1F(c) of the Refugee Convention: see [77]–[90], above. (iii) At [92]–[113], above we consider the jurisdiction of this court in relation to appeals from SIAC on questions of law and distinguish them from questions of fact. (iv) As to BB, we have rejected his appeal against SIAC’s decision that he is a danger to national security in a closed judgment given today, although we have remitted the matter to SIAC on a point of form: see [115], above. As to his case that SIAC erred in law in concluding that there were no substantial grounds for concluding that, if returned to Algeria, he would face a real risk of treatment contrary to arts 3 or 6 of the convention, we have concluded, on the basis of the open material, that SIAC made no such error of law: see [116]–[139], above. However, for reasons set out in our closed judgment, and on the case as a whole, we are persuaded that the case should be remitted to SIAC for further consideration: see [140], above. (v) In the case of U, he did not challenge the Secretary of State’s decision that he was a threat to national security: see [142]–[144], above. The issue before SIAC was whether there were substantial grounds for concluding that, if returned to Algeria, he would face a real risk of treatment contrary to arts 3, 5 or 6 of the convention. SIAC held that there were not. U challenged that decision. We consider that, so far as the open evidence is concerned, SIAC’s overall conclusion is justified (on the facts found), namely that, in deporting U, the United Kingdom will not be in breach of its convention obligations. However, having also considered the closed evidence and the arguments addressed to us by the special advocates, we cannot express the same degree of confidence. We have been shown closed evidence which is capable of undermining SIAC’s overall conclusion. We do not say that this evidence does in fact undermine its conclusion, only that it is capable of doing so. We do not consider that SIAC has dealt adequately, in its closed judgment, with some of the salient points raised by the special advocates. SIAC has not adequately explained why it concluded that the closed evidence did not undermine the conclusion it had reached in its open judgment. Accordingly, we allow U’s appeal and remit his case to SIAC for it to reconsider the closed evidence and the effect, if any, it has upon the conclusion in its open judgment: see [189], above.
[191]
In the result, each of these cases must be remitted to SIAC for further consideration. This raises the question how that consideration will be carried out. That is of course a matter for SIAC but we wish to make it clear that we are not remitting each case to the same constitution of SIAC that heard each before. For understandable reasons each constitution was different. However, each of the cases raises questions which relate to the assurances given by the
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Algerian government to the United Kingdom government with regard to people returned to Algeria. In these circumstances, it seems to us to be desirable, if at all possible, for the cases now to be considered together (or perhaps one after the other) by the same constitution.
[192]
Finally, we have received applications for bail on behalf of Y and BB. Given that these cases are to be remitted to SIAC, we have reached the preliminary conclusion that the appropriate course would be for such applications to be made to SIAC and not to this court.
Orders accordingly.
Kate O’Hanlon Barrister.
R v Kelly
[2008] 2 All ER 840
[2008] EWCA Crim 137
Categories: LEISURE AND LICENSING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CRIMINAL DIVISION
Lord(s): THOMAS LJ, WYN WILLIAMS J AND JUDGE RICHARD BROWN SITTING AS A JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
Hearing Date(s): 20 NOVEMBER 2007, 8 FEBRUARY 2008
Gaming – Game of chance – Game of chance and skill combined – Variant of poker requiring considerable skill – Whether game where skill predominating over chance a ‘game of chance’ – Gaming Act 1968, s 52(1).
The defendant had no licence under Pt I of the Gaming Act 1968. He was charged under that Act with an offence of organising gaming in which a levy was made and organising gaming where a fee was charged to participate. At trial he accepted that he had organised games of poker of a particular kind, that a charge had been made to players for participating and that a levy had been made on the winnings. However, he contended that playing of that particular kind of poker was not a ‘game of chance’ within s 52(1)a of the 1968 Act and so was not gaming, which was defined as ‘the playing of a game of chance for winnings in money or money’s worth’. Section 52(1) defined ‘game of chance’ as ‘a game of chance does not include any athletic game or sport but . . . includes a game of chance and skill combined and a pretended game of chance or of chance and skill combined.’ It was common ground that the successful playing of that kind of poker required considerable skill. Expert evidence was given that it required more skill than any other game of poker, that some types of poker required more skill than bridge and that skill was more significant than chance. The judge heard argument as to the directions to be given to the jury. During argument reference was made to cases decided under legislation prior to the Betting and Gaming Act 1960, which Act had been consolidated into the 1968 Act. The defendant contended that the test as to whether that kind of poker was a game of chance depended on whether skill predominated over chance; and that, as the game was predominantly a game of skill, it was not a game of chance. The judge rejected that submission. In his summing up, the judge said that as a matter of law ‘a game of chance and skill combined’ meant exactly what it said and that it was irrelevant as to whether chance predominated over skill or whether skill predominated over chance: ‘[w]hat matters is that there must be a significant or meaningful element of chance, as opposed to an element which is simply token, notional or a scintilla.’ He directed the jury that it was common ground that the successful playing of the poker variant required considerable skill and that it followed that the issue was whether the game also included a significant element of chance. The defendant was convicted. On appeal he submitted that Parliament had radically altered the law by the enactment of the 1960 Act and that it was no longer relevant to examine cases which predated the 1960 Act. Rather, he submitted that on the true construction of the 1968 Act, the judge should have directed the jury that a game where skill predominated over chance was not a ‘game of chance’ within s 52 of the 1968 Act.
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Held – (1) The effect of the significant change in the applicable law and the statutory definition of a ‘game of chance’ meant that it was no longer necessary or helpful to refer to case law from before the change in the regime (see [8], [9], below).
(2) Although the meaning of ‘a game of chance’ set out in s 52(1) of the 1968 Act was not by its terms an exhaustive definition, that had not been intended by Parliament to enable a more restrictive definition to be given. Parliament could have adopted a test of preponderance, but it had not, and there was no reason to write into the 1968 Act a further restriction or qualification which Parliament could easily have included but which it had not. In the instant case the judge’s direction might have been more favourable to the defendant than a strict application of the statutory test indicated. He had directed the jury that there had to be a significant or meaningful element of chance, as opposed to a token or notional element. However, as Parliament had provided that games of combined skill and chance were to be treated as games of chance without any qualification, then the only circumstance where chance should not be taken to make a game of skill and chance a game of chance was where the element of chance was such that it should on ordinary principles be ignored, namely where it was so insignificant as not to matter. Accordingly, there had been no misdirection in the summing up in the instant case. The appeal would therefore be dismissed (see [11], [12], below).
Notes
For gaming, see 4(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2002 reissue) para 3.
The Gaming Act 1968 was repealed by the Gambling Act 2005, s 356(3)(g), (4), Sch 17, as from 1 September 2007.
Cases referred to in judgment
Allen, Re (1962) 377 P 2d 280, Sup Ct Cal.
Armstrong v DPP [1965] 2 All ER 745, [1965] AC 1262, [1965] 3 WLR 344, HL.
Case of Monopolies (1602) 11 Co Rep 87, sub nom Darcy v Allin (1602) Moore KB 671, 72 ER 829.
Dalton v Adelphi Club Ltd [1938] 4 All ER 556.
Jenks v Turpin (1884) 13 QBD 505, [1881–5] All ER Rep Ext 1400, DC.
Joker Club LLC v Hardin (2007) 643 SE 2d 626, Ct of Apps (NC).
Pessers, Moody, Wraith and Gurr Ltd v Catt (1913) 77 JP 429.
R v Tompson, R v Poteliachow, R v Harrison [1943] 2 All ER 130, [1943] 1 KB 650, CCA.
Ross v R (1968) 70 DLR (2d) 606, Can SC.
Sherbon v Colebach (1691) 2 Vent 175, 86 ER 377.
State v Gupton (1848) 30 NC 271, NC Sup Ct.
State v Stroupe (1953) 76 SE 2d 313, NC Sup Ct.
Stubbs v Dick (1949) 89 NE 2d 480, Ct of CP (Ohio).
Appeal
Derek Kelly appealed with leave of the single judge from his conviction on 16 January 2007 after a trial before Judge Wilkinson and a jury in the Crown Court at Snaresbrook of an offence of organising gaming in which a levy was made and organising gaming where a fee was charged to participate contrary to s 8 of the Gaming Act 1968. The facts are set out in the judgment of the court.
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Jan Luba QC and Zeeshan Dhar (assigned by the Registrar of Criminal Appeals) for the appellant.
Michael Brompton QC and Dennis Barry (instructed by the Crown Prosecution Service) for the Crown.
Judgment was reserved.
8 February 2008. The following judgment of the court was delivered.
THOMAS LJ.
THE ISSUE
[1]
In 1960, Parliament by enacting the Betting and Gaming Act 1960 made significant changes to many centuries of legislation in respect of betting and gaming. The Act repealed many old Acts of Parliament, gave a new definition to ‘gaming’ and established a licensing regime for those who provided premises for gaming. Those and other provisions were consolidated into the Gaming Act 1968. Section 52(1) of that Act (substantially re-enacting s 28 of the 1960 Act) defined ‘gaming’, subject to provisions that are immaterial, as ‘the playing of a game of chance for winnings in money or money’s worth’ and a ‘game of chance’ as:
‘“game of chance” does not include any athletic game or sport, but, with that exception, and subject to subsection (6) of this section, includes a game of chance and skill combined and a pretended game of chance or of chance and skill combined.’
Subsection (6) provided:
‘In determining for the purposes of this Act whether a game, which is played otherwise than against one or more other players, is a game of chance and skill combined, the possibility of superlative skill eliminating the element of chance shall be disregarded.’
[2]
Sections 3 and 4 of the 1968 Act prohibited levying a charge in respect of gaming or a charge on stakes or winnings, unless the premises were licensed; s 8 provided that if gaming took place contrary to the prohibitions, an offence was committed. The issue on this appeal is whether the judge correctly directed the jury in respect of the statutory definitions of a game of chance in circumstances where the appellant organised a specific type of poker game at unlicensed premises.
[3]
There has been no decision which can be found on the meaning of the provision defining a game of chance since the change in the law over 40 years ago. It is not clear why this is the position. It has proved very difficult to ascertain whether there have been many prosecutions, as no records were kept where there was an acquittal and convictions were deleted after a given period of time. We are grateful to counsel for the Crown for ascertaining in these difficult circumstances that since the change in the law in 1960, it can now only be established that the first recorded conviction was in 1998 and thereafter there have been a few convictions each year. The report of a Joint Committee of the Lords and Commons published in April 2004 (HL Paper 63-I, HC Paper 139-I) recorded that the Gaming Board and the police acknowledged difficulties in tackling illegal gaming due to a lack of police expertise and police time.
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[4]
In 2005 Parliament amended the provisions again by the Gambling Act 2005; a game of chance in s 6 of that Act is defined:
‘(2) In this Act “game of chance”—(a) includes—(i) a game that involves both an element of chance and an element of skill, (ii) a game that involves an element of chance that can be eliminated by superlative skill, and (iii) a game that is presented as involving an element of chance, but (b) does not include a sport.’
Subsection (6) gives the Secretary of State a power by regulation to provide that a specified activity carried on in specified circumstances is or is not to be treated as a game, a game of chance or a sport. It is not necessary to refer to these provisions any further as no contention was advanced that the provisions are relevant to the construction of the 1968 Act.
THE FACTS
[5]
The circumstances in which the issue now arises for decision can be briefly described.
(i) In March 2004, the appellant opened the Gutshot Club in Clerkenwell Road, Islington, London where he organised a variant of poker called ‘Texas Hold ‘Em Poker’ (TH poker); he charged players for participation and made a levy on the winnings. The participants in TH poker were largely enthusiasts for the game and the evidence before the courts was that all the profits in the card room were ploughed back into the club for the benefit of the members. The appellant had no licence which would have been needed under Pt I of the 1968 Act if gaming had been organised at the club in these circumstances. He contended that he was not engaged in organising gaming as TH poker was not the playing of a game of chance within the meaning of the 1968 Act. Following a complaint from the Gaming Board, police made covert visits to the club in December 2004 and January 2005.
(ii) The appellant was charged under s 8 with an offence of organising gaming in which a levy was made in December 2004 and organising gaming where a fee was charged to participate in January 2005. He was tried before Judge Wilkinson and a jury at Snaresbrook Crown Court in January 2007. The appellant accepted that he had organised the game of TH poker, a charge had been made to players for participating in the game and a levy had been made on the winnings; in the circumstance, if the prosecution proved that playing TH poker was gaming, then he accepted the offences had been committed. The sole issue was therefore whether TH poker was a game of chance.
(iii) It was common ground that the successful playing of TH poker required considerable skill. The appellant called expert evidence from Professor Kelly and Nick Szeremeta. No expert evidence was called by the prosecution.
(iv) It was the evidence of Professor Kelly that TH poker was a game of chance and skill. It required more skill than any other game of poker. Even though the first two cards drawn by each player were completely at random and subsequent cards also drawn at random, the element of skill was predominant. For example, each player might get to know five-sevenths of the hand of each other player when the final card was drawn; meaningful predictions could then be made by the skilled player. He did not commit to a ratio of skill to chance; research work had shown that the ratio was 70:30 of skill to chance. He accepted that a 30 per cent chance was not insignificant.
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(v) Mr Szeremeta gave evidence that some types of poker required more skill than bridge; skill was more significant than chance. He gave detailed evidence about the mathematical calculations necessary to explain the odds and the strategies employed.
(vi) On 16 January 2007, the judge heard argument as to the directions to be given to the jury. The appellant contended (on the basis which we will set out) that the test as to whether TH poker was a game of chance depended on whether skill predominated over chance; as TH poker was predominantly a game of skill, it was not a game of chance within the meaning of s 52(1). The judge in a short ruling rejected that submission and held that no gloss was required on the definition in the 1968 Act, though he accepted the prosecution submission that the prosecution had to prove that there must be a significant element of chance, though not necessarily a predominant one, as most games contained some elements of chance even to an infinitesimal extent.
(vii) The judge then summed up the law on what constituted a game of chance to the jury on the basis of his ruling:
‘Now, the 1968 Act provides that the expression “game of chance” includes a game of chance and skill combined. As a matter of law I direct you that that means exactly what it says. As a matter of law it is irrelevant as to whether chance predominates over skill, or whether skill predominates over chance. What matters is that there must be a significant or meaningful element of chance, as opposed to an element which is simply token, notional or a scintilla. If Parliament had intended the test to be dependent on whether chance or skill predominated it would have said so. The issue, therefore, that you have to decide in this case is a narrow one and I shall return to that issue in a moment.’
He then added:
‘It is common ground in this case that the successful playing of [TH poker] requires considerable skill. The issue, therefore is this, does the game also include a significant element of chance?’
(viii) The appellant was convicted on 16 January 2007. He was subsequently conditionally discharged for two years and ordered to pay £10,000 towards the prosecution costs.
(ix) He appeals against his conviction to this court by leave of the single judge.
[6]
The contention elegantly and succinctly advanced by Mr Luba QC on behalf of the appellant was that Parliament had radically altered the law in 1960, that it was no longer relevant to examine the old cases and that on the true construction of the 1968 Act, the judge should have directed the jury that a game where skill predominated over chance was not a game of chance within s 52(1) of the 1968 Act.
THE HISTORICAL POSITION
[7]
Mr Luba QC’s argument was founded on a succinct, clear and very helpful historical analysis of the development of the law. This can be summarised as follows.
(i) At common law, the playing of any game of chance, including dice and card games, was not unlawful: see Case of Monopolies (1602) 11 Co Rep 87, sub nom Darcy v Allin (1602) Moore KB 671; Sherbon v Colebach (1691) 2 Vent 175, 86 ER 377. However, the keeping of a common gaming house was punishable at
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common law as a nuisance: Hawkins A Treatise of the Pleas of the Crown (1716) Book 1, Ch 75, section 6 made clear that:
‘all common Gaming Houses are nuisances in the Eye of the Law; not only because they are great Temptations to Idleness, but also because they are apt to draw together great Numbers of disorderly Persons, which cannot but be very inconvenient to the Neighbourhood.’
Thus if dice and cards were played in a common gaming house as part of its business, the gaming would be unlawful, even though the games themselves were not (see Jenks v Turpin (1884) 13 QBD 505 at 513, [1881–5] All ER Rep Ext 1400 at 1407). That apart, a person was not punishable at common law in respect of gaming (see (1884) 13 QBD 505 at 517, [1881–5] All ER Rep Ext 1400 at 1409–1410).
(ii) The prohibitions on games of chance and games of skill were all statutory. From an early time, Parliament had placed restrictions on playing games of chance. In 1541, by the Unlawful Games Act (33 Hen 8 c 9), Parliament had prohibited certain games at certain locations at certain times. Various enactments changed the law over the centuries; some restricted the circumstances in which games might be played; others prohibited certain games. The Gaming Act 1845 made significant changes; it legalised all games of skill, but preserved all the penalties which attached to the playing of unlawful games anywhere, or gaming at all (even of lawful games) in common gaming houses. It made specific provision for proof of what amounted to a common gaming house:
‘in default of other evidence proving any house or place to be a common gaming house, it shall be sufficient, in support of the allegation in any indictment or information that any house or place is a common gaming house, to prove that such house or place is kept or used for playing therein at any unlawful game, and that a bank is kept there by one or more of the players exclusively of the others, or that the chances of any game played therein are not alike favourable to all the players, including among the players the banker or other person by whom the game is managed, or against whom the other players stake, play, or bet; and every such house or place shall be deemed a common gaming house . . .’
In 1854 by the Gaming Houses Act it was made an offence by s 4 to use any premises for unlawful gaming.
(iii) In Jenks v Turpin, the Divisional Court considered a case stated on the issue as to whether a person who ran a club where baccarat was played and entrance fees charged was keeping premises for unlawful gaming contrary to s 4 of the Gaming Houses Act 1854. The court decided that the premises were kept for unlawful gaming if the place where the activity occurred was a common gaming house or if the game was illegal; on the facts the club was a common gaming house and baccarat was an illegal game.
(iv) In reaching the conclusion that baccarat was an unlawful game Hawkins J considered ((1884) 13 QBD 505 at 523, [1881–5] All ER Rep Ext 1400 at 1413) that unlawful games could be divided in two classes:
‘first, those which are absolutely forbidden by name, and to the gaming at which a penalty is attached. This class includes ace of hearts, pharaoh (or faro), basset, and hazard . . .’
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He then listed those specifically prohibited, including certain games of pure skill. He then turned to consider the second class:
‘The second class comprises a number of games not altogether prohibited under penal consequences, nor declared to be altogether illegal, but which nevertheless have been styled “unlawful” by the legislature, because the keeping of houses for playing them and the playing them therein by anybody were rendered illegal.’
After referring to the change in the law made by the 1845 Act, he continued:
‘Since that statute the only games made unlawful by 33 Hen. 8, c. 9, are games of dice or cards, whether such games were known at the time of the passing of that statute or have been since invented. All such games, if they are games of chance, or games of chance and skill combined (which cannot be called games of mere skill), are in my opinion clearly within the meaning of the words unlawful games in [the Gaming Houses Act 1854] 17 & 18 Vict. c. 38. The language of the 1st section of [the Gaming Act 1845] 8 & 9 Vict. c. 109, in referring to 33 Hen. 8, c. 9 [the 1541 Act], and repealing only so much of it as applies to games of skill, is a strong indication of the intention of the legislature that all the other games mentioned in the statute of Hen. 8 were to continue to be treated as unlawful in the sense in and to the extent to which they were made unlawful by that statute, viz. unlawful if played in a house kept for playing at them.
The unlawful games, then, now are,—ace of hearts, pharaoh, basset, hazard, passage, roulet, every game of dice except backgammon, and every game of cards which is not a game of mere skill; and, I incline to add, any other game of mere chance.’
He then concluded that baccarat was a game of chance; although experience and judgment made one player more successful, it could not be described as a game of mere skill. It was therefore unlawful.
(v) The test set out by Hawkins J was consistently followed in a series of cases in the years down to 1960; it is only necessary to refer to three: (a) In Pessers, Moody, Wraith and Gurr Ltd v Catt (1913) 77 JP 429, suppliers of a machine through which a game was played sued the defendant who had rented it for royalty payments. The defence was that the machine could not be used as the game was a game of chance and not a game of skill and therefore unlawful. All the judges who considered the issue Eve J (on a motion for an interlocutory injunction), Scrutton J (at first instance), Vaughan Williams LJ, Farwell LJ and Kennedy LJ (in the Court of Appeal) considered that there was more than a scintilla of skill and it was a game of skill; Kennedy LJ gave the fullest reasons (at 430):
‘It seems to me that in this case there is what I may call a governing element of skill in the use of the cup which can, wherever the ball falls, skilfully used, catch that ball. Of course the degree of skill, and therefore the success, will depend to some extent upon practice, and with practice to a person with a good eye who is using the moveable bar to which the cup is attached, it would be perfectly possible, I should imagine, if he were a skilful person, to catch it every time. Therefore the test as to success or failure seems to me in this case to be one of skill and not of chance. That is the dominant element, and, being so, I think the judgment which has been
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pronounced below, and is in accordance with that of EVE, J., was right, and that this appeal should be dismissed.’
(b) In Dalton v Adelphi Club Ltd [1938] 4 All ER 556, the club which organised games of stud poker on their premises were prosecuted under the 1854 Act. The metropolitan stipendiary magistrate found it was a game of skill. The Divisional Court presided over by Lord Hewart CJ held that it was not a game of mere skill; whatever degree of skill an experienced player might acquire, the game of stud poker as described in the case stated was always a game of chance; it could not be described as a game of mere skill.
(c) In R v Tompson, R v Poteliachow, R v Harrison [1943] 2 All ER 130, [1943] 1 KB 650, the defendants who ran a bridge and poker club on the Finchley Road in London were indicted under the 1854 Act at the County of London Sessions. Expert evidence was called to show that the way poker was played at the club was a game where skill predominated over chance. The chairman ruled that the question as to whether poker as carried on at the club was an unlawful game was a question for him and he held it was, as it was not a game of mere skill. The Court of Appeal presided over by Viscount Caldecote CJ held he was wrong; the court said ([1943] 2 All ER 130 at 132–133, [1943] 1 KB 650 at 656):
‘The question whether or not a game is one of mere skill is, in our opinion, a question of fact, indeed, in the present case, by allowing witnesses to be called as to the amount of skill required to succeed at the game of poker the chairman treated it as a question of fact although the evidence of these witnesses was directed to show that in the game of poker as played on these premises skill was the dominant factor and not that the game was one of mere skill in the sense of skill alone. Therefore, except in a case where the game in question is one that is made illegal by statute we think that before a judge can rule that a card game is unlawful a question of fact has to be decided by a jury, namely, is the game one of mere skill or not.’
The court considered that the correct question for the jury, when dealing with a game of cards, was: ‘Is this a game of skill, ie, a game in which the element of chance is so slight as to render the game one which can properly be said to be a game of mere skill.’
(vi) The court pointed out that the cases dealing with machines were different; since 1913, when Kennedy LJ formulated the test set out above—
‘the courts, in automatic machine cases, have taken as a test, not whether the game is one of mere skill, but whether or not the proportion of skill to chance is such as to establish that skill is the dominant or governing factor in the game. That test has never been applied to games of cards, and in our opinion rightly so, because as was pointed out in Turpin’s case by Hawkins J, there is a distinction between card games which by statute are unlawful unless they are games of mere skill, and such games as those played with automatic machines which are not unlawful unless they are games of mere chance and become mere instruments of gaming.
It appears, therefore, that in the present case, the chairman applied the right test, namely, is this game a game of mere skill.’
[8]
Mr Luba submitted that the change in the law effected by the 1960 Act had the consequence that it was no longer appropriate to rely on the older cases to which he had referred us. The 1960 Act effected a fundamental change, as the
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short summary which we have set out demonstrates; the Act rendered gaming lawful on the conditions set out in the Act and repealed the old statutes. The complexity of the old law with different tests applicable to cards and automatic machines was no longer relevant. The test as to gaming and a game of chance was set out in the Act and it was for the jury to determine whether on the facts the game was a game of chance as defined in the Act.
[9]
We agree with that submission. As Parliament had made a significant change of the applicable law and provided a statutory definition of a game of chance, it is, in our view, no longer necessary or helpful to refer to the old cases. In the present case, reference was made to R v Tompson before the judge; we can quite understand why, in the absence of any authority on the post-1960 regime, it was done. However, Mr Luba QC was correct in saying that it was wrong to do so.
THE APPROACH TO THE CONSTRUCTION OF THE 1968 ACT
[10]
In relation to the definition in the 1968 Act to which the judge should have sole regard, Mr Luba QC submitted that it was clear that the definition in the Act could not be applied literally; construed properly, he contended that it was clear that a game which was predominantly a game of skill was not a game of chance within the statutory definition.
(i) First, he relied on an observation in Armstrong v DPP [1965] 2 All ER 745, [1965] AC 1262. The defendant in that case ran a postal bingo club; he was prosecuted for running a lottery contrary to the Betting and Lotteries Act 1934. It was admitted that there was a lottery, but it was contended that the defendant could rely on a provision of the Gaming Act 1960 which provided that nothing in the 1934 Act made unlawful any gaming conducted in such a way that no offence was committed under the relevant part of the 1960 Act; in connection with that issue a question of law arose as to the element of participation required to constitute ‘playing a game’ of chance within the meaning of s 52(1) of the 1960 Act. Lord Pearson (who gave the only substantive speech) considered that on the facts there was no participation by those who played bingo as could reasonably be said to constitute the playing of a game. He observed ([1965] 2 All ER 745 at 747, [1965] AC 1262 at 1280) that the Act contained only the partial definition of a game of chance. Mr Luba QC relied on this very short observation for the submission that it was necessary to provide a fuller definition of the game of chance than that provided in the Act. We do not think that this provides any real assistance as the particular observation was directed at what was meant by ‘playing’ a game of chance and not whether a particular game constituted a game of chance—see the argument of counsel for the appellant at [1965] AC 1262 at 1276.
(ii) Mr Luba QC next submitted that the primary object of the definition was to ensure that any game of chance which included an element of skill was nonetheless to be treated as a game of chance. There was, however, nothing to suggest that Parliament intended games which were predominantly games of skill to be considered games of chance. Indeed as every game included an element of chance, construction of the 1968 Act which led to the inclusion within the definition of ‘games of chance’ games such as chess and scrabble would be absurd; it could not therefore be right, as suggested in 4(1) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn) (2002 reissue) para 3 that only games of pure skill where there is no element of chance, are excluded from the definition.
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(iii) In support of this submission Mr Luba QC referred us to a number of cases decided in the United States of America where the courts had considered what was meant by a ‘game of chance’. A considerable number of decisions, from courts in Massachusetts, Ohio, North Carolina, California and Alaska were put before us in a bundle of authorities; specific reliance was placed on the summaries of the law by Judge Dull in Stubbs v Dick (1949) 89 NE 2d 480 (Court of Common Pleas of Mercer County Ohio), by the Supreme Court of North Carolina in State v Stroupe (1953) 76 SE 2d 313 and by the Supreme Court of California in Re Allen (1962) 377 P 2d 280. In those cases the courts referred to well-established rules:
‘. . . the universal acceptation of “a game of chance” is such a game, as is determined entirely or in part by lot or mere luck, and in which judgment, practice, skill, or adroitness have honestly no office at all, or are thwarted by chance.’ (See State v Gupton (1848) 30 NC 271 at 273–274.)
‘. . . the real test is whether chance is the determining element in the outcome of the game and not whether the game contains elements of chance or skill . . . If chance is the determining element in the outcome of the game, then it is a game of chance.’ (See (1953) 76 SE 2d 313 at 315.)
‘. . . most courts have reasoned that there are few games, if any, which consist purely of chance or skill, and that therefore a game of chance is one in which the element of chance predominates over the element of skill, and a game of skill is one in which the element of skill predominates over the element of chance.’ (See (1953) 76 SE 2d 313 at 316.)
‘The test is not whether the game contains an element of chance or an element of skill but which of them is the dominating factor in determining the result of the game.’ (See (1962) 377 P 2d 280 at 281.)
In North Carolina, on this basis, games of skill included chess, draughts, billiards, bowls and quoits; games where dice regulated the play were games of chance. More recently in Joker Club LLC v Hardin (2007) 643 SE 2d 626 it had been held in the North Carolina Court of Appeals that poker was a game of chance applying the predominance test; that was because although skill was required, the instrumentality for victory was not entirely in the player’s hands and thus chance prevailed over skill. We understand that the case is on appeal to the Supreme Court of North Carolina. In California, it has been held on this basis that bridge is a game of skill.
(iv) Mr Luba also relied on the minority judgment in the decision of the Supreme Court of Canada in Ross v R (1968) 70 DLR (2d) 606. The Supreme Court had to consider whether the game of contract bridge fell within a statutory provision which stated ‘“game” means a game of chance or mixed chance and skill’ (see 608). The majority judgment (delivered by Pigeon J) held (at 617) that the provision in question was clear: ‘The word “mixed” implies no indication of the respective proportions of the two elements. Nothing shows that they must be equal or nearly so. Nothing indicates which is to be preponderant.’ Spence J in the minority disagreed (at 613):
‘once the cards had been dealt then in the progress of the play all element of chance disappears and any chance thereafter can only result from the deal. In these circumstances, therefore, I believe that it must be taken as established that in the game of bridge the only chance involved is the chance
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in the dealing of the cards and that certainly the element of skill predominates in the playing of the game.’
Spence J considered that the purpose of the provision was to ensure that games of chance were to include games where, although the predominating element was chance, there was a degree of skill. He concluded (at 616):
‘I am none the less of the opinion that in the game of bridge, where the element of skill far outweighs any element of chance and where in fact the element of chance is a mere coincidental preliminary, it should not be considered as being within the words of the statute “a game of mixed chance and skill”.’
(v) The judge had not therefore applied the test in the 1968 Act, but had based his summing up on the old law; he should have directed the jury that a game in which skill predominated over chance, was not a game of chance. There had been a misdirection.
[11]
Although, for the reasons we have given we agree with Mr Luba that it was not appropriate to have regard to the old law and that the issue is one of construction of the provisions of the 1968 Act, we consider that the judge directed the jury correctly on the 1968 Act.
(i) The meaning of a game of chance set out in s 52(1) of the 1968 Act is not by its terms an exhaustive definition, as the word ‘include’ is used. However, it does not seem to us that this was intended by Parliament to enable a more restrictive definition to be given. It is clear that Parliament could have adopted a test of preponderance; it did not and we see no reason to write into the Act a further restriction or qualification which Parliament could easily have included but which it did not.
(ii) In our view, the definition in the Act is in simple terms and needed little elaboration; it was a question of fact for the jury to determine whether on the statutory definition TH poker was a game of chance.
(iii) It may be in some cases the definition would need some elaboration. If a prosecution was brought where the element of chance was insignificant or de minimis, then it would be necessary to spell out that that element of chance should be ignored in determining whether the game is a game of chance. For example, if chance was to be used to determine which player had the right to start a game, but the game was otherwise a game of skill, then that element should be regarded as insignificant or de minimis and therefore should be ignored.
(iv) In his direction to the jury the judge may have gone further than this in favour of the appellant. He directed the jury that there must be a significant or meaningful element of chance as opposed to an element which was simply token, notional or a scintilla. In our view, as Parliament has provided that games of combined skill and chance are to be treated as games of chance without any qualification, then the only circumstance where chance should not be taken to make a game of skill and chance a game of chance is where the element of chance is such that it should on ordinary principles be ignored—that is to say where it is so insignificant as not to matter. Parliament did not provide that in a game of mixed skill and chance that the element of chance had to be significant for the game to be a game of chance; there is no reason for the courts to do so.
(v) It seems to us that the element of absurdity to which so much weight was attached on behalf of the appellant is properly catered for by ignoring chance where the element of chance is so insignificant as not to matter.
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(vi) We have reached this conclusion on the basis of our interpretation of s 52(1) of the 1968 Act. It was common ground that s 52(6) was directed at the operation of games played against ‘the bank’ such as in casinos or where gaming machines are used, as it refers to games ‘played otherwise than against one or more other players’. It was argued on behalf of the appellant that, as Parliament had considered it necessary to refer to ‘superlative skill eliminating the element of chance’ in relation to games played against ‘the bank’, Parliament had envisaged courts would, in determining whether a game of combined skill and chance was a game of chance, have regard to the predominance of the elements of skill and chance. We do not consider that this in any way follows; on the contrary, on the definition of a game of chance as set out in the 1968 Act, if there was no element of chance (as that had been eliminated by superlative skill), it would not be a game of chance and skill combined. The subsection was therefore directed at bringing within the definition games against the bank where (if such exist) skill had eliminated any element of chance.
(vii) Argument was also directed to the question of whether assistance as to the statutory definition of a game of chance could be derived from s 40(2) which provided an exemption from s 3 in certain circumstances in respect of miners’ welfare institutes or clubs. It was contended by the Crown that the exemption was directed in part at bridge clubs and, if the test was one of predominance of chance over skill, then that provision would have been unnecessary. We do not think that this subsection really assists either way.
(viii) We were grateful to Mr Luba for referring us to the United States and Canadian authorities. We do not think that any real help can be derived from the United States authorities where the concept of predominance has become embedded. Although the definition of game in the Canadian statute under consideration was exhaustive, the approach of the majority of the Supreme Court of Canada in Ross v R to the construction of the Canadian legislation is very much the approach we have adopted in relation to the United Kingdom legislation; for the reasons that are evident from this judgment, we were not persuaded by the views of Spence J.
[12]
There was in our view therefore no misdirection in the summing up. The jury were on the evidence plainly entitled to conclude that the game of TH poker was a game of chance as defined by the 1968 Act. The appeal must be dismissed.
Appeal dismissed.
Vanessa Higgins Barrister.
White v Herefordshire Council
[2008] 2 All ER 852
[2007] EWCA Civ 1204
Categories: TOWN AND COUNTRY PLANNING
Court: COURT OF APPEAL, CIVIL DIVISION
Lord(s): LATHAM, DYSON AND JACOB LJJ
Hearing Date(s): 12, 21 NOVEMBER 2007
Town and country planning – Purchase notice – Validity – Owner serving successive purchase notices – Planning authority serving response notice to final purchase notice – Whether initial purchase notices valid – Whether statute limiting owner to one notice at a time – Whether statute permitting amendment of purchase notice by implication – Effect of service of concurrent purchase notices – Town and Country Planning Act 1990, ss 137, 139.
The claimant made a planning application to the defendant local planning authority to re-use a derelict dwelling for residential purposes. Permission was refused on 6 September 2002. His appeal against refusal was dismissed on 10 June 2003. Section 137a of the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 provided that where planning permission to develop land had been refused and the land had become incapable of reasonably beneficial use in its existing state the owner could, within 12 months from the decision, serve a purchase notice requiring the planning authority to purchase his interest in the land. Under s 139b the authority had to serve a response notice within three months. The claimant served a purchase notice (notice A) on 28 March 2003. On 6 May, without waiting for any substantive reply, he served notice B under cover of a letter stating that he had noticed typographical errors including the wrong address for the land to be purchased. On 18 June, apparently unaware of notice B, the authority wrote to the claimant stating that notice A was invalid, referring to the matters which had been corrected in notice B. On 21 June the claimant sent notice C to the authority, writing, ‘please find enclosed my Purchase Notice’. Notice C was in the same terms as notice B; the only difference between the two documents was that the amendments which had been made in manuscript in notice B were incorporated in a clean copy text. In July the authority wrote to the claimant in connection with the claimant’s ownership of the land. On 3 September the claimant served notice D which attached a plan and referred to it. On 1 December the claimant wrote to the authority. He accepted that notice A had been invalid on the grounds of the wrong address but he noted that the authority had not said that notices B or C were invalid and that he had received no response to those notices. On 3 December the authority gave a response notice under s 139 of the 1990 Act in response to notice D. It opposed confirmation of the notice on the ground that the land was capable of reasonably beneficial use in its existing state. Under the 1990 Act procedure it referred notice D to the Secretary of State who after an inquiry decided in November 2004 that purchase notice D should not be confirmed. In April 2005 the claimant submitted a claim to the Lands Tribunal for compensation on the basis of deemed confirmation of notices A, B and C under s 143(2)c of the 1990 Act which provided that if, before the end
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of the relevant period, the Secretary of State had neither confirmed a purchase notice, or taken certain other action in respect of it, or notified the owner that he did not propose to confirm the notice, the notice was deemed to be confirmed at the end of the relevant period. The question of whether the tribunal had jurisdiction was tried as a preliminary issue. The judge concluded that he had jurisdiction to determine the compensation payable in respect of purchase notice A, as amended by the subsequent notices. He ruled that the 1990 Act did not limit a claimant to one notice at a time; and that there was no reason why a notice could not be amended after service, provided that the effect of the amendment was not such as to change the nature of the claim. The judge rejected the authority’s submission that, by serving successive notices, the claimant had impliedly withdrawn the earlier notices. He ruled that there had been a deemed confirmation of notice A under s 143(2). The authority appealed.
Held – (1) There was no right to amend a purchase notice under the 1990 Act. The Act made no express provision for amending a notice and no right to amend arose by necessary implication. The statutory provisions worked without the need to give the owner the right to amend the notice. If an owner were able to amend his purchase notice, a question would arise as to whether the amendment had taken effect from the date of the amendment or whether it related back to the date of the original notice. It would have been for Parliament to decide which. It was not clear what kind of amendment an owner would be able to make. Permitting any amendment unless the effect would be to change the nature of the claim was not a test which could be derived from the language of the statute and its application would give rise to undesirable uncertainty. There would also be the question of whether the planning authority should also have the right to amend its response notice, which it was most unlikely that Parliament would have intended (see [27], [43], [44], below).
(2) The 1990 Act did not restrict an owner from serving more than one purchase notice. Whether, by the service of a second purchase notice, an owner impliedly withdrew a previous purchase depended on the circumstances in which, and the terms on which, he served the second notice. Whether there had been implied withdrawal had to be determined objectively on the basis of what the owner said and did, not on the basis of what he had thought. In the instant case each of the notices served after notice A purported to be a fresh notice and each differed from its predecessor. The claimant had said nothing to indicate that he was reserving his rights in relation to notice A or any of the notices he had purported to amend. Viewed objectively, each notice requested the planning authority to deal with that notice so that previous notices could be ignored. It followed that the only extant notice was notice D. The appeal would therefore be allowed (see [33]–[35], [42]–[44], below).
Per curiam. There is no deemed confirmation or rejection of a purchase notice if a planning authority fails to comply with the requirement to send the notice to the Secretary of State within the time limit but the duty to respond would be enforceable by application for judicial review (see [38]–[40], [43], [44], below).
Notes
For service of purchase notices; in general, and for duties of authorities on service of purchase notices, see 46(2) Halsbury’s Laws (4th edn reissue) paras 966–968, 970–974.
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For the Town and Country Planning Act 1990, ss 137, 139, 143, see 46 Halsbury’s Statutes (4th edn) (2004 reissue) 482, 486, 491.
Case referred to in judgments
Walker (Inspector of Taxes) v Centaur Clothes Group Ltd [2000] 2 All ER 589, [2000] 1 WLR 799, HL.
Appeal
The defendant, Herefordshire Council, appealed from the decision of Judge Gilbart QC in the Lands Tribunal deciding, in the trial of a preliminary issue, that the tribunal had jurisdiction to determine the compensation payable in respect of a purchase notice under the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 served by the claimant, Richard White, on the council on 28 March 2003 amended by subsequent notices served on 6 May and 21 June 2003. The facts are set out in the judgment of Dyson LJ.
Martin Kingston QC and David Park (instructed by Alan McLaughlin, Herefordshire) for the council.
Robert Fookes (instructed by Coulson Read Lewis, Herefordshire) for the claimant.
Judgment was reserved.
21 November 2007. The following judgments were delivered.
DYSON LJ
(delivering the first judgment at the invitation of Latham LJ).
[1]
This is an appeal against the decision of Judge Gilbart QC sitting in the Lands Tribunal whereby he decided that the Lands Tribunal had jurisdiction to determine the compensation payable in respect of the purchase notice served by the claimant on Herefordshire Council (the council) on 28 March 2003, ‘amended’ (as the judge held it was) by subsequent notices served on 6 May, 21 June and 3 September 2003. It is convenient to refer to these four notices (as they have been throughout the proceedings) as notices A, B, C and D respectively. The issue of jurisdiction was tried as a preliminary issue.
[2]
The council is the local planning authority (LPA) in respect of land at 83 Tower Hill, Upper Dormington, near Hereford (the land). The four notices were purportedly served pursuant to s 137 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1990. In each notice, the claimant contended that, by virtue of a refusal of planning permission on 6 September 2002, the land was incapable of reasonably beneficial use in its existing state and could not be rendered so by the carrying out of any permitted development. The claimant contended that, by virtue of s 143(2) of the 1990 Act, notices A, B and C were deemed to have been confirmed by 28 December 2003, 6 February and 21 March 2004 respectively.
[3]
Notice D was the subject of a response notice by the council on 2 December 2003. It was sent to the First Secretary of State (FSS) under s 139(4) of the 1990 Act. By letter dated 24 February 2004, the FSS indicated that he would not confirm the purchase notice. Following an inquiry by his inspector, the FSS decided by letter dated 10 November 2004 that he would not confirm the notice on the grounds that the land was reasonably capable of beneficial use in its existing state.
[4]
It is the council’s case that notice D replaced the earlier notices and is the only extant notice. On that footing, there is no confirmed purchase notice and the claimant has no claim to compensation in respect of notices A, B or C. The
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judge held that notice A was a valid notice which was amended by notice B. Even if notice B did not take effect as an amendment of notice A, it was valid when it was served. Notice C was a valid notice and it amended notice A. Even if notice C did not take effect as an amendment of notice A, it was valid when served. In short, notices A, B and C were valid notices. The judge also concluded that both notices had been the subject of deemed confirmation before 24 February 2004, thereby giving rise to a right to compensation. It is the claimant’s case that the judge reached the right conclusion on all issues.
[5]
This appeal raises questions as to the effect of the service of sequential purchase notices and the meaning of the deemed confirmation provisions of s 143(2) of the 1990 Act.
THE STATUTORY MATERIAL
[6]
Section 137(2) of the 1990 Act provides that, where an application for planning permission to develop land has been refused and the land has become incapable of reasonably beneficial use in its existing state, the owner—
‘may, within the prescribed time and in the prescribed manner, serve on the [LPA] . . . “a [purchase] notice” . . . requiring [the LPA] to purchase his interest in the land in accordance with this Chapter.’
The ‘prescribed time’ is 12 months from the decision of the LPA or the Secretary of State: reg 12 of the Town and Country Planning General Regulations 1992, SI 1992/1492.
[7]
Section 139 of the 1990 Act provides:
‘(1) The council on whom a purchase notice is served shall serve on the owner by whom the purchase notice was served a notice (a “response notice”) stating either—(a) that the council are willing to comply with the purchase notice; or (b) that another local authority or statutory undertakers specified in the response notice have agreed to comply with it in their place; or (c) that for reasons so specified the council are not willing to comply with the purchase notice and have not found any other local authority or statutory undertakers who will agree to comply with it in their place, and that they have sent the Secretary of State a copy of the purchase notice and of the response notice.
(2) A response notice must be served before the end of the period of three months beginning with the date of service of the purchase notice . . .
(4) Where the council propose to serve such a response notice as is mentioned in subsection (1)(c), they must first send the Secretary of State a copy—(a) of the proposed response notice, and (b) of the purchase notice . . .’
[8]
Section 143 of the 1990 Act provides:
‘(2) If, before the end of the relevant period, the Secretary of State has neither—(a) confirmed the purchase notice, nor (b) taken any such action in respect of it as is mentioned in section 141(2) or (3), nor (c) notified the owner by whom the notice was served that he does not propose to confirm the notice,
the notice shall be deemed to be confirmed at the end of that period, and the council on whom the notice was served shall be deemed to be authorised as mentioned in subsection (1) and to have served a notice to treat in respect of the owner’s interest at the end of that period.
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(3) . . . for the purposes of subsection (2) the relevant period is—(a) the period of nine months beginning with the date of service of the purchase notice; or (b) if it ends earlier, the period of six months beginning with the date on which a copy of the purchase notice was sent to the Secretary of State . . .
(5) Where—(a) the Secretary of State has notified the owner by whom a purchase notice has been served of a decision on his part to confirm, or not to confirm, the notice; and (b) that decision is quashed under Part XII,
the purchase notice shall be treated as cancelled, but the owner may serve a further notice in its place . . .
(8) A notice to treat which is deemed to have been served by virtue of subsection . . . (2) may not be withdrawn under section 31 of the Land Compensation Act 1961.’
THE FACTS
[9]
The claimant made a planning application to the council to re-use a derelict dwelling on the land for residential purposes. Permission was refused on 6 September 2002. His appeal against refusal was dismissed on 10 June 2003.
[10]
Notice A was served on 28 March 2003. The notice was in these terms:
‘To the Chief Executive and Clerk of Herefordshire Council with reference to land at 85 Tower Hill, Upper Dormington, Hereford subject of a planning decision, reference CE2002/1943/F by Herefordshire Council dated 6 September 2002, refusing planning permission or granting planning permission subject to conditions.
I serve notice, under section 180 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1971, on the Herefordshire Council and I claim that:
a) the land has become incapable of reasonably beneficial use in its existing state, and
b) it cannot be rendered capable of reasonably beneficial use by the carrying out of any other development for which permission has been granted or is deemed to be granted, or for which the local planning authority or the Secretary of State have undertaken to grant permission; and
I hereby require the Council to purchase my interest in the said land, namely 83 Tower Hill Upper Dormington, Hereford.
I confirm the area of land concerned with 83 Tower Hill is the exact curtilage, as shown on the plan with the planning application.
Full name and address of owner: Richard White, Chandos Farm, Rushall, Ledbury, Herefordshire HR8 2PA’
[11]
Without waiting for a substantive reply from the council, the claimant served notice B on 6 May. He did this under cover of an accompanying letter stating: ‘I enclose a further copy of the Purchase Notice, as I noticed that there was a typographical error in the previous notice.’ Notice B amended notice A in three respects. First, the address of the property had been corrected from 85 to 83 Tower Hill; secondly, the notice was said to be served under s 137 of the 1990 Act, instead of the repealed s 180 of the Town and Country Planning Act 1971; and thirdly, the word ‘freehold’ was inserted before the phrase ‘interest in the said land’. The second and third changes were made in manuscript. The council said that they did not receive notice B. But the judge found (para 22 of his judgment) that the notice and its accompanying letter were received by the council. There is no challenge to this finding.
Page 857 of [2008] 2 All ER 852
[12]
On 18 June, apparently unaware of notice B, the council’s senior litigator, Mike Jones, wrote to the claimant stating that notice A was invalid because (i) the preamble referred to No 85 Tower Hill, whereas the planning decision reference and the last two paragraphs of the notice referred to No 83; (ii) the notice was based on the wrong statutory provision (‘you should refer to the appropriate sections of the current Act’); and (iii) the notice did not identify the interest in the land which the claimant wished the council to purchase. The letter concluded: ‘upon receipt of a valid notice the Council will then be able to respond appropriately.’
[13]
In response to this letter, on 21 June the claimant wrote to the council saying: ‘please find enclosed my Purchase Notice.’ The sentence continued with the words ‘amended in accordance with your instructions’, but these words had been deleted in manuscript by the claimant before he sent the letter. The notice enclosed with this letter (notice C) was in the same terms as notice B. The only difference between the two documents was that the amendments which had appeared in manuscript in notice B were now incorporated in a clean copy text. Notice C was not in substance an amendment to notice B at all.
[14]
On 18 July 2003, Mr Jones wrote to the claimant saying that he had been through ‘the criteria covering the validity of such a notice’. The only remaining point related to the claimant’s ownership of the land. He noted that the plan attached to the planning decision ‘asserted ownership not only of the site itself, but also of the track leading to it.’ The letter continued:
‘You have previously advised my planning colleagues that there has been litigation dealing with the track and there has been no determination as to ownership. I attach a copy of the relevant certificate.
I am anxious to move this aspect of the matter on so my colleagues and I can deal with our Response Notice. Please understand that our willingness to assist in putting your Notice in order in no way implies what form our Response Notice will take.
I advise that either you submit a revised plan dealing with the site around No.83 only and let me have sight of your deeds confirming your ownership of same or that you provide title to the track as well. It would be necessary for you to amend the preamble of your latest Notice accordingly. It follows on from the above that I will not determine on the validity of your Purchase Notice at this time. I urge you to respond within 14 days to enable this matter to proceed. I will need to make a decision as to the Notice’s validity after this. I must draw your attention to the deadline of 6th September 2003 which is twelve months from the date of refusal of your permission.
I look forward to hearing from you.’
[15]
Following a meeting between the claimant and Mr Jones in August (in which Mr Jones explained to the claimant how he should correct notice C), on 3 September the claimant served notice D. The only differences between notice D and notice C were that the words ‘as attached’ were added after ‘the plan with the planning application’ in the penultimate paragraph; the words ‘Plan attached 2nd September 2003’ were added at the bottom of the document; and the plan was attached. Although notice D bore the date 21 June 2003, it is not in dispute that it was served on 3 September.
[16]
On 1 December, the claimant wrote to Mr Jones. He accepted that notice A was invalid on the grounds that it had given the wrong address for the
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land to be purchased. He also noted that the council had not said that notices B or C were invalid and that he had received no response to those notices.
[17]
On 3 December, the council gave their response notice under s 139(1) of the 1990 Act in response to notice D. They stated that they opposed confirmation of the notice on the grounds that the land was capable of reasonably beneficial use in its existing state. The council referred notice D to the FSS. On 24 February 2004, the FSS stated that he proposed not to confirm the purchase notice. Thereafter, the claimant exercised his right to have the matter heard by an inspector. An inquiry was duly held. On 7 September 2004, the inspector reported by letter to the FSS and recommended that the notice should not be confirmed. On 10 November 2004 the FSS accepted that recommendation and gave his decision accordingly.
[18]
On 20 April 2005, the claimant submitted a claim to the Lands Tribunal for compensation on the basis of deemed confirmation of notices A, B and C. As I have said, the question of jurisdiction was ordered to be determined as a preliminary issue.
THE JUDGMENT
[19]
The judge stated two important propositions of law. First, the 1990 Act does not limit a claimant to one notice at a time (para 56). Secondly, there is no reason why a notice cannot be amended after service, provided that the effect of the amendment is not such as to change the nature of the claim: it is for the LPA to determine whether it will permit the amendment (para 57).
[20]
Notice A was valid despite the error in relation to the numbering of the property. ‘When one reads the notice as a whole, and looks at the accompanying plan and the relevant planning decision reference, there can be no real doubt that it referred to No 83’ (para 63).
[21]
Notice A was amended by notice B. The amendment was intended to correct the error of description in notice A. The mistaken reference to s 180 of the 1971 Act instead of s 137 of the 1990 Act did not render the notice invalid. Any competent local authority officer would have gone straight to Circular 13/83 and/or the Encyclopaedia of Planning Law and Practice and known that s 180 was re-enacted as s 137 (para 61). Notice B was, therefore, valid.
[22]
Notice C was also a valid notice. It too amended notice A. The points taken by the council in the letter of 18 July 2003 did not go to its validity (para 60). Even if it did not take effect as an amendment of notice A, it was a valid notice.
[23]
As for notice D, the attaching of a plan to this notice did not change the claimant’s case. The 1990 Act does not require the submission of a plan with a notice. On any reasonable basis, notice D was not a new notice but an amended version of notice C. It was only served because the council had raised the issue of evidence of ownership after notice C had been served. This did not go to the validity of the notice, but to the existence of evidence to support it (para 58). Accordingly, notice D was to be regarded as having been served on 21 June 2003, the date of service of notice C (para 59).
[24]
The judge rejected the council’s submission that, by serving successive notices, the claimant had impliedly withdrawn the earlier notices. There is nothing in the correspondence to suggest that any of the four notices was withdrawn (para 66).
[25]
The judge disagreed with the commentary in the Encyclopaedia of Planning Law and Practice: ‘there is no deemed confirmation or rejection if the authority fail to comply within the time limit, but the duty to respond would be enforceable by
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application for judicial review’. At para 70, he said that he did not consider that a failure by an authority to act as required by the 1990 Act ‘alters the deeming confirmation mechanism in favour of the claimant. The nine-month period would remain unaltered’.
[26]
In the result, the judge held that, since notice A was valid, the nine months’ ‘relevant period’ stated in s 143(3)(a) of the 1990 Act expired on 28 December 2003. If he was wrong to hold that the subsequent notices amended notice A, he would also hold that notice B was a valid notice and that the relevant nine months’ period expired on 6 February 2004. In either event, the effect of s 143(2) was that there was a deemed confirmation of the notice.
AMENDMENT OF NOTICES
[27]
The 1990 Act makes no express provision for amending a notice. Nor does a right to amend a notice arise by necessary implication. The statutory provisions work without the need to give the owner the right to amend the purchase notice. In my judgment, there are good reasons why the right to amend the purchase notice does not arise by necessary implication. First, if the owner were able to amend his purchase notice, a question would arise as to whether the amendment took effect from the date of the amendment or whether it related back to the date of the original notice. There are arguments in favour of both solutions. It would have been a matter for Parliament to decide which solution to adopt. Secondly, it is not clear what kind of amendment the owner would be able to make. The judge said that any amendment would be permitted unless the effect of the amendment would be to change the nature of the claim. Such a test for permitting amendments cannot be derived from the language of the statute. Nor is it clear what it means. On any view, its application would give rise to undesirable uncertainty. Thirdly, if the right to amend the purchase notice arises by implication, why should the LPA also not have the right to amend its response notice? Could a LPA which has served a response notice stating that it is willing to comply with the purchase order amend its notice to state that it is not willing to comply with the purchase notice? It seems most unlikely that Parliament would have intended to give the LPA such a right.
[28]
For all these reasons, I consider that there is no right to amend a purchase notice.
CONCURRENT NOTICES
[29]
The judge held that there is nothing in the 1990 Act to restrict the owner to one notice at a time. Mr Kingston QC submits that the judge was wrong about this. He says that the 1990 Act provides an elaborate scheme for the service of a purchase notice and response notice. Section 137 specifies the circumstances in which a purchase notice may be served. Section 137(2) provides that the owner may serve on the council ‘a purchase notice’. Section 139(1) provides that the council on whom a purchase notice is served shall serve a response notice. There is nothing here to suggest that Parliament envisaged that more than one notice should be extant at any one time. Section 143(2) and (3) also envisage the service of a single purchase notice. Mr Kingston places particular reliance on s 143(5) which contains specific provision for a further purchase notice in the circumstances there identified. If it were open to an owner to serve more than one concurrent notice, it would have been unnecessary to provide that the owner may serve a further replacement notice in the circumstances specified in s 143(5). This subsection assumes that, where a purchase notice has been treated as
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cancelled after a quashing under Pt XII, the only remedy available to the owner is to serve a further purchase notice. If there were a general power to serve more than one notice, there would be no need to provide that where a notice is quashed, a further notice may be served in its place. Mr Kingston submits that there is no basis for an argument that an owner should be able to shower purchase notices on a LPA in the hope that one will slip through unnoticed and thereby lead to its deemed confirmation.
[30]
I cannot accept Mr Kingston’s submissions on this point. It seems to me that, if s 143(5) is left out of account, there is nothing in the language of ss 137, 139 and 143 which clearly indicates that an owner may not serve more than one purchase notice. The critical provision is s 137(2) which merely provides that, where the statutory conditions are satisfied, the owner may serve ‘a notice’. On its face, that does not appear to prevent an owner from serving more than one notice. It does not say that an owner may only serve one notice. In the absence of an express provision (and there is none), the statute should only be construed as having that effect if it is necessary to do so. Mr Kingston submits that s 143(5) necessarily implies that it was intended that the owner may only serve one notice. In my view, he places too much weight on this provision. It does not necessarily follow from s 143(5) that there is no general power to serve more than one notice. Arguments based on redundancy rarely carry much weight. As Lord Hoffmann said in Walker (Inspector of Taxes) v Centaur Clothes Group Ltd [2000] 2 All ER 589 at 595, [2000] 1 WLR 799 at 805: ‘I seldom think that an argument from redundancy carries great weight, even in a Finance Act. It is not unusual for Parliament to say expressly what the courts would have inferred anyway.’
[31]
The spectre of an owner showering a LPA with a series of notices in the hope that one will slip through unnoticed is somewhat unreal. The facts of the present case are unusual. An owner is unlikely to serve more than one notice unless the LPA raises an issue as to its validity. Where that occurs, the owner may be persuaded that his first notice is invalid and serve a fresh notice which he clearly intends should replace the first notice. On the other hand, he may consider that the LPA is wrong, but decide that the safe course to adopt is to continue to maintain that his first notice is valid, serving a second notice in case he is wrong. I can see nothing in the statute which indicates that an owner cannot serve the second notice without prejudice to his contention that the first notice is valid.
[32]
For these reasons, I agree with the judge that an owner can serve more than one purchase notice. The real question that arises on this appeal is: what is the effect of the service of more than one notice?
THE EFFECT OF SERVICE OF SEQUENTIAL NOTICES
[33]
This question must be considered in the light of the conclusion that I have already reached that there is no provision in the 1990 Act enabling an owner to amend a purchase notice. The question whether, having served notice A, an owner impliedly withdraws that notice if he subsequently serves notice B depends on the circumstances in which and the terms on which he serves notice B. If he merely serves notice B without any reference to notice A, he will ordinarily be taken to have impliedly withdrawn notice A. If he does so in response to an objection to the validity of notice A by the LPA, the inference is irresistible that, by serving notice B without more, the owner is withdrawing notice A. On the other hand, if he states that he is serving notice B without prejudice to his contention that notice A is valid and that he will continue to rely
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on notice A until it has been adjudged to be invalid, then he is making it clear that he is not withdrawing notice A. The question whether there has been an implied withdrawal of notice A by the service of notice B must be determined objectively on the basis of what the owner says and does, and not on the basis of what he thinks.
WAS THERE AN IMPLIED WITHDRAWAL IN THIS CASE?
[34]
The judge dealt with this issue very briefly at para 66 of his judgment: see [24], above. I cannot agree with him. Each of the notices served after notice A purported to be a fresh notice. Each bore a different date (except notice D). Each differed from its predecessor. The claimant said nothing to indicate that he was reserving his rights in relation to notice A or any of the notices that he was purporting to amend. Thus, his letter dated 6 May 2003, under cover of which he sent notice B, merely said that he enclosed a further copy of ‘the Purchase Notice’ as he had noticed a typographical error on the previous notice. Viewed objectively, this was a request to the LPA to deal with notice B: notice A could be ignored. Similarly with regard to notice C. This notice was served in response to Mr Jones’s letter of 18 June advising the claimant that notice A was invalid in three respects. The claimant might have responded to this letter in a number of ways. He might have met Mr Jones’s points by providing the information by letter, on the basis that a fresh notice was not required. He might have ignored the Mr Jones’s ‘advice’ (but sensibly chose not to do so). He might have served notice C without prejudice to his contention that notice B was a valid notice. Or he might have acted as he did, by meeting Mr Jones’s points in a fresh notice C. In my view, it is clear that by serving a fresh notice without reserving his position in relation to notice B, he must be taken to have withdrawn notice B. His letter dated 21 June simply said: ‘Further to your letter of the 18th June, please find enclosed my Purchase Notice.’ The position with regard to notice D was the same. By serving notice D in the way that he did, the claimant must be taken to have withdrawn notice C.
[35]
It follows that the only extant notice was notice D. The appeal must, therefore, be allowed. But the judge made some important statements about the deemed confirmation provisions in s 143(2) which need to be considered.
DEEMED CONFIRMATION
[36]
The judge held that, if a valid notice (which he held notices A, B and C to be) is not sent to the FSS pursuant to s 139(4), there is nevertheless a deemed confirmation at the end of the ‘relevant period’ (nine months from the date of service of the purchase notice).
[37]
There are at least two reasons why a LPA may fail to send a purchase notice to the FSS. It may simply overlook the matter. Or it may take the view (as in this case) that the notice is invalid and that for that reason it should not send the notice to the FSS. At para 69 of his judgment, the judge expressed some views about the advice given in para 21 of Circular 13/83: ‘The Council should consider the validity of a notice; an invalid notice should not be transmitted to the Secretary of State.’ I do not find it necessary to comment on what he said on this point.
[38]
But I respectfully disagree with his conclusion that, where a notice is not sent to the FSS, there is a deemed confirmation at the end of the relevant period. In my view, it is impossible to spell this out of the statute. The deemed confirmation provision appears in s 143(2) and nowhere else. The scheme of the
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statute is that, where the LPA proposes to serve a response notice that it is not willing to comply with the purchase notice, it must first send to the FSS a copy of the purchase notice and the proposed response notice (s 139(4)). Sections 140–143 contain detailed provisions as to the powers and duties of the FSS where a copy of the purchase notice is sent under s 139(4). He must consider whether to confirm the purchase notice or to take other action under s 141 in respect of it (s 140(1)). The deemed confirmation provision in s 143(2) is clearly premised on the basis that s 139(4) has been operated by the LPA. In my view, it has no application in a case where s 139(4) has not been operated and the FSS has not received the purchase notice.
[39]
The judge was, therefore, wrong to say that, if the LPA does not send the purchase to the FSS in time to enable the FSS to respond within the relevant period, there is a deemed confirmation. The editors of the Encyclopaedia of Planning Law and Practice are right when they say (P137.13): ‘There is no deemed confirmation or rejection if the authority fail to comply within the time limit, but the duty to respond would be enforceable by application for judicial review.’
[40]
The judge said that judicial review was an inadequate remedy for an owner whose purchase notice is ultimately held by the court to be invalid. This is because by the time the court decides the issue in judicial review proceedings, it is likely that the prescribed period of 12 months from the date of refusal of planning permission will have expired and it will be too late for the owner to make his claim. Even if that is the consequence, it does not justify an impossible reading of the statute. But where objection is taken by the LPA to the validity of a notice, the owner has a choice. He is not obliged to take his stand on the notice to which objection has been taken. He can serve a fresh notice meeting the LPA’s points, if necessary reserving his right to contend that the earlier notice is valid. If he decides to take his stand on the notice to which objection is taken, then he takes a chance that the LPA may not refer it to the FSS and it may ultimately be held to be invalid.
[41]
Even if that happens, as Mr Kingston points out, there remain two remedies available to the owner. He may apply to the FSS for an extension of the prescribed period of 12 months. Paragraph 4 of Circular No 13/83 states that the FSS ‘is normally prepared to grant an extension of time where the service of a notice is delayed for good reasons’. If an extension of time is refused, the owner can apply for planning permission again, thereby setting a new timetable.
CONCLUSION
[42]
For the reasons that I have given, I would allow this appeal.
JACOB LJ.
[43]
I agree.
LATHAM LJ.
[44]
I also agree.
Appeal allowed.
Vanessa Higgins Barrister.